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2009 - 12th NSO Class 9
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CLASS 9
Contents ªª 13th NSO 2010 ªª 14th NSO 2011 ªª 15th NSO 2012 - SET A ªª 15th NSO 2012 - SET B ªª 16th NSO 2013 - SET A ªª 16th NSO 2013 - SET B ªª 17th NSO 2014 - SET A ªª 17th NSO 2014 - SET B
MTG Work-Books / olympiad books CLASS 1
International Mathematics Olympiad
National Science Olympiad
International English Olympiad
MTG CSS Series
CLASS 2
International Mathematics Olympiad
National Science Olympiad
National Cyber Olympiad
International English Olympiad
MTG CSS Series
International English Olympiad
MTG CSS Series
CLASS 3
International Mathematics Olympiad
National Science Olympiad
National Cyber Olympiad
MTG Work-Books / olympiad books CLASS 4
International Mathematics Olympiad
National Science Olympiad
National Cyber Olympiad
International English Olympiad
MTG CSS Series
International English Olympiad
MTG CSS Series
International English Olympiad
MTG CSS Series
CLASS 5
International Mathematics Olympiad
National Science Olympiad
National Cyber Olympiad
CLASS 6
International Mathematics Olympiad
National Science Olympiad
National Cyber Olympiad
MTG Work-Books / olympiad books CLASS 7
National Science Olympiad
International Mathematics Olympiad
National Cyber Olympiad
Science IQ Challenge
Math IQ Challenge
International English Olympiad
MTG CSS Series
Master Mental Ability in 30 Days
CLASS 8
International Mathematics Olympiad
National Science Olympiad
National Cyber Olympiad
International English Olympiad
MTG CSS Series
Math IQ Challenge
Science IQ Challenge
Psychology of Success
The Secrets of SUCCESS
Master Mental Ability in 30 Days
MTG Work-Books / olympiad books CLASS 9
International Mathematics Olympiad
Math IQ Challenge
National Science Olympiad
Science IQ Challenge
National Cyber Olympiad
Psychology of Success
The Secrets of SUCCESS
International English Olympiad
Master Mental Ability in 30 Days
CLASS 10
International Mathematics Olympiad
Math IQ Challenge
National Science Olympiad
Science IQ Challenge
National Cyber Olympiad
Psychology of Success
The Secrets of SUCCESS
International English Olympiad
Master Mental Ability in 30 Days
MTG Work-Books / olympiad books CLASS 11
International Mathematics Olympiad
Math IQ Challenge
Science IQ Challenge
National Science Olympiad
Psychology of Success
National Cyber Olympiad
The Secrets of SUCCESS
Master Mental Ability in 30 Days
CLASS 12
International Mathematics Olympiad
Math IQ Challenge
Science IQ Challenge
National Science Olympiad
Psychology of Success
National Cyber Olympiad
The Secrets of SUCCESS
Master Mental Ability in 30 Days
Class
1 to 10
JEE (Main & Advanced) | AIPMT | BOARDS | OLYMPIAD | NTSE
FOUNDATION COURSE For Classes 7, 8, 9 & 10 Class 7
Class 8
Class 9
Class 10
Class 9 13th
Year 2010
Copyright©2015. Science Olympiad Foundation (SOF)
CLASS 9 | 13th NSO - 2010
MENTAL ABILITY 1.
(A) –3 2.
(C) 3
(B) 9
(C) 11
(C) 6
7.
D
M
B
(D) None of these
L
A
Given that 4 n+1 = 256, find the value of n. (B) 3
(C) 5
(D) 63
A cistern can be filled separately by two pipes in 12 and 16 minutes respectively. If both pipes are opened together, when will the cistern be filled ? (A) 8
6.
C
(B) 6 cm
2 cm 3
(A) 2 5.
(D) 13
In the given figure, ABCD is a parallelogram. DL ^ AB and DM ^ BC. If AB = 18 cm, BC = 12 cm and DM = 10 cm. Find DL. 1 (A) 6 cm 2
4.
(D) 0
If the sum of four consecutive odd numbers is 40, the smallest number is _______ (A) 7
3.
2 x - 3 3 x + 4 = . 2x + 3 x + 2 (B) 2
Find the value of x if 2 +
1 mins 7
(B) 4
6 mins 7
(C) 6
æ 2 1 ö If x = (3 + 8), find the value of ç x + 2 ÷ . x ø è (A) 36 (B) 30
6 mins 7
(C) 28
(D) 4
1 mins 2
(D) 34
In the given figure, AB || CD. Find the value of x.
B
D
(A) 110° (B) 120°
A
(C) 130°
105° C x° 25 °
(D) 140°
E
8.
The mean of 8 numbers is 25. If 5 is subtracted from each number, what will be the new mean ? (A) 10 (B) 20 (C) 30 (D) 40
9.
In an examination, 96% of the candidates passed and 50 failed. How many candidates appeared in the examination? (A) 1240
(B) 1250
(C) 1260
(D) 1270
10. In the given question, three classes are given. Out of the four figures that follow, you are to indicate which figure will best represent the relationship amongst the three classes. "Boys, Students, Athletes" (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
11. Thirty six vehicles are parked in a parking lot in a single row. After the first car, there is one scooter. After the second car, there are two scooters. After the third car, there are three scooters and so on. Then the number of scooters in the second half of the row, is ________ (A) 16
(B) 14
(C) 15 2
Copyright©2015. Science Olympiad Foundation (SOF)
(D) 13
CLASS 9 | 13th NSO - 2010
12. Find the missing number in the given figure. (A) 10 (C) 12
9 7
(B) 11 (D) 13
? 2
3 4 5 5
13. Count the number of triangles and squares in the given figure. (A) 21 triangles, 7 squares (B) 18 triangles, 8 squares (C) 20 triangles, 8 squares
(D) 22 triangles, 7 squares
14. Find the next term in the series : BMO, EOQ, HQS, ? (A) KSU (B) LMN (C) SOV
(D) SOW
15. How many L's are there which do not have R preceding them and also do not have T following them? Z Q S T L R M N Q N R T U V X R L T A S L T Q R S L T (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3
(D) 4
SCIENCE
Displacement
16. Two straight lines drawn on the same displacement time graph make angles 45° and 60° as shown. The ratio of the two velocities is _________ Q (A) 3 :1 (B) 1 : 1 (C) 1 : 2 (D)
3 : 2
P
45°
60°
Time
17. The accelerationtime graph of a body is shown below: a
t
Which of the following would probably show velocitytime graph for a body? v
(A)
v
v
v
(B)
(D)
(C)
t
t
t
t
18. Two bodies of equal masses (m) moving with equal velocities (v) in opposite directions collide. The resultant velocity of the combination is (A) v (B) 2v (C) –v (D) Zero
Time
Time
(D) Time
20. Which of the following is not an effect of inertia? (A) A person in a bus tends to fall backwards, when it starts suddenly. (B) When a tree is shaken vigorously, some of its leaves fall down. (C) A gun recoils back, when a bullet is fired from it. (D) None of these. 3
Copyright©2015. Science Olympiad Foundation (SOF)
Distance
(C)
Distance
(B)
Distance
(A)
Distance
19. Which of the following distancetime graphs does not represent a real situation?
Time
CLASS 9 | 13th NSO - 2010
21. A car and a motor cycle are moving with the same momentum. When equal retarding forces are applied, the car comes to halt in t 1 seconds and the motor cycle in t 2 seconds. If the mass of the car is five times more than the mass of the motor cycle, then ________ (A) t 1 = t 2
(C) t1 =
(B) t 1 = 5t 2
1 t 2 5
(D) t 1 = 25t 2
22. Read the given statements and choose the correct option. Statement 1 : Acceleration due to gravity at a place on earth remains constant for all objects. Statement 2 : Acceleration due to gravity doesn't depend on the mass of the object, but only on mass of earth. (A) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true and statement 2 is correct explanation of statement 1. (B) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true, but statement 2 is not correct explanation of statement 1. (C) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. (D) Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true. 23. Read the given statements and choose the correct option. Statement 1 : There can be displacement of an object even in the absence of any force acting on it. Statement 2 : An object in uniform motion in a straight line shows displacement even when the net force acting on it is zero. (A) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true and statement 2 is correct explanation of statement 1. (B) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true, but statement 2 is not correct explanation of statement 1. (C) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. (D) Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true. Direction : Read the passage carefully and answer question numbers 24 and 25. The relative density of a solid with respect to a liquid is 4/5 and relative density of the liquid with respect to water is 10/9. The buoyant force exerted by a liquid on a solid immersed in it is equal to the weight of the liquid displaced by the solid. 24. Specific gravity of solid with respect to water is (A) 18/25
(B) 8/9
(C) 0.56
(D) 1.8
25. When 4 kg of this solid is immersed in water, the buoyant force experienced by it is (given g = 9.8 m s –2 ) (A) 4.5g
(B) 4g
(C) 5g
(D) 10g
r 26. Equal force F acts on isolated bodies X and Y as shown in figure. The mass of Y is three times that of X. The magnitude of the acceleration of X is _____
(A) Three times that of Y (B) 1/3 that of Y
F
X
F
Y
(C) Nine times that of Y (D) 1/9 that of Y
27. According to the chart, on which planet would a ball fall the fastest ? Planet Earth Jupiter Neptune Saturn (A) Jupiter (B) Saturn
Acceleration Due to Gravity
(C) Neptune (D) Earth
10
26
14
12
28. Which of the following reactions cannot occur ? (A) Fe + CuSO 4
FeSO 4 + Cu
(B) Zn + FeSO 4
(C) Fe + ZnSO 4
FeSO 4 + Zn
(D) Both (A) & (B) Material
29. Which of the following are incorrectly matched ? (A) (i) & (ii)
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (i), (ii) & (iii) (C) (i), (iii) & (iv) (D) All of these
Thermoplastic Jute Cellulose Polythene
4
Copyright©2015. Science Olympiad Foundation (SOF)
ZnSO 4 + Fe
Natural Source
P P P × P
Artificial Source × × P ×
CLASS 9 | 13th NSO - 2010
30. Match the following : Column I Column II 1. Paraffin wax (p) Domestic fuel 2. Petrol (q) Used for manufacturing steel 3. LPG (r) Candles 4. Coke (s) Aviation fuel (A) 1 – (p); 2 – (q); 3 – (r); 4 – (s) (B) 1 – (q); 2 – (p); 3 – (r); 4 – (s) (C) 1 – (s); 2 – (r); 3 – (p); 4 – (q) (D) 1 – (r); 2 – (s); 3 – (p); 4 – (q) 31. A spoon was kept in contact with ice cubes for some time. Later, the same spoon was held over the flame of a small candle. The figure shows the observation. What do you infer from the given figure? (A) Spoon is an inflammable substance. (B) Burning of candle is a spontaneous process. (C) CO 2 is a product of combustion. (D) Water vapour is a product of combustion. 32. Rahul performs an experiment. He cuts out equal sized squares from each of the three fabrics nylon, knitted wool and cotton and weighs them. He then places each fabric square into a beaker containing 500 ml of water.
Water
Nylon
Knitted wool Cotton
After 10 minutes Rahul removes the fabric squares from the water, weighs them and records his observations in a tabular form. Which of the observations made by him is incorrect ? (A) Nylon
Fabric
Mass before Mass after soaking (g) soaking (g) Nylon 30 43 Knitted wool 40 50 Cotton 35 70
(B) Knitted wool (C) Cotton (D) None of these
33. Study the table carefully and select the appropriate Conductor of Malleability Lustrous Sample options. electricity W X Y Z W (A) Potassium Sodium Graphite Aluminium X (B) Graphite Aluminium Sodium Potassium Y (C) Sodium Aluminium Potassium Graphite Z (D) Aluminium Sodium Graphite Potassium 34. A silicon chip used in an integrated circuit of a microcomputer has a mass of 5.68 mg. How many silicon atoms are present in this chip? (Atomic mass of Si = 28.08) (A) 6.02 × 10 23
(B) 5.68 × 10 23
(C) 1.22 × 10 20
35. When a high voltage of about 10000 volts is applied to a discharge tube having a perforated cathode and containing air at very low pressure of about 0.001 mm of mercury, a faint red glow is observed behind the cathode. What were the conclusions of this experiment ? i. Anode rays are positively charged. ii. Since these rays are formed at the anode, they are known as anode rays. iii. The experiment led to the discovery of electrons. iv. The experiment led to the discovery of protons. (A) i, ii and iii
(B) ii, iii and iv
Red glow
(D) 11.36 × 10 23 Air at very low pressure
Discharge tube
Positive rays Perforated cathode Anode To vacuum pump
High voltage generator
(C) i, ii and iv 5
Copyright©2015. Science Olympiad Foundation (SOF)
–
+
(D) i, iii and iv
CLASS 9 | 13th NSO - 2010
36. The correct experimental setup for separating a substance by sublimation is Beaker Solid +W ater Burner
Test tube Solid
(A)
Burner (B)
China dish Solid
(C)
Cork
Cotton plug
China dish Solid
Burner (D)
37. Identify the incorrect statement from the given definitions of solids, liquids and gases in terms of melting and boiling points. (A) A substance is said to be in solid state if under normal pressure, its melting point is above the room temperature. (B) A substance is said to be in liquid state if under normal pressure, its melting point is below the room temperature. (C) A substance is said to be in gaseous state if under normal pressure, its boiling point is below the room temperature. (D) A substance can exist in solid, liquid and gaseous state under normal pressure and room temperature. 38. Membrane biogenesis is associated with which of the following cell organelles ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D) Both (A) & (B)
39. Several microorganisms cause diseases in plants and reduce their yield. Which of the following plant diseases is incorrectly matched with its causal microorganism ? (A) Citrus canker Bacteria
(B) Tobacco mosaic Virus
(C) Rust of wheat Fungi
(D) Yellow vein mosaic of bhindi Bacteria
40. __________ was the first one to observe free living cells. The term cell was given by ____________. Cell theory was proposed by __________ and ____________. All cells arise from preexisting cells was suggested by __________. Select the correct sequence of names to complete the above paragraph. (A) Robert Hooke, Virchow, Anton Von Leeuwenhoek, Schleiden, Schwann (B) Anton Von Leeuwenhoek, Robert Hooke, Schleiden, Schwann, Virchow (C) Robert Hooke, Virchow, Schleiden, Schwann, Anton Von Leeuwenhoek (D) Anton Von Leeuwenhoek, Virchow, Schleiden, Schwann, Robert Hooke 41. Which of the following diseases is not transmitted by the vector shown in the figure? (i) Malaria (ii) Yellow fever (iii) Typhoid (iv) Sleeping sickness
(v) Kalaazar
(A) (ii), (iii) & (iv)
(B) (i), (iii) & (v)
42. A
(i)
(C) (i) & (ii)
(D) (iii), (iv) & (v)
is a nonliving, elongated cell with tapering ends. Its walls are highly thickened with
except at certain circular spots known as (iii) . A one above the other end to end. (v)
(iv) is a cylindrical tubelike structure placed
is a nonliving, thick walled cell providing mechanical support.
Select the correct sequence of words to complete the above paragraph. (i)
(ii)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(A) Vessel
Lignin
Stoma
Tracheid
Xylem fibre
(B) Tracheid
Suberin
Pits
Vessel
Parenchyma
(C) Vessel
Suberin
Stoma
Tracheid
Sclereid
(D) Tracheid
Lignin
Pits
Vessel
Xylem fibre 6
Copyright©2015. Science Olympiad Foundation (SOF)
CLASS 9 | 13th NSO - 2010
43. Match the column I with column II and select the correct option from the codes given below. Column I Column II (a) Particulate matter (i) Chemical water pollutants (b) Oil spills (ii) Nondegradable soil pollutants (c) Detergents (iii) Degradable soil pollutants (d) Plastics (iv) Air pollutants (e) Domestic wastes (v) Physical water pollutants (A) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii), e(v) (B) a(iv), b(v), c(i), d(ii), e(iii) (C) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv), e(v) (D) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(v), e(iv) 44. Which of the following are threatened wild animals ? (i) Golden cat (ii) Pink hued duck (iii) Dinosaur (v) Passenger pigeon (vi) White tailed mongoose (viii)Marsh crocodile (A) (i), (ii), (iv) & (v)
(B) (v), (vi), (vii) & (viii)
(iv) Dodo (vii) Gharial
(C) (ii), (iv), (vi) & (vii)
(D) (i), (ii), (vii) & (viii)
Direction : Refer the given experiment and answer Q. nos. 45 & 46. Place a candle in a beaker or a widemouthed bottle and light it. Light an incense stick (agarbati) and take it to the mouth of the beaker as shown in figure. Note the way in which the smoke flows when the incense stick is (i) near the edge of the beaker, (ii) kept a little above the candle, and (iii) kept in other regions. 45. In which case, the direction of flow of smoke will be towards the candle first and then upwards ? (A) (i) (B) (ii) (C) (iii) (D) Both (i) & (iii) 46. What does the above experiment show ? (A) The direction of movement of hot and cold air. (B) Oxygen is present in the air and is necessary for burning. (C) The temperature of air inside the bottle is more than the temperature of open air. (D) The direction in which the maximum smoke is produced & pollutes the environment. 47. What does P, Q & R represent in the given figure of nitrogen cycle ?
