Oswaal NTA CUET (UG)| Question Bank Chapterwise & Topicwise English For 2024 Exam 9789357281218, 9357281215

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For 2024 Exam

Highly Recommended

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CHAPTER-WISE

QUESTION BANK Includes SOLVED PAPERS (2021 - 2023)

ENGLISH Section I-A (Languages) Strictly as per the Latest Exam Pattern issued by NTA

The ONLY book you need to #AceCUET(UG)

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100% Updated

Previous Years’ Questions

Revision Notes

Concept Videos

800+ Questions

With 2023 CUET

(2021-2023) for

for Crisp Revision

for Complex

for Extensive

Exam Paper

Better Exam Insights

with Smart Mind Maps

Concepts Clarity

Practice

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1st EDITION

I S BN

YEAR 2024 "9789357281218"

CUET (UG)

SYLLABUS COVERED

PUBLISHED BY OSWAAL BOOKS & LEARNING PVT. LTD.

COP Y RIGHT

RESERVED

1/11, Sahitya Kunj, M.G. Road, Agra - 282002, (UP) India

BY THE PUBLISHERS

All rights reserved. No part of this book may be reproduced, stored in a retrieval system, or transmitted, in any form or by any means, without written permission from the publishers. The author and publisher will gladly receive information enabling them to rectify any error or omission in subsequent editions.

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DI SCL A IMER

This book is published by Oswaal Books and Learning Pvt Ltd (“Publisher”) and is intended solely for educational use, to enable students to practice for examinations/tests and reference. The contents of this book primarily comprise a collection of questions that have been sourced from previous examination papers. Any practice questions and/or notes included by the Publisher are formulated by placing reliance on previous question papers and are in keeping with the format/pattern/ guidelines applicable to such papers. The Publisher expressly disclaims any liability for the use of, or references to, any terms or terminology in the book, which may not be considered appropriate or may be considered offensive, in light of societal changes. Further, the contents of this book, including references to any persons, corporations, brands, political parties, incidents, historical events and/or terminology within the book, if any, are not intended to be offensive, and/or to hurt, insult or defame any person (whether living or dead), entity, gender, caste, religion, race, etc. and any interpretation to this effect is unintended and purely incidental. While we try to keep our publications as updated and accurate as possible, human error may creep in. We expressly disclaim liability for errors and/or omissions in the content, if any, and further disclaim any liability for any loss or damages in connection with the use of the book and reference to its contents”.

Kindle Edition (2)

Preface Welcome to the ultimate resource for your Common University Entrance Test (CUET) preparation! The Common University Entrance Test (CUET) marks a significant shift in the admission process for UG programs in Central Universities across India. The introduction of CUET aims to create a level playing field for students nationwide, regardless of their geographical location, and revolutionize the way students connect with these prestigious institutions. CUET (UG), administered by the esteemed National Testing Agency (NTA), is a prestigious all-India test that serves as a single-window opportunity for admissions. The NTA consistently provides timely notifications regarding the exam schedule and any subsequent updates. The curriculum for CUET is based on the National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) syllabus for class 12 only. CUET (UG) scores are mandatory required while admitting students to undergraduate courses in 44 central universities. A merit list will be prepared by participating Universities/organizations. Universities may conduct their individual counselling on the basis of the scorecard of CUET (UG) provided by NTA. Oswaal CUET (UG) Question Bank is your strategic companion designed to elevate your performance and simplify your CUET journey for success in this computer-based test.

Here’s how this book benefits you: • 100% Updated with 2023 CUET Exam Paper • Previous years Questions (2021-2023)for Better Exam insights • Revision Notes for Crisp Revision with Smart Mind Maps • Concept Videos for complex concepts clarity • 800+ questions for Extensive Practice Almost 1.92 million candidates registered for CUET (UG) in 2023. Candidates have been quite anxious about appearing for CUET (UG), however, with the right preparation strategy and resources, you can secure a good rank in CUET (UG). We believe that with dedication, hard work, and the right resources, you can conquer CUET and secure your place in the Central Universities of your choice. Good luck with your preparations, with this trusted companion on your journey to academic success! All the best! Team Oswaal Books

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Contents l Know your CUET(UG) Exam

6 - 6

l Latest CUET (UG) Syllabus

7 - 7

l Examination Paper CUET 2023



Chapter-1 – Reading Comprehension

10 - 15

1 - 13

Chapter-2 – Verbal Ability

14 - 41

Chapter-3 – Sentence Rearrangement

42 - 52

Chapter-4 – Choose the Correct Word

53 - 58

Chapter-5 – Synonyms and Antonyms

59 - 79

Chapter-6 – Vocabulary

80 - 107

l Practice Paper-1 (Solved)

108 - 113

l Practice Paper-2 (Solved)

114 - 120 qqq

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2 Languages + 6 Domain Specific Subject + General Test

OR

3 Languages + 5 Domain Specific Subjects + General Test

Subject/Language Choice

Objective Type with MCQs

CBT

Mode of Test

Test Pattern

Know Your CUET (UG) Exam SECTIONS

SECTION I (A) 13 Languages

Tested through reading Comprehension (i) Factual (ii) Literary (iii) Narrative

SECTION III SECTION I (B)

SECTION II

20 Languages

Domain Specific Subjects ( 27 Subjects)

General Test (Compulsory)

INCLUDES : NCERT Model syllabus (only of 12th Standard) is available on all the Subjects

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• • • • • •

General Knowledge Current Affairs General Mental Ability Numerical Ability Quantitative Reasoning Logical & Analytical Reasoning

Latest CUET (UG) Syllabus SYLLABUS FOR LANGUAGES (IA AND IB) Note: There will be one Question Paper which will have 50 questions out of which 40 questions need to be attempted. SECTION Code Section IA Languages 101 (13 Languages) 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 Section IB Languages 201 (20 Languages) 202 203 204 205 206 207 208 209 210 211 212 213 214 215 216 217 218 219 220

Name English Hindi Assamese Bengali Gujarati Kannada Malayalam Marathi Odia Punjabi Tamil Telugu Urdu Arabic Bodo Chinese Dogri French German Italian Japanese Kashmiri Konkani Maithili Manipuri Nepali Persian Russian Santhali Sindhi Spanish Tibetan Sanskrit

Questions from the Language Section will be from the following topics but are not limited to: 1. Reading Comprehension: There will be three types of passages (maximum 300-350 words):

i.

Factual



ii. Narrative



iii. Literary

2. Verbal Ability 3. Rearranging the parts 4. Choosing the correct word 5. Synonyms and Antonyms 6. Vocabulary

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Bharat Book Depot, 7988455354

AGRA

BHAGWATI BOOK STORE, 9149081912, Sparsh Book Agency, 9412257817, Sanjay Publication, 8126699922

JHARKHAND

ALIGARH

New Vimal Books, 9997398868

Bokaro Student Friends Pvt. Ltd, 7360021503

ALLAHABAD

Mehrotra Book Agency, (532) 2266865, 9415636890

MADHYA PRADESH

GORAKHPUR

Central Book House, 9935454590

INDORE

Bhaiya Industries, 9109120101

KANPUR

Raj Book Dist, 9235616506

CHHINDWARA

Pustak Bhawan, 9827255997

LUCKNOW

Azad Book Depot PVT LTD, 7317000250, Rama Book Depot(Retail), 7355078254 Ashirwad Book Depot , 9235501197, Book Sadan, 8318643277, Book.com , 7458922755, Sheetla Book Agency, 9235832418

MAHARASHTRA

PRAYAGRAJ

Format Center, 9335115561, Garg Brothers Trading & Services Pvt. Ltd., 7388100499

NAGPUR

Laxmi Pustakalay and Stationers, (0712) 2727354

PUNE

Pragati Book Centre, 9850039311

MUMBAI

New Student Agencies LLP, 7045065799

ODISHA

Inder Book Agancies, 9634045280

WEST BENGAL KOLKATA

Bijay Pustak Bhandar Pvt. Ltd., 8961260603, Saha Book House, 9674827254 United Book House, 9831344622, Techno World, 9830168159

Trimurti Book World, 9437034735

0808

BARIPADA

UTTAR PRADESH DEHRADUN

(9)

CUET Question Paper - 2023 NATIONAL TESTING AGENCY Held on 24th May, 2023

English Time Allowed : 45 Mins. 

Maximum Marks : 200

General Instructions: 1. The test is of 45 Minutes duration. 2. The test contains 50 questions out of which 40 question needs to be attempted. 3. Marking Scheme of the test: a. Correct answer or the most appropriate answer: Five marks (+5). b. Any incorrect option marked will be given minus one mark (-1). c. Unanswered/Marked for Review will be given 100 marks (0).

1. Read

the passage and answer the question that follows:

2. Choose the option that is the Antonym of the word ‘Descendent’:

The phrase “team building exercises” may be new but the reality is not. Its origin goes back at least as far as the medieval tournaments. These provided knights with military training and the opportunity to make reputations. Individual jousting and hand-to hand combat came first. Then there were team events. In these, a group of knights fought against another group. These teams often stayed together and fought side-by-side in real battle. Team games today, such as football, baseball, cricket and hockey, are the distant descendants of such medieval tournaments.

A crucial

event in the movement from being a group to becoming a team can be the team building exercise. This can be based upon either (1) a substitute team task (for example, a business case study or a few days of outdoor activities) or (2) a real task (for example, going away for a weekend to plan company strategy).

There are pros and cons to both approaches. The advantage of a substitute task type of event is that success or failure is not of paramount importance. Nor are there any technological or professional challenges to meet, so that people can concentrate on the essential issue of learning as to how to work more effectively together as a team.

Choose the correct meaning of the word ‘Crucial’ from the options given : (1) decisive

(2) essential

(3) insignificant

(4) immature

(1) grandchildren

(2) heir

(3) ancestor

(4) children

3. Match the task given in List - I with the appropriate example given in List - II List - I

List - II

(A)

substitute team task

(I)

eg. a few days of outdoor activities

(B)

knights did military trainings

(II)

eg. plan company strategy

(C)

team events of group of knights

(III) eg. individual Jousting

(D) real task

(IV) eg. real battle

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (1) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II) (2) (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(II) (3) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV) (4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)

4. According

to the passage, the reality of ‘teambuilding exercise’ is that, it is:

(1) advanced

(2) new

(3) ancient

(4) modern

5. According

to the passage, a group of knights fought against another group in:

(A) cricket (B) hockey (C) baseball (D) real battle

11

CUET (UG) Exam Paper 2023

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (1) (C) Only (3) (A) Only

(2) (D) Only (4) (B) Only

6. Read

the passage and answer the question that follows:

When things aren't going well, we tend to think we

are lacking in something. But if we want to change our current situation, we should first part with something, before we look to acquire something else. This is a fundamental tenet of simple living.

Discard

your attachments. Let go of your assumptions. Reduce your possessions. Living simply is also about discarding your physical and mental burdens.

It's amazing how refreshed we can feel after a good

cry. Crying clears out whatever weight you were carrying in your heart. You feel energized to try again. I have always felt that the Buddhist concept of the ‘enlightened mind’ - the Japanese characters for which depict a “clean mind” - refers to this ‘refreshment’ of the spirit.

The act

of discarding, of detaching from mental and physical burdens, from the baggage that weighs us down, is extremely difficult. Sometimes it can be accompanied by real pain, as when we part with someone who is dear to us.

But if you want to improve the way things are, if you want to live with a light heart, you must start by discarding. The moment you detach, a new abundance will flow into your life.

What is the fundamental tenet of ‘simple living ?’ (1) (2) (3) (4)

Realising that we are lacking in something. Feeling energised everyday. The act of letting go. The act of attaining enlightenment.

7. Which among the following give a similar context

to the word “part” as used in the fourth paragraph of the passage? (1) She is an essential part of the school. (2) Difficulties are part and parcel of life. (3) I am going to take part in the competition. (4) We must part our ways from the evil.

8. Which

among the following provide similar meaning to the word “discard” as used in paragraph 5 of the passage? (A) Detach (B) Let go (C) Derived (D) Disadvantage (E) Disadvantage

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (1) (A) and (B) only (2) (A) and (C) only

(3) (C) and (D) only (4) (D) and (E) only

9. What can be the appropriate title for the passage? (1) (2) (3) (4)

Detachment - A key to simple living Enlightenment Burdens are a part of life Japanese way to improve

10. According to the passage, what are the qualities of

‘a good cry’? (A) A good cry makes you feel light and energized. (B) A good cry is a way of detaching and discarding the unpleasant. (C) A good cry is a sign of weakness. (D) A good cry makes you realise that crying is a waste of time. (E) A good cry is an illusion in the path of attaining enlightenment.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (1) (A) and (B) Only (2) (B) and (C) Only (3) (C) and (D) Only (4) (A) and (E) Only

11. The Autobiography of a Horse. Now that I am getting old and stiff in the joints, I

like to meditate, while grazing in the pasture, on my foal days. I think that was the happiest part of my life. I had no work to do, and could run about after my mother, who was a fine white Arab mare, without any restraint. Most of my time was spent in the fields, where I nibbled the tender grass and capered about, while my mother was steadily grazing.

