Class 9 NSO 5 Years Book (2014-2018)

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ebook NATIONAL SCIENCE OLYMPIAD

5

Years (2014-2018) Solved Papers

INSTANT

CLASS

9

Copyright © 2019 Science Olympiad Foundation. Printed with the permission of Science Olympiad Foundation. No part

of this publication may be reproduced, transmitted, in any form or by any means, electronic, mechanical, photocopying, recording or otherwise, without the prior permission of the copyright holder. Ownership of an ebook does not give the possessor the ebook copyright. All disputes subject to Delhi jurisdiction only.

Disclaimer : The information provided in this book is to give you the path to success but it does not guarantee 100% success as the strategy is completely dependent on its execution and, it is based on previous years' papers of NSO exam.

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CLASS 9

Contents ÂÂ NSO 2014 - SET A ÂÂ NSO 2014 - SET B ÂÂ NSO 2015 - SET 1 ÂÂ NSO 2015 - SET 2 ÂÂ NSO 2016 - SET A ÂÂ NSO 2016 - SET B ÂÂ NSO 2017 - SET A ÂÂ NSO 2017 - SET B ÂÂ NSO 2018 - SET A ÂÂ NSO 2018 - SET B

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International Mathematics Olympiad

National Science Olympiad

Reasoning

Maths Practice-cumWorkbook

Learning English

Learning Grammar

National Cyber Olympiad

Science Practice-cumWorkbook

Learning Mathematics

International English Olympiad

Learning Computers

Learning & Knowing

International General Knowledge Olympiad

Learning Science

EVS

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Learning Grammar

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Science Practice-cumWorkbook

Learning Mathematics

International English Olympiad

Learning Computers

Learning & Knowing

International General Knowledge Olympiad

Learning Science

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For Classes 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11 & 12 Class 6

11

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12

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Class 10

JEE (Main & Advanced) | NEET | BOARDS | OLYMPIAD | NTSE

FOUNDATION COURSE For Classes 6, 7, 8, 9 & 10

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Class 11

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Class 12

Class 9

Set A Year 2014

17th NSO - SET A

2

logical reasoning 1.

6.

Find the missing term in the given series. 19200, 1920, 240, 40, 10, ? A. C.

2.

1 0

B. D.

5 10

Select a figure from the options, which would replace the (?) to complete the pattern in Figure (X). A.

Select a figure from the options which will continue the same series as established by the four problem figures.

B.

C.

3.

A.

B.

C.

D.

Manager-Tuesday Clerk-Thursday

8.

B. Officer-Wednesday D. Technician-Monday

Find the missing character, if the given matrix follows a certain rule, row-wise or column-wise. A. B. C. D.

5.

7.

Six persons Aman, Beenu, Charu, Disha, Esha and Giya took up a job with an organization in a week from Monday to Saturday. Each of them joined for different posts on different days. The posts were of—clerk, officer, technician, manager, supervisor and sales executive, though not necessarily in the same order. Giya joined as a manager on the first day. Beenu joined as a supervisor but neither on Wednesday nor Friday. Disha joined as a technician on Thursday. Charu joined on Wednesday. Esha joined as a clerk on Tuesday. Aman joined as a sales executive. Which of the following is correctly matched regarding the posts and day of joining? A. C.

4.

D.

V W X Y

A D I

D I P

G N ?

If Saturday falls on fourth day after today which is 6th January, then on what day did 1st December of the previous year fall? A. C.

Sunday Tuesday

B. D.

Wednesday Monday

Find the mirror image of Fig. (X), if the mirror is placed vertically to the left.

A.

B.

C.

D.

Garima and Saurabh are children of Mr. Jindal. Garima marries Amit Goel and Sahil, Sameer and Sanchit are born to them. Sahil is married to the eldest daughter of Mr. and Mrs. Mittal. Kaya is younger to Piya but older than Riya who are the daughters of Mr. and Mrs. Mittal. Latika is Sahil’s daughter. How is Saurabh related to Sanchit? A. C.

9.

Brother-in-law Maternal uncle

B. D.

Uncle Brother

In the sequence given below, in some cases the sum of the two digits which immediately precede the digit ‘3’ exceeds the sum of the two digits which immediately follow the digit 3 and sum of the two digits which immediately follow the digit ‘5’ exceeds the sum of the two digits which immediately precede the digit 5. How many such 3’s and 5’s are there altogether?

17th NSO - SET A

2 5 2 4 A. C.

3

4 3 6 7 5 2 8 3 9 7 5 4 3 4 6 5 2 6 3 5 8 3 5 6 3 7 5 8 3 5 2 6 5 B. 6 7 D. 4

Which bank has its branch in Kanpur and Meerut but not in Lucknow?

10. In a certain code, the word DEAL is coded as 4 – 5 – 1 – 12. Following the same rule of coding, what should be the code for the word LADY? A. 12 – 4 – 1 – 25 B. 12 – 1 – 4 – 25 C. 10 – 1 – 4 – 23 D. 12 – 1 – 4 – 22

13. Find the number of triangles formed in the given figure.

11.

Group the given figures into three classes, using each figure only once.

A. B. C. D.

1, 2, 1, 1,

4, 3, 5, 6,

9; 7; 9; 7;

2, 4, 2, 2,

3, 6, 3, 3,

8; 9; 8; 8;

5, 1, 4, 4,

6, 5, 6, 5,

7 8 7 9

A. C.

A. B. C. D.

P R

B. D.

Q T

33 37 35 None of these

14. If animals that live on land and the animals that live in water are represented by two big circles and animals that live in water and on land are represented by small circle, the combination of these three can be best represented as A.

B.

C.

D.

15. Out of the five figures marked (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T), four are similar in a certain manner. However, one figure is not like the other four. Choose the figure which is different from the rest.

12. P, Q, R, S and T are Banks. Banks P, Q and R have their branches in Meerut and Lucknow. P, Q and T have their branches in Meerut and Gorakhpur. Q, R and S have their branches in Kanpur and Lucknow. P, T and S have their branches in Gorakhpur and Varanasi while R, T and S have their branches at Kanpur and Varanasi.

A. C.

P R

B. D.

Q T

Science 16. A driver takes 0.20 s to apply brakes soon after he sees a need for it. If he is driving a car at a speed of 54 km h–1 and the brakes cause a deceleration of 6.0 m s–2 , then the distance travelled by the car, after he sees the need to apply the brakes is ______. A. C.

21.75 m 10.55 m

B. D.

17. A block accelerates down a slope, as shown in the figure. The upper portion of the slope is smooth and lower portion is rough. On the lower portion, (i)

42.50 m 16.25 m

th

oo

Sm h

ug

Ro

the speed of the block may increase, decrease or remain same.

(ii) the acceleration of block reduces. (iii) the mass of block reduces. Which of the following is/are correct? A. (i) only B. (i) and (ii) only C. (ii) and (iii) only D. (i), (ii) and (iii) 18. An aeroplane pilot hears a slow beat from the two engines of his plane. He increases the speed of the right engine and now hears a slower beat. What should the pilot now do, to eliminate the beat? A. B. C. D.

Increase the speed of the left engine Decrease the speed of the right engine Increase the speed of both engines Increase the speed of the right engine

17th NSO - SET A

19. A lump of ice floats in water as shown in the figure.

4

23. Converging lenses A and B have the same focal length, but B is only half the aperture of A. Both lenses are used to form images of distant objects on a screen. Which of the following statements is correct? A.

Which of the following statements is correct? A. The lump of ice floats because the area of its lower surface is larger than the area of its upper surface. B. The pressure difference between the lower and the upper surfaces of the lump of ice gives rise to an upthrust equal to its weight. C. The ice has a greater density than water. D. The mass of water displaced by ice is equal to the upthrust. 20. At a certain place, value of g is 1% less than its value on the surface of Earth. If the radius of Earth is given to be 6400 km, then the place is ______. A. 64 km below the surface of the Earth B. 64 km above the surface of the Earth C. 30 km above the surface of the Earth D. 32 km below the surface of the Earth. 21. If suddenly the gravitational force of attraction between the Earth and a satellite revolving around it becomes zero, then the satellite will ______. A. Fall onto the Earth B. Move in a direction tangential to its original orbit C. Escape horizontally D. None of these 22. A man of mass 55 kg climbs up a flight of steps to reach the spring board. The spring board is 6 m above the water surface in a swimming pool as shown in the given figure. He jumps up into air, 3 m above the spring board, before falling into water in the swimming pool. If the average resisting force exerted by water on the man is 1500 N, then the maximum depth of the man in water will be A. 2.1 m B. 3.3 m C. 4.2 m D. 5.6 m

B. C. D.

For both lenses, the distance from the lens to the screen is same. For both lenses, the images are of the same brightness. For both lenses, the images are of the same size as the object. Lens B gives a smaller image than A.

24. A plane mirror approaches a stationary person with an acceleration, a. The acceleration of his image, as seen by the person, will be A. C.

a a/2

B. D.

2a 4a

25. Two objects, A and B are thrown upwards simultaneously with the same speed. The mass of A is greater than the mass of B. Suppose the air exerts a constant and equal force of resistance on the two bodies, then A. B. C. D.

A will go higher than B B will go higher than A The two bodies will reach the same height None of these.

26. Four students were given small pieces of materials P, Q, R and S respectively. They observed the reactions of these materials as follows : Reaction with Dilute Material Water hydrochloric acid No reaction but No reaction. P catches fire if exposed to air. Reacts slowly. Burns with a pop Q sound. Reacts vigorously Burns with a pop R with lots of heat. sound. No reaction. No reaction. S According to them, materials P, Q, R and S respectively are A. Fe, Cu, Na, P B. Na, Fe, P, Cu C. P, Fe, Na, Cu D. Cu, P, Na, Fe 27. Read the given statements and mark the correct option. Statement 1 : Food is a fuel for our body. Statement 2 : In our body, food is broken down by reaction with oxygen and heat is produced.

17th NSO - SET A

A. B. C. D.

5

Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. Both statements 1 and 2 are false.

28. Match the Column-I with Column‑II and choose the correct option using the codes given below. Column-I Column-II (Mixture) (Separation technique) a. An ink (i) Distillation b. Liquid air (ii) Evaporation and crystallization c. Copper sulphate and (iii) Fractional distillation water d. Acetone and water (iv) Chromatography A. a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv) B. a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(i), d-(iv) C. a-(iv), b-(i), c-(iii), d-(ii) D. a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(i) 29. Study the table carefully and select the correct statement. Element U V W X Y Z A. B. C. D.

Number of Number of Number of protons neutrons electrons 11 12 10 20 20 20 16 18 18 20 19 18

14 15 18 10 10 10 W is a noble gas. X and Y are cations. U and V are anions. Z is the lightest element while V is the heaviest.

30. Which of the following statements are incorrect? I. Rayon is a natural fibre as it is obtained by chemical treatment of wood pulp. II. Plastics which cannot be softened by heating are called thermoplastics. III. Nylon is semi-synthetic fibre. IV. Plastics which get deformed easily on heating are known as thermosetting plastics. A. I and III B. I, II and III C. II, III and IV D. All of these 31. A compound, PQ2 has the following arrangement of electrons : ××

Q

××



×



P





×

××

Q

××

××

××

The elements P and Q are respectively A. N, Cl B. Cl, S C. O, F D. Na, F 32. The calorific values of some fuels are given. Fuel Coal Diesel LPG CNG

Calorific value (kJ/kg) 25000 – 33000 45000 55000 50000

On the basis of given data, the correct order of efficiency of different fuels is A. LPG > CNG > Diesel > Coal B. Coal > Diesel > LPG > CNG C. Diesel > CNG > Coal > LPG D. CNG > LPG > Diesel > Coal 33. Three students Ankit, Dinesh and Manoj were given three unknown substances X, Y and Z respectively during the lab activity. Property Boiling point (°C) Solubility in Substance water 56 Soluble X 45 Insoluble Y 90 Soluble Z On the basis of these properties, which student has chosen the correct separation technique, to separate a substance from the substance‑water mixture? A. Ankit – Separating funnel B. Dinesh – Distillation C. Manoj – Fractional distillation D. All are correct. 34. The nucleon number of atom X is 37. It exists as a diatomic molecule, X 2 . One molecule of X 2 contains 34 protons. How many neutrons are present in the nucleus of atom X? A. 17 B. 20 C. 21 D. 25 35. Ritu is studying about four epithelial tissues of the human body which primarily help in the following functions : I. Gas exchange II. Gamete formation III. Movement of mucus IV. Protection of underlying parts against abrasion The given epithelial tissues respectively are ____. A.

Simple cuboidal epithelium, simple ciliated epithelium, simple squamous epithelium, white fibrous tissue

17th NSO - SET A

B. C. D.

6

Simple ciliated epithelium, simple cuboidal epithelium, simple squamous epithelium, stratified squamous epithelium Simple squamous epithelium, simple cuboidal epithelium, simple ciliated epithelium, stratified squamous epithelium Stratified transitional epithelium, simple ciliated epithelium, simple squamous epithelium, white fibrous tissue

38. A group of students would like to know how the effluent from a factory might influence water quality of a river. The given diagram shows seven potential sampling locations (1 to 7) along the factory and the river. In order to draw a valid conclusion about the river water pollution caused by the factory discharge, which locations (1 to 7) shall be included for the sampling?

36. Refer to the given key for the identification of the animal phyla from I to VIII and select the correct option.

A. B. C. D. I. III. V. VII. A. B. C. D.

Mammalia II. Aves Arthropoda IV. Echinodermata Annelida VI. Mollusca Reptilia VIII. Amphibia P Q R S T U V II I VI IV VII V VIII I II VIII VII III IV VI I II VIII VII IV V III II I VII VIII V III VI

2, 1, 2, 1,

3, 2, 5, 2,

4, 4, 6, 5,

6 7 7 7

39. The given diagram shows a cell placed in a concentrated solution. What would happen when the cell is taken out from the concentrated solution and is placed in freshwater for a long time? W III V VI IV

37. Following are some characteristics of the three divisions of Kingdom Plantae : Bryophyta, Thallophyta and Pteridophyta. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

Locations Locations Locations Locations

Sex organs are multicellular Essentially terrestrial Non vascular Lack true leaves and roots Embryo formed after fertilization Photoautotrophs Examples are Lycopodium, Equisetum, Azolla, Marsilea 8. Sporophyte is parasitic over gametophyte 9. Examples are U lv a, Fu c u s, S a r ga s s u m, Cladophora Select the option which shows the correct characteristics of the respective divisions. Bryophyta Thallophyta Pteridophyta A. 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 8 3, 4, 5, 6, 9 1, 2, 5, 6, 7 B. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 3, 4, 6, 9 1, 2, 5, 6, 7, 8 C. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 8 3, 4, 6, 7 1, 2, 5, 6, 9 D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 8 3, 4, 6, 9 1, 2, 5, 6, 7

I. II. III. IV.

The cell will recover its shape slowly. The cell will shrink first. The cell will burst eventually. Water molecules will diffuse into the cell by osmosis. Select the correct option. A. I and II B. IV only C. I, III and IV D. I, II, III and IV

40. The list given below shows some diseases caused by microorganisms/infectious agents. How many of these diseases are caused by virus? Elephantiasis, Tetanus, Hepatitis-B, Ringworm, Kala-azar, Influenza, Mumps, Typhoid, Dengue, Sleeping sickness A. C.

3 6

B. D.

4 5

41. Read the given statements. I. Bee wax obtained from beehive is a deposition of the excretory products of honeybee.

17th NSO - SET A

7

II.

Fish culture is sometimes done in combination with rice crop so that fish are grown in the water accumulated in the paddy field. III. Fish feed in different zones of the pond in order to make the most efficient use of the available food. IV. Sahiwal and Murrah are exotic breeds used extensively in cattle farming. V. Inter-cropping is growing two or more crops simultaneously on the same field in a definite pattern. Which of the given statements are incorrect? A. C.

I, II and III I and IV

B. D.

II, III and IV I and V

43. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below :

a. b. c. d. e. f. g.

a I V I III

b IV I IV II

c III IV III I

d V III V VII

e VII II VII V

f II VII VI IV

Column-II (State) I. Karnataka II. Madhya Pradesh III. Uttarakhand IV. Jammu & Kashmir V. Uttar Pradesh VI. Assam VII. Gujarat

g VI VI II VI I

44. Q

P II

S R

42. Weeds are the unwanted plants, which grow along with the crops and share nutrients, water and sunlight with the crops. Removal of these weeds can be done either by handpicking or with the help of chemicals. Which one of the following chemicals given below is a weedicide? A. 2, 4-D B. CH4 C. BHC D. C2H4

Column-I (National Park) Bandipur National Park Dachigam National Park Corbett National Park Dudhwa National Park Gir National Park Kanha National Park Kaziranga National Park

A. B. C. D.

III

Figure Y Figure X Figure X shows the female reproductive system and figure Y shows the development of a fertilized egg cell. In which labelled parts of the female reproductive system will the stages I, II and III occur? I II III A. S P P B. S Q P C. S Q Q D. S Q R 45. Which of the following statements is the drawback of the green revolution? A. Excessive use of chemical fertilizers, pesticides, etc. resulted in air, soil and water pollution. B. More requirement of water by high-yielding crops resulted in the depletion of underground water resources. C. Use of agrochemicals was an expensive measure for Indian farmers. D. All of these

Achievers Section 46. The speed-time graph for the motion of a motorcycle is shown here. What is the average speed over 12 s interval? –1 v (m s )

A. B.

4.38 m s

–1

5.58 m s

–1

9

C.

1.75 m s–1

D.

3.17 m s–1

3 2 0

5

9

12

t(s)

47. When an ideal simple pendulum oscillates between the extreme points P and Q, there is continuous (i) of potential energy and kinetic energy. The potential energy depends on the choice of (ii) . Force acting on the bob of the pendulum is maximum at (iii) , and minimum at (iv) .

A. B. C. D.

(i) Dissipation Dissipation Exchange Exchange

(ii) reference level mass reference level velocity

(iii) mid point mid point extremes extremes

(iv) extremes extremes mid point mid point

48. Given figure shows the effects of pressure and temperature on the changes among three states of matter. 1 2

3 4

Select the correct statements.

17th NSO - SET A

I. II. III. IV. A. C.

8

Change 1 is carried out under high temperature and low pressure. Change 4 is carried out under low temperature and high pressure. Change 2 is carried out under low temperature and high pressure. Change 3 is carried out under low temperature and high pressure. II and III B. I and II I, II and IV D. I, II and III

49. A scientist was studying the production of a protein, that was released by an animal cell into a culture medium. She found that the protein only appeared in the culture medium after she added a few drops of a hormone to the cell. Before adding the hormone, she labelled the protein inside the cell with a fluorescent dye and looked at the cell under the light microscope: the dye was seen in flattened sheets and tube-like structures throughout the cell, and in stacks of flattened sac-like structures. After adding the hormone, the dye was also seen as small dots clustered against the cell membrane. Which statement most likely explains these observations? A.

B.

The hormone stimulates protein synthesis in the cell vacuole; the protein is then passed to the Golgi apparatus, and eventually passes through the cell membrane by passive diffusion. The hormone triggers the synthesis of the protein in the endoplasmic reticulum which is then secreted outside the cell via channel proteins in the cell membrane.

C.

D.

The protein is made in the endoplasmic reticulum, which is next passed to the Golgi apparatus, and then secreted through hormone-stimulated exocytosis. The protein is made in the Golgi apparatus, which is then passed to the endoplasmic reticulum, and finally secreted through hormone-stimulated pinocytosis.

50. The given diagram shows nitrogen cycle in the ecosystem. P, Q, R, S and T represent different chemical conversion steps in the cycle.

Which process (P–T) is correctly paired with the organismal group performing that step? I. P – Photoautotrophs II. Q – Bacteria symbiotic with plants III. R – Anaerobic bacteria living in conditions, such as wetland ecosystem IV. S – Nitrosomonas bacteria V. T – Nitrogen fixing bacteria, such as Rhizobium or cyanobacteria A. III, IV and V B. IV and V C. I, II and IV D. III and IV

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Class 9

Set B Year 2014

17th NSO - SET B

2

Logical reasoning 1.

A. C. 2.

375 435

165, 195, 255, 285, 345, ? B. 420 D. 390

INFORMA

T

Six men B, D, C, M, J and K are split in two groups of three each and are made to stand in two rows, such that a man in one row is exactly facing a man in the other row. II. M is not at the ends of any row and is to the right of J, who is facing C. K is to the left of D, who is facing M. Who is to the immediate left of B? A. M B. D C. J D. Data inadequate

IONS

In the given number series, how many 4s are there which are immediately preceded by a pair of numbers whose product is more than the product of the pair of numbers immediately following 4?

8.

7 3 4 2 3 4 3 2 2 4 4 6 8 9 4 7 3 4 2 4 6 4 5 4 3 2 4 4 5 2 A. C. 4.

5.

B. D.

5 2

In an organisation of pollution control board, engineers are represented by a circle, legal experts by a square, environmentalists by a triangle and doctors by rectangle. Which number shows Environmentalists with engineering background who are not doctors? A.

2

B.

3

C.

4

D.

7

2 1

4

6

3

7

5

If WORK is coded as 4 – 12 – 9 – 16, then how will you code WOMAN? A. B. C. D.

6.

4 6

Read the following information and answer the question that follows : I.

Find the water image of the given word. A. B. C. D.

3.

7.

Find the missing term in the given series.

4 – 12 – 14 – 26 – 13 4 – 12 – 13 – 26 – 14 4 – 12 – 11 – 26 – 13 23 – 15 – 13 – 1 – 14

A set of figures carrying certain characters, is given. Assuming that the characters in each figure follow the same pattern, find the missing character.

9.

A sheet of paper is folded in a particular manner as shown in X, Y and Z and a punch is made. Select a figure amongst the options, that would most closely resemble the unfolded form of paper.

A.

B.

C.

D.

Select a figure from the options which will continue the same series as established by the five problem figures. Problem Figures

? A.

B.

C.

D.

10. There are 30 days in a month and 1st day of this month is Monday. If each even date on Monday and each Sunday is a holiday, then how many working days are there in the month? A. C.

210 70

B. D.

450 150

A. C.

23 24

B. D.

22 21

17th NSO - SET B

11.

3

Select a figure from the options, which when placed in the blank space of figure (X) would complete the pattern.

13. How many triangles are there in the given figure?

A.

A.

40

B.

42

C.

45

D.

None of these

14. Which of the following figures will complete the given figure matrix?

B.

A. C. B. D.

12. Study the information given below and answer the following question. Himani, Saurabh and Ritesh are children of Mr. and Mrs. Aggarwal. Riya, Rajat and Samay are children of Mr. and Mrs. Bansal. Samay and Himani are married and Ashu and Jay are their children. Gauri and Raj are children of Mr. and Mrs. Jain. Gauri is married to Ritesh and has three children named Rita, Sonu and Raju. How is Raj related to Rita? A. C.

Brother Grand father

B. D.

Cousin Maternal uncle

C.

D.

15. Abhijit's house is to the right of Baljit's house at a distance of 20 metres in the row facing North. Sanjay's house is in the North-East direction from Baljit's house at a distance of 25 m. Abhijit's house is in which direction with respect to Sanjay's house? A. C.

North West

B. D.

East Data inadequate

C.

The air particles apply a higher force on surface A than surface B. The air particles apply a higher force on surface B than surface A.

Science 16. A metal sphere of mass 12 kg has the same diameter as another sphere of mass 4 kg. Both spheres are dropped simultaneously from a tower. When they are 8 m above the ground, they have the same _____. (Neglect air resistance.) A. C.

Kinetic energy Momentum

B. D.

Potential energy Acceleration

Surface A 17. A sealed container is filled with air. The uniform cross-sectional area of the container is shown in Surface B the given figure. Which of the following statements is true?

A.

Air pressure acting on surface A is higher than the air pressure acting on surface B.

B.

Air pressure acting on surface B is higher than the air pressure acting on surface A.

D.

18. Read the given statements and select the correct option. Statement 1 : T  he value of dynamic friction is less than the limiting friction. Statement 2 : O nce the motion has started, the inertia of rest has been overcome. A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. C. Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false. D. Both statements 1 and 2 are false.