Nitrogen in atmosphere Nitrogen fixation
Denitrification
(A) (B) (C) (D)
P Ammonia Ammonia Nitrites Nitrates
Q Nitrates Nitrites Nitrates Nitrites
R Nitrites Nitrates Ammonia Ammonia
R
Protoplasm (green plants) Protoplasm (animals)
Nitrification Q
Ammonofication
Nitrification P
48. Which of the following is a bottom feeder ? (A)
(B)
(C)
7
Copyright©2015. Science Olympiad Foundation (SOF)
(D)
CLASS 9 | 13th NSO - 2010
49. This implement is made of wood and is drawn by a pair of bulls or other animals. It contains a strong triangular iron strip called share. The main part of it is a long log of wood which is called a shaft. There is a handle at one end of the shaft. The other end is attached to a beam which is placed on the bulls' necks. Which implement are we talking about and for what purpose is it used ? (A) Plough Tilling the soil (B) Hoe Removing the weeds (C) Cultivator Sowing the seeds (D) Seed drill Tilling the soil 50. In honey bee the drones (males) are produced from (A) Unfertilized eggs
(B) Fertilized eggs
(C) Larvae from unfertilized eggs, which are fed on royal jelly (D) Larvae from unfertilized eggs, which are not cared by the workers at all SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
8
Copyright©2015. Science Olympiad Foundation (SOF)
Class 9 14th
Year 2011
Copyright©2015. Science Olympiad Foundation (SOF)
2
CLASS 9 | 14th NSO - 2011
MENTAL ABILITY 1.
Coach A is designing a new park that will have both a
baseball ground and a cricket ground. The baseball ground will have the same dimensions as the cricket ground. A diagram of the park with the placement of the cricket ground is shown.
The position of the baseball ground will be determined by the reflection of the image of the cricket ground about the line y = x. What are the coordinates of the reflected image of point C?
(A) (3, 9)
(B) (9, –3)
(C) (–9, 3)
(D) (–3, –9)
2.
The equation shown below can be used to estimate a person's low-density lipoprotein cholesterol (LDL) level, where C is the total cholesterol level, H is the high-density lipoprotein cholesterol level, and T is the level of triglycerides. All measurements are in milligrams per decilitre of blood. LDL = C − H −
T 5
Lipoprotein Analysis Results Total cholesterol (C)
230
High-density lipoprotein (H)
50
Triglycerides (T)
80
A person's lipoprotein analysis results are shown.
What is this person's LDL level ?
(A) 20
3.
In the given figure, the ratio of AD to DC is 3 : 4. If the area of D ABC is 210 cm2 , what is the
(B) 100
(C) 164
(D) 180
difference between the areas of DABD and DBDC ?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4.
In the given figure, l ||m and p || q. Find the value of x + y – 4z.
(A) 0
(B) 68°
(C) 34°
(D) 72°
5.
Mrs. Riya put four expressions on the board and asked her
Expression 1
4.6507 – 5.196
students to simplify them.
Expression 2
45 − 9
Expression 3
–2 – 1
Expression 4
(–3)3
6.
120 cm2 90 cm2 30 cm2 60 cm2
p m
34°
z
l
Which simplified expression has the least value ? (A) Expression 1 (B) Expression 2 (C) Expression 3 (D) Expression 4
q
x y
78°
∠ x and ∠ y are exterior angles of D ABC, at the points B and C respectively. Also ∠ B > ∠ C, then relation between ∠ x and ∠ y is _______.
(A) ∠ x > ∠ y
7.
If 22 = 162 , then value of x is ____. (A) 2 (B) –1
x
(B) ∠ x = ∠ y
(C) ∠ x < ∠ y
(D) None of these
(C) 0
(D) 1
3x
Copyright©2015. Science Olympiad Foundation (SOF)
3 8.
CLASS 9 | 14th NSO - 2011
Simi installed a 6-foot tall cylindrical storage tank to collect rainwater from the roof of her house. She used the rain water to water the lawn and garden during dry
Rainfall
Rise of Water Level
(in inches)
in Storage Tank
spells. She recorded the rise in the water level in her storage tank after each of 3 rainstorms. Her results are shown in the table.
(in inches) 1.5
24
0.5
8
2.5
40
Which is the best prediction of the rise of the water level,
in inches, in her tank after a storm produced 2.25 inches of rain ? (A) 16 inches (B) 28 inches (C) 32 inches
9.
Eleven students A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J and K are sitting in the first line facing the teacher.
(D) 36 inches
D who is just to the left of F, is to the right of C at second place. A is second to the right of E who is at one end. J is the nearest neighbour of A and B and is to the left of G at third place. H is next to D to the right and is at the third place to the right of I.
Who is just in the middle? (A) I (B) B
(C) J
(D) G
10. A new museum has two circular display rooms. The radius of the large circular room is 6 yards. The radius of the smaller circular room is 3 yards. What is the area of the smaller room in relation
to the area of the large room ? (A) 1/6 of the large room's area (C) 1/3 of the large room's area
(B) 1/4 of the large room's area (D) 1/2 of the large room's area
11. A magazine for people over 50 years of age asked its readers what type
Tourist Attractions
of tourist attraction interested them the most. If 250 readers responded, how many chose museums as their favourite attraction ?
(A) 32
(B) 45
(C) 80
(D) 170
Historical Places 25%
12. Two different positions of a dice are shown. Which number
4
will appear on the face opposite to the face with number 4 ?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
6
2 1 5 6
13. If RAB = 36 and MEC = 195, then REG = _____. (A) 240 (B) 160
(C) 40
Outlet Malls 18%
Museums
Parks 25%
2
4 5
3
(D) 630
14. Find the missing number in the given series below.
(A) 101
11, 10, (?), 100, 1001, 1000, 10001 (B) 110 (C) 111
(D) 1101
15. There are 23 steps to reach a temple. On descending from the temple Ram takes two steps, at a time, even as Shyam ascends one step. If they start simultaneously, at which step will they meet
each other ? (A) 9th
(B) 8th
(C) 11th
Copyright©2015. Science Olympiad Foundation (SOF)
(D) 10th
4
CLASS 9 | 14th NSO - 2011
science 16. A pupil uses a ticker-timer to investigate the movement of a trolley.
Every second, the ticker-timer puts 60 dots on the piece of tape.
What length of time corresponds to the distance between X and Y on the tape? (A) 0.10 s (B) 0.11 s (C) 0.17 s (D) 0.18 s
17. A sonic 'tape measure' is used to measure the length of a room. It measures a time interval of 0.06 s between transmitting a sound pulse and receiving the echo. The speed of sound in air is
330 m/s. How far is the reflecting wall from the tape measure? (A) 5.5 m (B) 9.9 m (C) 11 m
(D) 20 m
18. A person exerts a horizontal force of 500 N on a box, which also experiences a frictional force of 100 N.
How much work is done against friction when the box moves a horizontal distance of 3 m? (A) 300 J (B) 1200 J (C) 1500 J (D) 1800 J
19. Thermometer X at 20°C is placed in some water at 50°C in beaker Y.
After some time, thermometer X will show a maximum temperature
of _____. (A) 20°C (B) 35°C (C) 50°C (D) 30°C
20.
The (A) (B) (C) (D)
experiment given below shows that light ____. Can be reflected Is a form of energy Travels in straight line Can pass through all objects
21. Two rubber balls of the same size are both dropped on the Earth and on the Moon. One ball is solid, and one is hollow. The approximate gravitational field strength on the Earth is 10 N/kg and on the moon is 1.7 N/kg. Which ball has the greatest force acting on it? Type of ball Where dropped (A) Hollow On the Earth (B) Hollow On the Moon (C) Solid On the Earth (D) Solid On the Moon 22. A sledge of mass 25 kg is pulled across level ground with a horizontal force of 60 N. The constant
force of friction is 20 N. What is the acceleration of the sledge? (B) 1.6 m/s2 (C) 2.4 m/s2 (A) 0.63 m/s2
Copyright©2015. Science Olympiad Foundation (SOF)
(D) 3.2 m/s2
5
CLASS 9 | 14th NSO - 2011
23. A piece of thin card is held against the teeth of a cog wheel.
When the wheel is turned at high speed, a note is heard.
How can the pitch of the note be raised? (A) By pressing the card against the teeth with a greater force. (B) By turning the wheel more quickly. (C) By using a thicker card. (D) By using a wheel with fewer teeth.
24. Study the distance time graph of a toy car given here and choose the incorrect statement from the following.
(A) The toy car is fastest during first 10 seconds.
(B) The toy car is slowest in between 10 to 20 seconds.
(C) Distance travelled during last 10 seconds is 5 m.
(D) None of these.
25. When we remove polyester or woolen cloth in dark, we can see sparks and hear a cracking sound. These are due to ______.
(A) Static electricity
(B) Current electricity
(C) Reflection of light
(D) Refraction of light.
26. A car starts from rest and is uniformly accelerated to a speed
of 30 m/s in 6 s. What is the distance travelled by the car? (A) 5 m (B) 30 m (C) 90 m (D) 180 m
27. A crane uses a petrol engine to lift a heavy girder. What is the overall energy conversion in the system when the girder is moving at a steady rate? (A) Chemical into kinetic (B) Chemical into potential (C) Kinetic into potential (D) Potential into kinetic 28.
Solids cannot be compressed because ______. (A) The constituent particles are closely packed (B) The movement of the constituent particles is restricted (C) The intermolecular attractive forces are very strong (D) None of these
29. X and Y are miscible liquids. Boiling point of X is 56°C and that of Y is 100°C. Which separation
technique can be used to separate X and Y from the mixture? (A) Separating funnel (B) Distillation (C) Evaporation (D) Condensation
30. The solubility of potassium chloride at 20°C is 34.7 g in 100 g of water. The density of the solution
is 1.3 g mL–1. What is the w/V percentage of potassium chloride in the solution? (A) 25.76 (B) 32.98 (C) 33.49 (D) 22.56
31. What will be the number of aluminium ions in 0.051 g of aluminium oxide? (B) 6.0 x 1023 ions (C) 12 x 1023 ions (D) 6.0 x 1020 ions (A) 5.0 x 10–4 ions 32. An ion M2+ contains 10 electrons and 12 neutrons. What is the atomic number and mass number
of element M? (A) 10, 24
(B) 10, 22
(C) 12, 24
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(D) 12, 22
6
CLASS 9 | 14th NSO - 2011
33. Match Column I with Column II.
Column I (P) Non-stick coating (i) (Q) Flame resistant (ii) (R) First fully synthetic fibre (iii) (S) Thermoplastic (iv) Choose the correctly matched option. (A) (P) - (ii), (Q) - (i), (R) - (iii), (S) - (iv) (C) (P) - (ii), (Q) - (iii), (R) - (iv), (S) - (i)
Column II Melamine Polystyrene Teflon Nylon (B) (P) - (iii), (Q) - (i), (R) - (iv), (S) - (ii) (D) (P) - (iii), (Q) - (iv), (R) - (ii), (S) - (i)
34. Ajeet carried out an experiment in the science laboratory. He put liquid X into the flask in the setup shown below.
After a week, the lime water in the test-tube turned chalky. What is liquid X most likely to be? (A) Milk (B) Cooking oil (C) Boiling water (D) None of these
35. Rakesh was preparing a true solution of sugar in water in a beaker. By chance, he added sugar in excess. He kept stirring the solution for sometime but the sugar settled down in the beaker. He filtered the solution. What will be the nature of the filtrate? (A) True solution (B) Saturated solution (C) Colloidal solution (D) Suspension 36. Which of the following diagrams
shows a non-luminous flame? (A) I only (B) II only (C) I and II (D) II and IV
37. The combustion in which a material bursts into flames without the application of heat is known as _____. (A) Rapid combustion (B) Spontaneous combustion (C) Slow combustion (D) Explosion 38. Which of the following is the method of replenishing the soil with nutrients ? (A) Organic manure (B) Fallow field (C) Crop rotation (D) All of these 39. Which of the following is an incorrectly matched pair ? (A) Autolysis of cell – Peroxisomes (B) Control centre of the cell – Nucleus (C) Units of hereditary characteristics – Genes (D) Formation of spindle fibres – Centrioles 40. Cutting down forests and using the land for other purposes is known as deforestation. It has adverse effects on the environment. Which of the following are correct regarding these effects ?
(i) (iii) (v) (A)
Decrease in soil erosion (ii) Increase in temperature Ground water level gets lowered (iv) Droughts and floods Increase in water holding capacity of the soil (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv) (B) (ii), (iv) & (v) (C) (ii), (iii) & (iv) (D) (i), (ii), (iv) & (v) Copyright©2015. Science Olympiad Foundation (SOF)
7
CLASS 9 | 14th NSO - 2011
41 Microorganisms are our friends and foes. Some of them are useful for us while some of them are harmful. From the given list sort out useful and harmful actions of microorganisms. Production of antibiotics, food spoiling, curd preparation, vaccine production, citrus canker.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Useful: Curd preparation, citrus canker, production of antibiotics Harmful: Food spoiling, vaccine production. Useful: Production of antibiotics, curd preparation, vaccine production. Harmful: Food spoiling, citrus canker. Useful: Citrus canker, vaccine production, curd preparation. Harmful: Food spoiling, production of antibiotics Useful: Vaccine production, curd preparation.
Harmful: Food spoiling, citrus canker, production of antibiotics.
42. Escherichia coli in human intestine synthesizes _____. (A) Vitamin B and D (B) Vitamin B and C (C) Vitamin A and K
(D) Vitamin B and K
43. A layer of air known as the atmosphere surrounds the earth. The composition of the atmosphere can be changed by air pollution. Which of the following statements about air pollution are correct?
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (A)
It affects the weather. It covers the leaves of plants and limits photosynthesis. It may cause breathing difficulties and diseases of the respiratory tract. It is mostly caused by the burning of fossil fuels. (iii) & (iv) (B) (i), (ii) & (iii) (C) (i), (iii) & (iv) (D) (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv)
44. Given below are statements made by four students about Monerans. (i) Monerans show multicellular body designs – Ashok (ii) Monerans show either autotrophic or heterotrophic nutrition – Gita (iii) All monerans possess cell wall – Ramesh (iv) Blue-green algae is an example of Monera – Amit
Which of the student(s) has/have made an incorrect statement ? (A) Ashok & Ramesh (B) Ashok only (C) Gita & Ramesh
45. Ductless glands are also known as ______. (A) Salivary glands (B) Endocrine glands
(C) Exocrine glands
(D) Amit & Ashok (D) Both (A) & (B)
46. Which of the following is correct for the given figure ? (A) The part labelled 'b' is called thylakoid.
(B) The part labelled 'c' is called granum.
(C) The part labelled 'a' is the site of dark reaction. (D) The parts labelled 'a', 'b' & 'c', all possess chlorophyll containing photosynthetic pigments.
47. Which of the following is/are true/false regarding the development of an embryo ?
(i) An embryo is made up of (ii) The stage of development (iii) The stage of development tissues and organs of the
many cells. in which all the body parts can be identified is called the foetus. in which the cells begin to form groups that develop into different body is called the embryo.
(iv) The embryo gets nutrition from uterus. (A) (i), (ii) & (iii) are true; (iv) is false (C) (i) & (iv) are true; (ii) & (iii) are false
(B) (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv) are true (D) (ii) & (iii) are true; (i) & (iv) are false
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CLASS 9 | 14th NSO - 2011
48. In the given figure, in which labelled part(s) the nucleus disappears at maturity ?
(A) a
(B) b
(C) c
(D) Both b & c
49. Match Column I with Column II and select the correct option from the codes given below.
Column I
Rhizobium Organic manure Threshing Seed drill
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Column II
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Nitrogen fixation Separation of grains from chaff Sowing of seeds Animal excreta, cow dung and plant wastes
(e) Leguminous plants (v) Root nodules (A) a-(i), b-(iv), c-(ii), d-(iii), e-(v) (C) a-(iv), b-(i), c-(iii), d-(ii), e-(v)
(B) a-(v), b-(iv), c-(iii), d-(ii), e-(i) (D) a-(i), b-(v), c-(ii), d-(iii), e-(iv)
50. The given pathogenic organism causes which of the following
diseases ? (A) Kala-azar (B) Syphilis (C) Dengue (D) Sleeping sickness SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
Copyright©2015. Science Olympiad Foundation (SOF)
Class 9 15th
SET A Year 2012
Copyright©2015. Science Olympiad Foundation (SOF)
15th NSO - SET A
2
Mental Ability 9
1 r + 4
3 ⋅ 3− r
1.
r
(A) 3
2.
If f(x) = x – 2x + 3x – ax + b is a polynomial such that when it is divided by (x – 1) and (x + 1), the remainders are respectively 5 and 19. Determine the remainder when f(x) is divided by (x – 2).
(A) 5
3.
Five persons are standing in a queue. One of the two persons at the extreme ends is a professor and the other is a businessman. An advocate is standing to the right of a student. An author is to the left of the businessman. The student is between the professor and the advocate.
Counting from the left, the author is at place _______.
(A) First
4.
In the given figure, if AB || CD and EF || DQ, then ∠PDQ is _______. (A) 48° (B) 34° (C) 72° (D) 68°
= k , then the value of k is_______.
3 ⋅ 3− r
(C) 33
(B) 32 4
3
(D)
r
3
2
(B) –8
(C) 10
(B) Second
(D) 8
(C) Third
(D) Fourth
C
F
Q
P 34°
D 78°
A
E
B
5. In the following series, how many times the sum of two consecutive numbers results an even number ?
1 2 3 4 6 3 4 2 5 9 3 6 7 4 1 2 3 6 7 6 5 4 3 (B) 4 (C) 2
(A) 3
6.
Find the value of
(A)
7.
