125 9 161MB
English Pages 147 [146] Year 2023
For 2024 Exam
BEST SELLER
ENGLISH Section II (Domain Specific Subject) Strictly ar per the Latest Examination Pattern issued by NTA
The ONLY book you need to Ace CUET (UG)
1
2
3
4
Valuable Exam Insights
100% Exam Readiness
Extensive Practice
Concept Clarity
With Latest Solved Paper 2023
With 10 Solved Sample Question Papers
With 650+ NCERT - based MCQs
With 450+ Explanations & Smart Answer Keys
(i)
3rd EDITION
ISBN SYLLABUS COVERED
YEAR 2023-24 “9789357288057”
CUET (UG) CERTIFICATE OF COMMON UNIVERSITY ENTRANCE TEST
PUBLISHED BY
C OPYRIG HT
RESERVED BY THE PUBLISHERS
All rights reserved. No part of this book may be reproduced, stored in a retrieval system, or transmitted, in any form or by any means, without written permission from the publishers. The author and publisher will gladly receive information enabling them to rectify any error or omission in subsequent editions.
OSWAAL BOOKS & LEARNING PVT. LTD. 1/11, Sahitya Kunj, M.G. Road, Agra - 282002, (UP) India
1010, Cambourne Business Centre Cambridge, Cambridgeshire CB 236DP, United kingdom
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DI SC L A IMER
This book is published by Oswaal Books and Learning Pvt Ltd (“Publisher”) and is intended solely for educational use, to enable students to practice for examinations/tests and reference. The contents of this book primarily comprise a collection of questions that have been sourced from previous examination papers. Any practice questions and/or notes included by the Publisher are formulated by placing reliance on previous question papers and are in keeping with the format/pattern/ guidelines applicable to such papers. The Publisher expressly disclaims any liability for the use of, or references to, any terms or terminology in the book, which may not be considered appropriate or may be considered offensive, in light of societal changes. Further, the contents of this book, including references to any persons, corporations, brands, political parties, incidents, historical events and/or terminology within the book, if any, are not intended to be offensive, and/or to hurt, insult or defame any person (whether living or dead), entity, gender, caste, religion, race, etc. and any interpretation to this effect is unintended and purely incidental. While we try to keep our publications as updated and accurate as possible, human error may creep in. We expressly disclaim liability for errors and/or omissions in the content, if any, and further disclaim any liability for any loss or damages in connection with the use of the book and reference to its contents”.
Kindle( Edition ii )
Preface National Testing Agency (NTA) has been established in November 2017 under the Societies Registration Act (1860) by the Ministry of Education as a premier, specialist, autonomous, and self-sustained testing organization to conduct entrance examinations for admission/fellowship in higher educational institutions. The Common University Entrance Test (CUET (UG) - 2022) is being introduced for admission into all UG Programmes in all Central Universities for the academic session 2023 under the Ministry of Education, (MoE). The Common University Entrance Test (CUET) will provide a common platform and equal opportunities to candidates across the country, especially those from rural and other remote areas, and help establish a better connection with the Universities. A single examination will enable the Candidates to cover a wide outreach and be part of the admissions process to various Central Universities. CUET – UG Computer Based Test (CBT) for the Central Universities is to be conducted by the National Testing Agency (NTA). The curriculum for CUET is based on the National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) syllabus for class 12 only. CUET scores are mandatorily required while admitting students to undergraduate courses in 44 central universities. A merit list will be prepared by participating Universities/organizations. Universities may conduct their individual counselling on the basis of the scorecard of CUET (UG)-2023 provided by NTA.
A few benefits of studying from Oswaal Sample Question Papers • • • •
Valuable Exam Insights With Latest Solved Papers 2023 100% Exam Readiness With 10 Solved Sample Question Papers Extensive Practice With 650+ Practice MCQs Concept Clarity With 450+ Explanations & Smart Answer Keys
Our Heartfelt Gratitude! Finally, we would like to thank our authors, editors, and reviewers. Special thanks to our students who send us suggestions and constantly help improve our books. We promise to always strive towards ‘Making Learning Simple’ for all of you. Wish you all Happy Learning!
( iii )
-Team Oswaal Books
Books Expert Tips(UG) to Crack Oswaal BooksOswaal Expert Tips to Crack CUET in the First A empt CUET (UG) in the First Attempt
Excited about your UG but unsure if you will get admission to your preferred university? In a major announcement by the chairman of the University Grants Commission, the Naonal Tesng Agency will be conducng the Common Universies Entrance Test (CUET (UG) 2022) for undergraduate programs in Central Universies for the upcoming academic session. However, the UGC Chairperson also stated that CUET (UG) will not just be limited to admissions to Central Universies. Many prominent private universies have indicated that they would also like to adopt a common entrance exam for undergraduate admissions and take admissions on the basis of CUET (UG) scores. This makes CUET (UG) a very important examinaon in itself and hence it becomes mandatory to be aware of the ps & tricks that could help you ace the exam on the first a empt.
The first step is to understand The pa ern of the examinaon. CUET includes three secons, secon 1 includes queson based on languages, secon 2 includes 27 domain-based subjects and secon 3 includes General Test. The syllabus of the upcoming Common University Entrance Test, CUET 2022, will be completely based on the syllabus of class 12 th . No queson will be asked from class 11th syllabus.
While preparing for the exam, it is i m p o r t a n t t o i d e n f y t h e important topics and pracce important quesons from those t o p i c s . P r a c c e i m p o r t a n t q u e s o n s t h r o u g h O s w a a l Q u e so n B a n k a n d S a m p l e Q u e s o n P a p e r s , L i s n g topics also helps in idenfying the weak areas that need special effort and me. The aspirants can start preparing to focus on the areas that they consider to be tough, followed by the ones that are their strengths.
Make a habit of preparing notes f ro m t h e b e g i n n i n g o f t h e preparaon. It will not only help in making the study systemac but also make the revision of the syllabus easy even when you might have limited me to revise.
Collecng and preparing from the appropriate study material cannot be ignored as irrelevant. The books chosen by the aspirants to study from should be on the lines of the current syllabus and the ones that could help you with swi revision before the examinaon.
Make sure to revise as much as possible. The revision will help the aspirants in keeping the concepts fresh in their minds unl the day of the final examinaons. They may refer to a few good pracce quesons and concise revision notes to achieve their desired results.
Devote a sufficient amount of me to all the secons of the examinaons. This requires a wellmade plan and an honest adherence to the said plan. Priorize the most important topics or the topics that the aspirants are not familiar with to be able to master them in me.
With this said, an important queson that is gaining ground amongst students who will be appearing for this exam is if they should take coaching to get themselves ready for the exams. The answer is a simple no, the exam will simply not require any coaching as it is completely based on the Class 12th syllabus which will be quite fresh in students' minds as they will be just out of school. All they need is a good revision and pracce of quesons from Oswaal Queson Bank and Sample Queson Papers for CUET (UG) preparaons.
( iv )
Contents l Oswaal Books Expert Tips to Crack CUET (UG) in the First Attempt
iv - iv
l Latest Solved Paper, 2023 (24th May 2023)
3 - 10
l Latest Syllabus
vi - vi
l CUET Solved Paper, 2022 (19th July 2022 Slot-1, 10th August 2022 Slot-1, 17th August 2022 Slot-1, 18th August 2022 Slot-1)
11 - 44
l CUET Solved Paper 2021 (23rd Sep. 2021–Slot 1 & 2 UIQP02)
45 - 47
Sample Question Papers l l l l l l l l l l
1 - 6 7 - 11 12 - 16 17 - 21 22 - 26 27 - 32 33 - 38 39 - 45 46 - 51 52 - 56
Sample Question Paper - 1 Sample Question Paper - 2 Sample Question Paper - 3 Sample Question Paper - 4 Sample Question Paper - 5 Sample Question Paper - 6 Sample Question Paper - 7 Sample Question Paper - 8 Sample Question Paper - 9 Sample Question Paper - 10
Solutions l l l l l l l l l l
57 - 59 60 - 62 63 - 65 66 - 68 69 - 70 71 - 74 75 - 77 78 - 81 82 - 84 85 - 87
Sample Question Paper - 1 Sample Question Paper - 2 Sample Question Paper - 3 Sample Question Paper - 4 Sample Question Paper - 5 Sample Question Paper - 6 Sample Question Paper - 7 Sample Question Paper - 8 Sample Question Paper - 9 Sample Question Paper - 10
(v)
Latest Syllabus English Language
SECTION Section IA Languages (13 Languages)
Code
Name
101
English
Questions from the Language Section will be from the following topics but are not limited to: 1. Reading Comprehension: There will be three types of passages (maximum 300-350 words): i. Factual ii. Narrative iii. Literary 2. Verbal Ability 3. Rearranging the parts 4. Choosing the correct word 5. Synonyms and Antonyms 6. Vocabulary
( vi )
( vii )
Be mindful. Be grateful. Be positive. Be true. Be kind Three things that make you special
Three people you are grateful for and why
Three simple things you are grateful for
A challenging experience that made you stronger
Three ways to inject gratitude into a current challenge
Describe the last time you did something nice for someone
A fear you have overcome
Three activities you enjoy most and why
What made you smile today?
Three things you love about your family
What is your favorite place, and why?
Three things you love most about yourself
The last time you were overcome with joy
A risk you are grateful you took and why
Three everyday items you are grateful for
Three songs that bring you joy
What skill do you have that you are grateful for and why?
One luxury you are thankful for
Describe a rejection you are grateful for
Three things about your body you are grateful for
What are you most grateful for in your daily life?
Three things you are grateful for about where you live
Three items in your home you are grateful for
Say thank you to someone
Something in nature you are grateful for
A person in your past you are grateful for
Something at school you’re grateful for
Describe the last time you laughed so hard you cried
What is your proudest accomplishment?
