161 66 21MB
English Pages 107 [106] Year 2023
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POLITICAL SCIENCE Section II (Domain Specific Subject) Strictly ar per the Latest Examination Pattern issued by NTA
The ONLY book you need to Ace CUET (UG)
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2
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With 350+ Explanations &
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Paper 2023
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(i)
3rd EDITION
ISBN SYLLABUS COVERED
YEAR 2023-24 “9789357288194”
CUET (UG) CERTIFICATE OF COMMON UNIVERSITY ENTRANCE TEST
PUBLISHED BY
C OPYRIG HT
RESERVED BY THE PUBLISHERS
All rights reserved. No part of this book may be reproduced, stored in a retrieval system, or transmitted, in any form or by any means, without written permission from the publishers. The author and publisher will gladly receive information enabling them to rectify any error or omission in subsequent editions.
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DI SC L A IMER
This book is published by Oswaal Books and Learning Pvt Ltd (“Publisher”) and is intended solely for educational use, to enable students to practice for examinations/tests and reference. The contents of this book primarily comprise a collection of questions that have been sourced from previous examination papers. Any practice questions and/or notes included by the Publisher are formulated by placing reliance on previous question papers and are in keeping with the format/pattern/ guidelines applicable to such papers. The Publisher expressly disclaims any liability for the use of, or references to, any terms or terminology in the book, which may not be considered appropriate or may be considered offensive, in light of societal changes. Further, the contents of this book, including references to any persons, corporations, brands, political parties, incidents, historical events and/or terminology within the book, if any, are not intended to be offensive, and/or to hurt, insult or defame any person (whether living or dead), entity, gender, caste, religion, race, etc. and any interpretation to this effect is unintended and purely incidental. While we try to keep our publications as updated and accurate as possible, human error may creep in. We expressly disclaim liability for errors and/or omissions in the content, if any, and further disclaim any liability for any loss or damages in connection with the use of the book and reference to its contents”.
Kindle ( iiEdition )
Preface National Testing Agency (NTA) has been established in November 2017 under the Societies Registration Act (1860) by the Ministry of Education as a premier, specialist, autonomous, and self-sustained testing organization to conduct entrance examinations for admission/fellowship in higher educational institutions. The Common University Entrance Test (CUET (UG) - 2022) is being introduced for admission into all UG Programmes in all Central Universities for the academic session 2023 under the Ministry of Education, (MoE). The Common University Entrance Test (CUET) will provide a common platform and equal opportunities to candidates across the country, especially those from rural and other remote areas, and help establish a better connection with the Universities. A single examination will enable the Candidates to cover a wide outreach and be part of the admissions process to various Central Universities. CUET – UG Computer Based Test (CBT) for the Central Universities is to be conducted by the National Testing Agency (NTA). The curriculum for CUET is based on the National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) syllabus for class 12 only. CUET scores are mandatorily required while admitting students to undergraduate courses in 44 central universities. A merit list will be prepared by participating Universities/organizations. Universities may conduct their individual counselling on the basis of the scorecard of CUET (UG)-2023 provided by NTA.
A few benefits of studying from Oswaal Sample Question Papers • • • •
100% Exam Readiness With 5 Solved Sample Question Papers Extensive Practice With 550+ NCERT - based MCQs Concept Clarity With 350+ Explanations & Smart Answer Keys Valuable Exam Insights With Latest Solved Papers 2023
Our Heartfelt Gratitude! Finally, we would like to thank our authors, editors, and reviewers. Special thanks to our students who send us suggestions and constantly help improve our books. We promise to always strive towards ‘Making Learning Simple’ for all of you. Wish you all Happy Learning!
( iii )
-Team Oswaal Books
Books Expert Tips(UG) to Crack Oswaal BooksOswaal Expert Tips to Crack CUET in the First A empt CUET (UG) in the First Attempt
Excited about your UG but unsure if you will get admission to your preferred university? In a major announcement by the chairman of the University Grants Commission, the Naonal Tesng Agency will be conducng the Common Universies Entrance Test (CUET (UG) 2022) for undergraduate programs in Central Universies for the upcoming academic session. However, the UGC Chairperson also stated that CUET (UG) will not just be limited to admissions to Central Universies. Many prominent private universies have indicated that they would also like to adopt a common entrance exam for undergraduate admissions and take admissions on the basis of CUET (UG) scores. This makes CUET (UG) a very important examinaon in itself and hence it becomes mandatory to be aware of the ps & tricks that could help you ace the exam on the first a empt.
The first step is to understand The pa ern of the examinaon. CUET includes three secons, secon 1 includes queson based on languages, secon 2 includes 27 domain-based subjects and secon 3 includes General Test. The syllabus of the upcoming Common University Entrance Test, CUET 2022, will be completely based on the syllabus of class 12 th . No queson will be asked from class 11th syllabus.
While preparing for the exam, it is i m p o r t a n t t o i d e n f y t h e important topics and pracce important quesons from those t o p i c s . P r a c c e i m p o r t a n t q u e s o n s t h r o u g h O s w a a l Q u e so n B a n k a n d S a m p l e Q u e s o n P a p e r s , L i s n g topics also helps in idenfying the weak areas that need special effort and me. The aspirants can start preparing to focus on the areas that they consider to be tough, followed by the ones that are their strengths.
Devote a sufficient amount of me to all the secons of the examinaons. This requires a wellmade plan and an honest adherence to the said plan. Priorize the most important topics or the topics that the aspirants are not familiar with to be able to master them in me.
Make a habit of preparing notes f ro m t h e b e g i n n i n g o f t h e preparaon. It will not only help in making the study systemac but also make the revision of the syllabus easy even when you might have limited me to revise.
Collecng and preparing from the appropriate study material cannot be ignored as irrelevant. The books chosen by the aspirants to study from should be on the lines of the current syllabus and the ones that could help you with swi revision before the examinaon.
Make sure to revise as much as possible. The revision will help the aspirants in keeping the concepts fresh in their minds unl the day of the final examinaons. They may refer to a few good pracce quesons and concise revision notes to achieve their desired results.
With this said, an important queson that is gaining ground amongst students who will be appearing for this exam is if they should take coaching to get themselves ready for the exams. The answer is a simple no, the exam will simply not require any coaching as it is completely based on the Class 12th syllabus which will be quite fresh in students' minds as they will be just out of school. All they need is a good revision and pracce of quesons from Oswaal Queson Bank and Sample Queson Papers for CUET (UG) preparaons.
Contents l Oswaal Books Expert Tips to Crack CUET (UG) in the first Attempt
iv - iv
l Latest Syllabus
vii - viii
l Solved Paper 2022 (19th July 2022–Slot 1, 16th July 2022–Slot 2)
13 - 32
l Solved Paper 2023 (28th May 2023)
6 - 12
Sample Question Papers l Sample Question Paper - 1
1 - 4
l Sample Question Paper - 2
5 - 8
l Sample Question Paper - 3
9 - 11
l Sample Question Paper - 4
12 - 14
l Sample Question Paper - 5
15 - 17
l Sample Question Paper - 6
18 - 21
l Sample Question Paper - 7
22 - 24
l Sample Question Paper - 8
25 - 28
l Sample Question Paper - 9
29 - 31
l Sample Question Paper - 10
32 - 34
Solutions l Sample Question Paper - 1
35 - 37
l Sample Question Paper - 2
38 - 41
l Sample Question Paper - 3
42 - 44
l Sample Question Paper - 4
45 - 47
l Sample Question Paper - 5
48 - 49
l Sample Question Paper - 6
50 - 52
l Sample Question Paper - 7
53 - 55
(v)
Contd... l Sample Question Paper - 8
56 - 58
l Sample Question Paper - 9
59 - 61
l Sample Question Paper - 10
62 - 64
( vi )
Latest Syllabus POLITICAL SCIENCE - 323 Note: There will be one Question Paper which will have 50 questions out of which 40 questions need to be attempted. Politics in India Since Independence 1.
The era of One-Party Dominance: First three general elections, nature of Congress dominance at the national level, uneven dominance at the state level, coalitional nature of Congress. Major opposition parties.
2.
Nation-Building and Its Problems: Nehru’s approach to nation-building: Legacy of partition: the challenge of ‘refugee’ resettlement, the Kashmir problem. Organization and reorganization of states; Political conflicts over language.
3.
Politics of Planned Development: Five-year plans, expansion of state sector, and the rise of new economic interests. Famine and suspension of five-year plans. Green revolution and its political fallouts.
4.
India’s External Relations: Nehru’s foreign policy. Sino-Indian war of 1962, Indo-Pak war of 1965 and 1971. India’s nuclear programme and shifting alliances in world politics.
5.
Challenge to and Restoration of Congress System: Political succession after Nehru. Non-Congressism and electoral upset of 1967, Congress split and reconstitution, Congress’ victory in 1971 elections, politics of ‘garibi hatao’.
6.
Crisis of the Constitutional Order: Search for ‘committed’ bureaucracy and judiciary. Navnirman movement in Gujarat and the Bihar movement. Emergency: context, constitutional and extra-constitutional dimensions, resistance to emergency. 1977 elections and the formation of the Janata Party. Rise of civil liberties organizations.
7.
Regional Aspirations and Conflicts: Rise of regional parties. Punjab crisis and the anti-Sikh riots of 1984. The Kashmir situation. Challenges and responses in the North East.
8.
Rise of New Social Movements: Farmers’ movements, Women’s movement, Environment, and Developmentaffected people’s movements. Implementation of Mandal Commission report and its aftermath.
9.
Democratic Upsurge and Coalition Politics: Participatory upsurge in the 1990s. Rise of the JD and the BJP. The increasing role of regional parties and coalition politics. UF and NDA governments. Elections 2004 and UPA government.
10. Recent Issues and Challenges: Challenge of and responses to globalization: new economic policy and its opposition. Rise of OBCs in North Indian politics. Dalit politics in the electoral and non-electoral arena. Challenge of communalism: Ayodhya dispute, Gujarat riots. Contemporary World Politics 1.
Cold War Era in World Politics: Emergence of two power blocs after the second world war. Arenas of the cold war. Challenges to Bipolarity: Non-Aligned Movement, the quest for new international economic order. India and the cold war.
2.
Disintegration of the ‘Second World’ and the Collapse of Bipolarity: New entities in world politics: Russia, Balkan states, and, Central Asian states, Introduction of democratic politics and capitalism in post-communist regimes. India’s relations with Russia and other post-communist countries.
3.
US Dominance in World Politics: Growth of unilateralism: Afghanistan, first Gulf War, response to 9/11 and attack on Iraq. Dominance and challenge to the US in economy and ideology. India’s renegotiation of its relationship with the USA.
4.
Alternative Centres of Economic and Political Power: Rise of China as an economic power in post- Mao era, creation, and expansion of European Union, ASEAN. India’s changing relations with China.
5.
South Asia in the Post-Cold War Era: Democratisation and its reversals in Pakistan and Nepal. Ethnic conflict in Sri Lanka. Impact of economic globalization on the region. Conflicts and efforts for peace in South Asia. India’s relations with its neighbours.
( vii )
Contd... 6.
International Organisations in a Unipolar World: Restructuring and the future of the UN. India’s position in the restructured UN. Rise of new international actors: new international economic organizations, NGOs. How democratic and accountable are the new institutions of global governance?
7.
Security in Contemporary World: Traditional concerns of security and politics of disarmament. Non-traditional or human security: global poverty, health, and education. Issues of human rights and migration.
8.
Environment and Natural Resources in Global Politics: Environment movement and evolution of global environmental norms. Conflicts over traditional and common property resources. Rights of indigenous people. India’s stand-in global environmental debates.
9.
Globalisation and Its Critics: Economic, cultural and political manifestations. Debates on the nature of consequences of globalization. Anti-globalization movements. India as an arena of globalization and struggles against it.
( viii )
Be mindful. Be grateful. Be positive. Be true. Be kind Three things that make you special
Three people you are grateful for and why
Three simple things you are grateful for
A challenging experience that made you stronger
Three ways to inject gratitude into a current challenge
Describe the last time you did something nice for someone
A fear you have overcome
Three activities you enjoy most and why
What made you smile today?
Three things you love about your family
What is your favorite place, and why?
Three things you love most about yourself
The last time you were overcome with joy
A risk you are grateful you took and why
Three everyday items you are grateful for
Three songs that bring you joy
What skill do you have that you are grateful for and why?
One luxury you are thankful for
Describe a rejection you are grateful for
Three things about your body you are grateful for
What are you most grateful for in your daily life?
Three things you are grateful for about where you live
Three items in your home you are grateful for
Say thank you to someone
Something in nature you are grateful for
A person in your past you are grateful for
Something at school you’re grateful for
Describe the last time you laughed so hard you cried
What is your proudest accomplishment?
Three things you want to manifest
(1)
Positive Affirmations
(2)
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(3)
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Om Stationers, 7007326732
Entrance & Competition Distributors PATNA
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Metro Books Corner, 9431647013, Alka Book Agency, 9835655005, Vikas Book Depot, 9504780402
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Kitab Ghar, 9425226528, Shri Ramdev Traders, 9981761797
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Cheap Book Store, 9872223458, 9878258592
DELHI
RAJASTHAN
DELHI
Singhania Book & Stationer, 9212028238, Radhey Book depot, 9818314141, The KOTA Book Shop, 9310262701, Mittal Books, 9899037390, Lov Dev & Sons, 9999353491
Vardhman Book Depot, 9571365020, Raj Traders, 9309232829
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Anupam Sales, 9560504617, A ONE BOOKS, 8800497047
Goyal Book Distributors, 9414782130
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Bharat Book Depot, 7988455354
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BHAGWATI BOOK STORE, 9149081912, Sparsh Book Agency, 9412257817, Sanjay Publication, 8126699922
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Laxmi Pustakalay and Stationers, (0712) 2727354
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Pragati Book Centre, 9850039311
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ODISHA
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Bijay Pustak Bhandar Pvt. Ltd., 8961260603, Saha Book House, 9674827254 United Book House, 9831344622, Techno World, 9830168159
Trimurti Book World, 9437034735
0808
BARIPADA
UTTAR PRADESH DEHRADUN
(4)
Writing Notes Writing Your Your Notes
(5)
CUET (UG) Exam Paper 2023 National Testing Agency Held on 28th May 2023
POLITICAL SCIENCE Solved
(This includes Questions pertaining to Domain Specific Subject only) Max. Marks: 200
Time allowed: 45 Minutes
General Instructions: 1.
The test is of 45 Minutes duration.
2.
The test contains 50 questions out of which 40 question needs to be attempted.
3.
Marking Scheme of the test:
a. Correct answer or the most appropriate answer: Five marks (+5). b. Any incorrect option marked will be given minus one mark (-1). c. Unanswered/Marked for Review will be given 100 marks (0).
1. The
World Trade Organisation was formed in
which year? (1) 1991
(2) 1995
(3) 1999
(4) 2000
Ans. Option (2) is correct Explanation: WTO was formed in 1995 as a successor to General Agreements on Trade and Tariff GATT in 1948.
2. Who
introduced the policy of Glasnost and Perestroika in the USSR ?
(1) Lenin
(2) Gorbachev
(3) Yelstin
(4) Nikita Khrushchev
Ans. Option (2) is correct
4. Which
of the following High Court passed a judgement on 12 June 1975, declaring the election of Indira Gandhi to the Lok Sabha invalid?
(1) Delhi High Court (2) Allahabad High Court (3) Calcutta High Court (4) Bombay High Court Ans. Option (2) is correct Explanation: Justice Jagmohan Lal Sinha of the Allahabad High Court passed the judgment declaring Indira Gandhi's election invalid since she used government machinery during her election campaign.
5. In
Explanation: Mikhail Gorbachev introduced the reforms of Glasnost and Perestroika in 1985 in order to keep abreast with the West.
3. In
which year the Monarchy was abolished and democracy established in Nepal ?
(1) 2006
(2) 2001
(3) 2008
(4) 2009
Ans. Option (3) is correct Explanation: On May 28, 2008, the newly elected Constituent Assembly declared Nepal a Federal Democratic Republic, abolishing the 240 year-old monarchy.
which year, the Planning Commission of India was replaced by the National Institute for Transformation of India (NITI) Aayog?
(1) 2015
(2) 2018
(3) 2020
(4) 2022
Ans. Option (1) is correct
6. Who among the following Pakistani leader signed the Tashkent Agreement with Prime Minister Lal Bahadur Shashtri? (1) Muhammed Ayub Khan (2) Liyaqat Ali (3) Mohammad Ali Zinnah (4) General Niyazi Ans. Option (1) is correct
Solved Paper - 2023
7
7. The phrase 'Congress System' is coined by which of 12. The
Union of Soviet Socialist Republic (USSR) collapsed in which year? (1) 1990 (2) 1991 (3) 1992 (4) 1993 Ans. Option (2) is correct
the following author? (1) G. Austin (2) R. Kothari (3) Suhas Palshikar (4) Yogendra Yadav
Ans. Option (2) is correct Explanation: Rajni Kothari, a political scientist gave the term Congress system.
8. When did India sign and ratified the 1997 Kyoto Protocol ? (1) May 2002 (3) March 2001 Ans. Option (2) is correct
(2) August 2002 (4) May 2001
Explanation: Kyoto Protocol was an international agreement signed in August 2002 that required developed countries to reduce the emissions of green house gases.
9. Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals with the provisions of Promotion of International Peace and Security'? (1) Article 48 (2) Article 49 (3) Article 50 (4) Article 51 Ans. Option (4) is correct Explanation: Article 51 of the directive principles of state policy directs the Indian state to promote the following things: These rights promote international peace and security and maintain just and honourable relations between nations.
10. Which
Prime Minister of India implemented the recommendations of the Mandal Commission (1) Atal Bihari Vajpayee (2) V.P. Singh (3) P.V. Narasimhma Rao (4) Man Mohan Singh Ans. Option (2) is correct Explanation: After the decline of the dominance of Congress Party in 1989 elections, V.P. Singh's National Front government of 1990 implemented the Mandal Commission recommendations.
11. Who
was the leader of the movement for independent Nagaland? (1) Kazi Lhendup Dorji Khangsarpa (2) Laldenga (3) Angami Zapu Phizo (4) Rajiv Gandhi Ans. Option (3) is correct Explanation: Angami Zapu Phizo led, a section of the Nagas and declared their independence from India in 1951.
Explanation: Economic weakness, political stubbornness and the growth of nationalism among the 15 nations led to the collapse of the Soviet Union.
13. The
Second General Election was held in which year? (1) 1952 (2) 1954 (3) 1957 (4) 1962
Ans. Option (3) is correct
14. Arrange
the formation of European Union in a sequential order.
(A) The European Parliament (B) The Council of Europe (C) The Organisation for European Economic Cooperation (D) The Europe Economic Community (E) The European Union Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) (A), (B), (D), (E), (C) (2) (B), (A), (C), (D), (E) (3) (C), (B), (D), (A), (E) (4) (C), (D), (A), (B), (E) Ans. Option (3) is correct Explanation: The correct sequence is C. B. D. A. E C - 1948 B - 1949 D - 1957 A - 1958 E - 1993
15. The USA introduced the 'Policy of containment' to deal with: (1) Soviet Communism (2) The Berlin Crisis (3) The Korean War (4) The Cuban crisis Ans. Option (1) is correct Explanation: The US policy of containment was to halt the expansion of Soviet communism and prevent it from advancing around the world.
16. Which
of the following statements are incorrect about the Chipko Movement?
(A) It was an environmental movement. (B) It raised the questions of ecological exploitation. (C) It demanded the control of natural resource by the local communities.
8
OSWAAL CUET (UG) Sample Question Papers, POLITICAL SCIENCE (D) It was a movement against alcoholism (E) It was a movement against caste discrimination
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) (A), (B) only (3) (D), (E) only
(2) (B), (C) only (4) (A), (B), (C) only
Ans. Option (3) is correct Explanation: The Chipko Movement was an environmental and ecological movement that made the local communities vocal to demand the control over their natural resources.
17. Who
chaired the Second Backward Classes Commission and was also an M.P. from the state of Bihar for 1967-70 and 1977-797 (1) BP Mandal (2) Karpoori Thakur (3) VP Singh (4) Indira Sawhney
Ans. Option (1) is correct Explanation: Mandal Commission was chaired by Bindeshwari Prasad Mandal a socialist leader from Bihar. He was the Chief Minister of Bihar for just a month and a half in 1968.
18. Which commission was appointed to inquire into the allegations of abuse of authority during the time of emergency in 1975? (1) Sarkaria Commission (2) Shah Commission (3) Mehta Commission (4) Planning Commission
Ans. Option (2) is correct Explanation: Shah Commission was appointed by the Janta Party in 1977 to look into the excesses committed by the Indira Gandhi government during Emergency in 1975 in India.
19. When and where was the first meeting of World Social forum held? (1) Brazil, 2001 (3) China, 2002
(2) Mumbai, 2004 (4) USA, 1999
Ans. Option (1) is correct
20. In June 1984, the Government of India carried out
the 'Operation Blue Star' to: (1) Contain insurgency problems in Jammu and Kashmir (2) Fight against militancy and insurgencies in North East India (3) Flush out the militants from State of Punjab (4) Fight against naxalites in West Bengal
Ans. Option (3) is correct Explanation: Operation Blue Star was ordered by the then India's PM Indira Gandhi to flush out the militants hidden in the Golden Temple in 1984.
21. Which report warned that the traditional patterns
of economic growth were not sustainable in the long term? (1) Kyoto Protocol, Common but Different Responsibilities (2) Earth Summit, Save the World (3) Brundtland Report, Our Common Future (4) UNFCC, Global Commons
Ans. Option (3) is correct Explanation: In 1987 Brundtland Report, Our Common Future, had warned that traditional patterns of economic growth were not sustainable in the long term, especially in view of the demands of the South for further industrial development.
22. In which year was the European Union awarded the Noble Peace Prize? (1) 2009 (3) 2016
(2) 2013 (4) 2012
Ans. Option (4) is correct Explanation: On 10 December 2012, in a unanimous decision by the Norwegian Nobel Committee, the Nobel Peace Prize was awarded to the European Union "for its contribution to the advancement of peace and reconciliation, democracy and human rights in Europe"
23. Match List-I with List - II List-I Dates
List-II Events
(a) 1973
(i) Railway Strike
(b) 1974
(ii) Appointment of Justice AN. Ray as the Chief Justice of India
(c) 1974
(iii) Shah Commission
(d) 1977
(iv) JP led the Peoples march to the Parliament
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) (A)-(1), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(III) (2) (A)-(II), (B)-(1), (C)-IV), (D)-(III) (3) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(0) (4) (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
Ans. Option (2) is correct Explanation: The correct sequence of events are: A 1973- Appointment of Justice AN Ray B-1974- Railway strike C-JP led the peoples march to Parliament D-1977 Shah Commission
24. What is the full form of the UPA? (1) (2) (3) (4)
United Progressive Alliance Universal Programme Association United Programme Alliance Universal Progressive Alliance
Solved Paper - 2023 Ans. Option (1) is correct Explanation: UPA or United Progressive Alliance is an alliance of political parties headed by the Congress, it was formed in 2004.
25. Who was nicknamed as the "Milkman of India"? (1) K.P.S Menon (3) J.K. George
(2) Verghese Kurien (4) Jyoti Swamy
Ans. Option (2) is correct Explanation: Verghese Kurien, the founder of Amul is known as the Milkman of India.
26. Arrange the following in a chronological order of
their formation. (A) The United Nations (UN) (B) The North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO) (C) The Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) (D) The World Trade Organisation (WTO)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) (A), (B), (C), (D) (3) (C), (D), (B). (A)
(2) (B), (A), (C), (D) (4) (D), (C), (B), (A)
Ans. Option (1) is correct Explanation: A - UN 1945 B - NATO-1949 C - OECD-1961 D - WTO 1995
27. Identify
the correct options from the statements given below: (A) The B.J.P. continued to consolidate its position in the elections of 1991 and 1996. (B) The National Front government was supported by Congress in 1989. (C) The United Front government was supported by B.J.P. and the Left. (D) The National Front government was supported by the Congress in 1990.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) (A) and (C) only (2) (A) and (D) only (3) (C) and (D) only (4) (B) and (D) only
Ans. Option (2) is correct Explanation: A and D are the correct options
28. Cuba was an ally of the Soviet Union and received both diplomatic and financial aid from: (1) Fidel Castro (2) Nikita Khushchev (3) F. Kennedy (4) Xi – Zinping
Ans. Option (2) is correct
9
Explanation: Cuba was a communist state and they got all diplomatic and financial aid from the Soviet Union which was a communist country and the one of the superpowers.
29. The
Nizam of Hyderabad had a para-military force, which was known as:
(1) Razakars (3) Police
(2) Sipahi (4) Qalb
Ans. Option (1) is correct Explanation: The Razakars were the paramilitary volunteer force of the nationalist party in the Hyderabad State under the British Raj and also worked for the Nizam.
30. Which
of the following movement was fought against alcoholism in Andhra Pradesh?
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Apartheid Movement Anti-Arrack Movement Narmada Bachao Aandolan Dalit Movement
Ans. Option (2) is correct Explanation: The Anti-Arrack movement became one of the biggest agitations lead by women as a collective against the state and its agencies, leading to the total prohibition of production of illicit liquor in the state.
31. Which Constitutional Amendment act was passed during the Emergency of 1975 ? (1) 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act (2) 44th Constitutional Amendment Act (3) 61st Constitutional Amendment Act (4) 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act Ans. Option (1) is correct
32. In which year, India first tested a nuclear device ? (1) 1970 (3) 1974
(2) 1972 (4) 1976
Ans. Option (3) is correct Explanation: India conducted its first nuclear test in Pokhran, Rajasthan in 1974.
33. Match List - I with List - II. List-I
List-II
UN Secretary-General
Time Period They Served
(A) Ban Ki-Moon
(1) 1946 – 1952
(B) Boutrous Ghali
(II) 2017 – Present
(C) Antonio Guterres
(III) 2007 – 2016
(D) Trygve Lie
(IV) 1992 – 1996
10
OSWAAL CUET (UG) Sample Question Papers, POLITICAL SCIENCE
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II) (2) (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(II) (3) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I) (4) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III) Ans. Option (3) is correct Explanation: A Ban ki Moon B Boutrous Ghali C Antonio Guterres D Trygve Lie
- - - -
2007 – 2016 1992 – 1996 2017 – Present 1946 – 1952
34. Who
was the President of USA during the 9/11 attacks? (1) George H.W. Bush (2) William Jefferson (Bill) Clinton (3) George W. Bush (4) Barack Obama Ans. Option (3) is correct
35. Which of the following is not true about the NonTraditional Security? (1) Non-Traditional notion of security goes beyond the military threats. (2) Non-Traditional views on security have been called the human security or 'Global security. (3) Non-Traditional conceptions of security are principally concerned with the use or threat of use of military force. (4) Non-Traditional notions of security questions the traditional aspects of security. Ans. Option (3) is correct
36. After the demise of the President Zakir Hussain in
1969, the Syndicate managed to nominate _______ and Indira Gandhi encouraged ___________ to contest for the president post.
(1) N. Sanjeeva Reddy, V.V.Giri (2) Karpoori Thakur, V.V. Giri (3) N. Sanjeeva Reddy, Morarji Desai (4) K Kamraj, S Nijalingappa Ans. Option (1) is correct Explanation: In 1969 after the death off the President Zakir Hussain the Syndicate group nominated N. Sanjeeva Reddy as the official candidate and Indira Gandhi supported V.V Giri for the same post.
(III) Liberation of Kuwait
(D) Operation Enduring Freedom
(IV) Missile strikes on Al-Qaeda terrorist in Sudan
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) (A)-(1). (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV) (2) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(1) (3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(1). (D)-(II) (4) (A)-(1), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III) Ans. Option (2) is correct
38. Who said the following words? "Tomorrow we shall be free from the slavery of the
British dominations. But at midnight, India will be partitioned. Tomorrow will thus be a day of rejoicing as well as mourning." (1) Jawaharlal Nehru (2) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (3) Mahatma Gandhi (4) Lal Bahadur Shastri Ans. Option (3) is correct Explanation: These words were spoken by Mahatma Gandhi during India's independence as the country's independence came with the partition.
39. Choose the correct time line of the following events
in South Asia since 1947. (A) Sri Lanka (then Ceylon) gained independence (B) Afghanistan joined the SAARC (C) India and Pakistan signed the Shimla Agreement (D) Kargil conflict between India and Pakistan
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) (A), (C), (D), (B) (2) (A), (D), (B), (C) (3) (A), (B), (C), (D) (4) (B), (A), (C), (D) Ans. Option (1) is correct
Explanation: A Sri Lanka gained independence- 1948 C India Pakistan signed Shimla agreement -1972 D Kargil conflict - 1999 B Afghanistan joined SAARC-2007
40. Match List-I with List - II. List-I
37. Match List - I with List - II. List-I
(C) Operation Iraqi Freedom
List - II
(A) Shyama Prasad Mukherjee (I) Socialist Party List-II
(A) Operation Infinite Reach
(I) Global War on Terror
(B) First Gulf War
(II) Weapons of Mass destruction
(B) K.M. Munshi
(II) Bharatiya Jana Sangh
(C) Jayaprakash Narayan
(III) Indian National Congress
(D) Jawaharlal Nehru
(IV) Swatantra Party
Solved Paper - 2023 Choose the correct answer from the options given below (1) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III) (2) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV) (3) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II) (4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
Ans. Option (1) is correct Explanation: Shyama Prasad Mukherjee- Bhartiya Jana Sangh KM Munshi- Swatantra Party Jayprakash Narayan- Socialsit Party Jawaharlal Nehru- Indian National Congress
44. _____________
India. (1) Manipur (3) Hyderabad
was the largest princely state of
Explanation: Hyderabad was one of the largest princely state of India and its Nawab was one of the richest man at that time.
45. Rular, like the Nawab of which princely state did not agree to join the constituent assembly? (1) Bhopal (2) Travancore (3) Junagarh (4) Manipur
Ans. Option (1) is correct
Just before
Read
Independence, it was announced by the British that with the end of their rule over India, the paramountcy of the British crown over the Princely States would also lapse this meant that all these states, as many as 565 in all, would become legally independent. The British government took the view that all these states were free to join either India or Pakistan or remain independent if they so wished. This decision was left not to the people but to the princely rulers of these states. This was a very serious problem and could threaten the very existence of a united India. The problems started very soon. First of all, the ruler of Travancore announced that the state has decided on Independence. The Nizam of Hyderabad made a similar announcement the next day. Rulers like the Nawab of Bhopal were averse to joining the Constituent Assembly.
41. How many princely states were there in India at the time of independence? (1) 336 (2) 436 (3) 565 (4) 665 Ans. Option (3) is correct
42. The ruler of Hyderabad was popularly referred to as (1) Nizam (3) Tipu Ans. Option (1) is correct
(2) Maharaja (4) Iron Man
Explanation: The ruler of Hyderabad was known by the title of Nizam.
43. What were the choices given to the princely states by the British? (1) Free to join Pakisthan (2) Free to join India (3) Free to remain independent (4) All of the above
Ans. Option (4) is correct Explanation: The British government gave the princely states the choice that either they were free to join India or Pakistan or remain independent if they so wished.
(2) Kashmir (4) Junagarh
Ans. Option (3) is correct
41. Read the following passage carefully and answer the question that follows:
11
the passage and answer the following question:
A part from a strengthening its defence capabilities,
there was shift in India's strategy to deal with Pakistan-sponsored terrorism. Earlier India had followed soft policy to deal with its neighbours such as China and Pakistan. In response to Pakistan- sponsored terrorism in Uri (2016) and in Pulwama (2019), India carried out surgical strikes on terrorist camps across the Pakistan-occupied Kashmir (FOK) borders which marked a shift in India's strategy to deal with cross-border terrorism more firmly and decisively. India also dealt with China in Doklam and Galwan Valley firmly. Pakistan's failure and passivity to deal with India's response demonstrated India's changing power position and status in the international relations in general and South Asia in particular. India's stand on the long-pending problem of Kashmir has been accepted and supported globally which signifies India as an emerging power. China which perceives India as a competitor, tries to counter its growing power by supporting Pak-sponsored terrorism, encroaching on Indian borders, trying to turn its neighbours like Nepal against India, opposing India's permanent seat in UN Security Council and Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG). India, however, continues to maintain its stand to fight for a just global order that should be free from exploitation or hegemony of any power. In this regard, India seeks permanent membership in the UN Security Council to represent the interest of global South. In the changed scenario, India is emphasising on South-South cooperation. The rise of India is, therefore, transforming the geopolitics of Asia and the world.
46. Uri and Pulwama are parts of which State of India? (1) Punjab (3) Kashmir
(2) Assam (4) Arunachal Pradesh,
Ans. Option (3) is correct Explanation: Uri and Pulwama are in the Union Territory of Kashmir.
OSWAAL CUET (UG) Sample Question Papers, POLITICAL SCIENCE
12
47. How
many permanent members are there in
UNSC ? (1) 5 (3) 8
(2) 10 (4) 6
Ans. Option (1) is correct Explanation: There are five permanent members in the UNSC- USA, UK, France, China and Russia.