But that

could not last for ever. When I was old enough, the trainer came and, to my great indignation, fastened a long rope to my head, and then began driving me round and round in circles with his long whip. I was frightened and angry, but he went on till I was so tired that I could scarcely stand. However, my mother told me that it was no use of my resisting, and to make a long story short, I was at last thoroughly trained as a riding-horse.

I was bought by a young officer as a polo pony,

and I soon got to love the game. He was a kind master, and a good rider; and in the end I would do anything for him, and was quite proud when his side won the game. But he got into debt, and had to sell me; and I was bought by a gentleman and a lady who kept a buggy, and was trained to run in shafts. I hated this work; and I am afraid I gave a lot of trouble, by going as slowly as I could. When my driver gave me the whip, I started shying at any object on the road. And then I found that jibbing was a very good trick, and whenever I was whipped, I simply backed. My owner got disgusted at last, and sold me to a gentleman who was fond of hunting.

12

OSWAAL CUET (UG) Chapterwise Question Bank ENGLISH

I was

delighted to get back to saddle-work; and thoroughly enjoyed my gallops with the hounds after the jackal in open country. But an accident put a stop to that jolly life; for one day my master pressed me to a big jump which I knew I could not do. I did my best but fell short, and fell. My master was thrown away and he broke his arm, and I badly sprained one of my legs.

I was in a hospital for weeks, and then was sold to a gentleman who wanted a quiet riding- horse. He was a kind master, and used me well; and I was in his service for a good number of years. Now that I am old, he gives me very little work, and I spend most of my time grazing in the pasture, and leading a quiet, contented life.

The word “nibbled” as used in the passage means to ________ . (1) take huge bites of food (2) take small bites of food (3) gulp away quickly (4) keep eating for a long duration of time

12. Arrange the steps taken by the trainer in the correct

order : (A) Made him move in circles. (B) Fastened him with a long rope. (C) Got him tired to an extent that he couldn't stand. (D) Made him angry and frightened. (E) Made him take his mother’s advice and not resist.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (1) (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) (2) (D), (B), (A), (E), (C) (3) (B), (C), (D), (A), (E) (4) (B), (A), (D), (C), (E)

17. Choose the correct option to change the following sentence into Direct Speech.

The

supervisor confirmed that the office memo was an original one. (1) The supervisor said, “the office memo is an original one.” (2) The supervisor said, “the office order was an original one.” (3) The supervisor said, “the office order has been an original one.” (4) The supervisor said, “the office order is an original one.”

18. Choose

the correct Exclamatory form of the following Assertive sentence from the options given :

It is a lovely weather. (1) (2) (3) (4)

What a lovely weather it is ! Weather seems to be lovely ! How weather is lovely ! Good weather is lovely !

19. Complete

the sentence with the most suitable Phrasal Verb:

“The management decided to _____ all upcoming meetings in the welfare of the employees.” (1) Call up (2) Call on (3) Call off (4) Call in the following sentence :

I have _________ trust worthy friends.

out a word from the passage which means “very happy’: (1) steadily (2) tired (3) disgusted (4) delighted

(1) each (3) any

(2) every (4) many

21. Choose

the most suitable question tag for the following phrase.

“They will solve it’.

14. Being old, the horse likes to meditate enjoys being the polo horse hunts with the hounds is unsatisfied with his life grazes in the pastures

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (1) (B) and (C) Only (3) (A) and (E) Only

the correct word/ expression from the options given, which means ‘from the very beginning’ (1) ad infinitum (2) ab initio (3) a prior (4) ad hoc

20. Choose the correct determiner to fill in the blank of

13. Find

A. B. C. D. E.

16. Choose

(2) (D) and (E) Only (4) (A) and (D) Only

15. Which trick, out of the options given below, was

NOT a part of the horse's coping mechanism when he was whipped? (1) Jibbing (2) Galloping (3) Shying (4) Backing up

(1) (2) (3) (4)

can't they ? will they ? can they ? won't they ?

22. Choose the correct pair of homonym to complete the following sentences :

Mosquitoes are the _______ of malaria. Choose a _________ according to your qualification. (1) (2) (3) (4)

career, carier cereer, career carriers, career cerrier, ceerier

23. Choose

the correct ANTONYM of the word ‘Dwindle” from the options given :

13

CUET (UG) Exam Paper 2023

(1) Diminish (3) Decrease

(2) Shrink (4) Increase

A. who would have thought B. the Human Genome Project would complete its mapping of 99% of the human genome. C. discovered the double helix structure of DNA in 1953 D. when James Watson and Francis Grick E. that 50 years later

24. Choose the sentence in which the Adverb has been incorrectly used : (1) He usually visits his parents on Fridays. (2) Never I'll see her again. (3) Neither of us is going for the marriage. (4) The child cried loudly.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) (A), (C), (B), (D), (E) (2) (D) (C) (A) (E), (B) (3) (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) (4) (D), (C), (A), (B), (E)

25. Choose

the options that contain the correct Synonym of the word “Utility” A. utility, usefulness B. efficacy, benefit C. utility, uselessness D. uselessness, efficacy E. of use, worth

30. Choose the sentence that is in “Active construction”: (1) (2) (3) (4)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (1) (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) (2) (A), and (C) Only (3) (A), (B) and (E) Only (4) (B), (C) and (D) Only

26. Complete option :

31. Fill in the blanks given in List - I with an appropriate article from List - II. List - I

the sentence with the most suitable

She will choose nothing else for breakfast ________. (1) (2) (3) (4)

except fruit salad only fruit salad than fruit salad or fruit salad

27. Choose

the correct Exclamatory form of the following Assertive sentence from the options given below :

(A)

What is _______ issue that you are facing with your neighbour ?

(I)

a

(B)

What ______ brilliant plan!

(II)

an

(C)

When do your prefer having _____ breakfast?

(II)

the

(D) Where can one find such (IV) zero article (no ________ innovative article) item ? below : (1) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II) (2) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV) (3) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV) (4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)

How fine Radhika is a dancer ! What Radhika is a dancer ! What a fine dancer Radhika is ! Good Radhika is a dancer !

28. Match the words in List - I with the ANTONYMS given in List - II List - I Word

List - II Antonym

(A)

evident

(I)

alien

(B)

compassion

(II)

obscure

(C)

lure

(III)

cruelty

(D)

native

(IV)

repel

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (1) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II) (2) (A)-(I)(B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV) (3) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I) (4) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)

29. Arrange

List - II

Choose the correct answer from the options given

Radhika is a very fine dancer. (1) (2) (3) (4)

Why did Sheela jump over the wall ? The mouse was first seen by Kaustav. A new shopping complex was built. Look! the page was torn by Sudip.

the following parts of a sentence into a meaningful sentence.

32. Change

the underlined part of the ‘-ing clause’ with ‘adjective + to infinitive.’

Namita wasn’t ashamed of committing the mistake. (1) (2) (3) (4)

Namita was not ashamed to make the mistake. Namita had no shame to commit the mistake. Namita wasn’t ashamed to commit the mistake. Namita wasn’t ashamed that she had to commit the mistake.

33. Fill in the blanks given in List - I with an appropriate Modal given in List - II. List - I

List - II

(A)

______ you close the window (I) please ?

ought

(B)

I ______ to return home by now.

will

(II)

14 (C)

OSWAAL CUET (UG) Chapterwise Question Bank ENGLISH

The news anchor has confirmed that today ________be the coldest (III) day in Delhi.

must

(D) One _____ follow the law of the (IV) could land.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (1) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-IV) (2) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III) (3) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV) (4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)

34. Choose

the appropriate word to replace the underlined word for formal correspondence in the given sentence :

Kindly forward the emails quickly. A. B. C. D.

Promptly Superfast Request Elapsed

(2) (D) only (4) (B) only

35. Choose the correct Idiom from the options given to complete the sentence :

The

boy _______ to the pleadings of his well wishers. (1) turned a new leaf (2) cut loose (3) became black and blue (4) tuned a deaf ear

36. Identify

the part of the sentence which has an error. (A) It is always (B) a good idea (C) to open the light (D) after sunset (E) No error

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (1) (A) Only (3) (C) Only

(2) (B) Only (4) (E) Only

37. Complete

the sentence with the most suitable Phrasal Verb given :

My father had _______ a new hardware factory for my brother. (1) set off (3) set up

(2) set in (4) set out

38. Choose

the correct preposition from the options given to complete the following sentence.

My niece is doing a Master's degree ______Mumbai. (1) around (3) on

the following parts of a sentence labelled as PQRS to make a meaningful sentence. P - proud of my new Q - after them very well R - family and looked S - I'was very (1) PRSQ (2) PQRS (3) SPRQ (4) SRQP

40. Choose the correct Indirect form of the following sentence from the given options :

She said, “How can I do such a work !” (1) (2) (3) (4)

She asked that how she can do such a work. She said that she can do such a work. She wondered how she could do such a work. She wondered if how she could do such a work.

41. Choose the correct option that best expresses the

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (1) (A) only (3) (C) only

39. Rearrange

(2) at (4) in

meaning of the Latin phrase, “ALTER EGO". (1) Egoistic person (2) Altering ego (3) Other self (4) Selfis

42. Identify

the part of the sentence which has an error: (A) Shy people find it (B) Difficult to begin a conversation (C) With complete strangers.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (1) (A) (3) (C)

(2) (B) (4) No error

43. Which of the following ‘Cs” are characteristics of a formal letter. (A) Courteous (B) Complaining (C) Concise (D) Confidential (E) Cognizant

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (1) (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) (2) (B) and (C) Only (3) (A) and (C) Only (4) (B) and (D) Only

44. Choose

the option that has a grammatically incorrect part of the sentence. If there is no error then choose the option ‘No error’. (A) I cannot have (B) this soup (C) as there is (D) too many salt (E) No error

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (1) (E) Only (3) (A) Only

(2) (D) Only (4) (C) Only

15

CUET (UG) Exam Paper 2023

45. Match the Idioms given in List - I with the correct meanings given in List - IL List - I

List - II

(A) Blood, sweat and tears

(I)

In simple terms

(B) To bell the cat

(II) To undertake difficult mission at great personal risk

(C) Below the belt

(III) Gruelling hard work

(D) In black and white

(IV) Unfairly

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (1) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I) (2) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV) (3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(III) (4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)

46. Rearrange

the following phrases to get a meaningful sentence :

47. Choose the correct passive form of the following sentence from the given options. Please come soon. (1) You are to come soon. (2) Come soon, please. (3) You are requested to come soon. (4) You request me to come.

48. Match

the words in List - I with the Synonyms given in List - II. List - I List - II (A) authentic (I) adjoining (B) contrary (II) genuine (C) adjacent (III) fragile (D) brittle (IV) dissimilar

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (1) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV) (2) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III) (3) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II) (4) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)

of most / now a days / the attitude / parents is / 49. Choose different (1) Now a day parents is different the attitude of most (2) Now a days the attitude of most parents is different? (3) The attitude is different of most parents now a days (4) The most parents the attitude is different now a days

the suitable Modal to complete the following sentence :

_______________ I eat some chocolates ? (1) Ought to (3) Might

(2) Can (4) Would

The Rajdhani Express is due to arrive __________ platform No. 3. (1) in (3) into

(2) on (4) at



WRITING YOUR NOTES Just in case you have forgotten today, takedown your notes! But why is it so important? Tools for the hands are tools for the brain writes Hetty Roessingh. Handwritten notes are a powerful tool for encrypting embodied cognition and in turn supporting the brain’s capacity for recuperation of information. If that sounds so scientific then in simple words: Writing notes by hand help you in: 

Increasing your comprehension  Strengthening your memory  Igniting your creativity  Engaging your mind  Increasing your attention span Are these reasons enough to get you started?