17th NSO - SET B

4

19. A stone is thrown upwards from a point at the edge of a cliff. After the stone has reached its maximum height, it falls past the cliff edge to the beach, as shown in the given figure. The initial vertical component of the velocity of the stone is 10 m s–1. The time taken between the stone passing the edge of the cliff on its way down and hitting the beach is 1.2 s. Ignoring air resistance, find the height of the cliff. A. C.

5m 12 m

B. D.

7m 19 m

20. Ultrasound is emitted from a ship directly downwards into water. The diagram below shows the time duration for ultrasound to return to the receiver on the ship as the ship travels from point X to point Y along the surface of the water. At which position is the water deepest? A.

S

B.

R

C.

Q

D.

P rd

liquid in g cm–3 is ______. 4 3

A.

The image of a virtual object is called a virtual image. If the reflected rays are converging, we get a real image. If the incident rays are converging, we get a real object. If the image is virtual, the corresponding object is called a virtual object.

B. C. D.

24. A box originally at rest, slides down from point S to point T as shown. Assuming that the S 1 slope is frictionless, at which point 2 does the box have 3 about 25% of its maximum kinetic 4 energy? T A. 4 B. 2 C. 3 D. 1 25. A body thrown vertically up with a velocity u reaches the maximum height h after T second. Which of the following statements is correct? At a height h/2 from the ground its velocity is u/2. At a time T its velocity is u. At a time 2T its velocity is –u. At a time 2T its velocity is – 6u.

A. B. C. D.

1 21. When a body floats in water  3  of its volume   th  3 remains outside, whereas   of its volume remains  4 outside when it floats in a liquid. The density of the

A.

23. Which of the following statements is true?

B.

5 3

C.

6 3

D.

8 3

26. The freezing and boiling points of a substance ‘P’ are –220°C and –185°C respectively. At which of the following range of temperatures will ‘P’ exist as a liquid? A. Between –175°C and –210°C B. Between –190°C and –225°C C. Between –200°C and –160°C D. Between –195°C and –215°C 27. Observe the following diagrams carefully.

22. The acceleration due to gravity of the Earth and the Moon are 10 m s–2 and 1.7 m s–2 respectively. When an astronaut jumps on the Moon, then ______. A.

B.

C.

D.

He will take a longer time to reach the top and a longer time to come down as compared to jumping on the Earth He will take a longer time to reach the top and a shorter time to come down as compared to jumping on the Earth He will take a shorter time to reach the top and a longer time to come down as compared to jumping on the Earth He will take a shorter time to reach the top and a shorter time to come down as compared to jumping on the Earth

R

T

I

Salt solution of P

II

IV

III

K

Q Salt solution of P

Salt solution of S

Q

V

Salt solution of T

Salt solution of S K

VI

Salt solution of R

If reaction occurs only in beakers I, III and VI, then which of the following statements is correct? A. S is less reactive than P but more reactive than T. B. R and S are more reactive than Q. C. T and R are less reactive than K. D. Q is more reactive than R but less reactive than P.

17th NSO - SET B

5

A. C.

28 72

B. D.

44 99

30. Read the following statements carefully and identify X, Y and Z. X : Hard as stones, used to cook food and to produce electricity in thermal power plants Y : A petroleum product, used in place of coal tar for metalling the roads Z : A pure form of carbon, used in the manufacture of steel and in the extraction of many metals X Y Z A. Coal Bitumen Coke B. Coal tar Coal Paraffin wax C. Coal tar Diesel Coke D. Coke Bitumen Coal 31. Mr. Verma while watching TV suddenly came across an accident as shown below.

Solvent front

×

×

×

×

×

×

Rakesh

Amit

Deepak

Tarun

Start line

Insulin

29. An ionic compound of element M and chlorine has the formula MCl3. The molecular mass of MCl3 is 118.5. What is the molecular mass of the oxide of element M ? (Given : atomic masses of O = 16 u and Cl = 35.5 u)

32. Use of drugs like ephedrine and insulin by athletes is banned. Rakesh, Amit, Deepak and Tarun were asked by a trainer to give their urine samples for the tests. Chromatogram of their urine samples and drugs is shown below :

Ephedrine

28. Some statements about the Rutherford’s a-particle scattering experiment are given : I. As most of the a-particles passed through the gold foil without getting deflected, the positive charge of the atom occupies the entire space. II. As very few particles were deflected from their path, very little space inside the atom is empty. III. As a very small fraction of a-particles were deflected by 180°, all the positive charge and mass of the gold atom were concentrated in a very small volume within the atom. Select the correct statement(s). A. I and II B. I and III C. II and III D. III only

Study the given chromatogram carefully and choose the incorrect statement among the following. A. Deepak used both the drugs. B. Rakesh and Deepak used insulin. C. Rakesh used ephedrine. D. Amit and Tarun did not use any of the given drugs. 33. Match column-I with column-II and choose the correct option using the codes given below. (a) (b) (c) (d) A. B. C. D.

Column-I Column-II Terylene (i) Rayon Bakelite (ii) Thermoplastic PVC (iii) Polyester Artificial silk (iv) Thermosetting (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

34. Maximum number of molecules are present in ____. 4.9 × 10–3 mg of H2SO4 4 × 1023 molecules of SO2 10 g of N2 1.5 moles of NH3

A. B. C. D.

35. The diagram shows five different structures that can be observed in cells.

In the above situation, what should Mr. Verma do? A. He should pour water on the fire. B. He should use oil to cut off the supply of air. C. He should use CO2 extinguisher on fire. D. He should use LPG to control fire.

1

2

3

4

5

Which structures would be present in large quantities in lipid synthesizing cells? A. C.

1, 2, 4 and 5 2, 3 and 5

B. D.

1, 3 and 4 3, 4 and 5

17th NSO - SET B

6

36. Raman set up an experiment as shown here and kept it at 30° C. Normal water

39. The diagram given below shows a river and its surrounding area.

Starch solution and amylase

Site X has the highest content of dissolved oxygen while site Y has the lowest content of dissolved oxygen.

B.

There is a high concentration of nitrogen compounds at site Z.

C.

There are very few fishes found at site Z.

D.

All of these

40. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below.

(v), (vii) (vii) (iii), (vii) (vii)

Plants

(i), (iv) (iv) (iv) (i), (iv)

Bees

d

Bees

Plants

Bees

D.

Plants

Mice

C.

B.

Mice

D.

A.

Plants

C.

c

If male cats are removed from the given ecosystem, then which of these figures would show the new composition of the same ecosystem after a gap of 3 years?

Plants

B.

41. In an ecosystem, four major interdependent components were in the given proportions.

Bees

A.

(ii) (iii), (vi) (i), (ii), (vi) (ii), (vi)

Bees

38. Which of these epithelia is chiefly involved in function like diffusion and thereby is found in the wall of blood vessels and air sacs of the lungs?

(iii), (vi) (i), (ii), (v) (v) (iii), (v)

Cats

Organisms (i), (ii) and (v) show tissue level of body organisation. Organisms (i), (iv) and (v) are triploblastic animals. Organisms (iii), (iv) and (v) all are eucoelomates. Organisms (i), (iii), (iv) and (v) possess notochord in some stage of their life .

A. B. C. D.

Mice

(v)

Cats

C. D.

(iv)

Mice

B.

(iii)

Number

A.

(ii)

Number

(i)

b

Cats

a

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (vi) (vii)

Column-II Surti Tharparkar Common carp Murrah Mrigal Red sindhi Catla

Mice

a. b. c. d.

Column-I Bottom feeder Cow breed Buffalo breed Surface feeder

Number

37. Select the correct option regarding the given organisms.

A.

Cats

The water in the beaker contained reducing sugars. (ii) The reducing sugars passed into the beaker by diffusion. (iii) The water in the beaker contained no starch. (iv) The partially permeable membrane of visking tube prevented passage of starch into the beaker. (v) Reducing sugars were formed in the visking tube. Which of these observations is/are incorrect? A. (iv) and (v) B. (iii) only C. (v) only D. None of these

Number

(i)

Which of these statements holds true regarding the given diagram?

Cats

After four hours, he wrote down his observations as follows :

Number

Visking tube

17th NSO - SET B

7

42. Identify the given organisms shown in the figure.

Y X Which of the following statements is/are correct about X and Y? (i) X is Anopheles while Y is Culex. (ii) X spreads filariasis while Y spreads malaria. (iii) The female Y is the vector of malaria. (iv) The male Y is the vector of filariasis. (v) X is host for a protozoan and Y is a host for a nematode. A. (ii) and (iii) B. (ii) and (v) C. (ii) only D. (i), (iii) and (iv) 43. Mohit was asked to draw a diagram of sclerenchyma as seen in longitudinal section and label it. His figure is as shown. Find out the mistake he has made in the diagram. Simple pit pair Lignified thick wall

Lumen

A. B. C. D.

The pit pair is bordered not simple. The cell walls are not lignified in sclerenchyma. The nucleus and cytoplasm are not shown. It is a transverse section and not the longitudinal section.

44. Refer to the given figure and identify the labelled connective tissues X and Y. A. B. C. D.

X X X X

X Muscle

Bone

- Cartilage; Y - Tendon - Tendon; Y - Ligament - Ligament ; Y - Tendon - Ligament; Y - Cartilage

Y

45. Read the following statements regarding female reproductive system and select the correct option. (i)

If the ovum released from the ovaries is not fertilized, then it is shed alongwith blood during menstruation. (ii) Menopause occurs in the females at an age of 45–50 years. (iii) Vagina of female reproductive system is primary sex organ. (iv) Development of breasts in females is the accessory sex character. A.

Statements (i), (ii) and (iii) are true; while statement (iv) is false.

B.

Statements (i), (ii) and (iv) are true; while statement (iii) is false.

C.

Statements (ii), (iii) and (iv) are true; while statement (i) is false.

D.

Statements (i) and (ii) are true; while statements (iii) and (iv) are false.

Achievers Section

3.5 4.5 5.3 6.2

m m m m

s–1 s–1 s–1 s–1

20 0

3

6

t(s)

47. Fill in the blanks : The (i) of a sound is determined by its (ii) . The (iii) of the sound wave depends upon the force with which an object is made to vibrate. A sound of (iv) frequency is called a (v) . A. B. C. D.

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) Amplitude Loudness Loudness Double Note Loudness Amplitude Amplitude Single Tone Loudness Amplitude Amplitude Double Tone Amplitude Loudness Loudness Single Note

Increasing length

A. B. C. D.

48. Four strips of fresh potato P, Q, R and S were immersed in solutions of different concentrations. Osmosis occurred according to the concentration difference between cell sap and ambient solution. A graph was plotted between initial length of strips and the change in length after osmosis. 5 4 3 2 1

Initial length

Decreasing length

46. An object of mass 20 kg moves along a straight line on a smooth horizontal surface. A force F acts on the object in its direction of motion. A graph of force against time is shown here. What is the velocity of the object at t = 6 s if its velocity at t = 4 s is 4 m s–1? F(N)

–1 –2 –3 –4 –5

R 0

Q 60 P 65

70

75

S

80

Which of these strips was placed in the most diluted solution? A. C.

S R

B. D.

Q P

17th NSO - SET B

8

49. The solubility of two substances, X and Y at 35°C and 75°C is given in the table. Temperature (°C)

Maximum amount (g) that can dissolve in 100 g of water Substance X Substance Y

35 75

30 70

40 50

100 g of X Solution M

80 g of Y Solution N

X

Y

Aim is to minimise risk of Aim is to increase crop failure productivity per unit area Seeds of component crops Seeds of component are mixed before sowing crops are not mixed

Two solutions, M and N are shown below : 200 g of water at 75°C

50. A comparison between two cropping patterns X and Y is given below. What are X and Y?

Sowing is not done in Sowing is done in rows rows in a precise pattern

If the temperature of solutions M and N is dropped to 35°C, then amount of X and Y crystallized out will be ______. A. 40 g, 30 g B. 25 g, 80 g C. 40 g, 0 g D. 80 g, 55 g

A. B. C. D.

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

X X X X

-

Mixed cropping; Y - Inter-cropping Inter-cropping; Y - Crop rotation Mixed cropping; Y - Crop rotation Inter-cropping; Y - Mixed cropping

Class 9

Set 1 Year 2015

logical reasoning There are seven figures, the first and last of which are unnumbered and the remaining are numbered as 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. These seven figures form a series. However, one of the five numbered figures does not fit into the series. The number of that figure is the answer.

2.

5 4

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)

A. C.

4 7 M O

2 Q

3 R

1 N

5 2 None of these

5 P

8 U

9 T

6 S

Daughter Wife

B. D.

Sister-in-law Daughter-in-law

Find the missing number, if a certain rule is followed in all the three figures. 8

A. C.

89

127 141

9

10

17

? 17

11

16

B. D.

137 147

147

8

19

8.

J, K, L, M, N, O and P are seven kids playing in the garden. They all are wearing clothes of different colours–black, blue, white, green, pink, yellow and brown. Out of the seven, three are girls. No girl is wearing either black, yellow or brown. M’s sister O is wearing pink, while he is wearing brown. J is wearing blue, while his sister K is not wearing green. N is wearing yellow, while his best friend P is a boy. What colour is P wearing? A. Black B. Blue C. White D. Green

9.

In which of the following figures, Fig. (X) is exactly embedded as one of its part? Fig. (X)

B. D.

B.

A.

B.

C.

D.

North-West South-West

Which of the following figures satisfies the same condition of placement of the dots as in Fig. (X)?

A.

7.

0 L

45 44 47 None of these

North-East South-East

Introducing a woman, Shashank said, “She is the mother of the daughter of my son”. How is the woman related to Shashank? A. C.

If the first and the last digits of the number are odd, then each of those odd digits is to be coded as X. If the first digit of a number is even, then it will be coded as Y. If the only first digit of a number is odd, then it will be coded as Z. If 5 or 8 is neither the first digit nor the last digit of the number, then each of them will be coded as W. If the first and the last digits of the numbers are even, then each of those even digits is to be coded as V. 51536079 XNWRSLOX B. XNPRSLOX WNWRSLOX D. XNPRSLOT

Fig. (X)

2

4

If South-East becomes North, North-East becomes West and so on, then what will West becomes? A. C.

5.

B. D.

Find the number of triangles in the given figure. A. B. C. D.

4.

3

2

The given numbers are to be coded with the following conditions : Digits Letters

3.

1

6.

D.

10. Select the water-image of the given combination of numbers and letters. GR 98AP76 E S GR 98AP7 E S A. G 98AP7 E S B. GR 98AP76 E S C. GR98 P76ES A D. R

A. C.

C.

6 6

1.

| 18th NSO | Class-9 | Set-1 | Level 1

Science 11. A boy moving with constant acceleration from A to B in the straight line AB has velocities vA and vB at A and B respectively. Time taken by the boy to move from A to C is twice of that from C to B, where C is the mid-point of AB. The ratio of vA to vB is A. C.

1 : 2 1 : 5

B. D.

1:3 1:7

12. Two bodies of masses m1 and m2 are dropped from heights h1 and h2 respectively. On reaching the ground, they acquire equal momenta. If h1 > h 2 , the ratio of kinetic energy of m1 to that of m 2 on reaching the ground will be A. C.

Equal to 1 Less than 1

B. D.

13. The diagram shows a jar with the dimensions as shown. It contains a liquid of mass 3 kg and density 600 kg m–3. The pressure exerted by the liquid on the base of the jar is (Take g = 10 m s–2)

A. C.

1.2 × 103 Pa 1.2 × 105 Pa

B. D.

Greater than 1 Data is insufficient

A. C.

800% decrease 200% decrease

B. D.

Base area = 0.01 m2

2.4 × 103 Pa 2.4 × 105 Pa

t (s)

A B C D Position of ship

Y



If the speed of sound in water is 1530 m s–1, then the difference in depths of the sea at B and D is



A. C.

153 m 612 m

18th NSO | Class-9 | Set-1 | Level 1 |

B. D.



B.



C. D.

Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true. Both statements 1 and 2 are false.

17. The diagram shows a car of 800 kg approaching the base of a hill.

It moves up the hill with a constant speed of 25 m s–1. Neglecting friction, what is the average power required for the car to reach the peak of the hill? (Take g = 10 m s–2)

A. C.

10 kW 25 kW

306 m 765 m

B. D.

15 kW 30 kW

18. The given figure shows a ray of light directed onto a plane mirror at an angle of 45° initially. The mirror is then rotated by 12° about point O as shown in the figure.

225% increase 125% increase

15. When moving from X to Y, a ship sends pulses of ultrasonic waves continuously to the bottom of the sea. The variation of the time interval t between the emission of a pulse and the reception of its reflection with position is shown in the given graph. 0.8 0.7 0.6 0.5 0.4 0.3 0.2 0.1 X

A.

400 m

14. Two bodies of masses m1 and m2 exert a force F on each other when placed a certain distance d apart. The percentage change in force when the separation between the bodies is decreased by d/3, is



Height = 20 cm



Statement 1 : Work done against friction in moving a body over a closed path is zero. Statement 2 : Work done by a constant force is always zero in a round trip of the point of application of force.

50 m



16. Read the given statements and select the correct option.

45°

12°

O

The new angle of reflection is

A. C.

12° 33°

B. D.

23° 57°

19. A scooterist moving with a speed of 36 km h–1 sees a child standing in the middle of the road. He applies the brakes and brings the scooter to rest in 5 s just in time to save child. If mass of the scooter and driver is 300 kg, the average retarding force on the scooter is

A. C.

6 × 107 g cm s–2 6 × 105 kg cm s–2

B. D.

6 × 104 g m s–2 6 × 103 kg m s–2

20. The tail of a comet points away from the Sun due to

A. B. C. D.

Centrifugal force Electrical repulsion Attraction of comet due to other planets Radiation pressure. 3

21. Which of the following statements are correct? Direction of momentum of a body may or may not be same as the direction of the velocity of the body. (ii) The rate of change of momentum and the force have same units. (iii) Action and reaction act on two different bodies. A. (i) and (ii) only B. (ii) and (iii) only C. (i) and (iii) only D. (i), (ii) and (iii)

Fibres and Plastics

(i)

22. The weight of a rock on Jupiter is 500 N. The value of acceleration due to gravity (in N kg –1) on the surfaces of Moon, Earth and Jupiter is 1.7, 10 and 25 respectively. The difference between weight of rock on earth and that on Moon is A. C.

0N 166 N

B. D.

8.3 N 233 N

23. Boiling points of some gases are given in the table.

The A. B. C. D.

Gas

Boiling point (°C)

Helium

–269

Methane

–162

Neon

–246

Oxygen

–183

Xenon

–108

gases that are in the liquid state at –200°C are Methane, oxygen and xenon Helium, neon and xenon Helium and neon All the gases given in the table.

24. Match the column I with column II and select the correct option from the given codes. (Atomic mass of Ca = 40 u,C = 12 u, O = 16 u, H = 1 u) Column I Column II 22 (a) 6.022 × 10 molecules (i) 2.65 g of CaCO3 (b) 0.5 mole of O2 (ii) 10 g (c) 1023 molecules of CH4 (iii) 60 g (d) 1.5 moles of Ca (iv) 16 g A. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i) B. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii) C. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv) D. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i) 25. Nimit prepared a flowchart to show classification of fibres and plastics. He left few columns blank. Fill in the blanks by choosing the option with correct words. 4

Plastics

Fibres Synthetic

Natural

P

Q

Silk, Wool

Cellulose, Cotton

A. B. C. D.

R

S

Bakelite, Melamine

Polyvinyl chloride, Polystyrene

P - Plant fibres, Q - Animal fibres, R - Thermoplastics, S-Thermosetting P - Animal fibres, Q - Plant fibres, R - Thermosetting, S - Thermoplastics P - Rayon, Q - Animal fibres, R - Biodegradable, S - Non-biodegradable P - Animal fibres, Q - Plant fibres, R - Non-biodegradable, S - Biodegradable

26. Different samples of soft drinks are tested for additives by using chromatography. The chromatograms are compared with those of artificial additives, X and Y. The results are as follows :

Which soft drink does not contain any of these artificial additives? A. Cola B. Soda C. Banta D. Campa 27. Anurag has arranged the following set-ups to study the rusting of iron.

NaCl (aq.) Iron nail (1)

(2)

Iron A. B. C. D.

Water Iron nail Magnesium coil

Cotton wool Iron nail (3)

Anhydrous calcium (4) chloride

Water Iron nail Silver coil

nails will not rust in test tubes 1 and 2 1 and 4 2 and 3 3 and 4

28. The nucleon number of an atom Q is 49. Atom Q exists as a tetraatomic molecule, Q4. One molecule of Q4 contains 68 protons. How many neutrons are present in the nucleus of atom Q? A. C.

32 49

B. D.

68 57

| 18th NSO | Class-9 | Set-1 | Level 1

29. The given diagram represents a fractionating column where petroleum is separated into various fractions. Arrange the fractions X, Y, Z in order of decreasing boiling point range and identify the fraction that condenses first. A.

Z > Y > X; X

B.

Z > Y > X; Z

C.

X > Y > Z; Y

D.

Y > Z > X; Z

On the basis of this data, find out the correct order of efficiency of fuels. X

Y

Crude oil vapours

Temperature

Which of the following graphs would correctly represent the result?

32. In an experiment, three metals X, Y and Z were placed into four separate solutions containing aqueous metal ions. The results are shown in the table.

A. C.

0°C

Temperature

100°C

Temperature

0°C

Temperature

Yes

It is a simple permanent tissue comprising of only dead cells. No

Yes

P

Q

R

S

A.

100°C

B.

0°C

C. Time (min)

D.

31. Calorific values of some fuels are given : Calorific value (kJ/kg)

Biogas

35,000 – 40,000

Petrol

45,000

CNG

It has the capability of active cell division. No

It is a conducting tissue which also provides mechanical strength. Yes

100°C

Hydrogen

X>W>Z>Y Y>Z>W>X

It is a conducting tissue in which Yes flow of nutrients is bidirectional. No

0°C

Fuel

B. D.

Plant tissue

100°C

Time (min)

D.

X > W > Y > Z X > Z > W > Y

33. Study the given flow chart and select the incorrect statement regarding P, Q, R and S.

Time (min)

C.

Aqueous metal ion W X 2+ Y 2+ Z 2+ 2+

X Y Z The decreasing order of reactivity of the metals is

Time (min)

B.

Biogas > Petrol > CNG > Hydrogen CNG > Hydrogen > Biogas > Petrol Hydrogen > CNG > Petrol > Biogas Petrol > CNG > Biogas > Hydrogen

Metal

30. Neha, a class IX student heated a beaker containing ice and water as demonstrated in the given figure. She measured the temperature of the content of the beaker as a function of time.

A.

Z

A. B. C. D.

1,50,000 50,000

18th NSO | Class-9 | Set-1 | Level 1 |

‘P’ can be the tissue which is present in root tips and shoot tips. Tissue ‘Q’ is primarily responsible for storage of food. Tissue ‘R’ is responsible for transport of food from leaves to other parts of the plant body. Tissue ‘S’ is made up of four types of cells–vessels, tracheids, fibres and parenchyma.

34. While observing a stained mount of onion peel under high power compound microscope, the central part of the cell does not take stain. Which of the following options correctly identifies this central part of the cell? A. C.

Nucleus Vacuole

B. D.

Cell wall Chloroplast 5

35. The given figure represents the structure of the causal organism of a disease, which is A. B.

C. D.

B. C.

An autoimmune disease, caused by a virus An immunodeficiency disease, caused by a virus An immunodeficiency disease, caused by a bacterium An autoimmune disease, caused by a bacterium.

36. Select the correct statement regarding the members of the phylum to which the given animal belongs?

D.

Net movement of sucrose molecules takes place from limb Q to limb P of the U-tube. Net movement of water molecules takes place from limb P to limb Q of the U-tube. Semi-permeable membrane allows only solute sucrose molecules to pass through it.

39. In a slide of animal tissue, Ridhima observed long, uninucleate, unbranched, narrow and spindle-shaped cells. This tissue could be A. C.