Three things you want to manifest
( viii )
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GUJARAT
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Patel Book, 9898184248, 9824386112, 9825900335, Zaveri Agency, 9979897312, 9979890330, Hardik Book Agency, (ISC) 079-24110043, 9904659821 Samir Book Stall, Bhavnagar (ISC) 9586305305 Collegian Book Corner, 9925501981 Goutam Book Sellers, 9081790813
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Mahavir Stationers, 9429474177 College Store, (ISC) NO CALL 02637-258642, 9825099121
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Umakant Book Sellers & Stationer, 9624920709
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Shopping Point, 9824108663
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Babu Ram Pradeep Kumar, 9813214692
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TRICHY
Aman Book Stall, (0495) 2721282,
MADHYA PRADESH
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Pustak Bhawan, ( E & C ), 8982150100
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(1)
0808
VIJAYAWADA
Contd... UTTARAKHAND
GORAKHPUR
Central Book House, 9935454590, Friends & Co., 9450277154, Dinesh book depot, 9125818274, Friends & Co., 9450277154
DEHRADUN
Inder Book Agencies, 9634045280, Amar Book Depot , 8130491477, Goyal Book Store, 9897318047, New National Book House, 9897830283/9720590054
JHANSI
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KANPUR
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UTTAR PRADESH
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AGRA
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MAWANA
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KOLKATA
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RENUKOOT
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VARANASI
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Ideal Book Depot, (0121) 4059252, 9837066307
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Om Stationers, 7007326732
Entrance & Competition Distributors PATNA
BIHAR
CUTTAK
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Metro Books Corner, 9431647013, Alka Book Agency, 9835655005, Vikas Book Depot, 9504780402
BHUBANESHWAR
M/s Pragnya, 9437943777
CHATTISGARH KORBA
Kitab Ghar, 9425226528, Shri Ramdev Traders, 9981761797
PUNJAB JALANDHAR
Cheap Book Store, 9872223458, 9878258592
DELHI
RAJASTHAN
DELHI
Singhania Book & Stationer, 9212028238, Radhey Book depot, 9818314141, The KOTA Book Shop, 9310262701, Mittal Books, 9899037390, Lov Dev & Sons, 9999353491
Vardhman Book Depot, 9571365020, Raj Traders, 9309232829
NEW DELHI
Anupam Sales, 9560504617, A ONE BOOKS, 8800497047
Goyal Book Distributors, 9414782130
JAIPUR
HARYANA AMBALA
BOKARO
UTTAR PRADESH
Bharat Book Depot, 7988455354
AGRA
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JHARKHAND
ALIGARH
New Vimal Books, 9997398868
Bokaro Student Friends Pvt. Ltd, 7360021503
ALLAHABAD
Mehrotra Book Agency, (532) 2266865, 9415636890
MADHYA PRADESH
GORAKHPUR
Central Book House, 9935454590
INDORE
Bhaiya Industries, 9109120101
KANPUR
Raj Book Dist, 9235616506
CHHINDWARA
Pustak Bhawan, 9827255997
LUCKNOW
Azad Book Depot PVT LTD, 7317000250, Rama Book Depot(Retail), 7355078254 Ashirwad Book Depot , 9235501197, Book Sadan, 8318643277, Book.com , 7458922755, Sheetla Book Agency, 9235832418
MAHARASHTRA
PRAYAGRAJ
Format Center, 9335115561, Garg Brothers Trading & Services Pvt. Ltd., 7388100499
Laxmi Pustakalay and Stationers, (0712) 2727354
PUNE
Pragati Book Centre, 9850039311
MUMBAI
New Student Agencies LLP, 7045065799
ODISHA BARIPADA
UTTAR PRADESH DEHRADUN
Inder Book Agancies, 9634045280
WEST BENGAL KOLKATA
Trimurti Book World, 9437034735
(2)
Bijay Pustak Bhandar Pvt. Ltd., 8961260603, Saha Book House, 9674827254 United Book House, 9831344622, Techno World, 9830168159
0808
NAGPUR
CUET Question Paper - 2023 NATIONAL TESTING AGENCY 24th May, 2023
English
[This includes Questions pertaining to Domain Specific Subject only]
SOLVED Time Allowed : 45 Mins.
Maximum Marks : 200
General Instructions: 1. The test is of 45 Minutes duration. 2. The test contains 50 questions out of which 40 question needs to be attempted. 3. Marking Scheme of the test: a. Correct answer or the most appropriate answer: Five marks (+5). b. Any incorrect option marked will be given minus one mark (-1). c. Unanswered/Marked for Review will be given 100 marks (0). Explanation: Decisive is a synonym for crucial. Determining or having the power to determine an outcome. Hint - The article 'A' can only be followed by ‘decisive’ all other options will be preceded by 'An'
1. Read
the passage and answer the question that follows:
The phrase “team building exercises” may be new
but the reality is not. Its origin goes back at least as far as the medieval tournaments. These provided knights with military training and the opportunity to make reputations. Individual jousting and hand-to hand combat came first. Then there were team events. In these, a group of knights fought against another group. These teams often stayed together and fought side-by-side in real battle. Team games today, such as football, baseball, cricket and hockey, are the distant descendants of such medieval tournaments.
A crucial
event in the movement from being a group to becoming a team can be the team building exercise. This can be based upon either (1) a substitute team task (for example, a business case study or a few days of outdoor activities) or (2) a real task (for example, going away for a weekend to plan company strategy).
There are pros and cons to both approaches. The
advantage of a substitute task type of event is that success or failure is not of paramount importance. Nor are there any technological or professional challenges to meet, so that people can concentrate on the essential issue of learning as to how to work more effectively together as a team.
Choose the correct meaning of the word ‘Crucial’ from the options given : (1) decisive (2) essential (3) insignificant (4) immature
Ans. Option (1) is correct
2. Choose the option that is the Antonym of the word ‘Descendent’: (1) grandchildren (3) ancestor
(2) heir (4) children
Ans. Option (3) is correct Explanation: Ancestor means 'from whom one has descended ' the opposite being descendent meaning 'from a particular ancestor’
3. Match the task given in List - I with the appropriate example given in List - II List - I
List - II
(A)
substitute team task
(I)
eg. a few days of outdoor activities
(B)
knights did military trainings
(II)
eg. plan company strategy
(C)
team events of group of knights
(III) eg. individual Jousting
(D) real task
(IV) eg. real battle
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (1) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II) (2) (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(II) (3) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV) (4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
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OSWAAL CUET (UG) Sample Question Papers, ENGLISH
Ans. Option (1) is correct Explanation: Individual jousting-refers to -A medieval sporting contest in which two opponents on horseback, typically knights, fight with lances:
4. According
to the passage, the reality of ‘teambuilding exercise’ is that, it is: (1) advanced (2) new (3) ancient (4) modern
Ans. Option (3) is correct Explanation: Team building activity is not new. It has its origins going back to the medieval tournaments; its an ancient technique
5. According
to the passage, a group of knights fought against another group in: (A) cricket (B) hockey (C) baseball (D) real battle
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (1) (C) Only (3) (A) Only
(2) (D) Only (4) (B) Only
Ans. Option (2) is correct Explanation: Team games today such as football,baseball,cricket and hockey are the distant descendants of such medieval tournaments .These teams stayed together and fought side by side in real battle.
6. Read
the passage and answer the question that follows:
When things aren't going well, we tend to think we
are lacking in something. But if we want to change our current situation, we should first part with something, before we look to acquire something else. This is a fundamental tenet of simple living.
Discard
your attachments. Let go of your assumptions. Reduce your possessions. Living simply is also about discarding your physical and mental burdens.
It's amazing how refreshed we can feel after a good
cry. Crying clears out whatever weight you were carrying in your heart. You feel energized to try again. I have always felt that the Buddhist concept of the ‘enlightened mind’ - the Japanese characters for which depict a “clean mind” - refers to this ‘refreshment’ of the spirit.
The act
of discarding, of detaching from mental and physical burdens, from the baggage that weighs us down, is extremely difficult. Sometimes it can be accompanied by real pain, as when we part with someone who is dear to us.
But if you want to improve the way things are, if
you want to live with a light heart, you must start by discarding. The moment you detach, a new abundance will flow into your life.
What is the fundamental tenet of ‘simple living ?’ (1) (2) (3) (4)
Realising that we are lacking in something. Feeling energised everyday. The act of letting go. The act of attaining enlightenment.
Ans. Option (3) is correct Explanation: The act of letting go refers to feeling light by having discarded our attachments, letting go of our assumptions, reducing poseessions, discarding our physical and mental burdens. Living simply.
7. Which among the following give a similar context
to the word “part” as used in the fourth paragraph of the passage? (1) She is an essential part of the school. (2) Difficulties are part and parcel of life. (3) I am going to take part in the competition. (4) We must part our ways from the evil.
Ans. Option (4) is correct Explanation: 'Part' here refers to separation
8. Which
among the following provide similar meaning to the word “discard” as used in paragraph 5 of the passage? (A) Detach (B) Let go (C) Derived (D) Disadvantage (E) Disadvantage
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (1) (A) and (B) only (2) (A) and (C) only (3) (C) and (D) only (4) (D) and (E) only
Ans. Option (1) is correct Explanation: Discard here refers to detachment ,or getting rid of unnecessary things so that new abundance flows in life.
9. What can be the appropriate title for the passage? (1) (2) (3) (4)
Detachment - A key to simple living Enlightenment Burdens are a part of life Japanese way to improve
Ans. Option (1) is correct Explanation: Detachment a key to simple living is an appropriate title as it sums up the key points in the passage
Solved Paper - 2023 10. According to the passage, what are the qualities of
‘a good cry’? (A) A good cry makes you feel light and energized. (B) A good cry is a way of detaching and discarding the unpleasant. (C) A good cry is a sign of weakness. (D) A good cry makes you realise that crying is a waste of time. (E) A good cry is an illusion in the path of attaining enlightenment.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (1) (A) and (B) Only (2) (B) and (C) Only (3) (C) and (D) Only (4) (A) and (E) Only
Ans. Option (1) is correct Explanation: Its amazing when an individual feels refreshed after a good cry therefore a good cry is necessary.