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CHAPTER

1

Study Time Max. Time: 1:25 Hours Max. Questions: 40

READING COMPREHENSION

  Revision Notes   What is Reading Comprehension? Reading comprehension is the ability to understand and extract meaning from written text. It involves various cognitive processes, such as decoding words, recognizing vocabulary, grasping the main ideas, and inferring information not explicitly stated. Effective reading comprehension also includes critical thinking skills to evaluate, analyze, and synthesize the content. It is essential for academic success, as it allows individuals to engage with and interpret a wide range of written materials, from textbooks to literature, to gather information, make informed decisions, and communicate effectively. (i) FACTUAL Scan to know A factual passage is a written or spoken text that presents information in an objective and straightforward more about this topic manner. It is characterized by the presentation of facts, data, and evidence, without the inclusion of personal opinions, emotions, or subjective interpretations. Factual passages are often used in various forms of non-fiction writing, such as news articles, research papers, textbooks, and informational documents, to convey accurate and verifiable information to the reader or audience. These passages are typically focused on providing an objective account of events, concepts, or topics, relying on evidence and logical reasoning to support their claims. Factual Passage EXAMPLE: I. Read the passages carefully and attempt the following questions. The Great Barrier Reef, located off the coast of Queensland, Australia, is the world’s largest coral reef system. It stretches over 2,300 kilometers (1,430 miles) and covers an area of approximately 344,400 square kilometers (133,000 square miles). The reef is a natural wonder, renowned for its stunning biodiversity and vibrant coral formations. Composed of nearly 3,000 individual reefs and 900 islands, the Great Barrier Reef is home to a vast array of marine life. It supports over 1,500 species of fish, 400 species of coral, and various species of sharks, rays, and marine mammals. It also provides critical breeding grounds for sea turtles and is a habitat for countless bird species. The reef’s incredible biodiversity and unique ecosystems have earned it a place on the UNESCO World Heritage List. It is not only a site of ecological significance but also plays a crucial role in scientific research and environmental conservation efforts. However, the Great Barrier Reef faces numerous threats, including climate change, coral bleaching, pollution, overfishing, and coastal development. Rising sea temperatures have led to widespread coral bleaching events, which weaken the corals and disrupt the delicate balance of the ecosystem. Efforts to protect and preserve the reef have been ongoing, with initiatives focused on reducing carbon emissions, improving water quality, and implementing sustainable fishing practices. Conservationists and researchers are working tirelessly to understand the reef’s complex ecosystems and develop strategies to mitigate the impacts of climate change. Tourism also plays a significant role in the region’s economy, as millions of visitors come to explore the reef each year. Sustainable tourism practices are being promoted to minimize the environmental footprints of these activities. In summary, the Great Barrier Reef is a remarkable natural wonder of the world, known for its stunning biodiversity and ecological importance. However, it faces significant challenges due to climate change and human activities, making conservation efforts crucial to its survival. 1. The passage is about: (1) The world’s largest coral reef system. (2) The history of Australian marine conservation. (3) The economic impact of tourism in Queensland. (4) Climate changes effects on global ecosystems. Ans. Option (1) is correct. 2. Match the terms in List I with their descriptions in List II. LIST I LIST II A I A major challenge facing the reef, leading to coral bleaching and other Coral bleaching issues, discussed as a threat. B II Efforts to minimize environmental impact and maintain the reef’s UNESCO World Heritage List attractiveness to tourists, highlighted as important. C III Recognition and protection for the reef’s ecological significance, Sustainable tourism mentioned in relation to its inclusion on this list. D IV A phenomenon that weakens corals due to rising sea temperatures, Climate change discussed as a threat to the reef.

First Level

Second Level

Trace the Mind Map

It is also helpful to read silently but connect with little sounds (Not exactly loud). It helps in logical imagination.

Think out Loud

Third Level



Every passage has a storyline which follows the same pattern.

Plot (Design of passage) Location (Where the information/event lies or takes place) Problem (Basis of the questions asked in the passage) The final fix (Where the passage ends with same points)

Keywords are the context clues and play an important role in choosing the correct options.

Keywords

The Storyline

Ponder the Theme

Read the passage and try to find the main idea of the passage.

Reading Comprehension

Visual Imagination

Try to imagine the story/information given in the passage.

Connect the Dots

Establish connection with the series of information given in the passage.

2 Oswaal CUET (UG) Chapterwise Question Bank ENGLISH

READING COMPREHENSION

3

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I (3) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV (4) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II Ans. Option (1) is correct. 3. Is the following statement true or false according to the passage? Statement: The Great Barrier Reef is not included in the UNESCO World Heritage List. (1) True (2) False (3) Can’t say (4) None of the above Ans. Option (2) is correct. 4. What is one of the primary threats mentioned in the passage to the Great Barrier Reef’s health? (1) Overfishing (2) Sustainable tourism (3) Rising sea temperatures causing coral bleaching (4) Recognition as a UNESCO World Heritage site Ans. Option (3) is correct. 5. Why is the Great Barrier Reef considered significant and renowned, according to the passage? (1) Because it is the world’s largest desert. (2) Because it is home to only a few species of marine life. (3) Because it is a critical breeding ground for sea turtles. (4) Because it is primarily a site for scientific research. Ans. Option (3) is correct. II. Donated Organs and Their Transportation (1) Once an organ donor’s family gives its consent and the organs are matched to a recipient, medical professionals are faced with the onerous challenge of transporting organs while ensuring that the harvested organ reaches its destination in the shortest possible time. This is done in order to preserve the harvested organs which involves the police, especially, the traffic police department. (2) The traditional method of transporting organs by road is referred to as a “green corridor”. The first green corridor in India was created by Chennai Traffic Police in September 2008 when they accomplished their task of enabling an ambulance to reach its destination within 11 minutes during peak hour traffic. That organ saved a nine-year old girl whose life depended on the transplant. Similarly, such green corridors have been created by traffic police of various cities such as Pune, Mumbai, Delhi NCR, etc. (3) Experts point out the lack of a robust system to transport organs to super-specialty hospitals in least possible time. National Organ and Tissue Transplant Organisation (NOTTO), the country’s apex organ donation agency, is now framing a proposal to airlift cadaver organs and will send a report to the Union Health Ministry. “Cadaver organs have a short life and so transplant should be done within a few golden hours.” Director (NOTTO) expressed “Therefore, we are preparing a proposal for airlifting organs at any given moment.” (4) Most states do not have enough well-trained experts to retrieve or perform transplant procedures. Also, there is an acute shortage of advanced healthcare facilities to carry out a transplant. So, organs are referred to other big centres in metropolitan cities. Organs retrieved from Aurangabad, Indore, Surat and Pune are sent to Mumbai as these cities do not have superspeciality healthcare centres, informed officials. (5) “In India, about fifty thousand to one lakh patients are suffering from acute heart failure and need heart transplant at any point of time. In a private set-up, a heart transplant costs ` 15–20 lakhs, which is followed up by postoperative medication of about ` 30,000 per month lifelong.” Moreover, the risk factor is a great hindrance. 1. The first green corridor in India was created in: (1) New Delhi (2) Chennai (3) Mumbai (4) Pune Ans. Option (2) is correct. 2. Most states refer organ transplant cases to big hospitals because: (1) they don’t have well trained experts (2) the patients don’t trust local doctors (3) the state hospitals are very crowded (4) they don’t have a pool of harvested organs Ans. Option (1) is correct. 3. Pick out the word/phrase from the passage which is similar in meaning to ‘save’ (Para 1) (1) onerous (2) preserve (3) harvest (4) retrieve Ans. Option (2) is correct. 4. What does the author mean by ‘a few golden hours? (1) Time between patient’s admission in a hospital and surgery (2) The crucial time available for transplant of the organ after harvesting it (3) The time of 24 hours post operation (4) The time of two days before admission in a hospital Ans. Option (2) is correct.

4 Oswaal CUET (UG) Chapterwise Question Bank 5. What is meant by the word ‘retrieve’ (Para 4) (1) get back (3) set right Ans. Option (2) is correct.

ENGLISH

(2) recover (4) regain

(ii) NARRATIVE to know A narrative passage is a section of written or spoken text that conveys a story or a sequence of events. It Scan more about is a form of written or verbal expression used to describe, recount, or depict events, characters, settings, this topic and actions in a coherent and chronological manner. Narrative passages are commonly found in literature, storytelling, journalism, and various forms of communication where the primary purpose is to engage the audience’s imagination, emotions, and understanding by presenting a narrative or a story. Such passages often include elements like plot, characters, dialogue, setting, and may serve to entertain, inform, persuade, Narrative or inspire the reader or listener. Passage EXAMPLE: I. Read the passages carefully and attempt the following questions. In the back row of the bus, we sat unnoticed, shielded from prying eyes. As the vehicle departed the mundane crossroads of the city, it carried us into the sprawling countryside, where fields of sunflowers stretched endlessly in all directions, their golden heads turned toward us as if in greeting. Where water was scarce, the land surrendered to the relentless advance of the desert. In the distance, the majestic Mount Bogda dominated the horizon, its towering presence akin to a radiant prism laid horizontally upon the desert’s vast canvas. This mountain, exceeding a staggering altitude of 5,000 meters, proudly bore a crown of perpetual snow, a striking contrast to the flat, arid plains that lay at its feet. Nestled halfway up the mountain range, at an elevation of approximately 2,000 meters above sea level, Heaven Lake lay like a tranquil jewel, cradled by the lofty, snow-clad peaks. As we ascended, the once-brilliant sky became shrouded in clouds, and I regretted leaving all my warm attire behind at the hotel in Urumqi. Raindrops pelted the bus, and an overpowering aroma of goat’s cheese emanated from the man seated behind me. Despite the inhospitable bus conditions, the leaky window provided glimpses of a breathtaking landscape transformation. From the desert, we had swiftly transitioned to fertile lands and then into a pastoral wonderland, where emerald-green grass blanketed the earth, and pine-clad slopes stretched into the distance. A pristine stream meandered through the landscape, its crystal-clear waters reflecting the moss-covered stones beneath. It was a scene of picturesque serenity. However, as we climbed higher, the stream evolved into a roaring, milky torrent, and I deeply lamented my decision to bring only a pair of shorts, which had served me well in the desert but proved wholly inadequate in this mountainous terrain. By midday, we reached the fabled Heaven Lake, seeking refuge in the resort area at its base. Securing a room in a cozy cottage, I was relieved to find thick quilts on the beds, a promise of warmth in the chilly mountain air. Standing outside our cottage, we surveyed the surroundings. Heaven Lake, resembling a sardine in shape, owed its existence to the snowmelt trickling down from the headwaters. Its waters shimmered with a brilliant blue hue, encircled by verdant mountain walls and punctuated by the distant presence of grazing sheep. At the lake’s farthest end, beyond the delta formed by an incoming stream, loomed a colossal, snow-capped peak that commanded the landscape—an integral part of a series of peaks culminating, although somewhat obscured from view, in the grandeur of Mount Bogda itself. Within the resort enclave, a small lakeside hall beckoned, offering nourishment to travellers. At times, we dined within its welcoming confines, while on other occasions, we indulged in kebabs and naan bread procured from the local vendors who plied their trade until the final bus departed. These skewer-cooked kebabs, seasoned to perfection and cooked over charcoal braziers, were a particular delight. Meanwhile, local Kazakh herdsmen offered horse’s milk, a regional specialty that I politely declined. The biting cold had taken its toll on me, but Mr. Cao, the laid-back proprietor of the mess hall, came to my rescue, generously lending me an oversized pair of trousers that provided much-needed warmth and comfort. 1. What geographical feature dominates the landscape as the bus travels to Heaven Lake? (1) A vast desert (2) Fields of sunflowers (3) Snow-capped mountains (4) Moss-covered stones Ans. Option (3) is correct. 2. At what elevation is Heaven Lake situated? (1) Approximately 5,000 meters above sea level (2) About 2,000 meters above sea level (3) Below sea level (4) Just above sea level Ans. Option (2) is correct. 3. What culinary delight is available from local vendors near Heaven Lake? (1) Goat’s cheese (2) Sunflower seeds (3) Kebabs and naan (4) Horse’s milk Ans. Option (3) is correct. 4. How does the landscape change as the bus ascends toward Heaven Lake? (1) It becomes more desert-like (2) It transitions from desert to fertile land (3) It remains the same throughout the journey (4) It becomes increasingly arid Ans. Option (2) is correct. 5. What do the sunflowers in the passage symbolically represent? (1) A welcoming gesture (2) Agricultural abundance (3) A scenic backdrop (4) An obstacle to the journey Ans. Option (1) is correct.

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READING COMPREHENSION

II. In the heart of the bustling city, there lived a young artist named Lily. She was known for her vibrant, imaginative paintings that seemed to capture the very essence of life itself. Her tiny studio apartment was crammed with colorful canvases, each telling a unique story. One fateful morning, as she was setting up her easel, a peculiar visitor knocked on her door. It was a talking cat, its emerald eyes gleaming with curiosity. “Greetings, Lily,” the cat purred. “I’ve heard of your remarkable talent, and I have a special request.” Lily, startled but intrigued, invited the cat in. It introduced itself as Whiskers, the guardian of the Enchanted Forest. Whiskers explained that a mystical tree in their forest was ailing, and only a painting infused with the purest emotions could save it. Without hesitation, Lily agreed to help. She set off with Whiskers through a hidden portal to the Enchanted Forest, a realm of enchanting creatures and vibrant flora. As she wandered through the lush forest, her senses came alive. She felt the pulse of life in every leaf and heard the whispers of the ancient trees. Days turned into weeks as Lily painted tirelessly. She poured her heart and soul into the canvas, capturing the magic of the forest. The creatures watched in awe as her masterpiece grew, their collective hope woven into every brushstroke. Finally, the painting was complete, radiating with a warm, ethereal glow. With Whiskers by her side, they carried the painting to the ailing tree. As they placed it against the bark, a wondrous transformation occurred. The tree’s leaves rustled with newfound vitality, and its branches reached for the sky with vigour. The Enchanted Forest erupted in cheers, and Lily felt a deep sense of fulfillment. Her journey had not only saved the forest but had also awakened her own spirit. With a heart full of gratitude, she bid farewell to her newfound friends and returned to her studio in the city. Word of Lily’s extraordinary adventure spread far and wide, making her paintings even more sought after. But the most precious thing she gained was the knowledge that art had the power to heal not only the world but also one’s own soul. 