Skeletal muscle Cardiac muscle

B. D.

Smooth muscle Nervous tissue.

T hey possess t issue level of organisation. They are mostly fresh water organisms. Their body is bilaterally symmetrical. They possess a canal system that helps to circulate water throughout the body.

40. The practice in which green plants like sunn hemp, guar etc., are grown and then mulched by ploughing them into soil, results in the formation of (i) , which enriches the soil with (ii) . Select the correct option for (i) and (ii). (i) (ii) A. Compost Organic matter B. Fertilizer Potassium and magnesium C. Bio-fertilizer Blue green algae D. Green manure Nitrogen and phosphorus

37. Read the given statements and select the correct option.

41. Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the given codes.

A. B. C. D.

Statement 1 : An increase in the concentration of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere would cause more heat to be retained by the atmosphere leading to global warming. Statement 2 : Greenhouse gases, e.g., CO2 , CH4 etc., reflect back the infrared radiations reflected by the earth’s surface. A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. C. Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false. D. Statement 2 is true and statement 1 is false. 38. Study the given diagram representing the process of osmosis and select the correct statement regarding this. P 10% sucrose solution

Sucrose molecules Water molecules

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e) A. B. C. D.

42. Study the following table and select the correct option for p, q, r, s and t. Disease

Q 5% sucrose solution

Semi-permeable membrane

A. B. C.

A. 6

Limb P of the U-tube functions like the root hair of a plant for the absorption of water.

Column I Column II Ribosomes (i) Jelly like substance Lysosomes (ii) Powerhouse of the cell Endoplasmic (iii) Site of protein reticulum synthesis Cytoplasm (iv) Synthesis of lipids Mitochondria (v) Suicide bags (a) - (iii), (b) - (v), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i), (e) - (ii) (a) - (iv), (b) - (v), (c) - (iii), (d) - (i), (e) - (ii) (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (v), (e) - (ii) (a) - (iv), (b) - (v), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i), (e) - (iii)

D.

Measles

Causative organism p

Mode of transmission Air

q

Bacterium

Water/Food

Dengue

r

s

Malaria

t

Mosquito

p-Virus, q-Hepatitis A, r-Virus, s-Mosquito, t-Protozoan p-Bacterium, q-Cholera, r-Virus, s-Mosquito, t-Protozoan p -Virus, q-Cholera, r-Virus, s-Mosquito, t-Protozoan p -Virus, q -Typhoid, r -Protozoan, s -Air, t-Bacterium | 18th NSO | Class-9 | Set-1 | Level 1

43. A simplified representation of nitrogen cycle is given here.

44. What is the function of the part labelled as 'X ' in the given figure? X

‘X’

‘Z’

N2 fixation N2 gas in atmosphere

Nitrification

Plant proteins

A. B.

al im ns n A tei pro

‘Y’

Which of the following statements regarding ‘X’, ‘Y’ and ‘Z’ is correct? A. B. C. D.

‘X’ represents proteins which are added into the soil by the process of nitrogen fixation. ‘Y ’ represents ammonia which is formed by decomposition of dead plant and animal remains. ‘Z’ represents the process of nitrogen assimilation, by which nitrates are converted back into atmospheric nitrogen. ‘Z’ represents the formation of nitrogen gas by putrefaction of plant and animal matter.

C. D.

It produces the ovum when a female reaches puberty. It transports the ovum from the ovary to the uterus. It serves as the site of implantation of the embryo. It is the place where development of embryo takes place.

45. Which of the following statements is false about a Biosphere Reserve? A. B. C. D.

It is meant for the conservation of biodiversity and culture of an area. It may contain other protected areas within its limits. Some economic activities are permitted in a Biosphere Reserve but in controlled manner. It is an artificially created area meant for the conservation of plants and animals.

Achievers Section Speed (m s–1)

A. B. C. D.

10 8 6 4 2

0

0

:4

:3

10

10

am

am

am 5

am 0

:1 10

:0

11 :0 11 0 am :0 5a m

Time

0 10

46. Nikita completed a journey from a place A to another place B by her car. The given graph shows the speed variations with time over the journey.

(i) Cochlea Ear drum Pinna Pinna

(ii) Ear drum Anvil Ear drum Ear drum

(iii) Pinna Cochlea Cochlea Anvil

(iv) Anvil Pinna Anvil Cochlea

48. The electronic structures of atoms L, M and K are shown in the given figures.

The average speed between 10:15 am to 11:05 am is A. C.

6.00 m s–1 6.50 m s–1

B. D.

6.25 m s–1 6.75 m s–1

47. Fill in the blanks by choosing an appropriate option. The external ear which we see is known as (i) . This part collects the sound and sends it to the auditory canal. The sound in the form of compressions and rarefactions reaches the (ii) , and it begins to vibrate. The vibrations are amplified several times by three bones : the hammer, (iii) and stirrup. The amplified vibrations are then transmitted to the (iv) , which converts them into electric signals. These electric signals are sent to the brain via the auditory nerve, and the brain interprets them as sound. 18th NSO | Class-9 | Set-1 | Level 1 |

Atom L has an isotope with the same nucleon number as M. How many protons, neutrons and electrons does the isotope of L contain? What is the relationship between atom K and atom M? A. B. C. D.

Protons 19 19 19 20

Neutrons 21 21 21 20

Electrons K and M are 19 Isotopes 19 Isobars 20 Isobars 20 Isotopes 7

49. Read the following statements carefully and identify which of them are true (T) and which of them are false (F). (i) Aphids, bugs, etc., are sucking insects whereas weevils, borers, etc. are internal feeders. (ii) Exotic breed which is very popular for egg laying but is not ideal for meat purposes is White Leghorn. (iii) Concentrates in cattle feed consist of mostly fibres which come from hay, green fodder, etc. (iv) Fertilizers contain much higher amount of nutrients in comparison to the manures. (v) Karan Swiss is a high yielding cross breed cattle variety while Jersey-Sindhi is an indigenous breed of India. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) A. F T F T F B. T T F T F C. T T T T F D. F F F T T

50. Read the given passage in which some words are italicised. Rainfall is a major source of ground water. When the rain falls, some water is lost as run off. The remaining water percolates into the ground through pore spaces of soil particles under the influence of gravity. Some water forms an extremely thin, tightly held film around soil particles and is termed capillary water. The down moving water called gravitational water finally reaches the underground water table. Plants can draw only gravitational water from the soil. Some of these italicised words are put incorrectly. Find out them and select the correct option. A. B. C. D.

Rainfall should be replaced by oceans. Run off should not be replaced as it is correctly mentioned. Capillary should be replaced by gravitational. Gravitational should be replaced by hygroscopic.

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

8

| 18th NSO | Class-9 | Set-1 | Level 1

Class 9

Set 2 Year 2015

Logical reasoning Find the missing number, if a certain rule is followed in all the three figures. 10

2.

12

64

A. C.

1331 1000

16 15

12 1728

9

B. D.

?

23

16

A. C.

2744 1728

5

D.

5

8

8

Four people P, Q, R and S live on the same side of a street in four houses each of different colour. Each person has a different favourite drink. (i) P lives in the red house. (ii) Q drinks tea. (iii) R lives in the first house on the left. (iv) In the second house from the right, milk is the favourite drink. (v) R lives adjacent to the blue house. (vi) S drinks fruit juice. (vii) Tea is the favourite drink in the blue house. (viii) The white house is to the right of the red house. Which of the following statements is not true ? Milk is the favourite drink in the red house. Q lives in the blue house. S lives in a corner house. Q lives next to the S.

A.

B.

C.

D.

6.

If the first digit of each number replaces the third digit of that number, third digit replaces the second digit and the second digit replaces the first digit, and then the numbers thus formed are arranged in the descending order, then which number will be the third? 382  473  568  728  847  629 A. 568 B. 382 C. 473 D. 847

7.

Find the number of triangles formed in the given figure. A. 26 B. 28 C. 24 D. None of these

8.

Which of the following figures satisfies the same condition of placement of the dots as in Fig. (X)?

The following digits are coded as follows : Digits Letters

0 K

1 L

2 H

3 4 5 D M N

6 P

7 S

8 V

9 R

While coding the number, following conditions are also to be observed. (i) If 5 or 2 occurs in the just middle of the number, then it is to be coded as X. (ii) If the first digit of the number is a prime number, then it is to be coded as Y. (iii) If the first digit of the number is odd but not a prime number, then it is to be coded as A. 2

In which of the following figures, Fig. (X) is exactly embedded as one of its part?

Fig.(X)

8

C.

A. B. C. D.

B. ZHPMRDZ D. None of these

8

Fig. (X)

8

5.

VHPMRDK ZHPMRDK

B. 5

4.

11

Find the correct water-image of Fig. (X) from the given options.

A.

3.

28

20

5

(iv) If the first digit of the number is even and the last digit be zero, then each of the both is to be coded as Z. (v) If 6 or 9 is neither at the first place or last place, then it is to be coded as B. 8264930

15

5

1.

Fig. (X)

A.

B.

C.

D.

| 18th NSO | Class-9 | Set-2 | Level 1

C.

6

3

A

F

3 6

6

3

D.

A 3

6

10. Select a figure from the options which will continue the same series as established by the Problem Figures.

B.

A

F

F 6

A

2

F

B. One D. Three

3

F

2

A

6

A. None C. Two

A.

A

F

R TJL2$D=M#8C%B r2 > r3 C. r3 > r1 > r2 D. r1 < r3 < r2 15. A car of mass 1000 kg rests on a horizontal road initially. It is then pushed over 5 m to a speed of 1 m s–1 before the engine is started. If the average frictional force acting on the car is 500 N, the total work done in moving the car before the driver starts the engine, is 18th NSO | Class-9 | Set-2 | Level 1 |

A. C.

500 J 3000 J

B. D.

2500 J 3500 J

16. The image of an object O is being observed in a mirror. Which of the following is the correct ray diagram? A.

C.

O

O

B.

D.

O

O

17. Read the given statements and select the correct option. Statement 1 : Force of friction between two surfaces depends on the area of contact common to the two surfaces. Statement 2 : More the area of contact common to the two surfaces, more is the opposition to the motion. A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. C. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. D. Both statements 1 and 2 are false. 18. Match the column I with column II and select the correct option from the given codes. Column I Column II (a) A child running to (i) F o r c e c a n m a k e a catch the school bus stationary object move (b) A man blowing a (ii) Force can stop a moving balloon object (c) A woman pushing a (iii) Force can change the table shape of an object (d) A cricketer catching (iv) Force can make an a ball object move faster A. (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii) B. (a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv) C. (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv) D. (a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii) 3

19. Two spheres of the same size but different masses make head-on collisions. The black sphere is half the mass of the white sphere. In each collision, one of the masses is initially at rest and both masses move after the collision. Which of the situations shows a possible collision? A. B.

6m

6m

6 m s–1

s–1

After 8 m s–1

2 m s–1

4 m s–1

C.

6 m s–1

3 m s–1

6 m s–1

D.

6 m s–1

1 m s–1

5 m s–1

20. When a body is projected vertically up from the ground, its potential energy and kinetic energy at a point P are in the ratio 1:5. If same body is projected with half the previous velocity, then at the same point P, ratio of its potential energy and kinetic energy would be A. C.

1:2 1:5

B. D.

2:1 2:5

21. A book of mass m is lying on a table. It is then placed on the top shelf of a book rack by three different persons. The paths followed by the book as it is carried by three different persons is shown in the given figure. 1 2 3

The work done by the gravitational force on the book is maximum for A. Path 1 B. Path 2 C. Path 3 D. It is same for all the three paths. 22. Planets in our solar system are classified as inner and outer planets. Which of the following is incorrect about them? A. Outer planets are large in size whereas inner planets are comparatively smaller. B. Outer planets have rings orbiting them while inner planets do not have. C. Outer planets do not have moons orbiting them while inner planets have. D. Outer planets spin quicker than inner planets. 4

W

X

Temperature

Before s–1

23. Diagrams W, X and Y show how the particles of a substance are packed at different temperatures.

I

Y

II

III

IV

Time

The given graph shows changes in the state of a substance on heating. In which region of the graph would all the particles be packed as in Y? A. I B. II C. III D. IV 24. Fill in the blanks by choosing an appropriate option. 1. Although p is obtained from a natural source (wood pulp), yet it is a man-made fibre. 2. q was prepared from coal, water and air, its thread is stronger than a steel wire. 3. r does not get wrinkled easily, remains crisp and is easy to wash. p q r A. Acrylic Bakelite Cotton B. Rayon Nylon Polyester C. Silk Rayon Terylene D. Melamine PVC Polycot 25. Match the column I with column II and select the correct option from the given codes. P. Q. R. S. T. A. B. C. D.

Column I Foam Aerosol Gel Emulsion Sol P Q (ii) (iv) (v) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) (v)

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) R (i) (ii) (iv) (i)

Column II Butter Face cream Milk of magnesia Sponge Automobile exhaust S T (iii) (v) (iv) (iii) (v) (i) (ii) (iii)

26. Reena has arranged the following experimental set-up to observe the reactivity of different metals. Zn

FeSO4 (I)

Cu

Hot, dilute HCl AgNO3 (III) (II)

Fe

Cu

Al2(SO4)3 (IV)

In which beaker(s) will there be no reaction? A. I and III B. II and IV C. IV only D. All of these

| 18th NSO | Class-9 | Set-2 | Level 1

27. Ninhydrin having molecular formula C 9 H 6 O 4 , is commonly used by forensic scientists to detect and analyse fingerprints. The number of molecules in 7.4 g of ninhydrin is (Atomic mass of C = 12 u, H = 1 u, O = 16 u) B. 2.5 × 1023 A. 1.5 × 1022 C. 2.5 × 1022 D. 4.2 × 1023 28. Mass spectrum of lead is given as 60

53.8%

% Abundance

50 40 30 20

23.6%

22.6%

206

207 Mass

10 0

208

The relative atomic mass of lead is A. 208 B. 207.567 C. 207.302 D. 209 29. The given diagram shows the fractional distillation of crude oil.

fraction X

The correct statements are A. II and IV C. I, II and IV

B. D.

I and III All of these

31. Substances which vapourise while burning give flame. To verify this fact, Rahul conducted an experiment and recorded his observations in the given table. S. No. Material Does not form flame 1. Candle  2. Magnesium  3. Camphor  4. Kerosene stove  5. Charcoal  Find the incorrect observations. B. 1 and 3 A. 2, 4 and 5 D. None of these C. 1, 2 and 5 32. Find A. B. C. D.

the incorrect match. Brass – Copper and Tin German silver – Copper, Zinc and Nickel Solder – Lead and Tin Stainless steel – Iron, Chromium and Nickel

33. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the organisms P, Q and R shown in the picture?

fraction Y heated petroleum

Mark the correct option. Y condenses X has higher boiling before X point than Y A. Yes Yes B. Yes No C. No Yes D. No No 30. Four samples P, Q, R and S were analysed using paper chromatography to check the presence of three different additives X, Y and Z. The final chromatograms are shown as

P Q R

S

X

Y

Z

Read the following statements carefully. I. P contains three components out of which one is X. II. S contains only one component which is X. III. Q contains two components which are X and Z. IV. R contains two components out of which one is Y. 18th NSO | Class-9 | Set-2 | Level 1 |

P Q R A. Organism P is a protozoan which captures and eats its prey with the help of its flagella. B. Organisms P and R cannot manufacture their food as they do not possess chlorophyll. C. Organism R is multicellular and obtains its food from dead and decaying organic matter. D. Organism Q is an alga found in deep ocean water. 34. Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the given codes. Column I Column II P. An Indian breed of (i) Increase in milk buffalo production Q. Blue revolution (ii) Murrah R. White revolution (iii) Brown Swiss S. An exotic breed of (iv) Increase in fish cattle production T. Indigenous breed of (v) Aseel poultry A. P-(ii), Q-(iv), R-(i), S-(iii), T-(v) B. P-(v), Q-(i), R-(iv), S-(iii), T-(ii) C. P-(v), Q-(iv), R-(i), S-(ii), T-(iii) D. P-(iii), Q-(i), R-(iv), S-(v), T-(ii) 5

35. Read the following statements. (i) Irrigation protects the crops from both frost and hot air currents. (ii) Plants can absorb nutrients mostly in dissolved form. (iii) Excessive use of chemical fertilisers disturbs the balance of nutrients in the soil. (iv) The process of loosening and turning the soil is called digging (or levelling). (v) Rabi crops, such as paddy, require a lot of water and therefore they are sown at the beginning of the south-west monsoon, during June or July. Select the incorrect combination of statements. A. B. C. D.

(i), (ii) and (iii) only (iii), (iv) and (v) only (iv) and (v) only (iii) and (iv) only

36. Refer to the given figures, P and Q and answer the following question.

P Q How do reproductive cells of P differ from those of Q in terms of their production and modes of storage? A.

B. C. D.

Mature reproductive cells of P can get stored for longer periods in reproductive tract whereas in Q, only immature reproductive cells remain stored. P produces fewer reproductive cells than Q does. Reproductive cells produced by P do not show motility. Q produces reproductive cells for a longer period in an individual’s life span than P does.

37. Based on the given features, identify the cell organelle and select the correct option regarding it. • • A. B. C. D. 6

It is single membrane bound cell organelle. Enzymes of this cell organelle resorbed the tail of tadpole during metamorphosis. The cell organelle is formed by the joint activity of ER and Golgi apparatus. The cell organelle is present in almost all the animal cells except mature mammalian RBCs. The cell organelle is equally abundant in plant and animal cells. Both A and B

38. The materials commonly used for staining and mounting human cheek cells are respectively A. B. C. D.

Safranin and glycerine Methylene blue and glycerine Safranin and methylene blue Fast green and glycerine.

39. Conversion of fertile land into desert is called desertification. Which of the following is not a consequence of desertification? A. Decrease in the water holding capacity of soil B. Increased chances of floods C. Increase in the temperature of earth D. Decrease in the concentration of carbon dioxide in atmosphere 40. The matrix of bone is in the form of thin concentric rings, called _______. Bone cells, called _______ are present in fluid-filled spaces called _______. These fluid-filled spaces of the bone communicate with each other by network of fine canals, called _______. Select the correct sequence of words to complete the above passage. A. Lacunae, Osteoblasts, Lamellae, Canaliculi B. Lamellae, Osteocytes, Lacunae, Canaliculi C. Lamellae, Chondrocytes, Canaliculi, Lacunae D. Lacunae, Adipocytes, Canaliculi, Sarcoplasm 41. Refer to the given flow chart. These are prokaryotic organisms

Yes

P

No These are unicellular eukaryotic organisms

Yes

Q

No These are multicellular eukaryotic organisms Yes These exhibit autotrophic mode of nutrition

No

R

Yes These possess vascular tissues

No

S

Yes T

Select the incorrect statement regarding P, Q, R, S and T. A. P can be Thiobacillus or Clostridium and Q can be Euglena or Paramecium. B. R can be Aspergillus or Claviceps. C. S can be Sphagnum or Salvinia. D. T can be Pinus or Azadirachta. | 18th NSO | Class-9 | Set-2 | Level 1

42. Study the given table carefully and select the option that correctly fills up the blanks P, Q, R and S. Disease

Causative Symptoms organism Hepatitis Virus P Elephantiasis Swelling of legs or Q other body parts. Protozoan Fever, fatigue, R enlargement of liver, spleen etc. Ringworm Scaly and itchy skin S A. B. C. D.

P-Acute inflammation of liver, Q-Worm, R-Kalaazar, S-Fungus. P-Ulcers in stomach and duodenum, Q-Protozoan, R-Malaria, S-Virus. P-Painful contraction of muscles of throat and chest, Q-Bacterium, R-Sleeping sickness, S-Fungus. P-Reduction in natural immunity of body, Q-Fungus, R-Anthrax, S-Bacterium.

43. Read the given statements and select the correct option. Statement 1 : Pesticides like DDT enter the food chains and their concentration goes on increasing from one trophic level to the next. Statement 2 : Pesticides like DDT are non-biodegradable organic compounds which are not metabolised within the organisms' body and get stored in their body tissues. A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1.

C. D.

Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false. Both statements 1 and 2 are false.

44. Read the following statements (a – c) and select the option which correctly fills up the blanks in these statements. (a) An organism that transmits a disease from an infected person to a healthy person is called (i) . (b) Poliomyelitis is a (ii) disease and anthrax is a (iii) disease. (c) Allergic diseases (e.g. asthma) are (iv) . diseases. A. (i)-Secondary host, (ii)-Viral, (iii)-Bacterial, (iv)-Communicable B. (i)-Vector, (ii)-Bacterial, (iii)-Fungal, (iv)-Communicable C. (i)-Vector, (ii)-Viral, (iii)-Bacterial, (iv)-Non-communicable D. (i)-Parasite, (ii)-Bacterial, (iii)-Protozoan, (iv)-Infectious 45. Which of the following statements is not true? A. B. C. D.

Ozone layer occurs naturally in the stratosphere. Chlorofluorocarbons are the major ozone depleting substances which produce active chlorine radicals in the presence of UV radiations. Thinning of ozone layer allows more UV radiations to pass through it and cause harmful effects on humans, plants and animals. The region of the stratosphere that contains relatively high concentration of ozone is called troposphere.

Achievers section Direction : Refer to the given dichotomous key and answer the questions 46 and 47. (I)

(a) Cellular level of body organisation is present – Go to V (a) (b) Tissue/organ level of body organisation is present – Go to II (II) (a) Radial symmetry is present – Go to V (b) (b) Bilateral symmetry is present – Go to III (a) (III) (a) It is acoelomate – Go to IV (a) (b) It is true coelomate – Go to IV (b) (IV) (a) It is triploblastic and parasitic – P

(b) It is segmented and sanguivorous – Q (V) (a) It is found in deep sea waters and is a costly wedding gift in Japan – R (b) It is a freshwater polyp – S 18th NSO | Class-9 | Set-2 | Level 1 |

46. Identify organisms P, Q, R and S. A. B. C. D.

P Q Fasciola Hirudinaria Euspongia Wuchereria Loligo Asterias Nereis Scolopendra

R S Euplectella Hydra Limax Palaemon Tubifex Ascaris Adamsia Sepia

47. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the given dichotomous key? A. B. C. D.

The body of organism P is perforated by numerous pores called ostia. The excretory system of Q consists of characteristic flame cells or protonephridia. The body wall of S consists of special stinging cells called cnidoblasts. Body of R bears paired locomotory appendages called parapodia. 7

49. Figure shows the position-time graph of a particle of mass 5 kg. The force acting on the particle for 0 < t < 4 s and 8 s < t < 12 s, respectively are



A.

5 N, 5 N

x(m)

B.

5 N, 7.5 N

8

C.

5 N, 10 N

4

D.

0 N, 0 N

0

50. Observe the given curve carefully and mark the correct statement. Temperature (°C)

48. Fill in the blanks by choosing an appropriate option. A body sinks when its weight is (i) than the buoyant force acting on it. A body floats when its weight is (ii) than the buoyant force acting on it. A body sinks if the density of the body is (iii) than the density of liquid. A body floats if the density of the body is (iv) than the density of liquid. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) A. More Less Less More B. More Less More Less C. Less More Less More D. Less More More Less

A. B. C.

D. 4

8

12

t(s)

T1

t1

Time (min)

t2

T1 is the melting point and dry ice changes to CO2 gas from time t1 to t2. T1 is the boiling point and water vapours change to water from time t1 to t2. T1 is the freezing point and molten copper(II) sulphate changes to solid copper(II) sulphate from time t1 to t2. T1 is the melting point and solid copper(II) sulphate changes to molten copper(II) sulphate from time t1 to t2.

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

8

| 18th NSO | Class-9 | Set-2 | Level 1

Class 9

Set A Year 2016

logical reasoning 1.



Select the correct mirror image of given combination of letters and numbers, if mirror is placed vertically to the left. 391DA5GM A. B. C. D.

2.

Select the figure from the options in which Fig. (X) is exactly embedded as one of its part.



A.



B.



C.



D.

3.

In a certain code, GIVE is written as 51@ © and FAIL is written as %219. How is LEAF written in that code? A. 5 © 2% B. 9 © 2% C. 9 @ 2% D. 9 © 1%

4.