48. What is the full form a NSG? (1) (2) (3) (4)
Non Supplier Group Nuclear Suppliers Group Nuclear Supporter Group Nuclear Sensitive Group
Ans. Option (2) is correct Explanation: NSG stands for Nuclear Suppliers Group which is a group of nuclear supplier countries that seek to prevent nuclear proliferation by controlling the export of materials, equipment and technology that can be used to manufacture nuclear weapons.
49. Which permanent member of UNSC is opposing the claim of India for permanent seat in UNSC ? (1) Russia (2) Iran (3) Japan (4) China Ans. Option (4) is correct Explanation: China being the P-5 country has always opposed India's inclusion as the permanent member of the UNSC.
50. Which
of the following reason is not given by
India while seeking the permanent membership in UNSC ? (1) India is the largest democracy. (2) It wants to represent the interest of global South. (3) To rise as a hegemony and dominate others. (4) A big nation in terms of population. Ans. Option (3) is correct Explanation: India is a growing economic power and it represents the interests of the Global South but don't show any intention of dominating others.
CUET Question Paper 2022 NATIONAL TESTING AGENCY 19th July 2022—Slot-1
Political Science [This includes Questions pertaining to Domain Specific Subject only]
SOLVED . Time Allowed: 45 Mins.
Maximum Marks: 200
General Instructions: 1.
The test is of 45 Minutes duration.
2.
The test contains is 50 questions out of which 40 question needs to be attempted.
3.
Marking Scheme of the test: a.
Correct answer or the most appropriate answer: Five marks (+5)
b.
Any incorrect option marked will be given minus one mark (–1).
c.
Unanswered/Marked for Review will be given no. mark (0).
1. Mikhail Gorbachev became the General Secretary of
(B) (a), (c), (d) and (e) only
the communist party of Soviet Union in the year:
(C) (c), (d), and (e) only
(A) 1982
(B) 1985
(D) (a), (c), and (d) only
(C) 1986
(D) 1991
Sol. Option (B) is correct Explanation: Mikhail Gorbachev was a Soviet politician who served as the last leader of the Soviet Union from 1985 to the country's dissolution in 1991. He served as General Secretary of the Communist Party of the Soviet Union from 1985 when he was elected as a de facto leader for the position by the Politburo post the death of Soviet leader Leonid Brezhnev— followed by the brief tenures of Yuri Andropov and Konstantin Chernenko.
2. Which of the following statements are true about Antarctic continental region?
Sol. Option (D) is correct Explanation: The Antarctic continental region extends over 14 million square kilometres. The Antarctic also extends to a further 36 million square kilometres of ocean. It plays an important role in maintaining climatic equilibrium, and deep ice cores provide an important source of information about greenhouse gas concentrations and atmospheric temperatures of hundreds and thousands of years ago.
3. Match the List I with List II List-I
List-II
Country
(Status/Position) (During the cold war period)
(a) It has a limited terrestrial life and a highly productive Marine ecosystem
(a) Spain
i.
Neutral Country
(b) Romania
ii.
Non-aligned state
(b) The region extends over 1000 million square kilometers
(c) Sweden
iii. Warsaw Pact Member
(d) Yugoslavia
iv. NATO member
(c) The region is subjected to special regional rules of environmental protection (d) Some parts of it are degraded by waste as a result of oil spills (e) It is disturbing the climate equilibrium Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (A) (a), (b), (c) and (d) only
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (A) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i) (B) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii) (C) (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii) (D) (a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv) Sol. Option (C) is correct
14
4.
OSWAAL CUET (UG) Sample Question Papers, Political Science Explanation: NATO (North Atlantic Treaty Organization) is an international military alliance that consists of 30 member states from Europe and North America. The 12 founding members of the Alliance were joined by the four new members namely, Greece (1952), Turkey (1952), West Germany (1955) and Spain (1982) during the Cold War. The Warsaw Pact was a collective defence treaty established by the Soviet Union and seven other Soviet satellite states in Central and Eastern Europe: Albania, Bulgaria, Czechoslovakia, East Germany, Hungary, Poland and Romania (Albania withdrew in 1968). In 1961, drawing on the principles agreed at the Bandung Conference of 1955, the Non-Aligned Movement was formally established in Belgrade, Yugoslavia, through an initiative of Yugoslav President Josip Broz Tito, Indian Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru, Egyptian President Gamal Abdel Nasser, Ghanaian President Kwame Nkrumah, and Indonesian President Sukarno. With reference to the Soviet Union, arrange the following events in a chronological order. (a) Mikhail Gorbachev elected as the General Secretary of Communist Party. (b) Secessionist movements in Chechnya and Dagestan. (c) Revival of the Russian Economy. (d) Introduction of Multiparty politics in the Soviet Parliament (Duma) (e) Disintegration of Soviet Union Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (A) (a), (b), (d), (c), (e) (B) (e), (c), (d), (a), (b) (C) (a), (d), (e), (c), (b) (D) (c), (b), (a), (e), (b)
Sol. Option (C) is correct Explanation: 1985 March: Mikhail Gorbachev elected as the General Secretary of the Communist Party of the Soviet Union; 1990 February: Gorbachev strips the Soviet Communist Party of its 72-year-long monopoly on power by calling on the Soviet parliament (Duma) to permit multiparty politics. 1991 December 25: Gorbachev resigns as the President of the Soviet Union; the end of the Soviet Union. Post disintegration of USSR, the Russian economy started reviving in 2000, ten years after their independence followed by the separation movements in Chechnya and Dagestan.
5. When did the Soviet System came into being? (A) After the Russian Revolution (B) After the Second World War (C) After the 1990's (D) After the 1970's
Sol. Option (B) is correct Explanation: The Union of Soviet Socialist Republics (USSR) came into being after the socialist revolution in Russia in 1917. The Soviet Union became a great power after the Second World War.
6. Which among the following combination given below are features of Soviet System? (a) It aimed to abolish institutions of private property in the country. (b) The economy was developed and was at par with the Us economy. (c) The system was centered around the communist party and allowed political opposition. (d) The state ownership was the dominant mode of ownership in this system. (e) The institutions of state was of paramount importance in the soviet system. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (A) (a), (b), (d) only (B) (a), (c), (e) only (C) (a), (d), (e) only (D) (b), (d), (e) only Sol. Option (C) is correct Explanation: The Soviet political system centred around the communist party, and no other political party or opposition was allowed. State ownership was the dominant form of ownership: land and productive assets were owned and controlled by the Soviet state.
7. Match the List I with List II List-I
List-II
(UN Secretary General)
Term (Period of Office)
(a) Trygve Lie
(i)
(b) Dag Hammarskjold
(ii) 1961-1971
1972-1981
(c) U Thant
(iii) 1953-1961
(d) Kurt Waldheim
(iv) 1946-1952
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (A) (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv) (B) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i) (C) (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i) (D) (a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii) Sol. Option (C) is correct
Solved Paper-2022 8. Which of the following statement is not true about India's Nuclear Policy/ Programme? (A) It is a policy of NO FIRST USE (B) It reiterates India's Commitment to global, verifiable nuclear disarmament (C) It prohibits India to be a member of Nuclear Supplies Group (NSG) (D) It opposes partisan treaties like CTBT & NPT Sol. Option (C) is correct Explanation: The Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG) is a transnational body comprised of nuclear supplier countries that aim to control the proliferation of nuclear weapons by curbing the export of nuclear weapons development materials and related technology. It was formed in the wake of the nuclear tests conducted by India in May 1974 which proved that certain non-weapons nuclear technology could be used to develop nuclear weapons.
9. What is Schengen Visa? (A) One Visa from just one of the EU countries allows a person entry in most other European Union Countries (B) Two Visas from two EU countries allows a person entry in the USA (C) A Special type of Visa given to refugees coming to EU countries (D) A type of Visa given to the family member of Green Card holders. Sol. Option (A) is correct Explanation: A Schengen visa is a short stay visa allowing its holder to circulate in the Schengen area. The Schengen area covers 26 countries (“Schengen States”) without border controls between them. These countries are: Austria, Belgium, the Czech Republic, Denmark, Estonia, Finland, France, Germany, Greece, Hungary, Iceland, Italy, Latvia, Liechtenstein, Lithuania, Luxembourg, Malta, the Netherlands, Norway, Poland, Portugal, Slovakia, Slovenia, Spain, Sweden and Switzerland.
10. Which of the following steps taken by China to develop the market economy is wrong? (A) Introduction of SEZs (B) Privatisation of agriculture (C) Use of Shock Therapy (D) Removal of Trade barriers Sol. Option (C) is correct Explanation: China followed its own path in introducing a market economy. The Chinese did not go for ‘shock therapy’ but opened their economy step by step. The privatisation of agriculture in 1982 was followed by the
15
privatisation of industry in 1998. Trade barriers were eliminated only in Special Economic Zones (SEZs) where foreign investors could set up enterprises.
11. The ‘ASEAN way’ reflects: (A) the life style of ASEAN members (B) Is a form of interaction among ASEAN members that is informal non confrontationist & Cooperative (C) Is the defense policy followed by the ASEAN members (D) Is the road that connects all the ASEAN countries Sol. Option (B) is correct Explanation: Unlike the EU there is little desire in ASEAN for supranational structures and institutions. ASEAN countries have celebrated what has become known as the ‘ASEAN Way’, a form of interaction that is informal, nonconfrontationist and cooperative. The respect for national sovereignty is critical to the functioning of ASEAN.
12. Western Europe's economy was revived after the second World War by: (A) NATO
(B) Maastricht Treaty
(C) Marshall Plan
(D) IMF
Sol. Option (C) is correct Explanation: European integration after 1945 was aided by the Cold War. America extended massive financial help for reviving Europe’s economy under what was called the ‘Marshall Plan’. The US also created a new collective security structure under NATO. Under the Marshall Plan, the Organisation for European Economic Cooperation (OEEC) was established in 1948 to channel aid to the west European states. It became a forum where the western European states began to cooperate on trade and economic issues.
13. Sharing of river waters has been a source of conflict between these neighbors despite the World Bank's interventionist approach in 1960s to resolve the problem. Identify the correct pair of countries in the above context. (A) India and Bangladesh (B) India and Nepal (C) India and Pakistan (D) Bhutan and Bangladesh Sol. Option (C) is correct Explanation: The given context is related to the Indus Water Treaty which was mediated by the World Bank between the India and Pakistan.
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OSWAAL CUET (UG) Sample Question Papers, Political Science
14. Choose the correct statements about ‘Hindutva’. (a) Hindutva literally means ‘Hinduness’. (b) It was defined by V.D. Savarkar as the basis of Indian Nationhood. (c) Hindutva is a religion. (d) Hindutva is opposed to all other religions. (e) ‘Hindutva’ believes that a strong nation can be built on a strong and united national culture Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (A) (c), (d), (e) only (B) (a), (b), (e) only (C) (a), (c), (d) only (D) (b), (c), (d) only Sol. Option (B) is correct Explanation: Hindutva literally means ‘Hinduness’ and was defined by its originator, V. D. Savarkar, as the basis of Indian (in his language also Hindu) nationhood. It basically meant that to be members of the Indian nation, everyone must not only accept India as their ‘fatherland’ (pitrubhu) but also as their holy land (punyabhu). Believers of ‘Hindutva’ argue that a strong nation can be built only on the basis of a strong and united national culture. They also believe that in the case of India the Hindu culture alone can provide this base. 15. What does the expression South Asia convey? (A) Cultural ethos (B) One Geo-political space (C) Coexistence of rivalries and goodwill (D) Deeper Integration Sol. Option (B) is correct Explanation: South Asia stands for diversity in every sense and yet constitutes one geo-political space. It usually includes the following countries: Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, the Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka. The mighty Himalayas in the north and the vast Indian Ocean, the Arabian Sea and the Bay of Bengal in the south, west and east respectively provide a natural insularity to the region, which is largely responsible for the linguistic, social and cultural distinctiveness of the subcontinent.
(c) Earlier the island had the Sultan as the head of this state, now its a republic
(iii) Bhutan
(d) A landlocked country (iv) Sri Lanka with a monarchy Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (A) (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iv), d - (iii) (B) (a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii) (C) (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii) (D) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv) Sol. Option (B) is correct 17. Which one of the following is not an element of traditional notion of security? (A) Military threat from another country (B) Policies of Deterrence and defense (C) Forming schemes for fostering human security (D) Alliance building through written treaties Sol. Option (C) is correct 18. Environmental issues were brought to the center stage of Global politics by: (A) Montreal protocol (B) Antarctica Treaty (C) The Earth Summit (D) Kyoto protocol Sol. Option (C) is correct Explanation: The growing focus on environmental issues within the arena of global politics was firmly consolidated at the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, in June 1992. This was also called the Earth Summit. The summit was countries of the First World, generally referred to as the ‘global North’ were pursuing a different environ-mental agenda than the poor and developing countries of the Third World, called the ‘global South’. Whereas the Northern states were concerned with ozone depletion and global warming, the Southern states were anxious to address the relationship between economic development and environmental management.
19. Which of the following statements are true about
16. Match the List I with List II List-I
List-II
(Description of Country)
(Country)
(a) The first country to liberalize its economy in the South Asian Region
(i)
India
(b) Centrally located and shares borders with most of the South Asian Countries
(ii) The Maldives
globalization? (a) It led to an interconnected world despite of national political boundaries. (b) Globalisation led to cultural homogenisation (Global culture) (c) It has far reaching impacts in Social, Economic and Political spheres. (d) It is primarily seen as an economic phenomenon. (e) Globalisation has led to the growth of non state actors.
Solved Paper-2022 Choose the correct answer wheat from the options given below: (A) (a), (c), (d), (e) only (B) (a), (b), (c), (d) only (C) (a), (b), (c), (e) only (D) (a), (b), (d), (e) only Sol. Option (B) is correct
20. The First World Social Forum (WSF) meeting was held in. (A) Spain
(B) India
(C) Brazil
(D) France
Sol. Option (C) is correct Explanation: The World Social Forum (WSF) is a global platform, which brings together a wide coalition composed of human rights activists, environmentalists, labour, youth and women activists opposed to neo-liberal globalisation. The first WSF meeting was organised in Porto Alegre, Brazil in 2001. The fourth WSF meeting was held in Mumbai in 2004. The latest WSF meeting was held in Brazil in March 2018.
21. Non Congressism was a strategy that advocated: (A) Keep Congress out of power (B) Keep non-Communist parties out of power (C) Build one party (D) Keep Socialist parties out of power Sol. Option (A) is correct Explanation: Parties opposed to the Congress realised that the division of their votes kept the Congress in power. Thus parties that were entirely different and disparate in their programmes and ideology got together to form anti-Congress fronts in some states and entered into electoral adjustments of sharing seats in others. They felt that the inexperience of Indira Gandhi and the internal factionalism within the Congress provided them an opportunity to topple the Congress. The socialist leader Ram Manohar Lohia gave this strategy the name of ‘non-Congressism’.
(A) (a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii) (B) (a) - (iv), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (i) (C) (a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii) (D) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i) Sol. Option (A) is correct Explanation: It was in this context of heightened popular discontent and the polarisation of political forces that the fourth general elections to the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies were held in February 1967. The Congress was facing the electorate for the first time without Nehru. The results jolted the Congress at both the national and state levels. Many contemporary political observers described the election results as a ‘political earthquake’. The Congress did manage to get a majority in the Lok Sabha, but with its lowest tally of seats and share of votes since 1952. Half the ministers in Indira Gandhi’s cabinet were defeated. The political stalwarts who lost in their constituencies included Kamaraj in Tamil Nadu, S.K. Patil in Maharashtra, Atulya Ghosh in West Bengal and K. B. Sahay in Bihar.
23. Arrange the following in chronological order: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
Tashkent Agreement Planning Commission set up Formation of Bangladesh First General Elections of India Partition of India
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (A) (e), (b), (d), (c), (a) (B) (a), (e), (b), (d), (c) (C) (d), (e), (c), (b), (a) (D) (e), (b), (d), (a), (c) Sol. Option (D) is correct Explanation: Partition of India-1947 Planning Commision set up- 1950 First General Election of India- 1951 Tashkent Agreement- 1966 Formation of Bangladesh- 1971
22. Match the List I with List II List-I
List-II
(Leaders)
Constituencies of 1967 Election
(a) K Kamraj
(i)
(b) S.K. Patil
(ii) Tamil Nadu
(c) Atulya Ghosh
(iii) Bihar
(d) K.B. Sahay
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Maharashtra
(iv) West Bengal
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
24. Vishalandhara movement was related to: (A) Independence from princely rule in Andhra Region (B) Demand for huge allocation for irrigation projects (C) Partition of India (D) Demand for formation of separate Andhra province based on language Sol. Option (D) is correct Explanation: The Vishalandhra movement (as the movement for a separate Andhra was called)
18
OSWAAL CUET (UG) Sample Question Papers, Political Science demanded that the Telugu speaking areas should be separated from the Madras province of which they were a part and be made into a separate Andhra province. The movement gathered momentum as a result of the Central government’s vacillation. Potti Sriramulu, a Congress leader and a veteran Gandhian, went on an indefinite fast that led to his death after 56 days. This caused great unrest and resulted in violent outbursts in Andhra region.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (A) (a), (c), (d), (b) (B) (b), (a), (d), (c) (C) (c), (b), (d), (a) (D) (d), (c), (a), (b) Sol. Option (C) is correct Explanation: ⚫
25. What was, Sardar Patel’s first cabinet rank in Independent India.
⚫
(A) Deputy Prime Minister and Home Minister (B) Home Minister and Finance Minister (C) Prime Minister (D) Prime Minister and Home Minister Sol. Option (A) is correct Explanation: Sardar Patel was India’s Deputy Prime Minister and the Home Minister during the crucial period immediately following Independence. He played a historic role in negotiating with the rulers of princely states firmly but diplomatically and bringing most of them into the Indian Union.
26. First Five Year Plan emphasized on: (a) Construction of Mega Dams to improve irrigation facilities. (b) Rapid Import substitution and self reliance. (c) Land Reforms. (d) Setting up of heavy industries (e) Quick structural reforms Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
⚫
⚫
Sol. Option (B) is correct Explanation: The First Five Year Plan addressed, mainly, the agrarian sector including investment in dams and irrigation. The Plan identified the pattern of land distribution in the country as the principal obstacle in the way of agricultural growth. It focused on land reforms as the key to the country’s development.
27. Arrange the following events between India Pakistan in chronological manner. (a) Bangladesh war (b) Sharing of Indus River Water (c) Proxy war between India & Pakistan armies in Kashmir after Partition (d) Pakistan's armed attack in the Rann of Kutch
In April 1965 Pakistan launched armed attacks in the Rann of Kutch area of Gujarat. Bangladesh war took place in 1971
deals with 'Promotion of International Peace and Security'? (A) Article 50
(B) Article 51
(C) Article 52
(D) Article 53
Sol. Option (B) is correct Explanation: Article 51 of the Indian Constitution lays down some Directive Principles of State Policy on ‘Promotion of international peace and security’. “The State shall endeavour to – ⚫ ⚫
⚫
(B) (a) and (c) only (D) (a) and (b) only
A long-term dispute about the sharing of river waters was resolved through mediation by the World Bank. The India Pakistan Indus Waters Treaty was signed by Nehru and General Ayub Khan in 1960.
28. According to Indian Constitution, which Article
(A) (a) and (d) only (C) (a) and (e) only
A proxy war broke out between Indian and Pakistani army in Kashmir during 1947 itself.
⚫
Promote international peace and security Maintain just and honourable relations between nations Foster respect for international law and treaty obligations in the dealings of organised people with one another; and Encourage settlement disputes by arbitration.”
of
international
29. Match the List I with List II List-I
List-II
(Conference)
(Description)
(a) Bandung Conference
(i)
Between Lal Bahadur Shastri and Ayub Khan
(b) Yalta Conference
(ii) Between Indira Gandhi and Zulfikar Ali Bhutto
(c) Shimla Agreement
(iii) ‘Big Three’ decides to organise a United Nations Conference
(d) Tashkent Agreement
(iv) Afro-Asian Conference in Indonesia.
Solved Paper-2022 Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (A) (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv) (B) (a) - (i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii) (C) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii) (D) (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i) Sol. Option (D) is correct
threat of internal disturbances. The government decided that a grave crisis had arisen which made the proclamation of a state of emergency necessary.
32. Who amongst the following returned the ‘Padma Shri’ award in protest against the ‘Suspension of’ democracy’? (A) Fanishwarnath Renu
Explanation: The Afro-Asian conference held in the Indonesian city of Bandung in 1955, commonly known as the Bandung Conference, marked the zenith of India’s engagement with the newly independent Asian and African nations. The Bandung Conference later led to the establishment of the NAM. With Bangladesh as a free country, India declared a unilateral ceasefire. Later, the signing of the Shimla Agreement between Indira Gandhi and Zulfikar Ali Bhutto on 3 July 1972 formalised the return of peace. The hostilities between India and Pakistan came to an end with the UN intervention. Later, Indian Prime Minister Lal Bahadur Shastri and Pakistan’s General Ayub Khan signed the Tashkent Agreement, brokered by the Soviet Union, in January 1966.
30. What cabinet minister rank was Atal Bihari Vajpayee holding during his visit to China in 1979. (A) Prime Minister (B) External Affairs Minister (C) Finance Minister (D) Defence Minister Sol. Option (B) is correct Explanation: It took more than a decade for India and China post the 1962 war, to resume normal relations. It was in 1976 that full diplomatic relations were restored between the two countries. Atal Behari Vajpayee was the first top level leader (he was then External Affairs Minister) to visit China in 1979. Later, Rajiv Gandhi became the first Prime Minister after Nehru to visit China. Since then, the emphasis is more on trade relations between the two countries 31. On 25 June 1975, government declared that there was a threat of internal disturbances and therefore invoked which of the following article in the constitution: (A) Article 354 (B) Article 370 (C) Article 352 Sol. Option (C) is correct
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(D) Article 19
Explanation: On 25 June 1975, the government declared that there was a threat of internal disturbances and therefore, it invoked Article 352 of the Constitution. Under the provision of this article the government could declare a state of emergency on grounds of external threat or a
(B) J.C. Shah (C) Jaya Prakash Narayan (D) Charu majumdar Sol. Option (A) is correct Explanation: Kannada writer Shivarama Karanth, awarded with Padma Bhushan, and Hindi writer Fanishwarnath Renu, awarded with Padma Shri, returned their awards in protest against the suspension of democracy during the national emergency of 1975.
33. The commission set up enquiry into the excesses committed during emergency was headed by: (A) Justice Jagmohan Lal Sinha (B) Justice J.C. Shah (C) Justice A.N. Ray (D) Justice M.N. Venkatachaliah Sol. Option (B) is correct Explanation: In May 1977, the Janata Party government appointed a Commission of Inquiry headed by Justice J.C. Shah, retired Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of India, to inquire “into several aspects of allegations of abuse of authority, excesses and malpractices committed and action taken in the wake of the Emergency proclaimed on the 25th June, 1975”. The Commission examined various kinds of evidence and called scores of witnesses to give testimonies. These included Indira Gandhi who appeared before the Commission but refused to answer any questions. The Government of India accepted the findings, observations and recommend-dations contained in the two interim reports and third and final report of the Shah Commission. The reports were also tabled in the two houses of Parliament.
34. Who among the following was the first non Congress Prime Minister? (A) Morarji Desai
(B) V.P. Singh
(C) Chandra Shekhar
(D) I.K. Gujral
Sol. Option (A) is correct Explanation: Morarji Desai was the first non congress PM of India, elected by the newly formed Janta party, which won massively after emergency in 1977. Even though he was an old congressman, minister under Nehru, Lal
20
OSWAAL CUET (UG) Sample Question Papers, Political Science Bahadur, and Indira Gandhi he was made P M, under the banner of Janta Party. Jan Sangh, Lok Dal, old Congress were all under the Janta banner which won the election.
35. Match the List I with List II List-I
List-II (Movements/ Association with)
(Names of Leaders) (a) Laldenga
(i)
President of Akali Dal
(b) Harchand Singh Longowal
(ii) Leader of National Conference
(c) Sheikh Mohammad Abdullah
(iii) Self-respect movement
(d) EV Ramaswamy Naicker
(iv) Leader of Mizo National Front
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (A) (a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv) (B) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i) (C) (a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii) (D) (a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii) Sol. Option (C) is correct Explanation: Laldenga was a Mizo nationalist and politician from Mizoram in northeast India. He was the founder of the Mizo National Front, a social organisation turned political party. He was the first Chief Minister of Mizoram, the office of which he held from 1986 to 1988. Sant Harchand Singh Longowal was the President of the Akali Dal during the Punjab insurgency of the 1980s. He had signed the Punjab accord, also known as the RajivLongowal Accord along with Rajiv Gandhi on 24 July 1985. Sheikh Mohammad Abdullah was an Indian politician who played a central role in the politics of Jammu and Kashmir Referred as Sher-iKashmir, Abdullah was the founding leader of the All Jammu and Kashmir Muslim Conference and the 1st elected Prime Minister of Jammu and Kashmir after its accession to India. Erode Venkatappa Ramasamy, revered as Periyar or Thanthai Periyar, was an Indian social activist and politician who started the SelfRespect Movement and Dravidar Kazhagam. He is known as the 'Father of the Dravidian movement'. He rebelled against Brahminical dominance and gender and caste inequality in Tamil Nadu.
36. Right to Information Bill received Presidential assent in: (A) June 2004
(B) June 2005
(C) June 2006
(D) June 2007
Sol. Option (B) is correct Explanation: The Right To Information Act, 2005 received the assent of the President on the 15th June, 2005. The Act came into effect on 12th October, 2005.
37. The Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP) was founded in the year. (A) 1980
(B) 1984
(C) 1985
(D) 1990
Sol. Option (B) is correct Explanation: In 1978 the Backward and Minority Communities Employees Federa-tion (BAMCEF) was formed. This organisation was not an ordinary trade union of government employees. It took a strong position in favour of political power to the ‘bahujan’ – the SC, ST, OBC and minorities. It was out of this that the subsequent Dalit Shoshit Samaj Sangharsh Samiti and later the Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP) in 1984 emerged under the leadership of Kanshi Ram. The BSP began as a small party supported largely by Dalit voters in Punjab, Haryana and Uttar Pradesh.
38. Mandal
Commission recommended what percentage of reservation in jobs for OBC's in the Central Government. (A) 15%
(B) 10%
(C) 30%
(D) 27%
Sol. Option (D) is correct Explanation: The Mandal Commission was set up to investigate the extent of educational and social backwardness among various sections of Indian society and recommend ways of identifying these ‘backward classes’. The Commission advised that ‘backward classes’ should be understood to mean ‘backward castes’, since many castes, other than the Scheduled Castes, were also treated as low in the caste hierarchy. The Commission did a survey and found that these backward castes had a very low presence in both educational institutions and in employment in public services. It therefore recommended reserving 27 per cent of seats in educational institutions and government jobs for these groups. 39. Prime Minister Deve Gowda led which of the following Alliance/Front? (A) National Front (B) United Front (C) Left Front (D) United Progressive Alliance
Solved Paper-2022 Sol. Option (B) is correct
21
Sol. Option (A) is correct
Explanation: The United Front was a coalition government of 13 political parties formed in India after the 1996 general elections. The coalition formed two governments in India between 1996 and 1998. The government was headed by two Prime Ministers from Janata Dal – H. D. Deve Gowda, and I. K. Gujral.
40. In1989 the National Front Government was led by: (A) Chandrashekhar
(B) Jyoti Basu
(C) V.P. Singh
(D) L.K. Advani
Sol. Option (C) is correct Explanation: The National Front Government was an alliance of the Janta Dal along with some regional parties which post the 1989 general elections received the support of the BJP and the Left Front, leading to formation of coalition government at the centre under leadership of Shri Vishwanath Pratap Singh. Passage Read the following text and answer: Reform and improvement are key to the functioning of any organization. The UN is no exception. There have been various demands for structural reform in the Security Council, a key organ of UN responsible for maintaining international peace and security. Security Council consists of 15 members and there has been on going debate to increase the strength of its non - permanent members. Currently 10 non permanent members are selected for two-year term. This is suggested keeping in mind the changing regional dynamics and economic development of several nations. Apart from change in UNSC, member states have also been demanding expulsion of veto power held by the 5 permanent members. Although UNSC was expanded from 11 to 15 in 1965, there was no significant change for the permanent members. They continued to hold more power. Another structural reform that has been discussed over the years is about the range of issues to be brought within its jurisdiction should UN play a more effective part in security missions or expand its horizon to include issues relating to health, education human rights, gender, social justice, equality to name a few. Established on 24th October 1945 immediately after the second World War, UN needs were to be reformed. It needs to represent contemporary political realities; reflect the decisions of all member states and showcase an equitable representation. That truly will create a robust UN system or it will meet the same fate as its predecessor, the League of Nations.
41. UN was established in the year. (A) 1945
(B) 198
(C) 1946
(D) 1951
42. Identify the incorrect statement about the UN system: (A) UN was established immediately after World War II. (B) The UN day is celebrated on the 24th of October every year (C) UN was founded as a succession to the League of Nations. (D) It came into existence in Sol. Option (D) is correct
43. Identity the most appropriate reason for demanding reform of the UN Security Council: (A) To expand the jurisdiction of UN over international issues. (B) To make it more representative and equitable geographically (C) To resolve conflicts quickly around the globe. (D) To increase financial contribution to UN General Assembly. Sol. Option (B) is correct
44. The non-permanent members of the UN Security Council are elected for a period of (A) two years
(B) three veers
(C) four years
(D) five years
Sol. Option (A) is correct
45. Why were the permanent members of the UN Security Council given the VETO power? (A) They initiated tine idea of an international organization for the first time (B) They were more advanced economically. (C) They were the victors of World War II. (D) They contributed more to the UN funds. Sol. Option (B) is correct Passage Read the following text and answer: The stage was now set for a big political confrontation. The opposition political parties led by Jayaprakash Narayan pressed for Indira Gandhi's resignation and organised a massive demonstration in Delhi's Ramlila grounds on 25 June 1975. Jayaprakash announced a nationwide satyagraha for their resignation and asked the army, the police and government employees not to obey "illegal and immoral orders". This too threatened to bring the activities of the government to a standstill. The political mood of the country had turned against the Congress, more than ever before. The response of the government was to declare a state of emergency. On 25 June 1975, tire government declared that there was a threat of internal disturbances and therefore, it invoked Article 352 of the Constitution.
22
OSWAAL CUET (UG) Sample Question Papers, Political Science
Under the provision of this article the government could declare a state of emergency on grounds of external threat or a threat of internal disturbances. From the wording of tire provisions of the Constitution, it is clear that an Emergency is seen as an extra ordinary condition in which normal democratic politics cannot function. Therefore, special powers are granted to the government. On the night of 25 June 1975, the Prime Minister recommended the imposition of Emergency to President Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed. He issued the proclamation immediately. 46. Who was Jayaprakash Narayan? (A) A symbol of opposition to emergency (B) The Prime Minister of India during the 1975 emergency (C) The President of India during the 1975 emergency (D) Indian Gandhi's son and the administrator of her regime Sol. Option (A) is correct
48. Who can declare National emergency in India?
47. Which kind of emergency is imposed in the case of
50. What was the context of the given passage?
(A) The Prime Minister (B) The President (C) The Chief Justice of India (D) The Chief Election Commission Sol. Option (B) is correct Explanation: Under the provision of article 352, the President could declare a state of emergency on grounds of external threat or a threat of internal disturbances on recommendations of the central government. The government decided that a grave crisis had arisen which made the proclamation of a state of emergency necessary.
49. The massive demonstration was held in Delhi's. (A) Lal Qila Maidan
(B) Jantar Mantar
(C) Ramlila Grounds
(D) Mandi House
Sol. Option (C) is correct
war, external aggression and armed rebellion?
(A) Assassination of Indira Gandhi
(A) National emergency using Article 352
(B) State of Emergency
(B) State emergency using Article 356
(C) War with Pakistan
(C) National emergency using Article 324 (D) Financial emergency using Article 360
(D) 1977 Elections Sol. Option (B) is correct
Sol. Option (A) is correct
❑❑
CUET Question Paper 2022 NATIONAL TESTING AGENCY 16th July 2022—Slot-2
Political Science [This includes Questions pertaining to Domain Specific Subject only]
SOLVED . Time Allowed: 45 Mins.
Maximum Marks: 200
General Instructions: 1.
The test is of 45 Minutes duration.
2.
The test contains is 50 questions out of which 40 question needs to be attempted.
3.
Marking Scheme of the test: a.
Correct answer or the most appropriate answer: Five marks (+5)
b.
Any incorrect option marked will be given minus one mark (–1).
c.
Unanswered/Marked for Review will be given no. mark (0).
1. Match the List I with List II List-I
List-II
NAM leaders
Countries
(A) A, C, E, D, B
A.
Josip Broz Tito
I.
Indonesia
B.
Gamal Abdel Nasser
II.
Ghana
C.