1. The correct meaning of the word ‘INTRIGUED’ is: (1) Arouse the curiosity of (2) Confusion (3) Bored (4) Unfocused Ans. Option (1) is correct. 2. Identify the kind of Adjective used in the following sentence from the given options. In the heart of the bustling city. (1) Adjective of Number (2) Adjective of Quantity (3) Adjective of Quality (4) Possessive Adjective Ans. Option (3) is correct. 3. What does Lily experience as she paints in the Enchanted Forest? (1) She becomes lost and frightened (2) She feels inspired and filled with hope (3) She encounters dangerous creatures (4) She becomes tired and wants to go home Ans. Option (2) is correct. 4. What is the ultimate transformation that occurs when Lily places her completed painting against the ailing tree? (1) The tree withers away completely (2) The painting catches fire (3) The tree’s leaves regain vitality, and its branches reach for the sky (4) Lily is transported back to her studio in the city Ans. Option (3) is correct. 5. Choose the part of the following sentence which has an error. If there is no error mark ‘4’. A. With Whiskers by her side B. they carried the painting C. To the ailed tree. 1. C 2. B 3. A 4. No error Ans. Option (1) is correct. (iii) LITERARY A literary passage is a segment of a written or spoken work, such as a novel, short story, poem, play, or essay, that is characterised by its artistic and expressive qualities. Literary passages often convey themes, emotions, and ideas through the use of language, including literary devices such as metaphors, similes, symbolism, imagery, and figurative language. These passages are crafted to engage the reader or listener on multiple levels, evoking intellectual and emotional responses, and are often valued for their aesthetic and literary merit. Literary passages can be brief or extended and are an integral part of literature, contributing to the overall impact and meaning of the work in which they appear.

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Literary passage

6 Oswaal CUET (UG) Chapterwise Question Bank

ENGLISH

EXAMPLE: I. Read the passages carefully and attempt the following questions. I did not give him very close attention. The fact is, I was more interested in his own adventures than in his high politics. I reckoned that Karolides and his affairs were not my business, leaving all that to him. So, a lot that he said slipped clean out of my memory. I remember that he was very clear that the danger to Karolides would not begin till he had got to London, and would come from the very highest quarters, where there would be no thought of suspicion. He mentioned the name of a woman–Julia Czechenyi–as having something to do with the danger. She would be the decoy, I gathered, to get Karolides out of the care of his guards. He talked, too, about a Black Stone and a man that lisped in his speech, and he described very particularly somebody that he never referred to without a shudder–an old man with a young voice who could hood his eyes like a hawk. He spoke a good deal about death, too. He was mortally anxious about winning through with his job, but he didn’t care a rush for his life. ‘I reckon it’s like going to sleep when you are pretty well tired out and waking to find a summer day with the scent of hay coming in at the window. I used to thank God for such morning’s way back in the Blue-Grass country, and I guess I’ll thank Him when I wake up on the other side of Jordan.’ Next day he was much more cheerful and read the life of Stonewall Jackson much of the time. I went out to dinner with a mining engineer I had got to see on business, and came back about half-past ten in time for our game of chess before turning in. 1. What does the following line analogies? “I reckon it’s like going to sleep when you are pretty well tired out and waking to find a summer day with the scent of hay coming in at the window.” (1) What the narrator imagines the experience of death to be like. (2) The sensation of “winning through” with one’s job.” (3) The speaker is describing his fluctuating mood as the danger to Karolides approaches. (4) What the narrator’s companion imagines the experience of death to be like. Ans. Option (4) is correct. 2. It can be gathered from the passage that Karolides: (1) Is the narrator’s companion

(2) Is presently in danger

(3) Will be ruined by corporate sabotage

(4) Will be threatened by surreptitious forces

Ans. Option (4) is correct. 3. The narrator’s greater interest in his companion’s “adventures than in his high politics” suggests that: (1) The narrator is not a political man.

(2) The narrator is indifferent to his companion.

(3) The narrator is a man of action. (4) More can be learned from the companion’s description of events than his personal beliefs for committing to a cause. Ans. Option (2) is correct. 4. What does the word “decoy” mean in the context of the passage?

(1) A type of bird commonly found in forests

(2) A device used in chess strategy

(3) A person or thing used to lead someone into a trap or danger

(4) A type of camouflage used in hunting Ans. Option (3) is correct. 5. In the passage, the phrase “waking to find a summer day with the scent of hay coming in at the window” is an example of: (1) Simile

(2) Hyperbole

(3) Metaphor

(4) Personification

Ans. Option (3) is correct.

II. Workers and Slaves

The Pharaohs may have believed that it was their links with the Gods that kept Egypt going, but in reality it was the hard work of the ordinary people. It was they who dug the soil, worked in the mines and quarries,sailed the boats on the river Nile, marched with the army into Syria or Nubia, cooked food and raised children. Slavery was not very important in ancient Egypt, but it did exist. Most of the slave prisoners who had been captured during the many wars Egypt fought with their neighbours in the Near East. Slaves were usually treated well and were allowed to own property. Many Egyptian workers were serfs. This meant that their freedom was limited. They could be bought and sold along with the estates where they worked. Farmers had to be registered with the government. They have to sell crops at a fixed fields lay under water, many workers were recruited into public building projects. Punishment for those who ran away was harsh. [CUET 2022]

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READING COMPREHENSION

1. From the passage we get to know that distinct quality of ancient Egypt under the pharaohs was the fact that: (1) Though slavery existed slaves were not treated harshly at all (2) The pharaohs were very democratic and handsome (3) No Egyptian working in ancient Egypt worked as a serf (4) The river Nile would not stop flowing during the rains in Egypt Ans. Option (1) is correct. 2. From the passage we get to know that in ancient Egypt many workers were known as serfs. These were:

(1) Workers with limited freedom in ancient Egypt

(2) Students with limited intelligence in modern Egypt (3) Nobility with limited power in medieval Egypt (4) Pharaohs with limited connection with the gods of Egyptian Gods Ans. Option (1) is correct. 3. What according to the passage was the reason of ancient Egyptian progress and prosperity? (1) The link the Pharaohs claimed they had with the Gods (2) The labour and hard work of the slaves and ordinary men in ancient Egypt (3) The mines and quarries full of germs armed with rockets and missiles and jewels in ancient Egypt (4) The modern smart Egyptian army Ans. Option (2) is correct. 4. From the given passage options, select the one which is true according to the passage. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) Pharaohs believed that it was their link with the Gods that favoured Egypt (2) The ordinary people worked overtime to destroy Egypt (3) The pharaohs did not believe they were connected to the Gods (4) The Pharaohs were the hard working salves of ancient Egypt Ans. Option (1) is correct. 5. Select the option that is incorrect according to the passage. (1) In the Egypt under the Pharaohs, slaves were allowed to own property (2) Most of the slaves were prisoners captured in the many wars that Egypt fought with its neighbours in the near East. (3) Slaves were well treated in ancient Egypt (4) Slavery was extremely important in ancient Egypt Ans. Option (4) is correct.   Tips to solve Comprehension Passages:

1. Preview the Passage: Before you start reading the passage, take a few seconds to skim through it. Look at headings, subheadings, and any highlighted or bolded text. This can give you a sense of the passage’s structure and main ideas.



2. Read Actively: As you read the passage, engage with the text actively. Underline or highlight key information, such as important facts, names, dates, or quotations. This will make it easier to find specific information later.



3. Focus on the Main Idea: Try to identify the main idea or central theme of the passage. Understanding the primary purpose of the text can help you answer questions more effectively.



4. Pay Attention to Transition Words: Transition words like “however,” “therefore,” “in addition,” and “for example” can signal important relationships between ideas. Pay attention to these words to understand the flow of the passage.



5. Practice Skimming and Scanning: Skimming involves quickly reading the passage to get a general sense of its content, while scanning involves searching for specific information. These techniques are especially useful for timed exams.



6. Answer Questions Strategically: When you begin answering questions, read them carefully and look for keywords that relate to the passage. Refer back to the passage to find the information you need. Be cautious of answer choices that are too extreme or not supported by the text.



7. Practice Regularly: Reading comprehension is a skill that improves with practice. Try to work through a variety of passages and questions to become more comfortable with different types of texts.



8. Vocabulary Matters: Having a strong vocabulary can be a significant advantage in reading comprehension. If you encounter unfamiliar words, try to deduce their meaning from the context or look them up afterwards.

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Tips to solve comprehension

8 Oswaal CUET (UG) Chapterwise Question Bank

ENGLISH

PRACTICE QUESTIONS I. Read the passages and answer the questions. A. “I cannot go to school today,” Said little Peggy Ann McKay. “I have the measles and the mumps, A gash, a rash and purple bumps. My mouth is wet, my throat is dry, I’m going blind in my right eye. My tonsils are as big as rocks, I’ve counted sixteen chicken pox And there’s one more—that’s seventeen, And don’t you think my face looks green? My leg is cut—my eyes are blue— It might be instamatic flu. I cough and sneeze and gasp and choke, I’m sure that my left leg is broke— My hip hurts when I move my chin, My belly button’s caving in, My back is wrenched, my ankle’s sprained, My ‘pendix pains each time it rains. My nose is cold, my toes are numb. I have a sliver in my thumb. My neck is stiff, my voice is weak, I hardly whisper when I speak. My tongue is filling up my mouth, I think my hair is falling out. My elbow’s bent, my spine ain’t straight, My temperature is one-o-eight. My brain is shrunk, I cannot hear, There is a hole inside my ear. I have a hangnail, and my heart is—what? What’s that? What’s that you say? You say today is. . .Saturday? G’bye, I’m going out to play!” [CUET 2023] 1. The long and never- ending list of sickness given by little Peggy in the poem shows that she is ______________. Choose the correct option from the following: (1) desperate to miss school (2) genuinely unwell (3) an obstinate and headstrong child (4) a neglected child 2. Assertion: The speaker lists a multitude of symptoms and ailments to convince others they are too sick to go to school. Reason: In the poem, the speaker genuinely believes they are seriously ill. (1) Both the assertion and reason are true. (2) Both the assertion and reason are false. (3) The assertion is true, but the reason is false. (4) The assertion is false, but the reason is true. 3. The literary device used by the poet to highlight the number of ailments Peggy Ann Mckay seems to suffer from is: (1) transferred epithet (2) oxymoron (3) hyperbole (4) asyndeton 4. According to the poem, what is the colour of Peggy Ann Mckay’s face? (1) Blue (2) Purple (3) Silver (4) Green

5. The predominant tone of the poem is____________. (1) satirical (2) humorous (3) melancholic (4) serious B. Rusty was a quiet, imaginative child who loved the natural world. He had grown up in the hills with his grandparents and had never known his parents. When his grandparents died, Rusty was sent to live with his father in the city. Rusty struggled to adapt to life in the city, missing the peace and quiet of the hills. He found solace in exploring the city’s parks and gardens, and in spending time with his new friend Somi. One day, while exploring a part, Rusty came across a group of monkeys. He was fascinated by their antics and spent hours watching them. As Rusty grew older, he continued to struggle with city life. He found himself yearning for the hills more and more, and eventually decided to return to his grandfather’s house. He was surprised to find that the house had been sold, but he was welcomed back by the new owners, a kind couple who had heard about Rusty from his grandfather. Rusty was thrilled to be back in the hills, surrounded by nature once again. He spent his days exploring the forests and meadows and made friends with the local wildlife. He also began to write stories about his experiences, and his writing talent was soon discovered by a publisher. Rusty went on to become a successful writer, but he never forgot the lessons he had learned in the hills about the importance of nature and the simple pleasure of life. [CUET 2023] 6. What did Rusty miss the most about the hills when he moved to the city? (1) The hustle and bustle (2) The tall buildings (3) The natural world (4) The shopping malls 7. Choose the options that does not help Rusty in becoming a successful writer: (1) fascinated by city life (2) lives peace and quiet (3) cherishes friendship with wildlife (4) enjoys simple pleasures 8. What happened to Rusty’s grandfather’s house after his grandparents died? (1) Rusty’s father moved in (2) The house was sold (3) The house was abandoned (4) The house was destroyed 9. Assertion: Rusty was able to reconnect with his roots and find happiness in the hills. Reason: Rusty’s return to the hills was facilitated by the kind couple who had heard about him from his grandfather. (1) Both the assertion and reason are true, and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion. (2) Both the assertion and reason are true, but the reason is NOT a correct explanation of the assertion. (3) The assertion is true, but the reason is false. (4) The assertion is false, but the reason is true. 10. Find another word for Astonished in the passage. (1) imaginative (2) exploring (3) discovered (4) surprised C. Your body is almost two-thirds water, so staying hydrated is important. Teenagers should aim to drink six to eight glasses of water per day, according to the British

9

READING COMPREHENSION

Nutrition Foundation. That number increases for teens who engage in sports or are especially active. Other good sources of fluid include 100 percent fruit juice and lowfat milk. Sugary and caffeinated drinks should be limited or eliminated from the diet completely as they provide excess sugar and empty calories. According to the Cleveland Clinic, teenagers need at least nine hours of sleep each night to function at their best during the day. It sounds easy enough, but with early school start times, late afternoon practices and hours of homework, getting enough sleep can be a challenge. Set a regular bedtime that allows for nine hours of sleep before you have to get up for school. You should also plan for at least an hour of “quiet time” prior to bedtime. The goal is for all electronics to be turned off for the night so that the brain and body relax. Quiet time may involve listening to soothing music or reading a book. [CUET 2023] 11. Why can’t teenagers get enough sleep? (A) early start at school (B) lot of work at school (C) lot of homework everyday (D) busy with friends Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) (A), (B), (C) and (D) (2) (A) and (C) only (3) (A), (C) and (D) only (4) (B), (C) and (D) only 12. Young people need to do the following in order to get a nine hour sleep: (A) switch off electronics before bedtime (B) switch off all electronics for the night (C) find quiet time before bedtime (D) find a quiet time & place to sleep Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) (B) and (C) only (2) (A), (B), (C) and (D) (3) (B), (C) and (D) only (4) (A), (B) and (C) only 13. Identify the adjective in the given sentence. Your body is almost two-thirds water. (1) Adjective of quality (2) Adjective of number (3) Adjective of quantity (4) Possessive Adjective 14. Match List I with List II LIST I