In the given figure, x + y = _______. (A) 270° (B) 230° (C) 210° (D) 190°
13 21
(D) 5
2 4 5 3 1 5 4 − . + 2 ÷ 7 − 5 ÷ 22 + 10 × 5 9 12 4 2 18 5 (B)
16 35
(C)
8 19
(D) 1 B
C
80° A
40°
O
x°
y°
70° D
8. A triangle and a parallelogram have the same base and the same area. If the sides of the triangle are 13 cm, 14 cm and 15 cm and the parallelogram stands on the base 14 cm, then the height of
the parallelogram is _______. (A) 4 cm (B) 8 cm
9.
Select a figure from amongst the options which will continue the series established by Problem
(C) 6 cm
Figures.
Problem Figures
?
(D) 10 cm
(A)
(B)
(C)
Copyright©2015. Science Olympiad Foundation (SOF)
(D)
15th NSO - SET A
3
10. A retailer increases the selling price by 25% due to which his profit percentage increases from
20% to 25%. The percentage increase in cost price is _______. (A) 20% (B) 30% (C) 25% 3
3
(D) 50%
3
11. If a + b + c = 6, the value of (2 – a) + (2 – b) + (2 – c) – 3(2 – a) (2 – b) (2 – c) is ______. (A) 1 (B) 0 (C) –1 (D) 2 12. Choose from the options which most closely resembles the water-image of the given combination. 0
2
9
(B)
B
K
5
0
RP
BK50RP62 B 5 2 (C) K 0 9
R
K
RP
P
2 9
(D)
B
K
5
(A)
5
0
R
B
P
9
2
13. In the adjoining figure, PQRS is square and MS = RN and A, P, Q and B lie on the same line. Also AP = MS and AP is the radius of the circle. Find the ratio of the area of two circles to the area of the square.
(A) p : 3
(B) 2p : 3
(C) 3p : 2
(D) 6 : p
14. In DABC, E is the mid-point of median AD such that BE produced meets AC at F. If AC = 10 cm,
then AF = (A) 3 cm
(B) 3.3 cm
(C) 2.5 cm
(D) None of these
15. A cosmetic company produces five different products. The sales of these five products (in lakh of packs) during 1995 and 2000 are shown in the given bar-graph. What is the approximate ratio of the sales of nail enamels in 2000 to the sales of Talcum
powders in 1995 ? (A) 7 : 2
(B) 5 : 2
(C) 4 : 3
(D) 2 :1
SCIENCE 16. A force F1 acts on a particle to accelerate it from rest to a velocity v. The force F1 is then replaced
by force F2 which decelerates it to rest. Which of the following statements is true? (B) F1 may be equal to F 2 (A) F1 must be equal to F 2 (C) F1 must be unequal to F 2 (D) None of these
17. A person sitting on a chair in a satellite feels weightless. It is because (A) The normal force by the chair on the person balances the earth's attraction (B) The normal force is zero (C) The person in the satellite is not accelerated (D) Cannot say 18. The velocity-time graph of a body is given in figure. The (A) (B) (C) (D)
maximum acceleration in m/s2 is 4 3 2 1
19. Which quantity of a two particles system depend only on the separation between the two particles? (A) Kinetic energy (B) Total mechanical energy (C) Potential energy (D) Both (A) and (B) Copyright©2015. Science Olympiad Foundation (SOF)
15th NSO - SET A
4
20. An object of mass 10 kg is at a point A on a table. It is moved to a point B by a distance 5 m. If the line joining A and B is horizontal, then what is the work done on the object by the gravitational force? (A) 50 J (B) 100 J (C) 60 J (D) Zero. 21. A plane lamina is freely suspended from point P. The weight of the lamina is 2.0 N and the centre of gravity is at C. PC = 0.50 m, PQ = 0.40 m and QC = 0.30 m. The lamina is displaced to the position shown. What is the moment that will cause the lamina to swing? (A) 0.60 Nm clockwise (B) 0.80 Nm anticlockwise (C) 1.0 Nm clockwise (D) 1.0 N m anticlockwise 22. Read the given statements and mark the correct option. Statement 1 : A person seated in a moving train is at rest with respect to another train moving in the opposite direction. Statement 2 : If the train covers equal displacement in equal intervals of time then it moves with uniform acceleration. (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. (C) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. (D) Both statements 1 and 2 are false. 23. A sound wave passes from a medium A to a medium B. The velocity of sound B is greater than that in A. Assume that there is no absorption or reflection of the boundary. As the wave moves across the boundary, the ______. (A) Frequency of sound will increase (B) Wavelength of sound will increase (C) Wavelength of sound will decrease (D) Intensity of sound will increase 24. The energy required to change liquid water into water vapour at the same temperature is called latent heat of vaporisation. What does this energy do? (A) It increases the average separation of the water molecules. (B) It decreases the average speed of the water molecules. (C) It raises the temperature of the air near the water. (D) It splits the water molecules into their separate atoms. 25. An artificial satellite is moving in a circular orbit of radius 42250 km. Find its speed if it takes 24 hours to revolve around the earth. (A) 3.07 km s–1 (B) 5.67 km s–1 (C) 6.14 km s–1 (D) 1.57 km s–1 26. Read the given statements and mark the correct option. Statement 1 : The sun seems to rise before it actually rises above horizon and it seems to set after some time it actually sets below horizon. Statement 2 : A light ray bends towards the normal when it passes from a rarer to denser medium. (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. (C) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. (D) Both statements 1 and 2 are false. 27. A man who is standing at a point X between two parallel walls as shown in the diagram, fires a starting pistol. He hears the first echo after 0.6 s and another one after 0.8 s. How long after firing the pistol will he hear the next echo?
(A) 1.2 s
(B) 1.4 s
(C) 1.6 s
(D) 2.4 s Steam
28. In which conversion do H2O molecules lose speed?
(A) Ice → Water
(B) Ice → Steam
(C) Steam → Ice
(D) Water → Steam
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Water
Ice
15th NSO - SET A
5
29. The table shows the results of adding weighed pieces of iron to solutions M and S. What could the aqueous solutions M and S been? M S Solution Initial mass (A) Copper(II) sulphate Silver nitrate of iron (g) (B) Dilute hydrochloric acid Sodium chloride M 5 (C) Iron(II) chloride Calcium chloride S 5 (D) Magnesium chloride Dilute sulphuric acid 30. Few properties of gases
X, Y and Z are given.
Mass of iron after 15 minutes (g) 4 4
Gas X : An extremely suffocating and corrosive gas, released
by burning coal and diesel. Gases X and Y dissolve Gas Y : Given off by petrol engines. in rain water and produce Gas Z : Produced by incomplete combustion of fuels. acid rain. Identify gases X, Y and Z respectively on the basis of the given properties. (B) SO2, NOx, CO (C) NOx, SO2, CO (D) H2, SO2, CO (A) CO2, H2, SO2 31. Two particles X and Y have the composition as shown in the table. The particles X and Y are Particle Number of (A) Metal atoms electrons (B) Non-metal atoms X 10 (C) Negative ions Y 18 (D) Positive ions
Number of
Number of
neutrons
protons
8
8
18
17
32. Mark the correct sequence of substances obtained during fractional distillation of petroleum in
ascending order of their boiling points. (A) Petroleum gas, Kerosene, Petrol, Diesel, Paraffin wax (B) Petrol, Petroleum gas, Kerosene, Light oil, Diesel (C) Petroleum gas, Petrol, Kerosene, Diesel, Lubricating oil (D) Petroleum gas, Petrol, Lubricating oil, Diesel, Kerosene
33.
Read the following statements and mark the correct answer. I. Artificially prepared synthetic fibre which resembles silk is known as terylene. II. Rayon is not considered as a synthetic fibre as it is regenerated from cellulose. III. PET bottles and jars are made up of polyesters. (A) Statement I is false, II and III are true. (B) Statement I is true, II and III are false. (C) Statements I and II are false, III is true. (D) Statement II is true, I and III are false.
34. A piece of charcoal is burnt and kept in a watch glass. The burning charcoal is covered by an inverted gas jar. It is observed that the charcoal stops burning after some time. Take out the jar and add some water to it. Test the solution
with red and blue litmus paper. What do you observe? (A) Solution turns red litmus blue, hence the oxide formed by burning of charcoal was basic oxide. (B) Solution turns blue litmus red, hence the oxide formed by burning of charcoal was acidic oxide. (C) Solution does not change the colour of litmus paper, hence the oxide formed by burning charcoal was neutral. (D) Solution turns blue litmus red, hence the oxide formed by burning charcoal was basic oxide.
35. The relative atomic mass of naturally occurring chlorine is not a whole number. What is the reason
for this? (A) Chlorine atoms can have different numbers of neutrons. (B) Naturally occurring chlorine cannot be obtained pure. (C) Chlorine is unstable. (D) The mass of the electrons has been included. Copyright©2015. Science Olympiad Foundation (SOF)
15th NSO - SET A
6
36. Match the Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below. Column-I (Mixture) Column-II (Technique used to separate the components)
(a) Ammonium chloride and salt
(i)
(b) Iron in its ore
(ii)
(c) Drugs in blood
(iii)
(d) Ethyl alcohol and water
(iv)
(A) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
(B) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(C) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(D) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
37. The given diagram shows a boat made from iron. Some magnesium blocks are attached to the iron below the water line to prevent rusting. Why?
(A) Magnesium reacts in preference to the iron.
(B) The magnesium forms an alloy with the iron.
(C) Magnesium reacts to form a protective coating of magnesium hydroxide on the iron.
(D) The magnesium stops oxygen in the water from getting to the iron.
38.
Plastids differ from mitochondria on the basis of which of the following features? (A) Presence of two layers of membrane (B) Presence of green pigments (C) Presence of DNA (D) Plastids are present in plant cell while mitochondria are present in animal cell.
39.
Given below are four statements regarding external fertilization. (i) The male and female gametes are formed and released simultaneously. (ii) Only a few gametes are released into the medium. (iii) Water is the medium of fertilization in majority of organisms exhibiting external fertilization. (iv) Offsprings developed from external fertilization have better chances of survival than those developed from internal fertilization. Which of the given statements are correct?
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i) and (iii)
(i)_ or by a machine called ___ (ii)_ . In the 40. Harvesting in our country is either done manually by ___ (iii) next step, the grain seeds are separated from the cut crop. This process is called _____ . This is (iv) carried out with the help of a machine called ___ __. Select the correct sequence of words to complete the above paragraph. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (A) Hoe Cultivator Winnowing Combine (B) Sickle Cultivator Threshing Seed drill (C) Hoe Harvester Winnowing Seed drill (D) Sickle Harvester Threshing Combine
Copyright©2015. Science Olympiad Foundation (SOF)
15th NSO - SET A
41.
7
Select the incorrect statement regarding AIDS. (A) It is an immunodeficiency disease. (B) HIV has RNA as its genetic material. (C) AIDS can be transmitted to an infant from the infected mother through her milk. (D) The time-lag between the infection and appearance of AIDS symptoms may vary from week to month.
42. Which of the following options is correct about India alligator and Indian giant squirrel? (A) Both are examples of extinct species. (B) Both are found in Satpura National Park. (C) Both are examples of endemic species. (D) Both are examples of exotic species. 43. Inorganic fertilizers are applied each year to fields bordering a lake. The fertilizers run off into the lake and cause the following six changes which together cause high mortality of fishes. (i) Aerobic bacteria feed on dead plants. (ii) Algae reproduce faster. (iii) Light cannot penetrate the water. (iv) Oxygen level falls. (v) Water becomes green. (vi) Plants under water die. Which of the following shows the correct order of the changes taking place? (A) (iv) → (vi) → (i) → (ii) → (v) → (iii) (B) (ii) → (v) → (iii) → (vi) → (i) → (iv) (C) (v) → (ii) → (iii) → (vi) → (i) → (iv) (D) (ii) → (iii) → (v) → (iv) → (vi) → (i) 44. The given box contains some diseases caused by different pathogens such as bacteria, virus, fungi and protozoa. (i) Typhoid, (ii) Athlete’s foot, (iii) Tuberculosis, (iv) Anthrax,
(v) Malaria,
(vi) Common cold, (vii) Amoebic dysentery, (viii) Yellow vein mosaic, (ix) Influenza, (x) Pneumonia
Which of the following shows the correct category of diseases and their causative agents? Viral Protozoan Bacterial Fungal (A) (vi) (vii) (iv) (ii) (B) (i) (vi) (iv) (iii) (C) (v) (viii) (x) (ii) (D) (x) (vi) (ix) (iii)
45. Leech, Nereis, Scolopendra, prawn and scorpion all have segmented body organization, but still they cannot be classified in one group. Which of the following is the correct basis for the classification of these organisms into different groups? (A) Leech and Nereis belong to the phylum annelida because they have metamerically segmented body. (B) Scolopendra, prawn and scorpion belong to phylum arthropoda, as they possess jointed appendages. (C) Leech, Nereis and Scolopendra belong to phylum annelida because they possess closed blood vascular system. (D) Both (A) and (B). 46.
Refer the given figure and read the following statements. (i) The part labelled P modifies into pseudopodia in WBC and helps in movement. (ii) The part labelled Q is absent in mature red blood cells in humans. P (iii) The parts labelled R and U help in production of energy. (iv) The part labelled S enlarges during maturity. Q (v) The part labelled T is spindle shaped with pointed ends in S muscle cells. T Which of the given statements are incorrect regarding this? R (A) (iii), (iv) and (v) (B) (i) and (ii) (C) (iii) and (v) (D) (i), (iii) and (iv)
U
47. Goitre can occur either due to hypothyroidism (endemic goitre) or hyperthyroidism (exophthalmic goitre). Which of the following is a correct comparison among the both? Hypothyroidism Hyperthyroidism (A) High body temperature Low body temperature (B) Low blood pressure High blood pressure (C) Increased appetite Bulging of eye balls (D) Bulging of eyeballs Tendency towards obesity Copyright©2015. Science Olympiad Foundation (SOF)
15th NSO - SET A
49.
Given below are some characteristics of vessels and tracheids. (i) Multicellular with wide lumen (ii) Dead cells (iii) Cell walls are lignified (iv) Discontinuous lumen due to presence of end walls (v) Long, cylindrical tube-like structure (vi) Elongated cells with tapering ends Categorize the above characteristics with vessels (X) and tracheids (Y) and select the correct option. (A) X – (i), (ii), (iii), (v); Y – (ii), (iii), (iv), (vi) (B) X – (i), (iii), (vi); Y – (ii), (iii), (iv), (v) (C) X – (i), (iv), (v); Y – (ii), (iv), (v), (vi) (D) X – (i), (ii), (v), (vi); Y – (i), (iii), (iv), (vi) Which of the following is incorrect for the given figure? (A) It is a type of cropping pattern called intercropping. (B) The given cropping pattern increases the productivity of crops per unit area. (C) The given cropping pattern helps in maintaining soil fertility and makes better use of resources. (D) None of these.
50. An ecologist studied the effects of sewage effluent on the levels of oxygen concentration, bacterial population and algal growth in a fresh water stream. The given graph is plotted based on his findings.
Increase (arbitrary unit)
48.
8
Select the correct statement regarding the given graph. (A) There is a fall in oxygen concentration between 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 point Y and 4 km downstream because it is utilized Point Y Distance down the stream (km) by algae for respiration during day. (Entry Oxygen concentration Key: of (B) There is a rise in oxygen concentration between 4 km Sewage) Algae and 8 km downstream because bacterial usage of oxygen Bacteria for respiration is lower. (C) Bacterial population never recovers from 8 km onwards because all the oxygen is used up by algae. (D) There is decrease in the level of bacteria between 5 km and 7 km downstream because all the oxygen and organic matter has been used up by algal population. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
Copyright©2015. Science Olympiad Foundation (SOF)
Class 9 15th
SET B Year 2012
Copyright©2015. Science Olympiad Foundation (SOF)
15th NSO - SET B
1
meNtal ability 1. The value of
(A) 1
1 1 1 1 1 is _________. − + − + 3− 8 8− 7 7− 6 6− 5 5 −2 (B) 2 (C) 0
(D) 5
2. Read the information carefully, then use it to answer the question that follows: I. Rahul, Mohit, Rohit, Amit and Karan all collect stamps. II. Rahul has twice as many as Mohit. III. Amit and Karan have the same number. IV. Rohit has fewer than Amit. V. Mohit has half as many as Rohit. If the above statements are true, only one of the sentences below must be true. Which one is true? (A) Rohit and Karan have same number of stamps. (B) Mohit has more stamps than Amit. (C) Rahul has fewer stamps than Amit. (D) Rahul have as many stamps as Mohit. 3.
Given that 6x3 + 5ax – 12a leaves a remainder of – 4 when divided by (x – a), the possible value of a is _______.
(A) –2
(B)
1 2
(C) −
2 3
(D) Both (A) and (B)
4. Euclid stated that all right angles are equal to one another in the form of a/an _______ . (A) Axiom (B) Definition (C) Postulate (D) Proof 5.
Which of the following options will replace the question mark in the figure matrix?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
?
6. If the code of ROUTINE is VMRGFLI, then the code of CRUELTY is _______. (A) VPVCZRL (B) VPCVZRL (C) WPCVZRL (D) None of these 7.
In the given figure, if AB ^ BC, then x = _______ .
(A) 18°
(B) 22°
(C) 25°
(D) 32°
8.
The given question consists of two sets of figures. Figures (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) constitute the Problem Set. There is a definite relationship between figures (i) and (ii). Establish a similar relationship between figures (iii) and (iv) by selecting a suitable figure from the options that would replace (?) in figure (iv).
