Gurukul NTA CUET (UG) Political Science Question Bank Exam 2024 9788119962853

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Political Science for Section II of CUET (UG), especially prepared for students appearing for Common University Entrance Test (UG) in the upcoming years. This book is ideal for building self-confidence during exam preparation. The ‘Chapterwise’ format of the book with its exhaustive set of questions allows the students to cover every topic in an organised and systematic manner. The question bank adheres completely to the syllabus prescribed by NTA. The study material and exercises have been prepared in order to make students capable of adapting themselves to the syllabus, pattern, and standard of CUET (UG). With its simple language and style, this book is perfect for smart study. We are confident that the book will enable the candidates to develop a better understanding of the curriculum and help them organise their learning process. This book shall definitely prove to be a fruitful tool for the students and encourage them towards

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Part-A: Politics in India since Independence 1. The Era of One-Party Dominance 2. Nation-Building and its Problems 3. Politics of Planned Development 4. India’s External Relations 5. Challenges to and Restoration of Congress System 6. Crisis of the Constitutional Order 7. Regional Aspirations and Conflicts 8. Rise of New Social Movements 9. Democratic Upsurge and Coalition Politics 10. Recent Issues and Challenges Part-B: Contemporary World Politics

1. Cold War Era In World Politics 2. Disintegration of the Second World and the Collapse of Bipolarity 3. US Dominance in World Politics 4. Alternative Centres of Economic and Political Power 5. South Asia in the Post-Cold War Era 6. International Organisations in Unipolar World 7. Security in Contemporary World 8. Environment and Natural Resources in Global Politics 9. Globalisation and its Critics

1. Indian National Congress was established in the year: (a) 1947 (b) 1950 (c) 1885 (d) 1900 Ans. (c) 1885 2. Who played an important role in the establishment of the Congress Party? (a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Jawaharlal Nehru (c) Gopal Krishna Gokhale (d) A.O. Hume Ans. (d) A.O. Hume 3. When was first election of Lok Sabha held? (a) 1947 (b) 1950 (c) 1952 (d) 1955 Ans. (c) 1952 4. Era of one-party dominance is related to which political party? (a) Indian National Congress (b) Bharatiya Jana Sangh

(c) Socialist Party (d) Communist Party Ans. (a) Indian National Congress 5. Era of one-party dominance began in the year: (a) 1947 (b) 1949 (c) 1950 (d) 1952 Ans. (d) 1952 6. Who among the following said: “One-party dominance expressed India’s party system more accurately than the term ‘one-party system’”? (a) Paul R. Brass (b) Jawaharlal Nehru (c) Rajni Kothari (d) Dr. Radha Krishnan Ans. (c) Rajni Kothari 7. In the first Lok Sabha election held in 1952 the Congress Party, out of a total of 489 seats won: (a) 390 seats (b) 364 seats (c) 304 seats (d) 356 seats Ans. (b) 364 seats 8. Who among the following was appointed as the first Chief Election Commissioner of free India?

(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (b) Balram Jhakhar (c) Sukumar Sen (d) Shivraj Patil Ans. (c) Sukumar Sen 9. Total number of seats in Lok Sabha at the time of first General Election were: (a) 500 (b) 520 (c) 495 (d) 489 Ans. (d) 489 10. Match the following: List-A (Leader)

List-B (Party)

A.

S.A. Dange

(i)

Bhartiya Jana Sangh

B.

Shyama Prasad Mukherjee

(ii)

Swatantra Party

C.

Minoo Masani

(iii)

Praja Socialist Party

D.

Asoka Mehta

(iv)

Communist Party of India

(a) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii) (b) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iv) (c) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii) (d) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i)

Ans. (a) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii) 11. The first national elections of the post independence in India was in the year ______ . (a) 1952 (b) 1960 (c) 1947 (d) 1968 Ans. (a) 1952 12. Which party won the first National elections in India? (a) Indian National Congress (b) Communist Party of India (c) It was coalition government (d) Peoples Democratic Front Ans. (a) Indian National Congress 13. Which statement about the Congress party is NOT correct? (a) It inherited the legacy of the independence movement (b) Post independence it was the only party that had pan India reach (c) It had Nehru - the most charismatic leader (d) It dissolved after the independence movement Ans. (d) It dissolved after the independence movement 14. The Indian National Congress won ______ out of 489 seats in the first election of the Lok Sabha. (a) 364 (b) 250

(c) 100 (d) 489 Ans. (a) 364 15. Which statement about the first National Elections is NOT true? (a) The Communist party of India got 16 seats (b) The final results of the election surprised many (c) The state elections were held with the Lok Sabha elections (d) It was a hung parliament Ans. (d) It was a hung parliament 16. The Congress Party dominated in how many general elections? (a) 10 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 1 Ans. (b) 3 17. In the 1952 elections, what was the percentage of votes that Congress received? (a) 45% (b) 50% (c) 57% (d) 10% Ans. (a) 45% 18. In the first three national elections, Congress won ______ seats.

(a) Three-fourth (b) Half (c) No (d) All of these Ans. (a) Three-fourth 19. In 1957 state elections, which party formed the government in Kerala? (a) CPI-led coalition (b) Congress (c) CPI (d) Jan Sangh Ans. (a) CPI-led coalition 20. One-party dominance in India was different than in other countries. How? (a) In India one-party dominance happened through democratic processes (b) In India one-party dominance happened through military measures (c) In India one-party dominance happened by compromising democracy (d) In India one-party dominance happened by constitutional act Ans. (a) In India one-party dominance happened through democratic processes 21. The one-party dominance in India was similar to one-party dominance in ______ . (a) South Africa (b) Italy

(c) China (d) Malaysia Ans. (a) South Africa 22. Which statements about the Indian National Congress (post independence) is TRUE? (i) It was an all-inclusive party (ii) It had the ‘first of the block’ advantage (iii) It was a well organised party (iv) It had a pan India presence (a) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) (iv) (d) (i), (ii) and (iii) Ans. (a) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) 23. The congress party was a ______ party. (a) Rainbow (b) Autocratic (c) Minority (d) Upper caste Ans. (a) Rainbow 24. The first decade of Indian politics is described as the ______. (a) Congress system (b) Multiparty system (c) Non-democratic period

(d) Bi-party system Ans. (a) Congress system 25. Different groups representing different sections of society within a party are called: (a) Factions (b) Divisions (c) Coalitions (d) None of these Ans. (a) Factions 26. In the first three elections, when the Congress won the elections which party came second? (a) CPI (b) Janata Party (c) Swaraj Party (d) Kisan Mazdoor Praja Party Ans. (a) CPI 27. The congress party system in India was ______. (a) One-party dominance (b) One-party system (c) Coalition system (d) Bi-party system Ans. (a) One-party dominance 28. The Institutional Revolution Party (PRI) is a political party of which country? (a) India

(b) Mexico (c) Canada (d) Spain Ans. (b) Mexico 29. Who was the founder of Bharatiya Jana Sangh? (a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Indira Gandhi (c) Deen Dayal Upadhyay (d) Shyama Prasad Mukherjee Ans. (d) Shyama Prasad Mukherjee 30. Which of the following statement is/are correct? (i) Swatantra Party was founded in 1959. (ii) Swatantra Party lid by C. Rajagopalachari, K.M. Munshi, N.G. Ranga. (iii) The Swatantra Party wanted the government to be more involvement in controlling the economy. (a) Only (i) (b) (i) and (ii) only (c) Only (iii) (d) All of these Ans. (b) (i) and (ii) only 31. In ________ the Communist Party abandoned the path of violent revolution and decided to participate in general election. (a) 1947 (b) 1951

(c) 1954 (d) 1961 Ans. (b) 1951 32. Which one of the following is a State where Congress was not in power even after huge victory in the first general election? (a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Madhya Pradesh (c) Odisha (d) Maharashtra Ans. (c) Odisha 33. One of the following guiding principles of the ideology of Swatantra Party was: (a) State control economy (b) Protection of princely state (c) Autonomy of state with in the union (d) Economy free from state control Ans. (d) Economy free from state control 34. The Constitution of India came into effect on the: (a) 26 November, 1948 (b) 26 November, 1949 (c) 26 January, 1950 (d) 26 January, 1947 Ans. (c) 26 January, 1950 35. When was Election Commission of India set-up:

(a) 1947 (b) 1949 (c) 1950 (d) 1952 Ans. (c) 1950 36. Who was the first Chief Election Commissioner? (a) Sukumar Sen (b) Narendra Dev (c) Vishnu Gopal (d) Alok Sen Ans. (a) Sukumar Sen 37. Which of the following statement is/are correct regarding Baba Saheb Dr. B.R. Ambedkar? (a) Leader of Anti-caste Movement (b) Founder of Independent Labour Party (c) Founded Scheduled Castes Federation (d) All of the above Ans. (d) All of the above 38. When was Congress Socialist Party was formed? (a) 1930 (b) 1934 (c) 1940 (d) 1944 Ans. (b) 1934

1. Name the leader who played a historic role in negotiating with the rulers of princely states to join the Indian Union. (a) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel (b) Jawaharlal Nehru (c) Mahatma Gandhi (d) Ramchandra Guha Ans. (a) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel 2. What is ‘Two Nation Theory’? (i) Syed Ahmed Khan was the principal architect of two nation theory. (ii) According to this theory, a separate state was to be created for Muslims. (iii) All political leaders supported this theory. Identify the correct option. (a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i) and (ii) (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i), (ii) and (iii) Ans. (b) (i) and (ii) 3. Which two languages were spoken in Bombay state before it was divided in 1950? (a) Gujarati and Marathi (b) Gujarati and Hindi (c) Marathi and Hindi

(d) Hindi and Konkani Ans. (a) Gujarati and Marathi 4. Which among the following statements about the partition is not true? (a) Partition of India was the outcome of the ‘Two Nation Theory’. (b) Punjab and Bengal were the two provinces divided on the basis of religion. (c) East Pakistan and West Pakistan were not contiguous. (d) The scheme of Partition included a plan for transfer of population across the border. Ans. (d) The scheme of Partition included a plan for transfer of population across the border. 5. _______ princely states Independence of India.

consisted

at

the

time

of

(a) 565 (b) 567 (c) 566 (d) 576 Ans. (a) 565 6. Which of the princely state proved more difficult their merger with the Indian Union. (a) Junagadh, Hyderabad, Kashmir and Manipur. (b) Junagadh, Hyderabad, Rajasthan and Manipur. (c) Bengal, Hyderabad, Rajasthan and Manipur. (d) Bengal, Hyderabad, Rajasthan and Junagadh. Ans. (a) Junagadh, Hyderabad, Kashmir and Manipur.

7. Which state decided to remain independent in place of joining India? (a) Travancore (b) Bengal (c) Rajasthan (d) Uttar Pradesh Ans. (a) Travancore 8. In which Congress Session, proposal for linguistic principles of reorganisation was accepted? (a) Nagpur Congress Session of 1920 (b) Calcutta Congress Session of 1917 (c) Ahmedabad Congress Session of 1921 (d) Gaya Congress Session of 1922 Ans. (a) Nagpur Congress Session of 1920 9. Which recommendation of the States Reorganisation Commission of 1953 is incorrect? (a) To organise states on linguistic basis. (b) Boundaries of states should also reflect the linguistic aspects. (c) This Act was passed in 1957. (d) This Act resulted in creation of 14 States and 6 Union Territories. Ans. (c) This Act was passed in 1957. 10. Arrange the following in the chronological order of their establishment. (i) State of Chhattisgarh (ii) State of Mizoram

(iii) State of Himachal Pradesh (iv) State of Nagaland (a) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii) (b) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i) (c) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i) (d) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) Ans. (b) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i) 11. Which among the following is incorrect about Amritsar and Kolkata becoming communal zones? (a) Muslims did not wish to move into area of Hindu majority. (b) Muslim wished to move into area of Sikh majority. (c) Hindus did not wish to move into area of Muslim majority. (d) Sikhs did not wish to move into area of Muslim majority. Ans. (b) Muslim wished to move into area of Sikh majority. 12. States were recognised on _________ principle in India in ________ to maintain unity and integrity of the nation to avoid violence and conflict among the people. (a) Linguistic,1956 (b) Linguistic, 1957 (c) Non-linguistic, 1956 (d) Non-linguistic,, 1967 Ans. (a) Linguistic,1956 13. Which state got divided on bilingual basis? (a) Bombay (b) Gujarat

(c) Assam (d) Meghalaya Ans. (a) Bombay 14. Which interest among the following was not hidden behind the conflict between Hindus and Muslims at the time independence? (a) Hindu and Muslim communities bear some political interest at the time of independence. (b) Muslim League demanded a separate nation for Muslims to protect the interest of Muslims only. (c) There were some Hindu organizations also which made efforts to look after the interest of Hindus only to make India a ‘Hindu Nation’. (d) All communities wanted to have separate nation on the basis of religion. Ans. (d) All communities wanted to have separate nation on the basis of religion. 15. The three major problems faced in the process of partition of India were: (i) Areas were supposed to be distributed on the basis of religious majority. (ii) No single belt of Muslim majority was the part of British India. They were concentrated in east and west. (iii) Some Muslim majority areas did not want to be merged with Pakistan. (iv) Another problem belonged to majority on both sides of border. Select the correct answer from the options given below: (a) (i), (ii) and (iv)

(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv) Ans. (c) (i), (ii) and (iii) 16. Name the movement that demanded a separate province for Andhra region. (a) Vishalandhra Movement (b) Naxal-Maoist Movement (c) Karbi Longri North Movement (d) Kamatapur Liberation Movement Ans. (a) Vishalandhra Movement 17. Whose actions were not liked by extremists in both the Hindu and Muslim communities and blamed him for their condition? (a) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel (b) Jawaharlal Nehru (c) Mahatma Gandhi (d) Mohammad Ali Jinnah Ans. (c) Mahatma Gandhi 18. “Tomorrow we shall be free from the slavery of the British domination. But at midnight India will be partitioned. Tomorrow will thus be a day of rejoicing as well as of mourning.” Whose statement was this? (a) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel (b) Jawaharlal Nehru (c) Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan

(d) Mahatma Gandhi Ans. (d) Mahatma Gandhi 19. What is States Reorganisation Commission? (a) Organisation that sees the documents are signed by rulers of states when agreed to become a part of Indian Union. (b) Organisation of Para-military force of Nizam. (c) Organisation that looks into the matter of redrawing of boundaries of states. (d) Organisation of Human Development. Ans. (c) Organisation that looks into the matter of redrawing of boundaries of states. 20. What was the basis of the report of States Reorganisation Commission? (a) Distribution of boundaries of states on language basis to reflect linguistic aspect. (b) Distribution of boundaries of states on religion basis to reflect religious aspect. (c) Distribution of boundaries of states on caste basis to reflect caste aspect. (d) Distribution of boundaries of states on culture basis to reflect cultural aspect. Ans. (a) Distribution of boundaries of states on language basis to reflect linguistic aspect. 21. Which of the following statements is/are true? (i) The states of Maharashtra and Gujarat were created in 1960. (ii) Meghalaya was carved out of Assam in 1972. (a) Only (i)

(b) Only (ii) (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b) Ans. (c) Both (a) and (b) 22. What was government’s approach towards the integration of princely states? (a) Most of the princely states were not willing to join Indian Union and the government. (b) The government wanted to accommodate plurality by adopting flexible approach in dealing with the demand of the region. (c) The Central government was not concerned towards integration and consolidation of territorial boundaries of Indian nation. (d) The government was not prepared to be flexible in giving autonomy to some regions. Ans. (b) The government wanted to accommodate plurality by adopting flexible approach in dealing with the demand of the region. 23. Which was the following State became the first to hold an election based on universal adult franchise to merge in India? (a) Nagaland (b) Manipur (c) Assam (d) Tamil Nadu Ans. (b) Manipur 24. Which one of the following statement is false? (a) The formation of Andhra Pradesh spurred the struggle for making of other states on linguistic lines in other parts of the

country. (b) The Vishalandhra movement demanded Telugu speaking areas be separated from the Madras province. (c) The States Reorganisation Act was passed in 1957 which led to the creation of 14 states and 6 Union Territories. (d) Democracy was associated with plurality of ideas and ways of life. Ans. (c) The States Reorganisation Act was passed in 1957 which led to the creation of 14 states and 6 Union Territories. 25. Which was the first state that was formed on Linguistic Basis? (a) Andhra Pradesh (Telugu) (b) Kerala (Tamil) (c) Karnataka (Malayalam) (d) Tamil Nadu ( Kannada) Ans. (a) Andhra Pradesh (Telugu) 26. What is meant by the Two-Nation theory? (i) It was advocated by the Muslim League. (ii) According to this theory, the demand for Pakistan, a separate country for Muslims was made. (iii) India is divided on the basis of culture, politics, religion, economy and society into two communities. (iv) Hindus and Muslims cannot live peacefully with each other. Select the correct answer from the options given below: (a) (i) and (iii) only (b) (ii) and (iii) only (c) (i) and (ii) only

(d) (ii) and (iv) only Ans. (c) (i) and (ii) only 27. What were the arguments given by Nehru for making India a secular country? (i) All Muslims wanted to leave India after partition. (ii) Jawaharlal Nehru advocated security and democratic rights of Muslims as citizens of India. (iii) India’s secular nature cherished its short-term goals and principles. (iv) Secularism stops any single faith to become superior and inferior to those who criticized another religion. Select the correct answer from the options given below: (a) (ii) and (iv) only (b) (iii) and (iv) only (c) (i) and (ii) only (d) (i) and (iii) only Ans. (a) (ii) and (iv) only 28. Assess the commonly agreed upon goals visualized by the Indians during the national movement which have been fulfilled after independence. (a) There will be a democratic government in the country. (b) The government will run for the good of all. (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Either (a) or (b) Ans. (c) Both (a) and (b) 29. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(i) The immediate challenge infront of newly independent India was to shape nation that was united. (ii) At that time it was widely believed that a country with such kind of diversity could remain together for long. (a) Only (i) (b) Only (ii) (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b) Ans. (c) Both (a) and (b) 30. The Merger Agreement was signed between government of India and Maharaja of Manipur in the year ___________. (a) 1947 (b) 1948 (c) 1949 (d) 1950 Ans. (c) 1949 31. Consider these statements about the challenge of nation building for eastern and western regions of the country at the time of Independence. Find the wrong statement. (a) These regions were the Muslim majority provinces to be joined. (b) It was decided that new country Pakistan will comprise two territories i.e. West and East Pakistan. (c) There was no problem of minorities on both sides of border ( East and West). (d) Lakhs of Hindus and Muslims on the Indian side of Punjab and Bengal found themselves trapped with no option except to leave

their homes. Ans. (c) There was no problem of minorities on both sides of border ( East and West). 32. The most important recommendation of the States Reorganisation Commission was that boundaries of the different states should be based upon _________. (a) language (b) culture (c) religion (d) caste Ans. (a) language 33. What was the biggest obstacle in nation-building at the time of India’s Independence? (a) To unite the nation, establish democracy, development and refugee problems. (b) To unite the nation, establish democracy and refugee problems. (c) To unite the nation, development and refugee problems. (d) To establish democracy, development and refugee problems. Ans. (a) To unite the nation, establish democracy, development and refugee problems. 34. The main reason for India’s partition was: (a) Adamant attitude of leaders (b) Communal riots and disorder (c) Failure of the Interim Government (d) All of the above Ans. (d) All of the above

35. Even after large-scale migration of Muslims to the newlycreated Pakistan, the Muslim population in India accounted for ______

per cent of the total population in ______. (a) 15, 1951 (b) 16, 1951 (c) 12, 1951 (d) 12, 1952 Ans. (c) 12, 1951 36. What was the task of the States Reorganisation Commission? (a) It was set up in 1954 by the Central government. (b) It evolved that States boundaries should reflect the boundaries of different languages to accommodate linguistic diversity. (c) The Central Reorganisation Act was passed in 1954. (d) It advised the Central government to organize states on the basis of accommodation of their religion. Ans. (b) It evolved that States boundaries should reflect the boundaries of different languages to accommodate linguistic diversity. 37. What are the challenges faced by refugees in refugee camps? (i) Human issues: i.e., security of food, drinking water, housing, etc. (ii) Social issues: i.e. family ties, neighbours, children, education, etc. (iii) Environmental issues: i.e. waste disposal and management. (iv) Health issues: i.e. sanitary, medicine, doctors, nursery,

hospitals. etc. Options: (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii) (c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iv) Ans. (c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) 38. Choose the number of incorrect argument/arguments regarding circumstances that led to the accession of Hyderabad to India. (i) Hyderabad was the smallest princely state and it was surrounded by Indian territory. (ii) Its ruler was one of the world's richest men. (iii) Nizam wanted an independent status for Hyderabad. (iv) Hyderabad had a substantial fighting force. (a) (i) is incorrect. (b) (ii) and (iii) are incorrect. (c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are incorrect. (d) All are incorrect. Ans. (a) (i) is incorrect. 39. What was the main recommendation Reorganisation Commission in 1953?

of

States

(a) Proper attention should be given to the cultural and communicative needs of other communities speaking different languages in a monolingual state. (b) Linguistic majorities should be well protected. (c) Attention should be paid to the development of Hindi.

(d) Hindi should be the medium of instruction in universities and higher training institutes. Ans. (a) Proper attention should be given to the cultural and communicative needs of other communities speaking different languages in a monolingual state. 40. Who was the Gandhian who died by performing an in definite fast for the creation of separate Andhra? (a) S. Nijalingappa (b) N. Sanjeeva Reddy (c) Sriramulu (d) Abdul Gafar Khan Ans. (c) Sriramulu 41. Study the following cartoon carefully and answer the question that follows:

What does this picture symbolize? (a) Demand for power (b) Independent state (c) Equal treatment (d) Struggle for survival Ans. (d) Struggle for survival 42. State Reorganisation Act was passed in which year? (a) 1956 (b) 1957

(c) 1958 (d) 1959 Ans. (a) 1956 43. Study the following map carefully and answer the question that follows :

The states that were affected by the partition of the country: (a) Punjab and West Bengal (b) Punjab and Rajasthan (c) Assam and West Bengal (d) Bengal and Rajasthan Ans. (a) Punjab and West Bengal

1. Which of the following is the economic vision of the rightwing? (a) Minimum interference of the government in economic matters. (b) Maximum interference of the government in economic matters. (c) Nationalisation of the industries. (d) Compulsory licensing of the industries. Ans. (a) Minimum interference of the government in economic matters. 2. Which type of economy has India adopted? (a) Capitalistic Economy (b) Communist Economy (c) Mixed Economy (d) Agricultural Economy Ans. (c) Mixed Economy 3. Which of the following statements is correct concerning the government of independent India? (a) It only aimed at economic development of India (b) It aimed at economic as well as social development of India. (c) It was inspired by the capitalistic nature of the USA. (d) It was not influenced by the socialist model of the USSR. Ans. (b) It aimed at economic as well as social development of India. 4. The National Planning Committee of 1938 was set up under the Presidentship of which of the following leaders?