A. C.

5.

Which of the following Venn diagrams best represents the relationship amongst, "Red, Clothes and Roses"?



A.



C.

6.

Trishu starts from point P and walks towards West and stops at point Q. She now takes a right turn and then a left turn and stops at point R. She finally takes a left turn and stops at point S. If she walks 5 km before taking each turn, towards which direction will Trishu have to walk from point S to reach point Q. A. North B. South C. West D. East

7.

2

B. D.



Rules : (i) If an odd number is followed by another odd number which is a perfect square, then they are to be added. (ii) If an even number is followed by an odd number or an odd number is followed by an even number, they are to be multiplied. (iii) If an even number is followed by another even number, the first number is to be divided by the second number. (iv) If an even number which is a multiple of 5 is followed by an odd number which is also a multiple of 5, then the second number is to be subtracted from the first number. 18 7 6 140 85 49 What is the sum of the resultants of the two rows? B. 55 A. 104 C. 121 D. 125 8.

In the following letter series, some of the letters are missing which are given in that order as one of the options below it. Choose the correct option. b_ac_cc_cb_ab_ac cbaba abbbc



bbaac aabba

Three different positions of a dice are given below. 6

5

2

3

1

4

3

6

2

Which of the following is the net of the given dice?

A.

5

3



1 2

5



C.

4

B.

6

1 5

2

3

4 2



1 6

4 6

D.

5

2

3 4

3

6

1

9.

Select the figure from the options which satisfies the same conditions of placement of the dots as in Fig. (X).



A.

B.

D.

Two rows of numbers are given. The resultant number in each row is to be worked out separately based on the following rules and the question below the rows of numbers is to be answered. The operations on numbers progress from left to right.



C.





B.

D.



10. Three persons P, Q and R are standing in a queue. There are five persons between P and Q and eight other persons between Q and R. If there are only three persons ahead of R and 21 persons behind P, what could be the minimum number of persons in the queue? A. 40 B. 43 C. 47 D. 482 | 19th NSO | Class-9 | Set-A | Level 1

Science A body covers 26, 28, 30 and 32 metre in 10 th , 11th , 12th and 13th seconds respectively. The body starts A. From rest and moves with uniform velocity. B. From rest and moves with uniform acceleration. C. With an initial velocity and moves with uniform acceleration. D. With an initial velocity and moves with non-uniform acceleration.

16. The frequency of a source is 20 kHz. The frequencies of the sound waves produced by it in water and air will A. Be the same as that of the source B. Depend upon the velocity of the waves in these media C. Depend upon the wavelength of the waves in these media D. Depend upon the density of the media.

12. A solid cylinder of length l, cross sectional area A and density 5 × 103 kg m– 3 is immersed such 4 that it floats with its axis vertical at the liquid-liquid interface with length l/4 in the denser liquid as shown in the figure. The lesser dense liquid is open to atmospheric pressure P0 . If the density of lesser dense liquid is 1.0 ×103 kg m–3 then the density of denser liquid will be A. 1.5 × 103 kg m–3 B. 2.0 × 103 kg m–3 3 –3 C. 2.5 × 10 kg m D. 3.0 × 103 kg m–3

17. A planet of mass m is revolving around the sun in a circle of radius r. What is the work done by the gravitational force F in moving the planet over half the circumference of the circle? A. Zero B. F × 2pr C. F × pr D. F × 2r

11.

13. Read the given statements and select the correct option. Statement 1 : The forces of action and reaction always appear due to actual physical contact of two bodies. Statement 2 : A particle can move only under the action of a force. A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. C. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. D. Both statements 1 and 2 are false. 14. A stone is dropped from the top of a tower. When it has fallen by 5 m from the top, another stone is dropped from a point 25 m below the top. If both stones reach the ground at the same moment, then height of the tower from ground is (Take g = 10 m s–2) A. 45 m B. 50 m C. 60 m D. 65 m Wave disturbance

15. Refer to the graph given here: R P

Q

S

Time

Which of the following sound waves is high-pitched but soft? A. P B. Q C. R D. S 19th NSO | Class-9 | Set-A | Level 1 |

18. Two satellites of masses m1 and m 2 (m1 > m 2) are revolving around the earth in circular orbits of radii r 1 and r 2 (r 1 > r 2) respectively. Which of the following is true regarding their respective speeds v1 and v 2? A. v1 = v2 B. v1 > v2 C. v1 < v2 D. Cannot be predicted 19. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect? (i) Work and energy have different units. (ii) Two bodies of unequal masses have equal acceleration at any instant of time when they are dropped from a cliff. (iii) When an aeroplane takes off, the work done by its weight is positive. (iv) When the speed of a particle is doubled, the ratio of its momentum and kinetic energy gets halved. A. (ii) only B. (i) and (iii) only C. (i), (ii) and (iv) only D. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) 20. A bicycle is being pedalled on a horizontal road. The forces of friction between the road and the front and rear wheels are F1 and F2 respectively. Then A. Both F1 and F2 act in the forward direction. B. Both F1 and F2 act in the backward direction. C. F1 acts in the forward direction, F2 acts in the backward direction. D. F1 acts in the backward direction, F2 acts in the forward direction. 21. A girl whose eyes are 150 cm above the ground looks at her reflection in a vertical mirror 250 cm away. The top and bottom of the mirror are 200 cm and 120 cm above the ground respectively. What length below her eyes can she see, of herself in the mirror? A. 60 cm B. 75 cm C. 100 cm D. 120 cm 3

22. The given diagrams show four mercury barometers.

IV. V.

If the value of external pressure in cases (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) is represented by P I , P II , P II I and P IV respectively, then A. C.

PI > PII = PIII > PIV PIII > PII > PIV > PI

B. D.

PIV > PII = PIII > PI PI = PII = PIII = PIV

23. The given diagram represents an activity to separate a mixture of two substances X and Y :

Substances X and Y are respectively A. Sugar and common salt B. Acetone and water C. Ammonium chloride and naphthalene D. Ethyl alcohol and sodium chloride. 24. Read the following statements carefully. P.

I am extensively used in the healthcare industry but my one disadvantage is that I am nonbiodegradable. Q. I am very familiar form of polyester and used for making bottles, utensils, films, wires, etc. R. I am synthetic fibre, having wool-like feel and cheaper than wool. S. I am thermosetting plastic and poor conductor of heat and electricity. P, Q, R and S are respectively A. PET, Rayon, Petrochemical, Plastic B. Terylene, Acrylic, Rayon, Melamine C. PVC, PET, Nylon, Teflon D. Plastic, PET, Acrylic, Bakelite. 25. Which of the following statements are correct? (Given: At. wt. of Ca = 40 u, Mg = 24 u, N = 14 u, H = 1 u, Na = 23 u, Cl = 35.5 u) I. 240 g of calcium and 240 g of magnesium elements have a molar ratio of 3 : 5. II. 100 g of N2 contains more atoms than 100 g of NH3. III. Total number of ions in 5.85 g of sodium chloride is 1.2 × 1022. 4

A. C.

1 gram molecule of hydrogen gas contains 12.046 × 1023 atoms of hydrogen. 5.6 g of nitrogen gas occupies 3.2 L of volume at STP. II and III only B. I, II and III only I and IV only D. IV and V only

26. Fill in the blanks by choosing an appropriate option. In an oil refinery, crude oil is heated to about 673 K and passed into the (i) . As the vapours rise towards the top, the different hydrocarbons (ii) at different heights and are withdrawn separately. Substance with (iii) boiling point is collected at the (iv) of the column. (i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

A.

Distillation flask

Condense

Lowest

Top

B.

Chromato- graphic column

Melt

Highest

Top

C.

Fractionating Condense Highest column

Bottom

D.

Fractionating Condense column

Bottom

Lowest

27. The arrangement of particles of an unknown substance at the same pressure at two different temperatures is shown in the diagrams : Which of the following substances could the diagrams represent? Substance Melting point (°C) Boiling point (°C)

A. B. C. D.

P Q

–189 –132

–98 –163

R

–166

–103

S

–115

–86

28. The schematic atomic structures of three elements X, Y and Z are given as :

Which of the following statements is/are incorrect? I. II. III. IV. V. A. C.

Z can form ZCl3 and ZCl5. Y exists in monoatomic form. X and Z combine to form X3Z type compound. X and Y combine to form XY2 type compound. X will gain two electrons to form a stable compound. I and II only B. I, II and IV only II, IV and V only D. III, IV and V only | 19th NSO | Class-9 | Set-A | Level 1

29. Observe the given diagram carefully.

.Which of the following statements are correct? I. Both the metal strips will dissolve in beaker 2. II. Colour of the solution will change in beaker 1. III. Reaction will take place in beaker 3 but there will be no colour change. IV. Reaction will occur only in beakers 1 and 2. A. II and III only B. I and II only C. I and IV only D. All of these 30. In an experiment, 1.50 g of pure copper (II) oxide was reduced to pure metal by heating with pure carbon. In another experiment, 1.15 g of pure copper was treated with nitric acid and the product formed was heated strongly till no further change was observed. The mass of copper (II) oxide so formed was found to be 1.40 g. The mass of pure metal formed in the first experiment and the law followed are respectively A. B. C. D.

1.15 g and law of conservation of mass 1.50 g and law of constant proportions 1.23 g and law of constant proportions 2.47 g and law of multiple proportions.

31. Wax burns with a flame because A. B. C. D.

Liquid wax is vaporised and the vapours of wax burn. Carbon from the wax vaporises to burn. Carbon from the wax combines with oxygen to form carbon dioxide which burns. Hydrogen of the wax burns to form water.

32. The given table shows the number of protons, neutrons and electrons in atoms or ions. Which atom/ion in the table is an isotope of the atom with the composition of 11 p, 11 e and 14 n? Atoms/ Ions

Number of protons (p)

Number of electrons (e)

Number of neutrons (n)

P

11

11

12

Q

18

18

22

R

15

18

16

S

11

10

14

A. C.

P R

19th NSO | Class-9 | Set-A | Level 1 |

B. D.

Q S

33. A strain of an animal exists in wild in which there is only one nucleolus in the nucleus of each cell instead of the usual two. When such animals are mated, approximately one quarter of the offspring have two nucleoli per nucleus, one half have one nucleolus per nucleus and one quarter have no nucleolus at all. Offspring without nucleoli die about four days after hatching. These offspring die because they do not possess A. Mitochondria and are unable to obtain energy B. Centrioles and are unable to undergo cell division C. Golgi apparatus and are unable to remove dead cells D. Ribosomes and are unable to manufacture proteins. 34. Refer to the diagrammatic representations of parts of two different tissues, X and Y.

Now, read the following statements and select the correct ones regarding these tissues. (i) X is an animal tissue whereas Y is a plant tissue. (ii) X is the major water conducting tissue in vascular plants and gives mechanical strength to plant body. (iii) X is composed of all dead cells whereas Y is composed of all living cells. (iv) X conducts water in vascular plants in downward direction. (v) In animals, Y helps in conduction of nerve impulses from various organs to brain and spinal cord and vice versa. A. (i) and (ii) only B. (iv) only C. (v) only D. (iii), (iv) and (v) only 35. The given graph shows the amount of pollutants in four rivers P, Q, R and S. The river that can continue to support the most number of aquatic plants and animals is ________. A. C.

P R

B. D.

Q S 5

36. Refer to the given flow chart and identify P, Q, R, S and T.

39. Read the given sentences, each with one or two blanks and select the option that correctly fills any four of these. P causes ulcers in stomach and duodenum. Q diseases last for only short period of time but are severe. (iii) R diseases are anatomical or physiological abnormalities present since birth, e.g., S . (iv) Malaria causing microbes are transmitted through bite of infected T and move to U and then red blood cells of humans. A. P-Salmonella typhi, R-Chronic, T-Sandfly, U-Brain cells B. Q-Acute, S-Kala azar, T-Tsetse fly, U-Pancreas C. P-Helicobacter pylori, R-Congenital, S-Cleft palate, U – Liver D. Q-Chronic, R-Acute, T-Aedes mosquito, U-Spleen (i) (ii)

P A. B. C. D.

Pinus

Q Funaria

R

S

T

Ulothrix Brassica

Riccia

Spirogyra Funaria

Dryop- teris

Cycas

Hibiscus

Tagetes

Marchantia

Ginkgo

Salvia

Marsilea

Volvox

Lycopodium Cycas

Adiantum

Pteridium

Direction : Read the given passage and answer the questions 37 and 38. Sukriti and Priya are good friends and study in I standard of a reputed school. On a hot summer day, while they both were playing in the school playground, Priya felt uncomfortable and sat down. After some time she developed acute headache and high fever. Her legs stopped moving and she also felt some stiffness in her neck. Soon she became unconscious.

40. The given diagrams show two different cropping patterns, X and Y. Identify these patterns and select the incorrect option regarding them.

37. Identify the disease which Priya has contracted, along with its causative agent and mode of transmission. Disease A. Malaria

Causative agent Protozoan

B. Tuberculosis Bacteria C. Polio Virus D. Diphtheria Fungus

Mode of transmission Bite of infected Anopheles Contaminated water Faecal oral route Sharing of clothes

38. What could be the probable reason for Sukriti not being affected by pathogen of this disease? A.

B.

C. D.

6

Sukriti's immune system has already encountered the weakened pathogens and developed memory cells, which produce antibodies whenever pathogen enters her body. Sukriti had actually contracted the disease few months back and recovered, hence her immune system has developed memory cells, which prevent any subsequent pathogen attack. Sukriti is taking antibiotics regularly, which kill the pathogens entering her body and prevent the actual disease. Sukriti has received antibodies against the pathogen from her mother via placenta so she is immune to the pathogen of this disease by birth.

A. B. C. D.

In cropping pattern X, the crops should not have the same root pattern. Crops selected for cropping pattern Y should have different type of nutrient requirement. Crops selected for cropping pattern X must have different maturation time. In cropping pattern Y, only two crops can be grown simultaneously at a time.

41. G i v e n b e l o w i s the diagrammatic representation of an animal tissue, X. Identify the tissue and select the correct option regarding it. A. B. C. D.

Tissue X forms a shock absorbing cushion around kidneys and eyeballs. Tissue X fills the spaces inside the organs and fastens the peritoneum to the body wall. Tissue X connects skeletal muscles with bones. Tissue X is commonly called packaging tissue of the body. | 19th NSO | Class-9 | Set-A | Level 1

42. Refer to the given Venn diagram and select the correct option regarding P, Q and R.

Organised Cell wall Q nucleus present present R P Chlorophyll present Unicellular organisms

A. B. C. D.

P could be Chlamydomonas or Aspergillus. Q could be Volvox or Penicillium. R could be Lactobacillus or Rhizobium. All of these

Identify P and Q and select the correct option. A. B. C. D.

P P P P

– Aldosterone, Q – Thyroxine – Adrenaline, Q – Aldosterone – Insulin, Q – Adrenaline – Thyroxine, Q – Adrenaline

44. Which of the following activities will lead to both air and water pollution? A. Use of manures and fertilisers in a crop field B. Use of cooling devices like air conditioners and refrigerators C. Burning of fossil fuels and use of fuel operated transport vehicles. D. All of these 45. Shown below is the diagrammatic representation of a biosphere reserve.

43. Refer to the diagram showing organ X of the human body and read the following paragraph.

Organ X secretes two hormones P and Q. P prepares our body to function at maximum efficiency during emergency situations whereas Q maintains the correct salt balance in the blood.

Select the correct statement regarding this. A. Tourists can visit P and Q zones but are not allowed in the R zone. B. Human settlement and cultivation of crops is allowed in P and Q zones only. C. Human activities like research and environmental education are allowed in all P, Q and R zones. D. Cutting of trees is allowed in all the zones but hunting of wild animals is allowed only in Q zone.

Achievers section 46. Study the given graph carefully and select the correct statement(s).

47. Refer to the given graph and fill in the blanks by choosing an appropriate option. Velocity (m s–1) 8 6 4 2 0 –2 –4 –6

I. II. III. IV. A. B. C. D.

When water is cooled to 4°C, the volume decreases. Ice and water co-exist at 0°C. Water has minimum density at point Q. The volume of ice is more than that of water. I only II and III only I, II and IV only All of these

19th NSO | Class-9 | Set-A | Level 1 |

5 10 15 20

25 30

Time(s)

The displacement of the particle from its initial position at the end of 15 s and 30 s is ___(i)___ and ___(ii)___ respectively. The average velocity of the particle between 15 s and 25 s and 0 s to 30 s is ___(iii)___ and ___(iv)___ respectively. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) A. 40 m 60 m 4 m s–1 2 m s–1 B. 40 m 100 m 2 m s–1 4 m s–1 –1 C. 20 m 60 m 4ms 4 m s–1 –1 D. 20 m 100 m 2ms 2 m s–1 7

48. A particle falls from rest under gravity. Which of the following graphs correctly shows the variation of (i) its potential energy with respect to the ground against time and (ii) its kinetic energy against time? E (i)

A.

E

(ii)

(i)

B.

C.

(i)

D. E

(ii)

D. Time

B. C.

(ii)

Time E

A.

(i)

Time (ii)

Body of organism P contains numerous small pores called ostia and a single large opening called osculum on top. Organism Q possesses gill slits at some stage of its life. The body of organism R is differentiated into head, visceral mass and ventral foot. Organism S possesses nematocysts.

50. Refer to the given diagram of an animal cell and select the option that correctly describes the functional relationship between organelles P and Q.

Time

49. Refer to the given dichotomous key and select the incorrect option regarding organisms P, Q, R and S. I. (a) Animals with cellular level – P of body organisation. (b) Animals with tissue/organ/ – Go to II organ system level of body organisation. II. (a) Animals possessing – Go to III (a) bilateral symmetry. – Go to III (b) (b) Animals possessing radial symmetry. III. (a) True coelom is present. – Go to IV (a) (b) True coelom is absent. – Go to IV (b) IV. (a) Notochord is present. – Q (b) Notochord is absent. – Go to V V. (a) It forms symbiotic – R association with hermit crab. (b) It is commonly known as jelly fish. – S

A. B. C. D.

Polypeptides synthesised at Q are transported to P where they are stored for regular use in cytoplasm. Polypeptides synthesised at Q are transported to P where they are modified into functional proteins for secretion. Polypeptides synthesised at P are packaged into vesicles that move to Q for further modification. Polypeptides synthesised at P are packaged without modification and move to Q where they are stored for regular use in cytoplasm.

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

8

| 19th NSO | Class-9 | Set-A | Level 1

Class 9

Set B Year 2016

logical reasoning 1.

2.

3.

Trishika and Sidak started walking from two different points 'A' and 'B' respectively. Trishika walks 5 km North and turns to the East and walks 6 km. She again turns to North and walks 4 km and finally she turns to East and walks 3 km to reach point 'C'. Similarly, Sidak walks 5 km North and turns to West and walks 6 km and finally turns to North, walks 4 km and meets Trishika at point 'C'. In which direction is point 'B' from point 'A'? A. East B. West C. South D. North

7.

Count the number of triangles formed in the given figure. A. 36 B. 32 C. 38 D. None of these There is a definite relationship between figures 1 and 2. Establish a similar relationship between figures 3 and 4 by selecting a suitable figure from the given options that would replace the (?) in fig. 4.

8.

A square transparent sheet with a pattern on it is given. If the sheet is folded along the dotted line, then which pattern would appear from the given options?

A.

B.

C.

D.

Find the missing number, if same rule is followed in all the three figures.

A. C.

4.

5.

6.

2

A.

B.

C.

D.

9.

4 7

B. D.

12 14

A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers, rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and steps of rearrangement. Input : wind packet 19 7 back 12 task 34 Step I : 34 wind packet 19 7 back 12 task

If in a certain code language, LATE is coded as 8&4$ and HIRE is coded as 7«3$, then how will HAIL be coded in the same language? A. 7&8« B. &7«8 C. 7«&8 D. 7&«8

Step II : 34 back wind packet 19 7 12 task

Two positions of a dice are shown here. Find the number opposite to 3. A. 2 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6

Step VII : 34 back 19 packet 12 task 7 wind and Step VII is the last step.

Which of the following Venn diagrams best represents the relationship amongst, "Males, Females and Brothers"? A.

B.

C.

D.

Step III : 34 back 19 wind packet 7 12 task Step IV : 34 back 19 packet wind 7 12 task Step V : 34 back 19 packet 12 wind 7 task Step VI : 34 back 19 packet 12 task wind 7

As per the rules followed in the above steps, if Step II of an input is "37 desk 34 garden 5 father victory 17", then which of the following steps will be the last step? A. C.

Step III Step IV

B. D.

Step V Step VI

10. Select the correct water image of the given combination of letters and numbers from the given options. LosCi2016nSo A. C.

B. D. | 19th NSO | Class-9 | Set-B | Level 1

SCIENCE 11.

A particle starts from rest and travels a distance x with uniform acceleration, then it travels a distance 2x with uniform speed, finally it travels a distance 3x with uniform retardation and comes to rest. If the whole motion of the particle is a straight line, then the ratio of its average velocity to maximum velocity is A. C.

6:7 2:3

B. D.

4:5 3:5

12. A student uses a spring balance of range 500 g wt. He records the weight of a small iron cube of mass 100 g in air, in tap water and in a concentrated solution of common salt in water. His three readings taken in the given order are W1, W2 and W3. His measurements could be A. C.

W1 = W2 = W3 W1 < W2 < W3

B. D.

W1 > W2 > W3 W1 < W2 > W3

13. Read the given statements and select the correct option. Statement 1 : A spaceship, while entering the Earth's atmosphere is likely to catch fire. Statement 2 : The temperature of the upper atmosphere is very high. A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. C. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. D. Both statements 1 and 2 are false. 14. Two particles, one with constant velocity of 50 m s–1 and the other start from rest with uniform acceleration of 10 m s–2 , start moving simultaneously from the same position in the same direction. They will be at a distance of 125 m from each other after A. 5 s and 5(1 + 2 ) s B. 5 s and 10 s C. 5(1 + 2 ) s and 10 s D. 10 s and 10(1 + 2 ) s. 15. A signal generator is connected to a loud speaker. Keeping the amplitude of the wave constant, the frequency of the sound is increased from 0 Hz to 21 kHz. Which of the following graphs shows the variation of the loudness of the sound with the frequency as heard by a normal healthy man? Loudness

Loudness

A.

B. 0 Loudness

0

Frequency 21 kHz

Frequency 21 kHz

Loudness

C.

D. 0

Frequency 21 kHz

19th NSO | Class-9 | Set-B | Level 1 |

0

Frequency 21 kHz

16. A body is projected vertically up. At certain height h above the ground, the ratio of its potential energy to the kinetic energy is 2 : 3. At what height above the ground, the ratio of its kinetic energy to the potential energy will be 2 : 3 ? 3 2 h h B. A. 2 5 9 4 h h C. D. 8 7 17. In an experiment to measure the speed of sound in air, a boy stands 40 m from a wall and bangs two pieces of wood together. At the instant he hears the echo, he bangs them together again. He does this activity 50 times. The time taken for 50 bangs is 12 s. Which calculation gives the speed (in m s-1) of sound in air? 10 40 × 50 A. B. 40 × 50 12 40 × 2 × 12 40 × 2 × 50 C. D. 50 12 18. Two vessels P and Q of equal volume and weight are immersed in water to depth h. The vessel P has an opening at the bottom through which water can enter. If the work done in immersing P and Q are WP and WQ respectively, then A. WP > WQ B. WP < WQ C. WP = WQ D. Cannot be predicted. 19. The density of a planet PL1 is thrice that of planet PL2. The acceleration due to gravity at the surface 1th of PL1 is of that at the surface of planet PL2. If the 9 radius of planet PL2 is R, then the radius of planet PL1 will be A. R/3 B. R/27 C. 27R D. 81R 20. A ball of mass 400 g is dropped from a height of 5 m. A boy on the ground hits the ball vertically upwards with a bat with an average force of 100 N, so that it attains a vertical height of 20 m. The time for which the ball remains in contact with the bat is (Take g = 10 m s–2) A. 0.08 s B. 0.12 s C. 2 s D. 5 s 21. Which of the following statements does explain how a positively charged object becomes neutral when someone touches it? A. Electrons flow from the object. B. Electrons flow on to the object. C. Protons flow from the object. D. Protons flow on to the object. 3

22. Which of the following statements are incorrect?

(i) Pupil gives the eye its distinctive colour. (ii) Iris controls the amount of light entering into the eye. (iii) Cones are sensitive to dim light and rods to bright light. (iv) Near point for a normal eye is 25 m. (v) Far point for a normal eye is infinity. A. (ii) and (iii) only B. (i), (iii) and (iv) only C. (i), (ii), (iv) and (v) only D. (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)



Temperature (°C)

23. Dhairya, a Class 9 student 120 heated a solid ‘X’ beyond 90 P Q its melting point. Then, he 60 allowed the hot liquid to R 30 cool slowly and recorded the 0 Time (min) temperature at regular time intervals until it cooled to 20°C. He obtained the given cooling curve. The parts of graph where ‘X’ exists in solid state, in liquid state and in both solid and liquid states are respectively A. Q, P and R B. P, Q and R C. R, P and Q D. R, Q and P. 24. Fill in the blanks by choosing an appropriate option. W is a very reactive metal, reacts vigorously with oxygen and water therefore, stored in (1) . X is a non-metal, soft and dull and forms (2) oxides with oxygen. Y is very reactive (3) , catches fire if exposed to air therefore, stored in water. Z does not react with dilute hydrochloric acid even on heating but it reacts with sulphuric acid. When it is exposed to moist air for long, it acquires a dull (4) coating.