LIST II

(A) Modal

(I)

(B) Adjective

(II) Should be eliminated

(C) Adverb

(III) Sugary, caffeinated drinks

To be eliminated completely

(D) Passive voice (IV) Electronics to be turned off Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) (A)-(1), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV) (2) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV) (3) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III) (4) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (V)-(IV), (D)-(III) 15. Choose the heading that best explains the two sections in the text given. (A) Watch your beverage intake (B) Eat right, sleep tight (C) If you don’t snooze, you lose (D) Making time for friends Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) (A) and (C) only (2) (A) and (B) only (3) (B) and (C) only (4) (B) and (D) only

D. Add to cart, proceed to check-out, complete order. This was, and is to an extent, 39-year old brand consultant Satish Singh’s routine each time he got his pay-cheque. “My shopping addiction began when Flip-kart was the major player--way before Amazon came along.” He says. “It initially started with ordering books. It then became about finding deals online. When you are earning and have money at your disposal, you are tempted to buy things. Just like Singh, the convenience of online shopping tempted a lot of us to buy things; things we may not even have needed. Singh says he once spent ` 80,000 in three months. “I bought books, shoes and many other things.” He says. “It was a craze, it was also greed.” Singh confesses that his tendency to shop was more when he had a bad day. Bengaluru-based psychotherapist says that compulsive shopping can be a result of pending anxiety disorder. In my experience, compulsive shopping has been seen in people with a traumatic experience. Or those who have insecurities or have faced rejection.” Compulsive shopping, according to him, is an extreme symptom of an underlying condition. “The trauma or the rejection could have taken place between the ages of one and 10,” he says. “This usually manifests in adolescence. Shopping here can provide the same relief as a painkiller.” The pain or trauma can be anything from parental abstention, abuse (emotional or physical) or even financial or social insecurity, “The presumption that compulsive shopping is predominantly a female problem is wrong,” says Joseph. “It can affect men, too.” There are also shoppers who buy the product, return it and do this on a loop, he says. “Getting help is crucial,” adds Joseph. “Psychotherapy can help identify the underlying problem, find the root cause and help address it. One could also turn to parents or a trusted friend. Tell them about why you shop, how you feel when you shop; talk about it in detail. You could also ask them to keep a check on you - make it so that you need their permission to shop. Or, let them handle your debit/credit cards for a while. This will create a delay and help cut the urge.” Joseph also suggests writing down the trigger. “Write down what you intend to buy and why you need it,” he says. “Wait for two days and decide whether you need it. Most of the time, you would not buy it.” Most important, he says, seek help.  [CUET 2023] 16. Choose the statements that are true with regard to online shopping. A. The convenience tempts people to buy unnecessarily B. one becomes a compulsive shopper. C. It is noticeable in Adolescents D. Shopping here is like pain inducer E. It is predominantly a female problem Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) A, D, E only (2) A, C, D only (3) B, C, E only (4) A, B, C only 17. Assertion: Compulsive shopping can be a result of underlying conditions such as anxiety or trauma. Reason: The passage mentions that compulsive shopping is an extreme symptom of an underlying condition, which could include trauma or insecurities. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) Both the assertion and reason are true. (2) Both the assertion and reason are false.

10 Oswaal CUET (UG) Chapterwise Question Bank (3) The assertion is true, but the reason is false. (4) The assertion is false, but the reason is true. 18. Match List I with List II LIST I

LIST II

A Convenience

I A thing that is considered to be true

B Confess

II A situation that is useful, helpful or suitable

C Traumatic

III Unpleasant experience

D Presumption

IV To admit one’s wrongdoing

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV (2) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I (3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I (4) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV 19. Select the synonym for the word given below: Trauma (1) Elegant (2) Clear (3) Sane (4) Shock 20. Arrange the ideas expressed in the passage in the correct order from the options given below: A. The craze and greed of convenient shopping B. The start of the writer’s shopping addiction C. Identifying the underlying problem, finding the root cause and seeking help D. The way compulsive shopping manifests E. Reasons of pain or trauma Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) E, D, C, A, B (2) A, B, D, C, E (3) C, B, A, D, E (4) B. A, D, E, C E. Last year, the government notified new rules regarding the unmanned aircraft systems/vehicles. The “liberalised drone rules” are aimed at reducing paperwork, cutting the red tape and facilitating the government’s vision to make India the global drone hub by 2030. The use of drones-as-a- service in sectors like agriculture, mining, infrastructure, surveillance, emergency response, transportation, photography and videography, geospatial mapping, defence, and law enforcement is being encouraged. In sectors like e-commerce, retail and health, drone technology is being seen as a game changer in the last-mile delivery of goods. Delhi Police has also been frequently using drones in monitoring law and order of late. A separate unit for drones is also being planned. When asked about the new regulations in place, senior aviation and police officers said that all drones must be registered with the DGCA, and operators must have a license to fly them. A fine of up to one lakh rupees can be levied on violations. “Registrations can be done on the ‘Digital Sky’ platform operated by the DGCA, which is a single- window online platform for drone approvals. The operators must be over 18 years of age and trained from a DGCA-approved institution,” an official said. According to the new rules, a drone operating license, issued on the basis of a remote pilot certificate, is valid for 10 years and a certificate is not required for operating nano drones (weighing employs (ii) For words ending in ‘y’, retain the ‘y’ when adding ing. Example: try > trying, justify > justifying, certify > certifying, study > studying (iii) For words ending in ‘y’, preceded by a consonant, change the ‘y’ to ‘i’ before any other suffix. Example: certify > certifiable, mystify > mystified, laboratory > laboratories EXCEPTIONS: Words like dryness, shyness Rule 4: (i) ‘t ’ or ‘tt’ when adding ‘-ing’, ‘-ed’ and some suffixes to verbs Example: rot > rotting, rotted, rotten, fit > fitting, fitted, knot > knotting, knotted (ii) DOUBLE the ‘t’ for verbs of more than one syllable when the stress is on the last syllable. Example: abet > abetting, abetting allot > allotting, allotted, commit > committing, committed, emit > emitting, emitted EXCEPTIONS: DO NOT DOUBLE the ‘t’ for verbs of one syllable with a double vowel or a long vowel sound (e.g., treat > treating, treated; greet > greeting, greeted). Rule 5: ‘r’ or ‘rr’ when adding ‘-ing’, ‘-ed’ and some suffixes to verbs (i) DOUBLE the ‘r’ for verbs of one syllable when the final ‘r’ is preceded by a single vowel. Example: star > starring, starred, > warring, warred (but warfare) scar > scarring, scarred , stir > stirring, stirred (ii) DOUBLE the ‘r; for words of more than one syllable when the stress does not fall on the first syllable. Example: concur > concurring, concurred, concurrence occur > occurring, occurred, occurrence defer > deferring, deferred, (but deference) deter > deterring, deterring, deterrent EXCEPTIONS: DO NOT DOUBLE the ‘r’ for verbs of one syllable when the final ‘r’ is preceded by a double vowel (e.g., fear>fearing, feared) DO NOT DOUBLE the ‘r’ for words of more than one syllable, when the stress falls on the first syllable (e.g., prosper > prospered, prospering). Rule 6: drop the final ‘e’ (i) DROP the ‘e’ when the suffix starts with a vowel. Example: save > savable, use > usable (ii) DROP the ‘e’ when the word ends in ‘-dge’. Example: judge > judgment (iii) DROP the final ‘e’ when adding ‘-ing’ Example: save >saving, manage > managing, trace > tracing, emerge > emerging DO NOT DROP the ‘e’ if the word ends in ‘c’e or ge (e.g., manage > manageable, trace > traceable) Rule 7: Word endings such as able/ible, ant/ance; ent/ence Examples: negligible, incredible, invisible, sensible, admirable, preventable, suitable, dependable attendance, ignorance, nuisance, importance sentence, difference, independence, intelligence Rule 8: Silent letters Some words include letters which are not pronounced when the word is spoken. Examples: advertisement, campaign, column, debt, design, doubt, gauge, ghetto, heir, knife, knowledge, island, mortgage, often, pneumatic, rhythm, solemn, subtle Rule 9: The letter “q” is always followed by “u”. Examples: quiz, bouquet, acquire

98 Oswaal CUET (UG) Chapterwise Question Bank  LIST OF COMMONLY MISSPELT WORDS Autumn Conscience Accommodate Cigarette Accustom Colloquial Agility Commemorate Athlete Competition Accommodate Convenient Acquaintance Conceive Assailant Condemn Aggregate Curriculum Acquiesce Deceive Abbreviate Discernible Ascetic Deficiency Annihilate Dialogue Appropriate Descendant Aerodrum Division Architecture Dilemma Deteriorate Leniency Alcohol Dysentery Adherent Ecclesiastical Abhorrence Etiquette Accessible Erroneous Acknowledgement Exaggeration Acquittal Ecstasy Apparatus Equilibrium Amateur Exchequer Appetite Extravagance Acclamation Efficiency Affectionate Efficacious Aesthetic Embarrass Alienate Fallacious Ambassador Fascinate Ambition Facilitate Assassin Felicitate Bankruptcy Freight Beneficent Favourable Behaviour Fourth Bequeath Genuine Besiege Guarantee Bureaucracy Gorgeous Budget Grievance Buffoon Grotesque Circumstance Geometry Commitment Grammar Committee Gazette Condescend Harassment Connoisseur Heinous Correspondence Heterogenous Counterfeit Hygiene Catalogue Inflammable Convalesce Incarcerate

Irresistible Irrelevant Irreparable Indefatigable Indigenous Incorrigible Juggler Jealousy Jubilee Juvenile Knave Kitchen Knee Knight Kneeled Knives Rupee Leisure Laurel Luxurious Lieutenant Manageable Magnificent Martyr Manoeuvre Misdemeanour Meagre Moustache Mosquito Missionary Millionaire Massacre Museum Mischievous Musician Noticeable Nuisance Neighbour Necessary Necessitate Occurrence Omitted Oscillate Ominous Parallel Pneumonia Proletariat Perceive Proprietor Perspicuous

Phenomenon Physique Psychology Potato Pharmaceutical Pursue Quarrel Queue Quinine Rogue Routine Regrettable Restaurant Repetition Referee Rehearsal Reconnaissance Sceptre Scissors Schedule Strategy Simultaneous Symmetrical Soliloquy Sovereign Stomach Technique Transience Tenacious Transgressor Utterance Vacation Vaccination Vicissitude Vocabulary Vicious Villainous Wednesday Weigh Woollen Written Writing Xenomania Xylography Yawning Yeoman Zodiac Zealous Zootomy

ENGLISH

99

VOCABULARY

•

absense (absence)

•

kernal (kernel)

•

adress (address)

•

liesure (leisure)

• advise, the verb, is often switched with advice, the noun.

•

liason (liaison)

•

alot (a lot)

•

libary (library)

•

aquit (acquit)

•

lisense (license)

•

arguement (argument)

•

maintainance (maintenance)

•

artic (arctic)

•

medevil or mideval (medieval)

•

begining (beginning)

•

millenium (millennium)

•

beleive (believe)

•

miniture (miniature)

•

broccolli (broccoli)

•

miniscule (minuscule)

•

borough and bureau are confused

•

mischievious (mischievous)

•

calender (calendar)

•

mispell (misspell)

•

comraderie (camaraderie)

•

momento (memento–momento is Spanish for “moment”)

•

cieling (ceiling)

•

misterious (mysterious)

•

cemetary (cemetery)

•

neccessary (necessary)

•

changable (changeable)

•

nieghbour (neighbour)

•

collegue (colleague)

•

noticable (noticeable)

•

consciencious (conscientious)

•

occassion (occasion)

•

concious (conscious)

•

occurence (occurrence)

•

daquiri (daiquiri)

•

oddyssey (odyssey)

•

decieve (deceive)

•

peice (piece)

•

definately (definitely)

•

playwrite (playwright)

•

desparate (desperate)

•

preceed (precede)

•

disasterous (disastrous)

•

presance (presence)

•

dumbell (dumbbell)

•

privelege (privilege)

•

embarass (embarrass)

•

prophecy is a noun, while prophesy is a verb.