(a) Subhash Chandra Bose (b) Jawaharlal Nehru (c) Mahatma Gandhi (d) Jayprakash Narayan Ans. (b) Jawaharlal Nehru 5. Which of the following statement is true about the Planning Commission? (a) It is a constitutional body. (b) It is a statutory body. (c) It is an advisory body. (d) It is a judicial body. Ans. (c) It is an advisory body. 6. Which of the following is the correct full form of the NITI Aayog? (a) National Integration and Transformation of India (b) National Institution for Transforming India (c) National Institute for Technological Innovation (d) National Integration of Technological Innovation Ans. (b) National Institution for Transforming India 7. The vision of the Bombay Plan of 1944 was that of ____________. (a) Planned Economy (b) Unplanned Economy (c) Capitalistic Economy (d) Deregulated Economy

Ans. (a) Planned Economy 8. Which of the following personalities is credited to provide the first blueprint of economic planning in India? (a) M. Visvesvaraya (b) Subhash Chandra Bose (c) Dadabhai Naoroji (d) Acharya Narendra Dev Ans. (a) M. Visvesvaraya 9. Who among the following acted as the chairperson of the Planning Commission? (a) President (b) Prime Minister (c) Speaker (d) Home Minister Ans. (b) Prime Minister 10. What was the duration of the first plan that was prepared by the Planning Commission? (a) Six years (b) Five years (c) Four years (d) Seven Years Ans. (b) Five years 11. What is the full form of FICCI? (a) Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industries (b) Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Investment

(c) Federation of Indian Chambers of Collective Industries (d) Federation of Indian Chambers of Collective Investment Ans. (a) Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industries 12. Choose the odd one out from the following: (a) Bombay Plan- 1944 (b) Planning Commission- 1950 (c) Second Plan- 1956 (d) Third Plan- 1962 Ans. (d) Third Plan- 1962 13. Consider the following statements about the first five-year plan in India: I. It focused on the development of the agriculture sector. II. Dams and irrigation systems were to be developed under its vision. III. Land reforms were not addressed in the plan. Choose the correct statements. (a) I and III (b) I, II and III (c) I and II (d) Only III Ans. (c) I and II 14. The vision of the second five-year plan was focused on which of the following sectors? (a) Service Sector (b) Industrial Sector

(c) Agricultural Sector (d) Nuclear Sector Ans. (b) Industrial Sector 15. Consider the following statements about the ISI, 1931. I. Its full form is Indian Statistical Institute. II. It was founded by Prof. P.C. Mahalanobis. Choose the correct answer: (a) Only I (b) Only II (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II Ans. (c) Both I and II 16. Consider the following statements: I. The government spent a huge amount of money in buying technology during the second five-year plan. II. There was an adequate balance between the industrial and agriculture sector during the second five-year plan. Choose the correct answer: (a) Only I (b) Only II (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II Ans. (a) Only I 17. The second five-year plan was drafted under the leadership of which of the following personalities?

(a) K. N. Raj (b) P. C. Mahalanobis (c) M. Visvesvaraya (d) Gadgil Ans. (b) P. C. Mahalanobis 18. The ‘People’s Plan’ of 1945 was prepared by which of the following? (a) M. N. Roy (b) C. Rajagopalachari (c) John Baptista (d) Jawaharlal Nehru Ans. (a) M. N. Roy 19. The program of ‘New Democratic Initiative’ was launched by which of the following states? (a) Tamil Nadu (b) Kerala (c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Telangana Ans. (b) Kerala 20. Who is the author of the book ‘Economy of Permanence’? (a) J. C. Kumarappa (b) P. C. Mahalanobis (c) M. N. Roy (d) Sardar Patel Ans. (a) J. C. Kumarappa

21. Which of these plans was also known as the Gadgil Yojana? (a) First Five Year Plan (b) Second Five Year Plan (c) Third Five Year Plan (d) Fourth Five Year Plan Ans. (c) Third Five Year Plan 22. What is the full form of the GDP? (a) Gross Domestic Product (b) Gross Divisible Product (c) Gross Developed Product (d) Gross Derivative Product Ans. (a) Gross Domestic Product 23. The planned holiday started from which of the following years? (a) 1967 (b) 1966 (c) 1968 (d) 1965 Ans. (b) 1966 24. Consider the following statements about the first two five year plans in India. I. They achieved their targets of economic growth. II. They did not give any importance to the agriculture sector. Choose the correct answer:

(a) Only I (b) Only II (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II Ans. (a) Only I 25. ‘Sarvodaya Plan’ was prepared by which of the following personalities? (a) Jai Prakash Narayan (b) Acharya Narendra Dev (c) Ram Manohar Lohiya (d) Kanshi Ram Ans. (a) Jai Prakash Narayan 26. The Rourkela Steel Plant is located in which of the following states? (a) Tamil Nadu (b) Odisha (c) Kerala (d) Andhra Pradesh Ans. (b) Odisha 27. The Bhakra Nangal Dam is located in which of the following states? (a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Madhya Pradesh (c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Andhra Pradesh

Ans. (c) Himachal Pradesh 28. Consider the following statements: I. The foundation of steel plants, large dams and oil refineries were laid in the first two five year plans of India. II. The role of the private sector was highly regulated under these two plans. Choose the correct answer: (a) Only I (b) Only II (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II Ans. (c) Both I and II 29. The initiation of the Green Revolution started in which of the following plans? (a) Second Five Year Plan (b) Third Five Year Plan (c) Fourth Five Year Plan (d) Fifth Five Year Plan Ans. (b) Third Five Year Plan 30. Consider the following statements about the land reforms system in India: I. The reforms introduced the ceiling limit on the lands possessed by the big landlords. II. Tenants were given greater legal security against eviction. Choose the correct answer: (a) Only I

(b) Only II (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II Ans. (c) Both I and II 31. Which of the following reasons contributed to the situation of acute food shortage in India during the 1960s? I. War with China and Pakistan. II. Foreign Exchange Crisis. III. Low agricultural output in several states. Choose the correct statement: (a) I, II and III (b) I and II (c) II and III (d) only I Ans. (a) I, II and III 32. India imported a large number of food items especially wheat from which of the following nations during the food crisis of the 1960s? (a) UK (b) USA (c) France (d) China Ans. (b) USA 33. Who is known as the ‘Milkman of India’? (a) Verghese Kurien

(b) M.S. Swaminathan (c) R.N. Kao (d) E. Sreedharan Ans. (a) Verghese Kurien 34. Who is known as the ‘Father of Green Revolution in India’? (a) Dr. M.S. Swaminathan (b) Dr. Norman Borlaugh (c) Dr. William Gande (d) Dr. Verghese Kurien Ans. (a) Dr. M.S. Swaminathan 35. Consider the following statements about Operation Flood: I. It sought to spread the white revolution in the country. II. It tried to eliminate the middlemen between the supply chain of the milk. Choose the correct answer: (a) Only I (b) Only II (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II Ans. (c) Both I and II 36. In the year 1969, the government of India nationalised how many private banks? (a) Fifteen (b) Fourteen

(c) Thirteen (d) Twelve Ans. (b) Fourteen 37. The Minimum Needs Programme (MNP) was started under which of the following plans? (a) Fifth Five year Plan (b) Sixth Five Year Plan (c) Seventh Five Year Plan (d) Eighth Five Year Plan Ans. (a) Fifth Five year Plan 38. Consider the following statements: I. The five-year planning has been abolished in India after the formation of the NITI Aayog. II. NITI Aayog is headed by the Prime Minister of India. Choose the correct answer: (a) Only I (b) Only II (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II Ans. (c) Both I and II 39. The concept of ‘Rolling Plan’ was introduced by which of the following governments? (a) Indian National Congress (b) Janata Party (c) Bharatiya Janata Party

(d) Communist Party of India Ans. (b) Janata Party 40. Who introduced the LPG model of development in India? (a) Rajiv Gandhi (b) V. P. Singh (c) Dr. Manmohan Singh (d) Dr. Pranav Mukherjee Ans. (c) Dr. Manmohan Singh 41. Consider the following statements about imperative planning: I. The Central Planning Authority looks after every aspect of planning for the different sectors of the economy. II. It is a feature of socialist economies. Choose the correct answer: (a) Only I (b) Only II (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II Ans. (c) Both I and II 42. The concept of planning in India is mainly inspired by which of the following parts of the constitution? (a) Fundamental Rights (b) Fundamental Duties (c) Directive Principles of State Policy (d) Comptroller and Auditor General

Ans. (c) Directive Principles of State Policy 43. Which of the following is not part of the Central planning programme of the government? I. Five Year Plans II. Thirty-Point Programme III. Member of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS). Choose the correct answer: (a) Only I (b) I and II (c) Only II (d) Only III Ans. (c) Only II 44. Choose the odd one out from the given match the columns: (a) NABARD: Agriculture (b) IRDAI: Insurance (c) SEBI: Mutual Funds (d) NBFCs: Financial Regulator Ans. (d) NBFCs: Financial Regulator 45. Study the picture given below and answer the question that follows:

The AMUL cooperative was established in which of the

following states? (a) Rajasthan (b) Gujarat (c) Haryana (d) Uttar Pradesh Ans. (b) Gujarat 46. Which of the following is the correct full form of the PDS? (a) Private Distribution System (b) Public Distribution System (c) Public Derivative System (d) Private Derivative System Ans. (b) Public Distribution System

1. After the Second World War, two countries emerged as the superpower blocs. Which countries were these? (a) United States and Germany (b) United States and India (c) Soviet Union and India (d) United States and the Soviet Union Ans. (d) United States and the Soviet Union 2. When did India start to frame its foreign policies? (a) During the freedom struggle (b) Post-Independence (c) Second World War (d) Post Second World War Ans. (b) Post-Independence 3. Which of these following events was not contemporaneous to the Cold War period? (a) establishment of the League of Nations (b) establishment of the United Nations (c) the emergence of Communist China (d) beginning of decolonization Ans. (a) establishment of the League of Nations 4. Who was the foreign minister of India during the Nehru government? (a) Jawaharlal Nehru

(b) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel (c) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad (d) C. Rajagopalachari Ans. (a) Jawaharlal Nehru 5. How many major objectives were taken into account while framing foreign policies of India during the Nehru government? (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 Ans. (c) 3 6. Which leader thought that India would agree to side with the US? (a) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad (b) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel (c) Jawaharlal Nehru (d) Dr. Ambedkar Ans. (d) Dr. Ambedkar 7. Why was it thought that India would be providing support to the United States? (a) The United States helped Indian leaders during the freedom struggle. (b) The United States followed a federal structure like India. (c) The United States claimed to be pro-democracy. (d) The United States claimed to be pro-communism.

Ans. (c) The United States claimed to be pro-democracy. 8. Who among the following was not a part of the nonalignment policy? (a) Jawaharlal Nehru (b) Gamal Abdel Nasser (c) Sukarno (d) Liaquat Ali Khan Ans. (d) Liaquat Ali Khan 9. When did Britain attacked Egypt? (a) 1954 (b) 1956 (c) 1968 (d) 1972 Ans. (b) 1956 10. Why did India take an independent stand during the Cold War? (a) None of the countries’ ideology matched with that of India’s. (b) India feared that USSR would win. (c) India wanted to keep itself away from the military alliances. (d) The Indian Army was still in the making. Ans. (c) India wanted to keep itself away from the military alliances. 11. Which of the following statements is/are correct? (i) Indus Water Treaty is signed by India and China. (ii) Indus Water Treaty is signed in the year 1960.

(a) Only (i) (b) Only (ii) (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these Ans. (b) Only (ii) 12. When Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty was signed? (a) 1958 (b) 1964 (c) 1968 (d) 1978 Ans. (c) 1968 13. Identify the central reason that historically tensions between India and China: (a) Suez crisis (b) Tibetan Plateau (c) Oil crisis (d) China supported Pakistan in the Indian freedom struggle Ans. (b) Tibetan Plateau 14. When was the Panchsheel agreement signed between India and China? (a) 1947 (b) 1951 (c) 1949 (d) 1954 Ans. (d) 1954

15. Where did China built a strategic road? (a) Tibet (b) Aksai-chin (c) Nepal (d) Bhutan Ans. (b) Aksai-chin 16. Who among the following was the defence minister in Nehru’s Cabinet during China's invasion? (a) V. Krishna Menon (b) Indira Gandhi (c) Jawaharlal Nehru (d) Amrit Kaur Ans. (a) V. Krishna Menon 17. Name the Indian diplomat who visited China in the year 1979. (a) V. Krishna Menon (b) C. Rajagopalachari (c) Atal Bihari Vajpayee (d) Dr. Ambedkar Ans. (c) Atal Bihari Vajpayee 18. What is the full form of CPI? (a) Capitalist Party of India (b) Communist Party of India (c) Congress Party of India (d) Chinese Political Party of India

Ans. (b) Communist Party of India 19. Which of the following events did not take place after the Sino-Indian war? (a) Mizoram was granted statehood. (b) Nagaland was granted statehood. (c) Manipur was given the right to elect their own representatives. (d) Tripura was given the right to elect their own representatives. Ans. (a) Mizoram was granted statehood. 20. When did the proxy war broke out between India and Pakistan? (a) 1947 (b) 1948 (c) 1952 (d) 1970 Ans. (a) 1947 21. Between which two countries were the Tashkent Agreement signed? (a) India and China (b) India and Japan (c) India and Indonesia (d) India and Pakistan Ans. (d) India and Pakistan 22. When did the Bangladesh war broke out? (a) 1951 (b) 1971

(c) 1976 (d) 1982 Ans. (b) 1971 23. Which of the following agreements were signed between Indira Gandhi and Zulfikar Ali Bhutto? (a) Non-proliferation Treaty (b) Kashmir Agreement (c) Tashkent Agreement (d) Shimla Agreement Ans. (d) Shimla Agreement 24. Who was Dalai Lama? (a) Tibetan spiritual leader (b) Tibetan political leader (c) Tibetan tribal leader (d) Tibetan educationist Ans. (a) Tibetan spiritual leader 25. Which of the following statements is/are true? I. The cold war considerable unease Indo-US relation during the 1950s. II. The goal of India’s foreign policy was the preservation of territorial integrity. III. India’s relationship with its neighbours was strained since time immemorial. IV. The treaty of Peace and Friendship in 1971 was the result of India's closeness to USA. Options:

(a) Only IV is true (b) Both I and II are true (c) Both III and IV are true (d) None of the statements are true Ans. (b) Both I and II are true 26. Which article of the Indian Constitution lays down some Directive Principles of State Policy on ‘Promotion of international Peace and Security’? (a) Article 51 (b) Article 52 (c) Article 53 (d) Article 54 Ans. (a) Article 51 27. Match the following: A.

First Summit of NAM

(i)

1954

B.

Bandung Conference

(ii)

1955

C.

Asian Relations Conference

(iii)

1947

D.

Panchsheel

(iv)

1961

(a) A. (i), B. (iii), C. (iv), D. (ii) (b) A. (iv), B. (ii), C. (iii), D. (i) (c) A. (ii), B. (iv), C. (i), D. (iii) (d) A. (iii), B. (i), C. (ii), D. (iv) Ans. (b) A. (iv), B. (ii), C. (iii), D. (i) 28. In which year India conducted a series of nuclear tests?

(a) 1995 (b) 1996 (c) 1997 (d) 1998 Ans. (d) 1998 29. Who was arrested by the Pakistani army in the year 1971? (a) Sheikh Abdullah (b) Sheikh Mujibur Rahman (c) Sheikh Hasina (d) Ziaur Rahman Ans. (b) Sheikh Mujibur Rahman 30. Who among the following was the first Indian Prime minister to visit China after Jawaharlal Nehru? (a) Indira Gandhi (b) Rajiv Gandhi (c) Atal Bihari Vajpayee (d) Narendra Modi Ans. (b) Rajiv Gandhi 31. What is the Hindi film 'Haqeeqat' all about? (a) Biopic of Indira Gandhi (b) Jawaharlal Nehru's government (c) Bangladesh war of 1971 (d) China war of 1962 Ans. (d) China war of 1962 32. What is the full form of CTBT?

(a) Complete Test Ban Treaty (b) Comprehensive Test Benefit Treaty (c) Configuration Test Ban Treaty (d) Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty Ans. (d) Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty 33. Match the following: A.

Department of Defence Production

(i)

1962

B.

Department of Defence Supplies

(ii)

1969

C.

The Third Plan

(iii)

1965

D.

The Fourth Plan

(iv)

1961

(a) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(ii) (b) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(i) (c) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii) (d) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iv) Ans. (a) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(ii) 34. In which of the decades did India face three wars? (a) 1947-1957 (b) 1952-1961 (c) 1962-1971 (d) 1971-1981 Ans. (c) 1962-1971 35. Why did India refuse to sign the NPT? (a) India was not willing to conduct nuclear tests.

(b) It was discriminatory. (c) It disregarded India’s status as an independent country. (d) It only benefited the United States. Ans. (b) It was discriminatory. 36. India had a Kargil conflict with Pakistan in the year: (a) 1999 (b) 1971 (c) 1964 (d) 1976 Ans. (a) 1999 37. Under whom guidance India started nuclear programme? (a) Vikram Sarabhai (b) Homi J. Bhabha (c) A. P. J. Abdul Kalam (d) C.V. Raman Ans. (b) Homi J. Bhabha 38. In the freedom struggle of Bangladesh, country/countries supported Pakistan? I. India II. US III. USSR IV. China (a) Only I, III and IV (b) Only II (c) Only II and IV

which

(d) All of the above Ans. (c) Only II and IV 39. Who made a secret visit to China via Pakistan in 1971? (a) Sukarno (b) Zulfikar Ali Bhutto (c) Richard Nixon (d) Henry Kissinger Ans. (d) Henry Kissinger 40. Which treaty was signed between India and Soviet Union in 1971? (a) Treaty of Peace and Friendship (b) Paris Peace Agreement (c) Nuclear Test Ban Treaty (d) Border Defence Cooperation Agreement Ans. (a) Treaty of Peace and Friendship 41. Which country led the North Atlantic Treaty Organization? (a) UK (b) USA (c) USSR (d) China Ans. (b) USA 42. Which country led the WARSAW Pact? (a) UK (b) USA (c) USSR

(d) China Ans. (c) USSR 43. What was the Panchsheel all about? (a) Five Principles of Banning Nuclear Tests (b) Five Principles of Peaceful Coexistence (c) Five Principles of Safeguarding Democracy (d) Five Principles of Safeguarding Liberty Ans. (b) Five Principles of Peaceful Coexistence 44. Where was the Bandung Conference held? (a) Indonesia (b) China (c) Japan (d) Sri Lanka Ans. (a) Indonesia 45. The first nuclear explosion undertaken by India was in: (a) 1998 (b) 1974 (c) 1976 (d) 1964 Ans. (b) 1974 46. What is the full form of NEFA? (a) North Eastern Foreign Agency (b) North Eastern Frontier Association (c) North Eastern Frontier Agency

(d) North Eastern Frontier Academy Ans. (c) North Eastern Frontier Agency 47. In which of the states did Pakistan launch armed attacks in the year 1965? (a) Gujarat (b) Haryana (c) Jammu and Kashmir (d) Delhi Ans. (a) Gujarat 48. Which of the following policy used by India in nuclear ethics and deterrence theory? (a) No first use policy (b) First use policy (c) Never use policy (d) None of the above Ans. (a) No first use policy

1. Which of the following statement about the Grand Alliance of 1971 is correct? The Grand Alliance ___________. (a) was formed by non-Communist, non-Congress parties. (b) had a clear political and ideological programme. (c) was formed by all non-Congress parties. (d) none of the above Ans. (a) was formed by non-Communist, non-Congress parties. 2. The following party raised the slogan of ‘Garibi Hatao’ during the general elections of 1971: (a) Congress (R) (b) Congress (O) (c) B.J.P. (d) Janata Party Ans. (a) Congress (R) 3. Tashkent Agreement was signed between India and Pakistan in the year: (a) 1972 (b) 1964 (c) 1966 (d) 1971 Ans. (c) 1966 4. Jawaharlal Nehru died in:

(a) 1962 (b) 1964 (c) 1967 (d) 1965 Ans. (b) 1964 5. Lal Bahadur Shastri was the Prime Minister of India from: (a) 1962–1964 (b) 1964–1966 (c) 1971–1972 (d) 1967–1970 Ans. (b) 1964–1966 6. After Nehru’s death whom among the following was elected as the Prime Minister of India? (a) Lal Bahadur Shastri (b) Morarji Desai (c) Indira Gandhi (d) Chandra Shekhar Ans. (a) Lal Bahadur Shastri 7. When was Fourth General Election in India held? (a) 1962 (b) 1971 (c) 1967 (d) 1966 Ans. (c) 1967 8. Who became the Prime Minister of India after Lal Bahadur

Shastri’s death? (a) Morarji Desai (b) Rajiv Gandhi (c) I.K. Gujral (d) Indira Gandhi Ans. (d) Indira Gandhi 9. When did the Congress Party split in Congress (R) and Congress (O)? (a) 1970 (b) 1967 (c) 1969 (d) 1965 Ans. (c) 1967 10. Indira Gandhi was assassinated on? (a) 20th November, 1983 (b) 31st December, 1975 (c) 31st October, 1984 (d) None of the above Ans. (c) 31st October, 1984 11. ‘Aya Ram, Gaya Ram’ is related to the issue of: (a) Coalition government (b) Casteism (c) Communalism (d) Defection Ans. (d) Defection

12. When was the Fifth General Election held? (a) 1970 (b) 1969 (c) 1975 (d) 1971 Ans. (d) 1971 13. Which general elections for the first time questioned the dominance of Congress? (a) 1967 (b) 1957 (c) 1980 (d) 1985 Ans. (a) 1967 14. After independence at the party system level, India witnessed ______. (a) Coalition in party (b) Hung parliament (c) Multi-party system (d) Coalition of parties Ans. (a) Coalition in party 15. In Madras State (now Tamil Nadu), a regional party won the 1967 elections. Which party was that? (a) DMK (b) CPI (c) Janata Party

(d) AAP Ans. (a) DMK 16. After the 1967 elections, in how many states, defections prevented Congress from forming government? (a) None of these (b) Two (c) One (d) Five Ans. (b) Two 17. In the 1967 elections, in how many states Congress lost the majority? (a) Six (b) Nine (c) Seven (d) Two Ans. (c) Seven 18. The fractional between the Syndicate and Indira Gandhi came in the open_________. (a) During Parliamentary Election 1969 (b) During Presidential Election 1969 (c) State Election 1969 (d) None of the above Ans. (b) During Presidential Election 1969 19. Who gave the slogan ‘Jai Jawan, Jai Kisan’? (a) Indira Gandhi

(b) Jawaharlal Nehru (c) Lal Bahadur Shastri (d) K. Kamraj Ans. (c) Lal Bahadur Shastri 20. Lal Bahadur Shastri died at which place? (a) Delhi (b) Lahore (c) Lucknow (d) Tashkent Ans. (d) Tashkent 21. The famous slogan ‘Garibi Hatao’ was given by: (a) Indira Gandhi (b) Jawaharlal Nehru (c) Lal Bahadur Shastri (d) J.P. Narayan Ans. (a) Indira Gandhi 22. Which of the following statements is/are correct with repeat to K. Kamraj? (a) He was the Chief Minister of Madras (Tamil Nadu) (b) He introduced mid-day meal scheme for school children (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above Ans. (c) Both (a) and (b) 23. What is Kamraj Plan? (a) All Senior Congress person should remain in the office.