A.



B.



C.



D.

W-Na, 1-Water; X-S, 2-Basic; Y-P, 3-Metal; Z-Cu, 4-Reddish brown W-Mg, 1-Kerosene; X-P, 2-Acidic; Y-Si, 3-Metal; Z-Ag, 4-Reddish brown W- N a , 1 - K e r o s e n e ; X- S , 2 - A c i d i c ; Y- P, 3-Non-metal; Z-Cu, 4-Green W-Al, 1-Water; X-Zn, 2-Amphoteric; Y-P, 3-Non-metal; Z-Cu, 4-Green

25. Compounds formed by four different elements P, Q, R and S are PQ 3, P2 S 3, RS 2 and RQ4. The possible electronic configurations of elements P, Q, R and S are P A. 2, 8, 2 B. 2, 8, 3 C. 2, 8 D. 2, 8, 3 4

Q 2, 8 2, 8 2, 8, 2 2, 8, 7

R 2, 1 2, 1 2, 8, 3 2, 8, 4

S 2, 8, 3 2, 8, 2 2, 1 2, 6

26. Read the given statements and select the correct option. Statement 1 : During fractional distillation of petroleum, the temperature increases inside the fractionating column on going from bottom to the top. Statement 2 : The fraction with the lower boiling point condenses first. A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. C. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. D. Both statements 1 and 2 are false. 27. A group of class 9 students was given a paint fragment containing two dyes X and Y. Three different types of chromatograms were obtained using three different solvents as shown in the figure :



Which of the following statements is correct? A. Y is soluble in ethanol but X is not. B. X is soluble in ethanol as well as in petroleum ether. C. Y is insoluble in propanone as well as in petroleum ether. D. All of these

28. Cotton is used to make clothes as A. It is strong, heavy and absorbs water B. It has low tensile strength, absorbs dyes and is transparent C. It is light, soft, absorbs dyes and sweat D. It is good conductor of heat. 29. The composition of five particles P, Q, given in the table : Substance No. of No. of protons neutrons 25 30 P 13 13 Q 13 14 R 9 10 S 9 10 T Identify atoms, ions and isotopes. Atoms Ions A. P, Q, S R, T B. R, T P, Q, S C. P, Q, S R, T D. Q, R P, T

R, S and T is No. of electrons 25 13 10 9 10 Isotopes S and T Q and R Q and R S and T

30. Observe the given figures carefully : Chimney

(1)

Glass plate

(2)

(3)

| 19th NSO | Class-9 | Set-B | Level 1

31. Match the columns I, II and III and select the correct option using the given codes. Column I Column II (a) 4.25 g of NH3 (i) 2 moles (b) 4 g of H2 (ii) 0.25 mol (c) 10 moles of H2SO4 (d) 12 g of oxygen gas (e) 1 mole of nitrogen atom

(iii) 6.022 × 1023 atoms

Column III (p) 5.6 L at STP (q) 6.022 × 1023 × 0.75 atoms (r) 14 g

(iv) 0.375 mole (s) 12.046 × 1023 molecules (v) 980 g (t) 7× 10 × 6.022 × 1023 atoms

(Given : Atomic mass of N = 14 u, H = 1 u, S = 32 u, O = 16 u) a b c d e A. (iii), (q) (i), (p) (iv), (r) (ii), (s) (v), (t) B. (ii), (t) (iii), (p) (iv), (s) (i), (q) (v), (r) C. (i), (p) (ii), (q) (v), (r) (iii), (s) (iv), (t) D. (ii), (p) (i), (s) (v), (t) (iv), (q) (iii), (r) 32. Which of the following are isobars?

A. C.

20 p 22 n

18 p 22 n

20 p 20 n

I

II

III

18 p 20 n

18 p 18 n

19 p 21 n

IV

I and II only II and VI only

V

B. D.

VI

II, III and VI only II, III, IV and V only

33. Shown below are the diagrammatic representations of two different types of tissues P and Q.

P

Q

Which of the following holds true regarding tissues P and Q ? A. Tissue P helps in gaseous exchange in multicellular animals. B. Tissue Q provides mechanical support, elasticity and tensile strength to the plant part where it is present. C. Tissue P is the most widely distributed connective tissue in animal body. 19th NSO | Class-9 | Set-B | Level 1 |

D.

Cells of tissue Q have extremely thick walls, which possess thickenings of pectin and lignin at corners.

34. Refer to the given cross-section of Q P conducting tissue of a plant and select the correct option regarding P, Q and R. A. P and R are non-living cells R devoid of living protoplast at maturity. B. P is present in all vascular plants whereas Q is confined to angiosperms only. C. Both P and Q take part in conduction of water but P possesses perforations whereas Q is imperforated cell. D. None of these 35. Potato tuber strips measuring 5 cm were prepared and placed in Petri dishes filled with varying concentrations of sucrose solution (0.0M to 0.6M). After 20 minutes, their final lengths were recorded and their percentage change in length calculated. The graph below shows the percentage change in length of potato strips in increasing concentrations of sucrose solution. 20 15 10 5 0 –5 0.1 0.2 0.3 0.4 0.5 0.6 –10 –15 –20

Percentage change in length (%)

Which of the following statements is/are incorrect? I. Candle 1 burns freely due to presence of air. II. Smoke is produced in candle 2 due to less supply of air. III. Flame finally goes off in candle 3 as air is not available. A. II only B. I and II only C. I and III only D. None of these

(M)

Which of the following can be correctly inferred from the given graph? A. 0.3 M sucrose solution is isotonic to cell sap of potato cells. B. Negative percentage change in potato strip length is due to endosmosis. C. Positive percentage change in potato strip length is due to exosmosis. D. 0.6 M sucrose solution is hypotonic and 0.2 M sucrose solution is hypertonic to cell sap of potato cells. 36. Shown below are cross sectional diagrams of three animals P, Q and R.

P

Q

R

Which of the following is correct regarding organisms P, Q and R ? A. Organism P is always diploblastic whereas organisms Q and R are triploblastic. B. Organism Q could be a flatworm or a roundworm. C. Body cavity of organism Q arises from embryonic mesoderm. D. Organism R could be an annelid or an echinoderm. 5

37. Refer to the given flow chart and select the correct option regarding P, Q, R and S. Communicable disease

No

Yes

Spreads through direct contact

Yes

Caused due to hypo or hypersecretion of hormones

Yes

P

Q

No

Spreads through contaminated food and water

Yes

R

No

Spreads through vectors



A.



B.



C. D.

Yes

S

Disease P is caused due to malfunctioning of exocrine glands while diseases Q, R and S are caused by pathogenic microbes. S is a contagious disease while Q and R are non contagious diseases. Q could be hepatitis B while R could be Kala azar. S could be sleeping sickness while R could be cholera.

38. Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the codes given below. Column I Column II (a) Particulate matter (i) Chemical water pollutants (b) Detergents (ii) Non-degradable soil pollutants (c) Plastics (iii) Degradable soil pollutants (d) Vegetable peels (iv) Air pollutants

A. B. C. D.

(a) (a) (a) (a)

-

(i), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii) (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii) (i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii) (i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv)

39. Refer to the given paragraph where few words have been italicised and select the correct option regarding this. Animals used in agriculture and for transport are called milch animals whereas animals used for milk production are called draught animals. Production of good quality milk depends much on the type of breed e.g., exotic breeds of cattle like Red Sindhi and Jersey produce on an average 60L milk in a day. On the other hand, local breeds such as Sahiwal and Brown Swiss produce on an average only 6 – 8L of milk per day. Cattle suffer from several diseases which may reduce the milk production. E.g., anthrax is a fatal viral disease, whereas foot and mouth disease is a bacterial disease which broadly affect the health of cattle thereby, reducing milk production.

A.

6

The positions of Jersey and Sahiwal should be interchanged.



B.



C.



D.

The positions of Red Sindhi and Brown Swiss should be interchanged. Viral should be replaced with protozoan and bacterial should be replaced with fungal. Milch and draught should not be replaced as they are correctly mentioned.

40. X and Y are two systems of irrigation. X makes use of a simple machine, i.e., wheel and axle and is animal driven. Y, on the other hand, involves network of narrow pipes with small holes which run through the crop field that are supplied by water through electrical pumps. Identify X and Y systems of irrigation and select the correct option regarding them.

A.



B.



C.



D.

Y system of irrigation is a wasteful process as the crop field gets flooded with excess water which is not required by the crop plants. X irrigation system provides water to plants drop by drop so water is not wasted at all. Y irrigation system is very useful in those regions where availability of water is very poor. X irrigation system is best for watering fruit plants and trees.

41. Refer to the given figure of male reproductive system. Which of the following correctly describes difference between X and Y?

A. B.



C. D.

X

Y

X is a gland but Y is not. Both X and Y are glands but X is an endocrine gland while Y is an exocrine gland. Y secretes male sex hormones but X does not. X serves to produce sperms while Y serves to produce all other constituents of semen.

42. Refer to the given flow chart and identify P, Q, R, S, T and U. Microorganisms with cell wall Prokaryotes

Functions Eukaryotes

P

1. Decomposition of detritus R 2. Association with roots of higher plants T 3. Production of antibiotic

Q S U

P Q R S T U A. Mycobac- Yeast Vibrio Asper- Lactoba- Rhizo

B. C.

terium

gillus

cillus

pus

Azotobac- Agari- Salmo- Pucci- Diploco- Mucor ter cus nella nia ccus Pseudo- monas

D. Vibrio

Physa- Rhizo- Glomus Strepto- rum bium coccus

Mucor Pseudo- Agari- Myco- monas cius bacter- ium

Penicillium Physa- rum

| 19th NSO | Class-9 | Set-B | Level 1

R 43. Study the given diagram of an P animal cell. Which of the following statements are correct regarding P, Q, R and S? S (i) S fuses with R to release its Q content into the extracellular space. (ii) Proteins formed in Q are modified into glycoproteins in P. (iii) If radioactively labelled amino acids are provided to the cell then radioactivity will first appear in S. (iv) Q is involved in the synthesis of R. (v) S buds off from cis face of Q. A. (i) and (iii) only B. (ii), (iii) and (v) only C. (i), (ii) and (iv) only D. (i) and (iv) only Q

Population

44. The given graph shows changes in populations of three species, P, Q and R in an ecosystem over time. Which of the following could not be inferred from the given graph?

R

P

Time

A. B. C. D.

Species R could be an alien species which may become invasive and drive away species P in near future. Species Q could be a parasite which is exclusively found on P. P and Q might undergo coextinction in near future. P and Q compete with each other for same available resources however the nutrient and resource requirements of P and R could be different.

45. Which of the following is/are incorrectly matched? (i) To reduce harmful – Have the vehicles gases emitted by checked regularly to vehicles ensure that colourless and odourless gases are emitted (ii) To dispose off – Burn in an open area radioactive waste (iii) To prevent – Educate the public pollution not to throw litter or of the sea dump refuse into the sea (iv) To get rid of – Have pipes leading human faeces from homes to the river A. (ii) only B. (iii) only C. (ii) and (iv) only D. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Achievers Section Direction : Read the given paragraph and answer questions 46 and 47. Raj contracted measles few days back and soon recovered from the infection. He got immune to any subsequent infection of measles virus for sometime. Raj's mother got him vaccinated for polio when he was young. So, he is immune to polio disease also. Raj's younger brother Rohan is just two days old and is mother fed. He has received some immunity from his mother via milk.

A.

46. Which of the following is correct regarding Raj's and Rohan's immunity? A. Raj's immune system developed its own antibodies when encountered the pathogen or antigen however, Rohan has received preformed antibodies from his mother. B. Rohan's immunity is long lasting but Raj's immunity is for a brief period only. C. Raj is immune to only few diseases like measles and polio however, Rohan is immune to most of the pathogenic diseases. D. Rohan's immunity may cause some side effects in his body however Raj's immunity has no side effects.

D.

47. How Raj got immune to polio virus even though he never contracted the disease ? 19th NSO | Class-9 | Set-B | Level 1 |

B. C.

The vaccine given to Raj contained live attenuated pathogens which triggered production of antibodies and memory cells that will recognise any subsequent pathogenic attack and prevent the infection. The vaccine given to Raj contained preformed antibodies which will last throughout his life and prevent any further infection. The vaccine given to Raj contained live/active pathogen in a very small amount that can generate primary immune response but is insufficient to cause infection. None of these

48. A particle of mass 70 g, moving at 50 cm s–1, is acted upon by a variable force opposite to its direction of motion. The force F is shown as a function of time.

After the force stops acting, the particle moves with a speed of A. B. C. D.

50 cm s–1 in reverse direction 100 cm s–1 in reverse direction 150 cm s–1 in original direction 100 cm s–1 in original direction. 7

49. A mixture of two liquids X and Y was placed in a flask as shown in the given figure. The mixture was heated using a Bunsen burner. The boiling point of X is 230 K and that of Y is 250 K.

C.

D.

Thermometer

50. Fill in the blanks by choosing an appropriate option. On the surface of the earth, acceleration due to gravity at poles is (i) and that at equator is (ii) . The value of acceleration due to gravity (iii) with height above the centre of earth to its surface and (iv) with height above the surface of earth.

R Q Mixture of X and Y

When the thermometer first shows a constant reading, point P will be richer in proportion of X vapours. The liquid ‘Y’ distills over first and is collected in beaker S.

P S

Which of the following statements is correct? A. The purpose of fractionating column is to decrease the surface area for cooling. B. As the vapour travel up from Q to R, the vapour of X condense more readily.

(i) A. Maximum B. Maximum C. Minimum D. Minimum

(ii) Minimum Minimum Maximum Maximum

(iii) Increases Decreases Increases Increases

(iv) Decreases Decreases Decreases Increases

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

8

| 19th NSO | Class-9 | Set-B | Level 1

Class 9

Set A Year 2017

LOGICAL REASONING The following numbers are coded as follows: Numbers 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 Symbols × * ? ÷ $ + ! D While coding the given number following conditions are also to be observed. Conditions: (i) If the first digit of the number is odd, then it will be coded as @. (ii) If the last digit of the number is even, then it will be coded as . Find the code of 5 2 4 6 5 7 3 8. A. $* ÷ $+?! B. @* ÷ + $? C. @* ÷ $+? D. @ * ÷ +$?! 2.

Ajay is in the East of Sumit who is in the North of Jatin. If Arnav is in South of Jatin, then Arnav is in which direction with respect to Ajay? A. North-West B. South-West C. South D. South-East

7.

Find the water image of given combination of letters/numbers/symbols. Wat17%*Log B. goL*%71taW A. Wat17%*Log C. D. goL*%71taW

8.

Which of the following figures will complete the given figure matrix?

Find the missing number, if same rule is followed in all the three figures. 84 49

16

4

9

?

100

81

64

25

R

?

A. A B.

(2) %

(3) G

(4) %

A C.

G

(1) G

%

G

C

R %

A

×

+

%

A D.

B. D.

9.

There is a certain relationship between figures (1) and (2). Establish the similar relationship between figures (3) and (4) by selecting a suitable figure from the given options which will replace the (?) in figure (4). C

A. C.

45 1

A. 160 B. 120 C. 140 D. 180 3.

6.

%*LogWat17

1.

G A

4.

P, Q, R, S, T and U are six persons travelling together in a boat. Three of them Q, R and T are women and the rest are men. However P, Q, R and T are all vegetarian and S and U are non-vegetarian. Q, T and U know swimming while the rest do not know how to swim. Who among the following is a vegetarian female who does not know swimming? A. P B. Q C. R D. T

5.

The question consists of a set of three figures X, Y and Z showing a sequence of folding of a piece of paper. Fig. (Z) shows the manner in which the folded paper has been cut. Select a figure from the options which would most closely resemble the unfolded form of Fig. (Z).

In the given question, two rows of numbers are given. The resultant number in each row is to be worked out separately based on the following rules and the question below the rows of numbers is to be answered. The operation on numbers progress from left to right. Rules: (i) If a two digit odd number is followed by a prime number, the first number is to be multiplied by the prime number. (ii) If an even number is followed by another even number, the first number is to be divided by the second number. (iii) If an odd number is followed by a composite odd number, the first number is to be added to the second number. (iv) If an even number which is multiple of 5 is followed by another number which is also a multiple of 5, the second number is to be subtracted from the first number. (v) If a number which is a perfect square is followed by another number which is also a perfect square, the resultant number is the product of the square root of the two numbers. 64  25  25 88  8   15 Find the sum of resultant of the both rows. A. 41 B. 51 C. 37 D. 47 10. Which of the following options satisfy the same conditions of placement of the dots as in Fig. (X)?

Fig. (X) Fig. (X)

X Y Z      X    Y   Z

A. B. 2

C.

D.

A.

B.

C.

D.

| NSO | Class-9 | Set-A | Level 1

SCIENCE The diagram shows a conducting sphere M between two oppositely charged metal plates. What would be the resulting charge distribution on sphere M? _

_ A. _

+ + + B. _ + +

+_ _

+

C. +

+

_ _ _ _ _ _

+ + + + + +

M

_ + _ D. + _ +

+ + +

12. A man of height 1.6 m wishes to see his full image in a plane mirror. The minimum height of the mirror needed for this purpose is A. 3.2 m B. 2.4 m C. 1.6 m D. 0.8 m 13. The diagram shows a U-tube used to determine the density of liquid P. When Liquid P h liquid P is poured into one 6 cm arm, the water level in the other arm rises. If the densities of water and liquid P are 1000 kg m–3 and 750 kg m–3 respectively, then what is the value of h ? A. 7 cm B. 8 cm C. 10 cm D. 12 cm 14. An escalator carries 20 passengers of average mass of 60 kg. It travels 4.2 m in height in one minute each floor. What is the minimum power for the escalator for its operation to lift these passengers from the first floor to the third floor? (Take g = 10 m s–2) A. 840 W B. 50400 W C. 5040 W D. 252 W 15. A stone is dropped from a certain height which can reach the ground in 5 seconds. If this stone is stopped after 3 seconds of its fall and is again released, then the total time taken by the stone to reach the ground will be (Take g = 10 m s–2 ) A. 6 s B. 7 s C. 8 s D. 9 s

18. Read the given statements and select the correct option. Statement  1 : When the displacement of a body is directly proportional to the square of the time, then the body is moving with uniform acceleration. Statement  2 : The slope of velocity-time graph with time axis gives acceleration. A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. C. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. D. Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true. 19. The given graph shows the displacement versus time relation for a sound wave travelling with velocity of 1500 m s–1. Find the wavelength of the sound wave. A. 5 × 10–5 m B. 3 × 10–3 m 0 2 3 4 5 Time (µs) 1 C. 2 × 10–6 m –3 D. 1.5 × 10 m Displacement (m)

11.

20. A mass of 100 g strikes the wall with a speed of 5 m s–1 at an angle 60° as shown in figure and it rebounds with the same speed. If the contact time is 2 × 10–3 s, what is the force applied by the wall ?

60° 60° 100 g

250 3 N to right A.

B. 250 N to right

250 3 N to left C.

D. 250 N to left

16. Two men, at points P and Wall Q, are facing a flat and hard wall as shown. When the 400 m 400 m man at point P makes a clap, man at point Q hears two Q P 600 m claps. If the speed of sound is 320 m s–1, then what is the time interval between the two claps heard by man at point Q? A. 0.32 s B. 0.67 s C. 1.25 s D. 2.50 s

21. A spring is compressed between two toy carts of masses m1 and m2 . When the toy carts are released then spring exerts equal and opposite average force on each for the same time t. Assume that there is no friction between the toy carts and the ground, the velocities of toy carts are A. In opposite directions but in inverse ratio of their masses B. In opposite directions but in direct ratio of their masses C. Equal and in opposite direction D. Equal and in same direction.