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put a stop to that jolly life; for one day my master pressed me to a big jump which I knew I could not do. I did my best but fell short, and fell. My master was thrown away and he broke his arm, and I badly sprained one of my legs.
I was in a hospital for weeks, and then was sold to a gentleman who wanted a quiet riding- horse. He was a kind master, and used me well; and I was in his service for a good number of years. Now that I am old, he gives me very little work, and I spend most of my time grazing in the pasture, and leading a quiet, contented life.
The word “nibbled” as used in the passage means to ________ . (1) take huge bites of food (2) take small bites of food (3) gulp away quickly (4) keep eating for a long duration of time
Ans. Option (2) is correct Explanation: Gently bite at (a part of the body), especially amorously or nervously
11. The Autobiography of a Horse. Now that I am getting old and stiff in the joints, I
12. Arrange the steps taken by the trainer in the correct
But that
Choose the correct answer from the options given
like to meditate, while grazing in the pasture, on my foal days. I think that was the happiest part of my life. I had no work to do, and could run about after my mother, who was a fine white Arab mare, without any restraint. Most of my time was spent in the fields, where I nibbled the tender grass and capered about, while my mother was steadily grazing. could not last for ever. When I was old enough, the trainer came and, to my great indignation, fastened a long rope to my head, and then began driving me round and round in circles with his long whip. I was frightened and angry, but he went on till I was so tired that I could scarcely stand. However, my mother told me that it was no use of my resisting, and to make a long story short, I was at last thoroughly trained as a riding-horse.
I was bought by a young officer as a polo pony,
and I soon got to love the game. He was a kind master, and a good rider; and in the end I would do anything for him, and was quite proud when his side won the game. But he got into debt, and had to sell me; and I was bought by a gentleman and a lady who kept a buggy, and was trained to run in shafts. I hated this work; and I am afraid I gave a lot of trouble, by going as slowly as I could. When my driver gave me the whip, I started shying at any object on the road. And then I found that jibbing was a very good trick, and whenever I was whipped, I simply backed. My owner got disgusted at last, and sold me to a gentleman who was fond of hunting.
I was
delighted to get back to saddle-work; and thoroughly enjoyed my gallops with the hounds after the jackal in open country. But an accident
order : (A) Made him move in circles. (B) Fastened him with a long rope. (C) Got him tired to an extent that he couldn't stand. (D) Made him angry and frightened. (E) Made him take his mother’s advice and not resist. below : (1) (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) (2) (D), (B), (A), (E), (C) (3) (B), (C), (D), (A), (E) (4) (B), (A), (D), (C), (E)
Ans. Option (4) is correct Explanation: Captures the correct sequence of events as narrated in the passage.
13. Find
out a word from the passage which means “very happy’: (1) steadily (2) tired (3) disgusted (4) delighted
Ans. Option (4) is correct Explanation: Delighted is a synonym for very happy in the given context.
14. Being old, the horse A. B. C. D. E.
likes to meditate enjoys being the polo horse hunts with the hounds is unsatisfied with his life grazes in the pastures
OSWAAL CUET (UG) Sample Question Papers, ENGLISH
6
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (1) (B) and (C) Only (3) (A) and (E) Only
(2) (D) and (E) Only (4) (A) and (D) Only
Ans. Option (3) is correct Explanation: Likes to meditate and grazes in the pastures
15. Which trick, out of the options given below, was NOT a part of the horse's coping mechanism when he was whipped? (1) Jibbing (2) Galloping (3) Shying (4) Backing up Ans. Option (2) is correct Explanation: Galloping means to run very fast which does not fit as far as coping mechanism is concerned.
16. Choose
the correct word/ expression from the options given, which means ‘from the very beginning’ (1) ad infinitum (2) ab initio (3) a prior (4) ad hoc
Ans. Option (2) is correct Explanation: 'ab initio' refers to from the very beginning
17. Choose the correct option to change the following sentence into Direct Speech.
The
supervisor confirmed that the office memo was an original one. (1) The supervisor said, “the office memo is an original one.” (2) The supervisor said, “the office order was an original one.” (3) The supervisor said, “the office order has been an original one.” (4) The supervisor said, “the office order is an original one.”
Ans. Option (1) is correct Explanation: We are talking about memo here, not about an office order.
18. Choose
the correct Exclamatory form of the following Assertive sentence from the options given :
It is a lovely weather. (1) (2) (3) (4)
What a lovely weather it is ! Weather seems to be lovely ! How weather is lovely ! Good weather is lovely !
Ans. Option (1) is correct Explanation: Exclamatory sentences typically start with the exclamatory pronoun What.
19. Complete
the sentence with the most suitable Phrasal Verb:
“The management decided to _____ all upcoming meetings in the welfare of the employees.” (1) Call up (2) Call on (3) Call off (4) Call in
Ans. Option (3) is correct Explanation: call off is the correct response as this was the decision taken by the management
20. Choose the correct determiner to fill in the blank of the following sentence :
I have _________ trust worthy friends. (1) each (3) any
(2) every (4) many
Ans. Option (4) is correct Explanation: many here showcases that many ie 'alot of ' trust worthy friends are there
21. Choose
the most suitable question tag for the following phrase.
“They will solve it’. (1) (2) (3) (4)
can't they ? will they ? can they ? won't they ?
Ans. Option (4) is correct Explanation: 'won't they' is a suitable response as we are asking about them (a number of people- plural) If the sentence is an affirmative sentence then the tag will be negative
22. Choose the correct pair of homonym to complete the following sentences :
Mosquitoes are the _______ of malaria. Choose a _________ according to your qualification. (1) (2) (3) (4)
career, carier cereer, career carriers, career cerrier, ceerier
Ans. Option (3) is correct Explanation: 'Carrier' is something that acts as an agent to spread or carry something in this case we are talking about disease and career is what we decide to do in future
23. Choose
the correct ANTONYM of the word ‘Dwindle” from the options given : (1) Diminish (2) Shrink (3) Decrease (4) Increase
Ans. Option (4) is correct Explanation: Dwindle means to decrease and the antonym for dwindle is to increase.
Solved Paper - 2023 24. Choose the sentence in which the Adverb has been incorrectly used : (1) He usually visits his parents on Fridays. (2) Never I'll see her again. (3) Neither of us is going for the marriage. (4) The child cried loudly.
below: (1) (A), (C), (B), (D), (E) (2) (D) (C) (A) (E), (B) (3) (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) (4) (D), (C), (A), (B), (E)
Explanation: Starting with the names and the time
30. Choose the sentence that is in “Active construction”: (1) (2) (3) (4)
Explanation: except word is added in order to show that a particular thing would exist
27. Choose
the correct Exclamatory form of the following Assertive sentence from the options given below : How fine Radhika is a dancer ! What Radhika is a dancer ! What a fine dancer Radhika is ! Good Radhika is a dancer !
Ans. Option (3) is correct
Explanation: Interrogative sentence with an active construction
31. Fill in the blanks given in List - I with an appropriate article from List - II. List - I
given in List - II List - I Word
List - II Antonym (I)
alien
List - II
(A)
What is _______ issue that you are facing with your neighbour ?
(I)
a
(B)
What ______ brilliant plan!
(II)
an
(C)
When do your prefer having _____ breakfast?
(II)
the
Explanation: Correct exclamatory statement
28. Match the words in List - I with the ANTONYMS
Why did Sheela jump over the wall ? The mouse was first seen by Kaustav. A new shopping complex was built. Look! the page was torn by Sudip.
Ans. Option (1) is correct
Radhika is a very fine dancer.
evident
repel
Ans. Option (2) is correct
except fruit salad only fruit salad than fruit salad or fruit salad
(A)
(IV)
Choose the correct answer from the options given
the sentence with the most suitable
Ans. Option (1) is correct
(1) (2) (3) (4)
native
the following parts of a sentence into a meaningful sentence. A. who would have thought B. the Human Genome Project would complete its mapping of 99% of the human genome. C. discovered the double helix structure of DNA in 1953 D. when James Watson and Francis Grick E. that 50 years later
She will choose nothing else for breakfast ________. (1) (2) (3) (4)
(D)
29. Arrange
Ans. Option (3) is correct
option :
cruelty
Explanation: Evident is an antonym of obscure, compassion is opposite of being cruel,lure is opposite to repel and native is an antonym of alien.
below : (1) (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) (2) (A), and (C) Only (3) (A), (B) and (E) Only (4) (B), (C) and (D) Only
26. Complete
obscure
(III)
Ans. Option (3) is correct
Choose the correct answer from the options given
Explanation: Utility means usefulness,showing efficacy
(II)
lure
below : (1) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II) (2) (A)-(I)(B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV) (3) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I) (4) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
Explanation: The second statement is wrong the options that contain the correct Synonym of the word “Utility” A. utility, usefulness B. efficacy, benefit C. utility, uselessness D. uselessness, efficacy E. of use, worth
compassion
Choose the correct answer from the options given
Ans. Option (2) is correct
25. Choose
(B) (C)
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OSWAAL CUET (UG) Sample Question Papers, ENGLISH
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(D) Where can one find such (IV) zero article (no ________ innovative article) item ?
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (1) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II) (2) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV) (3) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV) (4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
34. Choose
the appropriate word to replace the underlined word for formal correspondence in the given sentence :
Kindly forward the emails quickly.
Ans. Option (1) is correct Explanation: (A) - 'The' is correct because it is taking about a particular issue so 'the' (definite article will be used) (B) - A-since it is an indefinite article. (C) - No article is required in the statement. (D) - An-before a vowel innovative.