(A)
S
(B)
S G
(C)
S
(D)
S
9. A square ABCD has an equilateral triangle drawn on the side AB (interior of the square). The
triangle has vertex at G. What is the measure of the angle DGC? (A) 160° (B) 150° (C) 75° Copyright©2015. Science Olympiad Foundation (SOF)
(D) 90°
15th NSO - SET B
2
10. In the given figure, ABC is an equilateral triangle with co-ordinates of B and C as B(–3, 0) and C(3, 0). The co-ordinates of the vertex A are _______.
(A) (0, 3 3)
(B) (0, 3)
(C) ( 3, 3)
(D) (3 3, 0)
11. The area of a rhombus whose perimeter is 80 m and one of whose diagonal is 24 m is _______. (B) 384 m2 (C) 483 m2 (D) 463 m2 (A) 364 m2 12. Decimal expansion of a rational number cannot be ________. (A) Non-terminating and non-recurring (B) Non-terminating and recurring (C) Terminating (D) None of these 13. If the markup percentage of an article is 50% and discount is also 20%, then the profit percentage
will be _______ . (A) 10%
(B) 0%
(C) 30%
(D) 20%
14. In the given figure, if AB || CD then the measure of x is ________.
(A) 28°
(B) 18°
(C) 10°
(D) 15°
15. P and Q invest some amount under S.I. and C.I. respectively but for the same period at 6% per annum. Each gets a total amount of ` 65,000 at the end of 6 years. Which of the following is definitely true? (i) Q's initial principal is less than that of P. (ii) Q's initial principal is equal to that of P. (iii) P's percentage earnings is less than that of Q. (A) (i) only (B) (i) and (iii) (C) (iii) only (D) None of these
Science 16. Read the given statements and mark the correct option.
Statement 1 : If an earth satellite moves to a lower orbit, the speed of satellite increases.
Statement 2 : The speed of satellite is a constant quantity for all orbits of earth. (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. (C) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. (D) Both statements 1 and 2 are false.
17. Ships use sound waves to find the vertical distance to the seabed. A pulse of sound waves is sent out and the echoes are detected. A ship emits a pulse of waves lasting 0.50 s. The waves have a
frequency of 3600 Hz. How many complete wavelengths does the pulse contain? (A) 1800 (B) 3600 (C) 7200 (D) 18000
18. The given apparatus shows a heavy piston supported by gas trapped in a cylinder. The cross-sectional area of the piston is 4.0 × 10–4 m2 . The pressure of the gas inside the cylinder is 1.5 × 105 Pa and atmospheric pressure is 1.0 × 105 Pa. Find the mass of the piston (Take g = 10 m s–2). (A) 1 kg (B) 2 kg (C) 3 kg (D) 4 kg Copyright©2015. Science Olympiad Foundation (SOF)
15th NSO - SET B
3
19. Work done in time t on a body of mass m which is accelerated from rest to a speed v in time t1 as a function of time t is given by
(A)
1 v 2 m t 2 t1
v (B) m t 2 t1
2
(C)
1 mv 2 t 2 t1
(D)
t 1 mv 2 2 t1
2
20. The distance of a particle as a function of time is shown here. The graph indicates that (A) The particle starts with certain velocity but the motion is retarded and finally the particle stops (B) The velocity of the particle is constant throughout (C) The acceleration of the particle is constant throughout in the direction of motion (D) The particle starts with some constant velocity, the motion is accelerated, and finally the particle moves with some constant velocity 21. A truck starts from rest and rolls down a hill with a constant acceleration. It travels a distance of
400 m in 20 s. Find the force acting on it if its mass is 7 metric tonnes. (A) 7000 N (B) 14000 N (C) 28000 N
(D) 3500 N
22. Two plane mirrors are arranged at right angles to each other as shown in figure. A ray of light is incident on the horizontal mirror at angle q to the normal. For
what value of q the ray emerges parallel to the incoming ray after reflection from
the vertical mirror? (A) 60° only
(B) 30° only
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
23. Two identical balls are at rest side by side at the bottom of a hill. Sometime after ball A is kicked up the hill, ball B is given a kick up the hill. Ball A is headed downhill when it passes ball B
headed up the hill. At the instant when ball A passes ball B, it has the same _______. (A) Position and velocity as ball B (B) Position and acceleration as ball B (C) Velocity and acceleration as ball B (D) Displacement and velocity as ball B
24. A boy dropped a stone in a well 45 m deep. If speed of sound is 340 m s–1, then after how much
26. A manometer is connected to a gas supply. Pressure can be measured in cm of water. The pressure of the gas is (A) 8 cm of water more than atmospheric pressure (B) 12 cm of water more than atmospheric pressure (C) 8 cm of water less than atmospheric pressure (D) 12 cm of water less than atmospheric pressure
(D) 10 m s–1 Connected to gas supply
Air
Water
4 cm
25. A ball of mass 200 g is thrown with a speed of 20 m s–1. The ball strikes a bat and rebounds along the same line at a speed of 40 m s–1. Variation of the interaction force, as long as the ball remains in contact with the bat is as shown in the figure. What is the speed of the ball at the instant the force acting on it is, maximum? (B) 30 m s–1 (C) 20 m s–1 (A) 40 m s–1
(D) 4.13 s
8 cm
time, he will hear the splash ? (Take g = 10 m s–2). (A) 1.13 s (B) 2.13 s (C) 3.13 s
27. Which of the following reasons is true about the electric charge acquired by cloud? (A) By the ultraviolet rays of sun falls on them. (B) Air molecules rub against water molecules. (C) Cold currents of air rub against hot currents of water. (D) Both (B) and (C) Copyright©2015. Science Olympiad Foundation (SOF)
15th NSO - SET B
4
28. See the figure given below and select the correct statements regarding polymers.
1. 2.
3. Figure (X) shows structure of a linear polymer while (Y) shows structure of a cross-linked polymer. (A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 3 (C) 2 and 3 (D) All are correct.
Figure (X) shows structure of a monomer while figure (Y) shows structure of a polymer. Small boxes in the structure represent monomers which are joined to give a polymer.
29. The graph shows the change in temperature with time when ice at –20°C is heated to 120°C.
Which entry in the options shows the correct change
taking place between the points? Points Change (A) P to Q Average energy of particles remains constant (B) Q to R Ice melting (C) R to S The volume of steam is increasing (D) T to U Water boiling 30. Ritwik was given four inflammable substances P, Q, Substance R and S. He was asked to hand over them to Ramesh P who was the resident of an hot area (temperature 46°C). Q Ritwik collected the data about the substances as shown R in the table. Which substances Ritwik should not carry to the hot S area where Ramesh lives? (A) P and Q (B) R and S (C) P and S
Ignition temperature 40°C 38°C 52°C 59°C (D) P, Q, R and S
31. Geeta poured 20 g of salt into 200 mL of water in a beaker. She stirred the water to dissolve the salt completely. Then she heated the solution until it was reduced to half. How many grams of salt can be recovered from the remaining solution?
(A) 0 g (C) 20 g
Salt solution
(B) 10 g (D) 40 g
Bunsen burner
32. Each beaker contains two metal strips of same size fastened together and immersed in hydrochloric acid. After 5 minutes, which beaker contains the least amount of zinc ions?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
33. A spoon is kept in contact with ice cubes for sometime. Later, the same spoon was held over the flame of a candle. The figure shows the observation. What do you infer from the figure? (A) Spoon is an inflammable substance. (B) Burning of candle is a spontaneous process. (C) CO2 is a product of combustion. (D) Water vapour is a product of combustion. Copyright©2015. Science Olympiad Foundation (SOF)
15th NSO - SET B
5
34. Select the incorrect statements among the following. (i) Bitumen is used for metalling the roads. (ii) Some inexhaustible natural resources like coal, petroleum and natural gas formed from the dead remains of living organisms are known as fossil fuels. (iii) Many useful substances are obtained from coal (commercial importance), so it is also called as 'Black gold'. (iv) Natural gas is used as a starting material for the manufacture of a number of chemicals and fertilizers. (A) (i) and (ii) (B) (ii) and (iii) (C) (ii) and (iv) (D) (i), (ii) and (iv) 35. Which element has the greatest number of electrons in the outermost shell (energy level) of its atoms? (A) Fluorine (B) Helium (C) Lithium (D) Potassium 36. The given figure illustrates three experimental set up X, Y and Z to investigate the sacrificial protection of iron.
Water Iron nail Copper
In which test-tube(s) will the iron rust? (A) X only (B) Y only (C) X and Z (D) Y and Z
(X)
Water Iron nail Magnesium (Y)
Water Iron nail Zinc (Z)
37. An ionic compound of element M and chlorine has the formula MCl3. The molecular mass of MCl3 is 118.5. What is the molecular mass of the oxide of element M?
(A) 28
(B) 44
(C) 72
(D) 99NTAL
ABILITY
38. Ali performed an experiment in which he put two different cells P and Q in pure water. Cell P swelled up and burst eventually while cell Q became tight and firm but did not burst. Which of the following is the most appropriate inference? (A) Cell sap of cell P is isotonic to the pure water. (B) Cell sap of cell Q is isotonic to pure water. (C) Cell P has been obtained from a plant. (D) Cell Q is a bacterium. 39.
Observe the given figures of three different plant tissues and select the correct option. (A) 'a' and 'b' consist of living cells while 'c' consists of dead cells. (B) Cytoplasm is present in cells of 'a' while it is absent in cells of 'b' and 'c'. (C) Cell walls of 'a', 'b' and 'c' bear uniform thickening of suberin. (D) 'a' provides mechanical strength to the plant while 'b' and 'c' serve as storage tissues.
40. Study the given flowchart. Which of the following are the correct examples of W, X, Y and Z? W X Y Z (A) Ulothrix Marsilea Selaginella Cycas (B) Riccia Marsilea Cycas Ipomoea (C) Lycopodium Marchantia Pinus Ipomoea (D) Spirogyra Dryopteris Funaria Pinus 41. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below. Column-I Column-II (a) Hepatitis (i) Ulcers in stomach and duodenum (b) Typhoid (ii) Reduction in natural immunity of the body (c) Helicobacter pylori (iii) TAB vaccine (d) AIDS (iv) Painful contraction of muscles of throat and chest (e) Lyssavirus (v) Acute inflammation of liver caused by virus (A) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), c-(iii), (d)-(iv), (e)-(v) (B) (a)-(v), (b)-(iii), c-(i), (d)-(ii), (e)-(iv) (C) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), c-(iv), (d)-(ii), (e)-(v) (D) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), c-(iii), (d)-(v), (e)-(i) Copyright©2015. Science Olympiad Foundation (SOF)
15th NSO - SET B
6
42. The given cycle represents circulation of nitrogen in
the environment. Identify X, Y and Z in the cycle and select the correct option.
(A) X - Denitrification, Y - Ammonification, Z - Nitrogen fixation
(B) X - Nitrate, Y - Denitrification, Z - Ammonification
(C) X - Nitrate, Y - Nitrogen fixation, Z - Ammonification
(D) X - Nitrification, Y - Ammonification, Z - Denitrification
43. Complete the given statements by selecting the correct words from the options given below. (i)_ is a traditional method of irrigation. (a) ___ (b) __(ii) ___ is a common weedicide. (iii) (c) In ________, water escapes from revolving nozzle and falls like rain on the crops.
(iv) (d) __ ___ is a technique for developing new varieties of crops by cross-breeding two different varieties. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (A) Dhekli Agent orange Drip irrigation Broadcasting (B) Dhekli DDT Chain pump Crop rotation (C) Rahat Siniazine Moat Mixed cropping (D) Rahat Metachlor Sprinkler system Hybridization 44. Read the following statements about four kinds of microorganisms P, Q, R and S.
(i) P converts milk into curd.
(ii) Q is used for making antibiotics.
(iii) R contains RNA as genetic material and causes reduction in immunity of its host.
(iv) S is used to manufacture wine and beer.
Identify P, Q, R and S and select the correct option. (A) P is yeast and R is HIV. (B) Q is Lactobacillus and R is yeast. (C) P is Lactobacillus and Q is Penicillium. (D) Q is HIV and S is yeast.
45. Rohan conducted an experiment in which two visking tubes A and B made up of semi-permeable membrane were filled with starch solution and kept in two separate test tubes containing water. These test tubes were then placed in water bath. Fresh saliva was added to visking tube A and boiled saliva was added to visking tube B. What result he would most likely obtain after 10 minutes of conducting experiment? (A) Starch will be found outside visking tube A. (C) Starch will be found outside visking tube B.
(B) Maltose sugar will be found outside visking tube B. (D) Maltose sugar will be found outside visking tube A.
46. The menstrual period of a woman, having regular 28 days, started on March 1st . When is she most likely to ovulate and when will her next menstrual period start? Ovulation Menstrual period March 21st (A) March 7th th (B) March 14 March 29th (C) March 10th March 26th th (D) March 14 April 4th Copyright©2015. Science Olympiad Foundation (SOF)
15th NSO - SET B
7
(A) X represents male and Z represents female.
(B) Z represents male and X represents female.
(C) Y represents male and Z represents female.
(D) Z represents male and Y represents female.
48. The given graph shows the amount of pollutants in four rivers P, Q, R and S. The river that can continue to support the most number of aquatic plants and animals is ________.
(A) P
(C) R
(B) Q
(D) S
Amount of pollutants
47. The given Venn diagram represents the changes that occur at puberty in adolescents. Which of the following options is correct regarding this?
Q S
R
P Number of years
49. Read the given statements and select the correct option. Statement 1 : Extensive use of fossil fuels poses dual problem, it increases air pollution and depletes fuel resources. Statement 2 : Fossil fuels release oxides of nitrogen and sulphur on burning that cause acid rain and smog. (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. (C) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect. (D) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect. 50. The given graph shows changes in concentration of two substances X and Y in a river polluted by sewage. Which of the following options most appropriately identifies X and Y? (A) X-Carbon dioxide, Y-Nitrogen compounds (B) X-Nitrogen compounds; Y-Carbon dioxide (C) X-Nitrogen compounds; Y-Oxygen (D) X-Oxygen; Y-Nitrogen compounds SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
Copyright©2015. Science Olympiad Foundation (SOF)
Class 9 16th
SET A Year 2013
Copyright©2015. Science Olympiad Foundation (SOF)
Mental Ability 1.
If a = 0.1001000100001... and b = 0.101001000100001......, then which of the following is true? A. a and b are both irrational numbers and a > b. B. Two irrational numbers between a and b are 0.1002000100001000001... and 0.10021001000100001... . C. a and b both are rational numbers and a < b. D. None of these
7.
8.
The polynomials ay 3 + 3y 2 – 3 and 2y 3 – 5y + a when divided by (y – 4) leaves the remainder P1 and P2 respectively. Find the sum of digits of denominator of a if 2P1 – P2 = 0. A. 9 B. 10 C. 8 D. 127
3.
If a3 + b 3 + c 3 = 3abc and a + b + c = 0, then
9.
(b + c) 2 (c + a ) 2 (a + b) 2 + + =? 3bc 3ac 3ab A. 0 B. 1 C. – 1 D. Not defined
2.
4.
5. 6.
Garima, Latika and Priya are standing at the corners of an equilateral triangle drawn in an open farm.
N W
Select the correct answer. The three steps from solids to points are A. Solids – surfaces – lines – points B. Solids – lines – surfaces – points C. Solids – surfaces – elements – points D. Solids – elements – surfaces – points V
In the given figure, TR || VS, TU || RS, ∠RPQ is twice of ∠UVS, then find a + b. 165º 185º 225º 155º
In a certain code language te da ka ni means intelligence is in genes, se po lo ni means genes are not responsible and ba da fu te means intelligence is through experience. What does ka stand for in that code language? A. genes B. through C. intelligence D. in
Garima
A solid metallic cylinder of base radius 3 cm and height 5 cm is melted to form cones, each of height 1 cm and base radius 1 mm. The number of cones is A. 450 B. 1350 C. 4500 D. 13500
A. B. C. D.
Select the correct match for the statement. In DPQR, ∠P = 70º, ∠R = 30º, then A. PQ > PR as ∠P > ∠R B. PQ > QR as ∠P > ∠R C. QR > PR as ∠Q > ∠R D. PR > PQ as ∠Q is the greatest, greater angle has longer side opposite to it.
b T
25º
U
S
90º
R P
a
Q
E S
Latika
Priya
If they run along the sides in clockwise direction 1 and stop after covering sides 1 . Now which of 2 the following statements is true? A. Latika is to the west of Priya. B. Garima is to the south-west of Latika. C. Garima is to the south-west of Priya. D. Latika is to the north-west of Garima.
10. Study the following information to answer the given question: (i) Six friends A, B, C, D, E and F are seated in a circle facing centre. (ii) F is between A and D. (iii) C is between E and B. (iv) E is not between D and C. (v) D is second to the left of C. Which of the following is D's position? A. Second to the right of A B. Next to the right of B C. Third to the left of B D. Fourth to the right of A
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16th NSO - 2013
2
11. How many m's are preceded and followed by m? mnmnnmmnmnmmmuumnmnnmmmn A. 1 B. 2 C. None D. 3 12. Which of the following figures will complete the series given below?
A.
B.
C.
D.
of origin are _______ as point is _______. A. (– 5, 6), (– abscissa, – ordinate) B. (5, 6), (ordinate, – abscissa) C. (– 5, – 6), (abscissa, – ordinate) D. (5, – 6), (abscissa, ordinate)
14. If the sides of a triangle are 60 m, 100 m, 140 m then length of the longest altitude is
A.