(b) Young person should for entrance in government waif and learn from Senior Congressmen (c) All Senior Congressmen should resign from office to make way for younger party worker (d) None of the above Ans. (c) All senior Congressmen should resign from office to make way for younger party worker 24. The election of _________ brought into picture the phenomenon of coalitions. (a) 1952 (b) 1962 (c) 1967 (d) 1957 Ans. (c) 1967 25. Use of English language was strongly opposed by the: (a) Karpoori Thakur (b) K. Kamraj (c) Charan Singh (d) Shyama Prasad Mukherjee Ans. (a) Karpoori Thakur 26. The Socialist leader who gave the strategy ‘NonCongress’ was: (a) V.V. Giri (b) Ram Manohar Lohia (c) V.P. Singh (d) Giani Zail Singh

Ans. (b) Ram Manohar Lohia 27. Syndicate mean: (a) Ideology (b) Group of leader who control Congress Party (c) It is a name of political party (d) None of the above Ans. (b) Group of leader who control Congress Party 28. After the death of President Zakir Hussain, who was the official Congress candidate for Presidential election? (a) V.V. Giri (b) Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy (c) Giani Zail Singh (d) Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed Ans. (b) Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy 29. Nationalisation of fourteen bank, the abolition of the Privy Purse were done by which of the following Prime Minister? (a) Indira Gandhi (b) Rajiv Gandhi (c) Atal Bihari Vajpayee (d) V.P. Singh Ans. (a) Indira Gandhi 30. Which of the following leader was against abolition of Privy Purses? (a) J.P. Narayan (b) K. Kamraj

(c) Morarji Desai (d) V.V. Giri Ans. (c) Morarji Desai 31. Who became President after the death of Zakir Hussain? (a) V.V. Giri (b) N. Sanjeeva Reddy (c) Gaini Zail Singh (d) B.D. Jatti Ans. (a) V.V. Giri 32. Congress party split in 1969, one of the group is call Congress (O). What is the meaning ‘O’? (a) Original (b) One (c) Organisation (d) Organ Ans. (c) Organisation

1. Which statement is NOT true about Jaya Prakash Narayan? (a) He fought against corruption (b) He believed in Communitarian Socialism (c) He was an integral part of Nehru’s cabinet (d) He became a symbol of opposition to Emergency Ans. (c) He was an integral part of Nehru’s Cabinet 2. Who gave the call for Total Revolution? (a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Jawaharlal Nehru (c) Jayaprakash Narayan (d) Ram Manohar Lohia Ans. (c) Jayaprakash Narayan 3. JP’s political transformation included the following: (a) Right to recall (b) Importance of village in politics (c) Elite people (d) Only (a) and (b) are correct Ans. (d) Only (a) and (b) are correct 4. In 1969, Communist Party (Marxist-Leninist) was formed under the leadership of ________. (a) D. Raja (b) Charu Majumdar (c) M.G. Desai

(d) S.S. Mirajkar Ans. (b) Charu Majumdar 5. In _________ student in Gujarat started an agitation against rising prices of food gain and against corruption. (a) 1972 (b) 1974 (c) 1984 (d) 1990 Ans. (b) 1974 6. Which of the following statement is/are correct? (i) In 1974 student of Bihar protest against corruption only. (ii) Jai Prakash Narayan lead the student movement of Bihar. (a) Only (i) (b) Only (ii) (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these Ans. (b) Only (ii) 7. Currently how many district are affected by Naxalite violence? (a) 75 (b) 76 (c) 108 (d) 85 Ans. (a) 75 8. Who is the Lok Nayak of India?

(a) Jayaprakash Narayan (b) Pt. Deen Dayal Upadhyaya (c) Atal Bihari Vajpayee (d) Jawaharlal Nehru Ans. (a) Jayaprakash Narayan 9. Who led the Railway strike in 1974? (a) Jagjeevan Ram (b) Swaran Singh (c) S.K. Patil (d) George Fernandes Ans. (d) George Fernandes 10. Which of the following statement is/are correct? (i) In 1973, Government of India followed the seniority procedure while appointed Chief Justice of India. (ii) In 1973, A.N. Ray had appointed as Chief Justice of India. (a) Only (i) (b) Only (ii) (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these Ans. (b) Only (ii) 11. How filed the Petition in Allahabad High Court against Indira Gandhi’s election? (a) Kesavananda Bharati (b) Jayaprakash Narayan (c) Raj Narayan

(d) Jagmohan Lal Sinha Ans. (c) Raj Narayan 12. Who was the President during emergency? (a) V.V. Giri (b) Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed (c) Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy (d) Gaini Zail Singh Ans. (b) Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed 13. What was the impact of emergency on newspaper and magzine? (a) Freedom of press was suspended and press censorship was introduced. (b) Many journalists were arrested for writing against the emergency. (c) Many underground news letters and leaflet were published to by pass censorship. (d) All of the above Ans. (d) All of the above 14. Match the following: List-I

List-II

A.

Total Revolution

(i)

Indira Gandhi

B.

Garibi Hatao

(ii)

Jai Prakash Narayan

C.

Student’s Protest

(iii)

Bihar Movement

D.

Railway Strike

(iv)

George Fernandes

(a) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(iv) (b) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv) (c) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(ii) (d) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iv) Ans. (b) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv) 15. Which statement about National Emergency is NOT correct? (a) It was declared in 1975 (b) It suspended all fundamental rights (c) Many people were arrested during the emergency (d) The country was facing war with Pakistan and so emergency was declared Ans. (d) The country was facing war with Pakistan and so emergency was declared 16. Which incident is NOT associated with the National Emergency? (a) Allahabad High Court Verdict (b) Naxalite Movement (c) Railway strike of 1974 (d) Opening up of the market Ans. (d) Opening up of the market 17. The state of Emergency was declared on ______. (a) 25 June 1975 (b) 25 June 1970 (c) 12 July 1975 (d) 19 August 1976

Ans. (a) 25 June 1975 18. Which justice declared Indira Gandhi’s elections to be invalid in 1975? (a) Justice Jagmohan Lal Sinha (b) Justice Ranjan Gogoi (c) Justice N. V. Ramana (d) Justice H. J. Kania Ans. (a) Justice Jagmohan Lal Sinha 19. The Janata Party formed in 1977, accepted the leadership of ______. (a) Jayaprakash (b) Lohia (c) Nehru (d) Gandhi Ans. (a) Jayaprakash 20. The ______ election was made into an referendum on the National Emergency. (a) 1977 (b) 1980 (c) 1999 (d) 1975 Ans. (a) 1977 21. In the 1977 elections, which party came into power? (a) Janata Party (b) Congress Party

(c) Bharatiya Jana Sangh (d) All - coalition government Ans. (a) Janata Party 22. Which important amendment to the Constitution was done during the National Emergency? (a) 42nd (b) 43rd (c) 73rd (d) 76th Ans. (a) 42nd 23. Why did the CPI back congress during the National Emergency? (a) It believed there was international conspiracy against India’s unity (b) They wanted to join hands with congress and come to power (c) They did not understand what harm the emergency could do to the country (d) All of the above Ans. (a) It believed there was international conspiracy against India’s unity 24. Which observation was NOT made by the Shah Commission? (a) 676 opposition leaders were arrested (b) One lakh eleven thousand people were arrested under preventive detention laws (c) General Manager of the Delhi Power Supply Corporation received verbal orders to cut electricity

(d) India received threat from international organisations Ans. (d) India received threat from international organisations 25. During the emergency which person did not hold any power but interfered in all government affairs? (a) Sanjay Gandhi (b) Rajiv Gandhi (c) Indira Gandhi (d) Sonia Gandhi Ans. (a) Sanjay Gandhi 26. Which two acts of Sanjay Gandhi controversial during the emergency?

became

very

(i) Forced sterilisation (ii) Slum Demolition (iii) Banning of the cabinet (iv) Press censorship (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii) (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iv) Ans. (a) (i) and (ii) 27. What were the lessons we learnt from the National Emergency? (a) It is very difficult to curb democracy in India (b) There are loopholes in the Emergency provisions of the Indian Constitution (c) All realised the importance of civil liberties

(d) All of the above Ans. (d) All of the above 28. Choose the ODD one out. (a) Indira Gandhi - National Emergency (b) Ram Manohar Lohia - Samyukta Socialist Party (c) Deen Dayal Upadhyaya - Railway strike (d) JP - "Bhoodan movement" Ans. (c) Deen Dayal Upadhyaya - Railway strike 29. What is democratic upsurge? (a) Increasing participation of the people in the democratic politics of the country (b) Increased participation of people in elections (c) Increased participation of people in social revolutions (d) Increased participation of people in international affairs Ans. (a) Increasing participation of the people in the democratic politics of the country 30. How many democratic upsurges have there been in postindependence India? (a) Three (b) Five (c) Ten (d) Two Ans. (a) Three 31. Which statement about the first democratic upsurge is NOT true? (a) It is from 1950s to 1970s

(b) It is based on adult Indians participation in electoral politics and democratic practices (c) It falsified the theory that for democracy, modernization is required (d) It wholeheartedly grabbed the western ways of thinking Ans. (d) It wholeheartedly grabbed the western ways of thinking 32. In which election, the Indian party system resembled a biparty system? (a) 1977 (b) 1957 (c) 1967 (d) 1990 Ans. (a) 1977 33. Prior to the 1977 elections, all the opposition parties came together to form ______ party. (a) Janata (b) Left (c) Coalition (d) Bharatiya Janta Ans. (a) Janata 34. Which was the first national elections that the congress lost? (a) 1977 (b) 1967 (c) 1957 (d) 1990

Ans. (a) 1977 35. Which statement about 1977 elections is NOT true? (a) Janata party won the 1977 elections (b) Congress won the 1977 elections (c) It was the start of the end of congress rule (d) North India saw massive electoral wave against the congress Ans. (b) Congress won the 1977 elections 36. The Janata party became the platform for which sections of the society? (a) Middle class from North India (b) Upper class (c) SCs and STs (d) All of the above Ans. (a) Middle class from North India 37. Which statement about the Janata Party is NOT true? (a) Janata Party lacked cohesion (b) Janata party brought fundamental change to the Indian politics (c) Janata party government was in power for a 5-year period (d) Janata party lacked common programme Ans. (c) Janata party government was in power for a 5-year period 38. Which election is seen as the start of a multi-party coalition system in India? (a) 1989 elections (b) 1977 elections (c) 1999 election

(d) 2000 election Ans. (b) 1977 elections 39. Which parties were important in the multi-party coalition system? (a) National parties (b) Regional parties (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Local parties Ans. (c) Both (a) and (b) 40. In which state Nay Nirman Movement was started? (a) Gujarat (b) Punjab (c) Bihar (d) Haryana Ans. (a) Gujarat 41. How many Lok Sabha seat won by the Janata Party and its allies in the General Election of March 1977? (a) 300 (b) 303 (c) 380 (d) 343 Ans. (c) 380 42. Which of the following statements regarding Chaudhary Charan Singh is are correct? (i) He founded Bharatiya Kranti Dal.

(ii) He was two time Chief Minister of U.P. (iii) He also act as the Prime Minister of India. (a) (i) and (ii) only (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) Only (i) (d) All of the above Ans. (d) All of the above 43. Who became the Prime Minister of India after the election of 1977? (a) Morarji Desai (b) Jai Prakash Narayan (c) Chaudhary Charan Singh (d) Jagjivan Ram Ans. (a) Morarji Desai 44. Shah Commission was appointed to inquire: (a) abuse of authority during emergency (b) domestic violence (c) child labour (d) condition of dalits Ans. (b) domestic violence

1. What are some of the problems that India faced immediately after the independence? (a) Integration of princely states (b) Reorganisation of the states on the basis of language (c) Rehabilitation of the refugees after partition (d) All of the above Ans. (d) All of the above 2. Which of the following Indian states have been involved in separatist movement? (a) Nagaland (b) Mizoram (c) Punjab (d) All of these Ans. (d) All of these 3. What was the consequence of the agitation of the Punjabi people for a separate state? (a) Their demands were accepted and Punjab was separated from Haryana (b) Their demands were rejected (c) Their demands were condemned with violence (d) None of the above Ans. (a) Their demands were accepted and Punjab was separated from Haryana 4. Jammu and Kashmir was accorded special status under

which of the following articles of the constitution? (a) Article 370 (b) Article 375 (c) Article 380 (d) Article 368 Ans. (a) Article 370 5. Who was the pioneer of the movement that was often called as Kashmiriyat? (a) Sheikh Abdullah (b) Faruq Abdullah (c) Umar Abdullah (d) Yasin Malik Ans. (a) Sheikh Abdullah 6. Which of the following personalities was known as the “Periyar”? (a) E.V. Ramasamy Naicker (b) M.G. Ramachandran (c) Karunanidhi (d) None of the above Ans. (a) E.V. Ramasamy Naicker 7. The split in the DMK took place after the death of which of the following leaders? (a) C.N. Annadurai (b) E.V. Ramasamy Naicker (c) Jayalalitha

(d) M.G. Ramachandran Ans. (a) C.N. Annadurai 8. The majority of the population in the region of Kashmir is of _________. (a) Hindus (b) Muslims (c) Sikhs (d) Buddhists Ans. (b) Muslims 9. The main presence of the Dravidian movement was present in which of the following states? (a) Tamil Nadu (b) Maharashtra (c) Telangana (d) Karnataka Ans. (a) Tamil Nadu 10. The DMK demanded the restoration of the name of which of the following railway station? (a) Kallakudi Railway station (b) Rameshwaram Railway station (c) Koyna Railway station (d) Dibrugarh Railway station Ans. (a) Kallakudi Railway station 11. Which of the following ideologies was supported by the E.V. Ramasamy Naicker? (a) Atheism

(b) Anti-caste struggle (c) Revival of Dravidian identity (d) All of the above Ans. (d) All of the above 12. Who was the ruler of princely state Jammu and Kashmir after the independence? (a) Maharaja Hari Singh (b) Maharaja Nihal Singh (c) Maharaja Sonal Singh (d) Maharaja Man Singh Ans. (a) Maharaja Hari Singh 13. What is the full form of DMK? (a) Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (b) Dravida Mazagaon Kazhagam (c) Dravida Mandal Kazhagam (d) Dravida Mannar Kazhagam Ans. (a) Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam 14. Kashmir became the part of India after signing which of the following documents? (a) Instrument of Accession (b) Instrument of Repeal (c) Instrument of Separatism (d) Instrument of Agreement Ans. (a) Instrument of Accession 15. Which of the following steps was not suggested by the

United Nations on its resolution on Kashmir? (a) Pakistan should withdrew its entire nationalities from Kashmir (b) India will have to reduce its forces from the Kashmir gradually (c) Plebiscite will be conducted peacefully in the region (d) Kashmir will be divided among both the nations Ans. (d) Kashmir will be divided among both the nations 16. Who started the separatist movement in Nagaland? (a) A.Z. Phizo (b) Muivah (c) SS Khaplang (d) None of these Ans. (a) A.Z. Phizo 17. The Assam movement started due to which of the following reasons? (a) Increase in the number of illegal immigrants in the state (b) Due to issue of culture (c) Due to language issues (d) All of the above Ans. (a) Increase in the number of illegal immigrants in the state 18. The part of Kashmir occupied by the Pakistan is addressed by them as ____________. (a) Azad Pakistan (b) Siachen (c) Gilgit (d) Mini Kashmir

Ans. (a) Azad Pakistan 19. Why there was a war between India and Pakistan in Kashmir during October 1947? (a) Pakistan has send infiltrators on the lands of Kashmir (b) India send the army to annex Kashmir (c) India and Pakistan were not convinced with the provisions of partition (d) None of the above Ans. (a) Pakistan has send infiltrators on the lands of Kashmir 20. The Mizoram Peace Accord was signed between which of the following leaders? (a) Rajiv Gandhi and Laldenga (b) Rajiv Gandhi and Jarnail Singh (c) Rajiv Gandhi and Isak Muivah (d) None of the above Ans. (a) Rajiv Gandhi and Laldenga 21. Which of the following party was famous in the Jammu and Kashmir during the initial years after the independence of India? (a) Janata Party (b) National Conference (c) Socialist Party (d) Indian National Congress Ans. (b) National Conference 22. The insurgency started to increase in Kashmir from which of the following years?

(a) 1981 (b) 1985 (c) 1989 (d) 1996 Ans. (c) 1989 23. Who is the first women chief minister of Jammu and Kashmir? (a) Mehbooba Mufti (b) Kiran Bedi (c) Sarah Abdullah (d) Rajkumari Amrit Kaur Ans. (a) Mehbooba Mufti 24. What is the full form of PDP? (a) People’s Democratic Party (b) People’s Development Party (c) People’s Derivative Party (d) None of the above Ans. (a) People’s Democratic Party 25. The Punjab Accord was signed between the __________. (a) Rajiv Gandhi and Harchand Singh Longowal (b) Rajiv Gandhi and Master Tara Singh (c) Rajiv Gandhi and Sir Chotu Ram (d) Rajiv Gandhi and Prakash Singh Badal Ans. (a) Rajiv Gandhi and Harchand Singh Longowal 26. Which of the following was not the provision of Punjab

Accord? (a) Tribunal for solving border dispute between Punjab and Haryana (b) Tribunal for deciding the water dispute of Ravi- Beas river (c) Withdrawn of AFSPA (d) Resuming of trade of Punjab with Pakistan Ans. (d) Resuming of trade of Punjab with Pakistan 27. Who was the first Chief Minister of Jammu and Kashmir, that belong to Indian National Congress? (a) Ghulam Mohammed Sadiq (b) Sheikh Abdullah (c) Omar Abdullah (d) Faruq Abdullah Ans. (a) Ghulam Mohammed Sadiq 28. Which of the following resolutions by the Akalis demanded regional autonomy in Punjab? (a) Patiala Resolution (b) Shimla Resolution (c) Anandpur Sahib Resolution (d) Ludhiana Resolution Ans. (c) Anandpur Sahib Resolution 29. What was the codename of the operation carried out by the Indian army in Amritsar? (a) Operation Neptune Spear (b) Operation Blue Star (c) Operation Black Tornado

(d) Operation Desert Storm Ans. (b) Operation Blue Star 30. Article 370 was abolished in which of the following years? (a) 2019 (b) 2017 (c) 2018 (d) 2020 Ans. (a) 2019 31. Which of the following parties has led the movement for the formation of the Punjabi Suba? (a) DMK Party (b) Akali Dal (c) Liberal Party (d) Unionist Party Ans. (b) Akali Dal 32. Which of the following issues was raised by the Akali Dal during 1980? (a) Distribution of water between it and other states (b) Status of union territory for Punjab (c) Separate nationhood to Punjab (d) Ban on the entry of people other than Sikhs in Punjab Ans. (a) Distribution of water between it and other states 33. What is the full form of AFSPA? (a) Armed Forces Special Powers Act (b) Armed Forces Special Permissions Act

(c) Armed Forces Specialisation of Powers Act (d) Armed Forces Special Provisions Act Ans. (a) Armed Forces Special Powers Act 34. Who is the founder of the Mizo National Front? (a) Thanawala (b) Laldenga (c) SS Khaplang (d) Isak Muivah Ans. (b) Laldenga 35. What is the full form of SGPC? (a) Shiromani Gurudwara Prabhandak Committee (b) Shiromani Guntur Prabhandak Committee (c) Shiromani Gurudwara Panchal Committee (d) Shiromani Gurudwara Purpose Committee Ans. (a) Shiromani Gurudwara Prabhandak Committee

1. The Chipko movement started from the villages of which of the following present day states? (a) Uttarakhand (b) Uttar Pradesh (c) Gujarat (d) Himachal Pradesh Ans. (a) Uttarakhand 2. The ideology of the Naxalite groups is based on the teachings of ____________. (a) Marx-Lenin (b) Adam Smith (c) Niccolo Machiavelli (d) None of the above Ans. (a) Marx-Lenin 3. Which of the following is the greatest Dalit leader in India? (a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (c) Periyar (d) None of the above Ans. (b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar 4. The organisation Dalit Panthers was formed in which of the following states? (a) Maharashtra

(b) Gujarat (c) West Bengal (d) Uttar Pradesh Ans. (a) Maharashtra 5. Which of the following were the main demands of the Dalit Panthers? (a) Implementation of the reservation policies (b) Implementation of the social welfare programmes (c) Ending social inequality in the society (d) All of the above Ans. (d) All of the above 6. Who was Namdeo Dharal? (a) Marathi poet (b) Dalit activist (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these Ans. (c) Both (a) and (b) 7. What is the full form of BAMCEF? (a) Backward and Minority Communities Employees Federation (b) Backward and Majority Communities Employees Federation (c) Banned and Minority Communities Employees Federation (d) Backward and Minority Communities External Federation Ans. (a) Backward and Minority Communities Employees Federation 8. What is the full form of the BKU?