•

enviroment (environment)

•

pumkin (pumpkin)

•

existance (existence)

•

rasberry (raspberry)

•

experiance (experience)

•

recieve (receive)

•

facinating (fascinating)

•

rtyhm (rhythm)

•

Febuary (February)

•

sacriligious (sacrilegious)

•

firey (fiery)

•

sience (science)

•

flourescent (fluorescent)

•

sissors (scissors)

•

foriegn (foreign)

•

seperate (separate)

•

goverment (government)

•

sinserely (sincerely)

•

gratefull or greatful (grateful)

•

supercede (supersede)

•

gaurantee (guarantee)

•

thorough and through are often mixed up

•

harrass (harass)

•

truely (truly)

•

hieght (height)

•

untill (until, or till)

•

hipocrite (hypocrite)

•

Wensday (Wednesday)

•

humerous (humorous)

•

wether (whether)

•

innoculate (inoculate)

•

wich (which, or witch)

•

independant (independent)

•

wierd (weird)

•

you’re is often used in place of your

100 Oswaal CUET (UG) Chapterwise Question Bank

ENGLISH

EXAMPLES: 1. From the given options, select the rightly speltword:  [CUET 2022] (1) Katastrophic (2) Catestrefic (3) Catastrophic (4) Catostrofik Ans. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: It means causing sudden and very great harm or destruction. 2. From the given options, select the rightly speltword: [CUET 2022] (1) Kamunism (2) Communism (3) Cummonism (4) Cumunism Ans. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: It means the political system in which the state owns and controls all factories, farms, services, etc. and aims to treat everyone equally. D. FIGURE OF SPEECH Scan to know

more about  The figure of speech is a crucial part of learning the English language. An interesting thing about the figure of this topic speech is that it is not only limited to the English or the European languages but is present in all languages. The figure of speech adds a special kind of zest to the way language is spoken and understood. It is especially a very important part of writing skills related to literature. A figure of speech is typically used to clarify, emphasise, or embellish certain things in written and spoken vocabulary. Top-22 Figures 1. Simile of Speech in English This is a comparison of one thing with something else using the word like or the word as. A simile may compare two things with qualities that do not seem related. Examples: As tall as a mountain. Eats like a pig. The moon is like a balloon. 2. Metaphor This is the extended form of Simile. The comparison is wide without the using of like or as. Examples: She is the apple of my eye. The moon is a balloon. Heart of stone. 3. Synecdoche It means using a part of something to refer to the whole of something. Examples: He bought a fancy new set of wheels. The captain commands one hundred sails (sails refers to part of the ships, hence they refer to ‘ships’) 4. Alliteration Words beginning with the same consonant sound placed in close proximity. Examples: Peter Piper picked a peck of pickled peppers. Nick needed new notebooks. 5. Personification This type of figure of speech is constructed by attributing certain human characteristics to otherwise inanimate objects. Examples: Opportunity knocked at his/her door. Time flies when you’re having fun. 6. Hyperbole In this figure of speech, there is the use of exaggeration to create more impression on the readers or listeners. Examples: Joseph, the hunter, killed four lions barehanded. This helmet is killing me. 7. Assonance It is the repetition of identical or similar vowel sound among nearby words. Example: The rain in Spain stays mainly in the plain.

VOCABULARY

101

8. Irony It is a statement using language to mean the opposite of the literal meaning. Examples: A flat tyre! This is my lucky day! “Water, water, everywhere, Not any drop to drink.” 9. Antithesis In this figure of speech, there is the use of linking contrasting ideas. Examples: Many are called, but few are chosen. God made the country, and man made the town. 10. Onomatopoeia A word that is formed by imitating the sound of the thing or action being described. Examples: Buzz, zipp, hisss, zap, bang. 11. Tautology A phrase in which an idea is stated twice, using different words. Example: She told me all about her unlucky misfortune. 12. Apostrophe Anapostrophe is a direct address to the dead, to the absent, or to a personified object or idea. This figure is a special form of Personification. Example: O judgement! thou art fled to brutish beasts. 13. Oxymoron Oxymoron is a unique form of antithesis, whereby two contradictory qualities are predicted at once of the same thing. Examples: So innocent arch, so cunningly simple. She accepted it as the kind cruelty of the surgeon’s knife. 14. Epigram An epigram is a brief pointed saying, frequently introducing antithetical ideas which excite surprise and arrest attention. Examples: The child is father of the man. A man can’t be too careful in the choice of his enemies. 15. Pun A pun consists in the use of a word in such a way that it is capable of more than one application, the object being to produce a ludicrous effect. Examples: Is life worth living? It depends upon the liver. An ambassadoris an honest man who lies abroad for the good of his country. 16. Transferred Epithet In this figure of speech an epithet is transferred from its proper word to another that is closely associated with it in the sentence. Examples: He passed a sleepless night. The ploughman homeward plods his weary way. 17. Litotes In litotes, an affirmative is conveyed by negation of the opposite, the effect being to suggest a strong expression by means of a weaker. It is the opposite of hyperbole. Examples: I am a citizen of no mean (= a very celebrated) city. The man is no fool (= very clever).

102 Oswaal CUET (UG) Chapterwise Question Bank

ENGLISH

EXAMPLES: 1. From the given options, select the figure of speech or the poetic device used in expression. ‘Both wry with the laboured ease of loss” (1) Simile (2) Personification (3) Oxymoron (4) Metaphor Ans. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: An oxymoron is a figure of speech that combines contradictory words with opposing meanings; here Laboured ease- two opposite words are used together. Laboured means forced and Ease means comfort. 2. From the given options, select the figure of speech(Poetic Device) used in the expression. “The smiling young tress provided a strange comfort.” (1) Personification (2) Metaphor (3) Simile (4) Oxymoron Ans. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: The attribution of personal nature or human characteristics to something non-human, or the representation of an abstract quality in human form. Trees are attributed to human qualities like being young and smiling. E. ANALOGY  An analogy is a rhetorical device and a cognitive tool used to compare two things, often to explain or clarify a concept, idea, or relationship. It involves drawing a parallel between two seemingly different or unrelated subjects, highlighting similarities between them to help the audience better understand the subject being discussed. Analogies are used in various fields, including literature, science, mathematics, and everyday conversation, to make complex or abstract ideas more accessible.  Analogies typically consist of two main components:  Target: The subject or idea that you want to explain or elaborate on. This is the main focus of the analogy.  Source: The subject or idea used for comparison, which is more familiar to the audience and shares certain similarities with the target. The source is used to shed light on the target. For example: consider the following analogy: “Life is like a journey. Just as a traveler faces obstacles and makes choices along the way, so do individuals encounter challenges and make decisions in their lives.” In this analogy: Target: “Life” Source: “Journey” By comparing life to a journey, the analogy suggests that, like a traveller navigating a path, individuals must navigate their own path through life, encountering obstacles and making choices.  TYPES OF ANALOGIES a. Simple Word Analogies Word analogies, or verbal analogies, are like logic puzzles. These compare two different things by Scan to know more about breaking them into parts to see how they are related. A word analogy looks like this: this topic Kitten is to cat as puppy is to dog b. Synonym Relationships Synonym relationships are words that mean the same thing. If the first two words in the analogy are synonyms, then the second set of words must be synonyms as well. Types of Analogy A synonym analogy looks like this:  friendly is to kind as mean is to aggressive  rough is to scratchy as smooth is to silky  delicious is to yummy as gross is to yucky  adorable is to cute as scary is to creepy c. Antonym Relationships Analogies that show antonyms are opposites. The first two words in the analogy (for example, hot : cold) should have the same opposite relationship as the second words in the analogy (for example, happy : sad). Examples of analogies with antonym relationships include:  good is to bad as black is to white  smile is to frown as pretty is to ugly  near is to far as open is to closed  strong is to weak as love is to hate d. Part to Whole The analogy relationships get trickier when you get past synonyms and antonyms, where word order doesn’t matter. Word order matters in a part to whole relationship, in which the first word is a part of something, and the second word is the whole thing.

103

VOCABULARY

For example:  Feather is to bird as fur is to dog  Wolf is to pack as fish is to school e. Tool to Action Sometimes an analogy relationship lists a tool to the action it performs. In these cases, the order will go noun, verb, noun, verb. Examples of tool and action relationships include:  Pencil is to write as scissors is to cut  Kitchen is to cook as bedroom is to sleep f. Person to Action Similar to tool and action relationships are person to action relationships. These analogies include a person rather than an object who performs the action. For example:  Artist is to draw as movie star is to act  Teacher is to instruct as accountant is to count g. Category to Example Category to example is similar to whole to part. It lists a category of items first and then an example of that category second. Examples of category to example analogies include:  Cow is to mammal as snake is to reptile  Apple is to fruit as carrot is to vegetable h. Cause to Effect Cause to effect relationships can be nouns or verbs. However, they need to be the exact same relationship on both sides of the analogy. For example:  Eat is to fed as sleep is to rested  Study is to pass as don’t study is to fail EXAMPLES: 1. Which among the following pair of words carry the same relationship as –  [CUET 2023] Fear fearfully A. Charm - charmingly B. Day - daily C. Fun - funny D. Lay - lazy E. King - kingly Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) B only (2) E only (3) A only (4) C only Ans. Option (2) is correct. 2. From the given options, select the one that carries the same relation as: ‘Retreat: Advance’ (1) Garrulous: Talkative (2) Oblivion: Forgetfulness (3) Savage: Civilised (4) Obstinate: Stubborn Ans. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: The given pair has two opposite terms and so has option 3.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS 1. Which of the following expresses the correct meaning of – ‘set the stage’? [CUET 2023] (1) To make it possible for something to happen (2) To arrange stage for audience (3) To provoke someone (4) To get frustrated 2. Choose the appropriate option: [CUET 2023] The word ‘SINE DIE’ is the substitution for: (1) After the death (2) Since the death (3) For an indefinite period (4) From beginning to end 3. Find the appropriate meaning for the underlined Idiom: I am afraid I am in the boss’s bad books: [CUET 2023] A. Out of luck B. gave me a torn book C. Boss is an idiot D. out of favour E. afraid of boss

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) A only (2) D only (3) C only (4) E only 4. Match List - I with List - II.  [CUET 2023] List I

List II

(A) literati

(I)

masterpiece

(B) ennui

(II)

style or type

(C) magnum opus

(IIII) boredom

(D) genre

(IV)

educated and intelligent people who enjoy literature Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) (A)-(II), (B)-(1), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV) (2) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II) (3) (A)-(1), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV) (4) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)

104 Oswaal CUET (UG) Chapterwise Question Bank 5. Choose the correct option from the four options given:  [CUET 2023] A speech delivered without previous preparation is: (1) Soliloquy (2) Rhetoric (3) Extempore (4) Expression 6. Identify the correct ones: [CUET 2023] (A) go-went-gone (B) bring-brought-brought (C) mistake-mistook-mistook (D) steal-stole-stole (E) take-taken-taken Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) (A), (B), (C) Only (2) (A), (B), (D) Only (3) (A), (B) Only (4) (A), (B), (C), (D) Only 7. Choose the option that conveys the nearest meaning of the idiom- At sixes and sevens [CUET 2023] (1) to give a poor show (2) to be unable to decide (3) in disorder and confusion (4) observant and watchful 8. Identify the correct ones: [CUET 2023] (A) go-went-gone (B) bring-brought-brought (C) mistake-mistook-mistook (D) steal-stole-stole (E) take-taken-taken Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) (A), (B), (C) Only (2) (A), (B), (D) Only (3) (A), (B) Only (4) (A), (B), (C), (D) Only 9. Choose the correct substitute from the four options given:  [CUET 2023] A figure of speech where an object is addressed as the thing that it resembles. (1) Metaphor (2) Simile (3) Personification (3) Alliteration 10. Match the idioms given in List I with their meanings from List II.  [CUET 2023] List I (Idioms) (A) Through grapevine

List II (Meaning) the

(I)

To bribe

(B) Grease someone’s palm

(II)

Fear of something

doing

ENGLISH

12. Identify the meaning of ‘cosmopolitan’ from the following options: [CUET 2023] (1) Experience of a wide variety of things (2) Deeply involved with politics (3) Expressing great interest in cosmology (4) Living in many places at the same time 13. Pick the suitable option which gives the correct meaning of the underlined idiom: Sanya kept blowing her own trumpet throughout the party. [CUET 2023] (1) Chatting continuously (2) Irritating everyone (3) Singing loudly (4) Praising herself 14. The idiom- “wash your hands of something” means:  [CUET 2023] (1) to sanitize one’s hands (2) to be really interested (3) to have nothing to do with (4) to win something 15. Which of these words has the following meaning:  [CUET 2023] “a period of 1000 years” (1) Millenium

(2) Honorarium

(3) Bibliomania

(4) Century

16. Match List- I with List-II List I

[CUET 2022] List II

(A) Cortege

(I)

a poem of lamentation on the death of someone loved and admired.

(B) Elegy

(II)

A funeral procession comprising a number of mourning.

(C) Obituary

(IIII) an account in the newspaper about the funeral of a deceased.

(D) Epitaph

(IV)

words inscribed on the grave/tomb in the memory of the one buried.