C.
50 3 m 50 3 m 6
B.
500 3 m
D.
80 3 m
15. Four views of a cube are given below. Which symbol will be opposite to ?
1
13. The co-ordinates of a point whose ordinate is 6 units below of origin and abscissa is 5 units right
A. C.
2
3
4
B. D.
Science 16. A car covers one-third of its journey with speed x, next one-third with speed y and the last one-third with speed z. The average speed of the body during the entire journey is 2xyz A. xy + yz + xz
B.
3xyz xy + yz + xz
C.
xyz xy + yz + xz
D.
3( x + y + z ) xyz
19. A girl stands between the two walls and claps her hands as shown in the figure. If S is less than 60 m and the time between the first and the second echo is 0.25 s, then find the value of S. Velocity of sound in air is 344 m s–1.
17. The diagram shows a wave on a string with two points A and B marked on the string. If the wave is moving in the direction as shown then what will happen next ?
A. B. C. D.
A A B B
will will will will
move move move move
10 push-ups in 30 s. Find his average power output during this time interval. A. 5 W B. 15 W C. 50 W D. 500 W
A.
17 m
B.
25 m
C.
29 m
D.
35 m
20. A motor cycle and a car are moving on a horizontal road with the same velocity. If they are brought to rest by the application of brakes, which provided equal retardation, then
to the right up to the right up
18. An athlete is doing push-ups. He applies a force of 300 N as he pushes up a distance of 0.5 m. He does
A.
Motor cycle will stop at shorter distance
B.
Car will stop at a shorter distance
C.
Both will stop at the same distance
D.
Nothing can be predicted.
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16th NSO - 2013
3
21. Three plane mirrors are mounted on the three walls forming an isosceles right triangle as shown in the figure. How many images of object A are formed in all?
A.
5
B.
6
C.
7
D.
8
A.
Statement 1 : A hydrogen filled balloon stops rising after it has attained a certain height in the sky. Statement 2 : The atmospheric pressure decreases with height and becomes zero when maximum height is attained. A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. C. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. D. Both statements 1 and 2 are false.
23. A cluster of clouds at a height of 1000 m above the earth burst and enough rain fell to cover an area of 106 m2 with a depth of 2 cm. How much work have been done in raising water to the height of clouds. (Take g = 9.8 m s–2 and density of water = 103 kg m–3)
A. B. C. D.
B.
22. Read the given statements and mark the correct option.
1.96 × 1011 J 1.96 × 109 J 1.5 × 1011 J 2.5 × 1013 J
24. A block of mass M is supported by a cord A from a rigid support and another cord B is attached to the bottom of the block as shown in the figure. Which of the following statement is correct ? A. If you give a sudden jerk to B, it will break. B. If you give a sudden jerk to B, A will break. C. If you pull on B steadily, chord B will break. D. Both options A and C are correct. 25. Which of the following graphs between the square of the time period and cube of the distance of planet from the sun is correct ?
C.
D. 26. Match the column I with column II and choose the correct option using the codes given below. Column I Column II (a) A fibre obtained by (i) Melamine chemical treatment of wood pulp. (b) A fibre stronger (ii) Acrylic than steel wire (c) A fibre known as (iii) Rayon artificial wool (d) A fire-proof plastic (iv) Nylon A. (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii) B. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii) C. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) D. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii) 27. A flask containing a liquid X is heated until it boils as shown in the figure.
Heat
Choose the incorrect statement about the particles of the substance during the process. A. Energy is absorbed by particles in the liquid X. B. The particles loss kinetic energy. C. Eventually, the particles throughout the liquid have enough energy to overcome the forces holding them together. D. Both A and B
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16th NSO - 2013
4
28. Nandita has a substance Y which boils at 388 K and is immiscible with water. Y does not react with water. Which of the following separation methods will Nandita adopt to separate Y from a mixture containing another substance Z which boils at 278 K? (Both Y and Z are miscible).
31. In Rutherford's a-particle scattering experiment, a very small fraction of a-particles were deflected by 180°. What did he conclude from this observation? A. All the positive charge and mass of the atom occupy very little space. B. Most of the space inside the atom is empty. C. All the positive charge and mass of the atom were concentrated in a very small volume. D. Both A and B.
A.
B.
32. Match the column I with column II and select the correct option from the codes given below. Column I Column II (a) Hottest zone (i) Zone of unburnt wax of candle flame vapours (b) Yellow zone of (ii) Non-luminous zone candle flame (c) Black innermost (iii) Incomplete zone of the candle combustion zone flame A. (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii) B. (a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii) C. (a) - (i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii) D. (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i)
C.
D.
30. An element L has 9 protons and its valency is 1. Another element M has valency 3 and 5. What is the difference in the number of electrons in L and M? A. 6 B. 5 C. 4 D. 3
29. In a science project, Aditya has to make a chart, illustrating various elements and their atomicity. Aditya decided to show elements of different atomicity by different shapes. Monoatomic → Diatomic
→
Triatomic
→
Tetratomic
→
33. Naphthalene balls used to repel moths and other insects are obtained from X . These days, Y , a petroleum product, is used in place of X for metalling the roads. What are X and Y respectively ? A. Coke, coal B. Coal, coke C. Bitumen, coal tar D. Coal tar, bitumen 34. Schematic atomic structures of three elements are given below.
Polyatomic → Pick the element which is shown incorrectly.
A.
Cl
C.
P
B. D.
Al S
Which of the following is the correct formula of the compound formed by the given three elements ? A. Na3PO4 B. Na2CO3 C. Na2SO4 D. Na2SO3
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16th NSO - 2013
5
35. Refer the given figure and select the correct option regarding it. P Q
B.
C.
D.
Using radiation technology to kill certain pathogens Exposure of food to extremely low temperature to retard growth of microorganisms Exposure of food to 70°C for short period and then cooling it quickly to destroy harmful microbes.
R S
A.
B. C.
D.
P are dead sclerenchyma fibres that provide mechanical strength. Q helps in maintaining pressure gradient. R is the main conducting part of the phloem formed of cylindrical cells. S is living parenchyma cell that stores food.
36. Study the following table regarding different species and their status. Select the correct option for a-e. Status Species a Passenger pigeon Endemic b Critically endangered c d Giant golden mole e Hippopotamus A. a - Extinct; b - Hog badger c - Thick billed parrot; d - Endangered e - Vulnerable B. a - Vulnerable; b - Thick billed parrot c - Hog badger; d - Extinct e - Endangered C. a - Endangered; b - Hog badger c - Thick billed parrot; d - Vulnerable e - Extinct D. a - Extinct; b - Thick billed parrot c - Hog badger; d - Extinct e - Endangered 37. Agricultural fields must maintain their fertility in order to keep up productivity. Which among the following is the most effective method that farmers can adopt to keep the soil fertile? A. Repeatedly growing the same crop in the field. B. Providing adequate irrigation facilities and drainage system. C. Regular tilling of the field so that it holds more air and water. D. Rotating crops in the field. 38. Pasteurization is a technique for food preservation which was invented in 1862. It mainly involves A. Exposure of food to high temperature (around 135°C) to inactivate enzymes that spoil the food during storage
39. Read the following characteristics of an organism. (i) Soft, dorsoventrally flattened, leaf-like body. (ii) Head lobe bears mouth surrounded by oral sucker. (iii) Absence of digestive system and sense organs. (iv) Presence of excretory pore at the posterior end of the body. (v) Considerable osmotic adaptability. Based on the above characteristics, identify the animal and select the correct option. A. Taenia solium B. Fasciola hepatica C. Wuchereria bancrofti D. Leucosolenia 40. Acid rain is produced when rain mixes with gases such as sulphur dioxide. This will eventually result in A. Lowering of pH and changes of temperature in ponds B. Raising of pH in ponds, encouraging growth of microorganisms C. Lowering of pH in ponds, limiting survival of aquatic organisms D. Raising of pH in ponds, limiting development of organisms. 41. Mrs. Mehra, who is 32 years old, underwent a surgery to get her oviducts removed after having girl. Now she wants to have another baby. Do you think she can have another baby? A. Yes, she can have another baby as her ovaries are still functional to produce eggs. B. No, she cannot have another baby because fertilization of egg takes place in the oviduct. C. Yes, she can have another baby because the surgery can be reversed. D. No, she cannot have another baby as the hormones associated with the oviduct will not be present. 42. Bio fuels are the fuels which are obtained from plants. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding this? A. Seeds of the plant Jatropha yield oil and are used to make bio-diesel. B. Jatropha is a cultivated plant which requires only certain specific soil to grow and also requires much irrigation. C. Bio-fuels are an environment-friendly alternative to fossil fuels. D. Animals usually do not eat the plant Jatropha.
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16th NSO - 2013
6
43. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below.
B.
Column-I Column-II (a) Infectious disease causing (i) AIDS ulceration and inflammation of intestinal tract (b) Rapid and uncontrolled (ii) Chicken pox growth of cells (c) Infection of respiratory (iii) Typhoid system causing inflammation of lungs (d) Communicable disease (iv) Cancer characterised by itchy rashes and vesicles on body (e) Viral infection leading to (v) Pneumonia severely low immunity A. (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv), (e) - (v) B. (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (v), (e) - (i) C. (a) - (v), (b) - (iv), (c) - (iii), (d) - (i), (e) - (ii) D. (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (v), (d) - (ii), (e) - (i)
C.
44. Anaya took a few stalks of celery and immersed them in solution X. After 10 minutes the stalks became swollen. Similarly she immersed some celery stalks in solution Y, which after 10 minutes became shrunken. What can you deduce from this observation? A. Solution X is hypotonic, while solution Y is hypertonic for celery stalks.
D.
Solution X is hypertonic, while solution Y is hypotonic for celery stalks. Solution X is isotonic, while solution Y is hypertonic for celery stalks. Solution X is hypotonic, while solution Y is isotonic for celery stalks.
45. Fill up the blanks and select the correct option from the codes given below. (a)
(i) is decomposed mixture of cattle excreta and urine along with straw and fodder.
(b)
(ii) is made from vegetable wastes and animal wastes decomposed by aerobic and anaerobic microorganisms.
(c)
(iii) is prepared by sowing certain crop seeds and then ploughing them back in the soil.
(d)
(iv) is made by decomposition of plant and animal refuse with the help of earthworms.
(i) (ii) A. Vermi- Farmyard compost manure B. Farmyard Compost manure C. Green Compost manure D. Compost Green manure
(iii) (iv) Green Compost manure Green Vermimanure compost Farmyard Vermimanure compost Farmyard Vermimanure compost
Achievers Section Direction (Q. 46 & 47) : Refer the given passage and answer the following questions. At present the primary nutrient which limits the agricultural yield is nitrogen (N). Some plants are capable to produce more N2 than they consume. These plants show symbiotic relationship with N2-fixing bacteria such as Rhizobium. These bacteria produce root nodules in leguminous plants and convert atmospheric N2 into nitrogenous compounds. Rhizobium bacteria are gram negative bacteria, which show host specificity and fix N2 in the presence of a red pigment called leghaemoglobin. It protects nitrogen fixing enzyme nitrogenase from oxygen. 46. Which of the following statements is incorrect? A. Leghaemoglobin functions as oxygen scavenger during N2 -fixation. B. Enzyme nitrogenase, which is required to fix atmospheric N2 is active in the presence as well as absence of oxygen.
C.
D.
N, P and K are referred to as critical elements for crop plants as they easily become deficient in soil due to higher plant requirement and repeated cultivation. The coordinated activities of the legume and Rhizobium bacteria depend on chemical interactions between the symbiotic partners.
47. Read the given statements and select the correct answer. Statement 1 : Rhizobium bacteria can also live freely in the soil and carry out N2-fixation by themselves. Statement 2 : Such Rhizobium bacteria are called free-living N2-fixing bacteria. A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. C. Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false. D. Both statements 1 and 2 are false.
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16th NSO - 2013
7
48. The speed-time graph of a particle in motion along a constant direction is shown here. Three equal intervals of time are represented by 1, 2 and 3. In which interval is the average acceleration greatest in magnitude?
A.
Interval 1
B.
Interval 2
C.
Interval 3
D.
Interval 1 and 3
49. Fill in the blanks : The effect of rotation of the earth is ______ at the equator and _______ at the poles. If the earth stops rotating, the weight of a body would ________ due to the absence of ________ force.
A. B. C. D.
Minimum, maximum, Maximum, minimum, Maximum, minimum, Minimum, maximum,
decreases, gravitational increases, centrifugal decreases, centrifugal increases, gravitational
50. Small pieces of different metals P, Q, R and S are dropped in beakers containing different reagents.
Identify the metals P, Q, R and S respectively. A. Zn, Mg, Ca, Cu B. Na, Cu, Mg, Ca C. Mg, Ca, Zn, Na D. Zn, Ca, Na, Mg
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
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Class 9 16th
SET B Year 2013
Copyright©2015. Science Olympiad Foundation (SOF)
Mental Ability 1
1. 2.
3.
4.
5.
-1
Two positions of a dice are shown below. What will be the number of dots on the top of the dice if 5 is in the bottom? A. 5 B. 1 C. 6 D. 3 All the three quadrilaterals I, II and III are squares. If the area of I = x2 and area of II = y 2 (x2 > y 2), then the area of III is _____. A. 2x2 B. 2(x2 – y2) C. x2 + y2 D. x2 – y2 Which of the following options best indicates the logical relationship amongst the following three?
-1
a2 + a 2 1- a 2 Simplify : + 1- a 1+ a 1 A. 1- a B. 0 C. –1 2 D. 1- a
6.
If means ‘×’, D means ‘÷’, means ‘+’, means ‘–’, means ‘=’ and means ‘less than’, then which of the following is incorrect?
A.
10
37
B.
10
3
C.
10 7
D.
10
7.
Select the correct match.
4
15 D 3
C.
5
5
79
2
9D3
4
2
82
8D47
8
2
5
5
Column I
Column II
A.
Postulate III
A terminated line can be produced indefinitely.
B.
Postulate II
All right angles are equal to one another.
C.
Postulate IV
A circle can be drawn with any centre and any radius.
D.
Postulate I
A straight line may be drawn from any one point to any other point.
8.
Identify the option in which figure (x) is embedded.
A.
Figure (x)
“DOCTOR, MALE, ACTOR”
A.
4D25
B.
C.
D.
9.
If the sides BA and DC of quadrilateral ABCD are produced as shown in the given figure, then A. x + y = a + b B. x – y = a – b x- y C. =a–b 2 D. None of these
B.
D.
None of these
Which of the following is false? A. The x-coordinates of all points to the right of the y-axis are positive. B. The y-coordinates of all points above the x-axis are positive. C. The y-coordinates of all points below the x-axis are positive. D. The x-coordinates of all points to the left of the y-axis are negative.
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16th NSO - SET B
2
10. Read the following information and answer the question given below it: A is the father of C. But C is not his son. E is the daughter of C. F is the spouse of A. B is the brother of C. D is the son of B. G is the spouse of B. H is the father of G. Who is the son of F? A. B B. C C. D D. E 11. A statement (I) is given followed by a corresponding statement (II) just below it. Of the statements, mark the correct answer as ____. Statement-I : If the area of an equilateral triangle is 81 3 cm 2 , then the side of the triangle is 9 3 cm.
Statement-II : Area of an equilateral triangle is
3 2 a . (where a is side of the triangle). 4 A. If both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are true and Statement (II) is the correct explanation of Statement (I). B. If both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are true but Statement (II) is not the correct explanation of Statement (I). C. If Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false. D. If Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true.
12. If the day, two days after tomorrow be Thursday, what day would have been two days before yesterday? A. Friday B. Tuesday C. Thursday D. Wednesday 13. The radii of three cylindrical jars of equal height are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3. Second jar is full with water which is first poured into the first jar. After filling the first jar, water is poured into the third jar. Which of the following statements is true? A. Third jar is half full. B. Third jar is one third full. C. Third jar is two thirds full. D. Third jar is four ninths full. 14. Insert the missing number in the number pattern given below. A. 3.7 B. 3.8 C. 3.9 D. 3.1 15. What is the probability that a number selected at random from the numbers 1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 3, 4, 4, 4, 4 will be their average? 4 8 A. B. 10 10 3 5 C. D. 10 10
Science 16. The figure shows two horizontal forces acting on a block on a frictionless floor. If a third horizontal force F3 also acts on the block, what are the magnitude and left A. B. C. D.
direction of F3 when the block is moving to the with a constant speed of 5 m/s? 2 N leftward 2 N rightward 3N 5N 8 N leftward 8 N rightward
17. A bead starts sliding from A on a frictionless wire with initial velocity of 4 m s–1 as shown in figure. On reaching C, its velocity will be
A.
Zero
B.
2 m s–1
C.
4 m s–1
D.
8 m s–1
18. The velocity of a planet revolving around the sun at three different times of a year is shown in the figure. Which among the following alternatives is correct? v + v3 A. v2 = 1 2 v + v3 B. v1 = 2 2 C. v1 > v2 > v3 D. v1 < v2 < v3 19. In a hospital an ultrasonic scanner is used to locate tumours in a tissue. The operating frequency of the scanner is 4.2 MHz. The speed of sound in a tissue is 1.7 km s–1. The wavelength of sound in the tissue is approximately A. 4 × 10–4 m B. 2 × 10–4 m –6 C. 8 × 10 m D. 2 × 10–6 m
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16th NSO - SET B
3
20. A small block B of mass 1 kg is placed on block A of mass 5 kg and length 20 cm as shown in figure. A constant horizontal force of 10 N is applied on block A. If all the surfaces are assumed frictionless and block B is at the right end of block A, then the time in which block B separates from A is 0.2 s
A. B.
C.