(a) Bharatiya Kisan Union (b) Bharatiya Karamchari Union (c) Bharatiya Kisan Urban (d) None of the above Ans. (a) Bharatiya Kisan Union 9. The presence of the Shetkari Sanghatna is most prominent in which of the following states? (a) Gujarat (b) Haryana (c) Maharashtra (d) Uttar Pradesh Ans. (c) Maharashtra 10. The Rayata Sangha is an organisation advocating the rights of ___________. (a) Farmers (b) Dalits (c) Industrial Workers (d) None of the above Ans. (a) Farmers 11. The main influence of the Bharatiya Kisan Union was there in which of the following states? (a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Haryana (c) Maharashtra (d) Both (a) and (b)

Ans. (d) Both (a) and (b) 12. Why fish government?

workers

started

agitating

against

the

(a) Due to introduction of new technology in fishing (b) Due to lower wages (c) Due to violation of their human rights (d) None of the above Ans. (a) Due to introduction of new technology in fishing 13. The subject of Fisheries comes under which of the following lists? (a) State List (b) Concurrent List (c) Union List (d) None of these Ans. (a) State List 14. What is the full form of the NFF? (a) National Fishworkers’ Forum (b) National Fashonworkers Forum (c) National Fishworkers Federation (d) National Fashionworkers Federation Ans. (a) National Fishworkers’ Forum 15. Why NFF organised a strike in the year 2002? (a) Government decided to issue licenses to the foreign trawlers (b) Government decided to issue restrictions on fishermen in local waters (c) Government restricted the working of the NFF

(d) None of the above Ans. (a) Government decided to issue licenses to the foreign trawlers 16. The Anti-Arrack movement started from which of the following states? (a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Karnataka (c) Maharashtra (d) None of these Ans. (a) Andhra Pradesh 17. The Anti-Arrack movement was against the use of _________. (a) Alcohol (b) Pesticides (c) Fungicides (d) None of these Ans. (a) Alcohol 18. Which of the following statement is/are correct? (i) Medha Patkar is an Indian social activist. (ii) She lead Narmada Bachao Aandolan. (a) Only (i) (b) Only (ii) (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these Ans. (c) Both (a) and (b)

19. Which of the following amendments granted reservation to women in the political office at the local levels? (a) 21st and 22nd Amendment (b) 73rd and 74th Amendment (c) 51st and 52nd Amendment (d) None of the above Ans. (b) 73rd and 74th Amendment 20. The Sardar Sarovar Project was to be implemented in which of the following state? (a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Maharashtra (c) Gujarat (d) Uttar Pradesh Ans. (c) Gujarat 21. Which of the following statement is/are correct? (i) Social movement are only about collective assertion or about rallies and protest. (ii) Social movement involve a gradual process of coming together of people with similar problem, Similar demands and similar expectation. (a) Only (i) (b) Only (ii) (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these Ans. (b) Only (ii)

22. What parameters should be included in the calculation of the social costs of the development projects? (a) Rehabilitation of the people (b) Loss of the livelihood of the people (c) Loss of depletion of ecological resources (d) All of the above Ans. (d) All of the above 23. A comprehensive Rehabilitation policy was formed in which of the following years? (a) 2001 (b) 2000 (c) 2002 (d) 2003 Ans. (d) 2003 24. What was the decision of the Supreme Court concerning the Sardar Sarovar Dam? (a) It gave order to stop the construction (b) It permitted the construction with proper rehabilitation (c) It remained silent on its construction (d) None of the above Ans. (b) It permitted the construction with proper rehabilitation 25. What is the full form of RTI? (a) Right to Information (b) Right to Informed (c) Right to Immigration

(d) None of the above Ans. (a) Right to Information 26. What is the full form of MKSS? (a) Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sanghathan (b) Muslim Kisan Shakti Sanghathan (c) Mazdoor Kisan Shastra Sanghathan (d) Maratha Kisan Shakti Sanghathan Ans. (a) Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sanghathan 27. The demand for the right to information was raised at which of the following place at first instance? (a) Bhim Tehsil (b) Bharatpur Tehsil (c) Bhargaon Tehsil (d) None of these Ans. (a) Bhim Tehsil 28. Which of the following committees proposed a draft RTI law? (a) Shourie Committee (b) Punchi Committee (c) Rangarajan Committee (d) Hora Committee Ans. (a) Shourie Committee 29. In which of the following years did the RTI bill get Presidential assent? (a) 2003

(b) 2004 (c) 2005 (d) 2006 Ans. (c) 2005 30. Who formed the National Council for People’s Right to Information? (a) MKSS (b) NBA (c) BKU (d) None of these Ans. (a) MKSS 31. Who is regarded as the founder of Women Movement in India? (a) Sarojini Naidu (b) Indira Gandhi (c) Kasturba Gandhi (d) Pandit Rama Bai Ans. (d) Pandit Rama Bai 32. In which year was All India Kisan Sabha established? (a) 1950 (b) 1938 (c) 1945 (d) 1936 Ans. (d) 1936 33. In which year was All India Kisan Sabha divided?

(a) 1960 (b) 1964 (c) 1971 (d) 1980 Ans. (b) 1964 34. The Silent Valley Movement is a movement which is connected with? (a) Environment (b) Cutting of trees (c) Building of dams (d) A religious movement Ans. (a) Environment 35. U.N. Conference on Human Environment in Stockholm was held in the year: (a) 1970 (b) 1971 (c) 1972 (d) 1975 Ans. (c) 1972 36. Mandal Commission was established in: (a) 1975 (b) 1977 (c) 1979 (d) 1981 Ans. (c) 1979

37. Mandal Commission government of India in: (a) 1980 (b) 1982 (c) 1984 (d) 1985 Ans. (a) 1980

submitted

its

report

to

the

1. What is the full form of UPA? (a) United Progressive Alliance (b) Unified Progressive Alliance (c) United Protective Alliance (d) United Progressive Association Ans. (a) United Progressive Alliance 2. What is the full form of NDA? (a) National Democratic Alliance (b) National Democracy Alliance (c) National Democratic Association (d) Nationalist Democratic Alliance Ans. (a) National Democratic Alliance 3. ______ party led the UPA. (a) Congress (b) BJP (c) Left (d) Janata Ans. (a) Congress 4. ______ party led the NDA. (a) Congress (b) BJP (c) Left

(d) Janata Ans. (b) BJP 5. The period after 1989 is the period of ______. (i) Decline of congress (ii) Rise of BJP (iii) Rise of congress (iv) Decline of BJP (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iv) Ans. (a) (i) and (ii) 6. Who were the two major political parties who compete with each other in the 1990s elections? (a) Between congress and BJP (b) Between regional parties (c) Between congress and BJP on one side and regional parties on the other side (d) Between coalition led by Congress and the National Front supported by Left Front and BJP Ans. (d) Between coalition led by Congress and the National Front supported by Left Front and BJP 7. ______ headed the coalition government of United Front from June 6, 1996, to April 1997. (a) H.D. Deve Gowda (b) V. P. Singh

(c) Manmohan Singh (d) I. K. Gujral Ans. (a) H.D. Deve Gowda 8. How was the United Front similar to the National Front of 1989? (a) It included Janata Party and several other parties. (b) It was a coalition government. (c) It had support of the left. (d) All of the above Ans. (b) It was a coalition government. 9. Which statement about the United Front is NOT correct? (a) It did not have support of the BJP (b) It had support of the Congress (c) The United Front government came into power in 1996 (d) Regional parties did not have any role to play in the United Front Government Ans. (d) Regional parties did not have any role to play in the United Front Government 10. Though the 1990s was an era of coalition politics, there was consensus on a few things. What were those? (i) Consensus of new economic policies. (ii) Acceptance of social and political claims of OBCs. (iii) State level parties in governance of the country. (iv) Political alliances without ideological agreement. (a) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (iv) Ans. (a) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) 11. Pick the ODD one out. (a) National Front - 1989 (b) United Front - 1996 (c) UPA I - 2000 (d) None of the above Ans. (c) UPA I - 2000 12. In ______ the UPA II came into power. (a) 2009 (b) 2010 (c) 1994 (d) 2014 Ans. (a) 2009 13. The era of coalition politics changed in the year ______. (a) 2010 (b) 2014 (c) 2000 (d) 1999 Ans. (b) 2014 14. Who was the Prime Minister during UPA I and II? (a) Manmohan Singh (b) V. P. Singh

(c) Narasimha Rao (d) I. K Gujral Ans. (a) Manmohan Singh 15. ______ was the Prime Minister during the National Front government supported by Left Front and BJP. (a) V. P. Singh (b) Narasimha Rao (c) I..K. Gujral (d) Deve Gowda Ans. (a) V. P. Singh 16. Mandal Commission recommendations were implemented in the year ______. (a) 1990 (b) 1991 (c) 1992 (d) 1993 Ans. (a) 1990 17. In what way did the National Front’s decision to implement the Mandal Commission recommendation changed the Indian politics? (a) It gave more power and confidence to the OBCs. (b) The OBC communities became aware of their identities. (c) The Regional parties supporting OBCs started to come up. (d) All of the above Ans. (d) All of the above 18. 2004 elections resulted in ______.

(a) One-party government (b) Coalition government (c) Hung government (d) Re-election Ans. (b) Coalition government 19. What is the full form of BSP? (a) Bahujan Samaj Party (b) Bharat Samaj Party (c) Bharatiya Samaj Party (d) Bahujan Sabha Party Ans. (a) Bahujan Samaj Party 20. Which political party for the first time with mainly dalit supporters gained importance in Indian politics? (a) BSP (b) Janata Party (c) RSS (d) National front Ans. (a) BSP 21. In which state, large scale communal riots took place in 2002? (a) Gujarat (b) West Bengal (c) UP (d) Karnataka Ans. (a) Gujarat

22. In ______ Babri Masjid was demolished. (a) 1992 (b) 1990 (c) 1989 (d) 2000 Ans. (a) 1992 23. Which statement about 2004 elections is NOT true? (a) Congress entered in coalition politics in a big way. (b) The NDA was defeated. (c) A single party came into power. (d) The party in power received support from Left parties from outside. Ans. (c) A single party came into power. 24. What was the main reason behind Gujarat riots? (a) A bogey of train that had kar sevaks was set on fire. (b) Babri Masjid demolition (c) Pakistan insurgency (d) National level religious upheavals Ans. (a) A bogey of train that had kar sevaks was set on fire. 25. Who was the Prime Minister of the Congress government supported by AIADMK in 1991? (a) Manmohan Singh (b) I. K. Gujral (c) P. V. Narasimha Rao (d) V. P. Singh

Ans. (c) P. V. Narasimha Rao 26. ______ became the Prime Minister of the United Front government supported by the Congress in 1997. (a) Manmohan Singh (b) I. K. Gujral (c) P. V. Narasimha Rao (d) V. P. Singh Ans. (b) I. K. Gujral 27. Who founded the BSP? (a) Kanshi Ram (b) Mayawati (c) Ram Vilas Paswan (d) Lalu Prasad Yadav Ans. (a) Kanshi Ram 28. Pick the odd one OUT. (a) Narendra Modi - 2014 (b) A. B. Vajpayee - 2004 (c) I. K. Gujral - 1997 (d) Manmohan Singh - 2000 Ans. (b) A. B. Vajpayee - 2004 29. In the 17th Lok Sabha elections, how many seats were won by the BJP? (a) 303 (b) 52 (c) 24

(d) 18 Ans. (a) 303 30. Which statements about 2019 national election is/are correct? (a) BJP came out as the single largest party. (b) BJP won maximum seats that a party has won since 1989 general elections. (c) 2019 elections was the 17th national election. (d) All of the above Ans. (d) All of the above 31. Since the 2019 elections, the contemporary party system is known as the ______. (a) BJP system (b) Post-congress party system (c) Single party system (d) Multi party system Ans. (c) Single party system 32. There is a shift in focus in Indian politics since 2014. What is the shift? (a) The shift from coalition government to one party majority government (b) The shift from congress led coalition government to the BJP led coalition government (c) The shift from weak government to the strong government under the BJP majority (d) All of the above Ans. (d) All of the above

33. The Mandal Commission recommended reserving ______ of seats in education institute and government job for OBC. (a) 27% (b) 28% (c) 26% (d) 25% Ans. (a) 27% 34. Which of the following option is correct? Assertion (A): Election in 1989 led to the defeat of Congress Party. Reason (R): Though the Congress was the largest party in the Lok Sabha. (a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not correct explanation of (A). (c) (A) is correct and (R) is wrong. (d) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct. Ans. (b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not correct explanation of (A). 35. Choose the correct statement: (a) No single party secured a clear majority since 1989 till 2014 in Lok Sabha. (b) H.D. Deve Gowda was the Prime Minister in 1996 with support of BJP. (c) B.P. Mandal ws a M.P. from Uttar Pradesh. (d) None of the above

Ans. (a) No single party secured a clear majority since 1989 till 2014 in Lok Sabha. 36. Who was the founder of BAMCEF? (a) Atal Bihari Vajpayee (b) Rajiv Gandhi (c) Kanshi Ram (d) Mulayam Singh Ans. (c) Kanshi Ram 37. Which statement about bi-party system is NOT true? (a) It helps solve complex issues (b) It helps represent more ideologies and view (c) It discourages political stability (d) It helps lower corruption Ans. (c) It discourages political stability 38. A system that has two major political parties dominating the political scenario is called ______ . (a) Bi-party system (b) Multi-party system (c) Coalition system (d) Democratic system Ans. (a) Bi-party system 39. Today which party system is followed in Indian politics? (i) One-party system (ii) Two-party system (iii) Multi-party system

(iv) Coalition system (a) Only (i) is correct (b) (i) and (ii) are correct (c) (iii) and (iv) are correct (d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct Ans. (c) (iii) and (iv) are correct 40. ______ is when several parties join hands to context elections. (a) Alliance (b) Factions (c) Group (d) Coalition Ans. (a) Alliance 41. A political system with many-parties is known as? (a) Uni-party system (b) Multi-party system (c) Bi-party system (d) None of the above Ans. (b) Multi-party system 42. A political system with two-parties is known as : (a) Uni-party system (b) Multi-party system (c) Bi-party system (d) None of the above Ans. (c) Bi-party system

43. A political system with one-party is known as? (a) Uni-party system (b) Multi-party system (c) Bi-party system (d) None of the above Ans. (a) Uni-party system 44. Which statement is true about a multi-party system? (i) Many political parties compete for power (ii) There will often be coalition government (iii) It can become an unstable political system at times (iv) All parties have the capacity to gain control of government offices (a) (i) (b) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (iii) Ans. (b) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

1. Who among the following was the Prime Minister of India when Mandal Commission was constituted? (a) Dr. Manmohan Singh (b) Atal Bihari Vajpayee (c) V.P. Singh (d) Morarji Desai Ans. (d) Morarji Desai 2. ________ was the Finance Minister when India accepted the liberalisation policy for industrialisation in 1991. (a) P. Chidambaram (b) Dr. Manmohan Singh (c) P.V. Narasimha Rao (d) Morarji Desai Ans. (b) Dr. Manmohan Singh 3. Which Prime Minister of India sent the Indian Peace Keeping Force to Sri Lanka? (a) Indira Gandhi (b) Atal Bihari Vajpayee (c) Rajiv Gandhi (d) V.P. Singh Ans. (c) Rajiv Gandhi 4. Who propound the ideology of Hindutva? (a) Shyama Prasad Mukherjee

(b) K.B. Hedgewar (c) M.S. Golwalkar (d) V.D. Savarkar Ans. (d) V.D. Savarkar 5. Which of the following landmark constitutional case is known as Mandal Case? (a) Indra Sawhney Vs Union of India (b) Woman Rao Case (1981) (c) Ahmed Khan Vs Shah Bano Begum (d) Mithu Vs State of Punjab Ans. (a) Indra Sawhney Vs Union of India 6. Shah Bano case led to a debate related to which of the following? (a) Uniform Civil Code (b) Reservation for SC/ST (c) Preamble (d) Independence of Judiciary Ans. (a) Uniform Civil Code 7. The rise of the ‘Mandal Issue’ in National politics took place in: (a) First development (b) Second development (c) Third development (d) Fourth development Ans. (b) Second development

8. Who is the founder of BAMCEF? (a) Kanshi Ram (b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (c) Atal Bihari Vajpayee (d) Mahatma Gandhi Ans. (a) Kanshi Ram 9. Mandal Commission recommended reserving ________ percent of seat in education institution and jobs for OBC. (a) 25 (b) 26 (c) 27 (d) 28 Ans. (c) 27 10. Babri Masjid was built by whom? (a) Mughal Emperor Babur (b) Mir Baqi (c) Shahjahan (d) Aurangzeb Ans. (b) Mir Baqi 11. Which court in 1986 order that Babri Masjid premises be unlocked. So that Hindu could offer prayers? (a) Faridabad District Court (b) Faizabad District Court (c) Lucknow High Court (d) Allahabad High Court

Ans. (b) Faizabad District Court 12. Who was the Chairperson of Mandal Commission? (a) Bindeshwari Prasad Mandal (b) Nadeshmari Prasad Mandal (c) Chandeswari Prasad Mandal (d) None of the above Ans. (a) Bindeshwari Prasad Mandal 13. Removing barriers or restrictions set by the government is know as ________? (a) Globalisation (b) De-globalisation (c) Regeneration (d) Expansion Ans. (a) Globalisation 14. When did the government remove the barriers for investment in India? (a) 1990 (b) 1991 (c) 1992 (d) 1993 Ans. (b) 1991 15. Globalisation is _______ phenomenon. (a) an uni-dimensional (b) multi-dimension (c) a political

(d) a cultural Ans. (b) multi-dimension 16. According to the rightist view in India globalisation tends to: (a) Benefits the weaker section of the society (b) Divides the state into rich and poor (c) Weakens the state (d) Reduces political party competition Ans. (c) Weakens the state 17. In which year Gujarat riots take place? (a) 2001 (b) 2002 (c) 2003 (d) 2004 Ans. (b) 2002 18. The immediate provocation for Gujarat riots was an incident that place at: (a) A station called Godhra (b) A station called Surat (c) A station called Faizabad (d) A station called Ayodhya Ans. (a) A station called Godhra 19. What is the name of Commission, which was set-up by the Government of India to investigate into the circumstance leading to the demolition of the mosque? (a) Faiz Ali Commission

(b) Jivan Jyoti Commission (c) Liberhan Commission (d) R.V.M. Commission Ans. (c) Liberhan Commission 20. Who was appointed by the National Front as the Prime Minister? (a) P.V. Narsimha Rao (b) H.D. Deva Gowda (c) V.P. Singh (d) Atal Bihari Vajpayee Ans. (c) V.P. Singh 21. When was Shah Bano case held? (a) 1985 (b) 1986 (c) 1987 (d) 1988 Ans. (a) 1985 22. In which year the government passed Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act,_________. (a) 1985 (b) 1986 (c) 1987 (d) 1988 Ans. (b) 1986 23. Consider the following statements. Which statements

is/are correct? (i) The Bhartiya Jana Sangh had merged into the Janata Party aftermath of the emergency. (ii) Bhartiya Janata Party established in 1980. (a) Only (i) (b) Only (ii) (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these Ans. (c) Both (a) and (b) 24. Which of the following statement is correct regarding B.P. Mandal? (a) He was the Chairperson of first Backward Classes Commission (b) He was the Socialist leader from Uttar Pradesh (c) He was Chief Minister of Bihar for a just one month (d) He never joined Janata Party Ans. (c) He was Chief Minister of Bihar for a just one month 25. Match the following: List-A

List-B

A.

BJP established year

(i)

1978

B.

Shah Bano Case

(ii)

2002

C.

Gujarat Roits

(iii)

1985

D.