(C) Pull the wool over (IIII) Gossip your eyes

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(D) Get cold feet

(2) (A)-(1), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)

(IV)

To fool someone

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (2) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I (4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II 11. ‘Manoeuvered’ is one word substitution for __________.  [CUET 2023] (A) Method of decorating (B) Activity of selling goods (C) Ways of travelling (D) Ways of accomplishing a task (E) Ways of achieving your aims by being clever Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) (A) Only (2) (B) Only (3) (C) & (D) Only (4) (E) Only

(1) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV) (3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I) (4) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(1), (D)-(IV) 17. From the given options choose the pair of words that carry the same relationship as:  [CUET 2022] Virtue Morality (A) Sin Profane (B) Law Chaos (C) Day Night (D) Story Novel Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) (B) only (2) (A) only (3) (C) only (4) (D)only

105

VOCABULARY

18. From the given options choose the pair of words that carry the same relationship as Anonymous Famous  [CUET 2022] (1) Man Machine (2) Earth Soil (3) Rose Jasmine (4) Pistol Gun 19. Choose an appropriate word that means the following:  [CUET 2022] “Speaking one’ thoughts a lord to oneself” (1) Monologue (2) Chorus (3) Soliloquy (4) Dialogue 20. From the given options, choose the one with thecorrect spelling:  [CUET 2022] (1) Beeblical (2) Biblical (3) Beebilical (4) Viblical 21. Identify the correct spelling from the given options:  (CUET 2022) (1) logical (2) logicall (3) liogical (4) logical 22. What figure of speech (poetic devices) has been used in the following expression: The child smiled like a blooming flower. [CUET 2022] (1) Simile (2) Irony (3) Paradox (4) Oxymoron 23. Choose the word that denotes one that is in a war- like mood. [CUET 2022] (1) Veteran (2) Virtuoso (3) Belligerent (4) Bohemian 24. From the given options, choose the pair of words which carry the same relationship as Allegory: Fable  [CUET 2022] (1) Church: Chapel (2) Monastry: Hospital (3) Park: House (4) Politics: Army 25. From the given options, choose the pair of words which carry the same relationship as Extempore: Rehearse  [CUET 2022] (A) Beautiful: Serene (B) Fatigue: Exhaustion (C) Battle: Peace (D) Infant: Child 26. Pick the correct spelling from the options given:  [CUET 2022] (A) glorious (B) gleotious (C) glamrious ( D) gelorious 27. From the given options, choose the correct figure of speech that has been used in the following expression:  [CUET 2022] “Cowards die many times before their death.” (1) Simile (2) Metaphor (3) Alliteration (4) Paradox 28. From the given options, select the word that will correctly substitutes the expression “Happening once in a hundred years” [CUET 2022] (1) Bicentennial (2) Centennial (3) Annual (4) Biennial 29. From the given options, select the rightly speltword.  [CUET 2022] (1) Commution (2) Comotion (3) Commotion (4) Kommotion 30. From the given options, select the rightly speltword.  [CUET 2022] (1) Funerary (2) Funrery (3) Funarery (4) Funurary 31. From the given options, select the word that correctly substitutes the expression “Event that serves as an introduction” [CUET 2022] (1) Epilogue (2) Post-Script (3) Prologue (4) Summary

32. From the given options, select the rightly speltword.  [CUET 2022] (1) Rasseraction (2) Resurrection (3) Reereksion (4) Ressurektion 33. From the given pair of words, select the one that carries the same relations as- Lazy: listless (1) Affection: Aversion (2) Dusk: Dawn (3) Foolish: Fatuous (4) Brainy: Barmy 34. From the given pair of words, select the one that carries the same relations as- Protagonist:Antagonist  [CUET 2022] (1) Primitive: Ancient (2) Eagerness: Insensitivity (3) Follower: Disciple (4) Deficient: Scarce 35. From the given pair of words, select the one that carries the same relations as Shriek: Whisper [CUET 2022] (1) Cautions: Negligent (2) Prohibit: Forbid (3) Refined: Elegant (4) Transient: Temporary 36. Identity the figure of speech which has been used in the following expression: The tanned teenager tripped over the steps.  [CUET 2022] (1) Alliteration (2) Paradox (3) Metaphor (4) Personification 37. From the given options, choose the one that rightly explains the given expression ‘To shed crocodile tears’ [CUET 2022] (1) To weep profusely (2) To grieve and feel low (3) To grieve insincerely (4) To weep for crocodiles 38. From the given options, choose the one that rightly explains the given expression ‘Take one fora ride’ [CUET 2022] (1) To force someone for a ride (2) To take someone for a desire (3) To try to trick someone (4) To offer a lift to someone 39. Match the List-I with List-II  [CUET 2022] List I Expression

List II Figure of Speech



(A) Sing simple sweet song

(I)

Oxymoron

(B) Sister Nivedita was like an angel

(II)

Personification

(C) The sinister night was howling

(IIII) Simile

(D) The simple complexities made life interesting

(IV)

Alliteration

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) (III), (D) - (IV) (2) (A) - (III), (B) (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I) (3) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III) (4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I) 40. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/ Phrase: “Hobson’s choice” (1) Excellent choice (2) No choice at all (3) Choice to live or die (3) Bigman’s choice

106 Oswaal CUET (UG) Chapterwise Question Bank

ENGLISH

ANSWER KEY 1. (1)

2. (3)

3. (2)

4. (2)

5. (3)

6. (3)

7. (3)

8. (3)

9. (1)

10. (4)

11. (4)

12. (1)

13. (4)

14. (3)

15. (1)

16. (4)

17. (1)

18. (1)

19. (3)

20. (2)

21. (1)

22. (1)

23. (3)

24. (1)

25. (3)

26. (1)

27 (4)

28. (2)

29. (3)

30. (1)

31. (3)

32. (2)

33. (3)

34. (2)

35. (1)

36. (1)

37. (3)

38. (3)

39. (4)

40. (2)

ANSWERS WITH EXPLANATION 1. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: It means to create the necessary conditions or prepare the environment for an event or situation to occur. 2. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: In legal contexts, “sine die” is often used to indicate that a meeting or session is adjourned without a specific date for it to reconvene, meaning it’s adjourned indefinitely. 3. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: The idiom “in the boss’s bad books” means being in disfavour or not on good terms with the boss, indicating a negative relationship or unfavourable position at work. 4. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: In this matching, “literati” refers to educated and intelligent individuals who have a passion for literature, “ennui” signifies a feeling of boredom, “magnum opus” represents a masterpiece, and “genre” is a category or style of artistic expression, such as in literature or music. 5. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: An extempore speech is delivered spontaneously or without prior planning or preparation. 6. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: These options follow the standard past tense and past participle forms, while the others do not. 7. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: This idiom is used to describe a state of confusion or disarray. 8. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: These options follow the standard past tense and past participle forms, while the others do not. 9. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: A metaphor is a figure of speech that describes an object or action in a way that isn’t literally true, but helps explain an idea or make a comparison. 10. Option (4) is correct. Explanation: A. “Through the grapevine” means hearing information informally or through gossip channels, which aligns with “Gossip.” B. “Grease someone’s palm” means to bribe someone, which matches “To bribe.” C. “Pull the wool over your eyes” means to deceive or fool someone, corresponding to “To fool someone.” D. “Get cold feet” means to experience fear or reluctance to do something, fitting with “Fear of doing something.” 11. Option (4) is correct. Explanation: “Manoeuvered” is a word that describes achieving goals through clever and strategic actions. It aligns with the idea of achieving aims by being clever or shrewd. 12. Option (1) is correct.

Explanation: Cosmopolitan means containing or having experience of people and things from many different parts of the world. 13. Option (4) is correct. Explanation: The idiom “blowing your own trumpet” means to boast or brag about one’s own achievements or abilities. 14. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: It indicates a desire or action to disassociate oneself from a situation or responsibility. 15. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: A millennium refers to a period of 1000 years. 16. Option (4) is correct. Explanation: (A) Cortege: (II) A cortege refers to a funeral procession that includes mourners accompanying the deceased to their final resting place. (B) Elegy: (I) An elegy is a poem or song that expresses sorrow and mourning for someone who has died, often celebrating their life and virtues. (C) Obituary: (III) An obituary is a written notice in a newspaper or online publication that provides information about a person’s death, along with a brief biography. (D) Epitaph: (IV) An epitaph is a short inscription or set of words engraved on a tombstone or monument to honor and remember the person buried there. 17. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: Both “Virtue” and “Morality” are related to principles of goodness and ethics, just as “Law” and “Chaos” are related to principles of order and disorder. 18. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: In this pair, “Anonymous” and “Man” represent the opposite of “Famous” and “Machine,” respectively. “Anonymous” means unknown or not famous, while “Man” is the opposite of “Machine,” which is an inanimate object. 19. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: A soliloquy is a speech or conversation with oneself, often used in literature and drama to reveal a character’s inner thoughts and feelings. 20. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: The correct spelling is “Biblical”, referring to something related to the Bible. It is accurate and standard spelling. 21. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: The correct spelling is “logical”. It is accurate and the standard spelling of the word, meaning reasonable and rational. 22. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: A simile makes a comparison between two unlike things using “like” or “as,” which is evident here with the comparison between the child’s smile and a blooming flower.

VOCABULARY

23. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: “Belligerent” refers to a person who is displaying a hostile, aggressive, or war-like attitude or mood. It implies a readiness to engage in conflict or warfare. 24. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: In an allegory, a story or narrative often represents a deeper or symbolic meaning, just as a chapel is a smaller place of worship related to a larger church. Thank you for pointing out the correct answer. 25. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: In the case of “Extempore,” it means doing something without prior preparation or rehearsal. Similarly, in the pair “Battle: Peace,” a battle is an event characterised by conflict or lack of peace, just as extempore speaking is characterized by a lack of rehearsal. 26. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: The correct spelling is “glorious”. It means magnificent or splendid. The other options contain misspelt words lings and are incorrect. 27. Option (4) is correct. Explanation: A paradox is a statement that appears self-contradictory or illogical but may reveal deeper truths upon closer examination. In this expression, the idea that cowards “die many times before their death” is paradoxical, suggesting that their fear and anxiety make their lives feel like a series of small deaths. 28. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: Bi means ‘two’, ‘twice’ or’ double’.Annual means ‘yearly. So, the options carrying these prefixes can be eliminated. Finally,’Centennial’ is left which will be the correct answer. Further, ‘Cent-’means ‘hundred’. 29. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: Practice of writing the words helps in remembering the correct spellings.’Commotion’ means a state of uproar or unrest. E.g. The commotion was ultimately brought to an end, and the peace was reinstated. 30. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: Practice of writing the words helps in remembering the correct spellings. Funerary means relating to burial ceremonies. E.g. He was buried alongside elite members of society but lacked elaborate funerary goods. 31. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: The prefix ‘pro’ means earlier in sequence. Therefore ‘prologue’ serves the meaning of the given expression. 32. Option (2) is correct.

107 Explanation: Resurrection Practice of writing the words helps in remembering the correct spellings. It means bringing back something that has not existed. E.g. They did not believe in any form of resurrection. 33. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: Except option ‘C’, other options are pair of antonyms, whereas option ‘C’ has the same meaning words i.e., foolish and fatuous (childish). 34. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: Protagonist (hero) and antagonist(opponent) are antonyms. So, option ‘2’matches with it as it has pair of words that are opposite in meaning. The options ‘1’, ‘3’ and’4’ have similar meaning pairs of words. 35. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: Shriek which means scream is different from whisper which means undertone. Therefore option ‘A’ suits here as both the words in the pair have different meanings. Otherwise, words in the rest of the options carry similar meanings. 36. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: Alliteration is the repetition of consonant sounds at the beginning of words in close proximity. In this case, the repetition of the “t” sound in “tanned teenager” and “tripped” is an example of alliteration. 37. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: Expression ‘Crocodile tears’ is used to show pretending behaviour. E.g. I have never been one to shed crocodile tears over the loss of our shipbuilding industry. 38. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: Take out the unwanted or unsuitable meanings to reach the right answer. The idiom is used to show that someone is being cheated or deceived. E.g., I think we have been taken for a ride. 39. Option (4) is correct. Explanation: (A) “Sing simple sweet song” - (IV) Alliteration, as it involves the repetition of the “s” sound. (B) “Sister Nivedita was like an angel” - (III) Simile, as it uses “like” to compare Nivedita to an angel. (C) “The sinister night was howling” - (II) Personification, as it gives human-like qualities (howling) to the nonhuman entity (night). (D) “The simple complexities made life interesting” (I) Oxymoron, as it combines contradictory terms “simple” and “complexities.” 40. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: “Hobson’s choice” refers to a situation where someone is given only one option or no real choice, making it effectively not a choice at all.