0.5 s 2s
D.
3s
21. Read the given statements and select the correct option. Statement-1 : A cloth covers a table. Some dishes are kept on it. The cloth can be pulled out without dislodging the dishes from the table. Statement-2 : For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.
A.
B.
C. D.
Both statements-1 and 2 are true and statement-2 is the correct explanation of statement-1. Both statements-1 and 2 are true but statement-2 is not the correct explanation of statement-1. Statement-1 is true and statement-2 is false. Both statements-1 and 2 are false.
22. The acceleration-time graph for a particle in rectilinear motion is as shown in the figure. Find the average acceleration in first twenty seconds.
24. A person is looking at the image of his face in a mirror by holding it close to his face. The image formed is virtual. When he moves the mirror away from his face, the image is inverted. What type of mirror is he using? A. Plane mirror B. Concave mirror C. Convex mirror D. Combination of mirror and lenses 25. The gravitational force between two masses kept in air at a certain distance is x N. The same two masses are now kept in water and the distance between them are same. The gravitational force between these masses in water is y N. Then A. x > y B. x < y C. x = y D. Can’t say 26. Different fabrics of same size, wet with same volume of water were left out in the sun for drying.
Arrange the fabrics in order of time taken to dry (from maximum to least). A. Polyester, cotton, acrylic, wool B. Wool, polyester, cotton, acrylic C. Wool, cotton, acrylic, polyester D. Cotton, wool, acrylic, polyester
27. Study the given flowchart carefully. P Y
A. B. C. D.
10 15 20 25
m m m m
–2
s s–2 s–2 s–2
A. B. C. D.
Level will fall below A. Level will rise above A. Level will remain at A. It is difficult to predict.
Q Liquid
Sublimation
g
X
23. A capillary tube C dipped in a liquid that wets it as shown in figure. If we blow air through the horizontal tube H, then what will happen to the liquid column in the capillary tube ?
Plasma
Freezin
Identify P, Q, X and Y respectively. A. Cooling, Vaporisation, Liquid, Gas B. Ionization, Condensation, Solid, Gas C. Heating, Melting, Solid, Liquid D. Sublimation, Freezing, Liquid, Solid
28. Incomplete combustion of fuels gives X. Burning of coal and diesel releases Y, which is an extremely suffocating and corrosive gas. Identify X and Y respectively. A. CO2 , NO2 B. NO2 , CO2 C. CO, SO2 D. SO2 , CO
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16th NSO - SET B
4
29. Ruchi was given four unknown metals P, Q, R and S. She performed the following experiments to check the reactivity of the unknown metals.
If reaction occurred in only beaker 3, then which of the following metals is least reactive? A. P B. Q C. R D. S
30. Choose the incorrect statement among the following. A. Natural gas is used as a starting material for the manufacture of a number of chemicals and fertilisers. B. Over millions of years, presence of air, high temperature and low pressure transformed the dead organisms into petroleum. C. Naphthalene balls used to repel moths and other insects are obtained from coal tar. D. Minerals, coal, petroleum, natural gas, etc. are exhaustible natural resources.
32. Ranchi prepared a salt solution with concentration 11.2% (mass by mass percentage) in 320 g of water. Abhinav prepared a salt solution by dissolving the same amount of salt (as used by Ranchi), but in 180 g of water. What is the concentration (in mass by mass percentage) of the solution prepared by Abhinav? A. 24.2% B. 19.9% C. 23.8% D. 18.3% 33. Richa has 144 g of ozone, Naina has 0.2 mol of P4 while Ankur has 36.02 × 1023 molecules of N2 . Which of the following is the correct order of number of electrons they have? A. Ankur < Naina < Richa B. Naina < Richa < Ankur C. Ankur < Richa < Naina D. Richa < Ankur < Naina 34. There are four species P, Q, R and S with compositions as given below.
Protons Neutrons Electrons 12 12 10 P 13 14 10 Q 17 18 18 R 16 16 18 S Which of the following forms a compound with X 2Y3 type formula? A. P and Q B. P and R C. Q and R D. Q and S
35. Study the experimental set up shown below.
31. Which of the following statements is correct about the given graph?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Temperature remains same during the change of state. QR represents latent heat of fusion while ST represents latent heat of vaporisation. At QR, substance exists in both solid and liquid states while at ST, it exists in both liquid and gaseous states. All the statements are true.
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the observations made, after the two visking tubes P and Q were placed in dilute iodine solution for 10 minutes? [Key : Visking tube allows the molecules of iodine to pass through it.] A. Solution in visking tube P turns blue-black B. Solution in visking tube Q turns blue-black C. Solution in both the visking tubes P and Q turns blue-black D. Solution in neither of the visking tubes turns blue-black.
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16th NSO - SET B
5
36. Acid rain occurs when sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides combine with water vapours in atmosphere and fall as rain. Which of the following is not caused by acid rain? A. Decreased quality of air B. Reduced growth of forests C. Reduced pH of water bodies D. Destruction of marble buildings 37. Read the following differences between lymph and blood. Lymph (i)
Blood
It consists of plasma It consists of plasma, and leucocytes only. e r y t h r o c y t e s a n d platelets only.
(ii)
The concentration of The concentration glucose is higher in of glucose is less in lymph. blood.
(iii)
Amount of metabolic Amount of metabolic wastes is normal. wastes is much more.
(iv)
Its plasma has fewer Its plasma has more proteins, calcium and proteins, calcium and phosphorus. phosphorus.
Which of these difference is/are incorrect?
A.
(i) and (iii)
B. C. D.
(ii) only (iii) only (ii) and (iv)
P-(ii), Q-(i), R-(iii), S-(iv) P-(iii), Q-(iv), R-(ii), S-(i) P-(ii), Q-(iii), R-(iv), S-(i) P-(iii), Q-(i), R-(iv), S-(ii)
42. Study the following table about microorganisms and their role in nitrogen fixation. Select the option that best suits (i)-(iv). (i)
39. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below. Column-I Column-II P. Brown algae (i) Anabaena Q. Blue-green algae (ii) Gelidium R. Green algae (iii) Sargassum S. Red algae (iv) Chlamydomonas A. B. C. D.
41. Which of the following statements is incorrect about Dolly, the clone? A. Dolly was developed from a cell taken from mammary gland of Scottish blackface ewe and an unfertilised egg obtained from Finn Dorsett sheep. B. The egg produced by the fusion was implanted into Scottish blackface ewe. C. Dolly was identical to Fin Dorsett sheep and was called its clone. D. None of the above.
Microorganism
38. ______ were the first group of animals to evolve lung tissue requisite to support their respiratory needs without the use of supplementary organs. A. Trematoda B. Amphibians C. Reptiles D. Aves
40. Read the given statements and select the correct option. Statement-1 : Shivam, an environmental researcher, is working in the buffer zone of a biosphere reserve where limited human activity is allowed. Statement-2 : Buffer zone provides space for settlements, farming, fisheries, research and recreation. A. Both statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. B. Both statements 1 and 2 are correct but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. C. Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect. D. Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
Nitrosococcus Nitrocystis (iv)
(i)
Role in nitrogen cycle Conversion of nitrate to free nitrogen (ii) (iii) Conversion of free nitrogen to nitrogen compounds
(ii)
A. Pseudomonas Conversion of ammonia to nitrites
B. Pseudomonas
(iii)
(iv)
Conversion of nitrite to nitrate
Rhizobium
Conversion Conversion of dead plant of ammonia protein to to nitrites ammonia
Penicillium
Conversion of nitrite to nitrate
Conversion of nitrate to nitrite
Nitrobacter
D. Azotobacter Conversion of nitrate to nitrite
Conversion of dead plant protein to
Nitrosomonas
ammonia
C.
Azotobacter
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16th NSO - SET B
6
43. Refer the given figures and select the correct statement.
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
44. Select the option which has the complete set of fresh-water fishes. A. Rohu, Calbasu, Sardine, Eel B. Sanghara, Hilsa, Salmon, Pomphrets C. Mrigal, Catla, Malhi, Rohu D. Mackerels, Tuna, Bombay duck, Flatfish 45. Which of the following statements is correct about the lack of organelles in prokaryotes?
A.
(i) lives in large intestine of humans and infection occurs by ingesting cysts alongwith food and water.
A.
The lack of organelles in prokaryotes means that their basic cellular processes are different from eukaryotes.
B.
(ii) lives in blood plasma, enters cerebrospinal fluid and damages the brain.
B.
It suggests that the amount of DNA remains the same throughout the life cycle.
C.
(iii) lives in small intestine of humans and infection occurs by injesting soil infected with its eggs.
C.
Absence of organelles in prokaryotes means that they cannot perform the function of photosynthesis.
D.
(iv) lives in lungs of humans and infection occurs by eating infected pork.
D.
It suggests that they contain more variety of phospholipids in their cell membrane.
achieverS Section DIRECTION (Q. 46 & 47) : Refer the given passage and answer the following questions. The plant body comprises of root and shoot systems which differ in their arrangement in different species of plants. The cells of these systems are arranged in three tissue systems, namely, epidermal, vascular and ground tissue system. Epidermal tissue system secretes cuticle on stem and leaves. It covers and protects the plant. Vascular tissue system is arranged differentially in monocots and dicots and consists of xylem and phloem. It is continuous throughout the plant. Ground tissue system is the most extensive system that acts as a filler between vascular tissue and epidermis. Its function is storage and support. 46. Which of following tissues do you expect to be the most important during droughts and why? A. Vascular tissue because phloem regulates water supply to the plant. B. Ground tissue because water can be stored in sclerenchyma for use during drought. C. Epidermal tissue because it is covered with a waxy cuticle and also bears drought responsive stomata. D. All of these 47. Identify the incorrect statements out of the following and select the correct option. (i) Epidermal tissue system forms the outermost covering of various plant organs.
(ii)
Ground tissue synthesizes organic compounds and controls photosynthesis with the help of collenchyma cells. (iii) Epidermal tissue of leaves is called mesophyll which is made up of two types of cells, palisade and spongy. (iv) Ground tissue system forms interior of plant organs with exclusion of dermal and vascular systems. A. (i) and (ii) B. (ii) and (iii) C. (i) and (iv) D. (i), (ii) and (iv)
48. Fill in the blanks. The ....(i).... of sound depends primarily on the nature and the temperature of the transmitting medium. The persistence of sound in an auditorium is the result of repeated reflections of sound and is called ....(ii)..... . Sound properties such as ....(iii)...., loudness are determined by the corresponding wave properties. ....(iv).... is a physiological response of the ear to the intensity of sound. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) reverberation pitch speed A. Loudness B. Speed reverberation pitch loudness C. Reverberation loudness speed pitch D. Pitch loudness reverberation speed
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16th NSO - SET B
7
49. Select the correct velocity-time graph for a body whose acceleration-time graph is shown.
50. Study the given flowchart carefully.
A.
C.
B.
D.
Identify P and Q. P A. Compress and cool; B. Expand and heat; C. Compress and heat; D. Expand and cool;
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
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Q Nitrogen Argon Oxygen Oxygen
Class 9 17th
SET A Year 2014
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17th NSO - SET A
2
logical reasoning 1.
Find the missing term in the given series.
6.
Select a figure from the options, which would replace the (?) to complete the pattern in Figure (X).
A.
B.
C.
19200, 1920, 240, 40, 10, ?
A. C.
1 0
B. D.
5 10
2.
Select a figure from the options which will continue the same series as established by the four problem figures.
A.
B.
D.
C.
D.
7.
Find the mirror image of Fig. (X), if the mirror is placed vertically to the left.
3.
Six persons Aman, Beenu, Charu, Disha, Esha and Giya took up a job with an organization in a week from Monday to Saturday. Each of them joined for different posts on different days. The posts were of—clerk, officer, technician, manager, supervisor and sales executive, though not necessarily in the same order. Giya joined as a manager on the first day. Beenu joined as a supervisor but neither on Wednesday nor Friday. Disha joined as a technician on Thursday. Charu joined on Wednesday. Esha joined as a clerk on Tuesday. Aman joined as a sales executive. Which of the following is correctly matched regarding the posts and day of joining?
A.
B.
C.
D.
8.
A. C.
B. Officer-Wednesday D. Technician-Monday
4.
Find the missing character, if the given matrix follows a certain rule, row-wise or column-wise.
Garima and Saurabh are children of Mr. Jindal. Garima marries Amit Goel and Sahil, Sameer and Sanchit are born to them. Sahil is married to the eldest daughter of Mr. and Mrs. Mittal. Kaya is younger to Piya but older than Riya who are the daughters of Mr. and Mrs. Mittal. Latika is Sahil’s daughter. How is Saurabh related to Sanchit?
A. B. C. D.
A. C.
9.
5.
If Saturday falls on fourth day after today which is 6th January, then on what day did 1st December of the previous year fall?
A. C.
In the sequence given below, in some cases the sum of the two digits which immediately precede the digit ‘3’ exceeds the sum of the two digits which immediately follow the digit 3 and sum of the two digits which immediately follow the digit ‘5’ exceeds the sum of the two digits which immediately precede the digit 5. How many such 3’s and 5’s are there altogether?
Manager-Tuesday Clerk-Thursday
V W X Y
Sunday Tuesday
A D I
B. D.
D I P
G N ?
Wednesday Monday
Brother-in-law Maternal uncle
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B. D.
Uncle Brother
17th NSO - SET A
2 5 2 4 A. C.
3
4 3 6 7 5 2 8 3 9 7 5 4 3 4 6 5 2 6 3 5 8 3 5 6 3 7 5 8 3 5 2 6 5 B. 6 7 D. 4
10. In a certain code, the word DEAL is coded as 4 – 5 – 1 – 12. Following the same rule of coding, what should be the code for the word LADY? A. 12 – 4 – 1 – 25 B. 12 – 1 – 4 – 25 C. 10 – 1 – 4 – 23 D. 12 – 1 – 4 – 22 11. Group the given figures into three classes, using each figure only once.
Which bank has its branch in Kanpur and Meerut but not in Lucknow?
A. C.
P R
B. D.
Q T
13. Find the number of triangles formed in the given figure.
A. B. C. D.
33 37 35 None of these
14. If animals that live on land and the animals that live in water are represented by two big circles and animals that live in water and on land are represented by small circle, the combination of these three can be best represented as
A.
C.
B. D.
A. B. C. D.
1, 2, 1, 1,
4, 3, 5, 6,
9; 7; 9; 7;
2, 4, 2, 2,
3, 6, 3, 3,
8; 9; 8; 8;
5, 1, 4, 4,
6, 5, 6, 5,
7 8 7 9
15. Out of the five figures marked (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T), four are similar in a certain manner. However, one figure is not like the other four. Choose the figure which is different from the rest.
12. P, Q, R, S and T are Banks. Banks P, Q and R have their branches in Meerut and Lucknow. P, Q and T have their branches in Meerut and Gorakhpur. Q, R and S have their branches in Kanpur and Lucknow. P, T and S have their branches in Gorakhpur and Varanasi while R, T and S have their branches at Kanpur and Varanasi.
A. C.
P R
B. D.
Q T
Science 16. A driver takes 0.20 s to apply brakes soon after he sees a need for it. If he is driving a car at a speed of 54 km h–1 and the brakes cause a deceleration of 6.0 m s–2 , then the distance travelled by the car, after he sees the need to apply the brakes is ______.
A. C.
21.75 m 10.55 m
B. D.
17. A block accelerates down a slope, as shown in the figure. The upper portion of the slope is smooth and lower portion is rough. On the lower portion,
(i)
42.50 m 16.25 m
th
oo
Sm h
ug
Ro
the speed of the block may increase, decrease or remain same.
(ii) the acceleration of block reduces. (iii) the mass of block reduces. Which of the following is/are correct? A. (i) only B. (i) and (ii) only C. (ii) and (iii) only D. (i), (ii) and (iii)
18. An aeroplane pilot hears a slow beat from the two engines of his plane. He increases the speed of the right engine and now hears a slower beat. What should the pilot now do, to eliminate the beat?
A. B. C. D.
Increase the speed of the left engine Decrease the speed of the right engine Increase the speed of both engines Increase the speed of the right engine
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17th NSO - SET A
4
19. A lump of ice floats in water as shown in the figure.
Which of the following statements is correct? A. The lump of ice floats because the area of its lower surface is larger than the area of its upper surface. B. The pressure difference between the lower and the upper surfaces of the lump of ice gives rise to an upthrust equal to its weight. C. The ice has a greater density than water. D. The mass of water displaced by ice is equal to the upthrust.
20. At a certain place, value of g is 1% less than its value on the surface of Earth. If the radius of Earth is given to be 6400 km, then the place is ______. A. 64 km below the surface of the Earth B. 64 km above the surface of the Earth C. 30 km above the surface of the Earth D. 32 km below the surface of the Earth. 21. If suddenly the gravitational force of attraction between the Earth and a satellite revolving around it becomes zero, then the satellite will ______. A. Fall onto the Earth B. Move in a direction tangential to its original orbit C. Escape horizontally D. None of these 22. A man of mass 55 kg climbs up a flight of steps to reach the spring board. The spring board is 6 m above the water surface in a swimming pool as shown in the given figure. He jumps up into air, 3 m above the spring board, before falling into water in the swimming pool. If the average resisting force exerted by water on the man is 1500 N, then the maximum depth of the man in water will be A. 2.1 m B. 3.3 m C. 4.2 m D. 5.6 m
23. Converging lenses A and B have the same focal length, but B is only half the aperture of A. Both lenses are used to form images of distant objects on a screen. Which of the following statements is correct?