BAMCEF

(iv)

1980

(a) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i) (b) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iv)

(c) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii) (d) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i) Ans. (d) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i)

1. The end of the Second World War was the beginning of the ________. (a) Cold war (b) Cuban Missile Crisis (c) Non-aligned Movement (d) Logic of Deterrence Ans. (a) Cold war 2. The period of Cold war was from _______ to _______. (a) 1914 to 1918 (b) 1939 to 1945 (c) 1947 to 1991 (d) 1955 to 1975 Ans. (c) 1947 to 1991 3. Which statement about the “Cold War” is correct? (a) It was a long, tense war of nerves and ideologies. (b) It was a direct war between the two superpowers –US and USSR. (c) It was a war that was fought during the winter months. (d) It was a war that was fought between the two physical wars— the first world war and the second world war. Ans. (a) It was a long, tense war of nerves and ideologies. 4. What was the high point of the Cold War? (a) Atomic bomb attack on two cities of Japan Hiroshima and Nagasaki

(b) Establishment of NATO (c) Establishment of CENTO and SEATO (d) Cuban Missile crisis Ans. (d) Cuban Missile crisis 5. Who was the leader of United States of American during the Cuban Missile Crisis? (a) Dwight D. Eisenhower (b) John F. Kennedy (c) George Bush (d) Richard Nixon Ans. (b) John F. Kennedy 6. What did United States first do on discovering the deployment of nuclear weapons in Cuba? (a) They started negotiations with Fidel Castro. (b) They attacked Cuba. (c) They went to the United Nations for help. (d) They formed blockade against Soviet Union ships or weapons from entering into Cuba. Ans. (d) They formed blockade against Soviet Union ships or weapons from entering into Cuba. 7. ___________ helped avert physical war during the Cold war. (a) Logic of deterrence (b) Non-aligned Movement (c) Cuban Missile Crisis (d) United Nation Involvement

Ans. (a) Logic of deterrence 8. During the cold war, the US and its allies represented the ideology of _________; whereas the USSR and its allies represented the ideology of _________. (a) Capitalism, Socialism (b) Marxism, Liberalism (c) Egalitarianism, Socialism (d) Capitalism, Egalitarianism Ans. (a) Capitalism, Socialism 9. Western Europe countries that sided with the US were called ________. Eastern European countries that sided with the USSR were called ________. (a) Axis power, Allied power (b) Western Alliance, Eastern Alliance (c) Developed countries, Developing countries (d) Liberal Nations, Communist Nations Ans. (b) Western Alliance, Eastern Alliance 10. Arrange the following in chronological order: (i) Cuban Missile Crisis (ii) Formation of NATO (iii) Formation of SEATO (iv) Formation of NAM (a) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i) (b) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv) (c) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv) (d) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)

Ans. (a) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i) 11. The Western alliance was formalized in an organization called ________ in ________. (a) NAM, 1961 (b) CENTO, 1955 (c) NATO, 1949 (d) Warsaw Pact, 1955 Ans. (c) NATO, 1949 12. The North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) was signed by: (a) Canada, US and Western European states (b) USSR, US and Western European states (c) Turkey, USSR and Eastern European states (d) US, Canada and Eastern European states Ans. (a) Canada, US and Western European states 13. What was the name of the Eastern alliance led by the Soviet Union? (a) Central Treaty Organization (b) Non-aligned Movement (c) Warsaw pact (d) Eastern bloc Ans. (c) Warsaw pact 14. What was the main principle of the Warsaw Pact? (a) To wage war against the US (b) To counter NATO’s forces in Europe

(c) To provide economic help to the newly independent countries (d) To unite the world against a nuclear war Ans. (b) To counter NATO’s forces in Europe 15. _________ became the main arena of conflict between the superpowers. (a) Asia (b) United States of America (c) Europe (d) Middle east Ans. (c) Europe 16. For the superpowers, the smaller states were important because: (a) The smaller states provided them with vital resources. (b) The smaller states provided them with territory and economic support. (c) The smaller states gave the superpowers to fight against each other. (d) The smaller states provided them with vital resources, territory and economic support. Ans. (d) The smaller states provided them with vital resources, territory and economic support. 17. The smaller countries were also important for ________ reasons. The loyalty of the allies suggested that the superpowers were winning the war of ________ as well. (a) Ideological, ideas (b) Economic, trade (c) Communication, words

(d) Economic, resources Ans. (b) Economic, trade 18. What is the meaning of arenas of Cold War? (a) All those areas where ideological battles were fought. (b) The areas which were marked by the Western alliance and Eastern Alliance as their own. (c) Areas where crisis and war occurred or was threatened to occur, but did not cross certain limits. (d) All those areas where the superpowers wanted to spread their influence. Ans. (c) Areas where crisis and war occurred or was threatened to occur, but did not cross certain limits. 19. The two superpowers were poised for direct confrontation in: (a) Berlin (1958-62), Congo (early 1960s) and Vietnam (1955-75) (b) Korea (1950-53), Berlin (1958-62) and Congo (early 1960s) (c) Korea (1950-53), Berlin (1958-62) and Gulf War (1991) (d) Korea (1950-53) and Congo (early 1960s) Ans. (b) Korea (1950-53), Berlin (1958-62) and Congo (early 1960s) 20. A great many lives were lost in some of the arenas of Cold War, but the world was spared

a/an _______ war and _______ hostility. (a) Non Nuclear, local (b) Economic, trade (c) Nuclear, global (d) World, international

Ans. (c) Nuclear, global 21. The purpose of the Marshall plan was: (a) To spread militarism across Europe (b) To strengthen the ties between the allied nations (c) To provide economic aid to eastern Europe (d) Reconstruction of Western Europe Ans. (d) Reconstruction of Western Europe 22. CENTO was originally known as _______. (a) Warsaw Pact (b) Baghdad Pact (c) The Central Trade Organization (d) Marshall plan Ans. (b) Baghdad Pact 23. Choose the odd one out. (a) Poland – Eastern Bloc (b) Turkey – Western Bloc (c) Greece – Eastern Bloc (d) France – Western Bloc Ans. (c) Greece – Eastern Bloc 24. _______, one of the key leaders of the NAM, played a crucial role in mediating between the two _______. (a) Jawaharlal Nehru, Korea (b) Sukarno, Korea (c) Jawaharlal Nehru, Superpowers (d) Gamal Abdel Nasser, blocs

Ans. (a) Jawaharlal Nehru, Korea 25. The Non-Aligned Movement offered independent countries a third option ________.

the

newly

(a) Not to join either alliance (b) To join one alliance but can trade with both alliances (c) To join alliance based on who their colonial masters were (d) To form another superpower bloc Ans. (a) Not to join either alliance 26. The NAM came into existence mainly because of the leadership of: (a) Jawaharlal Nehru (b) Josip Broz (c) Gamal Abdel Nasser (d) All of the above Ans. (d) All of the above 27. The first NAM conference was held in Belgrade in: (a) September 1961 (b) October 1961 (c) December 1959 (d) October 1963 Ans. (a) September 1961 28. The three major factors for the formation of the NAM were: (i) Cooperation among the founding member countries (ii) Growing Cold War tensions (iii) Entry of many decolonized African countries into the

international arena (iv) The need to establish a third super power (a) (i), (ii), (iv) (b) (i), (iii), (iv) (c) (i), (ii), (iii) (d) (ii), (iii), (iv) Ans. (c) (i), (ii), (iii) 29. The first summit of the NAM had _______ members. (a) 15 (b) 25 (c) 30 (d) 45 Ans. (b) 25 30. The latest NAM summit was held in 2019 in ______ and attended by ______ member countries. (a) Azerbaijan, 120 (b) India, 100 (c) Venezuela, 110 (d) Egypt, 150 Ans. (a) Azerbaijan, 120 31. It was easier to define the NAM by what it did not stand for: (i) NAM did not stand for Isolationism. (ii) NAM did not stand for Neutrality. (iii) NAM did not stand for Non-alignment.

(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (i) and (ii) (c) (i) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iii) Ans. (b) (i) and (ii) 32. As the leader of the NAM, what was India’s response to the Cold war? (a) To stay away from either blocs and raise voice to stop newly decolonize countries from entering either blocs (b) To stay away from either blocs (c) To raise voice to stop newly decolonized countries from entering either blocs (d) None of the above Ans. (a) To stay away from either blocs and raise voice to stop newly decolonize countries from entering either blocs 33. What did India’s non-alignment policy mean? (a) It was to be passive and negative towards world affairs. (b) It was to completely isolate oneself from all world affair. (c) It was active intervention to resolve world affairs and soften the Cold War rivalries. (d) It was to neutralize the powers of the two super blocs. Ans. (c) It was active intervention to resolve world affairs and soften the Cold War rivalries. 34. How did the NAM serve India’s interest? (a) It allowed India to take independent decisions and balance one superpower against the other. (b) It allowed India to become the leader of the third super bloc.

(c) It allowed India to play a vital role in the arms race between US and USSR. (d) It allowed India to pit one bloc against the other. Ans. (a) It allowed India to take independent decisions and balance one superpower against the other. 35. India signed the Treaty of Friendship with ________ in 1971. (a) USA (b) USSR (c) Eastern European Countries (d) China Ans. (b) USSR 36. Why did India sign the Treaty of Friendship? (a) It needed military and diplomatic support during Bangladesh crisis. (b) It wanted to move away from the NAM. (c) It wanted to be close to one of the superpowers. (d) It wanted to be most powerful among its neighbours. Ans. (a) It needed military and diplomatic support during Bangladesh crisis. 37. Study the picture given below and answer the question.

When did US and USSR starting negotiations for banning of arms test?

(a) 1960s (b) 1950s (c) 1970s (d) 1980s Ans. (a) 1960s 38. Fall of Berlin Wall took place in the year? (a) 9th November 1990 (b) 15th November 1989 (c) 9th November 1989 (d) 15th November 1988 Ans. (c) 9th November 1989 39. The NAM posed a challenge to: (a) Bipolarity (b) Unipolarity (c) Multipolarity (d) Globalisation Ans. (a) Bipolarity 40. Which of the following statement is true? (a) The root of NAM was the New Economic World Order. (b) The root of NAM goes back to the friendship between three leaders —Josip Broz Tito, Jawaharlal Nehru, and Gamal Abdel Nasser. (c) The root of NAM was the need of the newly independent countries to assert their power.

(d) The root of NAM was India’s aspiration to be the world leader. Ans. (b) The root of NAM goes back to the friendship between three leaders —Josip Broz Tito, Jawaharlal Nehru, and Gamal Abdel Nasser. 41. By mid-1970s the NAM became a/an ______. (a) economic pressure group (b) cultural exchange group (c) ideological group (d) political pressure group Ans. (a) economic pressure group 42. The Second World War was fought between: (a) 1914–1919 (b) 1920–1925 (c) 1940–1942 (d) 1939–1945 Ans. (d) 1939–1945 43. The Cold War was: (a) a matter of power rivalries (b) an ideological conflict (c) of military alliance (d) all of the above Ans. (d) all of the above 44. Cuban Missile Crisis took place in the year: (a) 1956 (b) 1962

(c) 1960 (d) 1971 Ans. (b) 1962 45. Which of the following Soviet leaders decided to convert Cuba into Soviet Phase? (a) Stalin (b) Khrushchev (c) Gorbachev (d) Putin Ans. (b) Khrushchev 46. Warsaw Pact was organised by the Soviet bloc in the year: (a) 1949 (b) 1950 (c) 1955 (d) 1960 Ans. (c) 1955 47. Unification of Germany took place in the year: (a) 1990 (b) 1988 (c) 1991 (d) 1992 Ans. (a) 1990 48. During the period of Cold War, great loss of lives and destruction took place in the country: (a) Korea

(b) Afghanistan (c) Vietnam (d) All of these Ans. (d) All of these 49. Disintegration of U.S.S.R. and the end of the era of Cold War took place in: (a) 1990 (b) 1991 (c) 1992 (d) 1989 Ans. (b) 1991 50. Which among the following statement about the Cold War is wrong? (a) It was a competition between the US and Soviet Union and their respective allies. (b) It was an ideological war between the superpowers. (c) It triggered off an arms race. (d) The US and USSR were engaged in direct wars. Ans. (d) The US and USSR were engaged in direct wars. 51. Which among the following statement does not reflect the objectives of NAM? (a) Enabling newly decolonised countries to pursue independent policies. (b) No to joining any military alliances. (c) Following a policy of neutrality on global issues. (d) Focus on elimination of global economic inequalities.

Ans. (c) Following a policy of neutrality on global issues.

1. What was ‘Second World’? (a) The east European countries liberated by the Soviet army and came under the control of the USSR. (b) The European countries that came under the influence of the US after Second World War. (c) The phase after the Second World War is known as Second World. (d) All the developed countries together were known as the Second World. Ans. (a) The east European countries liberated by the Soviet army and came under the control of the USSR. 2. The Second World was also known as ________. (a) Developing countries (b) Socialist Bloc (c) West Europe (d) East Europe Ans. (b) Socialist Bloc 3. Why did the life of common people under the Communist rule in the USSR become difficult? (a) The Soviet authoritarian.

system

became

very

bureaucratic

and

(b) The Soviet system gave too much freedom to its people, which led to anarchy. (c) The leadership under the Soviet rule was constantly changing, thus creating instability.

(d) There was too much emphasis on pop culture. Ans. (a) The Soviet system became very bureaucratic and authoritarian. 4. The Soviet invasion of _______ in 1979 weakened the system even further. (a) Turkey (b) Germany (c) Afghanistan (d) China Ans. (c) Afghanistan 5. Which of the following statement is NOT true about erstwhile USSR? (a) The transport sector connected the remotest areas of the USSR with efficiency. (b) State ownership was the dominant form of ownership. (c) USSR had a free-market economy. (d) The USSR had a complex communications network. Ans. (c) USSR had a free-market economy. 6. ________ who became the General Secretary of the Communist Party of the Soviet Union in 1985, sought to reform the system. (a) Mikhail Gorbachev (b) Joseph Stalin (c) Vladimir Lenin (d) Boris Yeltsin Ans. (a) Mikhail Gorbachev

7. What was the immediate outcome of the reforms introduced by Mikhail Gorbachev? (a) Rapid development of the USSR. (b) Independence movement across various East European countries, which were part of the USSR. (c) USSR becomes the most developed part of the world. (d) People of the USSR were elated with the much await reforms. Ans. (b) Independence movement across various East European countries, which were part of the USSR. 8. Which Soviet Union leader brought about the reforms of glasnost and perestroika? (a) Mikhail Gorbachev (b) Leonid Brezhnev (c) Nikita Khrushchev (d) Joseph Stalin Ans. (a) Mikhail Gorbachev 9. Mikhail Gorbachev introduced economic reforms, which is also known as _______. (a) Perestroika (b) Glasnost (c) Shock Therapy (d) Bolshevik Revolution Ans. (a) Perestroika 10. What kind of reforms did Glasnost bring about? (a) Some amount of transparency in the system (b) Openness in government activities

(c) Both of the above (d) None of the above Ans. (b) Openness in government activities 11. Which part of the USSR did not want independence from the Soviet Federation? (a) Central Asian Republic (b) East European countries (c) Europeanized part of USSR (d) Russian Republic Ans. (a) Central Asian Republic 12. What is the correct option for CIS? (a) Commonwealth of Independent States (b) Common Independent System (c) Community of Independent States (d) Commonwealth Independent States Ans. (a) Commonwealth of Independent States 13. The disintegration of the USSR led to: (i) Birth of CIS (ii) Change in the balance of power in the world order (iii) Russia emerging as the superpower (iv) Formation of a new block Choose the correct answer: (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i), (ii), and (iii) (c) (iii)

(d) (ii) and (iv) Ans. (a) (i) and (ii) 14. The disintegration of USSR ended the _______. (a) Soviet – Afghan War (b) Vietnam War (c) Korean War (d) Cold War Ans. (d) Cold War 15. The Communist Party that had ruled the Soviet Union for over ________ was not accountable to the people. (a) 10 years (b) 70 years (c) 40 years (d) 100 years Ans. (b) 70 years Carefully see the picture and answer the questions:

16. Which of the following is NOT true about the collapse of USSR? (a) Disintegration took place because of nationalist movement among the Europeanised parts of USSR. (b) USSR broke down into 15 states. (c) Only thing responsible for the disintegration was Gorbachev’s rule.

(d) Disintegration of USSR in certain ways was seen as end of Communism. Ans. (c) Only thing responsible for the disintegration was Gorbachev’s rule. 17. Where and when did Independence movement first began? (a) Lithuania, 1988 (b) Estonia, 1980 (c) Latvia, 1990 (d) East Germany, 1992 Ans. (a) Lithuania, 1988 18. Which of the following was not an outcome of the disintegration of the USSR? (a) It meant the end of Cold War confrontations. (b) It meant change in the power relations of world politics. (c) It led to emergence of many new countries. (d) It meant the rise of a third power. Ans. (d) It meant the rise of a third power. 19. The Shock Therapy is also associated with ______. (a) Largest garage sale in history (b) Cuban Missile Crisis (c) Gulf War (d) Bolshevik Revolution Ans. (a) Largest garage sale in history 20. Arrange the following in chronological order. (i) Collapse of Berlin Wall

(ii) Shock Therapy (iii) Yeltsin becomes the President of Russia (iv) Birth of CIS (a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (b) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv) (c) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv) (d) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii) Ans. (c) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv) 21. In Central Asia, which country faced civil war for 10 years after the disintegration of USSR? (a) Tajikistan (b) Chechnya (c) Dagestan (d) Uzbekistan Ans. (a) Tajikistan 22. In Russia, which two republics, had violent secessionist movements post USSR disintegration? (a) Chechnya, Dagestan (b) Turkmenistan, Uzbekistan (c) Czechs, Slovaks (d) Bosnia, Herzegovina Ans. (a) Chechnya, Dagestan 23. Which statement is NOT true about India and Russia tie? (a) Both countries believe in multipolarity. (b) Both countries share passion and love for Bollywood.

(c) Both countries have signed less than 80 bilateral agreements in 2001. (d) India stands to benefit on the issue of Kashmir from its relationship with Russia. Ans. (b) Both countries share passion and love for Bollywood. 24. Post cold war, we have a ________ world. (a) Bipolar (b) Multipolar (c) Unipolar (d) Nonpolar Ans. (c) Unipolar 25. Which of the following Soviet Union leader suggested “peaceful coexistence” with the West? (a) Nikita Khrushchev (b) Leonid Brezhnev (c) Joseph Stalin (d) Vladimir Lenin Ans. (a) Nikita Khrushchev 26. The US hegemony is facing ______ types of constraints. (a) Multiple (b) Three (c) Ten (d) Two Ans. (b) Three 27. What was the main reason for the Arab Spring movement?

(a) Unemployment (b) Poverty (c) Democracy (d) All of these Ans. (d) All of these 28. The demand for democracy that started in _______ soon spread to other countries in the Arab World. (a) Yemen (b) Libya (c) Bahrain (d) Tunisia Ans. (d) Tunisia 29. Which Russian Afghanistan?

leader

proposed

(a) Leonid Brezhnev (b) Boris Yeltsin (c) Mikhail Gorbachev (d) Vladimir Putin Ans. (a) Leonid Brezhnev 30. Soviet Union came into being in: (a) 1917 (b) 1919 (c) 1945 (d) 1920 Ans. (a) 1917

the

invasion

of

31. Soviet Union disintegrated in the year: (a) 1945 (b) 1985 (c) 1971 (d) 1991 Ans. (d) 1991 32. What was the reason for the end of Bipolarity in world politics? (a) Disintegration of Soviet Union (b) End of the Cold War (c) Role of Non-alignment Movement (d) All of the above Ans. (d) All of the above 33. Russian Revolution of 1917 was inspired by the ideals of: (a) Socialism (b) Capitalism (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these Ans. (a) Socialism 34. Mikhail Gorbachev became General Secretary of the Communist Party in the Soviet Union in: (a) 1980 (b) 1985 (c) 1990 (d) 1988

Ans. (b) 1985 35. The following statement about the Soviet Union is true: (a) The Communist Party had complete control over all institutions. (b) Soviet system became autocratic and authoritarian. (c) There was lack of democracy and absence of the freedom of speech in the Soviet Union. (d) All of the above Ans. (d) All of the above 36. The following country was accepted as the successor of USSR in the Security Council of UNO. (a) Georgia (b) Ukraine (c) Russia (d) Lithuania Ans. (c) Russia 37. Berlin Wall was broken in the year: (a) 1980 (b) 1989 (c) 1991 (d) 2000 Ans. (b) 1989 38. The first elected President of Russia was: (a) Boris Yeltsin (b) Vladimir Putin (c) Mikhail Gorbachev

(d) None of the above Ans. (a) Boris Yeltsin 39. Both India and Russia share a vision of a world order: (a) Unipolar (b) Bipolar (c) Multipolar (d) None of these Ans. (c) Multipolar 40. Which among the following statement that describe the nature of Soviet economy is wrong? (a) Socialism was the dominant ideology. (b) State ownership/control existed over the factors of production. (c) People enjoyed economic freedom. (d) Every aspect of the economy was planned and controlled by the state. Ans. (c) People enjoyed economic freedom. 41. Arrange the following in chronological order: (a) Soviet invasion of Afghanistan (b) Fall of the Berlin Wall (c) Disintegration of the Soviet Union (d) Russian Revolution Ans. (a) Russian Revolution (b) Soviet invasion of Afghanistan (c) Fall of the Berlin Wall (d) Disintegration of the Soviet Union

42. Which among the following is NOT an outcome of the disintegration of the USSR? (a) End of the ideological war between the US and USSR (b) Birth of CIS (c) Change in the balance of power in the world order (d) Crises in Middle East Ans. (d) Crises in Middle East 43. Match the following: (i)

Mikhail Gorbachev

A.

Successor of USSR

(ii)

Shock Therapy

B.

Military Pact

(iii)

Russia

C.

Introduced Reforms

(iv)

Boris Yeltsin

D.

Economic Model

(v)

Warsaw

E.

President of Russia

(a) (i)-C, (ii)-D, (iii)-A, (iv)-E, (v)-B (b) (i)-B, (ii)-E, (iii)-D, (iv)-A, (v)-C (c) (i)-C, (ii)-A, (iii)-D, (iv)-B, (v)-E (d) (i)-D, (ii)-B, (iii)-E, (iv)-C, (v)-A Ans. (a) (i)-C, (ii)-D, (iii)-A, (iv)-E, (v)-B

1. The US hegemony began in ______. (a) 1990 (b) 1991 (c) 1992 (d) 1993 Ans. (b) 1991 2. What was the reason for the Gulf War? (a) Iraqi occupation of Kuwait (b) US wanting to establish its hegemony (c) Battle over control of oil (d) Iraq refusing to accept US as a superpower Ans. (a) Iraqi occupation of Kuwait 3. Which situation made US President George Bush talk about a New World Order? (a) UN’s permission to stop Iraq’s aggression by force (b) To avert the Cuba Missile Crisis (c) Iraq’s defeat in the first Gulf War (d) Establishing US hegemony and supremacy Ans. (a) UN’s permission to stop Iraq’s aggression by force 4. The ‘soft issue’ that Bill Clinton as the President of US focused on were: (i) Democracy (ii) Climate Change

(iii) Military power (iv) Security (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i), (ii), and (iv) (c) (i) and (iii) (d) (iii) and (iv) Ans. (a) (i) and (ii) See the image carefully and answer the questions:

5. What has the attack on the World Trade Centre come to be known as? (a) 9/11 (b) 11/9 (c) 9/01 (d) 11/01 Ans. (a) 9/11 6. Which statement about the attack on the World Trade Tower is NOT correct? (a) In terms of loss of life, this attack is worse on the US soil since the country was formed in 1776. (b) The attack has been compared to that of the Pearl Harbour. (c) Nineteen hijackers from various Arab countries were part of this attack. (d) This attack is seen as the end of US hegemony.