32. Change
the underlined part of the ‘-ing clause’ with ‘adjective + to infinitive.’
Namita wasn’t ashamed of committing the mistake. (1) (2) (3) (4)
Namita was not ashamed to make the mistake. Namita had no shame to commit the mistake. Namita wasn’t ashamed to commit the mistake. Namita wasn’t ashamed that she had to commit the mistake.
Ans. Option (3) is correct Explanation: The sentence will remain the same only 'ing clause' is ashamed of committing will be changed - Ashamed+to+(infinitive) commit
33. Fill in the blanks given in List - I with an appropriate Modal given in List - II. List - I
desired. (C) - will - used to make predictions. (D) - must - used for something that needs to be done
List - II
(A)
______ you close the window (I) please ?
ought
(B)
I ______ to return home by now.
will
(C)
The news anchor has confirmed that today ________be the coldest (III) day in Delhi.
(II)
must
(D) One _____ follow the law of the (IV) could land.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (1) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-IV) (2) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III) (3) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV) (4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
Ans. Option (2) is correct Explanation: (A) - could-aksing with respect. (B) - ought - when talking about things that are
A. B. C. D.
Promptly Superfast Request Elapsed
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (1) (A) only (3) (C) only
(2) (D) only (4) (B) only
Ans. Option (1) is correct Explanation: promptly
35. Choose the correct Idiom from the options given to complete the sentence :
The
boy _______ to the pleadings of his well wishers. (1) turned a new leaf (2) cut loose (3) became black and blue (4) tuned a deaf ear
Ans. Option (4) is correct Explanation: Turned deaf ear refers to not listening
36. Identify
the part of the sentence which has an error. (A) It is always (B) a good idea (C) to open the light (D) after sunset (E) No error
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (1) (A) Only (3) (C) Only
(2) (B) Only (4) (E) Only
Ans. Option (3) is correct Explanation: C part has error we never open the light we switch on the light
37. Complete
the sentence with the most suitable Phrasal Verb given :
My father had _______ a new hardware factory for my brother. (1) set off (3) set up
Ans. Option (3) is correct
(2) set in (4) set out
Solved Paper - 2023 Explanation: Set up is correct as one sets up the factory or unit
38. Choose
the correct preposition from the options given to complete the following sentence.
My niece is doing a Master's degree ______Mumbai. (1) around (3) on
(2) at (4) in
Ans. Option (4) is correct Explanation: 'In' would placed because we are talking about a place
39. Rearrange
the following parts of a sentence labelled as PQRS to make a meaningful sentence. P - proud of my new Q - after them very well R - family and looked S - I'was very (1) PRSQ (2) PQRS (3) SPRQ (4) SRQP
Ans. Option (3) is correct Explanation: SPRQ is correct
40. Choose the correct Indirect form of the following sentence from the given options :
She said, “How can I do such a work !” (1) (2) (3) (4)
She asked that how she can do such a work. She said that she can do such a work. She wondered how she could do such a work. She wondered if how she could do such a work.
correct order
43. Which of the following ‘Cs” are characteristics of a formal letter. (A) Courteous (B) Complaining (C) Concise (D) Confidential (E) Cognizant
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (1) (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) (2) (B) and (C) Only (3) (A) and (C) Only (4) (B) and (D) Only
Ans. Option (3) is correct Explanation: Courteous and concise are correct
44. Choose
the option that has a grammatically incorrect part of the sentence. If there is no error then choose the option ‘No error’. (A) I cannot have (B) this soup (C) as there is (D) too many salt (E) No error
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (1) (E) Only (3) (A) Only
Explanation: Wherein we see how she wondered how could she do such a work
41. Choose the correct option that best expresses the meaning of the Latin phrase, “ALTER EGO". (1) Egoistic person (2) Altering ego (3) Other self (4) Selfis
Ans. Option (2) is correct
45. Match the Idioms given in List - I with the correct meanings given in List - IL List - I
Explanation: other self can be refered to as alter ego the part of the sentence which has an
error: (A) Shy people find it (B) Difficult to begin a conversation (C) With complete strangers.
Choose the correct answer from the options given (2) (B) (4) No error
Ans. Option (4) is correct Explanation: All the statements are placed in a
List - II
(A) Blood, sweat and tears
(I)
(B) To bell the cat
(II) To undertake difficult mission at great personal risk
(C) Below the belt
(III) Gruelling hard work
(D) In black and white
(IV) Unfairly
Ans. Option (3) is correct
below : (1) (A) (3) (C)
(2) (D) Only (4) (C) Only
Explanation: Too many salt is wrong
Ans. Option (3) is correct
42. Identify
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In simple terms
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (1) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I) (2) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV) (3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(III) (4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
Ans. Option (1) is correct Explanation: (A) - Blood, sweat and tears means it is a very hard thing to do and requires a lot of efforts. (B) - To bell the cat - to be brave enough to do
10
OSWAAL CUET (UG) Sample Question Papers, ENGLISH something that will be good for a group that you are part of, but is dangerous or difficult. (C) - below the belt means not fair; marked by injustice or partiality or deception. (D) - In black and white means a situation in which it is easy to understand what is right and wrong
46. Rearrange
the following phrases to get a meaningful sentence :
of most / now a days / the attitude / parents is / different (1) Now a day parents is different the attitude of most (2) Now a days the attitude of most parents is different? (3) The attitude is different of most parents now a days (4) The most parents the attitude is different now a days
Ans. Option (2) is correct Explanation: We start by stating the time period
47. Choose the correct passive form of the following sentence from the given options. Please come soon. (1) You are to come soon. (2) Come soon, please. (3) You are requested to come soon. (4) You request me to come.
Ans. Option (3) is correct Explanation: passive form
48. Match
the words in List - I with the Synonyms given in List - II.
List - I (A) authentic (B) contrary (C) adjacent (D) brittle
(I) (II) (III) (IV)
List - II adjoining genuine fragile dissimilar
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (1) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV) (2) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III) (3) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II) (4) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
Ans. Option (2) is correct Explanation: Words that have same or similar meanings
49. Choose
the suitable Modal to complete the following sentence :
_______________ I eat some chocolates ? (1) Ought to (3) Might
(2) Can (4) Would
Ans. Option (2) is correct Explanation: 'can' is used to politely ask 50. Choose the correct preposition to fill in the blank :
The Rajdhani Express is due to arrive __________ platform No. 3. (1) in (3) into
(2) on (4) at
Ans. Option (4) is correct Explanation: 'at' is a preposition that is used for time and place
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OSWAAL CUET (UG) Sample Question Papers, English
Choose the correct answer from the options given below (A) (C), (D), (B), (A) (B) (B), (A), (D), (C) (C) (C), (B), (D), (A) (D) (B), (A), (C), (D) Sol. Option (B) is the correct answer.
20. Rearrange these parts to write a meaningful sentence (A) that made it possible for humans (B) Laika the space dog-would always be remembered (C) to take a giant leap in the field of space science (D) for her short adventure in space Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (A) (B), (D), (A), (C) (B) (B), (C), (A), (D) (C) (B), (D), (C), (A) (D) (B), (A), (C), (D) Sol. Option (A) is the correct answer.
21. Rearrange these parts to write a meaningful sentence (A) shares with monkeys (B) when any suspicious object is sighted (C) the Indian-giant squirrel (D) The habit of scolding barking and raising a general alarm Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (A) (C), (A), (B), (D) (B) (B), (C), (A), (D) (C) (C), (B), (A), (D) (D) (C), (A), (D), (B) Sol. Option (D) is the correct answer.
22. Re-arrange these parts to write a meaningful sentence : (A) is a very precious aspect (B) of human nature and it needs (C) safety to maintain its sublime quality (D) a peaceful mind Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (A) (D), (A), (B), (C) (B) (D), (B), (C), (A) (C) (C), (D), (B), (A) (D) (C), (B), (D), (A) Sol. Option (A) is the correct answer.
23. From the given options, choose the pair of words which carry the same relationship as allegory : Fable (A) Church : Chapel
(B) Monastry : Hospital
(C) Park : House
(D) Politics : Army
Sol. Option (A) is the correct answer.
24. From the given options, choose the pair of words which carry the same relationship as Extempore : Rehearse (A) Beautiful : Serene
(B) Fatigue : Exhaustion
(C) Battle: Peace
(D) Infant : Child
Sol. Option (C) is the correct answer.
25. From the given options choose the pair of words that carry the same relationship as :
Morality
(A) Sin
Virtue
:
Profane
(B) Law
:
Chaos
(C) Day
:
Night
(D) Story
:
Novel
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (A) (B) only
(B) (A) only
(C) (C) only
(D) (D) only
Sol. Option (A) is the correct answer.
26. From the given options choose the pair of words that carry the same relationship as Anonymous
:
Famous
(A) Man
:
Machine
(B) Earth
:
Soil
(C) Rose
:
Jasmine
(D) Pistol
:
Gun
Sol. Option (A) is the correct answer.
27. From the given option choose the word which will correctly substitute or replace; A short stay with a moral (A) Novel
(B) Poetry
(C) Drama
(D) Parable
Sol. Option (D) is the correct answer.
28. 'Status - quo' is the one word substitution for (A) Unchanged position (B) Excellent recitation (C) Unbreakable metal (D) Wailing list Sol. Option (A) is the correct answer.
29. From the options given below, choose the one which will correctly replace or substitute : Home sickness (A) Nostalgia (B) Optimism (C) Criticism. (D) Pessimism Sol. Option (A) is the correct answer.
30. From the options given below, choose the word which will replace : Unacceptably horrible (A) Horrendous (B) Honourable (C) Hourly (D) Hamper Sol. Option (A) is the correct answer.
20
OSWAAL CUET (UG) Sample Question Papers, English
44. Mach List - I with List - II
Sol. Option (B) is the correct answer.