A.
B.
C.
D.
For both lenses, the distance from the lens to the screen is same. For both lenses, the images are of the same brightness. For both lenses, the images are of the same size as the object. Lens B gives a smaller image than A.
24. A plane mirror approaches a stationary person with an acceleration, a. The acceleration of his image, as seen by the person, will be
A. C.
a a/2
B. D.
2a 4a
25. Two objects, A and B are thrown upwards simultaneously with the same speed. The mass of A is greater than the mass of B. Suppose the air exerts a constant and equal force of resistance on the two bodies, then
A. B. C. D.
A will go higher than B B will go higher than A The two bodies will reach the same height None of these.
26. Four students were given small pieces of materials P, Q, R and S respectively. They observed the reactions of these materials as follows : Reaction with Dilute Material Water hydrochloric acid No reaction but No reaction. P catches fire if exposed to air. Reacts slowly. Burns with a pop Q sound. Reacts vigorously Burns with a pop R with lots of heat. sound. No reaction. No reaction. S
According to them, materials P, Q, R and S respectively are A. Fe, Cu, Na, P B. Na, Fe, P, Cu C. P, Fe, Na, Cu D. Cu, P, Na, Fe
27. Read the given statements and mark the correct option. Statement 1 : Food is a fuel for our body. Statement 2 : In our body, food is broken down by reaction with oxygen and heat is produced.
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17th NSO - SET A
A.
B.
C. D.
5
Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. Both statements 1 and 2 are false.
28. Match the Column-I with Column‑II and choose the correct option using the codes given below. Column-I Column-II (Mixture) (Separation technique) a. An ink (i) Distillation b. Liquid air (ii) Evaporation and crystallization c. Copper sulphate and (iii) Fractional distillation water d. Acetone and water (iv) Chromatography A. a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv) B. a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(i), d-(iv) C. a-(iv), b-(i), c-(iii), d-(ii) D. a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(i)
32. The calorific values of some fuels are given. Fuel Coal Diesel LPG CNG
U V W X Y Z
A. B. C. D.
30. Which of the following statements are incorrect? I. Rayon is a natural fibre as it is obtained by chemical treatment of wood pulp. II. Plastics which cannot be softened by heating are called thermoplastics. III. Nylon is semi-synthetic fibre. IV. Plastics which get deformed easily on heating are known as thermosetting plastics. A. I and III B. I, II and III C. II, III and IV D. All of these 31. A compound, PQ2 has the following arrangement of electrons : ××
Q
××
×
P
×
××
Q
××
××
××
On the basis of given data, the correct order of efficiency of different fuels is A. LPG > CNG > Diesel > Coal B. Coal > Diesel > LPG > CNG C. Diesel > CNG > Coal > LPG D. CNG > LPG > Diesel > Coal
Property Boiling point (°C) Solubility in Substance water 56 Soluble X 45 Insoluble Y 90 Soluble Z
Number of Number of Number of protons neutrons electrons 11 12 10 20 20 20 16 18 18 20 19 18
14 15 18 10 10 10 W is a noble gas. X and Y are cations. U and V are anions. Z is the lightest element while V is the heaviest.
Calorific value (kJ/kg) 25000 – 33000 45000 55000 50000
33. Three students Ankit, Dinesh and Manoj were given three unknown substances X, Y and Z respectively during the lab activity.
29. Study the table carefully and select the correct statement. Element
The elements P and Q are respectively A. N, Cl B. Cl, S C. O, F D. Na, F
On the basis of these properties, which student has chosen the correct separation technique, to separate a substance from the substance‑water mixture? A. Ankit – Separating funnel B. Dinesh – Distillation C. Manoj – Fractional distillation D. All are correct.
34. The nucleon number of atom X is 37. It exists as a diatomic molecule, X 2 . One molecule of X 2 contains 34 protons. How many neutrons are present in the nucleus of atom X? A. 17 B. 20 C. 21 D. 25 35. Ritu is studying about four epithelial tissues of the human body which primarily help in the following functions : I. Gas exchange II. Gamete formation III. Movement of mucus IV. Protection of underlying parts against abrasion The given epithelial tissues respectively are ____.
A.
Simple cuboidal epithelium, simple ciliated epithelium, simple squamous epithelium, white fibrous tissue
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17th NSO - SET A
B.
C.
D.
6
Simple ciliated epithelium, simple cuboidal epithelium, simple squamous epithelium, stratified squamous epithelium Simple squamous epithelium, simple cuboidal epithelium, simple ciliated epithelium, stratified squamous epithelium Stratified transitional epithelium, simple ciliated epithelium, simple squamous epithelium, white fibrous tissue
38. A group of students would like to know how the effluent from a factory might influence water quality of a river. The given diagram shows seven potential sampling locations (1 to 7) along the factory and the river. In order to draw a valid conclusion about the river water pollution caused by the factory discharge, which locations (1 to 7) shall be included for the sampling?
36. Refer to the given key for the identification of the animal phyla from I to VIII and select the correct option.
I. Mammalia II. Aves III. Arthropoda IV. Echinodermata V. Annelida VI. Mollusca VII. Reptilia VIII. Amphibia P Q R S T U V A. II I VI IV VII V VIII B. I II VIII VII III IV VI C. I II VIII VII IV V III D. II I VII VIII V III VI
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.
Locations Locations Locations Locations
2, 1, 2, 1,
3, 2, 5, 2,
4, 4, 6, 5,
6 7 7 7
39. The given diagram shows a cell placed in a concentrated solution. What would happen when the cell is taken out from the concentrated solution and is placed in freshwater for a long time? W III V VI IV
37. Following are some characteristics of the three divisions of Kingdom Plantae : Bryophyta, Thallophyta and Pteridophyta.
A. B. C. D.
Sex organs are multicellular Essentially terrestrial Non vascular Lack true leaves and roots Embryo formed after fertilization Photoautotrophs Examples are Lycopodium, Equisetum, Azolla, Marsilea 8. Sporophyte is parasitic over gametophyte 9. Examples are U lv a, Fu c u s, S a r ga s s u m, Cladophora Select the option which shows the correct characteristics of the respective divisions. Bryophyta Thallophyta Pteridophyta A. 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 8 3, 4, 5, 6, 9 1, 2, 5, 6, 7 B. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 3, 4, 6, 9 1, 2, 5, 6, 7, 8 C. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 8 3, 4, 6, 7 1, 2, 5, 6, 9 D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 8 3, 4, 6, 9 1, 2, 5, 6, 7
I. II. III. IV.
The cell will recover its shape slowly. The cell will shrink first. The cell will burst eventually. Water molecules will diffuse into the cell by osmosis. Select the correct option. A. I and II B. IV only C. I, III and IV D. I, II, III and IV
40. The list given below shows some diseases caused by microorganisms/infectious agents. How many of these diseases are caused by virus? Elephantiasis, Tetanus, Hepatitis-B, Ringworm, Kala-azar, Influenza, Mumps, Typhoid, Dengue, Sleeping sickness
A. C.
3 6
B. D.
4 5
41. Read the given statements. I. Bee wax obtained from beehive is a deposition of the excretory products of honeybee.
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17th NSO - SET A
7
Fish culture is sometimes done in combination with rice crop so that fish are grown in the water accumulated in the paddy field. III. Fish feed in different zones of the pond in order to make the most efficient use of the available food. IV. Sahiwal and Murrah are exotic breeds used extensively in cattle farming. V. Inter-cropping is growing two or more crops simultaneously on the same field in a definite pattern. Which of the given statements are incorrect?
A. C.
II.
I, II and III I and IV
B. D.
Column-I (National Park) Bandipur National Park Dachigam National Park Corbett National Park Dudhwa National Park Gir National Park Kanha National Park Kaziranga National Park
b IV I IV II
c III IV III I
d V III V VII
e VII II VII V
f II VII VI IV
Column-II (State) I. Karnataka II. Madhya Pradesh III. Uttarakhand IV. Jammu & Kashmir V. Uttar Pradesh VI. Assam VII. Gujarat
g VI VI II VI I
Q
P II
S R
43. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below : a. b. c. d. e. f. g.
a I V I III
44.
II, III and IV I and V
42. Weeds are the unwanted plants, which grow along with the crops and share nutrients, water and sunlight with the crops. Removal of these weeds can be done either by handpicking or with the help of chemicals. Which one of the following chemicals given below is a weedicide? A. 2, 4-D B. CH4 C. BHC D. C2H4
A. B. C. D.
III
Figure Y Figure X Figure X shows the female reproductive system and figure Y shows the development of a fertilized egg cell. In which labelled parts of the female reproductive system will the stages I, II and III occur? I II III A. S P P B. S Q P C. S Q Q D. S Q R
45. Which of the following statements is the drawback of the green revolution? A. Excessive use of chemical fertilizers, pesticides, etc. resulted in air, soil and water pollution. B. More requirement of water by high-yielding crops resulted in the depletion of underground water resources. C. Use of agrochemicals was an expensive measure for Indian farmers. D. All of these
Achievers Section 46. The speed-time graph for the motion of a motorcycle is shown here. What is the average speed over 12 s interval? –1 v (m s )
A. B.
4.38 m s
–1
5.58 m s
–1
9
C.
1.75 m s–1
D.
3.17 m s–1
3 2 0
5
9
12
t(s)
47. When an ideal simple pendulum oscillates between the extreme points P and Q, there is continuous (i) of potential energy and kinetic energy. The potential energy depends on the choice of (ii) . Force acting on the bob of the pendulum is maximum at (iii) , and minimum at (iv) .
A. B. C. D.
(i) Dissipation Dissipation Exchange Exchange
(ii) reference level mass reference level velocity
(iii) mid point mid point extremes extremes
(iv) extremes extremes mid point mid point
48. Given figure shows the effects of pressure and temperature on the changes among three states of matter. 1 2
3 4
Select the correct statements.
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17th NSO - SET A
8
I.
Change 1 is carried out under high temperature and low pressure. II. Change 4 is carried out under low temperature and high pressure. III. Change 2 is carried out under low temperature and high pressure. IV. Change 3 is carried out under low temperature and high pressure. A. II and III B. I and II C. I, II and IV D. I, II and III
49. A scientist was studying the production of a protein, that was released by an animal cell into a culture medium. She found that the protein only appeared in the culture medium after she added a few drops of a hormone to the cell. Before adding the hormone, she labelled the protein inside the cell with a fluorescent dye and looked at the cell under the light microscope: the dye was seen in flattened sheets and tube-like structures throughout the cell, and in stacks of flattened sac-like structures. After adding the hormone, the dye was also seen as small dots clustered against the cell membrane. Which statement most likely explains these observations?
A.
B.
The hormone stimulates protein synthesis in the cell vacuole; the protein is then passed to the Golgi apparatus, and eventually passes through the cell membrane by passive diffusion. The hormone triggers the synthesis of the protein in the endoplasmic reticulum which is then secreted outside the cell via channel proteins in the cell membrane.
C.
D.
The protein is made in the endoplasmic reticulum, which is next passed to the Golgi apparatus, and then secreted through hormone-stimulated exocytosis. The protein is made in the Golgi apparatus, which is then passed to the endoplasmic reticulum, and finally secreted through hormone-stimulated pinocytosis.
50. The given diagram shows nitrogen cycle in the ecosystem. P, Q, R, S and T represent different chemical conversion steps in the cycle.
Which process (P–T) is correctly paired with the organismal group performing that step? I. P – Photoautotrophs II. Q – Bacteria symbiotic with plants III. R – Anaerobic bacteria living in conditions, such as wetland ecosystem IV. S – Nitrosomonas bacteria V. T – Nitrogen fixing bacteria, such as Rhizobium or cyanobacteria A. III, IV and V B. IV and V C. I, II and IV D. III and IV
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
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Class 9 17th
SET B Year 2014
Copyright©2015. Science Olympiad Foundation (SOF)
17th NSO - SET B
2
Logical reasoning 1.
Find the missing term in the given series. 375 435
165, 195, 255, 285, 345, ? B. 420 D. 390
A. C.
2.
Find the water image of the given word.
7.
Read the following information and answer the question that follows :
I.
A. B. C. D.
3.
In the given number series, how many 4s are there which are immediately preceded by a pair of numbers whose product is more than the product of the pair of numbers immediately following 4?
INFORMA
T
IONS
7 3 4 2 3 4 3 2 2 4 4 6 8 9 4 7 3 4 2 4 6 4 5 4 3 2 4 4 5 2
A. C.
4.
In an organisation of pollution control board, engineers are represented by a circle, legal experts by a square, environmentalists by a triangle and doctors by rectangle. Which number shows Environmentalists with engineering background who are not doctors?
4 6
B. D.
8.
A sheet of paper is folded in a particular manner as shown in X, Y and Z and a punch is made. Select a figure amongst the options, that would most closely resemble the unfolded form of paper.
A.
C.
9.
Select a figure from the options which will continue the same series as established by the five problem figures. Problem Figures
5 2
A.
2
B.
3
C.
4
D.
7
5.
If WORK is coded as 4 – 12 – 9 – 16, then how will you code WOMAN?
A. B. C. D.
6.
A set of figures carrying certain characters, is given. Assuming that the characters in each figure follow the same pattern, find the missing character.
2 1
4
6
3
7
5
4 – 12 – 14 – 26 – 13 4 – 12 – 13 – 26 – 14 4 – 12 – 11 – 26 – 13 23 – 15 – 13 – 1 – 14
B.
D.
?
A.
B.
C.
D.
10. There are 30 days in a month and 1st day of this month is Monday. If each even date on Monday and each Sunday is a holiday, then how many working days are there in the month?
Six men B, D, C, M, J and K are split in two groups of three each and are made to stand in two rows, such that a man in one row is exactly facing a man in the other row. II. M is not at the ends of any row and is to the right of J, who is facing C. K is to the left of D, who is facing M. Who is to the immediate left of B? A. M B. D C. J D. Data inadequate
A. C.
210 70
B. D.
450 150
A. C.
23 24
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B. D.
22 21
17th NSO - SET B
3
11. Select a figure from the options, which when placed in the blank space of figure (X) would complete the pattern.
A.
A.
40
B.
42
C.
45
D.
None of these
14. Which of the following figures will complete the given figure matrix?
B.
A.
B.
C.
D.
C.
D.
12. Study the information given below and answer the following question. Himani, Saurabh and Ritesh are children of Mr. and Mrs. Aggarwal. Riya, Rajat and Samay are children of Mr. and Mrs. Bansal. Samay and Himani are married and Ashu and Jay are their children. Gauri and Raj are children of Mr. and Mrs. Jain. Gauri is married to Ritesh and has three children named Rita, Sonu and Raju. How is Raj related to Rita?
13. How many triangles are there in the given figure?
A. C.
Brother Grand father
B. D.
Cousin Maternal uncle
15. Abhijit's house is to the right of Baljit's house at a distance of 20 metres in the row facing North. Sanjay's house is in the North-East direction from Baljit's house at a distance of 25 m. Abhijit's house is in which direction with respect to Sanjay's house?
A. C.
North West
B. D.
East Data inadequate
C.
D.
The air particles apply a higher force on surface A than surface B. The air particles apply a higher force on surface B than surface A.
Science 16. A metal sphere of mass 12 kg has the same diameter as another sphere of mass 4 kg. Both spheres are dropped simultaneously from a tower. When they are 8 m above the ground, they have the same _____. (Neglect air resistance.)
A. C.
Kinetic energy Momentum
B. D.
Potential energy Acceleration
Surface A 17. A sealed container is filled with air. The uniform cross-sectional area of the container is shown in Surface B the given figure. Which of the following statements is true?
A.
Air pressure acting on surface A is higher than the air pressure acting on surface B.
B.
Air pressure acting on surface B is higher than the air pressure acting on surface A.
18. Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement 1 : T he value of dynamic friction is less than the limiting friction. Statement 2 : O nce the motion has started, the inertia of rest has been overcome. A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. C. Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false. D. Both statements 1 and 2 are false.
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17th NSO - SET B
4
19. A stone is thrown upwards from a point at the edge of a cliff. After the stone has reached its maximum height, it falls past the cliff edge to the beach, as shown in the given figure. The initial vertical component of the velocity of the stone is 10 m s–1. The time taken between the stone passing the edge of the cliff on its way down and hitting the beach is 1.2 s. Ignoring air resistance, find the height of the cliff.
A. C.
5 m 12 m
B. D.
7m 19 m
20. Ultrasound is emitted from a ship directly downwards into water. The diagram below shows the time duration for ultrasound to return to the receiver on the ship as the ship travels from point X to point Y along the surface of the water. At which position is the water deepest?
A.
S
B.
R
C.
Q
D.
P rd
liquid in g cm–3 is ______.
4 3
A.
B.
C.
D.
B.
5 3
C.
6 3
D.
8 3
25. A body thrown vertically up with a velocity u reaches the maximum height h after T second. Which of the following statements is correct?
A.
B.
C.
D.
He will take a longer time to reach the top and a longer time to come down as compared to jumping on the Earth He will take a longer time to reach the top and a shorter time to come down as compared to jumping on the Earth He will take a shorter time to reach the top and a longer time to come down as compared to jumping on the Earth He will take a shorter time to reach the top and a shorter time to come down as compared to jumping on the Earth
At a height h/2 from the ground its velocity is u/2. At a time T its velocity is u. At a time 2T its velocity is –u. At a time 2T its velocity is – 6u.