Ans. (d) This attack is seen as the end of US hegemony. 7. The US launched ______ as part of its aggressive response to the attack on WTC. (a) Operation Enduring Freedom (b) Operation Desert Storm (c) Operation Iraqi Freedom (d) Operation Infinite Reach Ans. (a) Operation Enduring Freedom 8. What does the term Hegemony stand for? (i) Military dominance (ii) Economic power (iii) Political and cultural superiority (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) Ans. (c) (i), (ii) and (iii) 9. Pick the odd one out. (a) Operation Infinite Reach - Coalition of the willing (b) Operation Enduring Freedom - War against Al-Qaeda and Taliban (c) Operation Desert Storm - First Gulf War (d) Operation Iraqi Freedom - Coalition of the willing Ans. (a) Operation Infinite Reach - Coalition of the willing 10. In recent years, India’s relationship with the US has been

influenced by two factors: (a) Democracy and religion (b) Indian diaspora and technology (c) Space missions and climate change (d) Geopolitics and India’s permanent seat in UN Ans. (b) Indian diaspora and technology 11. The European Union is following the _______ strategy against the US hegemony. (a) Hide (b) Bandwagon (c) Aggressive (d) Friendly Ans. (a) Hide 12. Name a conflict zone where US was involved during post cold war period. (a) Afghanistan (b) Kashmir (c) Sri Lanka (d) Tibet Ans. (a) Afghanistan 13. Which among the following statement about hegemony is incorrect? (a) The word implies the leadership or predominance of one State. (b) It was used to denote the predominance of Athens in the ancient Greece. (c) The country having hegemonic position will possess

unchallenged military power. (d) Hegemonic position is fixed. Once a hegemon, always a hegemon. Ans. (c) The country having hegemonic position will possess unchallenged military power. 14. Which among the following statement is wrong about the contemporary world order? (a) There is an absence of world government, which could regulate the State’s behaviour. (b) The US is the predominant player in world affairs. (c) States are using force against one another. (d) States, which violate international law, are severely punished by the UN. Ans. (a) There is an absence of world government, which could regulate the State’s behaviour. 15. Which among the following statement is wrong with regard to ‘Operation Iraqi Freedom’? (a) More than forty countries joined in the US-led coalition of the willing to invade Iraq. (b) The reason given for invading Iraq was to prevent it from developing weapons of mass destruction. (c) The action was taken with the prior approval of the UN. (d) The US-led coalition did not face major resistance from Iraqi forces. Ans. (d) The US-led coalition did not face major resistance from Iraqi forces. 16. Match the following: (i)

Operation Infinite

A.

War against Al-Qaeda and

Reach

Taliban

(ii)

Operation Enduring Freedom

B.

Coalition of the willing

(iii)

Operation Desert Storm

C.

Missile attack in Sudan

(iv)

Operation Iraqi Freedom

D.

First Gulf War

(a) (i)-C, (ii)-A, (iii)-D, (iv)-B (b) (i)-A, (ii)-C, (iii)-B, (iv)-D (c) (i)-B, (ii)-A, (iii)-D, (iv)-C (d) (i)-D, (ii)-C, (iii)-B, (iv)-A Ans. (a) (i)-C, (ii)-A, (iii)-D, (iv)-B 17. In which year was First Gulf War fought? (a) 1985 (b) 1991 (c) 1995 (d) 1992 Ans. (b) 1991 18. In which year US attacked Iraq? (a) 2002 (b) 2003 (c) 2001 (d) 2004 Ans. (b) 2003 19. The following President US order the invasion of Iraq:

(a) J.F. Kennedy (b) Bill Clinton (c) George W. Bush (d) Jimmy Carter Ans. (c) George W. Bush 20. The Headquarters of US Defence department are located at: (a) Washington (b) New York (c) Chicago (d) Virginia Ans. (d) Virginia 21. In which year was World Trade Centre in US destroyed by the terrorists? (a) 2001 (b) 2002 (c) 2000 (d) 2004 Ans. (a) 2001 22. The Cold War lasted from: (a) 1939–1945 (b) 1945–1991 (c) 1991–1999 (d) None of these Ans. (b) 1945–1991

23. Iraq invaded Kuwait in the year: (a) 1991 (b) 1995 (c) 1990 (d) 1989 Ans. (c) 1990 24. Who among the following is considered to be responsible for the attack on World Trade Centre in the US? (a) Saddam Hussein (b) Al-Qaida and Osama Bin Laden (c) ISI of Pakistan (d) None of the above Ans. (b) Al-Qaida and Osama Bin Laden 25. When did Soviet Union withdraw from Afghanistan? (a) 1991 (b) 1989 (c) 1995 (d) 1990 Ans. (b) 1989 26. After the end of Cold War, the world is: (a) Unipolar (b) Bipolar (c) Multi-polar (d) None of these Ans. (a) Unipolar

27. The attack on Iraq in 2003 is known is: (a) Operation Enduring Freedom (b) Operation Iraqi Freedom (c) Operation Desert Storm (d) None of the above Ans. (b) Operation Iraqi Freedom 28. Which among the following is not a product of American Hegemony? (a) UNO (b) World Bank (c) WTO (d) International Monetary Fund Ans. (a) UNO

1. What does the EU stand for? (a) European Union (b) Europe United (c) Europe Union (d) None of the above Ans. (a) European Union 2. Which year was the EU established? (a) 1990 (b) 1989 (c) 1991 (d) 1992 Ans. (d) 1992 3. Which is NOT true about the EU? (a) It is a highly influential regional organization (b) It has a currency of its own (c) It can challenge the power of the US in trade, diplomacy and military areas (d) It was laid for common foreign and security policy Ans. (c) It can challenge the power of the US in trade, diplomacy and military areas 4. The EU has evolved from a/an ______ union to a/an ______ union. (a) economic, political

(b) political, economic (c) cultural, economic (d) economic, social Ans. (a) economic, political 5. Which one the EU doesn’t have? (a) Anthem (b) Constitution (c) Currency (d) Flag Ans. (b) Constitution 6. Which among the following countries is NOT a member of the EU? (a) Denmark (b) Germany (c) Sweden (d) The USA Ans. (d) The USA 7. Arrange the following in chronological order regarding the EU. (i) Establishment of Euratom (ii) First Direct election of European Parliament (iii) Establishment of a single market (iv) Euro gets introduced (a) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv) (b) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

(c) (iii), (i), (iv), (ii) (c) (iv), (i), (ii), (iii) Ans. (b) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) 8. Pick the odd one out. (a) Greece joins the EC – 1981 (b) The EU is awarded the Noble Peace Prize

– 2012 (c) Britain decides to move out of the EU – 2016 (d) The Lisbon Treaty came into force – 2010 Ans. (d) The Lisbon Treaty came into force – 2010 9. The term Brexit stands for ______. (a) Britain exit from the EU (b) Britain decides to stay with the EU after a vote (c) EU’s policy of following the US foreign policy (d) Break peace with all countries Ans. (a) Britain exit from the EU 10. Which treaty established the EU? (a) Treaty of Maastricht (b) Lisbon Treaty (c) Treaty of Paris (d) None of the above Ans. (a) Treaty of Maastricht 11. What does ASEAN stand for? (a) The Association of South East Asian Nations (b) The Associate of South East Asian Nations

(c) The Association of Southern East Asian Nations (d) None of the above Ans. (a) The Association of South East Asian Nations 12. ______ Declaration led to the formation of ASEAN in the year ______ . (a) Bangkok, 1967 (b) Bangkok, 1957 (c) Jakarta, 1967 (d) Jakarta, 1957 Ans. (a) Bangkok, 1967 13. Which is NOT true about ASEAN? (a) It was mainly established for economic growth of the region. (b) It also wanted to promote peace and stability in the region. (c) It wanted to establish itself as the Asian counterpart of the EU. (d) It does not want to have supranational structures and institutions. Ans. (c) It wanted to establish itself as the Asian counterpart of The EU. 14. What is ASEAN WAY of working? (a) To have informal, Non-confrontationist and cooperative interactions (b) Mutual respect for each other’s sovereignty (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above Ans. (c) Both (a) and (b) 15. The ______ carries out coordination of security and

foreign policy in the ASEAN region. (a) ASEAN (b) ASEAN Regional Forum (c) ASEAN Regional Foundation (d) Asian Regional Forum Ans. (b) ASEAN Regional Forum 16. The ASEAN-India FTA came into effect in ______ . (a) 2010 (b) 2000 (c) 1999 (d) 1995 Ans. (a) 2010 17. Following the communist revolution, China established its economy on the ______ model. (a) USA (b) Soviet (c) Socialist (d) Modernist Ans. (b) Soviet 18. Which country adopted the ‘open door’ policy? (a) India (b) China (c) Russia (d) Brazil Ans. (b) China

19. In China, the privatisation of ______ in 1982 was followed by privatisation of industry in ______ . (a) agriculture, 1998 (b) services, 1985 (c) agriculture, 1985 (d) services, 1998 Ans. (a) agriculture, 1998 20. Arrange the following in chronological order. (i) China’s accession to the WTO (ii) Chinese leadership decides to end the political and economic isolation (iii) Chinese Premier modernisations’

Zhou

Enlai

proposed

the

‘four

(iv) China introduces the ‘open door’ policy (a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (b) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i) (c) (i), (iv), (iii), (ii) (d) (iii), (ii), (i), (iv) Ans. (b) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i) 21. Which among the following countries has the most important destination for FDI (Foreign Direct Investment)? (a) China (b) India (c) Brazil (d) Japan Ans. (a) China

22. Which of the following challenges is/are being faced currently by China? (a) It has high unemployment rate (b) Working conditions are very poor (c) There is major environment degradation and internal corruption (d) All of the above Ans. (d) All of the above 23. Which of the following countries adopted the ‘Look East’ Policy? (a) India (b) USA (c) Russia (d) Pakistan Ans. (a) India 24. ______ visit to China in 1988 is seen as an important step in taking the relationship forward after the Indo-China war of 1962. (a) P.V. Narasimha Rao’s (b) Rajiv Gandhi’s (c) VP Singh’s (d) Manmohan Singh’s Ans. (b) Rajiv Gandhi’s 25. Which of the following statement is NOT correct? (a) Bilateral trade between India and China has increased from $338 million in 1992 to more than $84 billion in 2017. (b) Recently the relationship between the two countries has taken

a hit due to border issues (c) China is seen as providing help to build Pakistan’s nuclear programme (d) China is in constant war with India Ans. (d) China is in constant war with India 26. Which statement about Japan is NOT correct? (a) Japan is the only country that suffered a nuclear attack (b) Japan contributes almost 10 per cent of the UN’s budget (c) Japan has a security alliance with the US since 1951 (d) Japan is the largest economy among the Asian countries Ans. (d) Japan is the largest economy among the Asian countries 27. What is ‘Miracle on the Han River’? (a) It is the most popular South Korean movie (b) It is the term for rapid economic development of South Korea between 1960s-1980s. (c) It is the biggest cultural festival in South Korea (d) None of the above Ans. (b) It is the term for rapid economic development of South Korea between 1960s-1980s. 28. The HDI (Human Development Index) rank of South Korea in 2016 is: (a) 100 (b) 18 (c) 55 (d) 2

Ans. (b) 18 29. Which statement is NOT correct about South Korea? (a) Many of South Korean popular brands are sold in India. (b) South Korea’s military expenditure is tenth largest. (c) South Korea became a member of the OCED in 1996. (d) South Korea is a permanent member of the UN Security Council. Ans. (d) South Korea is a permanent member of the UN Security Council. 30. Japan became a member of the OECD in ______. (a) 1965 (b) 1999 (c) 1964 (d) 1980 Ans. (c) 1964 31. Which is the only Asian country of G-7? (a) Japan (b) China (c) Singapore (d) India Ans. (a) Japan 32. Pick the odd one out. (a) Act East Policy -India (b) Look East Policy – Pakistan (c) Open Door Policy – China

(d) Outward Looking Policy – ASEAN Ans. (b) Look East Policy – Pakistan 33. Arrange the following in chronological order. (i) Establishment of ASEAN (ii) Establishment of ARF (iii) China’s entry in WTO (iv) Establishment of EEC (a) (iv), (i), (ii), (iii) (b) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (c) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i) (d) (iii), (ii), (i), (iv) Ans. (a) (iv), (i), (ii), (iii) 34. The OCED stands for ______ . (a) Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development (b) Organisation of Environment Cooperation and Development (c) Organisation of Economic Cooperation and Development (d) Organisation for Economic Coordination and Development Ans. (a) Organisation Development

for

Economic

Cooperation

35. Arrange the following in chronological order. (a) China’s accession to WTO (b) Establishment of the EEC (c) Establishment of the EU (d) Birth of ARF Ans. (b) Establishment of the EEC (1957)

and

(c) Establishment of the EU (1992) (d) Birth of ARF (1994) (a) China’s accession to WTO (2001) 36. Who among the following adopted an ‘open door’ policy? (a) China (b) EU (c) Japan (d) USA Ans. (c) Japan 37. The European Union has: (a) Economic influence (b) Military influence (c) Political and Diplomatic influence (d) All of the above Ans. (d) All of the above 38. The European established in:

Economic

(a) 1945 (b) 1947 (c) 1955 (d) 1957 Ans. (d) 1957 39. The currency of EU is: (a) Rupee (b) Dollar

Community

(EEC)

was

(c) Yen (d) Euro Ans. (d) Euro 40. Which of the following countries is member of EU? (a) France (b) Belgium (c) Italy (d) All of these Ans. (d) All of these 41. Which among the following have emerged as alternative centres of power to US hegemony? (a) European Union (b) ASEAN (c) China (d) All of these Ans. (d) All of these 42. Which of the following members of EU are permanent members of the Security Council of UNO? (a) France and England (b) France and India (c) England and USA (d) Greece and Netherlands Ans. (a) France and England 43. Which of the following EU countries has nuclear weapons?

(a) England (b) Denmark (c) Greece (d) Netherlands Ans. (a) England 44. ASEAN was established by signing the: (a) Marshall Plan (b) FTA (Free Trade Area) (c) Bangkok Declaration (d) None of the above Ans. (c) Bangkok Declaration 45. Following country is founder member of ASEAN: (a) Indonesia (b) Malaysia (c) Thailand (d) Philippines Ans. (d) Philippines 46. Following country is not a founder member of ASEAN: (a) Thailand (b) Malaysia (c) India (d) Philippines Ans. (c) India 47. In China, the privatisation of agriculture took palce in the year:

(a) 1991 (b) 1984 (c) 1982 (d) 1990 Ans. (c) 1982

1. Which statement about South Asia is NOT correct? (a) China is a part of South Asia (b) Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, the Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka are the major countries of South Asia (c) Conflict and trust co-exist in this region (d) Afghanistan and Myanmar are included in discussions of the region as a whole. Ans. (a) China is a part of South Asia 2. Which statement is CORRECT about South Asia? (a) All countries in South Asia do not follow democracy (b) There are ethnic and resource sharing conflicts in the region (c) South Asia is diverse yet in a single geo-political space (d) All of the above Ans. (d) All of the above 3. SAFTA was signed in ______ in 2004. (a) Islamabad (b) New Delhi (c) Karachi (d) Colombo Ans. (a) Islamabad 4. ______ has had constant shift putting democracy and military rule. (a) Pakistan

(b) India (c) Bangladesh (d) Nepal Ans. (a) Pakistan 5. What is a major regional initiative taken by the countries of South Asia for regional cooperation? (a) Not to interfere into each other’s matter (b) To support each other in the UN (c) Formation of SAARC (d) To form democratic government in all states Ans. (c) Formation of SAARC 6. _______broke away from Pakistan to form a new nation called Bangladesh. (a) East Pakistan (b) West Pakistan (c) Baluchistan (d) West Afghanistan Ans. (a) East Pakistan 7. Which military ruler removed Zulfikar Ali Bhutto? (a) General Ayub Khan (b) General Yahya Khan (c) General Zia-ul-Haq (d) General Musharraf Ans. (c) General Zia-ul-Haq 8. Which factors have contributed towards the military rule in

Pakistan? (a) Social dominance of the military, religious clergy etc. (b) Conflict with India (c) Lack of international support for democratic rule (d) All of the above Ans. (d) All of the above 9. Democracy has not flourished in Pakistan, however there are strong ______ sentiments among the people of the country. (a) pro-democratic (b) anti-democratic (c) socialist (d) military Ans. (a) pro-democratic 10. The SAFTA promises ______ for the entire South Asia. (a) Free trade zone (b) Free movement (c) Single currency (d) Single parliament Ans. (a) Free trade zone 11. Indo-Pak war for the liberation of Bangladesh took place in ______ . (a) 1971 (b) 1962 (c) 1948

(d) 1956 Ans. (a) 1971 12. ______ led the struggle against the dominance of West Pakistan. (a) Sheikh Mujibur Rahman (b) Khaleda Zia (c) SajeebWazed (d) Sheikh Kamal Ans. (a) Sheikh Mujibur Rahman 13. Bangladesh was part of Pakistan from ______ to ______ . (a) 1950, 1988 (b) 1947, 1971 (c) 1946, 1971 (d) 1950, 1988 Ans. (b) 1947, 1971 14. Why did East Pakistan want independence from West Pakistan? (a) They were against the dominance of Urdu as the main language. (b) They wanted fair representation in administration and political power. (c) They wanted fair share in economic and cultural development and liberty (d) All of the above Ans. (d) All of the above 15. In the Post-liberation period Bangladesh drafted a

Constitution based on: (a) Secularism (b) Democracy (c) Socialism (d) All of these Ans. (d) All of these 16. What all changes did Sheikh Mujib bring in 1975? (i) Moved from parliamentary to presidential form of government (ii) Abolished all parties, except Awami League (iii) Established military rule (iv) Joined hands with West Pakistan (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iii) (c) (iv) (d) (ii), (iii), (iv) Ans. (a) (i) and (ii) 17. Sheikh Mujib was assassinated in ______ . (a) August 1975 (b) September 1975 (c) August 1977 (d) January 1975 Ans. (a) August 1975 18. Bangladesh National Party was formed by ______ . (a) Ziaur Rahman (b) Sheikh Mujib

(c) Zulfikar Ali Bhutto (d) General Zia-ul-Haq Ans. (a) Ziaur Rahman 19. Bangladesh since 1991 has which type of government? (a) Representative democracy based on multi-party elections (b) One party rule (c) Military dictatorship (d) Presidential rule Ans. (a) Representative democracy based on multi-party elections 20. In Nepal the largely non-violent mass movement for democracy was led by ______ . (a) Maoist parties (b) Socialist parties (c) Seven Party Alliance (d) Students Ans. (c) Seven Party Alliance 21. From a _______ kingdom, Nepal moved to ______ . (a) Hindu, Constitutional Monarchy (b) Islamic, Constitutional Monarchy (c) Rich, Poverty (d) Hindu, Absolute Monarchy Ans. (a) Hindu, Constitutional Monarchy 22. Which statement is NOT correct about Nepal? (a) In the 1990s, the maoist became very strong in Nepal (b) There was a triangle conflict between the maoists, democrats

and monarchists (c) In 2002, the king abolished the parliament (d) Nepal had an extremely violent mass uprising against monarchy Ans. (d) Nepal had an extremely violent mass uprising against monarchy 23. Pick the Odd one out in the context of Nepal. (a) 1990 - king accepted new democratic constitution (b) 2002 - king abolished parliament (c) 2006 - there was pro-democratic movement (d) 2008 - monarchy is restored Ans. (d) 2008 - monarchy is restored 24. In ______ Nepal became a democratic republic. (a) 2002 (b) 2008 (c) 1999 (d) 2000 Ans. (b) 2008 25. When did Nepal adopt a new Constitution? (a) 2015 (b) 2008 (c) 2000 (d) 2010 Ans. (a) 2015 26. Since independence in 1948, Sri Lanka has had a ______

rule. (a) Democratic (b) Military (c) Dictator (d) Monarchy Ans. (a) Democratic 27. In the Post independence era, Sri Lanka had a government that favoured ______ . (a) Sinhala community (b) Tamil community (c) Foreigners (d) Indian Ans. (a) Sinhala community 28. What led to militant Tamil nationalism in Sri Lanka? (a) Too much migration of Tamils into Sri Lanka (b) Years of neglection of Tamil aspirations for development and equality like Sinhala (c) Tamils wanted Sri Lanka to be part of India (d) All of the above Ans. (b) Years of neglection of Tamil aspirations for development and equality like Sinhala 29. What is the full out of IPKF? (a) Indian Peace Keeping Force (b) International Peace Keeping Force (c) Indian Protection Keeping Force

(d) Indian Peace Keeping Front Ans. (a) Indian Peace Keeping Force 30. In ______ the IPKF pulled out of Sri Lanka. (a) 1989 (b) 1999 (c) 1986 (d) 1990 Ans. (a) 1989 31. Which year was LTTE neutralized? (a) 2009 (b) 2010 (c) 2000 (d) 1995 Ans. (a) 2009 32. Which statement is TRUE about Sri Lanka? (a) It has high level of human development (b) It has controlled the population growth (c) It is the first country in South Asia to liberate the economy (d) All of the above Ans. (d) All of the above 33. Why did India send troops to Maldives in 1988? (a) To stop an ethnic conflict (b) To stop insurgency (c) To stop invasion of Tamil mercenaries from Sri Lanka

(d) To crush a student’s mass movement Ans. (c) To stop invasion of Tamil mercenaries from Sri Lanka 34. Which is not correctly matched? (a) Indus Water Treaty – 1960 (b) Tashkent Agreement – 1966 (c) Farakka Treaty – 1996 (d) Indo-Sri Lanka peace Accord – 1978 Ans. (d) Indo-Sri Lanka peace Accord – 1978 35. India signed the following agreement with which countries? Choose the ODD one out. (a) Tashkent Agreement – with Pakistan (b) Indus Water Treaty – with Afghanistan (c) Shimla Agreement – with Pakistan (d) Farakka Treaty – with Bangladesh Ans. (b) Indus Water Treaty – with Afghanistan 36. What was the result of the 1971 Indo-Pak war? (a) Emergence of Bangladesh as a new state (b) East Pakistan and West Pakistan comes one nation again (c) Refugees stop entering India (d) India lost the war to Pakistan Ans. (a) Emergence of Bangladesh as a new state 37. When did India and Pakistan conduct nuclear tests? (a) May 1998 (b) January 1998 (c) February 1996

(d) April 1995 Ans. (a) May 1998 38. Which Indian Prime Minister undertook a bus journey to Lahore to sign a peace treaty? (a) Atal Bihari Vajpayee (b) Narendra Modi (c) Rajiv Gandhi (d) V. P. Singh Ans. (a) Atal Bihari Vajpayee 39. Choose the odd one out. (a) Zulfikar Ali Bhutto - pro-dictatorship (b) Ayub Khan - pro-democracy (c) Pervez Musharraf - pro-military (d) Zia-ul-Haq - pro-military Ans. (b) Ayub Khan - pro-democracy 40. India and Pakistan are trying to increase cooperation and build peace in the following ways: (i) Collaboration among social activists and known personalities of the two countries (ii) Leaders of both countries meet regularly in summits to understand issues and find solutions (iii) Bus routes have started between the two countries (iv) Trade has increased (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iii) (c) (iv)

(d) (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv) Ans. (d) (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv) 41. Which are the main areas of conflict between India and Pakistan? (a) Conflict over Kashmir (b) Sharing of river water (c) The ISI leading various anti-Indian campaigns (d) All of the above Ans. (d) All of the above 42. The Pak Occupied Kashmir (POK) and the Indian province of J&K are divided by ______ . (a) Line of Control (b) McMahon Line (c) Johnson Line (d) None of the above Ans. (a) Line of Control 43. ______ is part of India’s ‘Look East’ policy. (a) Bangladesh (b) Myanmar (c) ASEAN (d) All of the above Ans. (d) All of the above 44. Bangladesh and India have started cooperating in which areas majorly? (a) Environmental issues,

(b) Disaster management (c) Economic cooperation (d) All of the above Ans. (d) All of the above 45. Indian do not need a visa to travel to which South Asian country? (a) Nepal (b) Pakistan (c) Sri Lanka (d) Bangladesh Ans. (a) Nepal 46. What does SAARC stand for? (a) South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (b) Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (c) Southern Asia Association for Regional Cooperation (d) South Asian Association of Regional Cooperation Ans. (a) South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation 47. Which of the following country is NOT a member of SAARC? (a) India (b) Bhutan (c) Singapore (d) Nepal Ans. (c) Singapore 48. SAARC was founded in ______ in ______ .