Synonym
Word (II) danger
47. Match List - I with List - II.
(A) Lenient
(I)
(B) Ornamental
(III) (IV) untimely
(A) Sacred
(I)
(C) Premature
(V)
(B) Precious
(II) Reputation
(D) Peril
(VII) (VIII)moderate
(C) Fame
(III) Holy
(D) Appreciate
(IV) Valuable
(VI) decorative
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
Synonym
Word Admire
(A) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(B) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
(A) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
(C) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
(B) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
(D) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
(C) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
Sol. Option (C) is the correct answer.
45. Match List - I with List - II. Word Word
Synonym Over statement
(D) (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D)- (III) Sol. Option (C) is the correct answer.
48. Find a word from the option given below which means the same as 'Exciting' :
(A) General
(I)
(B) Hyperbole
(II) Usual
(A) unbound
(B) labour
(C) Impeccable
(III) Fair
(C) thrilling
(D) cordial
(D) Just
(IV) Faultless
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (A) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV) (B) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
Sol. Option (C) is the correct answer.
49. The word which means the same an 'denizens' is (A) Locker-room
(B) Paintings
(C) Inhabitants
(D) soil
(C) (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)
Sol. Option (C) is the correct answer.
(D) (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)
50. The word from the given options, which is most
Sol. Option (B) is the correct answer.
46. Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning as : Confront (A) Tolerate
(B) Face
(C) Injure
(D) Ridicule
nearly same in meaning to the word given: COVETOUS (A) Greedy
(B) Evaporate
(C) Season
(D) Audacious weather
Sol. Option (A) is the correct answer.
❑❑
CUET Question Paper 2022 NATIONAL TESTING AGENCY(NTA) 10th August 2022—Slot-1
English [This Includes Questions Pertaining to Language only]
SOLVED . Time Allowed: 45 Mins.
Maximum Marks: 200
General Instructions: 1.
The test is of 45 minute duration.
2.
The test contains 50 Questions out of which 40 questions need to be attempted.
3.
Marking Scheme of the test: a. Correct answer or the most appropriate answer: Five marks (+5) b. Any incorrect option marked will be given minus one mark (–1). c. Unanswered/Marked for Review will be given no mark (0).
Passage: The next most important source of indoor air pollution is allergens. House dust mites (HDM) are very small insects not visible to the naked eye and the commonest source of allergy in the house. They are ubiquitous and thrive in a warm and moist atmosphere. They breed very fast and are very difficult to eradicate. Modern houses present ample breeding spaces for them in the form of carpets, curtains, mattresses, pillows, etc. Exposure to HDM can be prevented by the frequent washing of linen and by encasing the mattresses and pillows in a non-permeable cover. Pets form an important part of life for some of us. But they can add plenty of allergens to our indoor atmosphere. Cats are notorious for doing this. Fine particles from feline fur can remain stuck to the upholstery and carpets for a long time even after the removal of the animal and lead to the worsening of asthma and skin allergies. Fortunately, owning to religious and social customs, cats are not popular pets in India. Dogs, however, are quite popular and can be as troublesome. Pets should be kept out of the bedroom and groomed frequently. To remove the fur particles, one has to use vacuum cleaners as the ordinary broom and mop are not effective. Moulds, fungi and several other microorganisms thrive in damp condition and can lead to allergies as well as infection. Humidifiers the air-conditioning plants provide an ideal environment for certain types of bacteria and have led.to major outbreaks of pneumonia. His important to regularly clean the coolers, air-conditioners and damp areas of the house such as cupboards, lofts, etc., to minimize this risk.
Toxic gases can also pollute the indoor environment. Biomass fuels (wood, cow dung, dried plants) and coal, if burned inside, can lead to serve contamination by carbon monoxide (CO). The poor quality of stoves and other cooking or heating appliances that cause incomplete combustion of LPG can also lead to the emission of CO or nitrogen dioxide. Formaldehyde (a gas) can be released from adhesives that are used for fixing carpets, upholstery and also in making plywood and particle-board.
1. Choose the correct answer from options given below and complete the following sentence. From the passage, we can easily state that home dust mites are very ________. (A) Big insects (B) Are very small but seen with a naked bye (C) Dangerous (D) Are very small and cannot be seen by the naked eye Sol. Option (C) is correct Explanation: Although the word ‘Dangerous’ is not used anywhere in the passage, we can infer it by understanding the passage. Option ‘D’ is also correct but does not fit in the blank grammatically.
2. After reading the passage, what do you think should be the priority of the local administration like the village panchayats and the city municipalities. Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
22
OSWAAL CUET (UG) Sample Question Papers, English (A) Address causes of pollution to protect the local communities (B) Work with the US of A on global climate action plan (C) Request the Nordic countries to prevent their lumberjacks from cutting tress (D) Turn a blind eye towards pollution
Sol. Option (A) is correct Explanation: There is no mention of the US or any Nordic countries in the passage and it talks about the environment around us, which is the responsibility of village panchayats and city municipalities.
3. Choose the correct answer from options given below and complete the following sentence. Indoor air pollution is critically harmful for us because ________ . (A) There is No indoor air pollution (B) We are never indoor.
Explanation: Fish, rainfall, and despondency have no connection with indoor air pollution. Moreover, the answer lies in the first line of the last paragraph.
6. Match List-I with List-II A.
List-I (Part-A) Poor combustion of LPG does
B.
Wood, cow dung, dried plants
C.
Adorable pet dogs can Regular cleaning of our
D.
List-II (Part-B) Are a source of biomass fuels II. Houses can prevent the growth of harmful fungi III. Cause many allergies IV. Lead to the toxic emission of carbon monoxide I.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(C) The doors in our houses are useless against intruders
(A) A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I
(D) We spend over 90% of our times in our home or in office
(C) A - IV, B - I, C - III, D - II
Sol. Option (D) is correct Explanation: The passage talks about allergens that are present in our immediate environment that is our home or offices where we spend most of our time.
4. Choose the correct answer from options given below and complete the following sentence. The passage tells us that Molds, fungi and several other harmful microorganism thrive in ________ .
(B) A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I (D) A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III Sol. Option (C) is correct Explanation: Poor combustion of LPG does lead to the toxic emission of carbon monoxide. Wood, cow dung, dried plants are source of biomass fuels. Adorable pet dogs can cause many allergies. Regular cleaning of our houses can prevent the growth of harmful fungi.
Passage:
(A) Well ventilated condominiums
Read the following passage and answer the Questions.
(B) Well designed chapels
The art of living is learnt easily by those who are positive and optimistic. From humble and simple people to great leaders in History, Science or Literature, we can learn a lot about the art of living by having a. peep into their lives. The daily routines of these greats not only reveal their different, may be unique lifestyles but help us learn certain habits and practices they followed. Here are some: read, enjoy and follow in their footsteps as it suits you.
(C) Well maintained canteen (D) Damp and moist condition Sol. Option (D) is correct Explanation: The first line of the third paragraph justifies the answer.
5. Choose the correct answer from options given below and complete the following sentence. From the passage we can assume that, indoor air pollution is caused by the toxicity of ________. (A) Fresh water fish (B) Biomass fuels that is conventional fuel in rural areas (C) Despondency and gloom (D) Incessant rainfall Sol. Option (B) is correct
A private workplace always helps. Jane Austen asked that a certain squeaky hinge should never be oiled so that she always had a warming whenever someone was approaching the room where she wrote. William Faulkner, lacking a lock on his study door detached the doorknob and brought it into the room with him. Mark Twain’s family knew better than to breach his study door, they would blow a horn to draw him out. Graham Green went even further renting a secret office; only his wife knew the address and the
OSWAAL CUET (UG) Sample Question Papers, English
24
(C) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
worried Dr Raman. He never believed that agreeable words ever saved lives. He did not think it was any of his business to provide comforting lies when as a matter of course nature would tell them the truth in few hours. However, when he glimpsed the faintest sign of hope, he rolled up his sleeve and stepped into the arena: it might be hours or days, but he never withdrew till he wrested the prize from Yama's hands. Today, standing over a bed, the doctor felt that he himself needed someone to tell him soothing lies. He mopped his brow with his kerchief and sat down in the chair beside the bed. On the bed lay his dearest friend in the world: Gopal. They had known each other for forty years now, starting with their kindergarten days. They could not, of course, meet as much as they wanted, each being wrapped in his own family and profession. Occasionally, on a Sunday, Gopal would walk into the consulting room and wait patiently in a corner till the doctor was free. And then they would dine together, see a picture and talk of each other's life and activities. It was a classic friendship, which endured untouched times, circumstances and activities.
(D) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
13. Choose the correct answer from options given
Explanation: The answer is in the first paragraph. Different routines have made these people great and creative thinkers, otherwise if they had followed the same routine or lifestyle, they would not have achieved what they had.
12. Match list I with list II A.
List I Art of living emanates
I.
B.
Mark Twain
II.
C.
To work without interruption
III.
D.
Sunday
IV.
List II is often an 'at home day' From a positive attitude Disliked his family breaking the privacy of his study room We need a private work place
Choose the correct answer from the option given below : (A) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (B) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
Sol. Option (D) is correct Explanation: Art of living emanates from a positive attitude. Mark Twain disliked his family for breaking the privacy of his study room. To work without interruption, we need a private workplace. Sunday is often an ‘at home day’.
Passage: Read the following passage and answer the Questions. People came to him when the patient was on his fast legs. Dr Raman often burst out, ‘why couldn't you have come a day earlier?’ The reason was obviousvisiting fee twenty-five rupees. More than that, people liked to shirk the fact that the time had come to call in Dr Raman; for them there was something ominous in the very association. As a result, when the big man came on the scene it was always a quick decision one way or another. There was no scope or time for any kind of wavering or whitewashing. Long years of practice of this kind had bred in the doctor a certain curt truthfulness; for that very reason his opinion was valued; he was not a mere doctor expressing an opinion but a judge pronouncing a verdict The patient's life hung on his words. This never unduly
below and complete the following sentence. The patients did not come to Dr. Raman earlier because they (A) Were ignorant and careless (B) Found the doctor's foe too difficult to be paid (C) Used their home remedies to treat themselves (D) Did not have proper means of transport Sol. Option (B) is correct Explanation: The reason was obvious – visiting fee of twenty-five rupees.