Sukarno
III. Yugoslavia
(C) E, A, C, D, B
IV. Egypt
(D) D, B, A, E C
D. Kwame Nkrumah (A) 1982
(B) 1985
(C) 1986
(D) 1991
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (A) A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I (B) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II (C) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV (D) A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I Sol. Option (B) is correct
2.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Explanation: Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru along with Nkrumah from Ghana, Nasser from Egypt, Sukarno from Indonesia and Tito from Yugoslavia laid the foundation of the core leadership of the Non-Aligned Movement (NAM). Arrange the following global events in the correct sequence: (A) Cuban Missile Crisis (B) Formation of WTO (C) Fall of Berlin Wall (D) Unification of Germany (E) Formation of World Bank
(B) A, C, D, E, B
Sol. Option (C) is correct Explanation: 1945-Formation of World Bank 1962-Cuban Missile Crisis 1989-Fall of the Berlin Wall; mass protests against governments in eastern Europe. 1990-Unification of Germany 1995-Formation of World Trade Organization
3. The principal function of Warsaw Pact was (A) (B) (C) (D)
Ensuring security Co-operation among NAM countries Counter NATO forces Plan a hot war against US
Sol. Option (C) is correct Explanation: The Warsaw Pact or the eastern alliance (1955) was a collective defense treaty established by the Soviet Union and seven other Soviet satellite states in Central and Eastern
24
OSWAAL CUET (UG) Sample Question Papers, Political Science Europe namely, Albania, Bulgaria, Czechoslovakia, East Germany, Hungary, Poland and Romania (Albania with-drew in 1968) to counter NATO’s forces in Europe.
4. Who did not play an important role in the formation of NAM? (A) Josip B Tito (B) Jawaharlal Nehru (C) Richard Nixon (D) Sukarno
Sol. Option (C) is correct Explanation: The full diplomatic relations between India and China could be restored post the conflict or war of 1962 when Atal Bihari Vajpayee, the then External Affairs Minister visited China in 1979 followed by the visit by the then Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi in December 1988. Since then greater emphasis is being laid on trade relations between the two countries.
8. Which group of countries joined European Union in
Sol. Option (C) is correct Explanation: Richard Nixon was the President of the USA and supporter of the capitalistic system.
5. NATO came into existence in:
May 2004? (A) Spain, Portugal and Denmark (B) Estonia, Latvia and Lithuania
(A) April 1949
(B) April 1950
(C) Greece, Ireland and Denmark
(C) April 1948
(D) March 1951
(D) Bulgaria, Romania and Slovenia Sol. Option (B) is correct
Sol. Option (A) is correct Explanation: The western alliance was formalized into an organization, the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO), which came into existence in April 1949. It was an association of twelve states which declared that armed attack on any one of them in Europe or North America would be regarded as an attack on all of them. Each of these states would be obliged to help the other.
6. Which one of the following countries is a part of Eastern Europe? (A) Britain
(B) France
(C) Denmark
(D) Czech Republic
Sol. Option (D) is correct Explanation:
Explanation: 2004 May: Ten new members, Cyprus, the Czech Republic, Estonia, Hungary, Latvia, Lithuania, Malta, Poland, Slovakia and Slovenia join the EU. 9. The ASEAN Regional Forum was established in 1994 with the objective of (A) Creating a common market and pro-duction base within ASEAN states. (B) Improving existing ASEAN Dispute Settlement Mechanisms in Japan. (C) Creating a Free Trade Aiea for invest-ment, labour and Services with US (D) Coordinating of Security and Foreign policy Sol. Option (D) is correct Explanation: The ASEAN Regional Forum (ARF), which was established in 1994, is the organisation that carries out coordination of security and foreign policy.
10. Which of the following countries do not hold membership of ASEAN? (A) Myanmar
(B) Brunei Darussalam
(C) Maldives
(D) Loas
Sol. Option (C) is correct
7. After Sino-India conflict in 1962. the event that provided the impetus for an improve-ment in IndiaChina relations was: (A) India’s first nuclear tests in 1974 (B) India’s second nuclear tests in 1998 (C) Rajiv Gandhi’s visit to China in December 1988 (D) Deng Xiaoping announced the ’Open door’ policy in 1978
Explanation: ASEAN was established in 1967 by five countries of this region — Indonesia, Malaysia, the Philippines, Singapore and Thailand — by signing the Bangkok Declaration. Over the years, Brunei Darussalam, Vietnam, Lao PDR, Myanmar (Burma) and Cambodia joined ASEAN taking its strength to ten.
11. India and Pakistan signed the Indus Water Treaty with the help of which International Organisation agency? (A) IMF
(B) World Bank
(C) UNO
(D) IAEA
Solved Paper-2022 Sol. Option (B) is correct Explanation: Indus Water Treaty, was signed on September 19, 1960, between India and Pakistan, brokered by the World Bank. The treaty fixed and delimited the rights and obligations of both countries concerning the use of the waters of the Indus River system.
12. Arrange the following events in chronological under (A) South Asian leaders signed SAARC Charter at the first summit in Dhaka (B) Proclamation of Independence by Bangladesh (C) India and Pakistan signed the Tashkent Agreement (D) Pakistan join the cold war military blocs, SEATO and CENTO Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (A) D, C, B, A (B) B, C, A, D (C) A, B, C, D (D) C, D, A, B Sol. Option (A) is correct Explanation: 1954-55: Pakistan joins the Cold War military blocs, SEATO and CENTO. 1966: India and Pakistan sign the Tashkent Agreement; Six-point pro-posal of Sheikh Mujibur Rahman for greater autonomy to East Pakistan. 1971 March: Proclamation of Independence by leaders of Bangladesh. 1985 December: South Asian leaders sign the SAARC Charter at the first summit in Dhaka.
13. Choose the resource which is not a part of global commons (A) Islands (B) Earth’s atmosphere (C) The ocean floor (D) Outer space
Sol. Option (D) is correct Explanation: Globalisation as a concept fundamentally deals with flows. These flows could be of various kinds — ideas moving from one part of the world to another, capital shunted between two or more places, commodities being traded across borders, and people moving in search of better livelihoods to different parts of the world. The crucial element is the ‘worldwide interconnectedness’ that is created and sustained as a consequence of these constant flows.
15. Responding to a financial crisis and to the desire for higher rates of economic growth, in which year India embarked on a programme of economic reforms that has sought increasingly to de-regulate various sectors including trade and foreign investment. (A) 1993
(B) 1991
(C) 1996
(D) 1994
Sol. Option (B) is correct Explanation: In 1991, responding to a financial crisis and to the desire for higher rates of economic growth, India embarked on a programme of economic reforms that has sought increasingly to de-regulate various sectors including trade and foreign investment.
16. Match the List I with List II List-I
14. Globalisation is a multidimensional concept which fundamentally deals with flows. Find out the flow not involved in the process of Globalisation (A) Ideas
List-II
Leaders
They are known for
(A) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(I)
(B) Rajkumari Amrit Kaur
(II) Minister for Communications in the first ministry of free India
(C) Rafi Ahmed Kidwai
(III) Minister for Health in independent India’s first ministry
(D) Pandit Deen Dayal Upadhyaya
(IV) Education Minister in the first Cabinet of free India
Sol. Option (A) is correct Explanation: ‘Commons’ are those resources which are not owned by anyone but rather shared by a community. In the same manner, there are some areas or regions of the world which are located outside the sovereign jurisdiction of any one state, and therefore require common governance by the international community. These are known as res communis humanitatis or global commons. They include the earth’s atmosphere, Antarctica, the ocean floor, and outer space.
25
Initiated the concept of Integral Humanism
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (A) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV) (B) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III) (C) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I) (D) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II) Sol. Option (C) is correct
(B) People
Explanation:
(C) Commodities
Maulana Abul Kalam Azad (1888-1958): Original name Abul Kalam Mohiyuddin Ahmed; scholar of Islam; freedom fighter and Congress
(D) Natural resources
OSWAAL CUET (UG) Sample Question Papers, Political Science
26
leader; proponent of Hindu-Muslim unity; opposed to Partition; member of Constituent Assembly; Education Minister in the first cabinet of free India. Rajkumari Amrit Kaur (1889- 1964): A Gandhian and freedom fighter; belonged to the royal family of Kapurthala; inherited Christian religion from her mother; member of Constituent Assembly; Minister for Health in independent India's first ministry and continued till 1957. Rafi Ahmed Kidwai (1894-1954): Congress leader from Uttar Pradesh; Minister in UP in 1937 and again in 1946; Minister for Communications in the first ministry of free India; Food and Agriculture Minister, 1952-54. Deen Dayal Upadhyay (1916-68): Full time RSS worker since 1942; founder member of the Bhartiya Jana Sangha; General Secretary and later President of Bhartiya Jana Sangha; initiated the concept of integral humanism.
19. Arrange the following in chronological order (A) Indian Army moved in Hyderabad to control the Nizam's forces (B) Merger Agreement between the Government of India and the Maharaja of Manipur (C) Standstill Agreement with Hyderabad (D) Manipur became a constitutional Monarchy Choose the correct answer wheat from the options given below: (A) D, B, C, A
(B) C, D, A, B
(C) A, C, B, D
(D) D, A, C, B
Sol. Option (B) is correct Explanation: ⚫
17. Bharatiya Janata Party traces its roots to the (A) (B) (C) (D)
Samajvadi Dal BSP Bhartiya Jana Sangh Swatantra Party
⚫
Sol. Option (C) is correct Explanation: The Bharatiya Janata Party traces its ideological roots to the Bharatiya Jana Sangha which was formed by Shyama Prasad Mukherjee.
⚫
18. In December 1952, the Prime Minister of India announced the formation of a separate state after a long movement carried under the leadership of Potti Sriramulu. Identify the state from options given below (A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Maharashtra (C) Tamil Nadu (D) Kerala Sol. Option (A) is correct Explanation: The Vishalandhra movement gathered momentum as a result of the Central government’s vacillation. Potti Sriramulu, a Congress leader and a veteran Gandhian, went on an indefinite fast that led to his death after 56 days. This caused great unrest and resulted in violent outbursts in Andhra region. People in large numbers took to the streets. Many were injured or lost their lives in police firing. In Madras, several legislators resigned their seats in protest. Finally, the Prime Minister announced the formation of a separate Andhra state in December 1952.
⚫
The Nizam wanted an independent status for Hyderabad. He entered into what was called the Standstill Agreement with India in November 1947 for a year while negotiations with the Indian government were going on. Under the pressure of public opinion, the Maharaja held elections in Manipur in June 1948 and the state became a constitutional monarchy. Thus Manipur was the first part of India to hold an election based on universal adult franchise. In September 1948, Indian army moved in to control the Nizam’s forces. After a few days of intermittent fighting, the Nizam surrendered. This led to Hyderabad’s accession to India. The Government of India succeeded in pressurising the Maharaja into signing a Merger Agreement in September 1949, without consulting the popularly elected Legislative Assembly of Manipur. This caused a lot of anger and resentment in Manipur, the repercussions of which are still being felt.
20. Which of the leaders were deeply impressed by the Soviet model of development: (A) The leaders of the Communist Party of India (B) The leaders of the Socialist Party (C) Leader’s like Nehru within the Congress (D) Dr, B. R. Ambedkar (E) Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Choose the correct answer wheat from the options given below: (A) A, C, E only
(B) B, C, D only
(C) C, D, E only
(D) A, B, C only
Solved Paper-2022
27
24. Match the List I with List II
Sol. Option (D) is correct Explanation: There were many in India then who were deeply impressed by the Soviet model of development. These included not just the leaders of the Communist Party of India, but also those of the Socialist Party and leaders like Nehru within the Congress.
21. The aim of India’s foreign policy finds an echo in
List-I
List-II
Leaders
Role
A.
Lal Bahadur Shastri
I.
Supporter of greater autonomy of states in India
B.
Indira Gandhi
II.
Coined the famous slogan 'Jai Jawan -Jai Kisan’.
C.
Ram Manohar Lohia
III. Contributed to nonEuropean theory of Socialism
(A) Article 17 of the Constitution (B) Directive Principles of the Constitution (C) Article 1 of the Constitution (D) Article 356 of the Constitution Sol. Option (B) is correct
D. C. Natarajan Annadurai
IV. Led the policy of nationalization of banks in India
Explanation: Article 51 of the Indian Constitution lays down some Directive Principles of State Policy on ‘Promotion of international peace and security’. “The State shall endeavour to –
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) Promote international peace and security
(A) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(b) Maintain just and honourable relations between nations
(B) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(c) Foster respect for international law and treaty obligations in the dealings of organised people with one another; and
(D) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(d) Encourage settlement disputes by arbitration.”
of
international
(C) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III Sol. Option (A) is correct
25. Match the List I with List II
22. Jawaharlal Nehru was India’s first Prime Minister as well as the
List-I
List-II
Leader
Position
A.
S. Nijalingappa
I.
President after the death of President Zakir Hussain
B.
V.V. Giri
II.
Speaker of the Lok Sabha
C.
N. Sanjeeva Reddy
III. President of Congress
(A) Defence Minister (B) Foreign Minister (C) Education Minister (D) Home Minister Sol. Option (B) is correct Explanation: The first Prime Minister, Jawaharlal Nehru played a crucial role in setting the national agenda. He was his own foreign minister. Thus both as the Prime Minister and the Foreign Minister, he exercised profound influence in the formulation and implementtation of India’s foreign policy from 1946 to 1964.
23. The Tashkent Agreement was signed between (A) Indira Gandhi and Zulfikar Ali Bhutto (B) Lal Bahadur Shastri and General Ayub Khan (C) Jawaharlal Nehru and General Ayub Khan (D) Indira Gandhi and General Yahya Khan Sol. Option (B) is correct Explanation: Indian Prime Minister Lal Bahadur Shastri and Pakistan’s General Ayub Khan signed the Tashkent Agreement, brokered by the Soviet Union, in January 1966.
D. Ram Manohar Lohia
IV. Founder, editor of Mankind and Jan’
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (A) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II (B) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (C) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I (D) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV Sol. Option (D) is correct
26. In context to the general elections of 1971 there was an atmosphere of dissatisfaction for instance, student’s unrest. Read the given statements and choose the correct option which shows similarity between students led movement of Gujarat and Bihar (A) Gujarat and Bihar were both Congress ruled states
OSWAAL CUET (UG) Sample Question Papers, Political Science
28
(B) Both movements were led by the same leader i.e. Jayaprakash Narayan
finally came into power by leading a coalition government from May 1998 to June 1999 and was re-elected in October 1999.
(C) Congress government in states was able to suppress the movement
(A) National People's Party
(D) Both movements were highly parti-cipated by the students
(B) Bhartiya Janata Party
(E) Both movements focused on the issues of rising prices of the essential commodities
(D) Congress Party
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (A) A, B, E only
(B) B, D, E only
(C) A, D, E only
(D) A, B, C only
(C) Janata Dal Sol. Option (B) is correct
Sol. Option (C) is correct
27. Match the List I with List II List-I
List-II
Slogan/Concept
Leaders
A.
Garibi Hatao
I.
Jayaprakash Narayan
B.
Jai Jawan Jai Kisan
II.
Ram Manohar Lohia
C.
Total Resolution
III. Indira Gandhi
D. Chouburja Rajneeti
30.
IV. Lai Bahadur Shastri
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (A) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (B) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I (C) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(A) Illegal Bengali Muslims (B) Foreigners from China (C) People from NAM states (D) Students from Bihar Sol. Option (A) is correct
29.
Explanation: The Assam Movement from 1979 to 1985 is the best example of such movements against ‘outsiders’. The Assamese suspected that there were huge numbers of illegal Bengali Muslim settlers from Bangladesh. They felt that unless these foreign nationals are detected and deported they would reduce the indigenous Assamese into a minority. There were other economic issues too. Read the given statement and recognize the political party referred to in the statement, It emerged as the largest party in the 1996 elections and was invited to form the government but it could not secure a majority in the Lok Sabha, It
(A) BJP
(B) SP
(C) BSP
(D) RJD
Sol. Option (C) is correct
(D) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III Sol. Option (A) is correct 28. Who were the outsiders in Assam Movement from 1979 to 1985
Explanation: BJP continued to consolidate its position in the elections of 1991 and 1996. It emerged as the largest party in the 1996 election and was invited to form the government. But most other parties were opposed to its policies and therefore, the BJP government could not secure a majority in the Lok Sabha. It finally came to power by leading a coalition government from May 1998 to June 1999 and was re-elected in October 1999. Atal Behari Vajpayee was the Prime Minister during both these NDA governments and his government formed in 1999 completed its full term. A party began as a small party supported largely by Dalit voters in Punjab, Haryana. Uttar Pradesh. This was the fust time (1991) in independent India that a political party mainly supported by Dalit voters had achieved breakthrough in Uttar Pradesh. Identify the party
31.
Explanation: The Bahujan Samaj Party was formed with the support of the Dalit people and it advocated for their rights. The Muslim population in India accounted for what per centage of the total population in 1951? (A) 18%
(C) 16% Sol. Option (B) is correct
(B) 12% (D) 14%
Explanation: The Muslim population in the India in the year 1951 was around 12%.
32. Which statement is not correct in the context of the Shah Bano case of 1985 (A) A 62 year old divorced Muslim woman had filed a case for maintenance (B) The Supreme Court rules in Shah Bano’s favour (C) The orthodox Muslims hailed the decision of the Supreme Court (D) The BJP criticized the action of Congress government as 'appeasement' of the minority community Sol. Option (C) is correct Explanation: The orthodox Muslims saw the Supreme Court’s order as an interference in
Solved Paper-2022 Muslim Personal Law. On the demand of some Muslim leaders, the government passed the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986 that nullified the Supreme Court’s judgment.
33. In order to generate public support for its cause in Ayodhya and to build a Ram Mandir, the BJP took out a massive march called Rath yatra from which place to which place? (A) Badrinath to Ayodhya (B) Somnath to Ayodhya (C) Harilarnath to Ayodhya (D) Haridwar to Ayodhya Sol. Option (B) is correct Explanation: The BJP, in order to gather public support, took out a massive march called the Rathyatra from Somnath in Gujarat to Ayodhya in UP.
34. The principle of 'Common but differential responsibilities’ was accepted in 1992 at the (A) Copenhagen Summit (B) Earth Summit (C) Kyoto Protocol (D) Paris Declaration Sol. Option (B) is correct
35.
Explanation: The Kyoto Protocol is an international agreement setting targets for industrialized countries to cut their greenhouse gas emissions. The protocol was agreed to in 1997 in Kyoto in Japan, based on principles set out in UNFCCC. The 1992 United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) also provides that the parties should act to protect the climate system “on the basis of equity and in accordance with their common but differentiated responsibilities and respective capabilities.” The parties to the Convention agreed that the largest share of historical and current global emissions of greenhouse gases has originated in developed countries. Arrange the following operations that established US hegemony in a chrono-logical order: (A) Operation Infinite Reach (B) Operation Iraqi Freedom (C) Operation Enduring Freedom (D) Operation Desert Storm (E) Air Strike by the NATO countries around Yugoslavia Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (A) A, B, C, D, E
(B) D, A, E, C, B
(C) E, D, C, B, A
(D) B, D, C, E, A
29
Sol. Option (B) is correct Explanation: A massive coalition force of 660,000 troops from 34 countries fought against Iraq and defeated it in what came to be known as the First Gulf War. However, the UN operation, which was called ‘Operation Desert Storm’, was overwhelmingly American. President Clinton ordered Operation Infinite Reach in 1998, a series of cruise missile strikes on Al-Qaeda terrorist targets in Sudan and Afghanistan. The most important episode occurred in 1999, in response to Yugoslavian actions against the predominantly Albanian population in the province of Kosovo. The air forces of the NATO countries, led by the US, bombarded targets around Yugoslavia for well over two months, forcing the downfall of the government of Slobodan Milosevic and the stationing of a NATO force in Kosovo. As a part of its ‘Global War on Terror’ (followed by 9/11 attacks in 2000), the US launched ‘Operation Enduring Freedom’ against all those suspected to be behind this attack, mainly AlQaeda and the Taliban regime in Afghanistan. On 19 March 2003, the US launched its invasion of Iraq under the codename ‘Operation Iraqi Freedom’.
36. The movement for Right to Information forced an amendment in the (A) Consumer and Protection Act (B) Women Protection Act (C) Trade Union Act (D) Rajasthan Panchayati Raj Act Sol. Option (A) is correct Explanation: The movement started in 1990, when a mass based organization called the Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangathan (MKSS) in Rajasthan took the initiative in demanding records of famine relief work and accounts of laborers. The demand was first raised in Bhim Tehsil in a very backward region of Rajasthan. The movement had a small success when they could force an amendment in the Rajasthan Panchayati Raj Act to permit the public to procure certified copies of documents held by the Panchayats.
OSWAAL CUET (UG) Sample Question Papers, Political Science
30
37. Match the List I with List II List-I
List-II
A.
National Front
I.
H. D. Deve Gowda
B.
United Progressive Alliance
II.
Atal Bihari Vajpayee
United Front
III. V.P. Singh
C.
D. National Democratic Alliance
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (A) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (B) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I (C) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III (D) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
IV. Manmohan Singh
Sol. Option (A) is correct Explanation: ⚫
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
⚫
(A) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
⚫
(B) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (C) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV (D) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
⚫
Sol. Option (B) is correct
38. Chipko movement is related to which of the following?
October 30: India joins the UN The International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) was established in 1957. It came into being to implement US President Dwight Eisenhower’s “Atoms for Peace” proposal. The World Trade Organization (WTO) established on 1 January 1995, is an international organization which sets the rules for global trade.
40. WTO is serving as the successor to which of the
(A) Environment
following organisations
(B) Railways (C) Anti-Arrack (D) Sardar Sarovar Project
(A) GATT
(B) WHO
(C) ILO
(D) UNDP
Sol. Option (A) is correct
Sol. Option (A) is correct Explanation: The movement began in two or three villages of Uttarakhand when the forest department refused permission to the villagers to fell ash trees for making agricultural tools. However, the forest department allotted the same patch of land to a sports manufacturer for commercial use. This enraged the villagers and they protested against the move of the government. Larger issues of ecological and economic exploitation of the region were raised demanding that no forest-exploiting contracts should be given to outsiders and local communities should have effective control over natural resources like land, water and forests.
39. Match the List I with List II List-I
List-II
Event
Date and Year
A.
Formation of the UN
I.
30th October 1945
B.
Creation of IAEA
II.
1995
C.
Setting up of WTO
III. 1957
D. India joins the UN
1945 October 24: the UN was founded (hence October 24 is celebrated as UN Day) 1945
IV. 24th October 1945
Explanation: The World Trade Organization (WTO) is an international organization which sets the rules for global trade. This organization was set up in 1995 as the successor to the General Agreement on Trade and Tariffs (GATT) created after the Second World War. Passage Read the following text and answer: The 1980s also saw the rise of political organisation of the Dalits. In 1978 the Backward and Minority communities Employees Federation (BAMCEF) was formed. This organisation was not an ordinary trade union of government employees. It took a strong position in favour of political power to the : bahujan’ - the SC, ST, OBC and minorities. It was out of this that the subsequent Dalit Shoshit Samaj Sangharsh Samiti and later the Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP) emerged under the leadership of Kanshi Ram. The BSP began as a small party supported largely by Dalit voters in Punjab, Haryana and Uttar Pradesh. But in 1989 and the 1991 elections, it achieved a breakthrough in Uttar Pradesh. This was the first time in Independent India that a political party supported mainly by Dalit voters had achieved this kind of political success. Its strongest support still comes from Dalit voters, but it has expanded its support now to various other social groups. In many parts of India. Dalit politics
Solved Paper-2022
31
and OBC politics have developed independently and often in competition with each other.
(D) BSP began as a small party supported by dalit voters in Punjab. Haryana and Uttar Pradesh.
41. Out of tire following options, choose the most
(E) The term Bahujan’ includes - the SC. ST and OBC’s Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
appropriate one. BAMCEF was: (A) a trade union of government employ-ees (B) a political party of the Dalits (C) An interest group of industrialists
(A) B, C, D, E only
(B) A, C, D only
(C) A, B, C, D only
(D) A, C, D, E only
Sol. Option (D) is correct
(D) a non-government organisation Sol. Option (B) is correct Explanation: BAMCEF stands for Backward and Minority Communities Employee Federation which was founded as a trade union of the government employee but later on grew into one the biggest national parties of India.
42. In many parts of India, Dalit politics and OBC politics have developed (A) as dependent on each other (B) independently and often leaving space for each other (C) independently and often in competition with each other (D) as counter forces to each other Sol. Option (C) is correct
43. Out of the following options, choose the most appropriate one: BAMCEF stands for: (A) Backward and Minority employees Freedom
communities
(B) Backward and Minority Employees Federation
Communities
(C) Backwards and Minority Communities for Employees Franchise (D) Backwards and Minority Communities for Employees Federation
Explanation: Dalit movements rose in the decade of the 1980s; The term ‘Bahujan’ included SCs, STs, OBCs and minorities. Passage Read the following text and answer: Health epidemics such as HIV -AIDS, bind flu, and severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) have rapidly spread across countries through migration, business, tourism and military operations. One country’s success or failure is limiting the spread of these diseases affects infections in other countries. Other new and poorly understood diseases such as ebola virus, hantavirus, and hepatitis C have emerged, while old diseases like tuberculosis, malaria, dengue fever and cholera have mutated into drug resistant forms that are difficult to treat. Epidemics among animals have major economic effects. Since the late 1990s, Britain has lost billions of dollars in income during an outbreak of the mad—cow disease, and bird flu shut down supplies of poultry exports from several Asian countries. Such epidemics demonstrate the growing interdependence of states making their border s less meaningful than in the past and emphasise the need for international cooperation. 46. This non - traditional concept of security is described in the above passage. Is it related to (A) Terrorism
Sol. Option (B) is correct
(B) Global Poverty
44. The term ‘Bahujan’ includes:
(C) Health Epidemic
(A) The SC only (B) The ST only (C) The OBC only (D) The SC, ST, OBC and minorities Sol. Option (D) is correct 45. Read the following statements (A) BAMCEF was formed in 1978 (B) The Rise of political organisation of the Dalit during 1990s (C) BSP emerged under the leadership of Kanshi Ram
(D) Human Rights Violation Sol. Option (C) is correct Explanation: Health epidemics such as AIDS, SARS, bird flu and so on, have rapidly spread across countries through migration, business, tourism and military operations. Some of them also affect the animals or livestocks and hence leading to major economic crises. This demonstrates the growing interdependence of the state's making their borders less meaningful and emphasizing the need for international cooperation via non-traditional concept of security.
32
OSWAAL CUET (UG) Sample Question Papers, Political Science
47. Which among the following is NOT a reason for the spread of health epidemics?
50. Which of the following statements are directly
(A) Tourism
derived from the passage?
(B) Administrative Operations
(A) Many health epidemics spread across countries through migration. tourism, business and military operations
(C) Migration (D) Business Sol. Option (B) is correct
48.
Sol. Option (A) is correct
Explanation: Health epidemics such as AIDS, SARS, bird flu and so on, have rapidly spread across countries through migration, business, tourism and military operations. Full form of SARS is: (A) Severe acute respiratory syndrome (B) severe actual respiratory syndrome (C) strong acute respiratory syndrome (D) sensory acute response syndrome
(B) The spread of infection is dependent on a country’s success or failure in limiting the spread (C) Epidemics among humans have military and strategic consequences (D) Epidemics make international borders less meaningful (E) Epidemics emphasises international cooperation
(A) B, C, D and E only
49. Which among the folio wing disease has NOT
(B) A, C, D and E only
(A) Ebola Virus
(B) Malaria
(C) Dengue
(D) Cholera
need
for
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Sol. Option (A) is correct mutated into drug resistant forms that are difficult to treat?
the
(C) B, C and D only (D) A, B, D and E only Sol. Option (B) is correct
❑❑
SAMPLE
Question Paper Maximum Marks : 200
1
Time : 45 Minutes
General Instructions : (i) This paper consists of 50 MCQs, attempt any 40 out of 50 (ii) Correct answer or the most appropriate answer: Five marks (+5) (iii) Any incorrect option marked will be given minus one mark (-1) (iv) Unanswered/Marked for Review will be given no mark (0) (v) If more than one option is found to be correct then Five marks (+5) will be awarded to only those who have marked any of the correct options (vi) If all options are found to be correct then Five marks (+5) will be awarded to all those who have attempted the question. (vii) Calculator / any electronic gadgets are not permitted.
1. When did Cuban Missile Crisis occur? (1) 1967 (2) 1962 (3) 1960 (4) 1970 2. Which among the following statements wrongly describes the nature of the Soviet economy? (1) Socialism was the dominant ideology. (2) State ownership/control existed over the factors of production. (3) People enjoyed economic freedom. (4) Every aspect of the economy was planned and controlled by the state. 3. Select the correct option for the Western Alliance and the organization it was formalized into: (1) The Eastern Alliance was formalized into UNO. (2) The Western Alliance was formalized into NATO. (3) The Central Alliance was formalized into SEATO. (4) The Neutral Alliance was formalized into Peace keeping forces.
4. The real GDP of Russia in 1999 was below what it was in: (1) 1959 (2) 1969 (3) 1979 (4) 1989 5. Which one of the following statements about the Berlin wall is false? (1) It symbolised the division between the capitalist and the communist world. (2) It was built during the Second World War. (3) It was broken by the people on 9 November, 1989. (4) It marked the unification of the two parts of Germany.
6. Which one of the following statements is ‘not
correct’ about the ‘Non-Aligned Movement’? (1) It suggested to the newly independent countries ways to stay out of alliances. (2) India’s policy of non-alignment was neither negative nor passive. (3) The non-aligned posture of India served its interests. (4) India was praised for signing the treaty of friendship with the USSR to strengthen NAM. 7. Which one of the following statements related to the Iraq invasion by the US is incorrect? (1) More than forty other countries were involved in this invasion. (2) The UN had given consent to invade Iraq. (3) The invasion was to prevent Iraq from developing weapons of mass destruction. (4) The US lost over 3000 military personnel in this war. 8. Until 1960, India-Pakistan were locked in a fierce argument over the use of the rivers of the: (1) Ravi basin (2) Beas basin (3) Indus basin (4) Satluj basin 9. Choose the wrong statement: (1) Six- point proposal of Sheikh Mujibur Rehman for greater autonomy to East Pakistan. (2) India and Pakistan conducted nuclear tests in 1998. (3) SAFTA was signed at the 7th SAARC Summit in Islamabad. (4) India and Bangladesh sign the Farakka Treaty for sharing of the Ganga waters in 1996. 10. Consider the following statements comparing US and European Union and choose the correct one/s.
2
OSWAAL CUET (UG) Sample Question Papers, POLITICAL SCIENCE
i. The EU is the world’s biggest economy with a GDP slightly larger than that of the United States. ii. EU’s share of world trade is three times larger then that of United States. iii. Militarily, the EU’s combined armed forces are the largest in the world with US in the second position. iv. All of the above (1) (i) and (ii) only (3) (ii) and (iii) only (2) (i) and (iii) only (4) None of these 11. LTTE stands for: (1) Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam (2) Lieutenant Tigers of Tamil Estate (3) Lifelong Tigers of Tamil Estrangement (4) Liberation Terror of Tamil Estate 12. Since 1962, until when the relations of both the countries (India and China) downgraded? (1) 1976 (2) 1988 (3) 1990 (4) 2021 13. Why BRIC turned into BRICS? (1) South Africa was included later (2) Somalia was included later (3) “S” stands for South Asian Alliance (4) None of the above 14. Which institution became the successor of the League of Nations? (1) WHO (2) UNICEF (3) UN (4) SAARC
Reason: Neighbor Pakistan, with which India has
15. Does India decide to deregulate various sectors
the country that helped to reach the Tashkent agreement between India and Pakistan: (1) India, Nehru (2) USSR, Kosygin (3) Egypt, Nasser (4) Indonesia, Sukarno
including trade and foreign investment? (1) Because the Indian economy was not in balance. (2) It was a response to a financial crisis and to the desire for higher rates of economic growth. (3) Because the government needed money. (4) All of the above
16. SAARC is a major regional initiative by the: (1) South Asian states (2) American states (3) Economic organisation (4) Military organisation Direction: In the following question, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as: (1) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
17. Assertion: Despite India’s wish to be a permanent
veto-wielding member of the UN, some countries question its inclusion.
troubled relations, is not the only country that is reluctant to see India become a permanent veto member of the Security Council.
18. Choose the correct option that has significantly contributed to the process of ‘Globalization’. (1) Fear of war (2) Security threats (3) Advancement of technology (4) Achievements of the United Nations
19. What was the protest at World Trade Organization
Ministerial Meeting, 1999? (1) The decreasing job opportunities by developed nations (2) The threat of pandemic (3) Unfair trade practices by the economically powerful states (4) Deteriorating cultural practices
20. Where is the headquarter of UNICEF? (1) Tokyo (3) Los Angeles
(2) Chicago (4) New York
21. NITI Aayog was set up: (1) to bring more accuracy in the development. (2) because people had expectations for growth and development in the administration through their participation. (3) so that departments could be included in Planning Commission. (4) All of the above
22. Select the correct option for the leader and
23. Why did J. C. Kumarappa support the plan of industrialization of rural areas? (1) For the ground level development (2) To help the poor (3) To escape the vicious circle of poverty (4) To boost up the economy
24. In post WW2 era, why did the tensions erupt
between India and US? (1) US feared that India would join USSR. (2) US wanted to colonize India. (3) The NAM pursued by India was not liked by USA. (4) None of the above.