(a) New Delhi, 1985 (b) Dhaka, 1985 (c) Kathmandu, 1985 (d) New Delhi, 1980 Ans. (b) Dhaka, 1985 49. Which of the following is/are the objective(s) of the SAARC? (i) Welfare of the people of the region (ii) Economic growth of the region (iii) Develop into the next super power bloc (iv) Help resolve international conflicts (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i), (ii), and (iii) (c) (i) and (iv) only (d) All statements are correct Ans. (a) (i) and (ii) 50. The SAARC secretariat is located in: (a) New Delhi (India) (b) Kathmandu (Nepal) (c) Lahore (Pakistan) (d) Colombo (Sri Lanka) Ans. (b) Kathmandu (Nepal) 51. What does SAFTA stand for? (a) South Asian Free Trade Agreement (b) South Asian Trade Agreement

(c) Asian Free Trade Agreement (d) South Asian Free Trade Arrangement Ans. (a) South Asian Free Trade Agreement

1. _______ is the most important international organisation in today’s world. (a) United Nations (b) Work Bank (c) International Monetary Fund (d) League of Nations Ans. (a) United Nations 2. “The United Nations was not created to take humanity to heaven, but to save it from hell.” Which Secretary General of the UN said this? (a) Dag Hammarskjold (b) Kofi Annan (c) António Guterres (d) Ban Ki-moon Ans. (a) Dag Hammarskjold 3. UN stands for: (a) United Nations (b) Unified Nations (c) Union Nations (d) United Nationality Ans. (a) United Nations 4. _________ number of states signed the UN charter which led to the formation of the UN.

(a) 51 states (b) 21 states (c) 11 states (d) 81 states Ans. (a) 51 states 5. Why is the US so powerful within the UN? (a) US is the largest contributor to the UN. (b) US is one of the biggest continents. (c) All other countries are scared of US. (d) US is where the UN headquarter is located. Ans. (a) US is the largest contributor to the UN. 6. Only the ________ members of the UN have veto powers. (a) Permanent (b) Non-permanent (c) Rich (d) Capitalist Ans. (a) Permanent 7. Which day is celebrated as the UN day? (a) October 24 (b) June 26 (c) February 5 (d) August 15 Ans. (a) October 24 8. On ________ India joins the UN.

(a) February 5, 1945 (b) August 15, 1945 (c) October 30, 1945 (d) March 3, 1945 Ans. (c) October 30, 1945 9. There was a two-month long United Nations Conference. Where did this conference take place? (a) San Francisco (b) Chicago (c) New York (d) Washington Ans. (a) San Francisco 10. The UN was formed as a successor to _________, immediately after the __________. (a) League of Nations, Second World War (b) League of Nations, First World War (c) Western bloc, Cold War (d) League of Nations, Cold War Ans. (a) League of Nations, Second World War 11. Which statement is NOT True about the UN? (a) The UN was formed to stop conflicts from accelerating to war. (b) The UN was formed to help nations cooperate among each other. (c) The UN was formed to check the limit of hostility if war broke out. (d) The UN was formed as a third bloc (the Welfare Bloc) after the

Capitalist and the Socialist bloc. Ans. (d) The UN was formed as a third bloc (the Welfare Bloc) after the Capitalist and the Socialist bloc. 12. The Security members.

Council

have

_________

permanent

(a) 5 (b) 11 (c) 15 (d) 12 Ans. (a) 5 13. How many members does the General Assembly has? (a) 200 (b) 150 (c) 193 (d) 168 Ans. (c) 193 14. The permanent members of the Security Council are: (a) USA, Russia, UK, France and China (b) USA, Russia, UK, Italy and China (c) USA, Russia, UK, Italy and Japan (d) USA, Russia, China, Italy and Japan Ans. (a) USA, Russia, UK, France and China 15. Which are the principal organs of the United Nations? (a) The General Assembly, The Security Council, Economics and Social Council, Secretariat

(b) The General Secretary, Economics and Social Council, Secretariat (c) The General Secretary, The Security Council, International Labour Organization, Secretariat (d) The General Assembly, The Governing Council, Economics and Social Council, Secretariat Ans. (a) The General Assembly, The Security Council, Economics and Social Council, Secretariat 16. Pick the odd one out. (a) WHO-World Health Organisation (b) UNDP–United Nations Development Programme (c) UNICEF–United Nations Children's Fund. (d) UNFPA – United Nations Public Fund Ans. (d) UNFPA – United Nations Public Fund 17. _________ is the representative head of the UN. (a) Secretary-General (b) General Secretary (c) The President of US (d) Head of permanent members to the UN Ans. (a) Secretary-General 18. The United Nations Charter means: (a) An instrument of International Law (b) A Constitution of the UN (c) A socio-economic and political resolution to adopt the United Nations (d) An international meeting to adopt the UN

Ans. (a) An instrument of International Law 19. Choose the odd one out: (a) Kofi A. Annan: created the Global Fund to fight AIDS (b) Ban Ki-moon: focused on the Millennium Development Goals (c) Boutros Boutros-Ghali: worked for the independence of Namibia (d) U Thant: worked for resolving the Cuban Missile Crisis Ans. (c) Boutros Boutros-Ghali: worked for the independence of Namibia 20. The countries that formed the UN are called ______. (a) Original members (b) Founding members (c) Primary member (d) Inner circle Ans. (a) Original members 21. Which statement about Antonio Guterres is NOT true? (a) He is the ninth Secretary General of the UN. (b) He was the former Prime Minister of Portugal. (c) He became the Secretary General on 31 January 2020. (d) He was the former UN High Commissioner for Refugees. Ans. (c) He became the Secretary General on 31 January 2020. 22. After every _______ years the Secretary-General is changed. (a) 5 (b) 3

(c) 10 (d) 6 Ans. (a) 5 23. Which organ of the UN suspended operations since 1994? (a) Trusteeship Council (b) Economic and Social Council (c) Secretariat (d) General Assembly Ans. (a) Trusteeship Council 24. Security Council has ______ non permanent members. (a) 10 (b) 5 (c) 15 (d) 4 Ans. (a) 10 25. The International Court of Justice has its headquarter in: (a) Hague (b) New York (c) Paris (d) London Ans. (a) Hague 26. Which statement is NOT true? (a) Many new countries have joined the UN after the Cold War. (b) There has not been any major conflict between nations after the Cold War.

(c) China has emerged as a very strong power. (d) The Asian economies are fast growing. Ans. (b) There has not been any major conflict between nations after the Cold War. 27. Which statement is NOT correct? It has been suggested that a new member of the Security Council should be: (a) A nuclear power (b) A major economic power (c) A democratic power (d) A major contributor to the UN Ans. (a) A nuclear power 28. Non-permanent members to the Security Council are elected for a period of _________ years. (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 5 Ans. (b) 2 29. Which member has used the Veto power for the maximum time in the Security Council? (a) Russia (b) China (c) USA (d) France Ans. (a) Russia

30. Which step was NOT taken in the 60th anniversary meeting of the UN? (a) Establish the Human Rights Council (b) Agreement to achieve MDG (c) Create Peace building Commission (d) Dissolve the International Court of Justice. Ans. (d) Dissolve the International Court of Justice. 31. Which UN Secretary-General worked for resolving the Cuban Missile Crisis? (a) Kurt Waldheim (b) U Thant (c) Javier Perez de Cuellar (d) Trygve Lie Ans. (b) U Thant 32. WTO stands for: (a) World Tariff Organisation (b) World Trade Organisation (c) World Tourist Organisation (d) World Trade Organ Ans. (b) World Trade Organisation 33. _______ is the predecessor of WTO. (a) General Agreement on Trade and Tariffs (b) General Arrangement on Trade and Tariffs (c) UN Development Programme (d) World Health Organisation

Ans. (a) General Agreement on Trade and Tariffs 34. The World Bank was built in the year: (a) 1944 (b) 1956 (c) 1945 (d) 1960 Ans. (a) 1944 35. The World Bank gives loan to _________ countries. (a) All (b) Member (c) Powerful (d) Capitalist Ans. (a) Member 36. ________ looks after financial institutions and regulations that act at a global level. (a) International Monetary Fund (b) World Bank (c) Economic and Social Council (d) General Assembly Ans. (a) International Monetary Fund 37. Which one is NOT a specialized agency reporting to the Economic and Social Council? (a) World Health Organisation (b) Food and Agriculture Organisation (c) International Civil Aviation Organisation

(d) International Atomic Energy Agency Ans. (d) International Atomic Energy Agency 38. The International Monetary Fund has _____ members. (a) 189 (b) 200 (c) 68 (d) 186 Ans. (a) 189 39. Who were the ‘Big Three’ in the Yalta Conference? (a) Nehru, Sukarno, Tito (b) Roosevelt, Churchill and Stalin (c) Roosevelt, Churchill and Nehru (d) Bush, Putin, Gandhi Ans. (b) Roosevelt, Churchill and Stalin 40. The League of Nations could not prevent the _______. (a) First World War (b) Second World War (c) Cold War (d) Vietnam War Ans. (b) Second World War Carefully see the image and answer the questions:

41. The logo belongs to which organisation?

(a) United Nations (b) League of Nations (c) World Trade Organisation (d) International Monetary Fund Ans. (a) United Nations 42. The logo was adopted in the year _______. (a) 1945 (b) 1946 (c) 1919 (d) 1980 Ans. (b) 1946 43. This logo stands for: (a) International peace and cooperation (b) Global trade market (c) Globalisation (d) Unipolar World Ans. (a) International peace and cooperation 44. _____ was the first Secretary General of the UN. (a) Trygve Lie (b) Dag Hammarskjöld (c) U Thant (d) Kurt Waldheim Ans. (a) Trygve Lie 45. In the General Assembly any major decision requires ________ majority.

(a) Simple (b) One-third (c) Two-thirds (d) Full Ans. (c) Two-thirds 46. The Security Council membership was increased from 11 to ________ in ________. (a) 15, 1965 (b) 10, 1965 (c) 12, 1965 (d) 15, 1966 Ans. (a) 15, 1965 47. Pick the INCORRECT statement. (a) India wants to be a permanent member of the Security Council. (b) India is not in favour of reforming the Security Council. (c) India wants the Security Council to have more members from developing countries. (d) India has participated in almost all initiatives of the Security Council. Ans. (b) India is not in favour of reforming the Security Council. 48. IAEA stands for: (a) International Atomic Energy Agency (b) International Atomic Entry Agency (c) International Atom Energy Agency (d) International Atomic Energy Association

Ans. (a) International Atomic Energy Agency 49. IAEA was established to implement the ____ proposal. (a) Atoms for Peace (b) Atoms for Purpose (c) Atoms for Deterrence (d) Adopt for Peace Ans. (a) Atoms for Peace 50. See the image and answer the question:

The United Nations Headquarters is located in? (a) New York City (b) Geneva (c) Washington DC (d) Hague Ans. (a) New York City 51. Which one is NOT a function of the Security Council? (a) To maintain international peace (b) To recommend entry of new members (c) To resolve internal issues of member countries (d) To recommend Secretary-General to the General Assembly Ans. (c) To resolve internal issues of member countries 52. Which statement is NOT correct?

(a) Without UN, the world would be a worse place. (b) All members within the UN are equally placed. (c) The UN needs a complete restructuring. (d) It won’t be easy for India to get a permanent seat in the UN Security Council. Ans. (b) All members within the UN are equally placed. 53. UNICEF stands for: (a) United Nations Children's Fund (b) United Nations Child Fund (c) United Nations Children’s Foundation (d) United Nations Children’s Education Fund Ans. (a) United Nations Children's Fund 54. What is the full form of WHO? (a) World Health Organisation (b) World HIV-Cure Organisation (c) World Health Organiser (d) Wide Health Organisation Ans. (a) World Health Organisation 55. What does UNESCO stand for? (a) United Nations Organisation

Educational,

Scientific,

and

Cultural

(b) United Nations Educational and Cultural Organisation (c) United Nations Educational and Scientific Organisation (d) United Nations Scientific and Cultural Organisation Ans. (a) United Nations Educational, Scientific, and Cultural

Organisation 56. What does ILO stand for? (a) International Labour Organisation (b) Indian Labour Organisation (c) International Life Organisation (d) Indian Life Organisation Ans. (a) International Labour Organisation 57. Which is the oldest specialized agency of the UN? (a) ILO (b) WHO (c) UNESCO (d) UNICEF Ans. (a) ILO 58. The day WHO was founded is celebrated as _______. (a) World Health day (b) World Happiness day (c) Public health day (d) Public Happiness day Ans. (a) World Health day 59. In how many countries is UNICEF present? (a) More than 190 countries (b) More than 50 countries (c) More than 500 countries (d) More than 25 countries Ans. (a) More than 190 countries

60. UNESCO headquarter is in: (a) Paris (b) New York (c) Switzerland (d) London Ans. (a) Paris 61. Many feel ______ and ______ must be present in expansion of permanent membership of Security Council. (a) Africa and South American (b) Africa and South Asia (c) Middle east and South America (d) All the above Ans. (a) Africa and South American 62. Arrange the following in the chronological order of their establishment: (i) The World Trade Organisation (ii) Amnesty International (iii) League of Nations (iv) World Bank (a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (b) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i) (c) (iii), (iv), (ii), (i) (d) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i) Ans. (c) (iii), (iv), (ii), (i) 63. Arrange the following in the chronological order of their

establishment: (i) ILO (ii) WHO (iii) UNESCO (iv) UNICEF (a) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv) (b) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii) (c) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (d) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii) Ans. (d) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)

1. Traditional security policy has a __________component called balance of power. (a) First (b) Second (c) Third (d) Fourth Ans. (c) Third 2. Traditional views of security do not rule out other forms of cooperation as well. The most important of these are: (i) Disarmament (ii) Arms control (ii) Confidence building Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) (i) only (b) (i) and (ii) (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i), (ii) and (iii) Ans. (d) (i), (ii) and (iii) 3. _________security is about the protection of people more than the protection of states. (a) Government (b) Traditional (c) Non-traditional

(d) Human Ans. (d) Human 4. What is the second component of India’s security strategy to protect its security interests? (a) To strengthen international norms and international institutions (b) To strengthen national norms and international institutions (c) To strengthen international norms and national institutions (d) To strengthen national norms and national institutions Ans. (a) To strengthen international norms and international institutions 5. Since the late 1990s, _______ has lost billions of dollars of income during an outbreak of the mad-cow disease, and bird flu shut down supplies of poultry exports from several Asian countries. (a) Japan (b) USA (c) Britain (d) India Ans. (c) Britain 6. The first component was strengthening India’s military capabilities because India has been involved in conflicts with its neighbours-Pakistan in ______________ and China in 1962. (a) 1947–49, 1965, 1971 and 1999; (b) 1947–48, 1966, 1971 and 1999; (c) 1947–48, 1965, 1971 and 1999; (d) 1947–48, 1965, 1972 and 1999;

Ans. (c) 1947–48, 1965, 1971 and 1999; 7. Which of the following is a component of traditional security? (a) Alliance building (b) Deterrence (c) Balance of power (d) All of the above Ans. (d) All of the above 8. Which of the following is a source of insecurity? (a) Defence (b) Balance of Power (c) Global Poverty (d) Alliance Building Ans. (c) Global Poverty 9. Which of these statements about confidence building is incorrect? (a) Confidence building is a process in which countries share ideas and information with their rivals. (b) They tell each other about their military intentions and, up to a point, their military plans. (c) This is a way of demonstrating that they are planning a surprise attack. (d) They also tell each other about the kind of forces they possess, and they may share information on where those forces are deployed. Ans. (c) This is a way of demonstrating that they are planning a surprise attack.

10. Arrange the following in the chronological order of their establishment: (i) World Trade Organisation (ii) Amnesty International (iii) League of Nations (iv) World Bank (a) (iii), (iv), (ii), (i) (b) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i) (c) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i) (d) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) Ans. (a) (iii), (iv), (ii), (i) 11. Which among the following is concerned with traditional view of security? (a) Most threats to a country’s security come from outside its borders. (b) It is about the protection of people more than the protection of states. (c) Its primary goal is the protection of individuals. (d) It focuses on the changing nature of threats to security. Ans. (a) Most threats to a country’s security come from outside its borders. 12. New and poorly understood diseases such as _______ virus, hantavirus, and hepatitis C, have emerged, while old diseases like tuberculosis, malaria, dengue fever and _______ have mutated into drug resistant forms that are difficult to treat. (a) ebola, smallpox

(b) covid, cholera (c) ebola, cholera (d) ebola, cancer Ans. (c) ebola, cholera 13. Which among the following refers to political violence that targets civilians deliberately and indiscriminately? (a) Terrorism (b) Global security (c) Human security (d) None of these Ans. (a) Terrorism 14. Which among the following is involved in the Cooperative security as a last resort? (a) Migration (b) Poverty (c) Human Rights (d) Use of force Ans. (d) Use of force 15. Which among the following is the correct form of START? (a) Strategic Arms Reduction Toll (b) Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty (c) Strategic Arms Reduction Tactics (d) Strategic Arms Reduction Tax Ans. (b) Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty 16. A coalition of nations meant to deter or defend against

military attacks is _______ (a) Alliance (b) Arms Control (c) Disarmament (d) Coalition Ans. (a) Alliance 17. Disarmament requires all states to give up certain kinds of ______ (a) Weapons. (b) Arms control. (c) Violence. (d) Internal wars. Ans. (a) Weapons. 18. India first tested a nuclear device in _____. (a) 1974 (b) 1975 (c) 1976 (d) 1977 Ans. (a) 1974 19. Which among the following is not correct about Human Rights? (a) Human rights have come to be classified into four types. (b) The first type is political rights such as freedom of speech and assembly. (c) The second type is economic and social rights.

(d) The third type is the rights of colonised people or ethnic and indigenous minorities. Ans. (a) Human rights have come to be classified into four types. 20. Choose the odd one out of the following statements. (a) Terrorism refers to political violence that targets civilians deliberately and indiscriminately. (b) International terrorism involves the citizens or territory of more than one country. (c) Terrorist groups seek to change a political context or condition that they do not like by force or threat of force. (d) Civilian targets are not chosen to terrorise the public and to use the happiness of the public as a weapon against national governments or other parties in conflict. Ans. (d) Civilian targets are not chosen to terrorise the public and to use the happiness of the public as a weapon against national governments or other parties in conflict. 21. What is India’s security strategy? (i) India took initiatives to bring about a universal and nondiscriminatory non-proliferation regime. (ii) In this, all countries would have the same rights and obligations with respect to weapons of mass destruction (nuclear, biological and chemical). (iii) It argued for an equitable New International Economic Order (NIEO). Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (iii) only. (c) (i) and (iii)

(d) (i) only Ans. (a) (i), (ii) and (iii) 22. The __________Treaty of _______was an arms control treaty in the sense that it regulated the acquisition of nuclear weapons. (a) Nuclear Non-Proliferation, 1967 (b) Nuclear Non-Proliferation, 1968 (c) Nuclear Non-Proliferation, 1969 (d) Nuclear Non-Proliferation, 1965 Ans. (b) Nuclear Non-Proliferation, 1968 23. Human rights have come to be classified into how many types? (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 Ans. (b) 3 24. Who are ‘internally displaced people’? (a) People who voluntarily leave their home countries. (b) People who flee from war, natural disaster or political persecution. (c) People who move to other countries to seek a better life, especially better economic opportunities. (d) People who have fled their homes but remain within national borders. Ans. (d) People who have fled their homes but remain within national borders.

25. Proponents of the ‘narrow’ concept of human security focus on few factors. Which of the following argument is not correct? (a) It was put forward by UN Secretary-General Kofi Annan (b) It includes the protection of communities and individuals from internal violence (c) It focuses on violent threats to individuals. (d) All agree that its primary goal is the protection of individuals. Ans. (d) All agree that its primary goal is the protection of individuals. 26. Proponents of the ‘broad’ concept of human security argue that the threat agenda should include hunger, disease and natural disasters. Why? (a) Because all these kill far more people than war, genocide and terrorism combined. (b) Because it includes political violence that targets civilians deliberately and indiscriminately. (c) Because it involves the citizens or territory of more than one country. (d) Because it stresses from ‘freedom from want’ and ‘freedom from fear’. Ans. (a) Because all these kill far more people than war, genocide and terrorism combined. 27. Consider the following statements about traditional security. Find out the incorrect statement. (a) There is a recognition that cooperation in limiting violence is possible.