14. Choose the correct answer from options given below. ‘There no scope or time for any kind of warning or whitewashing’ means that ________ (A) The doctor hid the real condition of the patient from the relation (B) The doctor did not have time to attend to the patient (C) The people who brought the patient were in a hurry (D) The doctor could not lie about patient's condition Sol. Option (D) is correct Explanation: The doctor never tried to hide the real condition of the patients by giving them false hope.
26
OSWAAL CUET (UG) Sample Question Papers, English Explanation: Prefix ‘Octo-‘is familiar to everyone as it represents the number eight. Thus, the meaning of the sentence can be inferred from the word itself.
21. From the given options, select the word that correctly substitutes the expression-
Explanation: Affluent means wealthy, therefore, its opposite could be poor only. Still, if we do not know the meaning of the given word, we can remove those options whose opposites we know.
26. From the given options, select the word that is
“Event that serves as an introduction”
opposite in meaning to -
(A) Epilogue
(B) Prologue
Excruciating
(C) Post-Script
(D) Summary
(A) Mild
(B) Noisy
(C) Modern
(D) Sophisticated
Sol. Option (B) is correct Explanation: The prefix ‘pro’ means earlier in sequence. Therefore ‘prologue’ serves the meaning of the given expression.
22. From the given options, select the word that will correctly substitutes the expression “Happening once in a hundred years”
Sol. Option (A) is correct Explanation: Try to find out the meaning of the word ‘Excruciating’ which is unbearable. But if the meaning is not known then look for the known words and remove the wrong options.
27. From the given options, choose the one which is
(A) Bicentennial
(B) Centennial
similar in meaning to -
(C) Annual
(D) Biennial
Aversion
Sol. Option (B) is correct Explanation: Bi means ‘two’, ‘twice’ or ‘double’. Annual means ‘yearly. So, the options carrying these prefixes can be eliminated. Finally, ‘Centennial’ is left which will be the correct answer. Further, ‘Cent-‘means ‘hundred’.
23. From the given options, select the word that is opposite in meaning to -
(A) Aggression
(B) Assertion
(C) Dislike
(D) Impudence
Sol. Option (C) is correct Explanation: If the meaning is not known, then look for the known words and remove the wrong options.
28. From the given options, choose the one which is similar in meaning toDiligent
Conceal (A) Reveal
(B) Describe
(C) Narrate
(D) Explain
Sol. Option (A) is correct Explanation: After reading the options, one can figure out that options ‘B’, ‘C’, ‘D’ have almost the same meaning, so the left-out option will be the exact answer.
24. From the given options, select the word that is opposite in meaning to -
(A) Intelligent
(B) Energetic
(C) Modest
(D) Industrious
Sol. Option (D) is correct Explanation: The options intelligent, energetic, and modest do not match with the word ‘diligent’, so eliminate them. Only option left is ‘industrious’ which would be the correct answer.
29. From the options given below, select the word which means the same as –
Culmination (A) Completion
(B) Climax
‘Tie’
(C) Conclusion
(D) Beginning
(A) Drawer
(B) Tether
(C) Drive
(D) Type
Sol. Option (D) is correct Explanation: The words completion, climax, and conclusion are connected to ‘end’, so all these options altogether cannot be the answer.
25. From the given options, select the word that is opposite in meaning to - Affluent (A) Poor
(B) Infamous
(C) Ordinary
(D) Backward
Sol. Option (A) is correct
Sol. Option (B) is correct Explanation: Step 1- Read all the options and remove the known wrong words. Step 2- Tethering is a word that means tying or fastening. It is a common word that is known to the current generation as they often do 'Bluetooth tethering’ by connecting their device to the PC/ laptop.
OSWAAL CUET (UG) Sample Question Papers, English
28
37. Rearrange the given phrases to make a meaningful sentence
(B) To harm someone physically (C) To blind someone
a. civilization in the real sense of term b. but in the deliberate
(D) To deceive someone Sol. Option (D) is correct
c. consists not in the multiplication d. and voluntary reduction of wants Choose the correct answer from the options given (A) a, b, c, d
(B) b, a, c, d
(C) a, c, b, d
(D) c, d, b, a
Sol. Option (C) is correct Explanation: The correct sequence is – Civilization in the real sense of the term consists not in the multiplication but in the deliberate and voluntary reduction of wants. Step 1- Option ‘A’ is wrong because points ‘a’ and ‘b’ do not represent any meaningful sentence. Step 2- Option ‘B’ is wrong because the sentence beginning with ‘but’ is pointless. Step 3- Option ‘D’ is wrong because the verb ‘consists’ is without any subject.
38. Rearrange the given phrases to make a meaningful sentence
Explanation: Do not go by the literal meaning. Rather, try to figure out the essence hidden in the expression. Eg. The thief ran away from the prison after throwing dust in the jailer’s eyes.
40. From the given options, choose the one that rightly explains the expression- ‘To call a spade a spade” (A) Speak directly and frankly (B) Speak rudely and disrespectfully (C) Speak softly (D) Speak diplomatically Sol. Option (A) is correct Explanation: If the literal meaning is seen then also it implies that speak clearly and frankly on face. To say something the way it is. Eg. It is always better to call a spade a spade rather than spoiling the children.
41. From the given options, choose the one that
a.
for making very candid announcements
b.
although he is reputed
rightly explains the given expression- ‘To shed crocodile tears’
c.
his statements today
(A) To weep profusely
d.
were very ambiguous
(B) To grieve and feel low
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(C) To grieve insincerely
(A) a, d, b, c
(B) c, d, b, a
(D) To weep for crocodiles
(C) c, a, b, d
(D) c, b, d, a
Sol. Option (B) is correct Explanation: The correct sequence is – His statements today were very ambiguous although he is reputed for making very candid announcements. Step 1- Option ‘A’ is wrong because if we put together all the parts, they are senseless. Moreover, the subject of where is not mentioned if we put point ‘d’ after point ‘a’. Step 2- Option ‘C’ is wrong because the sentence made by putting all the points together presents a conflicting situation. Step 3- Option ‘D’ is wrong because the phrase “although he is reputed” follows the clause “for making very candid announcements” which is absent here.
39. From the given options, choose the one that rightly explains the expression – “To throw dust in one’s eyes’ (A) To show fearsome
Sol. Option (C) is correct Explanation: Expression ‘Crocodile tears’ is used to show pretending behaviour. Eg. I have never been one to shed crocodile tears over the loss of our shipbuilding industry.
42. From the given options, choose the one that rightly explains the given expression- ‘Take one for a ride’ (A) To force someone for a ride (B) To take someone for a desire (C) To try to trick someone (D) To offer a lift to someone Sol. Option (C) is correct Explanation: Take out the unwanted or unsuitable meanings to reach the right answer. The idiom is used to show that someone is being cheated or deceived. I think we have been taken for a ride.
CUET Question Paper 2022 NATIONAL TESTING AGENCY 17th August 2022—Slot-1 [This Includes Questions Pertaining to Language only]
English SOLVED . Time Allowed: 45 Mins.
Maximum Marks: 200
General Instructions: 1.
The test is of 45 minute duration.
2.
The test contains 50 Questions out of which 40 questions need to be attempted.
3.
Marking Scheme of the test: a. Correct answer or the most appropriate answer: Five marks (+5) b. Any incorrect option marked will be given minus one mark (–1). c. Unanswered/Marked for Review will be given no mark (0).
Choose the correct answer:
Passage: Read the following passage to answer question. The first form did not really see very much of Erica because she did not have lessons with them. But even if they met her in a passage or in the art room or gym they looked the other way. In the common-room at night Erica had a miserable time. Not one of the second form girls also would have anything to do with her. Loud remarks about sneaks and cowards were made in her hearing. They only person who ever threw her a word at all was the bad-tempered Margery Fenworthy. Erica did not like Margery any more than the other girls did but she was so grateful to be spoken to even, by the surly first former that she almost began to like the girl. ‘I’ m surprised you speak to Erica, Margery,’ said Pat, when she had heard Margery ask to borrow Erica’s stationery said Margery, in her usual rude way. ‘You’re none of you friendly to me, and I know what it is to have people being beastly to you.’ ‘But Margery, it’s your own fault, ‘you don’t give me a chance,” Oh, Margery, what a fib’! Cried Pat. ‘It’s you who never give us a chance to be decent to you. You scowl and glower and frown all the time.’ If you’re going to pick me to pieces you can save yourself the trouble’. Said Margery, fiercely. ‘I don’t care tuppence for any of you. And if I want to speak to that wretched Erica, I shall who cares for a pack of silly girls, and a crowd of stuckup teachers? I don’t’ Pat was astonished. What a strange girl Margery was! Did she really want a chance of being friends with the others? Was she terribly shy? What was behind that funny manner of hers? Pat talked about it with her twin.’ Margery is always making enemies she said. ’I spoke to her today about it
and she accused us of never giving her a chance! Do you think we ought to do something about it?’
1. Match List-I with List-II A
List I (Part A) Loud remarks about sneaks and
B
Margery Fenworthy
C
“Oh Margery…it’s you who never give us a change to be decent” The Girl with a twin sister named
D
List II (Part B) in the presence of Erica. II. was very unpopular III. said Pat I.
IV.
said Pat
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (A) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III (B) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (C) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I (D) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II Sol. Option (B) is correct Explanation: Spot the areas in the passage for List I (Part A) and then match them with sentence fragments from List II (Part B). A-I : In the common room at night, Erica had a miserable time. Not one of the second-form girls also would have anything to do with her. Loud remarks about sneaks and cowards were made in her hearing.