17. The diagram shows a wooden block of mass 10 kg pushed up a rough inclined plane at a constant speed by a force of 50 N. When the block travels from X to Y, it reaches a height of 5 m and travels a distance of 13 m along the plane, then what is the work done against friction? Y A. 650 J N B. 600 J 50 13 m 5m X C. 250 J 12 m D. 150 J

22. Which of the following statements is incorrect? (i) The flow of electric current in the circuit is from negative to the positive terminal of the battery. (ii) Pure water is a good conductor of electricity. (iii) In the electroplating of copper, copper gets transferred form the anode to the cathode. (iv) In a dry cell, the electrolyte is a paste of ammonium chloride. A. (i) and (iv) only B. (ii) and (iv) only C. (ii) and (iii) only D. (i) and (ii) only

NSO | Class-9 | Set-A | Level 1 |

3

23. Which of the following statements are correct? I. At 273 K, both ice and water co-exist. II. Ice at 0 °C is more effective in cooling a substance than water at 0 °C. III. Particles in water at 0 °C have more energy as compared to particles in ice at the same temperature. IV. Increase in pressure increases the freezing point of ice. A. I and IV only B. I, II and III only C. III and IV only D. I, II, III and IV 24. Read the given passage carefully and fill in the blanks by choosing an appropriate option. Coal is one of the earliest used (i) resources of energy. Coal beds generally contain large amount of (ii) gas which can also be obtained by destructive distillation of coal. A dark brown, foul smelling liquid called (iii) is also obtained from destructive distillation of coal which is further used to obtain (iv) . (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) A. Renewable Butane Coke Paints B. Inexhaustible Natural gas Coal tar Coke C. Exhaustible Methane Coal tar Naphthalene balls D. Non-renewable Coal gas Coke Coal tar 25. Arrange the following in the order of increasing mass. (Atomic mass of O = 16 u, Cu = 63 u, N = 14 u) I. one atom of oxygen II. one atom of nitrogen III. 1 × 10–10 mole of oxygen gas IV. 1 × 10–10 mole of copper A. II < I < III < IV B. I < II < III < IV C. III < II < IV < I D. IV < II < III < I 26. Abhinav, a class 9 student arranged the given expeWater rimental set-up to study the Metal reactivity of some metals P Q R S piece with water. He summarised his observations as follows : I. In test tube P, there was no reaction in cold water but when the test tube was heated for a while, bubbles of gas were seen. II. In test tube Q, bubbles of gas were formed only after boiling the water. III. In test tube R, no gas was produced even on boiling the water. IV. In test tube S, reaction occurred vigorously. The metals present in test tubes P, Q, R and S could be respectively A. Na, Mg, Zn and Fe B. Mg, Zn, Cu and Na C. Na, Mg, Al and Cu D. Mg, Zn, Fe and Al. 27. Element P has 5 electrons in its L shell while element Q has 5 electrons in its M shell. Which of the following statements is correct regarding elements P and Q? 4

A. Both elements have valency equal to 5 only. B. Both elements have the same mass number. C. Atomic number of element P is 7 and that of element Q is 15. D. Both elements show valency equal to 3 only. 28. Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the given codes. Column I Column II P. Teflon (i) Can be blown up into large foam containing air bubbles Q. Polystyrene (ii) Easily moulded, can be rolled into thin sheets R. Polythene (iii) Tougher than polythene, can be coated on cloth S. PVC (iv) High melting point, very low friction A. P – (iii), Q – (iv), R – (ii), S – (i) B. P – (iv), Q – (ii), R – (i), S – (iii) C. P – (iv), Q – (i), R – (ii), S – (iii) D. P – (iii), Q – (iv), R – (i), S – (ii) 29. Ms Diksha, a science teacher gave different substances to three students. One spatula full of copper sulphate was given to student 1, wheat flour was given to student 2 and ink was given to student 3. Each student added the given sample to water and stirred. Which of the following statements is incorrect about the mixtures prepared by them? A. Particles are not visible to the naked eye in case of mixtures obtained by student 1 and student 3. B. The path of light becomes visible in case of mixture obtained by student 1. C. When passed through filter paper, particles of mixture obtained by student 2 remain behind on the filter paper. D. The particles of mixture obtained by student 3 are about 100 times bigger than those of the mixture obtained by student 1. 30. Study the given flow chart carefully and identify P, Q, R, S and T. Combustible substance

No

P

Yes

Q

No Forms flame Yes

R

Undergoes spontaneous combustion Yes

S

No

Undergoes rapid combustion Yes

T

A. B. C. D.

P Iron nails Glass Stone Iron nails

Q R S T Paper Kerosene Aluminium Wood Coke Wood LPG Iron nails Coal Camphor Sodium LPG Kero- Paper Phosphorus Camphor sene | NSO | Class-9 | Set-A | Level 1

31. The given graph represents the cooling curve of substance X. Which of the following statements are incorrect? I. Process I represents cooling of liquid state of X while process III involves cooling of the solid state. II. The freezing point of substance X is 25 °C. III. At 35 °C, the substance exists in solid state. IV. Substance X exists both in gaseous and liquid form along the curve QR. A. I and III only B. II and IV only C. III and IV only D. None of these 32. Read the given passage and fill in the blanks by choosing an appropriate option. When a mixture of two (i) liquids having a difference of 25 °C in their boiling points is to be separated, a (ii) is used which increases the (iii) surface area. As a result, when the vapours of both the liquids rise, the (iv) volatile liquid will condense while the vapours of (v) volatile liquid will rise. (i) A. Immiscible

(ii) Distillation flask B. Non-volatile Condenser C. Miscible Fractionating column D. Volatile Condenser

(iii) (iv) (v) Heating More Less Cooling Less Cooling Less

More More

Heating More Less

33. Read the given paragraph. X is a butterfly shaped gland located in the front part of lower neck. Y is a triangular gland present in pair on the top of each kidney. Z is a mixed gland located inferior to stomach which secretes digestive juices as well as hormones. Now select the incorrect option regarding glands X, Y and Z. A. X functions as biological clock by secreting a hormone that regulates sleep-wake cycle in humans. B. If a person is terrified or stressed then gland Y releases a hormone that helps his body to adjust with the stress. C. Gland Z secretes its hormones when blood glucose concentration is either above or below the normal reference range. D. Abnormal secretion from gland X may lead to various disorders like exophthalmic goitre, myxoedema, etc. 34. Refer to the given Venn diagram and select the correct option regarding X, Y and Z. A. X causes citrus canker and wilt diseases in plants and is also responsible for causing tetanus, athlete's foot, etc., in humans. NSO | Class-9 | Set-A | Level 1 |

Cell wall is present. Z

Saprophytic mode of X nutrition is present.

Y

Organised nucleus is present.

B. Y is always multicellular and could be Alternaria, Puccinia or Ustilago. C. Z possesses chlorophyll and could be unicellular e.g., Chlamydomonas, or multicellular, e.g., Spirogyra. D. X is always anaerobic whereas Y and Z are always aerobic. 35. Refer to the given Venn diagram and select the correct option regarding P and Q. Communicable disease Caused by P Caused by transmitted Q protozoan virus through vector

A. Q could be a disease that is commonly treated by a drug obtained from bark of Cinchona tree. B. P could be a fever which is transmitted by the bite of Aedes aegypti mosquito that bites during daytime. C. P could be a disease characterised by severe joint pain and sudden onset of high fever whereas Q could be dum-dum fever or sleeping sickness. D. All of these 36. Refer to the given flow chart and select the correct option regarding P, Q, R and S. It is a traditional No irrigation method. Yes

It works on pulley system. No

It works on lever system.

Yes

Water is allowed to flow through main pipe under Yes pressure which escapes from rotating nozzles. P

No

Water is delivered near root zone of plants drop by drop. Yes

Yes

Q

R

S

A. P could be dhekli whereas Q could be chain pump. B. S minimises wastage of water by minimising evaporation and run off. C. R is very effective in case of plants growing in both marshes and saline soil. D. P and Q are related with generation of hydroelectricity whereas R and S are related to mitigation of drought. 37. Refer to the given figures of different animals. Read the characteristics given below and select the option that correctly matches these animals with their X characteristics stated. X Y Y ZZ XY (i) Coelom absent (ii) Pseudocoelom present (iii) True coelom present (iv) Triploblastic animal (v) Flame cells as excretory organs (vi) Body metamerically segmented (vii) Nephridia are excretory organs A. X-(i, vi, vii), Y-(ii, iv, vi), Z-(iii, v, vi) B. X-(i, iv, v), Y-(ii, iv), Z-(iii, iv, vi, vii) C. X-(ii, iv, vi), Y-(i, v, vii), Z-(iii, iv, v) D. X-(iii, vi), Y-(ii, iv, vii), Z-(i, v) 5

Z

38. Select the correct statement regarding cell wall of plant cells. A. Primary cell wall is chiefly composed of a soluble fibrous polysaccharide called suberin. B. Secondary cell wall is mainly composed of lignin and is deposited on the outer surface of primary wall. C. Pits are present in primary walls whereas they are absent in secondary walls. D. The primary cell walls of adjacent cells are cemented through middle lamella which is composed of calcium and magnesium pectate. 39. Select the group that contains only the micronutrients. A. Sulphur, Molybdenum, Nitrogen B. Zinc, Copper, Manganese C. Oxygen, Iron, Potassium D. Carbon, Chlorine, Nickel 40. Refer to the given diagram of an animal cell and select the correct option regarding P and Q. A. Some of the vesicles of P store digestive enzymes obtained from Q in inactive state to form primary lysosome. B. Polypeptides synthesised at P are transported to Q where they are modified into functional proteins for secretion. C. Q synthesises acrosome which plays an important role in the fertilisation process in humans. D. P is absent in pancreatic cells and cells of salivary glands whereas Q is absent in liver cells. 41. Riddhi drew a classification chart as shown below. Animalia Cellular Level Tissue Level

Porifera P Coelenterata

X

Pseudocoelom Q

Nematoda

Platyhelminthes

A. X is eucoelomic body cavity. B. P is bilateral body symmetry. C. Q is radial body symmetry. D. Y is coelomic cavity lined by mesoderm.

6

X

Pathogen load

43. Refer to the given figure and select the option that correctly compares structures X and Y.

Y X

A. X always carries urine whereas Y always carries semen. B. In each male individual, X exists singly but Y exists in a pair. C. The flow of fluid through X can be controlled voluntarily but such control does not exist in Y. D. Both B and C 44. A Visking tubing is filled with solution X and placed in a boiling tube of solution Y. After 20 minutes, the Visking tubing appeared to be larger and heavier. Which of the following correctly identifies solutions X and Y ? A. B. C. D.

Y

Now, select the option that correctly identifies the characters X, Y, P or Q.

42. The given graph shows the pathogen load in the body of a person during the period of sickness. Now select the correct option regarding this.

A. The person is suffering from two pathogenic infections simultaneously. B. X could be a viral infection that decreased rapidly after antibiotic treatment. C. Both X and Y are different bacterial infections where recovery in case of X is due to body's immunity whereas that in case of Y is due to antibiotic treatment. D. Both X and Y are viral infections which decreased due to body's immunity and antibiotic treatment had no role in it.

Y

Day 4 Day 12 Day 20 Time Antibiotic dose

Solution X 2 M sucrose solution 0.5 M sucrose solution 1 M sucrose solution Distilled water

Visking tubing Solution X Solution Y

Solution Y 0.1 M sucrose solution 1 M sucrose solution 5 M sucrose solution 2 M sucrose solution

45. Read the given paragraph. Soil X has very poor water holding capacity, soil Y is well drained and contains one part clay and two parts each of sand and silt. Soil Z has excellent water holding capacity but is poorly aerated. Select the correct statement regarding soils X, Y and Z. A. Soil X is commonly found in those regions where xerophytes are abundant. B. Soil Z is best suited for growth of plants like Casuarina, Eucalyptus and watermelon. C. Soil Y is best suited for making pots. D. All of these | NSO | Class-9 | Set-A | Level 1

ACHIEVERS SECTION 46. If K, p and m represent the kinetic energy, momentum and mass of a body respectively, then which of the following graphs is incorrect? K p = constant

A.

B.

A. I and II only C. II and IV only

Direction (Q. No. 49 and 50) : Refer to the given dichotomous key and answer the following questions. I.

m

II.

p

K

K = constant

m = constant

C.

D. p

m

47. Fill in the given blanks by choosing an appropriate option. A sound of single frequency is called a (i) . The sound produced due to a mixture of several frequencies is called a (ii) and is pleasant to listen. Sound propagates through a medium at a finite speed but the speed of sound (iii) as it propagates from solid to gaseous medium. In any medium as we (iv) the temperature, the speed of sound also (v) . A. B. C. D.

(i) Note Note Tone Tone

(ii) Tone Tone Note Note

(iii) (iv) (v) Increases Decrease Decreases Decreases Increase Increases Decreases Increase Increases Increases Increase Increases

48. The given figure shows the set-up to study the reaction between gas X and copper (II) oxide : CuO Gas X

N2 (g) heat Water Ice

Water

Which of the following statements are correct? [Given : Atomic mass of N = 14 u, H = 1 u, O = 16 u, C = 12 u] I. Gas X is a compound of two elements, nitrogen and hydrogen. II. The number of atoms present in 11.2 L of N2 is 6.023 ×1023. III. 1 mole of H2O contains 1 mole of oxygen molecules and 2 moles of hydrogen atoms. IV. N2 gas being soluble in water is collected by upward displacement of water.

B. I and III only D. III and IV only

III.

IV.

V.

(a) The cells of tissue have walls. – Go to II (b) The cells of tissue do not possess wall. – Go to III (a) Tissue made of one type of cells. – Go to IV (b) Tissue, made of more than one type of cells. – Go to V (a) The tissue lines the alveoli of lungs. (b) The tissue forms shock absorbing cushion around some vital organs. (a) Cells of tissue contain air cavities and it provides buoyancy. (b) The tissue provides mechanical strength and flexibility to young dicot stems and petioles. (a) Tissue conducts water. (b) Tissue conducts organic solutes.

– P – Q – R – S – T – U

49. Select the incorrect option regarding tissues P, Q, R, S, T and U. A. P is an epithelial tissue whereas Q is a loose connective tissue. B. T is either greatly reduced or absent but R is exclusively present in aquatic floating plants whereas S is found in Cucurbita stems. C. R is aerenchyma, S is collenchyma, T is xylem and U is phloem. D. U is found in grit of guava, pear, etc., whereas the matrix of tissue P contains a flexible material called chondrin. 50. Select the correct match of tissue and its location. A. P-Wall of Bowman's capsule S-Epidermal covering of legume seeds B. Q-Blubber of whale R-Covering of nuts C. R-Petiole of lotus U-Hump of camel D. Q-In subcutaneous tissue T-Stele or vascular cylinder of monocot root

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

NSO | Class-9 | Set-A | Level 1 |

7

Class 9

Set B Year 2017

LOGICAL REASONING 1.

Select a figure from the options which will complete the given figure series.

A. 2.

C.

6.

Which of the following options satisfies the given Venn diagram? A. English, French, German B. Mothers, Females, Cricketers C. Prime numbers, Integers, Even numbers D. Planets, Mars, Sun

7.

Count the number of triangles and minimum number of straight lines respectively in the given figure. A. 30, 11 B. 28, 13 C. 26, 14 D. None of these

8.

In which of the following figures, Fig. (X) is exactly embedded as one of its parts?

D.

If '→' stands for 'addition'; '←' stands for 'subtraction'; '↑' stands for 'division'; '↓' stands for 'multiplication' and '↑ ' stands for 'equal to', then which of the following options is incorrect? A. 2 ↓ 5 ← 6 → 2 ↑ 6 B. 3 → 7 ← 3 ↑ 3 ↑ 9 C. 3 ↓ 6 ↑ 2 → 3 ← 6 ↓ 5 D. 7 ↑ 5 ← 4 → 3 ↓ 4 ↑ 2 Three positions of a dice are given. Find the symbol opposite to symbol . A. B. C. D.

×

3.

B.

them in the word as in the English alphabet? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. More than four

4.

5.

A number arrangement machine, when given an input line of numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and the steps of rearrangement. Input : 85 16 36 04 19 97 63 09 Step I : 97 85 16 36 04 19 63 09 Step II : 97 85 63 16 36 04 19 09 Step III : 97 85 63 36 16 04 19 09 Step IV : 97 85 63 36 19 16 04 09 Step V : 97 85 63 36 19 16 09 04 Step V is the last step for this input. As per the rules followed in the above steps, which of the following is the last step of the given input? Input : 88 26 07 36 11 64 21 A. IV B. VI C. V D. VII How many pairs of letters are there in the word EXCLAMATORY which have as many letters between

Fig. (X)

A. 9.

B.

C.

D.

Find the correct water image of Fig.(X). K

S

Fig. (X)

A.

B.

C.

D.

10. Read the following information carefully and answer the question that follows. (i) P * Q means P is the father of Q. (ii) P ÷ Q means P is the sister of Q. (iii) P $ Q means P is the brother of Q. (iv) P # Q means P is the wife of Q. How is A related to B in ''A ÷ C $ D # B''? A. Mother B. Aunt C. Sister-in-law D. Mother-in-law

SCIENCE 11.

Two unequal masses P and Q moving along straight lines are brought to rest by applying equal retarding forces. If P moves twice the time as Q, but goes only (1/3)rd of the distance covered by Q before coming to rest, the ratio of their initial velocities is A. 1 : 2 B. 1 : 6 C. 2 : 3 D. 2 : 1

12. Mass of a man is 80 kg. He stands on a weighing scale in a lift which is moving upwards with a uniform 2

acceleration of 5 m s–2 . What would be the reading on the scale? (g = 10 m s–2) A. zero B. 400 N C. 120 N D. 1200 N 13. The given diagram shows the water tank and the position of the shower head in the bathroom of a household. The water pressure must be 8 kPa in order to function shower head effectively. The density of water is 1000 kg m–3. Find the minimum height that a plumber | NSO | Class-9 | Set-B | Level 1

must raise the water tank to, so that the water pressure at the shower head can be 8 kPa. (Assume pipe of sufficient length is given.) Water tank

0.2 m

0.3 m

0.3 m Shower head

A. 0.2 m

B. 0.3 m

C. 0.5 m

D. 1 m

14. A positively charged rod is moved near conducting sphere as shown. What will Positively be the movements of the charged rod electrons and protons in the Conducting conducting sphere? sphere Electrons Protons Move to right A. Move to left B. Move to right Move to left C. Do not move Move to left D. Move to left Do not move 15. The diagram shows three waves X, Y and Z displayed on the screen of the oscilloscope connected to a microphone when three different sounds are made in front of the microphone. Displacement (m)

Displacement (m)

0

Time (s)

0

Time (s) Y

X Displacement (m) Time (s)

0 Z

Which of the following statements is correct regarding different sounds? A. Sound X has a higher pitch than sound Y. B. Sound X has the same pitch as sound Z. C. Sound Y is louder than sound Z. D. Sound Y has a lower pitch than sound Z. 16. Read the given statements and select the correct option. Statement  1 : The blood pressure in human is greater at the feet than at the brain. Statement  2 : In a liquid, pressure at any point is proportional to the height, density of the liquid and the acceleration due to gravity. A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. C. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. D. Both statements 1 and 2 are false. NSO | Class-9 | Set-B | Level 1 |

17. The maximum vertical distance through which a fully dressed astronaut can jump on the earth is 0.5 m. Estimate the maximum vertical distance through which he can jump on the moon, which has a mean density (2/3)rd that of the earth and radius one quarter that of the earth. B. 6 m C. 8 m D. 9 m A. 3 m 18. If two plane mirrors are inclined at an angle of 60° to each other, how many images of an object are seen? B. Only 4 A. Only 3 C. Only 5 D. None of these 19. A man of mass 70 kg is standing on a bus which is moving at a speed of 70 km h–1. At one point of his journey, he jumps upward to a height of 30 cm. Where does he land his feet on the floor of the bus again? A. At the same spot where he was standing. B. A short distance behind where he was standing. C. A long distance behind where he was standing. D. A long distance in front of where he was standing. 20. The gravitational force between two masses kept at a certain distance is p N. The same two masses are now kept in water and the distance between them is same. If the gravitational force between these two masses in water is q N, then A. p = q B. p < q C. p > q D. None of these. 21. Read the given statements and select the correct option. Statement 1 : The loudness or softness of a sound is  determined basically by its amplitude. Statement 2 : The amplitude of the sound wave depends  upon the force with which an object is made to vibrate. A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. C. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. D. Both statements 1 and 2 are false. 22. Which of the following statements is/are correct? (i) Cones in our eyes are sensitive to bright light. (ii) The type of lens in our eyes is concave. (iii) In cataract, eye lens becomes clouded. (iv) Splitting of white light into its colours is known as scattering of light. A. (i) Only B. (i) and (iv) only C. (ii) and (iii) only D. (i) and (iii) only 23. Which of the following statements are correct? I. A pure substance has fixed melting and boiling points. II. If a liquid is impure, it will boil over a range of temperatures but will freeze at a fixed temperature. III. If the pressure acting on a liquid is increased, the boiling point will increase. IV. A pure orange juice will have a fixed boiling point. A. I and III only B. I and II only C. III and IV only D. I, II and IV only 3

24. Rohit studied the properties of a few common substances and recorded his observations in the given table. S.No.

Combustible Forms flame 1. Candle   2. Coal   3. Magnesium ribbon   4. Camphor   5. Petrol   The incorrect observations are A. 1, 4 and 5 only B. 2, 3 and 4 only D. 1 and 3 only. C. 2 and 3 only



28. Schematic atomic structures of three species are given as :

Material

6n



P Q

Boiling point ( C) 69 104

If in liquid states, P and Q are miscible then which of the following statements is correct regarding their separation? A. P and Q both are volatile liquids at room temperature hence, can be separated by fractional distillation. B. P is a solid while Q is a volatile liquid at room temperature hence, can be separated by evaporation. C. P is a solid and Q is a liquid at room temperature hence, can be separated by filtration. D. P and Q both are liquids at room temperature and can be separated from each other by simple distillation.



26. A few polymers are grouped together on the basis of a common property as follows : Group I : Dacron, acrylic, nylon, jute Group II : PVC, melamine, teflon Group III : Polycot, terrywool, acrylic Choose the odd one out in groups I, II and III.   I II III A. Dacron Teflon Terrywool B. Nylon Teflon Acrylic C. Jute   Melamine Terrywool D. Jute   Melamine Acrylic 27. A few compounds are listed as : (i) Ammonia, (ii) Aluminium fluoride, (iii) Magnesium sulphide, (iv) Magnesium oxide Find the ratio by mass of the combining elements in each compound. (Given : Atomic mass of N = 14 u, H = 1 u, Mg = 24 u, O = 16 u, S = 32 u, F = 19 u and Al = 27 u) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (N : H) (Al : F) (Mg : S) (Mg : O) A. 1 : 3 1 : 3 1 : 1 1 : 1 B. 14 : 3 9 : 19 3 : 4 3 : 2 C. 3 : 1 2 : 1 1 : 1 1 : 2 D. 14 : 3 10 : 9 6 : 3 4 : 1 4

16n

P Q 2– R 3– Study the structures carefully and fill in the blanks by choosing an appropriate option.

Mass Number of electrons Valence number in neutral atom shell (i) 5 P L 18 (ii) (iii) Q2– (iv) 15 (v) R3– (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) A. 11 8 L 30 L B. 16 6 M 16 N C. 11 8 L 31 M D. 16 8 L 30 M

25. The physical properties of two substances P and Q are given in the table. Melting point ( C) –95 –91

10n

29. Nitika, a class 9 student conducted the following experiment and stated her observations as follows :



Beaker I

: Hydrogen gas is evolved which burns with a pop sound. Beaker II : Reaction is very vigorous and graphite starts floating on water. Beaker III : A reddish brown deposit is obtained over aluminium rod. Beaker IV : Copper reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to form blue coloured solution of copper chloride. Observation(s) is/are incorrect in case of beaker(s) A. II and III only B. II only C. II and IV only D. IV only.

30. At a refinery, petroleum is separated into several components by a process called fractional distillation using a fractionating column. Which of the following statements is correct about the fractional distillation of petroleum? A. At each level in the column, only one compound is collected. B. Temperature increases from bottom to top of the column. C. The fractions collected at the top of the column are less volatile. D. The fraction with the highest boiling point condenses first and gets collected near the base of the fractionating tower. | NSO | Class-9 | Set-B | Level 1

31. Elements X and Y have octet configuration in their L shell after forming stable dipositive and dinegative ions respectively. The respective electronic configuration of the succeeding element of X and the preceding element of Y are B. 2, 8, 3 and 2, 5 A. 2, 7 and 2, 5 C. 2, 5 and 2, 8, 3 D. 2, 8, 1 and 2, 7 32. A solid sample of sulphur contains 0.25 mol of sulphur molecules. The number of moles of sulphur atoms, number of sulphur molecules and number of sulphur atoms present in the given sample are respectively A. 6.023 × 1023, 3 and 3.2 × 1023 B. 2, 3.2 × 1023 and 6.02 × 1023 C. 2, 1.5 × 1023 and 1.2 × 1024 D. 1.2 × 1024, 3.2 × 1023 and 2

35. Select the pair that shows the same relationship as the animals in the box. Amoeba : Paramecium A. Rhizopus : Chlamydomonas B. Candida : Saccharomyces C. Pteridium : Fasciola D. Albugo : Adiantum 36. Identify P, Q and R in the given flow chart and select the correct option regarding them. Extinct species

Yes

P

No

Endangered species Yes

Q

No

R

P Q Blackbuck Golden langur Silvery pigeon Chinkara

R Giant panda Desert kangaroo rat Passenger pigeon Asian elephant Sloth bear Dodo Thorny tree frog Blue whale

38. The given graph shows changes in three components X, Y and Z in a water body after point P (where fertiliser run off from crop field took place). Select the correct statement regarding X, Y and Z. A. X could be phos phate compounds w hos e concentration gradually reduced downstream due to their consumption by growing aquatic plants. B. Y could be nitrate compounds which initially increased due to introduction of NPK fertilisers whereas Z represents decomposer microbes whose number increased in order to decompose these compounds. C. Y could be algae which multiplied rapidly due to nutrient enrichment of water body whereas X could be dissolved oxygen which started reducing simultaneously with the increase in decomposition activity of microbes Z after death of algae. D. Y could be aquatic animals which initially increased in number due to consumption of large amount of aquatic plants X and then decreased gradually with the reduction in plant population.