A. B. C. D.
26. The freezing and boiling points of a substance ‘P’ are –220°C and –185°C respectively. At which of the following range of temperatures will ‘P’ exist as a liquid? A. Between –175°C and –210°C B. Between –190°C and –225°C C. Between –200°C and –160°C D. Between –195°C and –215°C 27. Observe the following diagrams carefully.
22. The acceleration due to gravity of the Earth and the Moon are 10 m s–2 and 1.7 m s–2 respectively. When an astronaut jumps on the Moon, then ______.
The image of a virtual object is called a virtual image. If the reflected rays are converging, we get a real image. If the incident rays are converging, we get a real object. If the image is virtual, the corresponding object is called a virtual object.
24. A box originally at rest, slides down from point S to point T as shown. Assuming that the S 1 slope is frictionless, at which point 2 does the box have 3 about 25% of its maximum kinetic 4 energy? T A. 4 B. 2 C. 3 D. 1
1 21. When a body floats in water 3 of its volume th 3 remains outside, whereas of its volume remains 4 outside when it floats in a liquid. The density of the
A.
23. Which of the following statements is true?
R
T
I
II
IV
Salt solution of P
Salt solution of S
III
K
Q
Salt solution of P
Q
V
Salt solution of T
Salt solution of S K
VI
Salt solution of R
If reaction occurs only in beakers I, III and VI, then which of the following statements is correct? A. S is less reactive than P but more reactive than T. B. R and S are more reactive than Q. C. T and R are less reactive than K. D. Q is more reactive than R but less reactive than P.
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17th NSO - SET B
5
A. C.
28 72
B. D.
44 99
30. Read the following statements carefully and identify X, Y and Z.
X : Hard as stones, used to cook food and to produce electricity in thermal power plants Y : A petroleum product, used in place of coal tar for metalling the roads Z : A pure form of carbon, used in the manufacture of steel and in the extraction of many metals X Y Z A. Coal Bitumen Coke B. Coal tar Coal Paraffin wax C. Coal tar Diesel Coke D. Coke Bitumen Coal
31. Mr. Verma while watching TV suddenly came across an accident as shown below.
Solvent front
×
×
×
×
×
×
Rakesh
Amit
Deepak
Tarun
Start line
Insulin
29. An ionic compound of element M and chlorine has the formula MCl3. The molecular mass of MCl3 is 118.5. What is the molecular mass of the oxide of element M ? (Given : atomic masses of O = 16 u and Cl = 35.5 u)
32. Use of drugs like ephedrine and insulin by athletes is banned. Rakesh, Amit, Deepak and Tarun were asked by a trainer to give their urine samples for the tests. Chromatogram of their urine samples and drugs is shown below :
Ephedrine
28. Some statements about the Rutherford’s a-particle scattering experiment are given : I. As most of the a-particles passed through the gold foil without getting deflected, the positive charge of the atom occupies the entire space. II. As very few particles were deflected from their path, very little space inside the atom is empty. III. As a very small fraction of a-particles were deflected by 180°, all the positive charge and mass of the gold atom were concentrated in a very small volume within the atom. Select the correct statement(s). A. I and II B. I and III C. II and III D. III only
Study the given chromatogram carefully and choose the incorrect statement among the following. A. Deepak used both the drugs. B. Rakesh and Deepak used insulin. C. Rakesh used ephedrine. D. Amit and Tarun did not use any of the given drugs.
33. Match column-I with column-II and choose the correct option using the codes given below. (a) (b) (c) (d) A. B. C. D.
Column-I Column-II Terylene (i) Rayon Bakelite (ii) Thermoplastic PVC (iii) Polyester Artificial silk (iv) Thermosetting (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
34. Maximum number of molecules are present in ____.
4.9 × 10–3 mg of H2SO4 4 × 1023 molecules of SO2 10 g of N2 1.5 moles of NH3
A. B. C. D.
35. The diagram shows five different structures that can be observed in cells.
In the above situation, what should Mr. Verma do? A. He should pour water on the fire. B. He should use oil to cut off the supply of air. C. He should use CO2 extinguisher on fire. D. He should use LPG to control fire.
1
2
3
4
5
Which structures would be present in large quantities in lipid synthesizing cells?
A. C.
1, 2, 4 and 5 2, 3 and 5
Copyright©2015. Science Olympiad Foundation (SOF)
B. D.
1, 3 and 4 3, 4 and 5
17th NSO - SET B
6
36. Raman set up an experiment as shown here and kept it at 30° C. Normal water
Starch solution and amylase
A.
Site X has the highest content of dissolved oxygen while site Y has the lowest content of dissolved oxygen.
B.
There is a high concentration of nitrogen compounds at site Z.
C.
There are very few fishes found at site Z.
D.
All of these
40. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below. a. b. c. d.
37. Select the correct option regarding the given organisms.
Column-I Bottom feeder (i) Cow breed (ii) Buffalo breed (iii) Surface feeder (iv) (v) (vi) (vii) a
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Mice
Bees
D.
Bees
C.
B.
Mice
Cats
A.
Number
D.
Cats
C.
B.
Number
(v), (vii) (vii) (iii), (vii) (vii)
If male cats are removed from the given ecosystem, then which of these figures would show the new composition of the same ecosystem after a gap of 3 years? Plants
A.
(i), (iv) (iv) (iv) (i), (iv)
Plants
41. In an ecosystem, four major interdependent components were in the given proportions.
Bees
38. Which of these epithelia is chiefly involved in function like diffusion and thereby is found in the wall of blood vessels and air sacs of the lungs?
(ii) (iii), (vi) (i), (ii), (vi) (ii), (vi)
Bees
C. D.
(iii), (vi) (i), (ii), (v) (v) (iii), (v)
Cats
Organisms (i), (ii) and (v) show tissue level of body organisation. Organisms (i), (iv) and (v) are triploblastic animals. Organisms (iii), (iv) and (v) all are eucoelomates. Organisms (i), (iii), (iv) and (v) possess notochord in some stage of their life .
A. B. C. D.
Mice
B.
(v)
d
Cats
(iv)
Mice
A.
(iii)
c
Number
(ii)
b
Number
(i)
Column-II Surti Tharparkar Common carp Murrah Mrigal Red sindhi Catla
Plants
Plants
The water in the beaker contained reducing sugars. (ii) The reducing sugars passed into the beaker by diffusion. (iii) The water in the beaker contained no starch. (iv) The partially permeable membrane of visking tube prevented passage of starch into the beaker. (v) Reducing sugars were formed in the visking tube. Which of these observations is/are incorrect? A. (iv) and (v) B. (iii) only C. (v) only D. None of these
Plants
(i)
Which of these statements holds true regarding the given diagram?
Bees
Cats
After four hours, he wrote down his observations as follows :
Mice
Number
Visking tube
39. The diagram given below shows a river and its surrounding area.
17th NSO - SET B
7
42. Identify the given organisms shown in the figure.
Y X Which of the following statements is/are correct about X and Y? (i) X is Anopheles while Y is Culex. (ii) X spreads filariasis while Y spreads malaria. (iii) The female Y is the vector of malaria. (iv) The male Y is the vector of filariasis. (v) X is host for a protozoan and Y is a host for a nematode. A. (ii) and (iii) B. (ii) and (v) C. (ii) only D. (i), (iii) and (iv)
43. Mohit was asked to draw a diagram of sclerenchyma as seen in longitudinal section and label it. His figure is as shown. Find out the mistake he has made in the diagram. Simple pit pair Lignified thick wall
Lumen
A. B. C. D.
The pit pair is bordered not simple. The cell walls are not lignified in sclerenchyma. The nucleus and cytoplasm are not shown. It is a transverse section and not the longitudinal section.
44. Refer to the given figure and identify the labelled connective tissues X and Y.
A. B. C. D.
X X X X
X Muscle
Bone
- Cartilage; Y - Tendon - Tendon; Y - Ligament - Ligament ; Y - Tendon - Ligament; Y - Cartilage
Y
45. Read the following statements regarding female reproductive system and select the correct option.
(i)
If the ovum released from the ovaries is not fertilized, then it is shed alongwith blood during menstruation. (ii) Menopause occurs in the females at an age of 45–50 years. (iii) Vagina of female reproductive system is primary sex organ. (iv) Development of breasts in females is the accessory sex character.
A.
Statements (i), (ii) and (iii) are true; while statement (iv) is false.
B.
Statements (i), (ii) and (iv) are true; while statement (iii) is false.
C.
Statements (ii), (iii) and (iv) are true; while statement (i) is false.
D.
Statements (i) and (ii) are true; while statements (iii) and (iv) are false.
Achievers Section 46. An object of mass 20 kg moves along a straight line on a smooth horizontal surface. A force F acts on the object in its direction of motion. A graph of force against time is shown here. What is the velocity of the object at t = 6 s if its velocity at t = 4 s is 4 m s–1? F(N) A. B. C. D.
3.5 4.5 5.3 6.2
m m m m
s–1 s–1 s–1 s–1
20 0
3
6
Increasing length
48. Four strips of fresh potato P, Q, R and S were immersed in solutions of different concentrations. Osmosis occurred according to the concentration difference between cell sap and ambient solution. A graph was plotted between initial length of strips and the change in length after osmosis.
t(s)
47. Fill in the blanks : The (i) of a sound is determined by its (ii) . The (iii) of the sound wave depends upon the force with which an object is made to vibrate. A sound of (iv) frequency is called a (v) . A. B. C. D.
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) Amplitude Loudness Loudness Double Note Loudness Amplitude Amplitude Single Tone Loudness Amplitude Amplitude Double Tone Amplitude Loudness Loudness Single Note
5 4 3 2 1
Decreasing length
Initial length
–1 –2 –3 –4 –5
R 0
Q 60 P 65
70
75
S
80
Which of these strips was placed in the most diluted solution?
A. C.
S R
Copyright©2015. Science Olympiad Foundation (SOF)
B. D.
Q P
17th NSO - SET B
8
49. The solubility of two substances, X and Y at 35°C and 75°C is given in the table. Temperature (°C)
Maximum amount (g) that can dissolve in 100 g of water Substance X Substance Y
35 75
30 70
X
Solution M
200 g of water at 75°C
Y
Aim is to minimise risk of Aim is to increase crop failure productivity per unit area
40 50
Seeds of component crops Seeds of component are mixed before sowing crops are not mixed
Two solutions, M and N are shown below : 100 g of X
50. A comparison between two cropping patterns X and Y is given below. What are X and Y?
80 g of Y
Sowing is not done in Sowing is done in rows rows in a precise pattern
Solution N
If the temperature of solutions M and N is dropped to 35°C, then amount of X and Y crystallized out will be ______. A. 40 g, 30 g B. 25 g, 80 g C. 40 g, 0 g D. 80 g, 55 g
A. B. C. D.
X X X X
-
Mixed cropping; Y - Inter-cropping Inter-cropping; Y - Crop rotation Mixed cropping; Y - Crop rotation Inter-cropping; Y - Mixed cropping
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
Copyright©2015. Science Olympiad Foundation (SOF)
ANSWER KEYS 13 TH NSO 1. (A)
2. (A)
3. (C)
4. (B)
5. (C)
6. (D)
7. (C)
8. (B)
9.
(B)
10. (A)
11. (C)
12. (B)
13. (A)
14. (A)
15. (C)
16. (A)
17. (A)
18. (D)
19. (B)
20. (C)
21. (A)
22. (A)
23. (A)
24. (B)
25. (A)
26. (A)
27. (A)
28. (C)
29. (C)
30. (D)
31. (D)
32. (B)
33. (D)
34. (C)
35. (C)
36. (C)
37. (D)
38. (D)
39. (D)
40. (B)
41. (D)
42. (D)
43. (B)
44. (D)
45. (D)
46. (A)
47. (B)
48. (C)
49. (A)
50. (A)
7.
8.
9.
14 TH NSO 1.
(A)
10.
(B)
11. (C)
(C)
2.
12. (B)
(C)
13. (D)
3.
(C)
4.
14. (A)
(A)
5.
15. (B)
(D)
16. (C)
6.
(C)
17. (B)
(B)
18. (A)
(D)
19. (C)
20.
(C)
21. (C)
22. (B)
23. (B)
24. (C)
25. (A)
26. (C)
27. (B)
28. (A)
29. (B)
30.
(C)
31. (D)
32. (C)
33. (B)
34. (A)
35. (B)
36. (A)
37. (B)
38. (D)
39. (A)
40.
(C)
41. (B)
42. (D)
43. (D)
44. (A)
45. (B)
46. (C)
47. (A)
48. (C)
49. (A)
50.
(D)
7.
8.
9.
10.
(A)
15 TH NSO SET A 1.
(B)
2.
(C)
3.
(D)
4.
(D)
5.
(B)
6.
(B)
(B)
(C)
(C)
11. (B)
12. (B)
13. (B)
14. (D)
15. (B)
16. (B)
17. (B)
18. (A)
19. (C)
20.
(D)
21. (A)
22. (D)
23. (B)
24. (A)
25. (A)
26. (A)
27. (B)
28. (C)
29. (A)
30.
(B)
31. (C)
32. (C)
33. (C)
34. (B)
35. (A)
36. (B)
37. (A)
38. (B)
39. (D)
40.
(D)
41. (D)
42. (C)
43. (B)
44. (A)
45. (D)
46. (A)
47. (B)
48. (A)
49. (D)
50.
(B)
7.
8.
9.
SET B 1.
(D)
2.
(C)
11. (B)
12. (A)
21. (B) 31. (C) 41. (B)
3.
(D)
4.
(C)
5.
(C)
(B)
10.
(A)
16. (C)
17. (A)
18. (B)
19. (D)
20.
(A)
25. (C)
26. (A)
27. (D)
28. (C)
29. (B)
30.
(A)
35. (A)
36. (A)
37. (C)
38. (D)
39. (A)
40.
(B)
46. (B)
47. (D)
48. (A)
49. (A)
50.
(D)
7.
8.
9.
(B)
10.
(A)
13. (D)
14. (B)
15. (B)
22. (C)
23. (B)
24. (C)
32. (A)
33. (D)
34. (B)
42. (B)
43. (D)
44. (C)
45. (D)
6.
(D)
(B)
(C)
16 TH NSO SET A 1.
(B)
2.
(B)
3.
(B)
4.
(D)
5.
(A)
6.
(D)
(D)
(D)
11. (B)
12. (D)
13. (D)
14. (A)
15. (D)
16. (B)
17. (D)
18. (C)
19. (A)
20.
(C)
21. (C)
22. (C)
23. (A)
24. (A)
25. (B)
26. (C)
27. (B)
28. (B)
29. (C)
30.
(A)
31. (C)
32. (D)
33. (D)
34. (B)
35. (B)
36. (A)
37. (D)
38. (D)
39. (B)
40.
(C)
41. (B)
42. (B)
43. (D)
44. (A)
45. (B)
46. (B)
47. (D)
48. (B)
49. (B)
50.
(A)
7.
8.
9.
SET B 1.
(A)
10.
(A)
11. (D)
(D)
2.
12. (A)
(D)
13. (B)
3.
(D)
14. (C)
4.
(A)
5.
15. (D)
(C)
6.
16. (A)
(C)
17. (D)
(D)
18. (C)
(C)
19. (A)
20.
(A)
21. (B)
22. (B)
23. (B)
24. (B)
25. (C)
26. (C)
27. (B)
28. (C)
29. (B)
30.
(B)
31. (D)
32. (D)
33. (B)
34. (D)
35. (A)
36. (A)
37. (A)
38. (C)
39. (D)
40.
(C)
41. (A)
42. (A)
43. (C)
44. (C)
45. (B)
46. (C)
47. (B)
48. (B)
49. (A)
50.
(A)
Copyright©2015. Science Olympiad Foundation (SOF)
17 TH NSO SET A 1. (B)
2. (B)
3. (B)
4. (B)
5. (D)
6. (C)
7. (D)
8. (C)
9.
(D)
10. (B)
11. (C)
12. (D)
13. (B)
14. (B)
15. (C)
16. (A)
17. (B)
18. (D)
19. (B)
20. (A)
21. (B)
22. (B)
23. (A)
24. (B)
25. (A)
26. (C)
27. (A)
28. (D)
29. (D)
30. (D)
31. (C)
32. (A)
33. (C)
34. (B)
35. (C)
36. (D)
37. (D)
38. (D)
39. (C)
40. (B)
41. (C)
42. (A)
43. (A)
44. (B)
45. (D)
46. (D)
47. (C)
48. (C)
49. (C)
50. (D)
SET B 1. (A)
2. (A)
3. (B)
4. (B)
5. (A)
6. (C)
7. (A)
8. (D)
9.
(B)
10. (C)
11. (D)
12. (D)
13. (D)
14. (B)
15. (D)
16. (D)
17. (C)
18. (A)
19. (D)
20. (C)
21. (D)
22. (A)
23. (B)
24. (D)
25. (C)
26. (D)
27. (D)
28. (D)
29. (C)
30. (A)
31. (C)
32. (B)
33. (A)
34. (D)
35. (C)
36. (D)
37. (C)
38. (D)
39. (D)
40. (D)
41. (A)
42. (A)
43. (D)
44. (B)
45. (B)
46. (B)
47. (B)
48. (C)
49. (C)
50. (A)
Copyright©2015. Science Olympiad Foundation (SOF)