25. During emergency, the relations of government and judiciary were: (1) tensed (2) cordial (3) completely hostile (4) there was no problem at all
Sample Question Papers 26. In the decade of 1960’s, the Congress Party under the leadership of Indira Gandhi was affected by: (1) Violence (2) Defection (3) Internal conflicts (4) Censorship
27. The Syndicate wanted Indira Gandhi to act as a: (1) strong leader (3) financial backup
(2) puppet (4) face of the country
28. Who had recommended reservation for OBCs in jobs of Central Government? (1) Mahatma Gandhi (2) Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar (3) Jawaharlal Nehru (4) Mandal Commission
29. A system in which the affairs at the international
level cannot be dominated by only one superpower but by a group of countries is known as: (1) Unipolar world (2) Capitalise world (3) Multi-polar world (4) Collective world
30. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel faced key challenges of integration in which of the following states? (1) Hyderabad, Moradabad, Junagarh (2) Hyderabad, Sikandrabad, Jammu (3) Hyderabad, Junagarh, Kashmir (4) Jammu, Junagarh, Kashmir
31. In the elections held immediately after Emergency,
the Congress could win only ................... seats in the Lok Sabha. (1) 154 (2) 156 (3) 158 (4) 160
32. Which first coalition government was able to
complete its five-year tenure? (1) UPA govt. led by Dr. Manmohan Singh (2) NDA govt. led by Atal Bihari Vajpayee (3) NDA govt. led by Narendra Modi (4) None of the above 33. The ....................... had played a role in the installation of Indira Gandhi as the Prime Minister by ensuring her election as the leader of the Parliamentary Party. (1) Constituent Assembly (2) Syndicate (3) Opposition (4) Economic conditions 34. Which of the following statements is true about the causes of Globalisation? (1) Growth of multinational companies with a global presence in many different economies. (2) Globalisation is caused by a particular community of people. (3) Globalisation originated in the US. (4) Economic interdependence alone causes globalisation. 35. Directions: In the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as: (1) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is the correct
3
explanation of (A). (2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true. Assertion: The decision of the National Front government to implement the recommendations of the Mandal Commission further helped in shaping the politics of ‘Other Backward Classes’. Reason: This period saw the emergence of many parties that sought disastrous decisions and approach for OBCs. 36. Find the odd one out in the context of Proclamation of Emergency. (1) The call for ‘Total Revolution’ (2) The Railway Strike of 1974 (3) The Naxalite Movement (4) The Allahabad High Court Verdict 37. On which concept, did the BJP (Bhartiya Janta Party) start mobilizing Hindus? (1) Hindutva (2) One nation one religion (3) Sanatan Dharma (4) Regionalism 38. Identify the Prime Minister of India from amongst the following who headed the first Coalition Government in India. (1) Atal Bihari Vajpayee (2) V.P. Singh (3) Morarji Desai (4) H.D. Deve Gowda
39. Which one of the following leaders played an
important role in the integration of princely states with India? (1) Jawahar Lal Nehru (2) SardarVallabhbhai Patel (3) C. Rajagopalchari (4) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar 40. The Secretary-General - Ban Ki-Moon from South Korea is the ................... Secretary-General of the UN. (1) fifth (2) sixth (3) seventh (4) eighth 41. On the reforms of structures and processes, the biggest discussions have been on the functioning of the: (1) Security Council. (2) Health of the infants (3) Child mortality rate (4) Nuclear weapon possession 42. Rajiv Gandhi was assassinated in: (1) May, 1991 (2) June, 1991 (3) July, 1991 (4) August, 1991 43. State which of the following statements about emergency is incorrect: (1) It was declared in 1975 by Indira Gandhi. (2) It led to the suspension of all fundamental rights. (3) It was proclaimed due to the deteriorating economic conditions. (4) Many opposition leaders were arrested during the Emergency.
4
OSWAAL CUET (UG) Sample Question Papers, POLITICAL SCIENCE
44. Why the results of general elections 1967 were
called ‘political earthquake’? (1) Because Congress lost all the seats. (2) The elections were not at all successful. (3) The popularity of Congress had reduced by a large scale. (4) None of the above 45. What was the motto of Grand Alliance? (1) Garibi Hatao (2) Economy Badhao (3) Corruption Hatao (4) Indira Hatao 46. If the opposition wants to oust the coalition government, what it has to prove? (1) They have to prove that the coalition is no longer in majority (2) They have to prove the inefficiency of the government (3) They can demand mid elections (4) None of the above 47. Who propounded the ‘two nation theory'? (1) Sardar Patel and Congress (2) Muslim League (3) Khan Abdul Ghaffar (4) None of the above
48. On what basis was the two-nation theory
proposed? (1) On the basis of differences among two communities, Hindu and Muslim (2) On the basis of different political ideologies of Hindus and Muslims (3) On the basis of communal discrimination (4) All the above Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follows: Thus it was decided that what was till then known as ‘India’ would be divided into two countries, ‘India’ and ‘Pakistan’. Such a division was not only very painful, but also very difficult to decide and to implement. It was decided to follow the principle of religious majorities. This
basically means that areas where the Muslims were in majority would make up the territory of Pakistan. The rest was to stay with India. The idea might appear simple, but it presented all kinds of difficulties. First of all, there was no single belt of Muslim majority areas in British India. There were two areas of concentration, one in the west and one in the east. There was no way these two parts could be joined. So it was decided that the new country, Pakistan, will comprise two territories, West and East Pakistan separated by a long expanse of Indian territory. Secondly, not all Muslim majority areas wanted to be in Pakistan. Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan, the undisputed leader of the North Western Frontier Province and known as ‘Frontier Gandhi', was staunchly opposed to the two-nation theory. Eventually, his voice was simply ignored and the NWFP was made to merge with Pakistan. The third problem was that two of the Muslim majority provinces of British India, Punjab and Bengal, had very large areas where the nonMuslims were in majority. Eventually it was decided that these two provinces would be bifurcated according to the religious majority at the district or even lower level. This decision could not be made by the midnight of 14-15 August. It meant that a large number of people did not know on the day of Independence whether they were in India or in Pakistan. The Partition of these two provinces caused the deepest trauma of Partition.
49. Who was known as “Frontier Gandhi”? (1) Mohammad Ali Jinnah (2) Abdul Gaffar Khan (3) Mahatma Gandhi (4) None of the above 50. Which two provinces of British India had very large areas where non-Muslims were in majority? (1) Punjab and UP (2) Bengal and Gujarat (3) Punjab and Haryana (4) Punjab and Bengal
SAMPLE
2
Question Paper Maximum Marks : 200
Time : 45 Minutes
General Instructions : (i) This paper consists of 50 MCQs, attempt any 40 out of 50 (ii) Correct answer or the most appropriate answer: Five marks (+5) (iii) Any incorrect option marked will be given minus one mark (-1) (iv) Unanswered/Marked for Review will be given no mark (0) (v) If more than one option is found to be correct then Five marks (+5) will be awarded to only those who have marked any of the correct options (vi) If all options are found to be correct then Five marks (+5) will be awarded to all those who have attempted the question. (vii) Calculator / any electronic gadgets are not permitted.
1. Which one of the following was NOT an outcome
6. The principle of land reforms failed across the
2. Which party in the Maldives dominates the politics?
7. The post-Soviet countries underwent a process of
of ‘Shock Therapy’? (1) The old system of social welfare got destroyed. (2) Industries were put up for sale to the private sector. (3) The value of the Russian currency, the ‘Ruble’ rose dramatically. (4) Russia started to import food grains. (1) Communist Party (2) Liberal Democratic Party (3) The Maldivian Democratic Party (4) None of the above
3. What is the objective of the UN? (1) To prevent international conflict and facilitate cooperation among states. (2) To boost the trade among the member nations. (3) To procure the best medical help during the pandemic. (4) All of the above.
4. First Gulf War was known as ...................... . (1) Operation Infinite Reach (2) Operation Enduring Freedom (3) Operation Desert Storm (4) Operation Iraqi Freedom
5. What was the stand of Indian Government on
partition? (1) India did not respond at all. (2) India wanted peace, harmony and equality of religion. (3) India wanted to become a Hindu nation. (4) None of the above.
country: (1) due to the government policies. (2) due to recession all over the country. (3) because nobody was capable of buying the land. (4) due to political influence and corruption in the society. transition from an authoritarian socialist system to ...................... capitalism system. (1) democratic (2) authoritative (3) aristocratic (4) systematic
8. Which one of the following statements about the ethnic conflict in Sri Lanka is false? (1) Politics in Sri Lanka openly favoured the Sinhalas. (2) Interests of Tamils were neglected. (3) Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam were supported by the SAARC countries. (4) There was no political equality in Sri Lanka.
9. What was Jawahar Lal Nehru’s first speech called? (1) Wake of the Nation (2) Breaking of Tyranny (3) Tryst with Destiny (4) None of the above
10. Who among the following Prime Ministers wishes to review the “no first use” policy? (1) PM Narendra Modi (2) PM Atal Bihari Vajpeyee (3) PM Manmohan Singh (4) All the above
11. The economic situation in 1967 triggered off: (1) Price rise (2) Price fall (3) Economic progress (4) Military rise
6
OSWAAL CUET (UG) Sample Question Papers, POLITICAL SCIENCE
12. Consider the following statements about ASEAN
and choose the incorrect one/s. (i) ASEAN Community comprises of three pillars, namely, the ASEAN Military Community, the ASEAN Economic Community and the ASEAN Socio-Cultural Community. (ii) The ASEAN Regional Forum (ARF), which was established in 1994, is the organisation that carries out coordination of security and foreign policy. (1) (i) only (2) (ii) only (3) Both (i) and (ii) (4) Neither (i) nor (ii)
13. Which apex body is responsible for decision making and deliberations on development matters in India? (1) Finance Ministry (2) Niti ayog (3) The National Development Council (4) None of the above
14. Which two members of Europe hold the permanent seats on the UN Security Council? (1) Sweden, France (2) Germany, Italy (3) Lithuania, Netherlands (4) Britain and France
(2) (ii) and (iii) only (4) All of the above
19. What is one of the universal criticism given by the
critics to globalization? (1) The rich get richer and the poor get poorer. (2) The economic depression would start in 21st century. (3) It would lead the concentration of the global wealth to one country. (4) None of the above
20. Why was Indira Gandhi called “Goongi Gudiya” in Indian Politics? (1) Because people believed that she was a puppet of powerful leaders. (2) Because she remained an inactive PM at that time. (3) Because she lost the elections and there was a rift in the party. (4) All of the above.
21. The idea of planning in India was drawn from:
15. Which one of the following is a right cause of globalization? (1) The U.S. people initiated globalization. (2) Technology led to globalization. (3) The Cold War led to globalization. (4) The policy of non-alignment led globalization.
iv. All of the above (1) (i) only (3) (i) and (iii) only
to
16. The period when the nuclear test was conducted was a difficult period in: (1) Financial World (2) Foreign politics (3) Military dominance (4) Both ‘1’ and ‘2’
17. What was one of the possible reasons of India’s deteriorating economy? (1) People stopped paying tax (2) After Indo–Pak war 1971, US stopped the economic aid to India (3) Corruption (4) All of the above
18. European Union is a major alternate political and
economic power centre in the unipolar world led by US. Consider the following statements about origin of EU. Which of the following is/are not correct? i. European integration after 1947 was aided by the Cold War. ii. Under the Marshall Plan, the Organisation for European Economic Cooperation (OEEC) was established in 1948 to channel aid to the east European states. iii. The Council of Europe was established in 1948, which was another step forward in political cooperation.
i. the Bombay Plan ii. experiences of the Soviet bloc countries iii. Gandhian vision of society iv. demand by peasant organisations (1) (ii) and (iv) only (2) (iii) and (iv) only (3) (i) and (ii) only (4) All of the above
22. During which Five Year Plan, Soviet Union helped India in setting up industries? (1) Second (2) Fifth (3) First (4) None of the above
23. When did Indira Gandhi recommended dissolution of Lok Sabha? (1) December, 1971 (2) November, 1970 (3) December, 1970 (4) None of the above
24. How did alliance governments emerge? (1) When the government was formed by coalition (2) Smaller parties went into a kind of contract with each other (3) When there was a rift in the bigger political parties (4) None of the above
25. When did the economic situation of the country worsened? (1) During 1966-67 (3) During 1980s
(2) During 1988-90 (4) During 1972-73
26. The Cold War is referred to the competition, the tensions and a series of confrontations between the: (1) United States and the Soviet Union
Sample Question Papers (2) France and Germany (3) India and Pakistan (4) America and Africa
27. VHP stands for: (1) Vishva Hindu Parishad (2) Vishal Hindu Parishad (3) Vishnu Hindu Parishad (4) Vivek Hindu Parishad
28. Which of the following statements is true for the
Cold War? (1) The two superpowers were poised for direct confrontations in India (1950 - 53), Gulf (1958 - 62). (2) The two superpowers were poised for direct confrontations in Berlin only (1958 - 62). (3) The two superpowers were poised for direct confrontations in Korea (1950 - 53), Berlin (1958 - 62). (4) The two superpowers were poised for direct confrontations in Korea only (1950 - 53).
29. After which event in 1917 Soviet Union came into
existence? (1) French Revolution (2) First World War (3) November Revolution (4) Socialist Revolution Direction: In the following question, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as: (1) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
30. Assertion: The conflict of 1962, in which India suffered military reverses, had long-term implications for India–China relations.
Reason: After India regained its independence
from Britain, and China expelled the foreign powers, there was hope that both would come together to shape the future of the developing world and of Asia particularly.
31. Who became the Prime Minister after emergency? (1) Morarji Desai (2) Jay Prakash Narayan (3) Lal Krishna Advani (4) None of the above
32. With its pre-intended goal .......................... the NDA
III Government started several socio-economic welfare schemes to make development accessible to the masses. (1) Jai Jawan,Jai Kisan (2) Jai Jawan, Jai Kisan, Jai Vigyan (3) Sab ka Saath, SabkaVikas (4) Garibi Hatao
7
33. Whom would you like to identify the slogan ‘Indira Hatao’ with? (1) Jayaprakash Narayan (2) Karpoori Thakur (3) V. V. Giri (4) Subhash Chandra Bose
34. Which of these statements about the princely states
is incorrect? (1) Some of the princely states clearly wanted to become part of the Indian Union. (2) The Indian government was ready to give autonomy to some regions. (3) The ruler of Junagadh had decided not be an independent state and be part of independent India. (4) Princely states covered one third of the land area of the British Indian Empire.
35. Which one of the following statements related to the Indo-China war (1962) is correct? (1) China could not cross the line of control. (2) The Soviet Union remained neutral during the conflict. (3) The Soviet Union helped China against India. (4) The Chinese forces did not withdraw their troops back to their earlier position.
36. What was the philosophy presented by Pandit Deendayal Upadhyaya called? (1) Integral Humanism (2) Liberal Humanism (3) One World One Nation (4) None of the above
37. In 1992, the UN General Assembly adopted a resolution related to: (1) UN Security Council (2) NESCO (3) UNICEF (4) World Bank
38. The Congress party had won as many as 415 seats in the Lok Sabha elections in: (1) 1984 (2) 1987 (3) 1989 (4) 1992
39. The wake of globalization was first felt in the 1990s in India when the finance minister, ..................... initiated the economic liberalization plan. (1) Dr. Manmohan Singh (2) V.P. Singh (3) Atal Bihari Vajpayee (4) Rajiv Gandhi
40. India has felt the impact of globalization through increased prosperity, partly triggered by increasing trade volumes, investment and ..................... (1) weapons (2) growth (3) hatred (4) terrorism
8
OSWAAL CUET (UG) Sample Question Papers, POLITICAL SCIENCE
41. Which territory was the issue for the Indo- Pak war in 1947-48 and 1965? (1) Kashmir (2) Parts of Gujarat (3) It was a political rivalry (4) None of the above
42. ............................................. draws the global media’s attention to human rights abuses. (1) Human Rights Power (2) Human Rights Watch (3) Human Rights People (4) Human Rights Torch
43. Why stronger countries’ foreign policies were supported by many countries after WW2? (1) Because stronger countries supported them and aided them financially. (2) Because they were afraid of being colonized again. (3) Because most countries in the world did so. (4) Because they were poor.
44. Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan, the undisputed leader of
the North Western Frontier Province was known as: (1) Frontier Gandhi (2) Father of Pakistan (3) Staunch Muslim (4) Patriot of Pakistan
45. Arrange the following in the chronological order: i. Establishment of Human Rights Council ii. Yalta Conference iii. Atlantic Charter iv. India joins the UN (1) (ii), (iv), (i), (iii) (2) (iii), (ii), (iv), (i) (3) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (4) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
46. Why does the Indian Government expresses a
displeasure with Nepal at times? (1) Because Nepal interprets the borders of India. (2) Because of illegal smuggling of drugs from Nepal. (3) Because of Nepal’s dry political approach. (4) Because of the warm relationship between Nepal and China. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow: In April 1961, the leaders of the Union of Soviet Socialist Republics (USSR) were worried that the United States of America (USA) would invade communist-ruled Cuba
and overthrow Fidel Castro, the president of the small island nation off the coast of the United States. Cuba was an ally of the Soviet Union and received both diplomatic and financial aid from it. Nikita Khrushchev, the leader of the Soviet Union, decided to convert Cuba into a Russian base. In 1962, he placed nuclear missiles in Cuba. The installation of these weapons put the US, for the first time, under fire from close range and nearly doubled the number of bases or cities in the American mainland which could be threatened by the USSR. Three weeks after the Soviet Union had placed the nuclear weapons in Cuba, the Americans became aware of it. The US President, John F. Kennedy, and his advisers were reluctant to do anything that might lead to full-scale nuclear war between the two countries, but they were determined to get Khrushchev to remove the missiles and nuclear weapons from Cuba. Kennedy ordered American warships to intercept any Soviet ships heading to Cuba as a way of warning the USSR of his seriousness. A clash seemed imminent in what came to be known as the Cuban Missile Crisis. The prospects of this clash made the whole world nervous, for it would have been no ordinary war. Eventually, to the world's great relief, both sides decided to avoid war. The Soviet ships slowed down and turned back.
47. The leaders of the Union of Soviet Socialist
Republics (USSR) were worried that… (1) the USA would invade communist-ruled Cuba and overthrow Guevara. (2) the USA would invade communist-ruled Cuba and overthrow Fidel Castro. (3) the USA would invade communist-ruled Cuba to establish democratic government. (4) All of the above.
48. From whom did Cuba receive diplomatic and financial help? (1) Fidel Castro (3) Soviet Union
(2) United Nations (4) John F Kennedy
49. Who decided to convert Cuba into a Russian base? (1) Nikita Khrushchev (3) Fidel Castro (2) America (4) None of the above
50. Who ordered American warships to intercept any
Soviet ships heading to Cuba as a way of warning to USSR? (1) George W Bush (2) Western European countries (3) John F Kennedy (4) All the above
SAMPLE
3
Question Paper Maximum Marks : 200
Time : 45 Minutes
General Instructions : (i) This paper consists of 50 MCQs, attempt any 40 out of 50 (ii) Correct answer or the most appropriate answer: Five marks (+5) (iii) Any incorrect option marked will be given minus one mark (-1) (iv) Unanswered/Marked for Review will be given no mark (0) (v) If more than one option is found to be correct then Five marks (+5) will be awarded to only those who have marked any of the correct options (vi) If all options are found to be correct then Five marks (+5) will be awarded to all those who have attempted the question. (vii) Calculator / any electronic gadgets are not permitted.
1. The Socialist Movement was inspired by the ideas
of: (1) Democracy (2) Socialism (3) Communalism (4) Dictatorship 2. Where was the SAARC established? (1) Delhi (2) Kathmandu (3) Lahore (4) Dhaka 3. Which of the following statements about the NIEO is false? (1) Give the LDCs control over their natural resources. (2) Obtain access to western markets. (3) Reduce the cost of technology from western countries. (4) Provide the developed countries with a greater role in international economic institutions. 4. ............................................ gave up the office because of the popular dissatisfaction against him. (1) Zubaida Jalal Khan (2) General Ayub Khan (3) Imran Khan (4) Benazir Bhutto
5. The ‘Two-Nation Theory’ was based upon: (1) expansion of India (2) bifurcation of the states (3) partition of India (4) All of the Above
6. Warsaw Pact was created in the: (1) 1935 (3) 1955
(2) 1945 (4) 1965
7. Sri Lanka has retained democracy since its independence in: (1) 1938 (3) 1958
(2) 1948 (4) 1968
8. The key to growing India-Israel ties are.................... (1) defence (3) trade
(2) religion (4) politics
9. “The United Nations was not created to take humanity to the heaven, but to save it from the hell.” Who made this statement? (1) Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru (2) Kofi Annan (3) Ban Ki-moon (4) Dag Hammarskjöld
10. When did the America become aware of the weapon placed in Cuba by USSR? (1) On the first day (2) One week later (3) Three weeks later (4) None of the above
11. Rajiv Gandhi’s visit to China took place in December: (1) 1966 (3) 1988
(2) 1977 (4) 1999
12. Which state was carved out of Assam from the following? (1) Meghalaya (3) Manipur
(2) Sikkim (4) Tripura
13. Shock therapy involved a drastic change in the ...................... orientation of the economies. (1) external (2) internal (3) international (4) opposition
14. When was Bhutto Government removed? (1) 1967 (3) 1987
(2) 1977 (4) 1990
15. India and Israel established full diplomatic relations in ..................... .
10
OSWAAL CUET (UG) Sample Question Papers, POLITICAL SCIENCE (1) 1990 (3) 1998
(2) 1993 (4) 1992
16. Reorganisation of the North-East was completed in: (1) 1962 (3) 1982
(2) 1972 (4) 1992
17. On which model was ‘The Planning Commission of India’ setup? (1) Calcutta Model (2) Bombay Plan (3) National Development Model (4) None of the above
18. ...................... witnessed a Civil War that went on for ten years till 2001. (1) Dagestan (3) Chechnya
(2) Tajikistan (4) Moscow
19. When did the Students' Movements start in Gujarat? (1) 1974 (3) 1980
(2) 1970 (4) 1988
20. What step was taken by the King of Nepal in 2002? (1) Abolished monarchy (2) Abolished Constitution (3) Abolished Parliament and dismissed democracy (4) None of the above 21. The model of transition, influenced by the World Bank and the IMF, came to be known as .............. . (1) USSR (2) Shock Therapy (3) United Nations (4) CENTO 22. What was the stand of Indian Government on partition? (1) India did not respond at all. (2) India wanted peace, harmony and equality of religion. (3) India wanted to become a Hindu nation. (4) None of the above. 23. Globalization leads to each culture becoming ......................................... . (1) more different (2) more transparent (3) more distinctive (4) more different and distinctive 24. When was UNESCO established? (1) 6th November, 1946 (2) 5th November, 1945 (3) 4th November, 1946 (4) 25th December, 1946 25. Why were the tribal hostile to the development of Odisha? (1) They feared loss of their employment as well as lodgings. (2) They were illiterate. (3) They never liked intrusion of outsiders.
(4) All of the above
26. With the disappearance of the Soviet Union, the
US stands as the only: (1) Major power (2) Master power (3) Superpower (4) Inner power 27. Who gave slogan “Garibi Hatao”? (1) Lal Bahadur Sashtri (2) Indira Gandhi (3) Jawahar Lal Nehru (4) None of the above 28. Which one of the following is the permanent member of UN? (1) India (2) China (3) Sweden (4) Ireland 29. The foreign policy of independent India vigorously pursued the dream of a peaceful world by advocating the policy of: (1) non-alignment (2) no nuclear weapons (3) military expansion (4) no Cold War Direction: In the following question, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as: (1) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
30. Assertion: The Mandal Commission, or the Socially and Educationally Backward Classes Commission (SEBC), was established in India on 1979 by the Janata Party government under Prime Minister Morarji Desai.
Reason: It was formed to identify the socially or
educationally backward classes to consider the question of seat reservations and quotas for people to redress caste discrimination, and used eleven social, economic and educational indicators to determine backwardness.
31. When was the NDC setup? (1) 6 August, 1952 (3) 7 August, 1952
(2) 6 December, 1952 (4) 10 June, 1952
32. Who succeeded Morarji Desai? (1) Ram Manohar Lohia (2) Indira Gandhi (3) Chaudhary Charan Singh (4) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
33. Whose name was proposed by the syndicate for the Presidential elections 1969? (1) K Kamraj (2) V V Giri (3) N Sanjeeva Reddy (4) None of these
34. The main agenda of the World Social Forum is: (1) opposition to terrorism. (2) opposition to neo-liberal globalization. (3) opposition to colonialism. (4) opposition to communism.
Sample Question Papers 35. .......................... was unanimously chosen as the leader of the Congress Parliamentary Party after the death of Nehru. (1) Indira Gandhi (2) Lal Bahadur Shastri (3) Morarji Desai (4) Natarajan Annadurai
36. When did India and China signed Panchsheel Agreement? (1) 24 April, 1954 (3) 30 April, 1954
(2) 29 April, 1954 (4) 1 March, 1959
37. Globalization has ......................... dimensions.
11
(3) US Aid (4) Peace Treaty
45. The Shah Commission was headed by: (1) Justice K C Shah (3) Justice M C Shah
(2) Justice J C Shah (4) Justice D C Shah
46. When did India intervened the Bangladesh Liberation War? (1) November 1971 (3) December 1971
(2) February 1971 (4) December 1972
Study the cartoon given below and answer the following questions:
(1) political and social (2) social and economic (3) political and economic (4) political, social and economic
38. Who organised a nationwide Satyagraha forcing Indira Gandhi to resign? (1) Atal Bihari Vajpayee (2) Jay Prakash Narayan (3) Lal Bahadur Sashtri (4) None of the above
39. When did Congress party split into two groups? (1) 1969 (3) 1959
(2) 1979 (4) 1960
40. Prime Minister Jawahar Lal Nehru passed away in May: (1) 1954 (3) 1974
(2) 1964 (4) 1984
41. Globalisation has allowed the ..................... of customs, language and products. (1) restriction (2) spread (3) devaluing (4) escalation
42. The impact of the Emergency was felt most strongly in the ................... part of the country. (1) northern (2) southern (3) eastern (4) western
43. How India became an exporter of primary goods
and raw materials and a consumer of finished goods? (1) Because of its riches in agriculture (2) During the Mughal period its exports increased (3) As a consequence of Britain’s imperial ambitions its exports started (4) None of the above
44. The ............................ laid foundation for Non
Alignment Movement established in 1961 with Nehru as the co-founder. (1) Bandung Conference (2) Foreign Policy
47. Identify the leader numbered 3 in the cartoon. (1) Rajiv Gandhi (2) L K Advani (3) V P Singh (4) Devi Lal
48. Which was the most controversial issue of the
period related to leader no. 2 as Prime Minister of India? (1) Implementation of emergency in the country (2) Implementation of tax reforms (3) Implementation of Mandal Commission’s recommendation (4) Implementation of Foreign Direct Investment
49. Who is leader numbered 1 here? What was the result of elections 1989 led by him? (1) V P Singh. He could not form the government at all. (2) Rajiv Gandhi. Party reduced to from majority to minority in Parliament. (3) L K Advani. Party was able to secure reasonable seats in the Parliament. (4) None of the above.
50. In 1989 elections, how many seats did Congress win? (1) 145 (3) 180
(2) 157 (4) 415
SAMPLE
4
Question Paper Maximum Marks : 200
Time : 45 Minutes
General Instructions : (i) This paper consists of 50 MCQs, attempt any 40 out of 50 (ii) Correct answer or the most appropriate answer: Five marks (+5) (iii) Any incorrect option marked will be given minus one mark (-1) (iv) Unanswered/Marked for Review will be given no mark (0) (v) If more than one option is found to be correct then Five marks (+5) will be awarded to only those who have marked any of the correct options (vi) If all options are found to be correct then Five marks (+5) will be awarded to all those who have attempted the question. (vii) Calculator / any electronic gadgets are not permitted.
1. The first nuclear explosion undertaken by India
was in May: (1) 1964 (2) 1974 (3) 1984 (4) 1994 2. Amrita Pritam was a prominent poet from: (1) Gujarat (2) Madras (3) Punjab (4) UP 3. What is the full form of SEATO ? (1) South East Asian Team Organization (2) South East Asian Tally organization (3) South East Asian Treaty organization (4) South East Asian Task organization 4. Nehru was our first Prime Minister as well as: (1) Health Minister (2) Foreign Minister (3) Education Minister (4) Finance Minister 5. The interim government formed under the cabinet mission plan was headed by (1) Dr. Rajendra Prasad. (2) Jawaharlal Nehru. (3) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel. (4) Rajagopalachari. Direction: In the following question, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as: (1) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
6. Assertion: Support for Pakistan came from the
US and China. The US-China rapprochement that
began in the late 1960s resulted in a realignment of forces in Asia. Reason: In order to counter the US-Pakistan-China axis, India signed a 20-year Treaty of Peace and Friendship with the Soviet Union in August 1971. 7. Bharatiya Janata Party was formed in: (1) 1960 (2) 1970 (3) 1980 (4) 1990 8. When did the Students’ Movements start in Gujarat? (1) 1974 (2) 1970 (3) 1980 (4) 1988 9. When were the general elections held after emergency? (1) 1978 (2) 1977 (3) 1980 (4) 1981 10. Garibi Hatao slogan was given by the Congress in the elections of …? (1) 1972 (2) 1990 (3) 1960 (4) 1971
11. Which party did Morarji Desai belong? (1) Congress (2) Janata Dal (3) Bhartiya Janata Party (4) Congress 12. The expression ‘South Asia’ usually includes: (1) Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, the Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka (2) Bangladesh, Ukraine, India, the Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka (3) Bangladesh, Bhutan, Utopia, the Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka (4) Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, the Melbourne, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka
Sample Question Papers 13. When was European Union formed?
(1) 1992 (2) 1990 (3) 1991 (4) 1993 14. The main objectives of the International Atomic Energy Agency are to promote the peaceful use of (1) Nuclear energy (2) Global trade (3) Military power (4) Veto power 15. When did the Cold War begin? (1) After the Second World War (2) During the Second World War (3) Between 1914 and 1918 (4) Between 1939 and 1945 16. ...................... is becoming an accepted norm in the entire region of South Asia. (1) Authorization (2) Democracy (3) Dictatorship (4) Socialism 17. What were the leaders of USSR worried about in 1961? (1) That USA will attack China (2) That USA will be the most powerful nation (3) That USA will develop more nuclear weapons (4) That USA will attack Cuba and overthrow Fidel Castro 18. Atal Bihari Vajpayee served as the PM of India from: (1) 2000 to 2005 (2) 2003 to 2014 (3) 1999 to 2004 (4) None of the above 19. What were the areas of dispute between India and China in 1962 conflict? (1) Jammu and Kashmir (2) Western Kashmir (3) West Bengal (4) Arunachal Pradesh and in the Aksai Chin region of Ladakh 20. East Pakistan broke away to emerge as an independent country called: (1) Bangladesh (2) Burma (3) West Pakistan (4) Afghanistan 21. Why BRIC turned into BRICS? (1) South Africa was included later (2) Somalia was included later (3) “S” stands for South Asian Alliance (4) None of the above
22. ...................... gave up the office because of the popular dissatisfaction against him. (1) Zubaida Jalal Khan (2) General Ayub Khan (3) Imran Khan (4) Benazir Bhutto
23. In which year NAM was planned out? (1) 1956 (3) 1990
(2) 1960 (4) 1957
24. Who organised a nationwide Satyagraha forcing Indira Gandhi to resign? (1) Atal Bihari Vajpayee (2) Jay Prakash Narayan
13
(3) Lal Bahadur Sashtri (4) None of the above
25. For how many years Lal Bahadur Sashtri remained cabinet minister prior becoming the PM? (1) four (2) three (3) five (4) ten
26. When did the assembly elections in Gujarat took place after the pressure of the protests? (1) July 1975 (2) June 1975 (3) March 1973 (4) April 1974
27. Which of the following statements about the Cold War is wrong? (1) It was an ideological war between the superpowers. (2) It was a competition between the US and Soviet Union and their respective allies. (3) It triggered of an arms race. (4) The US and USSR were engaged in direct war.