32
OSWAAL CUET (UG) Sample Question Papers, English (B) She used to mind her own business (C) She was unfriendly, rude and selfish (D) Erica was away on a holiday in Paris with her family
Sol. Option (A) is correct Explanation: The first form did not really see very much of Erica because she did not have lessons with them.
Passage: Read the following passage to answer Question. She took me by the hand walked me into the lobby like a five-year old child. Didn’t she know I was pushing 15? This was the third home Nancy was placing me in-in a span of eight months! I guess she felt a little sorry for me. The bright fluorescence lights threatened to burn my skin as I walked towards a bouncy-looking lady with curly hair and a sweetlysmiling man. They called themselves Allie and Alex. Cute, I thought. After they exchanged the usual reams of paperwork, it was off in their Chevy Suburban to get situated into another new home. This time, there were no other foster children and nor another biological child. Anything could happen. Over the next few weeks, Allie, Alex and I fell into quite a nice routine. She’d make pancakes for breakfast, or he’d fry up some sausage and eggs. They sang a lot, even danced as they cooked. They must have just bought the house because, most weekends, We were either painting a living room butter yellow or staining a coffee table mocha brown. I kept wating for the other shoe to drop. When would they start threatening a loss of pancakes if I didn’t mow the lawn? When would the sausage and eggs be replaced with unidentifiable slosh because he didn’t feel like cooking in the morning? But, It never happened. They kept cooking, singing, and dancing like a couple of happy fools. It was a Saturday afternoon when Allie decided it was time to paint the brick fireplace white. As we crawled closer to the dirty old firepit, we pulled out the petrified wood and noticed a teeny-tiny treasure box! We looked at each other in wonder and excitement. She actually said,” I wonder if the leprechauns left it!”
7. Over the next few weeks who all fell into a nice comfortable routine? select the correct option (A) Nancy (B) Allie and Nancy (C) The narrator, Allie and Alex (D) Only Alex Sol. Option (C) is correct
Explanation: Over the next few weeks, Allie, Alex and I fell into quite a nice routine.
8. “She took me by the hand and walked me into the lobby…”. The ‘me’ refers to the: (A) Narrator and the protagonist of the passage (B) Narrator and the footballer (C) A film star and a villain (D) The headmaster of an English School Sol. Option (A) is correct Explanation: This passage is written in I person.
9. On a Sunday afternoon, what did Allie decide to do? Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (A) Crawl towards the dirty old garage (B) Paint the brick firepit white (C) Sing a song (D) Write a letter to the President Sol. Option (B) is correct Explanation: It was a Saturday afternoon when Allie decided it was time to paint the brick fireplace white.
10. It appears from the passage that over the next few days the narrator and the other two characters were: Select the correct option (A) Relaxed and comfortable (B) Stressed and anxious (C) Depressed and gloomy (D) Plotting revenge Sol. Option (A) is correct Explanation: Over the next few weeks, Allie, Alex and I fell into quite a nice routine. She’d make pancakes for breakfast, or he’d fry up some sausage and eggs. They sang a lot, and even danced as they cooked. They must have just bought the house because, most weekends, we were either painting a living room butter yellow or staining a coffee table mocha brown. This routine tells that they were relaxed and comfortable. There was no rush or discomfort in their lives.
34
OSWAAL CUET (UG) Sample Question Papers, English (B) Students with limited intelligence in modern Egypt (C) Nobility with limited power in medieval Egypt (D) Pharaohs with limited connection with the gods of Egyptian Gods
Sol. Option (A) is correct Explanation: Many Egyptian workers were serfs. This meant that their freedom was limited.
15. What according to the passage was the reason of ancient Egyptian progress and prosperity. Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (A) The link the Pharaohs claimed they had with the Gods (B) The labour and hard work of the slaves and ordinary men in ancient Egypt (C) The mines and quarries full of germs armed with rockets and missiles and jewels in ancient Egypt. (D) The modern smart Egyptian army Sol. Option (B) is correct Explanation: The Pharaohs may have believed that it was their links with the Gods that kept Egypt going, but really it was the hard work of the ordinary people.
16. From the given passage options, select the one which is true according to the passage. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (A) Pharaoh’s believed that is was their link with the Gods that favoured Egypt (B) The ordinary people worked overtime to destroy Egypt (C) The pharaoh’s did not believe they were connected to the Gods (D) The Pharaoh’s were the hard working salves of ancient Egypt Sol. Option (A) is correct Explanation: The Pharaohs may have believed that it was their links with the Gods that kept Egypt going, but really it was the hard work of the ordinary people.
17. Select the option that is incorrect according to the passage. (A) In the Egypt under the Pharaoh’s, slaves were allowed to own property
(B) Most of the slaves were prisoners captured in the many wars Egypt fought with its neighbours in the NEAR EAST (C) Slaves were well treated in ancient Egypt (D) Slavery was extremely important in ancient Egypt Sol. Option (D) is correct Explanation: Slavery was not very important in ancient Egypt, but it did exist. This is the third line from the passage.
18. Match List I with List II List-I A. Serfs could be B. Registered with the government
C. Public projects
building
D. Harsh punishment
List-II I. Farmers II. Recruited workers during the rainy season III. Bought and sold along with estates where they worked IV. For those who ran away
Choose the correct answer from the options given below (A) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (B) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (C) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV (D) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I Sol. Option (C) is correct Explanation: Spot the areas in the passage for List I and then match them with sentence fragments from List II. A-III: This meant that their freedom was limited. They could be bought and sold along with the estates where they worked. B-I: Farmers had to be registered with the government. C-II: Farmers had to be registered with the government. They have to sell crops at fixed fields lay underwater; many workers were recruited into public building projects. D-IV: Punishment for those who ran away was harsh 19. From the given options select the one that is opposite in meaning to the given words: “ACQUITTED” (A) Promoted (B) Burdened (C) Convicted (D) Development Sol. Option (C) is correct
36
OSWAAL CUET (UG) Sample Question Papers, English Explanation: To be at sixes and sevens is a phrase which means a state of total confusion and disorder.
28. From the given options, select the one that rightly
Explanation: Pugnacious means very eager to start an argument or fight and this is similar to quarrelsome.
32. From the given options choose the one which is
explains the expression:
closest in meaning to
“Once in a blue moon”
‘CLING’
(A) Most regularly
(A) Attach
(B) Detach
(B) Very often
(C) Release
(D) Forward
(C) Very rarely (D) Once in a fortnight Sol. Option (C) is correct Explanation: Once in a blue moon is a phrase which means a very rare occurrence.
29. From the given options, select the one which
Sol. Option (A) is correct Explanation: Cling means to attach with. So A is the right option.
33. From the given options choose the one which is closest to. “Enchanting”
rightly explains the expression:
(A) Witty
(B) Pleasant
‘A wild goose chase’
(C) Comical
(D) Harmful
(A) A Foolish and useless enterprise (B) To hunt wild life (C) A violent chase of criminals (D) To speak harshly Sol. Option (A) is correct Explanation: When there is a search that is completely unsuccessful and a waste of time because the person or thing being searched for does not exist or is somewhere else, it is known as a wild goose chase.
30. From the given option, select the one rightly explains the expression: ‘To burn a hole in the pocket’.
Sol. Option (B) is correct Explanation: Enchanting means very nice or pleasant; attractive. So B is the right option.
34. Choose the word from the option that is closest in meaning to the given word. ‘GIGANTIC’ (A) Miniature
(B) Monstrous
(C) Diligent
(D) Awkward
Sol. Option (B) is correct Explanation: Gigantic is derived from a giant and means very huge. So B is the right option.
35. From the given options, select the one that will
(A) To steal from someone’s pocket
rightly substitute the given expression:
(B) To destroy someone else’s belongings
‘Period of 10 years’
(C) To burn address accidentally
(A) Decade
(B) Fortnight
(D) To spend money very quickly
(C) Annuity
(D) Millennium
Sol. Option (D) is correct Explanation: When money kept in the pocket starts burning the pocket, it is said that one has an urgent urge to spend the money one has.
31. Choose the word from the given options that is closest in meaning to the given word ‘PUGNACIOUS’ (A) Rebellious (B) Amusing (C) Quarrelsome (D) Desirable Sol. Option (C) is correct
Sol. Option (A) is correct Explanation: He managed to make sense of the book even though it was the first time when he read anything on the subject. Explanation: Latin word Deka means ten.
36. From the given options, select the one that rightly substitutes the given expression: ‘One who loves and collects books’. (A) Rockstar (B) Bibliophilie (C) Bellicose (D) Bohemian Sol. Option (B) is correct
38
OSWAAL CUET (UG) Sample Question Papers, English Explanation: It means done by people working together
46. From the given options, select the rightly spelt word: (A) Pnemonia
(B) Pneumonia
(C) Newmonia
(D) Nemonia
Sol. Option (B) is correct Explanation: The mission has provided able service to all the needy people in this area during the last five years.
49. Rearrange the following jumbled group of words to make a meaningful sentence. A. Him to rush to his village immediately
Sol. Option (B) is correct Explanation: It is a type of fever.
47. Rearrange the following jumbled group of words to make a meaningful sentence.
B. An urgent telegram asking C. He has received D. No other message other than
A. Penetrate the biological tissues
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
B. Will produce unprecedented amount
(A) C, D, B, A
(B) B, C, A, D
C. A large scale exchange of nuclear weapons
(C) C, C, A, B
(D) A, B, C, D
D. Of radiation that can Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (A) A, B, D, C
(B) C, D, A, B
(C) C, B, D, A
(D) A, B, C, D
Sol. Option (C) is correct
Sol. Option (A) is correct Explanation: He has received no other message than an urgent telegram asking him to rush to his village immediately.