)

take

(Up

NSO | Class-9 | Set-B | Level 1 |

Electrical nitrogen xation

34. Refer to the given Atmospheric nitrogen outline of nitrogen X cycle. Identify X and Y and select the correct Soil nitrogen pool statement regarding Y them. Plant Decaying A. In the process biomass biomass X, protein is Animal converted into biomass ammonia by the action of bacteria while in the process Y, nitrates present in the decaying remains get converted into free nitrogen gas. B. In the process X, nitrates present in the soil get converted into free nitrogen gas while in the process Y, proteins are converted into ammonia by the action of bacteria. C. Process X represents the conversion of ammonia into nitrates while process Y represents the conversion of nitrates into the free nitrogen gas. D. Process X represents the conversion of ammonia into nitrites while process Y represents the conversion of complex organic compounds like proteins into ammonia. Industrial nitrogen xation

37. What would happen to the air bubble in the following set-up after 30 minutes? A. It will disappear. B. It will move to the left. C. It will move to the right. D. It will remain stationary.

Biological nitrogen xation

33. Refer to the given figures P P of two plants X and Y Q Q with their parts labelled R as P, Q, R and S. R S Select the correct option S X Y regarding them. A. Plant body of both X and Y is diploid sporophyte where P is the spore producing part. B. Q represents true stem, R represents true leaves whereas S represents true roots in both X and Y. C. Seed setting is absent in both plants X and Y and they reproduce through spores. D. All parts of plant Y possess vascular tissues whereas vascular tissues are present only in part P of plant X.

A. B. C. D.

Tightly tting cylinder of potato

Distilled water Capillary tube

Air bubble

5

39. Refer to the given flow chart and select the correct option regarding it. It is a part of male No reproductive system. Yes

It is a part of female reproductive system. Yes

It is present in a pair. Yes

No

P

It is present in a pair. Yes

No

It produces sperms. Yes

No

Q

It produces ovum. Yes

No

R

S

T

U

A. R and U secrete male and female hormones respectively called testosterone and estrogen but gametes produced by R are much more in number as compared to those produced by U. B. Secretion of both P and Q nourish and activate sperms to swim but secretion of Q contains a type of sugar which is not present anywhere else in the body. C. T is the site of fertilisation whereas S is the site of implantation of embryo. D. All of these 40. Refer to the given Venn X W diagram and select the Structure Structure incorrect option regarding present in present in animal cell plant cell structures V, W, X, Y and Z. Y A. V could be an outermost V protective covering Structure present in which is composed of bacterial cell lipopolysaccharides in Z bacteria and cellulose in plants. B. Y could be a membrane-less organelle involved in protein synthesis whereas Z could be an ingrowth of cell membrane that contains respiratory enzymes. C. Both W and X could be double membrane structures but inner membrane of W is smooth whereas that of X is thrown into folds. D. W takes part in photosynthesis whereas Z connects genetic material with plasma membrane. 41. Select the incorrect statement. A. Osmosis is a slow process, occurs down the concentration gradient and does not expend energy. B. Electron microscope uses electromagnets instead of glass lenses and beam of electrons instead of light. C. A semipermeable membrane does not allow both solvent and solute molecules to pass through it. D. Active transport of materials across plasma membrane is rapid and usually occurs against the concentration gradient involving carrier proteins and energy in the form of ATP. 42.

6

Refer to the given box containing names of some human diseases and select incorrect statement regarding it. Chikungunya, Rabies, Yellow fever, Gonorrhoea, Malaria, Trypanosomiasis, Dengue, Kala azar, Tetanus, Genital herpes

A. The given box contains five viral diseases out of which four are vector borne and one is sexually transmitted. B. The given box contains two protozoan diseases and three bacterial diseases where all the protozoan diseases are vector borne. C. Out of the two bacterial diseases listed in the given box, one is sexually transmitted while DPT vaccine is available for the other. D. Female Aedes aegypti serves as a vector for three of the diseases listed in the box. 43. Refer to the given table and select the option that correctly fills the blanks in it. Animal

Indigenous breed

Exotic breed

Cow

Sahiwal

P

Poultry

Q

Plymouth rock

Honey bee

A. indica

R

A. B. C. D.

P Jersey Wyandotte Alpine Australorp

Q Aseel Malvi Bakharwal Ghagus

R A.mellifera A.dorsata A.dorsata A.adamsoni

44. Which of the following correctly exemplifies acquisition of active immunity by a person? A. A person who has recovered from an attack of mumps, develops natural active immunity. B. When ready-made antibodies are directly injected into a person's body to protect him against foreign agents, then he acquires artificial active immunity. C. When a person is vaccinated for a disease then he acquires natural active immunity for that disease. D. When antibody is transferred from mother to the fetus through placenta then the developing baby acquires artificial active immunity. 45. Refer to the given picture of blood smear and select the correct option regarding different blood corpuscles (P-S). S R

P Q

A. Blood cell Q plays a major role in transport of gases within the body. B. A person who is unable to produce blood cell S bleeds continuously even from a minor injury. C. Blood cell P produces antibodies in response to a pathogenic infection in the body. D. Blood cell R contains a red pigment called haemoglobin that shows affinity for oxygen. | NSO | Class-9 | Set-B | Level 1

ACHIEVERS SECTION 46. Fill in the blanks by choosing an appropriate option. In a (i) wave the particles of the medium oscillate in a direction (ii) to the direction of propagation. Thus, during their oscillations, the particles may move upwards or downwards from the plane passing through their mean positions. The point of maximum positive displacement on a transverse wave is called (iii) and the point of maximum negative displacement is called (iv) . The wave produced in a stretched string when plucked are (v) waves. A. B. C. D.

(ii)

Longitudinal Parallel Transverse

II. III. IV.

Trough

Trough Crest

Perpendicular Crest

47. Acceleration-time graph for a particle in translatory motion is given here. Match the quantities of column I with column II and select the correct option from given codes. I.

Crest

(iv)

Perpendicular Trough Crest

Longitudinal Parallel Transverse

(iii)

Column I Average acceleration 0 to 5 s Average acceleration 0 to 10 s Average acceleration 0 to 20 s Average acceleration 0 to 30 s

A. I-S, II-P, III-R, IV-Q C. I-Q, II-P, III-R, IV-S

Acceleration (m s–2)

(i)

Trough

(v) Longitudinal Longitudinal Transverse Transverse

20 15 10 5 0 5 10 15 20 25 30 Time (s)

S is metamerically segmented whereas T bears jointed appendages and chitinous exoskeleton. 48. Select the option that correctly identifies organisms P, Q, R, S and T. A. B. C. D.

P Euspongia Euplectella Sycon Aurelia

Q Hydra Obelia Taenia Schistosoma

R Hirudinaria Dugesia Adamsia Ascaris

S Fasciola Pheretima Scolopendra Nereis

T Periplaneta Palaemon Musca Palamnaeus

49. Which of the following is incorrect regarding organisms P, Q R, S and T? A. P possesses endoskeleton of calcareous spicules whereas Q is always aquatic. B. R could be a parasite which attaches to the body of host through hooks and suckers whereas S possesses metanephridia for excretion. C. T sheds off its chitinous exoskeleton periodically during its growth which is referred to as moulting. D. None of these 50. The given apparatus shows a method to separate ethanol-water mixture.

Column II from P. 5.0 m s–2 from Q. 10.0 m s–2 from R. 13.3 m s–2 from S. 15.0 m s–2 B. I-P, II-Q, III-S, IV-R D. I-S, II-R, III-P, IV-Q

Direction (Q. No. 48 and 49) : Refer to the given passage and answer the following questions. P, Q and R are acoelomate organisms whereas S and T are true coelomates. P possesses cellular level of body organisation whereas others possess tissue and organ level of body organisation. Q possesses special stinging cells called cnidoblasts. R is the first triploblastic animal and has flame cells as excretory organs. The body of

Which of the following statements are correct? I. During the process, the liquid with the highest boiling point distils over first. II. Ethanol reaches the upper part of the column first. III. Thermometer first shows a constant reading at 100 °C. IV. Ethanol vapours and water vapours both rise up the column but water vapours condense in the fractionating column and drop back into the distillation flask. A. I and II only B. II and III only C. II and IV only D. I, II, III and IV

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

NSO | Class-9 | Set-B | Level 1 |

7

Class 9

Set A Year 2018

LOGICAL REASONING 1. 2.

How many meaningful words can be made from the letters N, R, E and A, using each letter only once? A. None B. One C. Two D. Three Select a figure from the options which satisfies the same conditions of placement of dots as in the given figure.

A.

B.

C.

D.

7.

A.



B.

C.



D.

8.

3.

If in a certain code language, AMENDMENT is written as 89, then how will LANGUAGE be written in that language? A. 65 B. 68 C. 72 D. 58 Select the correct water image of the given combination of letters and numbers. N2OS18O9A N2OS18O9A N 9A O O S 1 2 B. A. N2OS O9 N2 O9A 18 A C. D.

A square transparent sheet with a pattern and a dotted line on it is given. Select a figure from the options which shows the folded form of the given sheet.

There is a certain relationship between figures (1) and (2). Establish the same relationship between figures (3) and (4) by selecting a suitable figure from the given options which will replace the (?) in figure (4). #

4.

OS18 8

5.

Find the missing number. 



A. 282



B. 352



C. 327 D. 325

6.

Read the given statements carefully and answer the following question. (i) A # B means B is at 1 metre to the right of A. (ii) A $ B means B is at 1 metre to the North of A. (iii) A * B means B is at 1 metre to the left of A. (iv) A £ B means B is at 1 metre to the South of A. According to M # N $ T, T is in which direction with respect to M, if M is facing North ? A. North-West B. North-East C. South-West D. South-East



4

#

(1)

A.

5

80 64

4

11

?

64

8

8

2

9.



(2)

(3)



C. #

4

?

#



(4)

B. #

D.

#

Rahul is the son of Priya. Reema is the daughter of Rahul. Reeta is the paternal aunt of Reema and Raj is the son of Reeta. What is Raj’s relation with Priya? A. Grandson B. Brother C. Son D. Nephew

10. Four positions of a dice are given below. Which letter will be on the face opposite to the face having letter A? B C



A. E

E A

A

C C

B. D

D

D E

C. B

B

F

D. C

SCIENCE 11. A body of mass 1 kg is placed at a distance of 2 m from another body of mass 10 kg. At what distance from the body of 1 kg, another body of mass 5 kg should be placed so that the net force of gravitation acting on the body of mass 1 kg is zero?

A. 1 m

B. 1.5 m

C.

2 m D. 3 m

12. Which of the following statements is/are correct? I. Sound wave does not follow the same law of reflection as light does. 2



II. Tone is a sound of a single frequency while note is a mixture of several frequencies. III. Infrasonic waves are used in SONAR. IV. The numerical ratio of displacement to distance for a moving object is always less than one. V. The value of acceleration due to gravity is least on equator. A. II only B. I, II and III only C. IV and V only D. II and V only | NSO | Class-9 | Set-A | Level 1

13. Match Column I with Column II and select the correct option from given codes. P. Q. R.



S. A. B. C. D.

Column I One end of slinky is jerked up and down continuously Quality of sound One end of slinky is moved back and forth continuously Amplitude P-(i), Q-(ii), R-(iv), S-(iii) P-(ii), Q-(iii), R-(i), S-(iv) P-(iv), Q-(iii), R-(i), S-(ii) P-(iii), Q-(iv), R-(i), S-(ii)



(iv) Timbre



M

F

m

MF ( M + m) F A. B. ( M + 2m) ( M + 2m) mF 2MF D. C. ( M + 2m) ( M + m) 16. A block of metal weighing 2 kg is resting on a frictionless plane. It is struck by a jet releasing water at the rate of 1 kg s–1 and at a speed of 5 m s–1. The initial acceleration of the block is B. 1.25 m s–2 A. 7.5 m s–2 –2 C. 5 m s D. 2.5 m s–2 17. Two mirrors P and Q are placed at right angles to each other as shown in the figure. 90° 90° P

25° Q





A ray of light incident on mirror P at an angle of 25° falls on mirror Q after reflection. The angle of reflection for the ray reflected from mirror Q would be A. 25° B. 50° C. 65° D. 115°

NSO | Class-9 | Set-A | Level 1 |

I. An electroscope is a device which is used to measure the charge on an object. II. The movement of earth’s plates causes thunderstorm. III. Speed of supersonic aircraft is equal to that of sound. IV. A small amount of a mineral salt present naturally in water makes it conductor of electricity. A. II only B. I and II only C. IV only D. III and IV only

19. For an oscillating pendulum of fixed length, which of the following is true ?

15. The given figure shows a heavy block of mass M  kept on a frictionless surface and being pulled by two ropes of equal mass m. At t = 5 s, the force on the left rope is withdrawn but the force on the right end continues to act. Find the magnitude of the force by the right rope on the block. m



Column II (i) Longitudinal wave (ii) Loudness (iii) Transverse wave

14. Two particles begin to fall freely from the same height but the second falls t0 seconds after the first. Find the time (after dropping of first) when separation between the particles is h 0. t 2h t0 h A. B. 0 + 0 + 0 2 2 g t0 2 g t0 t0 h0 D. t0 C. + 2 g t0

F

18. Which of the following statements is/are correct?



A. B. C. D.

Frequency depends on amplitude of oscillation. Frequency and time period are not related. Time period depends on amplitude of oscillation. Frequency and time period are related and do not depend on amplitude of oscillation.

20. Two flies P and Q revolve around a light in concentric circular paths. The radius of circular path of P is twice of Q. P travels with a uniform linear speed of 4 m/s while Q travels with a uniform linear speed of 3 m/s. When P completes three full rounds, then Q would have completed

A. 4 rounds C. 2 rounds

B. 3 rounds D. 1 round.

21. A pump on the ground floor of a building can pump up water to fill a tank of volume 30 m3 in 15 min. If the tank is 40 m above the ground, and the efficiency of the pump is 30%, then how much electric power is consumed by the pump? (Take g = 9.81 m/s2)

A. 100 kW C. 50.60 kW

B. 43.60 kW D. 87.20 kW

22. A man is running towards a plane mirror at a speed of 4 m s–1. The speed of man with respect to its image formed in the mirror will be

A. B. C. D.

2 m s–1 8 m s–1 6 m s–1 None of these.

Mirror

4 m s–1

23. Read the given statements and select the correct option. Statement 1 : A mixture of acetone and methanol can be separated by fractional distillation. Statement 2 : The difference between their boiling points is very less. A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. C. Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false. D. Both statements 1 and 2 are false. 3

24. Ms. Ritu, a science teacher has set up an experiment as shown in the figure.

Which of the following represent the incorrect observations? (i) Both the metal strips dissolve in beaker III. (ii) Reaction takes place in beaker II. (iii) No reaction takes place in beaker I. (iv) Sn strip will dissolve faster than Zn in beaker II. (v) Reaction occurs in beaker I but no colour change is observed. A. (ii) and (v) only B. (iii) and (iv) only C. (i) and (iii) only D. (ii), (iv) and (v) only



25. Ms. Sarika, a class 9 teacher has tabulated melting and boiling points of five substances P to T in the given table. (Assume room temperature as 30°C).



Substance Melting point (°C) Boiling point (°C) P –188 – 42 Q –114 37 R 17 118 S 36 344 T 300 580 Which of the following statements is/are incorrect? I. Substance P exists in gaseous state while substance S exists in liquid state at room temperature. II. Substance R will start turning from a liquid to a solid at 4°C. III. Substance Q is in liquid state at room temperature and it will start changing to gaseous state at 37°C. IV. Substance T exists in solid state at room temperature. A. I and II only B. I and III only C. I only D. III and IV only

27. Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the given codes. Column I Column II (i) 6.022 × 1023 molecules P. 0.25 mole of O2 Q. 18 g of water (ii) 1.505 × 1023 molecules R. 46 g of Na atoms (iii) 6.022 × 1023 atoms S. 1 mole of C atoms (iv) 12.044 × 1023 atoms A. P - (iii), Q - (ii), R - (iv), S - (i) B. P - (ii), Q - (iv), R - (iii), S - (i) C. P - (ii), Q - (i), R - (iv), S - (iii) D. P - (i), Q - (iii), R - (ii), S - (iv) 28. Study the given table carefully and select the incorrect statement(s). Element Number of Number of Number of protons neutrons electrons P 16 18 18 Q 11 12 10 R 10 10 10 S 20 19 18 T 14 15 18 U 20 20 20 I. S and T are cations. II. R is the lightest element while U is the heaviest element. III. P is a noble gas. IV. Q and U are anions. A. II only B. I and IV only C. I, III and IV only D. III and IV only 29. Study the given flow chart carefully and identify substances (i) to (iv). Combustible substance Forms flame

4

Yes

Undergoes spontaneous combustion

No

Yes

(ii)

(iii)

No Undergoes rapid combustion Yes (iv)

A. B. C. D.



(i)

Yes

26. The given petroleum products are extracted by using the fractionating column : Gasoline, Diesel, Kerosene, Petroleum gas

Arrange these products as extracted from top to the bottom of the column. A. Petroleum gas, Kerosene, Gasoline, Diesel B. Gasoline, Petroleum gas, Diesel, Kerosene C. Kerosene, Diesel, Petroleum gas, Gasoline D. Petroleum gas, Gasoline, Kerosene, Diesel

No

(i) Tin Alcohol Paper Marble

(ii) Coal Camphor Iron nail Charcoal

(iii) LPG Crackers Candle Phosphorus

(iv) Sodium CNG Petrol LPG

30. Boiling points of a few gases found in air are given in the table. Element

Krypton

Neon

Boiling point (°C)

–152

–246

Nitrogen Oxygen –196

–183

| NSO | Class-9 | Set-A | Level 1



If the liquid mixture of these gases is fractionally distilled, the order of gases distilling out is A. Krypton, Neon, Nitrogen, Oxygen B. Neon, Nitrogen, Oxygen, Krypton C. Nitrogen, Neon, Oxygen, Krypton D. Oxygen, Neon, Nitrogen, Krypton.

31.

Find the correct matches. I. Formica – Thermoplastic II. PVC – Insulator III. Perspex – Transparent like glass IV. Teflon – Chemically reactive V. Polystyrene – Thermosetting A. II and III only B. I, IV and V only C. II, III and IV only D. None of these

32. A sample of pure water, irrespective of its source contains 11.1% hydrogen and 88.9% oxygen. The data supports A. Law of constant proportions B. Law of conservation of mass C. Law of reciprocal proportions D. Law of multiple proportions. 33. Identify crops X and Y from the given table and select the correct option regarding them.



S.No. X Y (i) These crops are These crops are grown grown in hot and in cold and nearly dry wet conditions. conditions. (ii) These crops are These crops are sown sown in beginning in October-November of rainy season in when monsoon is June-July. retreated. (iii) These crops are These crops are harvested during harvested in MarchSeptember-October. April. A. Crop X could be wheat whereas crop Y could be cotton. B. Crop X could be green gram whereas crop Y could be linseed. C. Crop X could be groundnut whereas crop Y could be jute. D. Crop X could be rice whereas crop Y could be soybean.

34. Refer to the given structure of a prokaryotic cell and select the correct statement regarding it. R

Q

S

NSO | Class-9 | Set-A | Level 1 |

P

A. P is a layer of non-cellulosic polysaccharides. B. Q is double layered in Gram +ve bacteria whereas it is single layered in Gram –ve bacteria. C. R is an impermeable covering that restricts entry and exit of molecules into and out of the cell. D. S could be tubular outgrowths that are involved in locomotion only. 35. Refer to the given table and select the correct option regarding it. Type of cell RBC RBC RBC X A. Swollen RBC B. Normal RBC C. Normal RBC D. Swollen RBC

Solvent Ringer's solution Concentrated salt solution Water Y Shrunken RBC Shrunken RBC Swollen RBC Normal RBC

Result X Y Z Z Normal RBC Swollen RBC Shrunken RBC Shrunken RBC

36. “X” is a type of transport across plasma membrane that occurs against the concentration gradient and it requires energy in the form of ATP. Identify “X” and select the incorrect option regarding it. A. Process X helps to maintain concentrations of ions and other substances within living cells. B. Process X is very slow and could occur in opposite directions simultaneously. C. Process X helps in selective uptake of materials. D. Uptake of glucose and some amino acids by some cells occurs with the help of process X. 37. Pulse polio immunisation programme was launched with an aim to eradicate polio disease. It involves simultaneous administration of polio drops (polio vaccine) to the high risk population on a single day throughout the nation. What is the basic objective of pulse polio immunisation programme? A. To immunise those children who are not earlier immunised or are partially immunised. B. To boost the immunity of children already immunised. C. To eradicate the polio-causing virus from the world. D. All of these 38. Which of the following statements regarding the carbon cycle is correct? A. Respiration is the first step of the carbon cycle as it converts abiotic carbon to organic carbon. B. At least some carbon is removed from carbon cycle when dead animals and plants become fossilised and form fossil fuels. C. All living organisms return carbon to the abiotic environment by respiration. D. Tropical rainforests act as major carbon sinks of the carbon cycle due to their ability to liberate carbon dioxide into the environment when trees die and are decomposed. 5

39. Select the option that correctly identifies X and Y in the given flow chart. Water pollutants Y X A. Ecological BHC Physical Chemical X B. Biological Fertiliser C. Biological Heat DDT Y Helminth D. Ecological Bacteria 40. The matrix of bone is in the form of thin concentric rings, called _______. Bone cells, called _______ are present in fluid- filled spaces called _______. These fluid filled spaces of the bone communicate with each other by network of fine canals, called _______. Select the correct sequence of words to complete the above passage. A. Lacunae, Osteoblasts, Lamellae, Canaliculi B. Lamellae, Osteocytes, Lacunae, Canaliculi C. Lamellae, Chondrocytes, Canaliculi, Lacunae D. Lacunae, Adipocytes, Canaliculi, Sarcoplasm 41. Identify X in the given statement and select the correct option regarding it. “When soil is completely saturated with water and excess water accumulates around plant roots in the field, the condition is referred to as X ”. X could damage crops because A. It reduces air spaces between soil particles B. It cuts off oxygen supply to roots hence, they are not able to breathe C. It increases amount of salt in the soil and reduces its fertility D. All of these. 42. Read the given statements and select the option that correctly identifies them as true (T) and false (F) ones. I. Downy mildew in plants is caused by fungi. II. Chlamydomonas and Fucus are unicellular algae whereas Polysiphonia and diatoms are multicellular. III. Virus contains both DNA and RNA as genetic material. IV. Citrus canker is a bacterial disease that is highly contagious. I II III IV A. F T T F B. T F T F C. T F F T D. F F T T

43. Study the given flow chart carefully. Species included in IUCN Red List Endangered species (i) Lion tailed macaque



Vulnerable species

Near threatened species

Extinct species

(ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (vi) (vii) Gee's Snow Passenger Asiatic Indian Dodo golden leopard pigeon wild ass rhinolangur ceros

(viii) Golden toad

Which of the above species have been incorrectly placed? A. (iv) and (vi) only B. (ii), (iii) and (v) only C. (i), (iv), (vii) and (viii) only D. (ii), (iv) and (viii) only

44. Identify cell organelles L and M and select the correct option related to their function in a cell. L

L A. Formation of lysosomes B. Synthesis of lipids C. Digestion of foreign materials D. Synthesis of protein

M

M Maintenance of cell turgor Spindle formation during cell division Storing by-products Production of ATP

45. Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the given codes. Column I Column II P. Pituitary (i) Controls secondary female characters Q. Adrenal (ii) Regulates basal metabolic rate R. Ovary (iii) Controls activities of other glands S. Thyroid (iv) Prepares body to fight A. P-(iii), Q-(iv), R-(ii), S-(i) B. P-(iii), Q-(i), R-(iv), S-(ii) C. P-(iii), Q-(iv), R-(i), S-(ii) D. P-(i), Q-(ii), R-(iv), S-(iii)

ACHIEVERS SECTION 46. Observe the schematic atomic structures of three elements P, Q and R :

6

Which of the following statements are correct? I. R can form RCl3 and RCl5. II. Q exists in monatomic form. III. P and R combine to form P3R type of compound. IV. P and Q combine to form PQ 2 type of compound. V. P will gain two electrons to form a stable compound. | NSO | Class-9 | Set-A | Level 1

A. III, IV and V only C. I, II and IV only

B. I and II only D. II, IV and V only

47. Refer to the given graph which shows a variable force acting on a particle of mass 2 kg and fill in the blanks by selecting an appropriate option.