28. Who persuaded Indira Gandhi to believe that she will win 1977 elections? (1) Her party (2) Exit polls (3) Her intelligence agencies (4) Her self-instincts
29. What was the concept of becoming more ‘modern’? (1) Industrialized countries in West (2) Developing like an own identity of developed nation (3) Adopting globalization to a higher extent (4) Adopting western capitalist modal of economy
30. Expand LTTE. (1) Liberation Tactics of Tamil Eelam (2) Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam (3) Liberation Tier of Tamil Eelam (4) Liberation Team of Tamil Eelam
31. The economic situation in 1967 triggered off: (1) Price rise (2) Price fall (3) Economic progress (4) Military rise
32. Which UN agency concerned with the safety and peaceful use of nuclear technology? (1) The UN Committee on Disarmament (2) International Atomic Energy Agency (3) UN International Safeguard Committee (4) None of the above
33. The country that is Bhutan’s biggest source of development aid is (1) the USA
(2) Russia
(3) India
(4) Maldives
34. Independence movement begins in Lithuania in – (1) 1985
(2) 1988
(3) 1989
(4) 1991
14
OSWAAL CUET (UG) Sample Question Papers, POLITICAL SCIENCE
35. When Indira Gandhi recommended dissolution of Lok Sabha? (1) December 1971
(2) November 1970
(3) December 1970
(4) None of the above
36. ...................... Policy has been adopted by NITI Aayog. (1) Make in India (2) Come on India (3) Start-up India (4) Swachch Bharat 37. The Berlin wall fall in _________. (1) November 1989 (2) December 1989 (3) January 1990 (4) February 1990 38. In 1946, who was chairman of the Planning Advisory Board? (1) K C Neogy (2) Sardar Patel (3) Dr. Ambedkar (4) None of the above 39. ...................... play an important role in the economy of developing countries like India. (1) Private sectors (2) Public sectors (3) Union ministers (4) State government 40. Farakka Agreement is related to which of the countries? (1) Indo-Pak (2) India- Bhutan (3) India- Bangladesh (4) India-Nepal 41. The Grand Alliance of opposition of 1971 : (1) got a combined tally of seats that was less than 40. (2) had a clear ideological programme. (3) had a grand finish in the 1970 elections. (4) proved to be a great success. 42. The Warsaw pact was______ . (1) an economic alliance (2) an political alliance (3) a military alliance (4) none of the above 43. The US, Japan, Germany, France, the UK, Italy, Canada and Russia are the: (1) G8 members (2) D8 members (3) Cold War countries (4) Dominating members
44. Who is the single largest contributor to UN? (1) China (3) US
(2) India (4) Europe
45. Bolshevik Communist party was founded by (1) Vladimir Lenin (2) Stalin (3) Nikita Khrushchev (4) Leonid Brezhnev
46. Who led the popular struggle against West Pakistani domination? (1) Yahya Khan (2) Ayub Khan (3) Sheikh Mujib-Ur-Rahman (4) Zia-Ul-Haq
Case Based: Read the passage given below carefully and answer the questions that follows: The nineties also saw the emergence of powerful parties and movements that represented the Dalit and backward castes (Other Backward Classes or OBCs). Many of these parties represented powerful regional assertion as well. These parties played an important role in the United Front government that came to power in 1996. The United Front was similar to the National Front of 1989 for it included Janata Dal and several regional parties. This time the BJP did not support the government. The United Front government was supported by the Congress. This shows how unstable the political equations were. In 1989, both the Left and the BJP supported the National Front Government because they wanted to keep the Congress out of power. In 1996, the Left continued to support the non-Congress government but this time the Congress, supported it, as both the Congress and the Left wanted to keep the BJP out of power.
47. What is the full form of OBC? (1) Other Backward Castes (2) Other Backward Classes (3) Other Below Classes (4) None of the above
48. When was the United Front Government formed? (1) 1997 (3) 1990
(2) 1998 (4) 1996
49. Who supported the United Front Government? (1) BJP (2) Communist Party of India (3) Congress (4) NDA
50. The Left and Congress continued to support
United Front government: (1) because they wanted to keep BJP out of power. (2) because this was the most stable government of that time. (3) because it had the great support from people. (4) All of the above
SAMPLE
5
Question Paper Maximum Marks : 200
Time : 45 Minutes
General Instructions : (i) This paper consists of 50 MCQs, attempt any 40 out of 50 (ii) Correct answer or the most appropriate answer: Five marks (+5) (iii) Any incorrect option marked will be given minus one mark (-1) (iv) Unanswered/Marked for Review will be given no mark (0) (v) If more than one option is found to be correct then Five marks (+5) will be awarded to only those who have marked any of the correct options (vi) If all options are found to be correct then Five marks (+5) will be awarded to all those who have attempted the question. (vii) Calculator / any electronic gadgets are not permitted.
1. The German Ideology was written by (1) Lenin (2) Karl Marx and Friedrich Engels (3) Karl Marx (4) Friedrich Engels
2. Positive Liberty is advocated by (1) J.S. Mill (3) Locke
(2) Isaiah Berlin (4) T.H. Green
3. Which organisation came into existence in April 1949? (1) SEATO (3) NATO
(2) CENTO (4) Warsaw Pact
4. The USSR came into being after the Socialist Revolution in Russia in the year (1) 1915. (2) 1916. (3) 1917. (4) 1918.
5. Which among the following statements that
describe the nature of the Soviet economy is wrong? (1) Socialism was the dominant ideology (2) State ownership/control existed over the factors of production (3) People enjoyed economic freedom (4) Every aspect of the economy was planned and controlled by the State
6. The Warsaw pact was led by: (1) Japan (3) Italy
(2) Britain (4) the Soviet Union
7. Which country in Central Asia witnessed a civil war that went on for ten years? (1) Azerbaijan (2) Tajikistan
(3) Uzbekistan
(4) Turkmenistan
8. The Chechens are (1) Buddhist group. (2) Christain ethnic group. (3) Jewish ethnic group. (4) Muslim ethnic group.
9. The Western Alliance was headed by (1) the United States (3) the Soviet Union
(2) Brazil (4) Balkan countries
10. India and Israel established full diplomatic relations in ..................... . (1) 1990 (2) 1993 (3) 1998 (4) 1992
11. How many judges are there in the International Court of Justice? (1) Fifteen judges (3) Seventeen judges
(2) Sixteen judges (4) Eighteen judges
12. The International Court of Justice popularly known as the (1) World Court (3) Criminal Court
(2) Supreme Court (4) Subordinate Courts
13. The United Nations was founded on
(1) 24th October 1945. (2) 30th October 1945. (3) 26th June 1945. (4) 26th January 1942.
14. Who became General Secretary of the Communist Party of the Soviet Union in 1985? (1) Joseph Stalin. (2) Nikita Khrushchev. (3) Mikhail Gorbachev. (4) Vladimir Ilyich Lenin.
16
OSWAAL CUET (UG) Sample Question Papers, POLITICAL SCIENCE
15. The Western Alliance was headed by (1) the United States (3) the Soviet Union
(2) Brazil (4) Balkan countries
16. Operation Iraqi Freedom was launched on: (1) 21 April, 2003 (3) 23 March, 2003
(2) 19 March, 2004 (4) 19 March, 2003
17. The rivalry between USA & USSR during the postsecond world war period is known as: (1) Apartheid (2) Cold War (3) Policy of Non-Alignment (4) Hot war
18. Which one of the following was a part of its global war on terrorism by the US? (1) ‘Operation desert storm’ (2) Computer war (3) ‘Operation enduring freedom’ (4) Videogame war
19. When did India conduct a nuclear explosion in Pokhran? (1) 1996 (3) 1998
(2) 1997 (4) 1999
20. A landlocked country of South Asia with Maoist guerrillas: (1) the Maldives. (3) Nepal.
(2) Bangladesh. (4) Pakistan.
21. Which one of the following statements about the ethnic conflict in Sri Lanka is false? (1) Politics in Sri Lanka openly favoured the Sinhalas. (2) Interests of Tamils were neglected. (3) Liberation Tigers of Tamil Elam were supported by the SAARC countries. (4) There was no political equality in Sri Lanka. 22. Who proposed the ‘four modernisations’ in China? (1) Mao Zedong (2) Zhou Enlai (3) Deng Xiaoping (4) None of the above 23. ASEAN stands for (1) Alliance of Southeast Asian Nations (2) Alliance of Southern Asian Nations (3) Association of South West Asian Nations (4) Association of South-East Asian Nations 24. The event that took place in 1961 was: (1) The construction of the Berlin wall (2) Soviet intervention in Afghanistan (3) Vietnamese Intervention in Cambodia (4) The unification of Germany 25. The country that gave the aid and technical assistance for steel plants in India is (1) The United States. (2) USSR. (3) Russia. (4) Japan. 26. When USSR place nuclear missiles in Cuba? (1) 1960 (2) 1961 (3) 1962 (4) 1963
27. Which among the following statements about
hegemony is incorrect? (1) The word implies the leadership or predominance of one state. (2) It was used to denote the predominance of Athena in ancient Greece. (3) The country has a hegemonic position will possess unchallenged military power. (4) Hegemonic position is fixed. Once a hegemon. always a hegemon.
28. Which two ideologies were involved in a conflict during the Cold War era? (1) Communism and Capitalism (2) Monarchism and Capitalism (3) Communalism and Capitalism (4) None of the above
29. US embassies were bombed by Al-Qaeda in (1) Dublin (3) Dar-es-Salaam
(2) New Delhi (4) Zimbabwe
30. After the Second World War, the world was divided into the blocks of (1) U.S.A and U.K. (3) Japan and Korea
(2) USSR and China (4) U.S.A and USSR
31. The headquarters of the US defence department is at (1) New York. (3) Pennsylvania.
(2) Washington. (4) Virginia.
32. The Russian Revolution in 1917 was led by (1) Joseph Stalin. (2) Nikita Khrushchev. (3) Mikhail Gorbachev. (4) Vladimir Ilyich Lenin.
33. When did the Soviet Union collapse? (1) 1989 (3) 1991
(2) 1990 (4) 1992
34. The Russian Revolution was led by Vladimir Ilyich Lenin in the year (1) 1914 (3) 1916
(2) 1719 (4) 1917
35. What was ‘Operation Iraqi Freedom’? (1) A Military operation (2) An Economic operation (3) A Military Pact (4) An Economic Pact
36. Bolshevik Communist party was founded by (1) Vladimir Lenin (2) Stalin (3) Nikita Khrushchev (4) Leonid Brezhnev
37. Which was the first Soviet Republic to declare its independence from Soviet Russia? (1) Lithuania (2) Moldova (3) Armenia (4) Georgia
Sample Question Papers Direction: In the following question, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as: (1) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
38. Assertion: The nationalist leaders were clear that the economic concerns of the government of free India would have to be different from the narrowly defined commercial functions of the colonial government.
Reason: It was further clear that the eradication
of the poverty was not the responsibility of the government, but the people.
39. Select the correct option for the leader and the country that helped to reach the Tashkent agreement between India and Pakistan: (1) India, Nehru (2) USSR, Kosygin (3) Egypt, Nasser (4) Indonesia, Sukarno
40. Sri Lanka is a member of : (1) SAARC (3) G7
(2) UNESCO (4) WHO
41. When did India and China signed Panchsheel agreement? (1) 24 April, 1954 (3) 30 April, 1954
(2) 29 April, 1954 (4) 1 March, 1959
42. Who among the Prime Ministers of wishes to review the “no first use” policy? (1) PM Narendra Modi (2) PM Atal Bihari Vajpeyee (3) PM Manmohan Singh (4) All the above
43. Which of the two conflicts between India and Pakistan could have led to a nuclear war? (1) 1999 and 2001 (2) 2000 and 2008 (3) 1999 and 2003 (4) None of the above
44. From the year 1964 to 1966 was the tenure of which PM of India? (1) Indira Gandhi (2) Jawaharlal Nehru (3) Lal Bahadur Shastri (4) None of the above
17
45. In how many states a coalition government of noncongress parties were formed? (1) Eight (2) Seven (3) Six (4) Ten
46. What was the famous slogan given by Shastri? (1) “Aya Ram, Gaya Ram” (2) “Swachha Bharat, Swastha Bharat” (3) “Jai Jawan, Jai Kisan” (4) None of the above Case Based. Read the passage given below carefully and answer the questions that follows: Earlier, Lal Bahadur Shastri had resigned from the position of Railway Minister accepting moral responsibility for a major railway accident. Shastri was the country’s Prime Minister from 1964 to 1966. During Shastri’s brief Prime Ministership, the country faced two major challenges. While India was still recovering from the economic implications of the war with China; failed monsoons, drought and serious food crisis presented a grave challenge. As discussed in the previous chapter, the country also faced a war with Pakistan in 1965. Shastri’s famous slogan ‘Jai Jawan, Jai Kisan’, symbolised the country’s resolve to face both these challenges. Shastri’s Prime Ministership came to an abrupt end on 10 January, 1966, when he suddenly expired in Tashkent, then in USSR and currently the capital of Uzbekistan. He was there to discuss and sign an agreement with Muhammad Ayub Khan, the then President of Pakistan, to end the war.
47. Why Shastri resigned from the position of Railway
Minister? (1) Accepting moral responsibility for railway accident. (2) He was forced to resign. (3) His party lost elections. (4) None of the above.
48. What was the tenure of Shastri as a PM of India? (1) 1966 to 1970 (3) 1964 to 1966
(2) 1967 to 1970 (4) None of the above
49. Who led the Narmada Bachao Andolan? (1) Medha Patkar (3) Shabana Azmi
(2) Rajni Sharma (4) Meira Kumar
50. In which year All India Kisan Sabha was established? (1) 1930 (3) 1940
(2) 1936 (4) 1950
SAMPLE
6
Question Paper Maximum Marks : 200
Time : 45 Minutes
General Instructions : (i) This paper consists of 50 MCQs, attempt any 40 out of 50 (ii) Correct answer or the most appropriate answer: Five marks (+5) (iii) Any incorrect option marked will be given minus one mark (-1) (iv) Unanswered/Marked for Review will be given no mark (0) (v) If more than one option is found to be correct then Five marks (+5) will be awarded to only those who have marked any of the correct options (vi) If all options are found to be correct then Five marks (+5) will be awarded to all those who have attempted the question. (vii) Calculator / any electronic gadgets are not permitted. Direction: In the following question, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as: (1) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
1. Assertion: One of the developments was the rise of the ‘Mandal issue’ in national politics.
Reason: This followed the decision by the new
National Front government in 1990, to implement the recommendation of the Mandal Commission that jobs in Central Government should be reserved for the Other Backward Classes.
2. What is the full form of OBC? (1) Other Backward Castes (2) Other Backward Classes (3) Other Below Classes (4) None of the above
3. When was the United Front Government formed? (1) 1997
(2) 1998
(3) 1990
(4) 1996
4. What is one of the “grey areas” of coalition politics? (1) Its too fragile (2) Citizens are not given advantage (3) Horse trading (4) All of the above
5. The key to growing India -Israel ties are: (1) defence
(2) religion
(3) trade
(4) politics
6. The Shah Commission was headed by: (1) Justice K C Shah (2) Justice J C Shah (3) Justice M C Shah (4) Justice D C Shah 7. The ................... elections turned into a referendum on the experience of the Emergency. (1) 1969 (2) 1977 (3) 1979 (4) 1989 8. Choose the correct option of the following to save democracy. (1) At times military rule should be imposed to curb the violent crisis (2) By focusing more on people’s Fundamental Rights, with the strong opposition in the Parliament as well as in Legislative Assembly against the undemocratic practices (3) By giving complete power to the President of the country (4) All of the above
9. In how many states Congress lost majority? (1) Five states (2) Seven states (3) Nine states (4) Eleven states 10. Who was the Vice-President to Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan? (1) V. V. Giri (2) N Sanjeeva Reddy (3) Zakir Hussain (4) None of the above 11. Whose name was proposed for President by Indira Gandhi? (1) V. V. Giri (2) N Sanjeeva Reddy (3) Zakir Hussain (4) Indira Gandhi herself 12. What was the motto of Grand Alliance? (1) Garibi Hatao (2) Economy Badhao (3) Corruption Hatao (4) Indira Hatao
Sample Question Papers 13. When Indira Gandhi recommended dissolution of
Lok Sabha? (1) December 1971 (2) November 1970 (3) December 1970 (4) None of the above. 14. In General Elections 1971 which party was supported by the majority of the voters? (1) Congress (O) (2) Congress (R) (3) Congress (4) UPA 15. Why stronger countries’ foreign policies were supported by many countries after WW2? (1) Because stronger countries supported them and aided them financially. (2) Because they were afraid of being colonized again. (3) Because most countries in the world did so. (4) Because they were poor. 16. In post WW2 era, why the tensions were erupted between India and US? (1) US feared that India would join USSR. (2) US wanted to colonize India. (3) The NAM pursued by India was not liked by USA. (4) None of the above. 17. On which model was The Planning Commission of India setup? (1) Calcutta model (2) Bombay Plan (3) National Development Model (4) None of the above 18. The event that took place in 1961 was (1) The construction of the Berlin Wall (2) Soviet intervention in Afghanistan (3) Vietnamese Intervention in Cambodia (4) The unification of Germany 19. Which two ideologies were involved in a conflict during the Cold War era? (1) Communism and Capitalism (2) Monarchism and Capitalism (3) Communalism and Capitalism (4) None of the above
20. The Soviet Union invaded Afghanistan in the year (1) 1975
(2) 1977
(3) 1979
(4) 1981
21. The revolution of Russia in 1917 was inspired by
19
23. Which of the following statement is not true about Boris Yeltsin? (1) He was the second elected President of Russia (2) He was made the Mayor of Moscow by Mikhail Gorbachev (3) He played a key role in dissolving the Soviet Union (4) None of the above
24. Consider the following statements regarding Organization for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW) and choose the incorrect one/s. 1. OPCW is an inter governmental organization located in Brussels. 2. The organization promotes and verifies the adherence to the chemical weapons only. 3. OPCW is not an agency of the United Nations. (1) 1 only (2) 2 and 3 only (3) 1 and 2 only (4) 3 only
25. What was the duration of Cold War? (1) 1914-1919 (3) 1945-1991
(2) 1939-1945 (4) 1965-1991
26. United states used cruise missile against Serbia in (1) 1995 (3) 1998
(2) 1997 (4) 1999
27. Name the place where the fourth Air plane was crashed in 9/11 attack? (1) Pennsylvania (2) World Trade centre (3) Pentagon (4) Washington DC
28. In which meeting there was a protest alleging that unfair trading practiced by the developed countries? (1) WTO ministerial meetings at Seattle in 1992 (2) IMF meetings at Washington in 1994 (3) WTO ministerial meeting at Paris in 1990 (4) WTO ministerial meeting at London in 1988
29. At the most simple level, globalisation results in an erosion of ..... (1) political capacity
(2) state capacity
(3) capital capacity
(4) global capacity
30. What is the integration between countries
Ideals
through foreign trade and foreign investments by multinational corporations (MNCs)?
(1) Socialism
(1) International trade
(2) Capitalism
(2) Globalization
(3) Socialism as well as Capitalism
(3) International investment
(4) None of the above
(4) World trade
22. Name the disputed area between Azerbaijan and Armenia
31. Which of the following is not a contributory factor for development?
(1) Yugoslavia
(2) Nagorno-Karabakh
(1) Abundance of national resources
(3) Kotayk
(4) Shirak
(2) Character of people
20
OSWAAL CUET (UG) Sample Question Papers, POLITICAL SCIENCE (3) Frequent and free elections (4) Level of technology
32. What is the contribution of India in the growth of trade since 1999? (1) 50%
(2) 20%
(3) 10%
(4) 30%
33. Which of the following is one of the founding members of SAARC? (1) Bangladesh
(2) Japan
(3) Russia
(4) US
34. The state which has achieved nearly total literacy in India is (1) Tamil Nadu
(2) Andhra Pradesh
(3) Kerala
(4) Manipur
35. The idea of Five Year Plan was adopted in India from (1) the United States of America (2) Japan (3) United Soviet Socialist Republics (4) Australia
36. During 1965-67 which state faced a near-famine situation? (1) Tamil Nadu
(3) Andhra Pradesh
(2) Bihar
(4) Manipur
37. During which Five Year Plan, Soviet Union helped India in setting up industries? (1) Second
(2) Fifth
(3) First
(4) None of the above
38. Why is it difficult to maintain balance in the contemporary world? (1) Amid the ego and clashes between the powerful nations it becomes difficult to maintain balance. (2) Amid the cooperation among the nations it becomes difficult to maintain balance. (3) Because weaker nations don’t know how to deal with international issues. (4) Because of the increasing economic differences it becomes difficult to maintain balance.
39. Who visited India in 2005 for the first phase of SR Talks? (1) Premier Wen Jiabao (2) Premier Li Keqiang (3) Both the above (4) None of the above
40. Why was there a pressure of Indian Tamils to protect and safeguard the interests of Tamil living in Sri Lanka?
(1) Because Tamils living in Sri Lanka share the same ethnicity with Indian Tamils. (2) Because the conflict in Sri Lanka involves people of Indian origin. (3) Because Tamils from Sri Lanka are the ancestors of Indian Tamils. (4) All of the above
41. Which of these statements about the princely states is incorrect: (1) Some of the princely states clearly wanted to become part of the Indian Union (2) The Indian Government was ready to give autonomy to some regions. (3) The ruler of Junagadh had decided not be an independent state and be part of independent India. (4) Princely states covered one third of the land area of the British Indian Empire.
42. When did Mahatma Gandhi die? (1) 30th January 1948 (2) 31st January 1948 (3) 30th December 1948 (4) 30th November 1948
43. Which state was carved out of Assam from the following: (1) Meghalaya (2) Sikkim (3) Manipur (4) Tripura K
44. To whom does the President refer the bill after his review? (1) Parliament (2) State Assembly (3) Prime Minister (4) None of these
45. “The legislation constituting a new State from any region of a State should originate from the legislature of the State concerned.” This proposal who put forth by whom in 1948? (1) Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar (2) Prof. KT Shah (3) Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru (4) Sardar Patel
46. Where did the Andhra’s get resolution from? (1) Supreme Court (2) Madras Legislature (3) Madras high Court (4) Delhi
Sample Question Papers Case Based: Study the picture below and answer the questions that follow:
21
(3) Boycotting foreign products. (4) Reduce exports of Indian goods.
48. Which year does the event happened? (1) 1962
(2) 1974
(3) 1969
(4) 1950
49. Which event does this cartoon depict? (1) Recession (2) Globalization (3) Chinese Invasion (4) Historical buffer
50. Which two countries relationship were strained 47. What message does this cartoon convey? (1) Scenario of recession. (2) Persisting Indo- China tensions.
after Suppression of Tibetan culture? (1) India and Nepal (2) India and Bangladesh (3) India and China (4) India and Myanmar
SAMPLE
Question Paper Maximum Marks : 200
7 Time : 40 Minutes
General Instructions : (i) This paper consists of 50 MCQs, attempt any 40 out of 50 (ii) Correct answer or the most appropriate answer: Five marks (+5) (iii) Any incorrect option marked will be given minus one mark (-1) (iv) Unanswered/Marked for Review will be given no mark (0) (v) If more than one option is found to be correct then Five marks (+5) will be awarded to only those who have marked any of the correct options (vi) If all options are found to be correct then Five marks (+5) will be awarded to all those who have attempted the question. (vii) Calculator / any electronic gadgets are not permitted.
1. The US operation in Iraq was called: (1) Operation Desert Suicide (2) Operation Desert Storm (3) Operation Desert Qaeda (4) Operation Desert Hamas
2. When did the Soviet Union collapse? (1) 1989 (3) 1991
(2) 1990 (4) 1992
3. The World Trade Center and Pentagon buildings of the USA were attacked by: (1) Zamait–e-Islami. (2) Al-Qaeda. (3) Al-Badr. (4) Hamas.
4. Which country in Central Asia witnessed a civil war that went on for ten years? (1) Azerbaijan (2) Tajikistan (3) Uzbekistan (4) Turkmenistan
5. The United States was founded in which year? (1) 1774 (3) 1778
(2) 1776 (4) 1780
6. The Berlin wall fall in (1) November 1989 (2) December 1989 (3) January 1990 (4) February 1990 7. The ‘Operation Iraqi Freedom’ was launched on (1) 19th March 2003 (2) 19th March 2004 st (3) 21 March 2003 (4) 21st March 2004 8. The most severe conflict took place in the Balkan republics of: (1) Bulgaria (2) Greece (3) Yugoslavia (4) Macedonia 9. Who became General Secretary of the Communist Party of the Soviet Union in 1985?
(1) Joseph Stalin (2) Nikita Khrushchev (3) Mikhail Gorbachev (4) Vladimir Ilyich Lenin 10. The ‘ASEAN Way’ (1) Reflects the lifestyle of ASEAN members (2) A form of interaction among ASEAN members that is informal and co-operative. (3) The defence policy followed by the ASEAN members. (4) The road that connects all the ASEAN members.
11. Which among the following statements about
hegemony is incorrect? (1) The word implies the leadership or predominance of one state. (2) It was used to denote the predominance of Athena in ancient Greece. (3) The country has a hegemonic position will possess unchallenged military power. (4) Hegemonic position is fixed. Once a hegemon. always a hegemon.
12. The Soviet Union invaded Afghanistan in the year (1) 1975 (3) 1979
(2) 1977 (4) 1981
13. Which one of the following was NOT given primacy by the makers of the Soviet System? (1) Abolition of private property (2) Society based on the principle of equality (3) No opposition party to be allowed (4) No state control over the economy
14. Which among the following statements about the partition is incorrect? (1) Partition of India was the outcome of the ‘Two Nation Theory.’
Sample Question Papers (2) Punjab and Bengal were the two provinces divided on the basis of religion. (3) East Pakistan and West Pakistan were not contiguous. (4) The scheme of partition included a plan for the transfer of population across the border.
15. Russia took over the U.S.S.R. seat in the U.N. in: (1) December 1991 (2) November 1989 (3) December 1990 (4) October 1992.
16. Which one of the following was a part of its global war on terrorism by the US.? (1) ‘Operation desert storm’ (2) Computer war (3) ‘Operation enduring freedom’ (4) Videogame war
17. In which year did Gorbachev become General Secretary of the Communist Party of the U.S.S.R.? (1) 1989 (2) 1990 (3) 1987 (4) 1985
18. The root of the word ‘hegemony’ lies in the (1) Latin. (3) French.
(2) Classical Greeks. (4) Spanish.
19. When India got Independence? (1) 1947 (3) 1952
(2) 1949 (4) 1962
20. The more weightage to India’s proposal for permanent membership in the Security Council is (1) Nuclear capability (2) Located in Asia (3) India’s membership in the UN (4) India’s growing economic power and stable political system
21. Choose the correct term for coming together of
two or more political parties to form a government. (1) United Government (2) Coalition Government (3) National Government (4) None of the above
22. Who headed the coalition government of 1989? (1) Chandra Shekhar (2) V.P. Singh (3) I.K. Gujral (4) Rajiv Gandhi.
23. Where Anti-Arrack Movement was started? (1) Haryana (3) Punjab
(2) Andhra Pradesh (4) Tamil Nadu
24. Which of the statements below are incorrect? (1) Social movements are hampering the functioning of India’s democracy. (2) The main strength of social movements lies in their mass base across social sections.
23
(3) Social movements in India emerged because there were many issues that political parties did not address. (4) None of the above
25. Which one of the following statements related to the Iraq invasion by the US is incorrect? (1) More than forty other countries were involved in this invasion (2) The UN had given consent to invade Iraq (3) The invasion was to prevent Iraq from developing weapons of mass destruction (4) The US lost over 3000 military personnel in this war
26. Bolshevik Communist party was founded by (1) Vladimir Lenin. (2) Stalin. (3) Nikita Khrushchev. (4) Leonid Brezhnev.
27. The first business school in the world is (1) Harvard School. (3) Wharton School.
(2) Oxford School. (4) Stanford School.
28. Which was the first Soviet Republic to declare its independence from Soviet Russia? (1) Lithuania. (2) Moldova. (3) Armenia. (4) Georgia.
29. When Iraq invaded Kuwait? (1) June1990 (3) August 1990
(2) July1990 (4) September1990
30. Which among the following Is NOT an Outcome
of the disintegration of the USS.R.? (1) End of the ideological war between the U.S and U.S.S.R (2) Birth of CTS (3) Change in the balance of power in the world order (4) Crises in the Middle East.
31. When was LTTE vanquished? (1) 2006 (3) 2009
(2) 2008 (4) 2010
32. In Nepal, there was a violent conflict between the armed forces of the King and (1) Maoist guerrillas. (2) Political activists. (3) People’s representatives. (4) Armed military forces.
33. Which of the following country is a South Asian country? (1) Japan (3) China
(2) USA (4) Pakistan
34. The country that is Bhutan’s biggest source of development aid is (1) The USA (3) India
(2) Russia (4) the Maldives
35. In the political field, Pakistan lacks (1) A courageous and relatively free press. (2) A strong human rights movement.
24
OSWAAL CUET (UG) Sample Question Papers, POLITICAL SCIENCE (3) Educated leaders. (4) Genuine international support for democracy.
36. The South Asian leaders signed the SAARC Charter on: (1) 7th November 1985. (2) 8th December 1985. (3) 9th January 1987. (4) 5th December 1988.
37. Which of the following country is not a South Asian country? (1) Bangladesh (3) Bhutan
(2) India (4) Russia
38. Which party pursued the politics of ‘Hindutva’ and adopted the strategy of mobilising the Hindus? (1) Bhartiya Janata Party. (2) Congress. (3) Communist Party of India. (4) Bahujan Samaj Party.
39. The original member nations that signed the charter of the United Nations back in 1945 were (1) 58 (2) 49 (3) 51 (4) 45
40. The two aspects of Human Rights are (1) Social and legal aspects. (2) Natural and legal aspects. (3) Economic and political aspects. (4) Economic and natural aspects.
41. Expand IAEA? (1) International Atomic Energy Act (2) International Atomic Energy Accord (3) International Atomic Energy Agency (4) International Atomic Eastern Agency
42. Trygve Lie was the first Secretary-General from (1) Germany. (3) France.
(2) Norway. (4) Italy.
43. WTO is serving as the successor to which of the following organisations: (1) General Agreement on Trade and Tariff (2) General Arrangement on Trade and Tariff (3) World Health Organisation (4) UN Development Programme
44. How many non-permanent members does the UN Security Council have? (1) Eight (2) Nine (3) Ten (4) Eleven
45. Who was the first woman President of the U.N. General Assembly? (1) Sarojini Naidu (2) Aruna Asaf Ali (3) Vijay Lakshmi Pandit (4) Raj Kumari Amrit Kaur
Direction: In the following question, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as: (1) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
46. Assertion (A): Lohia’s dynamic and uninhibited approach to various problems distinguished him from other political leaders.
Reason (R): Lohia’s ideology was largely copied
by the communist party of China. He had nothing original of himself. Case Based: Read the following paragraph and answer the questions that follow: ASEAN was established in 1967 by five countries of this region — Indonesia, Malaysia, the Philippines, Singapore and Thailand — by signing the Bangkok Declaration. The objectives of ASEAN were primarily to accelerate economic growth and through that ‘social progress and cultural development’. A secondary objective was to promote regional peace and stability based on the rule of law and the principles of the United Nations Charter. Over the years, Brunei Darussalam, Vietnam, Lao PDR, Myanmar (Burma) and Cambodia joined ASEAN taking its strength to ten. With some of the fastest growing economies in the world, ASEAN broadened its objectives beyond the economic and social spheres. In 2003, ASEAN moved along the path of the EU by agreeing to establish an ASEAN Community comprising three pillars, namely, the ASEAN Security Community, the ASEAN Economic Community and the ASEAN Socio-Cultural Community. The ASEAN Regional Forum (ARF), which was established in 1994, is the organisation that carries out coordination of security and foreign policy.
47. In 1967, when AESAN was established, which
countries were its members? (1) Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore, Thailand and Brunei (2) Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore and Thailand (3) Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, Brunei and Vietnam (4) Indonesia, Malaysia and Philippines.
48. When did ASEAN start moving along the path of EU? (1) in 2004 (3) in 2007
(2) in 2003 (4) in 2000
49. When the ARF was established? (1) 1990 (3) 1995
(2) 1991 (4) 1994
50. The OEEC was established in: (1) 1949 (3) 1948
(2) 1947 (4) 1946
SAMPLE
8
Question Paper Maximum Marks : 200
Time : 45 Minutes
General Instructions : (i) This paper consists of 50 MCQs, attempt any 40 out of 50 (ii) Correct answer or the most appropriate answer: Five marks (+5) (iii) Any incorrect option marked will be given minus one mark (-1) (iv) Unanswered/Marked for Review will be given no mark (0) (v) If more than one option is found to be correct then Five marks (+5) will be awarded to only those who have marked any of the correct options (vi) If all options are found to be correct then Five marks (+5) will be awarded to all those who have attempted the question. (vii) Calculator / any electronic gadgets are not permitted.