50. Rearrange the following jumbled group of words to make a meaningful sentence.
Explanation: A large-scale exchange of nuclear weapons will produce an unprecedented amount of radiation that can penetrate the biological tissues.
48. Rearrange the following jumbled group of words to make a meaningful sentence: A. During the last few years. B. People in this area. C. The mission has provided D Able service to all the needy. Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (A) B, D, C, A
(B) C, D, B, A
(C) A, B, D, C
(D) C, B, A, D
A. He managed to make sense B. It was the first time when C. of the book even though D. He read anything on the subject Choose the correct answer the options given below: (A) D, C, A, C
(B) B, A, D, C
(C) A, C, B, D
(D) A, B, C, D
Sol. Option (C) is correct Explanation: He managed to make sense of the book even though it was the first time when he read anything on the subject.
❑❑
CUET Question Paper 2022 NATIONAL TESTING AGENCY 18th August 2022—Slot-1
English [This Includes Questions Pertaining to Language only]
SOLVED. Time Allowed: 45 Mins.
Maximum Marks: 200
General Instructions: 1.
The test is of 45 minute duration.
2.
The test contains 50 Questions out of which 40 questions need to be attempted.
3.
Marking Scheme of the test: a. Correct answer or the most appropriate answer: Five marks (+5) b. Any incorrect option marked will be given minus one mark (–1). c. Unanswered/Marked for Review will be given no mark (0).
Passage: Read carefully the following passage and then answer the questions given below: YEVGRAF IVANOVITCH SHIRYAEV, a small farmer, whose father, a parish priest, now deceased, had received a gift of three hundred acres of land from Madame Kuvshinikov, a general’s widow, was standing in a corner before a copper washing-stand, washing his hands. As usual, his looked anxious and ill-humoured, and his beard was uncombed. “What weather!” he said. “It is not laid upon us. It’s raining again!” He grumbled on, while his family sat waiting at table for him to have finished washing his hands before beginning dinner. Fedosya Semyonova, his wife, his son Pyotr, a student, his eldest daughter Varvaram and three small boys, has been sitting waiting a long time. The boys – Kolka, Vanka and Arhipka – grubby, snubnosed little fellows with chubby faces and tousled hair that wanted cutting, moved their chairs impatiently, while their elders sat without stirring and apparently did not care whether they ate their dinner or waited…
1. From the passage, it may be assumed that the time of the day when the incident is described is: (A) Early morning before the rise of the Sun (B) The Sun had set and it was late evening (C) The Sun is overhead and the day time is near noon lunch time (D) Early evening time for family tea Sol. Option (B) is correct
2. Choose the option which is correct according to the passage. Yevgraf Ivanovitch Shiryaev’s fathers was_____ (A) A farmer and now is on the move (B) A banker earlier and on retirement (C) A farmer earlier and now educated the fellow farmers on scientific farming (D) A parish priest Sol. Option (D) is correct
3. The General’s widow gifted a huge land of 3 hundred acres _______ (A) Y.I Shryaev (B) The late wife of Y.I. Shiryaev (C) To the unborn son of Y.I. Shryaev (D) The parish priest who has died Sol. Option (D) is correct
4. It appears from the passage that the character of Yevgrab Ivanovitch Shiryaev was: (Choose the correct answer from option given below) (A) Very Friendly, jovial and attractive (B) Aristocratic, disdainful and aloof (C) Sad, morose, timid but cunning (D) Grumpy and complaining Sol. Option (D) is correct
5. From the given option choose the one which is correct according to the passage. The family described in the passage is a: (1) (2) (3) (4)
Small time agrarian family Small trader’s family Highly educated scholarly family Aristocratic and noble
Sol. Option (D) is correct
Solved Paper-2022 Choose the correct answer from the option given below : (A) a-IV, b-III, c-I, d-II (B) a-I, b-II, c-III, d-IV (C) a-II, b-III, c-IV, d-I (D) a-IV, b-III, c-II, d-I Sol. Option (B) is correct Passage: Karnad has gone significantly back to Indian tradition and culture to write his plays. He has recreated the rich and dynamic picture of Indian society, culture and its people. He often takes a theme, a historical event of Indian history and present it in a modernized way. Majority of his plays employ narratives of myths, history and folklore to evoke an ancient or pre-modern era in the image of present. He has also adopted the oral tale of the people and present it in myths and folk forms in his plays. Thus, he creates a synthesis between the ancient and the modern to serve his purpose of using the past to illuminate the present. Most of the playwrights in India have either written in such a - 5 -
13. Match List-I with List-II List-I (i)
Indian playwright (b) Oral tales of India are
(c) Karnad’s drama
plays
and
(d) The uncanny ability of Karnad is
a-II, b-IV, c-III, d-I a-III, b-IV, c-I, d-II a-I, b-II, c-III, d-IV a-IV, b-I, c-II, d-III
Sol. Option (C) is correct
Sol. Option (A) is correct
15. From the passage we realize that Kamad explores the following in his themes. (A) Events of Asian History (B) Events of British History (C) Only folklores from Maharashtra and Goa. (D) Indian tradition, culture, milestone historical events and folk tales of our country. Sol. Option (D) is correct
16. From the options, select the one which is true according to the passage:
(C) Karnad promotes gender biased culture.
by
(iii) Given a new interpretation to the historical, mythical and oral tales and stories (iv) His
capability to remake the past in the image of the present
Choose the correct answer from the option given below : (A) (B) (C) (D)
correct according to the passage: (A) Most of the Indian playwrights have failed to bring out the relevance of our past, our culture and tradition to our current or urban life and audience. (B) Most of the playwrights are only concerned with science. (A) Most of the playwrights in India are concerned with the problems of village panchayats. (B) Most of the playwrights in India are illiterate and ignorant.
(B) Karnad tries to justify India’s ignorance and superstitions as just and correct.
(ii)
Wonderfully dramatized Karnad.
14. From the given options, select the option that is
(A) Kamad as a playwright often uses events from Indian history and presents them in a modernized manner that is suitable for the viewers and theatre goers of our times.
List-II
(a) Karnad is an
41
(D) Karnad depicts India as a backward looking gloomy country. Sol. Option (A) is correct
17. Karnad attempts to balance both.. Here, ‘both’ signifies: (Identify the option that is correct according to the passage) (A) Plays and poetry of the world (B) History and freedom struggle of India and South Africa (C) The traditional and the modern (D) War and Peace Sol. Option (C) is correct
18. In the passage, we get to the know that as a great playwright Karnad_______ (Select the option which is correct according to the passage and fill in the blanks) (A) Does not use myths in their entirety but uses them artfully to suit his modern themes that are apt for out times. (B) Loves stories from Irish folktales.
Solved Paper-2022 32. From the given options, select the one which is opposite in meaning to the given word‘Listless (A) Agile (B) Lazy (C) Spiritual (D) Moisture Sol. Option (A) is correct
33. From the given options, select the one which is opposite in meaning to the given Modest (A) Humble (B) Arrogant (C) Exterminate (D) Reserved Sol. Option (B) is correct
34. From the given options, select the one which is opposite in meaning to the given word Arduous (A) Different (B) Liquid (C) Easy (D) Beautiful Sol. Option (C) is correct
35. From the given options, select the Figure of Speech (Poetic Device) used in the expression: A big black bug bit a big black dog (A) Simile (B) Metaphor (C) Alliteration (D) Oxymoron Sol. Option (C) is correct
36. From the given options, select the Figure of Speech (Poetic Device) used in the expression: Dead wings carried like a paper kite (A) Personification (B) Metaphor (C) Simile (D) Pun Sol. Option (C) is correct
37. From the given options, select the Figure of Speech (Poetic Device) used in the expression: The lightning, danced across the sky (A) Oxymoron (B) Personification (C) Simile (D) Pun Sol. Option (B) is correct
38. From the given options, select the Figure of Speech (Poetic Device) used in the expression. The cunning saint cheated the devotees (A) Pun (B) Personification
43
(C) Simile (D) Oxymoron Sol. Option (D) is correct
39. Re-arrange the given jumbled groups of words to make a meaningful sentence (A) The robbers when (B) They were in the lonely place (C) The police came upon (D) Dividing their booty (A) D, B, C, A
(B) B, C, A, D
(C) C, A, B, D (D) D, C, B, A Sol. Option (C) is correct
40. Rearrange the jumbled groups of words to make a meaningful sentence (A) On the tools you had been taught (B) The problem constructured
you
face
become
more
(C) In management as you rise higher (D) And you can’t afford to fall back (A) B, A, C, D
(B) C, A, D, B
(C) C, B, D, A (D) A, B, C, D Sol. Option (C) is correct
41. Rearrange the jumbled groups of words to make a meaningful sentence (A) The spirit of residents (B) Could dampen (C) Nor the subsequent fire (D) Neither the earthquake Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (A) D, B, C, A (B) D, C, B, A (C) A, B, D, C (D) A, D, A, B, E Sol. Option (B) is correct
42. Rearrange the jumbled groups of words to make a meaningful sentence (A) Take interest in the affairs (B) Of the company is not correct (C) Investor does not understand or (D) the presumption that the average Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (A) D, A, C, B
(B) D, C, A, B
(C) D, B, A, C (D) C, A, B, D Sol. Option (B) is correct
43. From the given options select the one which is similar in meaning to the given WARRIOR (A) Soldier (B) Sailor (C) Pirate (D) Spy Sol. Option (A) is correct
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Attention ambitious achievers! Prepare to conquer the CUET(UG) exam with Oswaal360! Unlock the path to success with double the value of your purchase and gain access to: Captivating Video Lectures
Challenging Practice Tests
Realistic Mock Tests
Don't miss out on our upcoming series of Exclusive Mock Tests, designed to boost your confidence and ensure success. Prepare for other competitive exams like NEET, JEE, and more, and pave the way to a bright future.
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