Displacement



C.

Displacement

F(N)

Time

D.

49. Two different fields X and Y were treated with two different substances to increase crop yield. Amount of humus in their respective fields was observed for a period of time as shown in the given graph.



If the initial kinetic energy (at x = 0) of the particle is 25 J, then the kinetic energy of the particle at the end of 6 m and 16 m is (i) and (ii) respectively. The momentum of the particle at the end of 10 m and 14 m is (iii) and (iv) respectively. (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

A. 30 J

25 J



B. 45 J

55 J



C. 55 J D. 55 J

35 J 30 J

50 N s 70 N s

90 N s 50 N s

60 N s

2 55 N s

90 N s

110 N s

Velocity

48. The graph of velocity against time for a moving object is shown.

Displacement

Which of the following is the corresponding graph of displacement against time?

Displacement



Select the incorrect statement regarding substances applied in both fields X and Y. A. Substance applied in field X removes general deficiency of soil whereas the one applied in field Y provides only specific essential nutrients to the soil. B. Substance applied in field X is readily absorbed by the crop plants whereas that applied in field Y is absorbed slowly. C. Substance applied in field X is cheap and can be prepared in rural homes whereas that applied in field Y is prepared in factories. D. Substance applied in field X does not cause pollution but that applied in field Y causes pollution.

50. Identify M-P in the given flow chart and select the correct statement regarding them. Radial symmetry

Kingdom Tissue/Organ/Organ Animalia system grade

A.

B.

Time

Time

Key : Field X Field Y

Amount of humus in soil

x (m)

Time

Time

Acoelomate Bilateral symmetry

Time

Acoelomate

Pseudocoelomate Coelomate

M

N O P

A. M could be Obelia whereas N could be Sycon. B. N could be Fasciola whereas O could be Ancylostoma. C. M could be Pheretima whereas P could be Chiton. D. P could be Taenia whereas O could be Ascaris. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

NSO | Class-9 | Set-A | Level 1 |

7

Class 9

Set B Year 2018

LOGICAL REASONING 1.

Select the figure from the options in which the given figure is exactly embedded as one of its parts.

A. 2.

3.

B.

C.

D.

If A + B means A is the brother of B, A × B means A is the son of B and A ÷ B means B is the daughter of A, then which of the following means M is the maternal uncle of N? A. M + O × N B. M × O + N + P C. M + O ÷ N D. None of these Three different positions of a dice are shown here. Find the number of the dots on the face opposite to the face having two dots.

A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6 4.



Six girls are sitting in a circle facing the centre. They are : P, Q, R, S, T and V. T is not between Q and S but some other one. P is next to the left of V. R is 4th to the right of P. Which of the following statements is not true? A. V is third to the right of R. B. T is just next to the right of V. C. R is second to the left of T. D. P is second to the right of R.

5.

How many triangles are there in the given figure?



B. 35



C. 40



D. None of these

A. 38

6.

In the given Venn diagram, Police 11 Officer represents Circle, Male r e p r e s e n t s Tr i a n g l e , P o e t 10 1 represents Square and Married 5 6 represents Rectangle. 2 34 13 12 The area representing unmarried 7 8 9 police officers who are female poets is _______. A. 8 B. 9 C. 2 D. 4 7.

The question consists of a set of three figures X, Y and Z showing a sequence of folding of a piece of paper. Fig. (Z) shows the manner in which the folded paper has been cut. Select the figure from the options which would most closely resemble the unfolded form of fig. (Z).

X

2

Y

Z

A.



B.

C.



D.

8.

A number arrangement machine, when given an input line of numbers, rearranges them in a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and the steps of rearrangement. Input : 39 121 48 18 76 112 14 45 63 96 Step I : 14 39 121 48 18 76 112 45 63 96 Step II : 14 39 48 18 76 112 45 63 96 121 Step III : 14 18 39 48 76 112 45 63 96 121 Step IV : 14 18 39 48 76 45 63 96 112 121 Step V : 14 18 39 45 48 76 63 96 112 121 Step VI : 14 18 39 45 48 63 76 96 112 121 And step VI is the last step of this input. For the given below input, how many steps will be required to get the last step? Input : 101 85 66 49 73 39 142 25 115 74 A. 5 B. 6 C. 7 D. 8 9.

Which of the following options satisfies the same conditions of placement of the dots as in the given figure?

A.

C.





B.

D.

10. In the given question, two rows of numbers are given. The resultant number in each row is to be worked out separately based on the following rules and the question below the rows of numbers is to be answered. The operations on numbers progress from left to right. Rules : (i) If an odd number is followed by another composite odd number, they are to be added. (ii) If an even number is followed by an odd number, they are to be added. (iii) If an even number is followed by a number which is the perfect square, the even number is to be subtracted from the perfect square. (iv) If an odd number is followed by a prime odd number, the first number is to be divided by the second number. (v) If an odd number is followed by an even number, the second one is to be subtracted from the first number. 85 17 35 16 19 r If ‘r’ is the resultant of the first row, then what will be the resultant of the second row? A. 175 B. –5 C. 75 D. 210 | NSO | Class-9 | Set-B | Level 1

SCIENCE 11. A force is applied to a cart moving along a horizontal track in the positive x direction. If the cart speeds up and then slows down, then which one of the following graphs best shows the variation of the force with time for the cart? Assume that friction is negligible. Force

Force

B.

A.

Time

Time Force

Time

B. M / 3

C. 2 M / 3 D. 3 M / 4

13. A particle of mass m moving along a straight line experiences force F which varies with the distance travelled as shown in the graph. If the velocity of the

F 2F0 F0 x0

2 F0 x0 , then m

particle at x0 is velocity at 2x0 is

5F x A. 0 0 m F0 x0 C. m

2x0

x

Fx B. 2 0 0 m D. None of these.

14. A jar is filled with two non-mixing liquids 1 and 2 having densities r1 and r2 respectively. A solid ball, made of a material of density r3, is dropped in the jar. It comes to equilibrium in the position shown in the figure. Which of the following is true for r1, r2 and r3? A. r1 < r3 < r2

Liquid 1

B. r3 < r1 < r2 C. r1 > r3 > r2 r1 < r2 < r3 D.

Liquid 2

15. The figure shows four arrangements of three particles of equal masses. (D = 2d)

(i) (iii)

d

D

m d m



(ii)

d

D m

D



NSO | Class-9 | Set-B | Level 1 |

(iv)

16. An engine is approaching a hill at constant speed. When it is at a distance of 0.9 km, it blows a whistle, whose echo is heard by the driver after 5 s. If the speed of sound is 340 m s–1, then find the speed of the engine.

D

m d

A. 20 m s–1 B. 30 m s–1 C. 15 m s–1 D. 10 m s–1

x(m)

12. A hot air balloon loaded with sandbags has a total mass of M. It is descending with a downward acceleration of g/2, where g is the acceleration of free fall. How much sand must be released from the sandbags in order that hot air balloon ascends with the same acceleration? A. M / 2

Select the correct option regarding the magnitude of the net gravitational force on the particle labelled m. A. (i) > (iii) = (iv) > (ii) B. (i) = (iii) > (ii) > (iv) C. (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv) D. (iv)  S > P B. Q>S>P>R C. P > Q > R > S D. S>R>Q>P 32. Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the given codes. Column I Column II (Zones of candle flame) (Characteristics) P. Dark zone (i) Complete combustion Q. Luminous zone (ii) No combustion R. Blue zone (iii) Incomplete combustion S. Non-luminous zone (iv) Where CO burns NSO | Class-9 | Set-B | Level 1 |



A. B. C. D.

P - (ii), Q - (i), R - (iii), S - (iv) P - (ii), Q - (iii), R - (iv), S - (i) P - (iii), Q - (ii), R - (i), S - (iv) P - (iv), Q - (iii), R - (ii), S - (i)

33. Which of the following statements is correct? A. Lysosomes play an important role at the time of fertilisation. B. 80 S-ribosome consists of a large 50 S subunit and small 30 S subunit. C. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum mainly consists of cisternae whereas rough endoplasmic reticulum mainly consists of tubules and vesicles. D. All of these 34. Refer to the given structure of a type of plant tissue. Identify its X components X, Y and Z and select Y the correct statement regarding them. Z A. X is a non-living thin-walled cell that helps in storage of food. B. Y is devoid of nucleus but mitochondria, plastids and endoplasmic reticulum are present in abundance in it. C. Z is connected to X with the help of plasmodesmata. D. Both B and C 35. Select the option which correctly identifies P - T. Phylum/ Excretory Circulatory Class organ system Arthropoda P Q R S





A.



B.



C.



D.

Nephridia Nephridia

P Q Green gland Closed Malpighian Open tubule Antennary Open gland Nephridia Closed

Closed Open

Respiratory organ Book lungs/ Gills/Tracheal system Skin T

R S Mollusca Annelida Annelida Mollusca Porifera Amphibia

T Tracheal system Ctenidia Lungs

Mollusca Annelida Lungs

36. Which of the following statements is correct regarding chronic diseases? A. They last for a long time, may be as much as a life time. B. A person suffering from a chronic disease always recovers completely after treatment. C. They do not cause long term bad effects on human health. D. These include Alzheimer’s disease, cholera, arthritis, cancer, etc. 5

37. The given table represents differences between bryophytes and pteridophytes. Identify the correct ones. Bryophytes Main plant body is sporophytic (diploid). II. Plant body is either thalloid or foliose, however, true stem, leaves and roots are absent. III. Plant is fixed to the substratum by roots. IV. Sporophyte is parasitic over gametophytic plant body. V. These are non-vascular plants.

I.



A. I and II only C. I, II and IV only

Pteridophytes Main plant body is gametophytic (haploid). Plant body is differentiated into true roots, stem and leaves. Plant is fixed to the substratum by rhizoids. It has small, independent gametophyte. These are vascular plants.

B. II and IV only D. II, IV and V only

38. Some water falling on ground, forms an extremely thin, tightly held film around the soil particles called ________ while some water moves down upto the water table and is called ________. Select the option that correctly fills the blanks in the above statement. A. Gravitational water, capillary water B. Hygroscopic water, surface runoff C. Hygroscopic water, gravitational water D. Capillary water, surface runoff 39. Read the given statements. (i) Bee wax obtained from beehive is deposition of excretory products of honeybee. (ii) Fish culture is sometimes done in combination with rice crop so that fish are grown in the water accumulated in the paddy field. (iii) Fish feed in different zones of pond to make most efficient use of available food. (iv) Sahiwal and Murrah are exotic breeds used extensively in cattle farming. (v) Intercropping is growing two or more crops simultaneously on the same field in a definite pattern. Which of the given statements are incorrect? A. (i), (ii) and (iii) only B. (ii) and (iv) only C. (i) and (iv) only D. (i), (iv) and (v) only 40. Refer to the given flow chart and select the correct option regarding it. Disease caused in animals Yes

Caused by bacteria Yes

No

P

Can spread to humans from animals

Yes

Q

No

R

A. P could be anthrax whereas Q could be plague. B. Q could be plague whereas R could be foot and mouth disease. C. P could be tuberculosis whereas R could be plague. 6

D. P could be foot and mouth disease, Q could be anthrax whereas R could be pullorum. 41. Refer to the given set of secondary sexual characteristics. I. Enlargement of breasts II. Development of Adam’s apple III. Deepening of voice IV. Growth of pubic hair V. Widening of pelvis How many of these are related to females only? A. 3 B. 4 C. 2 D. 5 42.

Select the incorrectly matched pair. A. Mitochondria – Production of energy B. Vacuole – Storage of useful minerals C. Centrosome – Formation of spindle D. Peroxisomes – Formation of lysosomes

43. Match column I with column II and column III and select the correct option from the given codes. Column I Column II Column III P. Gujarat a. Asian Desert National elephant Park (ii) Gir Q. Assam b. Asiatic National lion Park (iii) Bandipur R. West c. Royal National Bengal Bengal Park tiger (iv) Sundarban S. Rajasthan d. One-horned National rhinoceros Park (v) Kaziranga T. Karnataka e. Great Indian National bustard Park A. (i)-S, e; (ii)-P, b; (iii)-T, a; (iv)-R, c; (v)-Q, d B. (i)-P, a; (ii)-R, e; (iii)-Q, b; (iv)-S, d; (v)-T, c C. (i)-Q, b; (ii)-R, a; (iii)-P, c; (iv)-T, e; (v)-S, d D. (i)-P, b; (ii)-S, d; (iii)-Q, c; (iv)-T, e; (v)-R, a (i)



44. Read the given statements and select the option that correctly fill the blanks in any two of them. (a) Entamoeba histolytica causes _____ ( i) _____ and Entamoeba gingivalis causes _____ (ii) _____. (b) _____ (i) _____ bacteria can fix atmospheric nitrogen into nitrates. (c) _____ (i) _____ and _____ (ii) _____ are common bacteria that cause denitrification. A. (a)-(i) Amoebiasis, (ii) Food poisoning (c)-(i) Rhizobium, (ii) Thiobacillus B. (b)-(i) Rhizobium, (c)-(i) Thiobacillus, (ii) Pseudomonas C. (a)-(i) Amoebiasis, (ii) Pyorrhoea (b)-(i) Thiobacillus, D. (a)-(i) Pyorrhoea, (ii) Amoebiasis (c)-(i) Nitrosomonas, (ii) Pseudomonas | NSO | Class-9 | Set-B | Level 1

45. Select the incorrect statement. A. Biopesticides kill specific insect pests without affecting useful insects in the crop field.



B. Malathion is a common insecticide. C. MCPA is used to control rodents. D. Atrazine is a common herbicide.

ACHIEVERS SECTION

Velocity (m s–1)

46. Read the given passage and fill in the blanks by selecting an appropriate option. The velocity-time graphs of Car a car and a scooter are shown 45 Scooter in the figure. The difference 30 between the distance 15 travelled by the car and the 0 scooter in first 15 s is (i) 0 5 10 15 20 25 Time (s) and the time at which the car will catch up with the scooter is (ii) . At time t = 10 s, acceleration of car is (iii) while velocity of scooter is (iv) . (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) A. 112.5 m 15 s 1 m s–2 0 m s–1 B. 337.5 m 10 s 2 m s–2 30 m s–1 C. 112.5 m 22.5 s 3 m s–2 30 m s–1 D. 225.5 m 25 s 3 m s–2 15 m s–1 47. A 1 kg mass is projected down a rough circular track (radius = v P 2 m) placed in vertical plane as 90° 2m shown. The speed of the mass at point P is 3 m/s and at point Q, Q it is 6 m/s. How much work is done on the mass between points P and Q by the force of friction? (Take g = 10 m/s2)

A. –7.5 J

B. –8.5 J

C. –6.5 J

49. Refer to the given dichotomous key and select the incorrect option regarding it.

I. (a) Disease is present since birth. - P







II. (a) It is a communicable disease. - Go to III (b) It is a non-communicable disease. -Go to IV III. (a) It spreads through direct contact. - Q







IV. (a) It occurs due to deficiency of nutrients. - S





(b) It spreads through vector. - R

(b) It occurs due to deficiency of a hormone. - T A. P could be cleft palate, R could be elephantiasis and T could be goitre. B. Q could be rhinitis, R could be sleeping sickness and S could be night blindness. C. P could be Down’s syndrome, Q could be measles and R could be malaria. D. Q could be kala-azar, R could be haemophilia and S could be cretinism. 50. The given table shows the melting and boiling points of four substances W, X, Y and Z. Substance

D. –24 J

48. Identify the types of epithelial tissue from the given statements and select the correct option regarding them. I. L forms delicate lining of blood vessels. II. M is found in salivary and sweat glands. III. N forms lining of stomach and gall bladder. IV. O lines Fallopian tubes and nephrons of kidney. A. L could be cuboidal epithelium whereas M could be columnar epithelium. B. M could be cuboidal epithelium whereas N could be columnar epithelium. C. N could be squamous epithelium whereas O could be cuboidal epithelium. D. L could be columnar epithelium whereas O could be ciliated epithelium.

(b) Disease develops after birth. - Go to II



M.pt. (°C)

B.pt. (°C)

W

–15

65

X

–262

–242

Y

– 41

90

Z

–110

–5

Solid Now, refer to the given diagram and read the given (ii) (i) statements carefully. (v) (iv) I. Substance Z will exist (vi) in liquid form at room Liquid Gas (iii) temperature. II. Substance W will undergo change (ii) at 65°C. III. At –252°C, substance X will undergo change (iv). IV. At 90°C, substance Y will undergo change (iii). The incorrect statement(s) is/are A. I and III only B. II and IV only C. IV only D. I, II and III only

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

NSO | Class-9 | Set-B | Level 1 |

7

ANSWER KEYS NSO 2014 1. (B) 11. (C) 21. (B) 31. (C) 41. (C)

2. (B) 12. (D) 22. (B) 32. (A) 42. (A)

3. (B) 13. (B) 23. (A) 33. (C) 43. (A)

4. (B) 14. (B) 24. (B) 34. (B) 44. (B)

SET A 5. (D) 6. (C) 15. (C) 16. (A) 25. (A) 26. (C) 35. (C) 36. (D) 45. (D) 46. (D)

1. (A) 11. (D) 21. (D) 31. (C) 41. (A)

2. (A) 12. (D) 22. (A) 32. (B) 42. (A)

3. (B) 13. (D) 23. (B) 33. (A) 43. (D)

4. (B) 14. (B) 24. (D) 34. (D) 44. (B)

SET B 5. (A) 6. (C) 15. (D) 16. (D) 25. (C) 26. (D) 35. (C) 36. (D) 45. (B) 46. (B)

7. (D) 17. (B) 27. (A) 37. (D) 47. (C)

8. (C) 18. (D) 28. (D) 38. (D) 48. (C)

9. 19. 29. 39. 49.

(D) (B) (D) (C) (C)

10. 20. 30. 40. 50.

(B) (A) (D) (B) (D)

7. (A) 17. (C) 27. (D) 37. (C) 47. (B)

8. (D) 18. (A) 28. (D) 38. (D) 48. (C)

9. 19. 29. 39. 49.

(B) (D) (C) (D) (C)

10. 20. 30. 40. 50.

(C) (C) (A) (D) (A)

NSO 2015 1. (D) 11. (D) 21. (B) 31. (C) 41. (A)

2. (B) 12. (B) 22. (C) 32. (B) 42. (C)

3. (D) 13. (A) 23. (A) 33. (B) 43. (B)

4. (C) 14. (D) 24. (B) 34. (C) 44. (B)

SET 1 5. (B) 6. (D) 15. (B) 16. (C) 25. (B) 26. (D) 35. (B) 36. (D) 45. (D) 46. (C)

7. (A) 17. (C) 27. (C) 37. (A) 47. (D)

8. (A) 18. (C) 28. (A) 38. (A) 48. (B)

9. 19. 29. 39. 49.

(D) (A) (B) (B) (B)

10. 20. 30. 40. 50.

(C) (D) (D) (D) (B)

1. (A) 11. (C) 21. (D) 31. (A) 41. (C)

2. (B) 12. (B) 22. (C) 32. (A) 42. (A)

3. (D) 13. (D) 23. (C) 33. (C) 43. (A)

4. (D) 14. (B) 24. (B) 34. (A) 44. (C)

SET 2 5. (C) 6. (A) 15. (C) 16. (A) 25. (D) 26. (B) 35. (C) 36. (A) 45. (D) 46. (A)

7. (A) 17. (D) 27. (C) 37. (D) 47. (C)

8. (D) 18. (A) 28. (C) 38. (B) 48. (B)

9. 19. 29. 39. 49.

(C) (C) (B) (D) (D)

10. 20. 30. 40. 50.

(D) (B) (C) (B) (C)

7. (D) 17. (A) 27. (C) 37. (C) 47. (A)

8. (B) 18. (C) 28. (D) 38. (A) 48. (B)

9. 19. 29. 39. 49.

(D) (B) (C) (C) (C)

10. 20. 30. 40. 50.

(A) (D) (C) (D) (B)

7. (A) 17. (C) 27. (B) 37. (D) 47. (A)

8. (C) 18. (B) 28. (C) 38. (B) 48. (A)

9. 19. 29. 39. 49.

(C) (B) (C) (B) (C)

10. 20. 30. 40. 50.

(A) (B) (D) (C) (A)

7. (C) 17. (D) 27. (C) 37. (B) 47. (C)

8. (D) 18. (B) 28. (C) 38. (D) 48. (A)

9. 19. 29. 39. 49.

(A) (B) (B) (B) (D)

10. 20. 30. 40. 50.

(D) (C) (C) (A) (D)

NSO 2016 SET A 1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (B) 4. (D) 5. (C) 6. (D) 11. (C) 12. (B) 13. (D) 14. (A) 15. (D) 16. (A) 21. (A) 22. (D) 23. (C) 24. (D) 25. (C) 26. (C) 31. (A) 32. (A) 33. (D) 34. (C) 35. (A) 36. (B) 41. (A) 42. (C) 43. (B) 44. (C) 45. (A) 46. (C) 1. (A) 11. (D) 21. (B) 31. (D) 41. (C)

2. (D) 12. (B) 22. (B) 32. (B) 42. (C)

3. (D) 13. (C) 23. (C) 33. (B) 43. (D)

4. (D) 14. (A) 24. (C) 34. (C) 44. (D)

SET B 5. (C) 6. (C) 15. (A) 16. (B) 25. (D) 26. (D) 35. (A) 36. (D) 45. (C) 46. (A)

NSO 2017 1. (C) 11. (C) 21. (A) 31. (A) 41. (D)

2. (A) 12. (D) 22. (D) 32. (C) 42. (A)

3. (B) 13. (B) 23. (B) 33. (A) 43. (D)

4. (C) 14. (A) 24. (C) 34. (C) 44. (A)

SET A 5. (A) 6. (B) 15. (B) 16. (C) 25. (A) 26. (B) 35. (D) 36. (B) 45. (A) 46. (D)

1. (C) 11. (B) 21. (A) 31. (B) 41. (C)

2. (C) 12. (D) 22. (D) 32. (C) 42. (B)

3. (C) 13. (B) 23. (A) 33. (C) 43. (A)

4. (A) 14. (D) 24. (B) 34. (B) 44. (A)

SET B 5. (D) 6. (C) 15. (D) 16. (A) 25. (D) 26. (D) 35. (B) 36. (C) 45. (B) 46. (D)

7. (B) 17. (A) 27. (B) 37. (B) 47. (B)

8. (D) 18. (C) 28. (C) 38. (C) 48. (B)

9. 19. 29. 39. 49.

(A) (A) (C) (D) (D)

10. 20. 30. 40. 50.

(C) (A) (D) (C) (C)

NSO 2018 1. (C) 11. (C) 21. (B) 31. (A) 41. (D)

2. (D) 12. (D) 22. (B) 32. (A) 42. (C)

3. (B) 13. (D) 23. (A) 33. (B) 43. (A)

4. (B) 14. (C) 24. (D) 34. (A) 44. (A)

SET A 5. (B) 6. (B) 15. (B) 16. (D) 25. (A) 26. (D) 35. (B) 36. (B) 45. (C) 46. (B)

7. (A) 17. (C) 27. (C) 37. (D) 47. (C)

8. (C) 18. (C) 28. (C) 38. (C) 48. (C)

9. 19. 29. 39. 49.

(A) (D) (D) (C) (B)

10. 20. 30. 40. 50.

(B) (A) (B) (B) (B)

1. (B) 11. (C) 21. (B) 31. (A) 41. (C)

2. (D) 12. (C) 22. (A) 32. (B) 42. (D)

3. (C) 13. (A) 23. (D) 33. (A) 43. (A)

4. (C) 14. (A) 24. (B) 34. (D) 44. (B)

SET B 5. (D) 6. (A) 15. (A) 16. (A) 25. (C) 26. (D) 35. (B) 36. (A) 45. (C) 46. (C)

7. (B) 17. (A) 27. (C) 37. (D) 47. (C)

8. (D) 18. (B) 28. (D) 38. (C) 48. (B)

9. 19. 29. 39. 49.

(B) (A) (A) (C) (D)

10. 20. 30. 40. 50.

(B) (C) (D) (D) (D)