1. The main reason for India’s partition is: (1) Adamant attitude of Jinnah (2) Communal riots and disorder (3) Failure of the Interim Government (4) All of these
2. What were the consequences of the Partition of India in 1947? (1) Transfer of Population (2) Refugees Problem (3) Problem of Minorities (4) All of these
3. Whose visit in 1988 began a phase of improvement in bilateral relations? (1) PM Rajiv Gandhi (2) PM Narsimha Rao (3) PM Nehru (4) PM Atal Bihari Vajpeyi
4. What were the goals of Pt. Nehru? (1) socialism (3) democracy
(2) equility (4) all of these
5. In 2001, General Musharraf got himself elected as
the: (1) President (2) Prime Minister (3) Defence Minister (4) Foreign Affair Minister Direction: In the following question, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as: (1) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true. 6. Assertion (A): Pakistan and Bangladesh have experienced both civilian and military rulers. Reason (R): Bangladesh remained a democracy in the post-Cold War period. Pakistan began the post-Cold War period with successive democratic governments under Benazir Bhutto and Nawaz Sharif respectively. But it suffered a military coup in 1999. 7. Pakistan’s first constitution was enacted by the Constituent Assembly in (1) 1956 (2) 1947 (3) 1962 (4) 1952 8. How long did Zulfikar Ali Bhutto’s Government lasted? (1) 1971 to 1988 (2) 1971 to 1976 (3) 1971 to 1977
(4) 1971 to 1973
9. When did IPKF have to abort the objective in Sri Lanka? (1) 1989
(2) 1990
(3) 1999
(4) 2009
10. When did government of India directly got involve in the conflict of Sri Lanka? (1) in 1987
(2) in 1988
(3) in 1990
(4) in 1989
11. When did PM Narendra Modi make a surprise visit to Pakistan? (1) November 2015
(2) December 2015
(3) March 2015
(4) January 2015
26
OSWAAL CUET (UG) Sample Question Papers, POLITICAL SCIENCE
12. Who was the Secretary of UN in 1997? (1) Bill Clinton (3) George W Bush
21. Why India decided to deregulate various sectors
(2) General Kofi Annan (4) None of the above
13. ....................... draws the global media’s attention to human rights abuses. (1) Human Rights Power (2) Human Rights Watch (3) Human Rights People (4) Human Rights Torch
22. How did globalization help in the medical field?
14. The World Bank is criticized for what? (1) For not providing loans to poorer nations. (2) For interfering in the internal issues of the developing countries. (3) For poor guidance on economic issues. (4) For setting the economic agenda of the poorer nations, attaching stringent conditions to its loans and forcing free market reforms.
15. What has been one of India’s major concerns?
(1) Exports of medicines increased. (2) Helped in finding effective and speedy cure for the diseases with the collaboration of the medical facilities and knowledge of many countries. (3) Inviting foreign doctors and creating employment opportunities in the various countries. (4) All of the above
23. After the 1980s, which policy was introduced by US and UK? (1) 4D Policy (3) Fair Trade Policy
(1) Terrorism (2) Corruption (3) The Security Council (4) General Assembly
(2) 3D Policy (4) None of the above
24. The ‘Two-Nation Theory’ was based upon:
16. What are the sub divisions of International Organisations? (1) State-governmental and Non-governmental (2) Private and Public (3) Governmental and Public (4) None of the above
(1) expansion of India (2) bifurcation of the states (3) partition of India (4) All of the Above
25. Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan, the undisputed leader of
17. What was the protest at World Trade Organization
Ministerial Meeting, 1999? (1) The decreasing job opportunities by developed nations (2) The threat of pandemic (3) Unfair trade practices by the economically powerful states (4) Deteriorating cultural practices
18. India has felt the impact of globalization through increased prosperity, partly triggered by increasing trade volumes, investment (1) weapons (2) growth (3) hatred (4) terrorism
19. Globalization leads to each culture becoming ..................... . (1) more different (2) more transparent (3) more distinctive (4) more different and distinctive
the North Western Frontier Province was known as: (1) Frontier Gandhi (2) Father of Pakistan (3) Staunch Muslim (4) Patriot of Pakistan
26. Which one of the following leaders played an
important role in the integration of princely states with India? (1) Jawahar Lal Nehru (2) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel (3) C. Rajagopalchari (4) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
27. Reorganisation of the North-East was completed in: (1) 1962 (3) 1982
(2) 1972 (4) 1992
28. Who among the following leaders were opposed
20. Which one of the following is a right cause of globalization? (1) The U.S. people initiated globalization (2) Technology led to globalization (3) The Cold War led to globalization (4) The policy of Non-alignment led globalization
including trade and foreign investment? (1) Because Indian economy was not in balance (2) It was a response to a financial crisis and to the desire for higher rates of economic growth (3) Because government needed money (4) All of the above
the partition? (1) Mahatma Gandhi (2) Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan (3) Mohammad Ali Jinnah (4) Both (1) and (2)
29. What was the percentage of Muslim population in
to
India in 1951? (1) 12 percent (3) 12.5 percent
(2) 15 percent (4) 13.3 percent
30. In India, who presents the bill for the formation of the new state to the President?
Sample Question Papers (1) Prime Minister (2) Chief Ministers of the state (3) Legislative (4) Cabinet
31. The idea of planning in India was drawn from: i. the Bombay Plan ii. experiences of the Soviet bloc countries iii. Gandhian vision of society iv. demand by peasant organisations (1) (ii) and (iv) only (2) (iii) and (iv) only (3) (i) and (ii) only (4) All of the above
32. ...................... play an important role in the economy of developing countries like India. (1) Private sectors (2) Public sectors (3) Union ministers (4) State government
33. Identify the stages of modernization: (1) Agrarian society (2) Drive to maturity (3) Age of high consumption (4) All of the Above
34. In 1946, who was chairman of the Planning Advisory Board? (1) K C Neogy (3) Dr. Ambedkar
(2) Sardar Patel (4) None of the above
35. The Budget is divided into which two parts? (1) Planned and semi planned budget (2) Planned and non-planned budget (3) Planned and reserved budget (4) None of the above
36. The CEO and Vice Chairperson of NITI Aayog is appointed by .................... . (1) President of India (2) Members of Parliament (3) Prime Minister of India (4) Home minister of India
37. How will NITI Aayog serve for India? (1) Back Bone (2) Think Tank (3) Planning Commission (4) None of the above
38. Which two countries relationship were strained after Suppression of Tibetan culture? (1) India and Nepal (2) India and Bangladesh (3) India and China (4) India and Myanmar
39. Which of the following nuclear treaties were rejected by India? (1) NPT, CTBT (2) Kyoto Protocol (3) Panchsheel Agreement (4) None of the above
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40. When did India conduct series of nuclear tests? (1) June 1998 (3) April 1998
(2) May 1998 (4) March 1998
41. When did congress party split into two groups? (1) 1969 (3) 1959
(2) 1979 (4) 1960
42. When Indira Gandhi recommended dissolution of Lok Sabha? (1) December 1971 (3) December 1970
(2) November 1970 (4) None of the above
43. Which party did Indira Gandhi lead in 1971 elections? (1) Congress (R) (3) Congress United
(2) Congress (O) (4) UPA
44. Why Shastri resigned from the position of Railway
Minister? (1) Accepting moral responsibility for railway accident. (2) He was forced to resign. (3) His party lost elections. (4) None of the above.
45. Military rule and democracy can’t work together: (1) because both give unnecessary freedom to people. (2) because military and politicians keep on creating disputes for the nation. (3) because, military rule imposes such restrictions wherein people’s fundamental rights are curbed. (4) none of the above
46. Rajiv Gandhi was assassinated in: (1) May 1991 (2) June 1991 (3) July 1991 (4) August 1991 Case Based: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow: The Western alliance was formalized into an organization, the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO), which came into existence in April 1949. It was an association of twelve states which declared that armed attack on any one of them in Europe or North America would be regarded as an attack on all of them. Each of these states would be obliged to help the other. The eastern alliance, known as the Warsaw Pact, was led by the Soviet Union. It was created in 1955 and its principal function was to counter NATO’s forces in Europe. International alliances during the Cold War era were determined by the requirements of the superpowers and the calculations of the smaller states. As noted above, Europe became the main arena of conflict between the superpowers. In some cases, the superpowers used their military power to bring countries into their respective alliances. Soviet intervention in east Europe provides an example. The Soviet Union used its influence in eastern Europe, backed by the very large presence of its armies in the countries of the region, to ensure that the eastern half of Europe remained within
28
OSWAAL CUET (UG) Sample Question Papers, POLITICAL SCIENCE
its sphere of influence. In East and Southeast Asia and in West Asia (Middle East), the United States built an alliance system called — the Southeast Asian Treaty Organization (SEATO) and the Central Treaty Organization 1 (CENTO). The Soviet Union and communist China responded by having close relations with regional countries such as North Vietnam, North Korea and Ira
47. When was NATO formed? (1) June 1949 (3) February 1949
(2) March 1949 (4) April 1949
48. How many states were associated with NATO? (1) eleven states
(2) twelve states
(3) ten states
(4) nine states
49. What was the primary aim of Warsaw Pact? (1) To counter USA’s forces only (2) To counter SEATO’s forces (3) To achieve economic development in the countries of Soviet Union (4) To counter NATO’s forces in Europe
50. When Warsaw Pact was created? (1) 1955 (3) 1954
(2) 1957 (4) 1956
SAMPLE
9
Question Paper Maximum Marks : 200
Time : 45 Minutes
General Instructions : (i) This paper consists of 50 MCQs, attempt any 40 out of 50 (ii) Correct answer or the most appropriate answer: Five marks (+5) (iii) Any incorrect option marked will be given minus one mark (-1) (iv) Unanswered/Marked for Review will be given no mark (0) (v) If more than one option is found to be correct then Five marks (+5) will be awarded to only those who have marked any of the correct options (vi) If all options are found to be correct then Five marks (+5) will be awarded to all those who have attempted the question. (vii) Calculator / any electronic gadgets are not permitted.
1. Who ordered American warships to intercept any
Soviet ships heading to Cuba as a way of warning to USSR? (1) George W Bush (2) Western European countries (3) John F Kennedy (4) All the above 2. Which countries comprised the “allied forces”? (1) US, Soviet Union, Britain and France. (2) US, Germany, Soviet Union and Britain. (3) US, Soviet Union, Britain, France and Japan. (4) None of the above Direction: In the following question, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as: (1) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true. 3. Assertion (A): The Western Alliance was formalized into an organization, the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO), which came into existence in April 1949. Reason (R): The Eastern Alliance, known as the CENTO, was led by the Soviet Union. 4. The first non-aligned summit was held in the year 1961 in ................... . (1) Venice (2) Delhi (3) Belgrade (4) Dhaka
5. ...................... witnessed a Civil War that went on for ten years till 2001.
(1) Dagestan (2) Tajikistan (3) Chechnya (4) Moscow 6. Who became the sole superpower after the disintegration of USSR? (1) China (2) Russia (3) US (4) Britain
7. When was Soviet Union disbanded? (1) 1989 (3) 1991
(2) 1990 (4) 1992
8. Which period is described as the period of US dominance? (1) 1960 onwards (2) Cold War era (3) Post-Cold War era (4) 1980 onwards
9. Which operation is known as “Operation Iraqi Freedom”? (1) US attack on Iraq in 2003 (2) US attack on Iraq in 1991 (3) US attack on Afghanistan (4) None of the above
10. What is the currency of European Union? (1) Pound (3) Euro
(2) Dollar (4) Ruble
11. When did ASEAN start moving along the path of EU? (1) in 2004 (3) in 2007
(2) in 2003 (4) in 2000
12. Whose visit in 1988 began a phase of improvement in bilateral relations? (1) PM Rajiv Gandhi (3) PM Nehru
(2) PM Narsimha Rao (4) PM Atal Bihari Vajpeyi
30
OSWAAL CUET (UG) Sample Question Papers, POLITICAL SCIENCE
13. In which year was Janata Dal formed? (1) 1975 (3) 1985
(2) 1982 (4) 1988
14. Which of the following countries is not included in South Asia? (1) Bangladesh (3) China
(2) Sri Lanka (4) Pakistan
15. Who were Sinhala hostile to? (1) Local people (2) LTTE (3) Government (4) Tamils migrated from India
16. Who removed Bhutto’s govt.? When? (1) General Zia-ul-Haq, 1977 (2) General Yahya Khan, 1990 (3) Benazir Bhutto, 1976 (4) Asif Ali zardari, 2000
17. Who was the leader of the Naga National Council? (1) V.P. Singh (2) Lai Denga (3) Karunanidhi (4) Angame Zapu Phizo
18. Who posed challenge to Indian Army in Sri Lanka? (1) Local Tamils (2) Indian Tamils (3) LTTE (4) Sri Lankan government
19. In 1992, the UN General Assembly adopted a resolution related to: (1) UN Security Council (2) UNESCO (3) UNICEF (4) World Bank
20. The UN is an ................... body. (1) indigenous (3) impressive
(2) imperfect (4) imperative
21. Which UN agency concerned with the safety and peaceful use of nuclear technology? (1) The UN Committee on Disarmament (2) International Atomic Energy Agency (3) UN International Safeguard Committee (4) None of the above
22. As per April 2016, how many members did IMF have? (1) 187 (3) 188
(2) 189 (4) 190
23. What are the sub divisions of International Organisations? (1) State-governmental and Non-governmental (2) Private and Public (3) Governmental and Public (4) None of the above
24. In which year agreement took place between
Sheikh Abdullah and Prime Minister Indira Gandhi? (1) 1970 (2) 1974 (3) 1976 (4) 1980
25. The increase in the MNCs all over the world has
resulted in ....................... . (1) the governments’ inability to cater to their needs. (2) the capacity of the nations to incorporate these MNCs. (3) poverty to the population where these companies are set up. (4) reduction in the capacity of governments to take decisions on their own.
26. What is given way recently by the old “Welfare state”? (1) More minimalist state (2) More capitalist state (3) More socialist state (4) More democratic state
27. In between which years the world’s export has increased 33-fold? (1) 1970-1980 (3) 1950-2000
(2) 1950-1990 (4) 1950-2010
28. Who said, “Planning is a way of organizing and
utilizing resources to maximum advantage in terms of defined social ends”? (1) K.T. Shah (2) Planning commission of India (3) Dr. Rajinder Prashad (4) None of these
29. Where did the Andhra’s get resolution from? (1) Supreme Court (2) Madras Legislature (3) Madras high Court (4) Delhi
30. When were the restrictions on private industries imposed? (1) 1960s (3) 1990s
(2) 1970s (4) 1950s
31. What goal was declared by the Congress Party at the session held at Avadi? (1) Religious pattern society (2) Capitalist pattern society (3) Socialist pattern society (4) None of the above
32. India opposed the indefinite extension of the NPT in: (1) 1995 (3) 1975
(2) 1985 (4) 1965
33. In India, planning was conceived as the main instrument of: (1) Political development
Sample Question Papers (2) Cultural development (3) Social development (4) Socio-economic development
34. It was in ........................ that full diplomatic relations were restored between India and Pakistan. (1) 1976 (2) 1966 (3) 1956 (4) 1946
35. Which of the following leaders were in favour of supporting the US bloc? (1) Sardar Patel (2) Ambedkar (3) Atal Bihari Vajpayee (4) All the above
36. Since 1998, other than India and China, possession
of nuclear weapons has been an alarming reality of which country? (1) USA (2) Pakistan (3) Israel (4) Brazil
37. What was the tenure of Shastri as a PM of India? (1) 1966 to 1970 (3) 1964 to 1966
(2) 1967 to 1970 (4) None of the above
38. What is the current name of Madras state? (1) Telangana (3) Tamil Nadu
(2) Chennai (4) None of the above
39. On what agenda DMK came into power in Tamil Nadu? (1) Eradication of poverty. (2) Agenda against one party dominance. (3) Promise to increase educational institution. (4) Against the imposition of Hindi as a national language.
40. Who was the first president to die in the office? (1) Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan (2) S. Nijalingappa (3) Zakir Hussain (4) None of the above
41. Who was called “Gungi Gudiya”? (1) Indira Gandhi (3) S. Nijalingappa
(2) Lal Bahadur Shastri (4) None of the above
42. In which area peasant uprising took place in 1967? (1) Naxalbari police station (2) Gujarat (3) Haryana (4) None of the above
43. When did the students start the protest in Gujarat? (1) November 1974 (3) January 1974
(2) December 1974 (4) None of the above
44. When was the Lok Sabha elections date announced? (1) 19th January (3) 18th January
(2) 20th January (4) None of the above
31
45. The Congress party had won as many as 415 seats in the Lok Sabha elections in: (1) 1984 (2) 1987 (3) 1989 (4) 1992
46. Which first coalition government was able to
complete its five-year tenure? (1) UPA govt. led by Dr. Manmohan Singh (2) NDA govt. led by Atal Bihari Vajpayee (3) NDA govt. led by Narendra Modi (4) None of the above Case Based: Read the following excerpt carefully and answer the questions that follows: Federalism is an instrument of power sharing between independent authorities’ viz. Union and State. Coalition government is also a means of power sharing. Logically both federalism and coalition government should be complimentary to each other. As the object of sharing of power is common in both, a student of politics or law may gather the impression that coalition government is always supportive of federal form of government or constitution and sometime also gives more opportunity for expression of ideas and democratic rights to small and regional parties. In this way it seems that coalition government promotes democracy and representative administration. But there are some grey areas also of the coalition politics like sometimes the coalition which are formed after declaration of election which give rise to ‘horse trading’ for the purpose of proving majority on the floor of house of representatives. Vajpayee led National Democratic Alliance from 1999 to 2004. While some say that coalition governments generate more inclusive policies, others believe that coalitions impose constraints on policy making.
47. What, according to the above paragraph, is an instrument of power sharing? (1) Only Federalism (2) Only Coalition Government Indian Politics: Trends and Development (3) Both, Federalism and Coalition Government (4) None of the above
48. What is common in both (Federalism and Coalition Government)? (1) The object of sharing of power (2) Students movements (3) Authoritative regime (4) Socialist ideology
49. What is one of the “grey areas” of coalition politics? (1) Its too fragile (2) Citizens are not given advantage (3) Horse trading (4) All of the above
50. Atal Bihari Vajpayee served as the PM of India from: (1) 2000 to 2005 (3) 1999 to 2004
(2) 2003 to 2014 (4) None of the above
SAMPLE
10
Question Paper Maximum Marks : 200
Time : 45 Minutes
General Instructions : (i) This paper consists of 50 MCQs, attempt any 40 out of 50 (ii) Correct answer or the most appropriate answer: Five marks (+5) (iii) Any incorrect option marked will be given minus one mark (-1) (iv) Unanswered/Marked for Review will be given no mark (0) (v) If more than one option is found to be correct then Five marks (+5) will be awarded to only those who have marked any of the correct options (vi) If all options are found to be correct then Five marks (+5) will be awarded to all those who have attempted the question. (vii) Calculator / any electronic gadgets are not permitted. Direction: In the following question, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as: (1) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
1. Assertion (A): The decision of the National Front
Government to implement the recommendations of the Mandal Commission further helped in shaping the politics of ‘Other Backward Classes’.
Reason (R): This period saw the emergence of many parties that sought disastrous decisions and approach for OBCs.
2. When did Cuban Missile Crisis occur? (1) 1967 (3) 1960
(2) 1962 (4) 1970
3. When did the American become aware of the weapon placed in Cuba by USSR? (1) On the first day (2) One week later (3) Three weeks later (4) None of the above
4. Which one of the following statements is ‘not
correct’ about the ‘Non-Aligned Movement’? (1) It suggested to the newly independent countries ways to stay out of alliances. (2) India’s policy of non-alignment was neither negative nor passive. (3) The non-aligned posture of India served its interests. (4) India was praised for signing the treaty of friendship with USSR to strengthen.
5. The first non-aligned summit was held in the year 1961 in ................... . (1) Venice (3) Belgrade
(2) Delhi (4) Dhaka
6. Which one of the following statements about the Berlin wall is false? (1) It symbolised the division between the capitalist and the communist world. (2) It was built during the Second World War. (3) It was broken by the people on 9 November 1989. (4) It marked the unification of the two parts of Germany.
7. The Socialist Movement was inspired by the ideas of: (1) Democracy (3) Communalism
(2) Socialism (4) Dictatorship
8. Which currency declined after the implement of Shock therapy? (1) Ruble (3) Pound
(2) Dollar (4) Euro
9. Which operation is known as “Operation Iraqi Freedom”? (1) US attack on Iraq in 2003 (2) US attack on Iraq in 1991 (3) US attack on Afghanistan (4) None of the above
10. How Central Asian economies benefited? (1) due to oil resources (2) due to their agricultural activities (3) due to tourism (4) due to their hydrocarbon resources
Sample Question Papers 11. What was the result of withdrawal of government subsidies? (1) people had no impact at all (2) market prices hiked rapidly (3) people were pushed into poverty (4) none of the above
12. What event officially marked the end of communism in the Soviet Union? (1) End of Cuban Missile Crisis (2) Rise of New World Order (3) The failed August Coup (4) Rise in US economy
13. The Council of Europe was established in: (1) 1949 (3) 1969
(2) 1959 (4) 1979
14. Indo-Russian relations strengthened after the signing of Treaty of Peace and Friendship in: (1) 1951 (2) 1961 (3) 1971 (4) 1981
15. When did China takeover Tibet? (1) 1951 (3) 1949
(2) 1950 (4) 1956
16. When did Jawahar Lal Nehru visit Russia? (1) June 1960 (3) August 1955
(2) July 1955 (4) May 1950
17. In 2001, General Musharraf got himself elected as the: (1) President (2) Prime Minister (3) Defence Minister (4) Foreign Affair Minister
18. Until 1960, India-Pakistan were locked in a fierce argument over the use of the rivers of the: (1) Ravi basin (2) Beas basin (3) Indus basin (4) Satluj basin
19. Which of the following countries is not included in South Asia? (1) Bangladesh (3) China
(2) Sri Lanka (4) Pakistan
20. What type of government was in Nepal till 2006? (1) Constitutional monarchy (2) Democratic (3) Liberal communist (4) None of the above
21. Why does the Indian Government expresses a displeasure with Nepal at times? (1) Because Nepal interprets the borders of India. (2) Because of illegal smuggling of drugs from Nepal. (3) Because of Nepal’s dry political approach. (4) Because the warm relationship between Nepal and China.
33
22. The non-permanent members of the Security Council do not have the: (1) Veto power (2) Election power (3) Military power (4) Judiciary power
23. Which one of the following is the permanent member of UN? (1) India (3) Sweden
(2) China (4) Ireland
24. Where is the head quarter of UNICEF? (1) Tokyo (3) Los Angeles
(2) Chicago (4) New York
25. The WHO has played a leading role in ................... . (1) public health achievement (2) economic development (3) children’s health (4) resolving disputes among the nations
26. What is the purpose of International Organisations? (1) To foster economic ties of the developed nations (2) To foster international cooperation (3) To eradicate terrorism (4) To foster health care
27. Where India suggests UN should include more countries to represent? (1) In the Security Council (2) In the General Assembly (3) In UN (4) All of the above
28. Who is the single largest contributor to UN? (1) China (3) US
(2) India (4) Europe
29. Which two main IR scholars theories are mentioned here? (1) Realism and Liberalism (2) Capitalism and Socialism (3) Feminism and Humanism (4) Human Rights and Welfare
30. We can see “a sharp increase” due to globalisation in ................................ ? (1) employment and capital (2) trade and economic exchanges (3) poverty and hunger (4) All of the above
31. In between which years the world’s export has increased 33-fold? (1) 1970-1980 (3) 1950-2000
(2) 1950-1990 (4) 1950-2010
32. In terms of trade, what is the impact of globalisation? (1) Countries are divided in groups and trading with their groups only. (2) Developing countries are not given importance in trade. (3) Any country can receive the opportunity of trading with the other countries. (4) None of the above
34
OSWAAL CUET (UG) Sample Question Papers, POLITICAL SCIENCE
33. What was the number of the people who had to forcefully migrate across new borders? (1) 83 lakh (2) 81 lakh (3) 80.5 lakh (4) 80 lakh
34. Who did not believe in “Two-Nation Theory”? (1) The leaders of Indian National Struggle (2) People of Pakistan (3) Muslim League (4) None of the above
35. What was the concept of becoming more ‘modern’? (1) Industrialized countries in West (2) Developing like an own identity of developed nation (3) Adopting globalization to a higher extent (4) Adopting western capitalist modal of economy
36. Which of these statements about the Bombay Plan is incorrect? (1) It was a blueprint for India’s economic future. (2) It supported state ownership of industry. (3) It was made by some leading industrialists. (4) It supported strongly the idea of planning.
37. How does public sector differ from private sector? (1) On the basis of price (2) The wealth of public sector was growing (3) Public sector paid more tax to government (4) On the basis of ownership
38. Who was the foreign minister during the time of Pt. Nehru? (1) Atal Bihari Vajpayee (2) Sardar Patel (3) Nehru himself (4) Jay Prakash Narayan
39. Which newspaper published the article titled “Potential consequences of a regional nuclear conflict”? (1) Indian Express (2) Times of India (3) The Hindu (4) Times Now
40. The Syndicate wanted Indira Gandhi to act as a: (1) strong leader (3) financial backup
(2) puppet (4) face of the country
41. The Grand Alliance of opposition of 1971 : (1) got a combined tally of seats that was less than 40. (2) had a clear ideological programme. (3) had a grand finish in the 1970 elections. (4) proved to be a great success.
42. Why the results of the general elections in 1967
were called ‘political earthquake’? (1) Because congress lost all the seats (2) The elections were not at all successful (3) The popularity of Congress had reduced by a large scale (4) None of the above
43. For how many years Lal Bahadur Shastri remained cabinet minister prior becoming the PM? (1) four (2) three (3) five (4) ten
44. What was the tenure of Shastri as a PM of India? (1) 1966 to 1970 (3) 1964 to 1966
(2) 1967 to 1970 (4) None of the above
45. The impact of the Emergency was felt most strongly in the ................... part of the country. (1) northern (2) southern (3) eastern (4) western
46. In the elections held immediately after Emergency,
the Congress could win only ................... seats in the Lok Sabha. (1) 154 (2) 156 (3) 158 (4) 160 Case Based: Read the following paragraph carefully and answer the questions that follows: Thus, with the elections of 1989, a long phase of coalition politics began in India. Since then, there have been eleven governments at the Centre, all of which have either been coalition governments or minority governments supported by other parties, which did not join the government. In this new phase, any government could be formed only with the participation or support of many regional parties. This applied to the National Front in 1989, the United Front in 1996 and 1997, the NDA in 1997, the BJP- led coalition in 1998, the NDA in 1999, and the UPA in 2004 and 2009. However, this trend changed in 2014. Let us connect this development with what we have learnt so far. The era of coalition governments may be seen as a long-term trend resulting from relatively silent changes that were taking place over the last few decades. In the 1980s, the Janata Dal brought together a similar combination of political groups with strong support among the OBCs. The decision of the National Front government to implement the recommendations of the Mandal Commission further helped in shaping the politics of ‘Other Backward Classes’. The intense national debate for and against reservation in jobs made people from the OBC communities more aware of this identity.
47. Why is a coalition government formed? (1) To give other political parties a chance (2) Because no single party has achieved an absolute majority after an election (3) To display the democratic spirit (4) None of the above
48. In which years, mentioned above, did NDA have coalition governments? (1) 1999, 2003, 2008 (2) 1997, 1998, 1999 (3) 1998, 2004, 2009 (4) None of these
49. In which years UPA governments were formed? (1) 2004, 2009 (3) 2004, 2007
(2) 2000, 2005 (4) 2009, 2014
50. Which government took the decision to implement the recommendations of the Mandal Commission? (1) UPA 2009 (2) NDA 2014 (3) National Front Government (4) None of the above
SOLUTIONS OF Question Paper 1. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: In 1962 the Soviet Union began to secretly install missiles in Cuba to launch attacks on US cities. The confrontation that followed, known as the Cuban Missile Crisis, brought the two superpowers to the brink of war before an agreement was reached to withdraw the missiles.
2. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: The economy of the Soviet Union was based on state ownership of the means of production, collective farming, and industrial manufacturing. The highly centralized Soviettype economic planning was managed by the administrative-command system.
3. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: The Western Alliance was formalized into the North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO), which came into existence in April 1949 to provide security against USSR. It was an association of twelve states which declared that an attack on any one of them would be regarded as an attack on all of them.
4. Option (4) is correct. 5. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: Berlin was built on 13th August, 1961, whereas Second World War came to an end in 1945.
6. Option (4) is correct. Explanation: The name, Non-Alignment, was coined by Jawahar Lal Nehru in his 1954 speech in Colombo, Sri Lanka. After independence, India did not want to be part of these blocs led by the USSR or the USA. It chose to follow a non-compliance policy.
7. Option (2) is correct. 8. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: India and Pakistan always have had problems with sharing of river waters. Until 1960, they were locked in a fierce argument over the use of the rivers of the Indus basin.
1
9. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: The South Asian Free Trade Area (SAFTA) is the free trade arrangement of the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC). It was signed at the 12th SAARC summit in Islamabad, Pakistan.
10. Option (4) is correct. 11. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam (LTTE) was an organisation of Sri Lankan Tamils. The objective of the organisation was to establish an independent socialist Tamil state called Tamil Eelam in the North and the eastern provinces of Sri Lanka.
12. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: The conflict of 1962, in which India suffered military reverses, had longterm implications for India–China relations. Diplomatic relations between the two countries were downgraded until 1976. Thereafter, relations between the two countries began to improve slowly.
13. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: BRICS started in 2001 as BRIC, an acronym coined by Goldman Sachs for Brazil, Russia, India and China. South Africa was added in 2010.
14. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: The UN was established in 1945 after the Second World War as a successor to the League of Nations.
15. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: India carried out wide-ranging deregulation policies in 1991. Significant sectors of the economy were opened up for private participation through de-licensing and allowing entry to industries previously reserved exclusively for the state-owned sector.
16. Option (1) is correct.
36
OSWAAL CUET (UG) Sample Question Papers, POLITICAL SCIENCE Explanation: The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) is an economic and political organization of eight countries in South Asia. It was established in 1985 when the Heads of State of Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka formally adopted the charter.
17. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: India desires to be a permanent member of the UN Security Council but many countries question the issue of India’s inclusion as a permanent member. It is not just Pakistan that is opposing India’s permanent membership, other countries are also questioning it based on India’s nuclear weapons capability.
18. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: Technological advancements reduce costs of transportation and communication across nations and thereby facilitate global sourcing of raw materials and other inputs. Patented technology encourages globalization as the firm owning the patent can exploit foreign markets without much competition.
23. Option (3) is correct. 24. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: While India was trying to convince the other developing countries about the policy of non-alignment, the US was not happy about India’s these independent initiatives. The US also disliked India’s growing partnership with the Soviet Union. Therefore, there was considerable unease in Indo-US relations during the 1950s.
25. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: This tension may be attributed to the inability of the party system to incorporate the aspirations of the people.
26. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: The emergency applied by Indira Gandhi has played a major role in creating internal conflicts.
27. Option (2) is correct.
Explanation: The senior Congress leaders believed that her administrative and political inexperience would compel her to be dependent on them for support and guidance. 19. Option (3) is correct. 28. Option (4) is correct. Explanation: Ministers from developing Explanation: The Mandal Commission countries demanded that developed submitted the report to the President on economies such as the US and the EU stop December 30, 1980. It recommended 27% controversial agricultural subsidies, which hindered globalization. Japan said abusive use reservation quota for OBC resulting in total of anti-dumping measures should be regarded 49.5% quota in government jobs and public as a disguised form of protectionism that universities. nullifies tariff reductions overnight. 29. Option (3) is correct. 20. Option (4) is correct. Explanation: Multi-polarity is a distribution of Explanation: UNICEF founded on 11 December, 1946 in New York, is an agency responsible for providing humanitarian and developmental aid to children worldwide.
21. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: The Government of India constituted NITI Aayog to replace the Planning Commission, which had been instituted in 1950. This step was taken to better serve the needs and aspirations of the people. 22. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: The Tashkent Declaration was a peace agreement between India and Pakistan signed on 10 January, 1966 to resolve the Indo-Pakistani War of 1965. The meeting was held in Tashkent in the Uzbek Soviet Socialist Republic, the Union represented by Premier Aleksey Kosygin.
power in which more than two nation-states have nearly equal amounts of military, cultural and economic influence.
30. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: Sardar Patel faced key challenges of integration from three states, viz., Hyderabad, Junagarh and Kashmir. It was under his leadership that Indian forces compelled Hyderabad and Junagarh to merge with India. Like Hyderabad, he also wanted Kashmir’s integration with India through military operations. But due to the political decisions of some prominent leaders, Sardar could not succeed in integrating Kashmir fully with India which later turned into a major historical blunder for the country.