(b) These limits relate both to the ends and the means of war. (c) The countries should only go to war for self-defence or to protect other people from genocide. (d) It should go beyond military threats to include a wide range of threats and dangers affecting the conditions of human existence. Ans. (d) It should go beyond military threats to include a wide range of threats and dangers affecting the conditions of human existence. 28. Which of the following statements is/are correct? (i) World population now at 760 crore and expected to nearly 1000 crore by the middle of the 21st century. (ii) Currently, half the world’s population growth occurs in just six countries—India, China, Pakistan, Nigeria, Bangladesh and Indonesia. (a) Only (i) (b) Only (ii) (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (i) nor (ii) Ans. (c) Both (a) and (b) 29. Health epidemics such as HIV-AIDS, bird flu, and severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) have rapidly spread across countries through. (i) Migration (ii) Business (iii) Tourism (iv) Military operation (a) (i) and (ii) only

(b) (i), (ii) and (iii) only (c) (i) and (iii) only (d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) Ans. (d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) 30. Security policy is concerned with preventing war, which is called _______ and with limiting or ending war, which is called _________. (a) deterrence, defence (b) balance of power, deterrence (c) defence, balance of power (d) none of the above Ans. (a) deterrence, defence 31. __________Treaty in 1972 tried to stop the United States and Soviet Union from using ballistic missiles as a defensive shield to launch a nuclear attack. (a) Anti-ballistic Missile (ABM) (b) Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC) (c) Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty (START) (d) Biological Weapons Convention (BWC) Ans. (a) Anti-ballistic Missile (ABM) 32. Which of the following is not a component of traditional security strategy? (a) Defence (b) Balance of power (c) Deterrence (d) Having absolute power

Ans. (d) Having absolute power 33. In the modern world each country has to be responsible for: (a) Security of the neighbouring countries (b) Regional security (c) Its own security (d) World security Ans. (c) Its own security 34. Which of the following country does not possess nuclear weapons? (a) India (b) China (c) Russia (d) Nepal Ans. (d) Nepal 35. India supports: (a) War (b) Nuclear weapons (c) Disarmament (d) Terrorism Ans. (c) Disarmament 36. Global security is threatened by: (a) Armament race (b) Poverty (c) Terrorism

(d) All of these Ans. (d) All of these 37. In which year C.T.B.T. opened for signature? (a) 1996 (b) 1998 (c) 2001 (d) 2002 Ans. (a) 1996 38. The Presidents of the United States and USSR signed the Strategic Offensive Reduction Treaty in the year: (a) 2000 (b) 2001 (c) 2002 (d) 2005 Ans. (c) 2002 39. The Anti-Ballastic Missile Treaty was signed in: (a) 1971 (b) 1975 (c) 1977 (d) 1972 Ans. (d) 1972 40. War and Terrorism: (a) are opposed to each other (b) are related with each other (c) are not related to each other

(d) none of the above Ans. (b) are related with each other 41. Governments have to work hard for the maintenance of ‘Balance of Powers’ with the following countries: (a) Neighbouring countries (b) With the countries they had conflict in the past (c) With whom they have difference (d) All of the above Ans. (a) Neighbouring countries

1. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding environmental concerns in global politics ? I. Throughout the world, cultivable area is barely expanding any more, and a substantial portion of existing agricultural land is losing fertility. II. Grasslands have been overgrazed and fisheries overharvested. III. Water bodies have suffered extensive depletion and pollution, severely restricting food production. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) I and III (b) I and II (c) II and III (d) I, II and III Ans. (d) I, II and III 2. Which among the following best explains the reason for growing concerns about the environment? (a) The developed countries are concerned about protecting nature. (b) Protection of the environment is vital for indigenous people and natural habitats. (c) The environmental degradation caused by human activities has become pervasive and has reached a dangerous level. (d) All of the above Ans. (c) The environmental degradation caused by human activities has become pervasive and has reached a dangerous

level. 3. The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change was held in the year _________. (a) 2004 (b) 1997 (c) 2001 (d) 1992 Ans. (d) 1992 4. ______ signed and ratified the 1997 Kyoto Protocol in _________. (a) India, August 2002 (b) Japan, July 2006 (c) Nepal, August 2000 (d) Sri Lanka, August 2005 Ans. (a) India, August 2002 5. What is the name given to the progress that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs? (a) The tragedy of global commons (b) Sustainable development (c) Development without destruction (d) The politics of the developed nations Ans. (d) Sustainable development 6. Which of the following are the resources which are not owned by any individual, rather they are owned by the community.

(a) Communis humanitatis (b) Krills (c) Commons (d) All of the above Ans. (c) Commons 7. Which of these statements about global commons is correct? (a) The earth’s atmosphere, Antarctica, ocean floor and outer space are considered as part of the global commons. (b) The global commons are outside the sovereign jurisdiction. (c) The question of managing the global commons reflected the North-South divide. (d) The countries of the North are more concerned about the protection of the global commons than the countries of the South. Ans. (a) The earth’s atmosphere, Antarctica, ocean floor and outer space are considered as part of the global commons. 8. Arrange the following in the chronological order of their establishment: (i) The Club of Rome published a book entitled Limits to Growth. (ii) Brundtland Report, Our Common Future (iii) Earth Summit Rio de Janeiro, Brazil. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) (iii), (ii), (i) (b) (ii), (iii), (i) (c) (i), (iii), (ii) (d) (i), (ii), (iii)

Ans. (d) (i), (ii), (iii) 9. When Montreal Protocol came into force? (a) 1980 (b) 1972 (c) 1987 (d) 1992 Ans. (d) 1987 10. It was clear at Rio Summit that the rich and developed countries of the First World, generally referred to as the ‘___________’ were pursuing a different environmental agenda than the poor and developing countries of the Third World, called the ‘______________’ (a) global North, global South (b) global East, global South (c) global North, global West (d) global East, global West Ans. (a) global North, global South 11. Which among the following is the name given to some areas or regions of the world which are located outside the sovereign jurisdiction of any one state, and therefore require common governance by the international community? (a) Communis humanitatis (b) Antarctic Treaty (c) Montreal Protocol (d) Antarctic Environmental Protocol Ans. (a) Communis humanitatis 12. To improve energy efficiency, the Energy Conservation

Act was passed by Government of India in which year? (a) 2000 (b) 2001 (c) 2002 (d) 2005 Ans. (b) 2001 13. Which among the following is the correct form of WWF? (a) World Wild Foundation (b) Worldwide Wildlife Fund (c) World Wildlife Federation (d) Worldwide Wildlife Formula Ans. (b) Worldwide Wildlife Fund 14. The early 1980s saw the first anti-dam movement launched in the North, namely, the campaign to save the Franklin River and its surrounding forests in________. (a) Australia (b) Asia (c) Europe (d) USA Ans. (a) Australia 15. A review of the implementation of the agreements at the Earth Summit in Rio was undertaken by India in __________. (a) 1997 (b) 1987 (c) 1990

(d) 1980 Ans. (a) 1997 16. Which among the following is not correct about the Kyoto Protocol? (a) It is a national agreement. (b) It set targets for industrialised countries to cut their greenhouse gas emissions. (c) Certain gases like Carbon dioxide, Methane, Hydro-fluoro carbons etc. are considered at least partly responsible for global warming. (d) The protocol was agreed to in 1997 in Kyoto in Japan, based on principles set out in UNFCCC. Ans. (a) It is a national agreement. 17. What is the main aim of the Kyoto Protocol? (a) To prevent ozone depletion (b) To increase carbon dioxide emission (c) To reduce greenhouse gases (d) To eradicate the use of CFCs and halons Ans. (c) To reduce greenhouse gases 18. Choose the odd one out of the following statements. (a) The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) was framed in 1994. (b) It provides that the parties should act to protect the climate system. (c) It should be “on the basis of equity and in accordance with their common but differentiated responsibilities and respective capabilities.”

(d) The parties to the Convention agreed that the largest share of historical and current global emissions of greenhouse gases has originated in developed countries. Ans. (a) The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) was framed in 1994. 19. Which among the following is/are the programme/s that Indian government is participating in global efforts? (i) India’s National Auto-fuel Policy mandates cleaner fuels for vehicles. (ii) The Energy Conservation Act, passed in 2001, outlines initiatives to improve energy efficiency. (iii) The Electricity Act of 2003 encourages the use of renewable energy. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (iii) only. (c) (i) and (iii) only. (d) (i) only. Ans. (a) (i), (ii) and (iii) 20. Which among the following is the correct expansion of UNFCCC? (a) United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (b) United Nations Framework Counter on Climate Change (c) United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Call (d) United Nations Fast Convention on Climate Change Ans. (a) United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change

21. At Which among the following meetings did India point out that the per capita emission rates of the developing countries are a tiny fraction of those in the developed world? (a) G-8 meeting in June 2005. (b) G-8 meeting in June 2006. (c) G-8 meeting in June 2007. (d) G-8 meeting in June 2008. Ans. (a) G-8 meeting in June 2005. 22. Which of the following arguments is not correct about the forest movements of the South? (a) Mexico, Chile, Brazil, Malaysia, Indonesia, continental Africa and India are included in these movements. (b) These countries are faced with enormous pressures. (c) Forest clearing in the Third World continues at an alarming rate. (d) The destruction of the world’s last remaining grand forests has actually decreased in the last decade. Ans. (d) The destruction of the world’s last remaining grand forests has actually decreased in the last decade. 23. Consider the following statements about resource geopolitics. Find the Wrong statement. (a) Resource geopolitics is all about who gets what, when, where and how. (b) Resources have provided some of the key means and motives of global European power expansion. (c) They have also been the focus of inter- national rivalry. (d) Western geopolitical thinking about resources has been

dominated by the relationship of trade, war and power, at the core of which were overseas resources and maritime navigation. Ans. (c) They have also been the focus of inter- national rivalry. 24. Which among the following is the definition of indigenous people given by the UN? (a) These are the people who brings the issues of environment, resources and politics together. (b) These are the descendants of peoples who inhabited the present territory of a country at the time when persons of a different culture or ethnic origin arrived there from other parts of the world and overcame them. (c) These are the people who live more in conformity with their particular social, economic, and cultural customs and traditions than the institutions of the country of which they now form a part. (d) All of the above Ans. (b) These are the descendants of peoples who inhabited the present territory of a country at the time when persons of a different culture or ethnic origin arrived there from other parts of the world and overcame them. 25. The Earth Summit was held at _______ and was attended by _________ states. (a) London, 59 (b) New York, 170 (c) New Delhi, 59 (d) Rio de Janeiro, 170 Ans. (d) Rio de Janeiro, 170 26. The global economy relied on _________ for much of the 20th century as a portable and indispensable fuel. (a) Oil

(b) Natural resources (c) Water (d) Sun Ans. (a) Oil 27. Which of the following gas (gases) is considered to cause global warming? (a) Methane (b) Carbon dioxide (c) Hydro-fluorocarbons (d) All of the above Ans. (d) All of the above 28. Following countries are generally included in ‘Global North’. (a) Developed countries (b) Under developed countries (c) Poor countries (d) None of the above Ans. (a) Developed countries 29. Environmental protection got much encouragement from: (a) Due to continuously increasing global warming (b) Due to substantial portion of existing agricultural land losing fertility (c) Cutting of forests and displacement of the people (d) All of the above Ans. (d) All of the above

30. Each year World Environment Day is celebrated on: (a) 5th April (b) 5th May (c) 5th June (d) 5th July Ans. (c) 5th June 31. Stockholm Summit on Environment was held in the year: (a) 1972 (b) 1982 (c) 1992 (d) 1975 Ans. (a) 1972 32. Following are(is) the cause of environmental pollution: (a) Due to increase in pollution (b) Deforestation (c) Industrialisation (d) All of the above Ans. (d) All of the above 33. Environmental pollution can be checked by: (a) By controlling population growth (b) Protecting forests (c) Supply of safe drinking water (d) All of the above Ans. (d) All of the above

34. The Union Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) was held in the following year: (a) 1989 (b) 1991 (c) 1995 (d) 1992 Ans. (d) 1992 35. Following countries are included in ‘global South’: (a) Developed countries (b) Countries which have nuclear arms (c) Developing countries (d) All of the above Ans. (c) Developing countries 36. Which of the following countries is exempted from the requirements of Kyoto Protocol? (a) Germany (b) USA (c) Japan (d) India Ans. (d) India 37. India signed the Kyoto Protocol in: (a) August, 2002 (b) December, 2002 (c) September, 2003 (d) December, 2004

Ans. (a) August, 2002 38. The following is an example of global commons: (a) The ocean floor (b) Earth’s atmosphere (c) Antarctica (d) All of the above Ans. (d) All of the above 39. The world council of indigenous people was formed in the year: (a) 1970 (b) 1975 (c) 1978 (d) 1982 Ans. (b) 1975 40. Which of the following comprises indigenous population of India? (a) Backward classes (b) Scheduled castes (c) Scheduled tribes (d) Christians Ans. (c) Scheduled tribes 41. Which among the following are True about the global commons? (i) The earth’s atmosphere, Antarctica, ocean floor and outer space are considered as part of the global commons. (ii) The global commons are outside sovereign jurisdiction.

(iii) The question of managing the global commons has reflected the North-South divide. (iv) The countries of the North are more concerned about the protection of the global commons than the countries of the South. (a) (i), (ii), (iii) (b) (ii) and (iv) (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) All of these Ans. (a) (i), (ii), (iii)

1. The main aspect of Globalisation is ______ . (a) Worldwide inter connectivity (b) International trade (c) Mutual cooperation (d) All of the above Ans. (d) All of the above 2. What is Globalisation? (a) It is flow of ideas from one part of the world to another (b) Movement of people from one part to another in search of better jobs and life (c) It is flow of commodities from one part of the world to another (d) All of the above Ans. (d) All of the above 3. Choose the correct option that has contributed to the process of ‘Globalisation’.

significantly

(a) Fear of war (b) Security threats (c) Advancement of technology (d) Achievements of the United Nations Ans. (c) Advancement of technology 4. Which statement about Globalisation is NOT true? (a) It is multidimensional in nature (b) It has both negative and positive connotations

(c) Globalisation is about flow of goods and services (d) Globalisation is caused by just one factor - technology Ans. (d) Globalisation is caused by just one factor - technology 5. Globalisation is unique in its nature because of its ______ and ______ flows. (a) scale , speed (b) cultural, economic (c) national, international (d) length, breadth Ans. (b) cultural, economic 6. Which is not a political impact of globalisation? (a) Welfare state is giving way to minimalist state (b) Inter state rivalry has ended (c) Technological advancement has helped state gain more information (d) It is difficult for a State to function in isolation Ans. (b) Inter state rivalry has ended 7. Globalisation is about flows. What are those flows? (i) Ideas (ii) Capital (iii) Commodities (iv) People (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (c) (ii) and (iv)

(d) (iv) Ans. (b) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) 8. What is the full out of the term MNC? (a) Multinational companies (b) Multination companies (c) Multiple national companies (d) Multinational corporations Ans. (a) Multinational companies 9. In a globalised world ______ have reduced the sovereignty of nations. (a) MNCs (b) Technology (c) Ideologies (d) UN the global Ans. (a) MNCs 10. Even in the global world, the states continue to discharge its essential functions which are: (i) To maintain law and order (ii) To maintain national security (iii) To increase the military capacity (iv) To be economically powerful (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iii) (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i), (ii), and (iii)

Ans. (d) (i), (ii), and (iii) 11. There is flow of ideas across the ______ in the era of globalisation. (a) national boundaries (b) political parties (c) judiciary and executive (d) states Ans. (a) national boundaries 12. Flow of goods, capital and technology across the countries leading to a global market is ______ globalisation. (a) political (b) economic (c) cultural (d) social Ans. (b) economic 13. Economic globalisation is about ______ . (a) Distribution of economic gains equally (b) Free flow of goods and services (c) Free flow of capital (d) Both (b) and (c) Ans. (d) Both (b) and (c) 14. Which statement about Economic Globalisation is NOT correct? (i) People do not need Visa to travel to other countries (ii) The consequence of economic globalisation is same across all countries

(iii) It has brought the entire world all together, without any divisions (iv) Developed countries have opened up their borders for people from other countries (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i), (ii) and (iv) (c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (iii) and (ii) Ans. (b) (i), (ii) and (iv) 15. Which of the following statement is/are correct in favour of globalisation? (i) Due to de-regulation, economic growth and well being for larger section of the population would happen. (ii) Globalisation facilitate greater trade among the different countries. (a) Only (i) (b) Only (ii) (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these Ans. (c) Both (a) and (b) 16. What could Globalisation?

be

the

negative

impact

(a) Cultural homogenisation (b) Creation of Cultural barriers (c) Culture taking a back seat (d) No negative impact of cultural globalisation

of

cultural

Ans. (a) Cultural homogenisation 17. Creation of homogenisation.

__________

culture

is

cultural

(a) uniform (b) multi (c) ethnic (d) superior Ans. (a) uniform 18. Globalisation affects what we eat, drink, think and watch. This is called ______ globalisation. (a) economic (b) political (c) cultural (d) ideological Ans. (c) cultural 19. If each culture becoming more different and distinctive then it is called: (a) Cultural homogenisation (b) Cultural heterogenisation (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above Ans. (b) Cultural heterogenisation 20. What can be the positive impact of cultural globalisation? (a) Modify a culture without destroying tradition (b) Enlarge one’s choice

(c) Add choices for the dominant culture (d) All of the above Ans. (d) All of the above 21. Which statement is NOT true about globalisation? (a) It has only positive impacts (b) It has only negative impacts (c) It impacts only poor countries (d) All of the above Ans. (d) All of the above 22. Pick the ODD one out. (a) Establishment of the United Nations - Political globalisation (b) Wearing blue jeans with kurta - Cultural globalisation (c) Volkswagen selling cars in India - Economic Globalisation (d) Border problems between India and Pakistan - Political globalisation Ans. (d) Border problems between India and Pakistan - Political globalisation 23. Which is NOT a negative impact of globalisation? (a) Workers in India not getting leaves as per the country’s festive calendar (b) Most of the people around us only speaks in English and not in native language (c) Most international car companies sell their cars in India (d) We are able to watch all international movies and channels Ans. (d) We are able to watch all international movies and channels

24. Which is NOT a positive impact of

globalisation? (a) Watching American and Korean serials (b) Having to work as per UK or the US timings (c) Can easily visit Russia as a tourist (d) Get to eat Japanese food in India Ans. (b) Having to work as per UK or the US timings 25. In Post Independence era, India followed a ______ economic policy. (a) Globalisation (b) Protectionist (c) Liberalism (d) Look West Ans. (b) Protectionist 26. Which statement is NOT true about India’s Globalisation policy? (a) The country did a gradual de-regulation of the market. (b) The country deregulated trade also. (c) The country wanted to have partnership with the USA and the West only (d) Financial crisis was a reason for de-regulation and Globalisation Ans. (c) The country wanted to have partnership with the USA and the West only 27. What are the arguments of the ‘left’ critiques of Globalisation? (i) Globalisation makes the richer rich and the poor poorer

(ii) The State becomes weak and cannot support the poor (iii) There is lack of self-reliance (iv) People will lose their own traditions (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i), (ii), and (iii) (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) Only (iv) Ans. (a) (i) and (ii) 28. To respond financial crisis, India de-regulate various sector and policies in which year? (a) 1995 (b) 1991 (c) 1998 (d) 1999 Ans. (b) 1991 29. Which of the following statement is/are true about antiglobalisation movements? (i) Anti-globalisation movement do not participate in global networks. (ii) Anti-globalisation movement are not opposed to the idea of globalisation but they opposed to a specific programme of globalisation. (a) Only (i) (b) Only (ii) (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b)

Ans. (b) Only (ii) 30. What is the full form of the WTO? (a) World Trade Organization (b) World Tariff Organization (c) World Trading Organization (d) Whole Trade Organization Ans. (a) World Trade Organization 31. What is the full form of the WSF? (a) World Society Forum (b) World Social Forum (c) World Social Foundation (d) Whole Social Forum Ans. (b) World Social Forum 32. The protest at the WTO Ministerial meeting was about? (a) Unfair trading policies of the powerful countries (b) Economic Globalisation (c) Cultural hegemony of the US (d) All of the above Ans. (a) Unfair trading policies of the powerful countries 33. Which year did the protest at the WTO Ministerial meeting against unfair trading take place? (a) 1999 (b) 2010 (c) 1989 (d) 2000

Ans. (a) 1999 34. Where was the first WSF meeting held? (a) Porto Alegre, Brazil (b) Mumbai, India (c) Colombo, Sri Lanka (d) Havana, Cuba Ans. (a) Porto Alegre, Brazil 35. WSF meeting in India took place in the year ______ . (a) 2004 (b) 2010 (c) 2000 (d) 1999 Ans. (a) 2004 36. The latest WSF meeting was held in ______ in ______ . (a) Brazil, 2018 (b) Ghana, 2010 (c) India, 2018 (d) Venezuela, 2018 Ans. (a) Brazil, 2018 37. What is WSF? (a) It is a global platform (b) It is a coming together platform of artists, social activists, environmentalists etc (c) It is a coalition against neo-liberal Globalisation (d) All of the above

Ans. (d) All of the above 38. In India, protest against Globalisation has taken place through? (a) Trade unions (b) Political parties (c) Indian Social Forums (d) All of the above Ans. (d) All of the above 39. The right-wing parties in India mostly object against ______ Globalisation. (a) economic (b) political (c) social (d) cultural Ans. (d) cultural 40. What statement is NOT correct about Globalisation? (a) Globalisation might lead to greater economic disparities (b) Globalisation might lead to cultural hegemony (c) Globalisation might lead to withdrawal of welfare state (d) Globalisation might lead to a global war Ans. (d) Globalisation might lead to a global war 41. Patenting of certain plants such as ______ by Americans caused opposition and protest by Indians. (a) neem (b) coconut

(c) gulmohar (d) banyan Ans. (a) neem 42. What is/are the major areas where consequences of Globalisation can be seen heavily? (a) Cultural (b) Political (c) Economic (d) All of these Ans. (d) All of these