31. Option (1) is correct. 32. Option (2) is correct.
Solutions Explanation: The first successful coalition government in India which completed the whole 5-year term was the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) led National Democratic Alliance with Atal Bihari Vajpayee as PM from 1999 to 2004. 33. Option (2) is correct. 34. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: MNCs play an important role in the globalisation process. They compete with the local producers directly even after being miles apart, thus integrating the markets. Their work leads to an exchange of investments and products which leads to the interconnection between diverse countries. 35. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: This period saw the emergence of many parties that sought better opportunities for OBCs in education and employment. 36. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: Among all these options, the Naxalites movement was the movement of the Marxist and Leninist agricultural workers of West Bengal, Bihar and adjoining areas which organized massive agitation against economic injustice and inequality. The communist in the Naxalbari region forcibly occupied lands belonging to the richer zamindars. 37. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: Hindutva means ‘Hinduness’. It meant that to be members of the Indian nation, everyone must not only accept India as their ‘fatherland’ (pitrubhu) but also as their holy land (punyabhu). Believers of ‘Hindutva’ argue that a strong nation can be built only on based on a strong and united national culture. They also believe that in the case of India the Hindu culture alone can provide this base. 38. Option (3) is correct.
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40. Option (4) is correct. Explanation: Ban Ki-moon is a South Korean politician and diplomat who served as the eighth Secretary-General of the United Nations from January 2007 to December 2016.
41. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: The Security Council has primary responsibility, under the United Nations Charter, for the maintenance of international peace and security. It is for the Security Council to determine when and where a UN peace operation should be deployed.
42. Option (1) is correct. 43. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: When the emergency is proclaimed the federal distribution of powers remains practically suspended and all the powers are concentrated in the hands of the Union government and the government also gets the power to restrict all or any of the Fundamental Rights during the emergency.
44. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: The results of the General Election of 1967 were a shock for Congress at the national and state levels. Most of the ministers in Indira Gandhi’s cabinet lost the elections.
45. Option (4) is correct. Explanation: To make matters worse for Indira Gandhi, all the major non-communist, non- Congress opposition parties (SSP, PSP, Bharatiya Jana Sangh, Swatantra Party and the Bharatiya Kranti Dal) formed an electoral alliance known as the Grand Alliance. 46. Option (1) is correct. 47. Option (2) is correct.
Explanation: India's first ever coalition government was formed at the national level Explanation: According to the ‘two-nation was under the prime ministership of Morarji theory’ advanced by the Muslim League, India Desai, which existed from 24 March 1977 to 15 consisted of not one but two `people’, Hindus July 1979. and Muslims. That is why it demanded a 39. Option (2) is correct. separate country for the Muslims- Pakistan. Explanation: At the time of independence, 48. Option (1) is correct. the problem of integration of princely states 49. Option (2) is correct. was a big challenge for the national unity and integrity of India. Under such difficult times, Explanation: Ghaffar Khan was a Pashtun Sardar Patel undertook the daunting tasks of who greatly admired Mahatma Gandhi and uniting all 565 princely states of India. Known his non-violent principles and saw support for the Congress as a way of pressing his as the ‘Iron Man’ of India, Patel’s approach to grievances against the British frontier regime. the question of the merger of princely states He was called the Frontier Gandhi. into independent India was very clear. He was not in favour of any compromise with the 50. Option (4) is correct. territorial integrity of India.
SOLUTIONS OF Question Paper 1. Option (3) is correct.
2.
Explanation: The value of the Ruble, the Russian currency, declined. Inflation rose at a very high rate, and it lost all savings of people. ption (3) is correct. O Explanation: The Maldivian Democratic Party is the first political party formed in the Republic of Maldives with a total membership of 29,277 individuals as of June 2018. It is a party with its stated goal being the promotion of human rights and democracy in the Maldives.
3. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: The UN’s objective is to prevent international conflict and facilitate cooperation among states. It was founded with the hope that it would act to stop the conflicts between states from escalating into war and, if war broke out, to limit the extent of hostilities. The UN was intended to bring countries together to improve the prospects of social and economic development all over the world.
4. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: Operation Desert Storm was the name given to the 42-day U.S. led air offensive in response to Saddam Hussein's invasion of Kuwait.
5. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: Indian Government believed in communal harmony and equality of religion for all. This highly important belief also found its place in the Constitution of India where India was declared a secular nation and the Fundamental Right of ‘Right to Religion’ was given to all citizens of India.
6. Option (4) is correct. Explanation: The land reforms failed because the tenancy contracts were expropriated in nature and tenant exploitation was almost everywhere.
7. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: The democratic capitalism system is a political and economic system that combines capitalism and strong social policies.
8. Option (3) is correct.
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9. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: “Tryst with Destiny” was a speech delivered by Jawahar Lal Nehru, the first Prime Minister of India, to the Indian Constituent Assembly in the Parliament, on the eve of India’s Independence, towards midnight on 14 August, 1947. The speech was on the aspects that transcended Indian history.
10. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: Many nuclear states maintain policies that would permit them to use nuclear weapons in case of any conflict. While India wants to live in a world without nuclear weapons, it reserves the right to fight back if attacked by any country.
11. Option (1) is correct. 12. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: The ASEAN Community 2015 is a community of opportunities under three community pillars: Political-Security Community, Economic Community and Socio-Cultural Community.
13. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: The National Development Council (NDC) or Rashtriya Vikas Parishad is the apex body for decision-making and deliberations on development matters in India, presided over by the Prime Minister.
14. Option (4) is correct. 15. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: Technology is a vital force in the modern form of business globalization. Technology has helped us in overcoming the hurdles of globalization and international trade, such as trade barriers, lack of common ethical standards, transportation costs, and delays in information exchange, thereby changing the marketplace.
16. Option (4) is correct.
Solutions Explanation: The 1973–1975 was a period of economic stagnation where high unemployment and high inflation existed simultaneously. And though India continued to state that the test was for peaceful purpose, it encountered by Pakistan, Canada, USA, France, etc., from many quarters.
17. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: After the war with Pakistan, the U.S. Government stopped all aid to India. This led to an all-round increase in prices of commodities.
18. Option (4) is correct.
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25. Option (4) is correct. Explanation: India’s economic situation got worse during 1972-73 because of the following reasons: 1. The Bangladesh crisis. 2. War with Pakistan. 3. The U.S government stopped all aid to India. 4. Oil prices increased. 5. High level of inflation. 6. Low industrial growth and high unemployment 7. Monsoons failed. 8. Decline in agricultural productivity.
26. Option (1) is correct. 19. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: According to critics, the rich are people who have a high income in society. Globalization leads to an increase in income inequality within the globe. This is because the poor do not ripe the benefits of trade since they have to give up more resources to get less of the rich resources, based on most terms of trade.
20. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: The opposition called Indira Gandhi Gongi Gudiya because they felt that she would not make independent decisions without getting consent from the powerful. Besides, the country was facing many problems like drought, famine, economic crises, decrease in agricultural produce, decrease in industrial production, etc.
21. Option (4) is correct. 22. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: During India’s second Five Year Plan, of the sixteen heavy industry projects set up, eight were initiated with the help of the Soviet Union. This included the establishment of the world-famous IIT Bombay.
23. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: Indira Gandhi vigorously campaigned for implementing the existing land reform laws and undertook further land ceiling legislation. To end her dependence on other political parties and strengthen her party’s position in the Parliament, Indira Gandhi’s government recommended the dissolution of the Lok Sabha in December, 1970.
24. Option (1) is correct.
Explanation: In 1945, Allied Forces defeated the Axis Powers, which marked the end of the Second World War. Both the super powers indulged in Cold War so that they could prove their superiority over the other.
27. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: The Vishva Hindu Parishad is an Indian right-wing Hindu organization based on Hindu nationalism. The VHP was founded in 1964 by M. S. Golwalkar and S. S. Apte in collaboration with Swami Chinmayananda.
28. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: The Cold War also led to several shooting wars, but it is important to note that this crisis and war did not lead to another World War. The two superpowers were poised for confrontations Korea (1950 - 53), Berlin (1958 - 62), the Congo (the early 1960s) and in several other places.
29. Option (4) is correct. Explanation: The Soviet Union had its roots in the Socialist Revolution of 1917, when the Bolsheviks overthrew the Russian Provisional Government that had replaced Tsar Nicholas II.
30. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: There was an expectation from the both sides that India – China relations would improve, and it worked for some time. But, soon China’s ambitions grew and her eyes were on the areas of Ladakh. As a result, both the countries entered in direct war in 1962. Since then, there is no remarkable improvement in their relations.
31. Option (1) is correct.
40
OSWAAL CUET (UG) Sample Question Papers, POLITICAL SCIENCE Explanation: After the controversial emergency was lifted in 1977, the political parties of the opposition fought together against the Congress, under the umbrella of the Janata Party and won the 1977 election. Desai was elected Prime Minister and became the first non-Congress Prime Minister of India.
32. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: In 2014, BJP government changed political scenario from caste and religion-based politics to development and governance-oriented politics. With its preintended goal Sabka Saath, Sabka Vikas, the NDA III Government started several socio-economic welfare schemes to make development and governance accessible to the masses such as - Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana, Swachh Bharat Abhiyan , Jan-Dhan Yojana , Deendayal Upadhyaya Gram Jyoti Yojana, Kisan Pasal Bima Yojna, Beti Padhao, Desh Badhao, Ayushman Bharat Yojana, etc.
33. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: In 1971, Jayaprakash Narayan from opposition (Janta Party) gave the slogan ‘Indira Hatao’ to crush Congress in Lok Sabha Elections, 1977.
34. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: Junagarh or Junagadh was a princely state in Gujarat ruled by the Muslim Babi dynasty in British India, until its annexation by the Union of India in 1948.
35. Option (2) is correct. 36. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: Pandit Deendayal Upadhyaya was a philosopher, sociologist, economist and politician. The philosophy presented by him is called ‘Integral Humanism’ which was intended to present an ‘indigenous socioeconomic model’ in which human beings remain at the centre of development.
37. Option (1) is correct. 38. Option (1) is correct.
40. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: The high growth in GDP is perhaps the most popularly cited benefit of globalization in India. This increase is possible through a favourable balance of trade in contemporary times due to inflows of foreign trade and foreign investment into India.
41. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: The state of Jammu and Kashmir, which had a predominantly Muslim population but a Hindu leader, shared borders with both India and West Pakistan. The argument over which nation would incorporate the state led to the first India-Pakistan War in 1947–48 and ended with UN mediation.
42. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: Human Rights Watch defends the rights of people worldwide. It scrupulously investigates abuses, exposes the facts widely, and pressures those with power to respect rights and secure justice.
43. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: Most of the newly independent countries feared the war between the two blocs. They never wanted to face any financial as well as political consequences. Hence, they supported the stronger nations for financial as well as military aid.
44. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: Ghaffar Khan was a Pashtun who greatly admired Mahatma Gandhi and his non- violence principles and saw support for the Congress as a way of pressing his grievances against the British frontier regime. Hence, he was called the Frontier Gandhi.
45. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: (i) The Atlantic Charter issued on 14 August, 1941. (ii) Yalta Conference held on 11 February, 1945. (iii) On 26 June, 1945, India joins the UN. (iv) Human Rights Council established on 15 March, 2006.
46. Option (4) is correct. Explanation: The government of India has
39. Option (1) is correct. often expressed displeasure at the warm Explanation: The Indian economy was liberalized in 1991. India's economic liberalization was aimed at achieving several objectives, including industrialization, foreign investment, and the establishment of free markets.
relationship between Nepal and China and at the Nepal government’s inaction against antiIndian elements.
47. Option (2) is correct.
Solutions Explanation: April 1961, the leaders of the Union of Soviet Socialist Republics (USSR) were worried that the United States of America (USA) would invade communist-ruled Cuba and overthrow Fidel Castro, the President of the small island nation off the coast of the United States. In 1962, he placed nuclear missiles in Cuba.
48. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: Cuba became increasingly dependent on Soviet markets and military and economic aid. Castro was able to build a formidable military force with the help of Soviet equipment and military advisors.
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49. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: In response to the presence of American Jupiter ballistic missiles in Italy and Turkey, and the failed Bay of Pigs Invasion of 1961, Soviet First Secretary Nikita Khrushchev agreed to Cuba’s request to place nuclear missiles on the island to deter a future invasion.
50. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: In 1962, President John F. Kennedy imposed a U.S. naval blockade of Cuba after U.S. spy planes found Soviet missile sites on the Communist-ruled island.
SOLUTIONS OF Question Paper 1. Option (2) is correct.
2.
Explanation: Socialism is a political and economic theory of social organization which advocates that the means of production, distribution, and exchange should be owned or regulated by the community as a whole. ption (4) is correct. O
3. Option (4) is correct. Explanation: The crucial aim of the NIEO is to promote economic development among the poor countries through self- help and SouthSouth cooperation. The NIEO intends to deal with the major problems of the South, such as the balance of payments disequilibrium, debt crisis, exchange scarcity, etc.
4. Option (2) is correct. 5. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: The Two Nation Theory is based on the hypothesis that India should be divided into two: Pakistan and Hindustan, the Muslim population to occupy Pakistan and the Hindu population to occupy Hindustan.
6. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: The Warsaw Pact was established as a balance of power or counterweight to NATO.
7. Option (2) is correct. 8. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: India has signed a secretive $200 million deal for assorted Israeli materiel, similar to innumerable defence-related procurements it has previously sourced from Tel Aviv following the establishment of formal bilateral diplomatic relations between the two countries in early 1992.
9. Option (4) is correct. Explanation: By making this statement he means that International organisations are there to resolve the conflicts between countries without going to war. They can discuss contentious issues and find peaceful solutions.
10. Option (3) is correct.
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Explanation: When USSR placed the missiles in Cuba, which was very closed to the American mainland. Three weeks later an American U-2 spy plane secretly photographed nuclear missile sites being built by the Soviet Union on the island of Cuba.
11. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: The five-day visit of Rajiv Gandhi in December 1988 was one of the biggest events in the history of Asian relations in a quarter of a century.
12. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: Meghalaya was created as an autonomous state within the state of Assam on 2 April, 1970. The full-fledged State of Meghalaya came into existence on 21 January, 1972. It is bound on the north and east by Assam, and on the south and west by Bangladesh.
13. Option (1) is correct. 14. Option (2) is correct. 15. Option (4) is correct. Explanation: India and Israel established full diplomatic relations in 1992 and since then the bilateral relationship between the two countries has blossomed at the economic, military, agricultural and political levels.
16. Option (2) is correct. 17. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: Private investors seek an open economy without any state control in the flow of capital. Therefore, a section of the big industrialists got together in 1944 and drafted a joint proposal for setting up a planned economy in the country. It was called the Bombay Plan, in which they wanted the state to take major initiatives in industrial and other economic investments. Thus, from left to right, forming planning commission for the development of a country was the most obvious choice.
Solutions 18. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: Economic hardship, the communal lifestyle of the Tajiki people and their high religiosity caused the Civil War in Tajikistan.
19. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: In January 1974 students in Gujarat started an agitation against rising prices of food grains, cooking oil and other essential commodities, and against corruption in high places.
20. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: In 2002, the King abolished the Parliament and dismissed the government, thus ending even the limited democracy that existed in Nepal.
21. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: The term ‘Shock Therapy’ meant the transitional model from being a socialist country to a capitalist country influenced by the World Bank and the IMF.
22. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: Indian Government believed in communal harmony and equality of religion for all. This highly important belief also found its place in the Constitution of India where India was declared a secular nation and the Fundamental Right of ‘Right to Religion’ was given to all citizens of India.
23. Option (4) is correct. Explanation: Globalization of culture contributes to the exchange of cultural values of different countries, the convergence of traditions. Cultural globalization characterized convergence of business and consumer culture between the different countries of the world and the growth of international communication.
24. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: The United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) was established on 4 November, 1946, which aims to contribute to the building of a culture of peace, the eradication of poverty, sustainable development and intercultural dialogue through education, the sciences, culture, communication and information.
25. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: The development of Orissa (now Odisha) through the rich iron resources was not greeted openly by the tribals in the state. They feared the loss of their employment as well as lodgings. Therefore, the ideas of development have always witnessed conflicts.
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26. Option (3) is correct. 27. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: In 1971, when Jayaprakash Narayan gave the slogan ‘Indira Hatao’ to crush Congress in Lok Sabha Elections, 1977. In contrast that Indira Gandhi Gave the slogan ‘Garibi Hatao’ to generate a support base among the disadvantaged.
28. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: The UN Security Council has five permanent members i.e. China, France, Russia, the United Kingdom and the United States.
29. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: India didn’t join US & USSR during Cold War. India advocated the policy of non-alignment by reducing the Cold War alliance and led the protest against Neocolonialism.
30. Option (1) is correct. 31. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: NDC (The National Development Council) was set up on 6 August 1952, to strengthen and mobilize the efforts and resources of the nation in support of the Five Year Plans are made by Planning Commission, to promote common economic policies in all vital spheres, and to ensure the balanced and rapid development of all parts of the country.
32. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: The Janata Party Government could not bring about a fundamental change in policies from those pursued by Congress. The Janata Party split and the government led by Morarji Desai lost its majority in less than 18 months. Another government headed by Charan Singh was formed on the assurance of the support of the Congress party.
33. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: In 1969, President Zakir Hussain's death made the post of President of India fall vacant. The `syndicate' nominate the then speaker of the Lok Sabha, N. Sanjeeva Reddy, while Indira Gandhi retaliated by encouraging the then Vice-President, V. V. Giri, to file his nomination.
34. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: Neoliberalism is a policy that encloses both politics and economics and seeks to transfer the control of economic factors from the public sector to the private sector.
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OSWAAL CUET (UG) Sample Question Papers, POLITICAL SCIENCE
35. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: When Nehru passed away, the then president, K. Kamraj, of the Congress party consulted party members and found that there was a consensus in favour of Lal Bahadur Shastri as he was a non-controversial leader from Uttar Pradesh who had been a minister in Nehru’s cabinet for many years. Nehru had come to depend a lot on him in his last years.
36. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: Panchsheel Agreement was signed on 29 April, 1954, by the Indian Prime Minister Jawahar Lal Nehru and the Chinese Premier Zhou Enlai to make a stronger relationship between the two countries.
37. Option (4) is correct. 38. Option (2) is correct.
Explanation: After Emergency, in Lok Sabha Elections, 1977, Congress lost in every constituency in North Indian states (Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Delhi, Haryana and the Punjab) and could win only one seat each in Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh.
43. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: Opium, indigo, sugar, and raw cotton were the major commodities exported by India in 1849. By 1920 exports remained overwhelmingly basic, unfinished commodities: raw cotton, jute manufactures, raw jute, raw skins and hides, and tea.
44. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: The Bandung Conference and its final resolution laid the foundation for the non- aligned movement during the Cold War. Leaders of developing countries banded together to avoid being forced to take sides in the Cold War contest. The initial motivation for the movement was the promotion of peace.
Explanation: Jayaprakash Narayan organised a nationwide Satyagraha forcing Indira Gandhi to resign based on the verdict of the 45. Option (2) is correct. Allahabad High Court. 39. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: In May 1977, the Janata Party government appointed a Commission of Explanation: The defeat of the official Congress Inquiry headed by Justice J. C. Shah, retired candidate formalised the split in the party. By Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of India, November 1969, the Congress group led by to inquire into several aspects of allegations of the ‘syndicate’ came to be referred to as the abuse of authority, excesses and malpractices Congress (Organisation) and the group led by committed and action taken in the wake of the Indira Gandhi came to be called the Congress Emergency proclaimed on the 25th June, 1975. (Requisitionists). These two parties were also described as Old Congress and New Congress.
46. Option (3) is correct.
40. Option (2) is correct.
47. Option (2) is correct.
41. Option (2) is correct. 42. Option (1) is correct.
48. Option (3) is correct. 49. Option (2) is correct. 50. Option (1) is correct.
SOLUTIONS OF Question Paper 1. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: During the tenure of Prime Minister Indira Gandhi, the first underground nuclear explosion occurred at Pokhran in Rajasthan on May 18, 1974
2. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: Amrita Pritam was an Indian novelist and poet from Punjab. She is a prominent figure in Punjabi literature.
3. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: SEATO – South East Asian Treaty Organization. It was considered necessary in the postwar period to protect member countries from Communist aggression and conspiracy in 1954.
4. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: Nehru was the first prime minister and the longest-serving prime minister of India. His legacy has been hotly debated by Indian and international observers alike.
5. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: The Interim Government formed under the Cabinet Mission plan was headed by a position held by the Congress leader Jawaharlal Nehru.
6. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: Pakistan, with the aid from US and China emerged as a threat to India. The treaty signed by India with USSR assured that if there was any attack on India, USSR will provide backup to India.
7. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: The aftermath of the Emergency, the Bharatiya Jana Sangh had merged into the Janata Party. After the fall of the Janata Party and its break-up, the supporters of erstwhile Jana Sangh formed the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) in 1980. It embraced ‘Gandhian Socialism’ as its ideology.
8. Option (1) is correct.
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Explanation: In January 1974 students in Gujarat started an agitation against rising prices of food grains, cooking oil and other essential commodities, and against corruption in high places.
9. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: General elections were held in India between 16 and 20 March 1977 to elect the members of the 6th Lok Sabha. The elections took place during the Emergency period, which expired on 21 March 1977, shortly before the final results were announced.
10. Option (4) is correct. Explanation: The slogan and the proposed anti-poverty programs that came with it were designed to give Gandhi independent national support, based on rural and urban poor, which would allow her to –pass the dominant rural castes both in and out of state and local government.
11. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: Morarji Ranchhodji Desai was an Indian independence activist and politician who served as the fourth prime minister of India between 1977 and 1997 leading the government formed by the Janata Party.
12. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: South Asia, a sub-region of Asia consisting of Indo-Gangetic plain and peninsular India. It includes the countries of Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Pakistan, Nepal and Sri Lanka; Afghanistan and the Maldives are often considered part of South Asia as well.
13. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: The European Union is set up to end the frequent and bloody wars between neighbours, which culminated in the Second World War. In 1950, the European Coal and Steel Community begins to unite European countries economically and politically to secure lasting peace. It was formed in the year 1992.
14. Option (1) is correct.
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OSWAAL CUET (UG) Sample Question Papers, POLITICAL SCIENCE Explanation: Peaceful nuclear uses help address other modern challenges
15. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: The Cold War began after the surrender of Nazi Germany in 1945, when the uneasy alliance between the United States and Great Britain on the one hand and the Soviet Union on the other started to fall apart.
16. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: In 2006, a successful uprising led to restoration the of democracy and reduced the king to a nominal position, from the experience of Bangladesh and Nepal, we can say that democracy is becoming an accepted norm in the entire region of South Asia.
17. Option (4) is correct. Explanation: In April 1961, the leaders of the Union of Soviet Socialist Republics (USSR) were worried that the United States of America (USA) would invade communist-ruled Cuba and overthrow Fidel Castro
18. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: Atal Bihari Vajpayee served three terms as the Prime Minister of India, first for a term of 13 days in 1996, then for a period of 13 months from 1998 to 1999, followed by a full term from 1999 to 2004.
Explanation: The roots of NAM went back to the friendship between Joship Broz Tito, Jawahar Lal Nehru and Gamal Abdel Nasser who held a meeting in 1956.
24. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: Jayaprakash Narayan organised a nationwide Satyagraha forcing Indira Gandhi to resign based on the verdict of the Allahabad High Court.
25. Option (4) is correct. Explanation: Lal Bahadur Shastri laid the foundation of Mangalore Port in 1964 as a minister without a portfolio.
26. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: This protest happened demanding the creation of the state of Gujarat for Gujarati-speaking people from the bilingual Bombay state of India in 1956.
27. Option (4) is correct. Explanation: Neither the Soviet Union nor the United States officially declared war on each other, both of them were trying to prove themselves as a superpower.
28. Option (3) is correct.
Explanation: It is commonly believed that Indira Gandhi called for elections because the Intelligence Bureau told her that she would win 330 seats. 19. Option (4) is correct. Explanation: China and India were involved in a border conflict in 1962 over competing territorial claims principally in Arunachal Pradesh and the Aksai Chin region of Ladakh
20. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: As of 16 December 1971, East Pakistan was separated from West Pakistan and became the newly independent state of Bangladesh.
21. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: BRICS started in 2001 as BRIC, an acronym coined by Goldman Sachs for Brazil, Russia, India, and China. South Africa was added in 2010.
22. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: Ayub Khan was the second president of Pakistan.
23. Option (1) is correct.
29. Option (1) is correct.
Explanation: Modern society of the West is industrial society. It is by undergoing the comprehensive transformation of industrialization that societies become modern.
30. Option (2) is correct. 31. Option (1) is correct. 32. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: The main functions of the IAEA are to: encourage and assist research, development and practical application of atomic energy for peaceful uses throughout the world; to establish and administer safeguards designed to ensure that such activity assisted by the Agency is not used to further any military purpose.
33. Option (3) is correct.
Solutions Explanation: India is Bhutan’s largest development partner and the highest recipient of India’s overseas aid.
34. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: In the aftermath of the Russian Revolution of 1917, the council of Lithuania chaired by Jonas Basanavicius proclaimed the act of independence of Lithuania.
35. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: Indira Gandhi vigorously campaigned for implementing the existing land reform laws and undertook further land ceiling legislation. To end her dependence on other political parties and strengthen her party’s position in the Parliament, Indira Gandhi’s government recommended the dissolution of the Lok Sabha in December 1970.
36. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: On 1st January 2015, Niti Aayog adopted Make In India policy to enhance skill development and protect intellectual property.
37. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: The Berlin Wall divided communist East Germany from West Germany crumbled.
38. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: The function of an advisory board is to offer assistance to enterprises with anything from marketing to managing human resources to influencing the direction of regulators.
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42. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: The warsaw treaty organization officially the treaty of friendship, cooperation and mutual assistance.
43. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: The Group of Eight + Five (G8+5) was an international group that consisted of the leaders of the heads of government from the G8 nations (Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, Russia, the United Kingdom, and the United States), plus the heads of government of the five leading emerging economies (Brazil, China, India, Mexico, and South Africa).
44. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: The United States is the largest provider of financial contributions to the United Nations, providing 22 percent of the entire UN budget in 2020.
45. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: This party was a far-left revolutionary Marxist faction founded by Vladimir Lenin.
46. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: Sheikh Mujibur Rahman often shortened as Sheikh Mujib or Mujib and widely known as Bangabandhu, was a Bangladeshi politician.
47. Option (2) is correct.
Explanation: Other Backward Class (OBC) is a collective term used by the Government of India to classify castes that are educationally or socially disadvantaged. 39. Option (2) is correct. 48. Option (4) is correct. Explanation: Public sector is important for Explanation: A coalition of 13 political parties overall development of a country like India formed in India after the 1996 general elections as they fulfill the basic necessities like water, known as the United Front government. electricity which private sector will provide The government was headed by two Prime with high rates. Ministers from Janata Dal – H. D. Deve Gowda, 40. Option (3) is correct. and Inder K. Gujral. Explanation: Farakka agreement was farakka 49. Option (3) is correct. water sharing treaty that was signed in 1996 Explanation: The United Front (UF) between India and Bangladesh. government—a coalition of 13 parties—came 41. Option (1) is correct. to power in 1996 as a minority government Explanation: Grand Alliance was an alliance with the support of the Congress Party. between Congress and CPI in which they won 50. Option (1) is correct. 352 seats out of 375.
SOLUTIONS OF Question Paper 1. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: German Ideology was published in 1932. It is written by Karl Marx and Friedrich Engles.
2. Option (4) is correct. Explanation: Positive liberty is the possession of the power and resources to act upon one’s free will.
3. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: NATO was created in 1949 by the US Canada and several western European nations to provide collective security against the Soviet Union.
4. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: USSR was a communist state that spanned Eurasia from 1922 to 1991.
5. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: In Soviet economy people never enjoyed economic freedom.
6. Option (4) is correct. Explanation: It is the organization of friendship, cooperation and mutual assistance. It is signed in Warsaw, Poland in May 1995.
7. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: Tajikistan faces it due to the government’s secular forces against Islamists though democratic movements participated in the UTO as well.
8. Option (4) is correct. Explanation: Chechens are a member of the largely Muslim people inhabiting Chechnya.
9. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: Western Alliance was also known as NATO. It is an association of 12 states of western Europe.
10. Option (4) is correct. Explanation: India and Israel established full diplomatic relations in 1992 and since then the bilateral relationship between the two countries has blossomed at the economic, military, agricultural and political levels.
11. Option (1) is correct.
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Explanation: International court of justice is one of the six principle organs of the UN.
12. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: The world court settles disputes between states by international law.
13. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: The UN was founded to maintain international peace and security after the second world war.
14. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: She was the first secretary of the Communist party.
15. Option (1) is correct. 16. Option (4) is correct. Explanation: Operation IRAQI freedom (OIF) was launched in March 19, 2003, to rid Iraq of its weapons of mass destruction, to eliminate Saddam Hussein's regime, and to replace it with a democracy supported by the people of Iraq.
17. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: This hostility between the two superpowers was first given its name by George Orwell in an article.
18. Option (3) is correct. 19. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: It was the second instance of nuclear testing conducted by India.
20. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: A landlord country is a country that does not have territory connected to an ocean or whose coastlines lie on endorheic basins.
21. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: Liberation Tigers of Tamil Elam were supported by the SAARC countries.
22. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: The four modernizations proposed to strengthen the fields of agriculture, industry, defense and science technology.
23. Option (4) is correct.
Solutions Explanation: ASEAN was established in August 1967 to accelerate economic growth, social progress, and cultural development in the region.
24. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: The Berlin wall was built by the German Democratic Republic during the cold war to prevent its population from escaping Soviet- controlled East Berlin to West Berlin.
25. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: The minister of steel and heavy industry announced that the Soviet Union had expressed willingness to assist India in building a steel plant at Bokaro.
26. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: USSR decided to agree to Cuba’s request to place nuclear missiles there to deter future harassment of Cuba.
27. Option (4) is correct. Explanation: Hegemonic position is fixed. Once a hegemon, always a hegemon.
28. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: The communism is a philosophical, social, political economic ideology and movement whose goal is the establishment of a communist society. Capitalism is an economic system in which private individuals or business own capitals goods.
29. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: A massive truck bomb detonated outside the US embassy the capital of neighboring Tanzania.
30. Option (4) is correct. Explanation: USA and USSR became rival after the second world war due to the race of super power.
31. Option (4) is correct. Explanation: The US department of defense is an executive branch department of the federal government charged with coordinating and supervising all agencies.
32. Option (4) is correct. 33. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: Due to public dissatisfaction with soviet president after second world war.
34. Option (4) is correct. 35. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: The US based its rationale for the invasion on claims that Iraq had a weapons of mass destruction program.
36. Option (1) is correct.
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37. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: It is the republic of Lithuania in the Baltic region of Europe.
38. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: The task of poverty alleviation and social and economic redistribution was being seen primarily as the responsibility of the government because for some people industrialisation was priority while for others, the development of agriculture and alleviation of rural poverty was the priority.
39. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: The Tashkent Declaration was a peace agreement between India and Pakistan signed on 10 January 1966 to resolve the Indo-Pakistani War of 1965. The meeting was held in Tashkent in the Uzbek Soviet Socialist Republic, the Soviet Union represented by Premier Aleksey Kosygin.
40. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) is an organization of eight countries (Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, the Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka) in South Asia established in 1985.
41. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: Panchsheel Agreement signed on 29 April 1954 by the Indian Prime Minister Jawahar Lal Nehru and the Chinese Premier Zhou Enlai to make stronger relationship between the two countries.
42. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: Many nuclear states maintain policies that would permit them to use nuclear weapons in case of any conflict. While India wants a world to be free of nuclear weapons but still they reserved the right to fight back if attacked by any country.
43. Option (1) is correct. 44. Option (3) is correct. 45. Option (1) is correct. 46. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: ‘Jai Jawaan Jai Kisaan’ was a slogan given by the second Prime Minister of India Lal Bahadur Shastri in 1965 at a public gathering at Ramlila Maidan, Delhi.
47. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: Shastri ji was a Railway Minister under Jawaharlal Nehru’s cabinet. He gave his resignation when in August, 1956 a major railway accident happened in Mahabubnagar, Andhra Pradesh. 48. Option (3) is correct. 49. Option (1) is correct. 50. Option (2) is correct.
SOLUTIONS OF Question Paper 1. Option (1) is correct. 2. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: Other Backward Class (OBC) is a collective term used by the Government of India to classify castes that are educationally or socially disadvantaged.
3. Option (4) is correct. Explanation: The United Front was a coalition government of 13 political parties formed in India after the 1996 general elections.
4. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: Anti Defection Law is known as horse trading in Indian politics.
5. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: India has signed a secretive $200 million deal for assorted Israeli materiel, similar to innumerable defence-related procurements it has previously sourced from Tel Aviv following the establishment of formal bilateral diplomatic relations between the two countries in early 1992.
6. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: In May 1977, the Janata Party government appointed a Commission of Inquiry headed by Justice J. C. Shah, retired Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of India, to inquire into several aspects of allegations of abuse of authority, excesses and malpractices committed and action taken in the wake of the Emergency proclaimed on the 25th June, 1975.
7. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: The period of emergency is one of the most controversial events of Indian politics.
8. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: A good democracy is defined as an institutional structure that understands the liberty and equality of citizens through the correct functioning of the government and its method. Also, it is a regime that should completely satisfy the citizens with its result.
9. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: The INC suffered setbacks in seven states which included Gujarat, Madras etc.
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10. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: Zakir Hussain is an Indian economist and politician who served as the third president of India from 13 May 1967.
11. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: Sanjeeva Reddy was an politician who served as the sixth president of India serving from 1977 to 1982.
12. Option (4) is correct. Explanation: To make matters worse for Indira Gandhi, all the major non-Communist, non- Congress opposition parties (SSP, PSP, Bharatiya Jana Sangh, Swatantra Party and the Bharatiya Kranti Dal) formed an electoral alliance known as the Grand Alliance.
13. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: Indira Gandhi vigorously campaigned for implementing the existing land reform laws and undertook further land ceiling legislation. To end her dependence on other political parties and strengthen her party’s position in the Parliament, Indira Gandhi’s government recommended the dissolution of the Lok Sabha in December 1970.
14. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: This party was created and led by Indira Gandhi. Initially was known as Congress (R) but it soon came to be generally known as the new congress.
15. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: Most of the newly independent countries feared the war between the two blocs. They never wanted to face any financial as well as political consequences. Hence, they supported the stronger nations with financial as well as military aid.
16. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: While India was trying to convince the other developing countries about the policy of non-alignment, the US was not happy about India’s these independent initiatives. The US also disliked India’s growing partnership with the Soviet Union. Therefore, there was considerable unease in Indo- US relations during the 1950s.
Solutions 17. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: Private investors seek an open economy without any state control over the flow of capital. Therefore, a section of the big industrialists got together in 1944 and drafted a joint proposal for setting up a planned economy in the country. It was called the Bombay Plan, in which they wanted the state to take major initiatives in industrial and other economic investments. Thus, from left to right, forming a planning commission for the development of a country was the most obvious choice.
18. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: The berlin wall was built by the German Democratic Republic during the cold war to prevent its population from escaping Soviet-controlled East Berlin to West Berlin.
19. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: In a capitalist economy, production is determined by free-market forces such as supply and demand. In a communist economy, the government determines which goods and services get produced and how much is available at any given time.
20. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: The of Afghanistan was in late December 1979 by troops from the Soviet Union.
21. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: Socialism is the political idea that is based on the belief that all people are equal and that money and property should be equally divided.
22. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: During the early 1990s the Karabakh Armenian forces supported by Armenia gained control of much of southwestern Azerbeijan.
23. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: He was a Russian and Soviet politician who served as the first president of the Russian federation from 1991 to 1999.
24. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: OPCW is the implementing body for the chemical Weapons Convention which entered into force on 29 April 1997.
25. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: The cold war was an ongoing political rivalry between the united states and the Soviet Union and their respective allies that developed after World War II.
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26. Option (4) is correct. Explanation: Stepping up pressure on the defiant Bosnian Serbs a U.S. Navy launched a cruise missiles.
27. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: On September 11, 2001, 19 militants associated with the Islamic extremist group Al-Qaeda hijacked four airplanes and carried out suicide attacks against targets in the U.S. The fourth was in Pennsylvania.
28. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: The purpose of the symposium was to encourage an informal dialogue between WTO members and representatives of non-government organizations on issues.
29. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: The entry and the increased role of the multinational companies all over the world leads to a reduction in the capacity of the government to take decision on their own.
30. Option (4) is correct. Explanation: World Trade means the exchange of goods and services between countries.
31. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: Character of people is not a contributory factor for development.
32. Option (4) is correct. Explanation: India’s trade and external sector had a significant impact on the GDP growth as well as expansion in per capita income.
33. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: SAARC means South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation.
34. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: Kerala is a state on India’s tropical Malabar Coast has the largest literacy in India.
35. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: The Indian economy premised on the basis of planning.
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36. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: A famine situation means an extreme scarcity of food and people are starving.
37. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: During India’s second Five Year Plan, of the sixteen heavy industry projects set up, eight were initiated with the help of the Soviet Union. This included the establishment of the world famous IIT Bombay.
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OSWAAL CUET (UG) Sample Question Papers, POLITICAL SCIENCE
38. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: During the April 2005 visit of Premier Wen Jiabao, the two sides established a Strategic and Cooperative Partnership for Peace and Prosperity, while the signing of an agreement on Political Parameters and Guiding Principles, signalled the successful conclusion of the first phase of SR Talks.
39. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: During the April 2005 visit of Premier Wen Jiabao, the two sides established a Strategic and Cooperative Partnership for Peace and Prosperity, while the signing of an agreement on Political Parameters and Guiding Principles, signalled the successful conclusion of the first phase of SR Talks.
40. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: The pressure is because it also affected the people of India.
41. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: Junagarh or Junagadh was a princely state in Gujarat ruled by the Muslim Babi dynasty in British India, until its annexation by the Union of India in 1948.
42. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: Gandhi was assassinated on 30 January 1948 in the compound of Birla House, New Delhi by Nathuram Godse.
43. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: Meghalaya was created as an autonomous state within the state of Assam on 2 April, 1970. The full-fledged State of Meghalaya came into existence on 21 January, 1972. It is bound on the north and east by Assam, and on the south and west by Bangladesh.
44. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: The state Legislative Assembly is a legislative body in the states and union territories of India.
45. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: KT shah was an Indian economist, advocate and socialist best known for his active role as a member of the constituent Assembly of India.
46. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: Parliament passed the Andhra State Act in September 1953. On 1 October 1953, 11 districts in the Telugu-speaking portion of Madras State became the new Andhra State with Kurnool as the capital.
47. Option (2) is correct. 48. Option (1) is correct. 49. Option (3) is correct. 50. Option (3) is correct.
SOLUTIONS OF Question Paper 1. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: This operation was a military operation to expel occupying Iraqi forces from Kuwait.
2. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: In 1991, after the second world war, the Soviet Union collapsed, along with widespread public dissatisfaction.
3. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: Al-Qaeda is a multinational militant Islamic extremist network and was founded in 1988 during the Soviet-Afghan war.
4. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: The war was because of economic hardship, the communal way of life of the Tajiki people, and their high religiosity.
5. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: The US, commonly known as the United States is a country primarily located in North America.
6. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: The Berlin wall fall in February 1990.
7. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: It was launched on 19 March 2003 with the immediate goal of removing Saddam Hussein’s regime and destroying its ability to use weapons.
8. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: Yugoslavia was a country in Southeast Europe and Central Europe and came into existence after world war I in 1918.
9. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: Nikita was the first secretary of the communist party of the Soviet Union from 1953 to 1964.
10. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: The ‘ASEAN Way’ a form of interaction among ASEAN members that is informal and cooperative.
11. Option (4) is correct.
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Explanation: Hegemony is a control by one country, organization over other countries within a particular group.
12. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: The Soviet Union invaded Afghanistan in the year 1979. Thus, the correct answer is 1979.
13. Option (4) is correct. Explanation: The Soviet system gave primacy to the state and the institution of the party.
14. Option (4) is correct. Explanation: The scheme of Partition included a plan for the transfer of population across the border.
15. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: The secretary General circulated the request among the UN membership. There being no objection, the Russian federation took the USSR’s place.
16. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: Operation enduring freedom was the official name used by the US government for the global war on terrorism.
17. Option (4) is correct. Explanation: Gorbachev is a Russian and former Soviet politician. The eighth and final leader of the Soviet Union.
18. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: Hegemony comes to English from the Greek hegemonia.
19. Option (1) is correct. 20. Option (4) is correct. Explanation: Due to India’s growing economic power and stable political system India’s weightage to proposal for permanent membership in the security council.
21. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: Coalition government is a form of government in which political parties cooperate to form a government.
22. Option (2) is correct.
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OSWAAL CUET (UG) Sample Question Papers, POLITICAL SCIENCE Explanation: V. P. Singh was an Indian politician who was the 7th Prime Minister of India from 1989 to 1990.
23. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: (a) Social movements are not hampering the functioning of India’s democracy. (b) The main strength of social movements lies in their mass base across social sections. (c) Many issues emerged in India because political parties did not address the social movements.
24. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: Its wars were a series of separate but related ethnic conflicts wars of independence and insurgencies fought in the former Yugoslavia.
25. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: The 2003 invasion of Iraq was the first stage of the Iraq war.
26. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: He was a Russian revolutionary, politician and politician and political theorist.
27. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: The Wharton School of the university of Pennsylvania also known as Wharton Business school of the University of Pennsylvania.
28. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: In the aftermath of the Russian Revolution of 1917 the council of Lithuania proclaimed the Act of independence of Lithuania on February 16, 1918.
29. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: Iraq ordered the invasion and occupation of Kuwait with the apparent aim of acquiring that nation’s large oil reserves.
30. Option (4) is correct. Explanation: Crises in the middle east was happened due to the increasing number of Jewish people immigrating to the Holy land increased tensions in the region.
31. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: The full name of LTTE is Liberation Tiger’s of Tamil Eelam.
32. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: The armed wing of the NaxaliteMaoists is called the People’s Liberation Guerrilla Army.
33. Option (4) is correct. Explanation: Among all the options Pakistan is a south Asian country.
34. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: India is Bhutan’s biggest source of development aid.
35. Option (4) is correct. Explanation: Since its independence, Pakistan’s naked system has fluctuated between civilian and military governments at various times.
36. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: SAARC seeks to promote the welfare of the people of South Asia, promote active collaboration.
37. Option (4) is correct. Explanation: Russia is not a South Asian country. South Asia is a subregion of Asia, consisting of the Indo-Gangetic plain and peninsular India.
38. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: BJP pursued Hindutva and its policy has historically reflected Hindu nationalist position.
39. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: The original member nations that signed the charter of the United Nations back in 1945 were 51.
40. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: Human Rights are rights inherent to all human beings, regardless f race, sex, nationality, ethnicity, language, religion, or any other status.
41. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: IAEA is an international organization that seeks to promote the peaceful use of nuclear energy.
42. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: Trygve Lie was a Norwegian politician, labour leader, government official and author.
43. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: WTO came into being in 1995
44. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: The UN security Council have ten non permanent members.
45. Option (3) is correct.
Solutions Explanation: She was an Indian diplomat and politician who was the sixth governor of Maharashtra and the first woman President to the U.N. General Assembly.
46. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: Ram Manohar Lohia is one of the main proponents of socialism in India. In his 'Democratic Socialism,' he associated socialism with democracy. Lohia showed great originality in his enunciation of socialism.
47. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: ASEAN was established on 8 August 1967 in Bangkok by the five original member countries: Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore, Thailand and Brunei.
48. Option (2) is correct.
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Explanation: ASEAN, was to accelerate economic growth, social progress, and cultural development and to promote peace and security in Southeast Asia.
49. Option (4) is correct. Explanation: ASEAN Regional Forum was established in 1994. The main objectives of ARF were to accelerate economic growth and through that achieve social progress and cultural development.
50. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: On 16 April 1948, the Organisation for European Economic Cooperation (OEEC) was founded. To plan for and implement the European Recovery Programme (ERP) for the countries of Western Europe, the organisation was established to distribute Marshall plan aid and allocate Marshall plan funds.
SOLUTIONS OF Question Paper 1. Option (4) is correct. 2. Option (4) is correct. 3. Option (1) is correct. 4. Option (4) is correct. Explanation: Socialism, equality, democracy, and liberty were the cherished goals of Pt. Nehru.
5. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: After President Rafiq Tarar’s resignation, Musharraf formally appointed himself as President on 20 June 2001.
6. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: Both the countries have many times experienced military as well as a democratic rule. Governments in both these countries were never stable. These frequent upheavals have affected their political, social and economic development.
7. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: The constitution of 1956 was the fundamental law of Pakistan from March 1956. It was the first constitution adopted by independent Pakistan.
8. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: Zulfiqar Ali Bhutto was a Pakistani barrister and politician who served as the 9th Prime Minister of Pakistan from 1971 to 1977.
9. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: IPKF’s full form is Indian Peace Keeping Force was the Indian military contingent performing a peacekeeping operation in Sri Lanka between 1987 and 1990.
10. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: The Indian intervention in the Srilankan civil war was the deployment of the Indian Peace keeping force in Srilanka intended to perform a peacekeeping role.
11. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: On December 2015, PM Narendra Modi make a surprise visit to Pakistan.
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12. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: Kofi Annan (Ghana) held the office from January 1997 to December 2006.
13. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: Human Rights Watch defends the rights of people worldwide. It scrupulously investigate abuses, expose the facts widely, and pressure those with power to respect rights and secure justice.
14. Option (4) is correct. Explanation: Some have accused the World Bank of using structural adjustment loans as a mechanism to coerce countries to adopt freemarket economic principles. The bank agrees to lend money to countries in debt crises, regardless of their other characteristics.
15. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: India has said that the U.N. Security Council is finding itself unable to act effectively to address increasingly complex issues of international peace and security as it lacked inclusivity of those who need to be members of the powerful organ of the world body.
16. Option (4) is correct. Explanation: It is usual to distinguish between three main types of “international organization”, namely: inter-governmental organizations, international non-governmental organizations, and multinational enterprises.
17. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: Ministers from developing countries demanded that developed economies such as the US and the EU stop controversial agricultural subsidies, which hindered globalization. Japan said abusive use of anti-dumping measures should be regarded as a disguised form of protectionism that nullifies tariff reductions overnight.
18. Option (2) is correct.
Solutions Explanation: The high growth in GDP is perhaps the most popularly cited benefit of globalization in India. This increase is possible through a favourable balance of trade in contemporary times due to inflows of foreign trade and foreign investment into India.
19. Option (4) is correct. Explanation: Globalization of culture contributes to the exchange of cultural values of different countries, the convergence of traditions. For cultural globalization characterized convergence of business and consumer culture between the different countries of the world and the growth of international communication.
20. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: Technology is a vital force in the modern form of business globalization. Technology has helped us in overcoming the major hurdles of globalization and international trade such as trade barriers, lack of common ethical standards, transportation costs, and delays in information exchange, thereby changing the marketplace.
21. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: India carried out wide-ranging deregulation policies in 1991. Significant sectors of the economy were opened up for private participation through de-licensing and allowing entry to industries previously reserved exclusively for the state-owned sector.
22. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: Although, globalization increases the risk of spreading diseases, it also helps in finding effective and speedy cure for the diseases with the collaboration of the medical facilities and knowledge of many countries. The best example can be the invention of Covid-19 vaccine.
23. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: The United States, as well as several other countries, have adopted the so-called "3D Policy": disintermediation, decommissioning, and deregulation. Financial regulation was simplified, mediators were eliminated and barriers between financial centers of the world were broken down. To make money exchange easier for the world's financial players. This financial globalization has contributed to the rise of a global financial market in which the proliferation of contracts and capital exchanges.
24. Option (3) is correct.
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Explanation: The Two Nation Theory is based on the hypothesis that India should be divided into two: Pakistan and Hindustan, the Muslim nation to occupy Pakistan and the Hindu nation to occupy Hindustan.
25. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: Ghaffar Khan was a Pashtun who greatly admired Mahatma Gandhi and his nonviolence principles and saw support for the Congress as a way of pressing his grievances against the British frontier regime. Hence, he was called the Frontier Gandhi.
26. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: At the time of independence, the problem of integration of princely states was a big challenge for the national unity and integrity of India. Under such difficult times, Sardar Patel undertook the daunting tasks of uniting all 565 princely states of India. Known as an ‘Iron Man’ of India, Patel’s approach to the question of the merger of princely states into independent India was very clear. He was not in favour of any compromise with the territorial integrity of India.
27. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: The North Eastern Areas Act, 1971 was a major reform of the boundaries of India’s North-East region into states and Union territories.
28. Option (4) is correct. Explanation: They opposed the partition of India, seeing it as contradicting his vision of unity among Indian’s of all religions.
29. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: The population of Muslim in India in 1951 is 12%.
30. Option (4) is correct. Explanation: A cabinet is a union council of ministers exercises executive authority in the Republic of India.
31. Option (4) is correct. Explanation: The idea of planning in India was drawn from the Bombay Plan, experiences of the Soviet bloc countries, Gandhian vision of society and demand by peasant organizations.
32. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: Public sector is important for overall development of a country like India as they fulfill the basic necessities like water, electricity which private sector will provide with high rates.
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OSWAAL CUET (UG) Sample Question Papers, POLITICAL SCIENCE
33. Option (4) is correct. Explanation: Modernization is the process of modernization within societies.
34. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: The planning Advisory Board makes advisory recommendations to the planning and zoning officer.
35. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: Plan expenditure is spent on productive asset creation through Centrally sponsored programmes and flagship schemes, while “Non-plan” refers to all other expenditure such as defence expenditure, subsidies, interest payments, including expenditure on establishment and maintenance activities such as salaries.
36. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: The NITI aayog serves as the apex public policy think tank of the government of India whose CEO and Vice Chairperson is appointed by the Prime Minister of India.
37. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: NITI Aayog is supposed to be a think tank. This implies that while generating new ideas, it maintains a respectable intellectual distance from the government of the day.
38. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: Sincization of Tibet refers to the programs and laws of the Chinese government and the Chinese Communist Party which force cultural unity in Tibetan areas of China. Due to which relation of India and China strained.
39. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: India has refused to sign the Treaty on the grounds of CTBT, like the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT), is discriminatory. Even before coming into force, the CTBT has helped the cause of test-ban and nuclear disarmament by discouraging member-states from testing for and developing nuclear weapons.
40. Option (2) is correct. 41. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: The defeat of the official Congress candidate formalised the split in the party. By November 1969, the Congress group led by the ‘syndicate’ came to be referred to as the Congress (Organisation) and the group led by Indira Gandhi came to be called the Congress Requisitionists). These two parties were also described as Old Congress and New Congress.
42. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: Indira Gandhi vigorously campaigned for implementing the existing land reform laws and undertook further land ceiling legislation. To end her dependence on other political parties and strengthen her party’s position in the Parliament, Indira Gandhi’s government recommended the dissolution of the Lok Sabha in December 1970.
43. Option (1) is correct. 44. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: Shastri ji was a Railway Minister under Jawaharlal Nehru’s cabinet. He gave his resignation when in August, 1956 a major railway accident happened in Mahabubnagar, Andhra Pradesh.
45. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: Military rule and democracy can’t work together because military rule imposes such restrictions wherein people’s fundamental rights are curbed.
46. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: Rajiv Gandhi was assassinated because of personal animosity by the LTTE chief Prabhakaran arising from his sending the IPKF to Sri Lanka.
47. Option (4) is correct. Explanation: The North Atlantic Treaty Organization was created in 1949 to provide collective security against the Soviet Union.
48. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: The Warsaw Pact was created in reaction to the integration of West Germany into NATO in 1955 per the London and Paris Conferences of 1954. The Warsaw Pact was established as a balance of power or counterweight to NATO.
49. Option (4) is correct. Explanation: The primary aims of the Warsaw Pact were to safeguard the security of its member states and to increase military cooperation amongst its members.
50. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: The Warsaw Pact was created in reaction to the integration of West Germany into NATO in 1955 per the London and Paris Conferences of 1954. The Warsaw Pact was established as a balance of power or counterweight to NATO.
SOLUTIONS OF Question Paper 1. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: In 1962, President John F. Kennedy imposed a U.S. Naval blockade of Cuba after U.S. spy planes found Soviet missile sites on the Communist-ruled island.
2. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: The major Allied Powers were Britain, France, Russia, and the United States. The Allies formed mostly as a defence against the attacks of the Axis Powers. The original members of the Allies included Great Britain, France and Poland.
3. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: The Central Treaty Organisation (CENTO), originally known as the Baghdad Pact or the Middle East Treaty Organisation (METO) (disambiguation), was a military alliance of the Cold War. It was formed in 1955 by Iran, Iraq, Pakistan, Turkey and the United Kingdom. It was never led by Soviet Union.
4. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: The non-aligned movement refers to states that do not consider themselves affiliated with or opposed to any major power bloc.
5. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: Economic hardship, communal lifestyle of Tajiki people and their high religiosity caused the Civil War in Tajikistan.
6. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: After the Soviet Union disintegrated in the early 1990s, the term hyper-power began to be applied to the United States as the sole remaining superpower of the Cold War era.
7. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: On December 25, 1991, the Soviet hammer and sickle flag lowered for the last time over the Kremlin, thereafter replaced by the Russian tricolour.
8. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: The era after the end of the Cold War, has been described as the period of US dominance or a unipolar world.
9
9. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: The Iraq war was a protracted armed conflict in Iraq from 2003 to 2011.
10. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: The Euro is the official currency for 19 of the 27 EU member countries.
11. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: Over four decades, ASEAN and the EU have established a strong relationship, mainly in trade and economic relations.
12. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: Bilateralism is the conduct of political, economic or cultural relations between two sovereign states.
13. Option (4) is correct. 14. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: Among all the options China is the country which is not included in South Asia.
15. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: Sinhala were hostile to a large number of Tamils who had migrated from India to Sri Lanka and settled there.
16. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: Operation Fair Play was the code name for the 5 July 1977 coup by Pakistan Chief of Army Staff General Muhammad Zia-ul Haq, overthrowing the government of Prime Minister Zulfikar Ali Bhutto.
17. Option (4) is correct. 18. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: LTTE which means Liberation tigers of Tamil Eelam posed challenge to Indian Army in Sri Lanka.
19. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: The UN General Assembly is the main policy making organ of the organization.
20. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: In UN, the power of the US and its veto within the organisation split the rest of the world and to reduce opposition to its policies.
60
OSWAAL CUET (UG) Sample Question Papers, POLITICAL SCIENCE
21. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: The main functions of the IAEA are to: encourage and assist research, development and practical application of atomic energy for peaceful uses throughout the world; establish and administer safeguards designed to ensure that such activity assisted by the Agency is not used to further any military purpose.
22. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: Darfur, the western region of Sudan, has been in a state of humanitarian crisis since 2003. The current conflict in Darfur is complex, caused by a host of political, social, economic and environmental problems. Hundreds of thousands of people have died and more than 8.5 million people are affected by the crisis.
23. Option (4) is correct. Explanation: It is usual to distinguish between three main types of “international organization”, namely: inter-governmental organisations, international non-governmental organizations, and multinational enterprises.
24. Option (2) is correct. 25. Option (4) is correct. 26. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: State with fewer powers; A state with fewer powers than possible. It is a term used in political philosophy when the duties of the state cannot be further reduced.
27. Option (4) is correct. Explanation: World export is kind of international trade where by goods and services manufactured or produced in one nation has increased 33-fold.
28. Option (2) is correct. 29. Option (2) is correct. Explanation:
Andhra’s
resolution
is
a
resolution seeking to continue the existing state legislative council from Madras Legislature.
30. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: The restrictions on private industries is minimum 2 and maximum 200 members imposed on 1960’s.
31. Option (3) is correct.
Explanation: “Socialist pattern of society” , according to the planning Commission, means “that the basic criterion for determining the lines of advance must not be private profit but social gain, and that the pattern of development and the structure of socioeconomic relations should be so planned so that the result not only inappreciable increases in national income and employment but also in greater equality incomes and wealth”.
32. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: The Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT), 1968. The Nuclear NonProliferation Treaty was an agreement signed in 1968 by several of the major nuclear and non-nuclear powers that pledged their cooperation in stemming the spread of nuclear technology.
33. Option (2) is correct. 34. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: India was attacked by China in October 1962. It took more than a decade for India and China to resume normal relations.
35. Option (2) is correct. 36. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: Since 1998, other than in India and China, possession of nuclear weapons has been an alarming reality in Pakistan country.
37. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: Lal Bahadur Shastri was an Indian statesman who served as the second Prime Minister of India. He promoted the White Revolution – a national campaign to increase the production and supply of milk – by supporting the Amul milk cooperative of Anand.
38. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: On 26 January 1950, it was formed as Madras State by the Government of India. As a result of the 1956 States Reorganisation Act, the state's boundaries were re-organized following linguistic lines. The state was finally renamed Tamil Nadu on 14 January 1969 by C.N. Annadurai, Chief Minister.
39. Option (4) is correct. Explanation: In the 1996 state elections, DMK came to power on strength of corruption charges against J. Jayalalithaa and the alliance with Tamil Maanila Congress (TMC), headed by G.K. Moopanar.
Solutions 40. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: Zakir Husain Khan was an Indian economist and politician who served as the third president of India, from 13 May 1967 until his death on 3 May 1969.
41. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: In response to Indira Gandhi's appointment as prime minister, a much respected socialist leader called her a Gungi Gudiya (Dumb Doll) with contempt.
42. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: Naxalbari uprising was an armed peasant revolt in 1967 in the Naxalbari block of the Siliguri subdivision in Darjeeling district, West Bengal, India.
43. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: Navnirman Andolan (Reinvention or Re-construction movement) was a socio-political movement in 1974 in Gujarat by students and middle-class people against economic crisis and corruption in public life.
44. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: The Lok Sabha elections date was announced on 18th January.
45. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: The elections were a landslide victory for the Indian National Congress of Rajiv Gandhi (son of Indira Gandhi), which won 404 of the 514 seats elected in 1984 and a further 10 in the delayed elections.
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46. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: The first successful coalition government in India which completed the whole 5-year term was the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) led National Democratic Alliance with Atal Bihari Vajpayee as PM from 1999 to 2004
47. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: Federalism and Coalition Government is an instrument of power sharing.
48. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: The object of sharing of power is common in both (Federalism and Coalition Government).
49. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: Anti Defection Law is known as horse trading in Indian politics.
50. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: Atal Bihari Vajpayee served three terms as the Prime Minister of India, first for a term of 13 days in 1996, then for a period of 13 months from 1998 to 1999, followed by a full term from 1999 to 2004.
SOLUTIONS OF Question Paper 1. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: The decision of the National Front Government to implement the recommendations of the Mandal Commission further helped in shaping the politics of ‘Other Backward Classes’ because this period saw the emergence of many parties that sought disastrous decisions and approaches for OBCs.
2. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: In 1962 the Soviet Union began to secretly install missiles in Cuba to launch attacks on U.S. cities. The confrontation that followed, known as the Cuban missile crisis, brought the two superpowers to the brink of war before an agreement was reached to withdraw the missiles.
3. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: When USSR placed the missiles in Cuba, which was very closed to the American mainland. Three weeks later an American U-2 spy plane secretly photographed nuclear missile sites being built by the Soviet Union on the island of Cuba.
4. Option (4) is correct. Explanation: The name Non-Alignment was coined by Jawahar Lal Nehru in his 1954 speech in Colombo, Sri Lanka. After independence, India did not want to be part of these blocs led by the USSR or the USA. It chose to follow a non-compliance policy.
5. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: The conference of Heads of State or Government of the Non-Aligned Countries, often referred to as the Non-Aligned Movement Summit, is the main meeting within the movement and is held every
6. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: Berlin was built on 13th August 1961 whereas Second World War came to an end in 1945.
7. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: Socialism is a political and economic theory of social organization which
10
advocates that the means of production, distribution, and exchange should be owned or regulated by the community as a whole.
8. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: Shock therapy is an economic program intended to transition a planned economy or developmentalist economy to a free market economy through sudden and dramatic neo-liberal reform.
9. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: A protracted military conflict in Iraq began in 2003 with an attack by a coalition of forces led by the United States. This attack resulted in the overthrow of Saddam Hussein's regime.
10. Option (4) is correct. Explanation: Central Asia's economic activity is centred on irrigated agriculture in the south and on heavy and light industry and mining in Kazakhstan. Under Soviet rule the area supplied most of the U.S.S.R.'s cotton and was a major supplier of coal and other minerals for industrial use.
11. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: The withdrawal of government subsidies pushed large sections of the people into poverty.
12. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: Last, in the Soviet Union, the failed August Coup in 1991 led to the end of the Communist Party in the USSR. All of these events led to the end of communism and the making of a democratic Russia.
13. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: The Council of Europe is an international organization founded in the wake of World War II to uphold human rights, democracy and the rule of law in Europe. Founded in 1949, it has 47 member states.
14. Option (3) is correct.
Solutions Explanation: The Treaty of Peace, Friendship and Cooperation between the USSR and India concluded in August 1971 has become an important factor in strengthening international peace, security and cooperation.
15. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: There are also strategic and economic motives for China's attachment to Tibet. The region serves as a buffer zone between China on one side and India, Nepal, and Bangladesh on the other. The Himalayan mountain range provides an added level of security as well as a military advantage.
16. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: 85 years ago, Jawaharlal Nehru embarked on his first-ever visit to Moscow to take part in the celebrations of the 10th anniversary of the October Revolution, which exerted enormous influence on the evolution of his worldview.
17. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: After President Rafiq Tarar’s resignation, Musharraf formally appointed himself as President on 20 June 2001.
18. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: India and Pakistan always have had problems with the sharing of river waters. Until 1960, they were locked in a fierce argument over the use of the rivers of the Indus basin.
19. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: China is not include in South Asia.
20. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: A mass civil protest was launched by a coalition of the Maoists and the political parties in 2006, which forced the king to step down and established a democratic republic by 2008.
21. Option (4) is correct. Explanation: The government of India has often expressed displeasure at the warm relationship between Nepal and China and the Nepal government’s inaction against antiIndian elements.
22. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: The United Nations Security Council “Veto power” refers to the power of the five permanent members of the UN Security Council (China, France, Russia, the United Kingdom and the United States) to veto any “substantive” resolution.
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23. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: The UN Security Council has five permanent members i.e. China, France, Russia, the United Kingdom and the United States.
24. Option (4) is correct. Explanation: UNICEF was founded on 11 December 1946 in New York an agency responsible for providing humanitarian and developmental aid to children worldwide.
25. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: The World Health Organization (WHO) plays an essential role in the global governance of health and disease; due to its core global functions of establishing, monitoring and enforcing international norms and standards, and coordinating multiple actors toward common goals.
26. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: The role of international organizations is helping to set the international agenda, mediate political bargaining, provide a place for political initiatives, and act as catalysts for coalition - formation. They facilitate cooperation and coordination among member nations.
27. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: India's status as a founding member of the Non-Aligned Movement and the Group of 77 cemented its position within the UN system as a leading advocate of the concerns and aspirations of developing countries and the creation of a more equitable international economic and political order.
28. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: In terms of financial contributions to the United Nations, the United States is the largest provider.
29. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: Traditionally there have been two central theories of IR: liberalism and realism. Although they have come under great challenge from other theories, they remain central to the discipline. At its height, liberalism in IR was referred to as a ‘utopian’ theory and is still recognized as such to some degree today
30. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: Globalization has resulted in greater interconnectedness among markets around the world and increased communication and awareness of business opportunities in the far corners of the globe.
31. Option (4) is correct.
64
OSWAAL CUET (UG) Sample Question Papers, POLITICAL SCIENCE Explanation: A product that is sold to the global market is called an export, and a product that is bought from the global market is an import.
32. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: Globalization has increased the production of goods and services. The largest companies are no longer national firms, located in one single country; they are multinational corporations with businesses in many countries
33. Option (4) is correct. Explanation: 80 lakh was the number of the people who had to forcefully migrate across new borders.
34. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: The leaders of Indian National Struggle and Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan were not convinced by the two-nation theory and wanted a single united India as a home for both Hindus and Muslims.
35. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: Modern society of the West is industrial society. It is by undergoing the comprehensive transformation of industrialization that societies become modern.
36. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: “The Bombay Plan” is the nickname of a 15-year economic plan for India proposed by a group of industrialists and technocrats in January 1944. Initially, it was released for private circulation only. Soon afterwards, the plan was published as a pamphlet in response to the interest generated by it.
37. Option (4) is correct. Explanation: The most significant difference between the private and public sectors is the ownership of the organizations within them.
38. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: The Minister of External Affairs (or simply, the Foreign Minister, in Hindi Videsh Mantri) is the head of the Ministry of External Affairs of the Government of India.
39. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: The Hindu newspaper published the article titled “Potential consequences of a regional nuclear conflict.”
40. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: The Indian National Congress (Organisation) was also occasionally informally referred to as the Syndicate and the Indira faction by "Indicate". K Kamaraj and later Morarji Desai were the leaders of the INC(O).
41. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: Grand Alliance was an alliance between Congress and CPI in which they won 352 seats out of 375.
42. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: The results of the General Election of 1967 were a shock for the congress at the national and the state levels. Most of the ministers in Indira Gandhi’s cabinet lost the elections.
43. Option (4) is correct. Explanation: For 10 years Lal Bahadur Sashtri remained cabinet minister prior becoming the PM.
44. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: The tenure of Shastri as a PM of India was 1964 to 1966.
45. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: After an emergency, in the Lok Sabha elections, 1977 Congress lost in every constituency in North Indian states (Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Delhi, Haryana, and Punjab) and could win only one seat each in Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh.
46. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: In the elections held immediately after Emergency, the Congress could win only 154 seats in the Lok Sabha.
47. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: A coalition government is formed because no single party has achieved an absolute majority after an election.
48. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: NDA have coalition governments in 1997, 1998, 1999.
49. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: In 2004, 2009 UPA governments were formed.
50. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: The commission submitted the report to the president on December 30, 1980. It recommended a 27% reservation quota for OBC resulting in total 49.5% quota in government jobs and public universities. V. P. Singh, the Prime Minister at the time, tried to implement its recommendations in August 1990 which led to protests
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