PRACTICE PAPER-1 Maximum Marks: 200

Time: 45 Minutes

Important Instructions: (i) This paper consists of 50 MCQs, attempt any 40 out of 50 (ii) Correct answer or the most appropriate answer: Five marks (+ 5) (iii) Any incorrect option market will be given minus one mark (– 1) (iv) Unanswered/Marked for Review will be given no mark (0) (v) If more than one option is found to be correct then. Five marks (+5) will be awarded to only those who have marked any of the correct options. (vi) If all options are found to be correct then Five marks (+5) will be awarded to all those who have attempted the question. (vii) Calculator/any electronic gadgets are not permitted. (vii) If none of the options is found correct or a question is found to be wrong or a Question is dropped then all candidates who have appeared will be given five marks (+5). I. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follows: A. She took me by the hand and walked me into the lobby like a five-year old child. Didn’t she know I was pushing 15? This was the third home Nancy was placing me in a span of eight months! I guess she felt a little sorry for me. The bright fluorescence lights threatened to burn my skin as I walked towards a bouncy-looking lady with curly hair and a sweetly smiling man. They called themselves Allie and Alex. Cute, I thought. After they exchanged the usual reams of paperwork, I was off in their Chevy Suburban to get situated into another new home. This time, there were no other foster children and nor another biological child. Anything could happen. Over the next few weeks, Allie, Alex and I fell into quite a nice routine. She’d make pancakes for breakfast, or he’d fry up some sausage and eggs. They sang a lot, even danced as they cooked. They must have just bought the house because, most weekends, we were either painting a living room butter yellow or staining a coffee table mocha brown. I kept waiting for the other shoe to drop. When would they start threatening the loss of pancakes if I didn’t mow the lawn? When would the sausage and eggs be replaced with unidentifiable slosh because he didn’t feel like cooking in the morning? But it never happened. They kept cooking, singing, and dancing like a couple of happy fools. It was a Saturday afternoon when Allie decided it was time to paint the brick fireplace white. As we crawled closer to the dirty old fire pit, we pulled out the petrified wood and noticed a teeny-tiny treasure box! We looked at each other in wonder and excitement. She actually said,” I wonder if the leprechauns left it!” 1. Over the next few weeks who all fell into a nice comfortable routine? Select the correct option: (1) Nancy (2) Allie and Nancy (3) The narrator, Allie and Alex (4) Only Alex

2. “She took me by the hand and walked me into the lobby ... “. The ‘me’ refers to the: (1) Narrator and the protagonist of the passage (2) Narrator and the footballer (3) A film star and a villain (4) The headmaster of an English School 3. On a Sunday afternoon, what did Allie decide to do? Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) Crawl towards the dirty old garage (2) Paint the brick fire pit white (3) Sing a song (4) Write a letter to the President 4. A word meaning ‘terrified’ in the passage is: (1) threatening (2) petrified (3) excitement (4) biological 5. Match List I with List II LIST I

LIST II

A Nancy

I

Treated the narrator as if he was a 5 year old child

B Allie

II

Made pancakes for breakfast

C Alex

III Fried sausages and eggs

D Narrator

IV Was placed in the 3rd home

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (3) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II (4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III B. Read the passages carefully and attempt the following questions. The Great Barrier Reef, located off the coast of Queensland, Australia, is the world’s largest coral reef system. It stretches over 2,300 kilometers (1,430 miles) and covers an area of approximately 344,400 square kilometers (133,000 square miles). The reef is a natural wonder, renowned for its stunning biodiversity and vibrant coral formations. Composed of nearly 3,000 individual reefs and 900 islands, the Great Barrier Reef is home to a vast array of marine life. It supports over 1,500 species of fish, 400 species of coral, and various species of sharks, rays,

109

PRACTICE PAPER 1

and marine mammals. It also provides critical breeding grounds for sea turtles and is a habitat for countless bird species. The reef’s incredible biodiversity and unique ecosystems have earned it a place on the UNESCO World Heritage List. It is not only a site of ecological significance but also plays a crucial role in scientific research and environmental conservation efforts. However, the Great Barrier Reef faces numerous threats, including climate change, coral bleaching, pollution, overfishing, and coastal development. Rising sea temperatures have led to widespread coral bleaching events, which weaken the corals and disrupt the delicate balance of the ecosystem. Efforts to protect and preserve the reef have been ongoing, with initiatives focused on reducing carbon emissions, improving water quality, and implementing sustainable fishing practices. Conservationists and researchers are working tirelessly to understand the reef’s complex ecosystems and develop strategies to mitigate the impacts of climate change. Tourism also plays a significant role in the region’s economy, as millions of visitors come to explore the reef each year. Sustainable tourism practices are being promoted to minimize the environmental footprint of these activities. In summary, the Great Barrier Reef is a remarkable natural wonder of the world, known for its stunning biodiversity and ecological importance. However, it faces significant challenges due to climate change and human activities, making conservation efforts crucial to its survival. 6. The passage is about: (1) The world’s largest coral reef system (2) The history of Australian marine conservation (3) The economic impact of tourism in Queensland (4) Climate change’s effects on global ecosystems 7. Match the terms in List I with their descriptions in List II. LIST I

LIST II

A Coral bleaching

I

A major challenge facing the reef, leading to coral bleaching and other issues, discussed as a threat.

B UNESCO World Heritage List

II

Efforts to minimise environmental impact and maintain the reef's attractiveness to tourists, highlighted as important.

C Sustainable tourism III Recognition and protection for the reef's ecological significance, mentioned in relation to its inclusion on this list. D Climate change

IV A phenomenon that weakens corals due to rising sea temperatures, discussed as a threat to the reef.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I (3) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV (4) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II 8. Is the following statement true or false according to the passage? Statement: The Great Barrier Reef is not included on the UNESCO World Heritage List. (1) True (2) False (3) Can’t say (4) None of the above 9. What is one of the primary threats mentioned in the passage to the Great Barrier Reef’s health? (1) Overfishing (2) Sustainable tourism (3) Rising sea temperatures causing coral bleaching (4) Recognition as a UNESCO World Heritage site 10. Why is the Great Barrier Reef considered significant and renowned, according to the passage? (1) Because it is the world’s largest desert. (2) Because it is home to only a few species of marine life. (3) Because it is a critical breeding ground for sea turtles. (4) Because it is primarily a site for scientific research. C. Read the passages carefully and attempt the following questions. Workers and Slaves The Pharaohs may have believed that it was their links with the Gods that kept Egypt going, but really it was the hard work of the ordinary people. It was they who dug the soil, worked in the mines and quarries, sailed the boats on the river Nile, marched with the army into Syria or Nubia, cooked food and raised children. Slavery was not very important in ancient Egypt, but it did exist. Most of the slave prisoners who had been captured during the many wars Egypt fought with their neighbors in the Near East. Slaves were usually treated well and were allowed to own property. Many Egyptian workers were serfs. This meant that their freedom was limited. They could be bought and sold along with the estates where they worked. Farmers had to be registered with the government. They had to sell crops at a fixed fields lay under water, many workers were recruited into public building projects. Punishment for those who ran away was harsh. 11. From the passage we get to know that distinct quality of ancient Egypt under the pharaohs was the fact that. (1) Though slavery existed slaves were not treated harshly at all (2) The pharaohs were very democratic and handsome (3) No Egyptian working in ancient Egypt worked as a serf (4) The river Nile would not stop flowing during the rains in Egypt 12. From the passage we get to know that in ancient Egypt many workers were known as serfs. These were people with (1) Workers with limited freedom in ancient Egypt (2) Students with limited intelligence in modern Egypt (3) Nobility with limited power in medieval Egypt (4) Pharaohs with limited connection with the gods of Egyptian Gods

110 Oswaal CUET (UG) Chapterwise Question Bank 13. What according to the passage was the reason of ancient Egyptian progress and prosperity? (1) The link the Pharaohs claimed they had with the Gods. (2) The labour and hard work of the slaves and ordinary men in ancient Egypt (3) The mines and quarries full of germs armed with rockets and missiles and jewels in ancient Egypt. (4) The modern smart Egyptian army 14. From the given options, select the one which is true according to the passage. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) Pharaohs believed that is was their link with the Gods that favoured Egypt. (2) The ordinary people worked overtime to destroy Egypt. (3) The pharaoh’s did not believe they were connected to the Gods. (4) The Pharaoh’s were the hard working salves of ancient Egypt. 15. Select the option that is incorrect according to the passage. (1) In Egypt under the Pharaoh’s, slaves were allowed to own property (2) Most of the slaves were prisoners captured in the many wars Egypt fought with its neighbours in the near east (3) Slaves were well treated in ancient Egypt (4) Slavery was extremely important in ancient Egypt 16. Choose the correct homonym pair: (1) Career- Carrier (2) Birth- Berth (3) Confident- Confidant (4) Eligible- Illegible 17. Identify the sentences that have ‘adjectival phrases’: (A) She dance skillfully. (B) She is a skillful dancer. (C) That was a thoughtful act. (D) He acted thoughtfully. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) (B), (C) Only (2) (A), (B), (C) Only (3) (B), (C), (D) Only (4) (A), (D) Only 18. Match List – I with List – II List- I

List- II

(A) Ad interim

(I) Meanwhile

(B)

(II) According to law

Carte blanche

(C) De jure

(III) Mixture

(D) Pot Pourri

(IV) Full freedom of action

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(1) (2) (A)-(1), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV) (3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(1) (4) (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(III) 19. You are ___________ gem of___________ person. (1) an, the (2) a, the (3) a, a (4) the, the 20. Fill in the blank by choosing the correct option to complete the live feed on a school news channel. Congratulations Change Makers! The regional competition awards have been announced and our school music club ___________ the first prize. (1) had been won (2) will win (3) was winning (4) has won

ENGLISH

21. Get me a cup of coffee, _________ (1) shall you? (2) will you? (3) won’t you? (4) wouldn’t you? 22. From the options given below select the one which is Opposite in meaning to the given word. “CAPACIOUS” (1) Limited (2) Charming (3) Foolish (4) Colourful 23. Choose the correct question tag for the following sentence: You are a real piece of work, _______? (1) aren’t you? (2) isn’t you? (3) weren’t you? (4) are you? 24. From the given pair of words, select the one that carries the same relations as: Shriek: Whisper (1) Cautions: Negligent (2) Prohibit: Forbid (3) Refined: Elegant (4) Transient: Temporary 25. Choose the appropriate word to fill in the blank. It was a challenge to ______________ a response from the prisoner. (1) Illicit (2) Ilicit (3) Elicit (4) Elicit 26. Rearrange these parts to write a meaningful sentence. (A) shares with monkeys (B) when any suspicious object is sighted (C) the Indian-giant squirrel (D) The habit of scolding barking and raising a general alarm Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) (C), (A), (B), (D) (2) (B), (C), (A), (D) (3) (C), (B), (A), (D) (4) (C), (A), (D), (B) 27. Choose the most appropriate word as the meaning of the given word: “Tout de Suite” means ___________ (1) immediately (2) intransitively (3) imminent (4) intimate 28. Choose the correct word to fill in the blank: We _______ in the London, but now we live in Delhi. (1) lived (2) used to live (3) were (4) happen to live 29. The book has passed ___________ fifteen editions. (1) by (2) on (3) from (4) through 30. The following consists of a sentence the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below the sentence are four sequences namely (1), (2), (3) and (4). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly. The actress has been selected as the best heroine P Q who is the daughter of a famous male singer R of the year S The correct sequence should be: (1) RPQS (2) QPSR (3) RSPQ (4) QSRP 31. Although he has a lot of energy, he is_______ to work. (1) compelled (2) capable (3) willing (4) unwilling

111

PRACTICE PAPER 1

32. From the given options select the one that carries same relation as: Relegate : Promote (1) Fright: Dread (2) Apprehension: Confidence (3) Perilous: Risky (4) Delicious: Tasty 33. From the given options select the one which can rightly substitute the given expression: Fear of dogs (1) Chronophobia (2) Gynaephobia (3) Cynophobia (4) Geraphobia 34. from the given options, select the rightly spelt word: (1) humores (2) humorous (3) humerous (4) humorrous 35. Rearrange the following parts of a sentence labelled as PQRS to make a meaningful sentence. (P)the light was /(Q)an easy one/ (R)my path towards/ (S)by no means (1) SRPQ (2) PQRS (3) RPSQ (4) QSPR 36. Choose the correct exclamatory form of the following sentence: The morning was very cool yesterday. (1) How cool yesterday morning was! (2) What yesterday morning cool! (3) How yesterday cool morning! (4) What cool was morning! 37. Change the following into direct speech. Choose the correct answer from below: He asked me if I could meet him the next day. (1) He said, “Can you meet me tomorrow?” (2) He said, “You can meet me tomorrow.” (3) He said, “Can meet me tomorrow.” (4) He said, “You meet me tomorrow.” 38. Choose the correct substitute from the four options below: A unique form of antithesis, whereby two contradictory qualities are predicted at once of the same thing. (1) Alliteration (2) Anagram (3) Oxymoron (4) Epigram 39. From the given options select the one which can rightly substitute the given expression: A public room or building where gambling games are played. (1) Cemetery (2) Casino (3) Cloakroom (4) Creche 40. Fill in the blank by choosing the correct idiom from options given below: She’s planning to __________ on the cable company and watch TV online instead. (1) pulling her leg (2) pull the plug (3) pick and choose (4) part and parcel 41. Choose the part of the following sentence that contains an error: It is the quarter to ten by my watch. (1) It is the (2) quarter to ten (3) by my watch (4) No error

42. Select the words which are the adverb form of the word: (A) Gigantic (B) Lovely (C) Lovingly (D) Oratory (E) Frantically Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) (B) Only (2) (C) & (E) Only (3) (E) Only (4) (A) & (D) Only 43. Choose the correct meaning of the idiom in bold in the following sentence: She rejected his proposal of marriage point black. (1) Absurdly (2) Briefly (3) Pointedly (4) Directly 44. Match the words given in List - I with their corresponding meanings from List - II: List- I

List- II

(A) Hail

(I) Honest

(B)

(II) Glowing

Just

(C) Lure

(III) Greet

(D) Radiant (IV) Attract Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II) (2) (A)-(1), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(III) (3) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV) (4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(I) 45. From the given options, select the rightly speltword: (1) Pnernonia (2) Pneumonia (3) Newmonia (4) Nemonia 46. From the given options, select the one that rightly substitutes /replaces the given expression: ‘Detailed plan of a journey’ (1) Passport (2) Travelogue (3) Itinerary (4) Timetable 47. Select the correct pair of Homophones from the options given below: (1) Cite- Site (2) Hapless- Helpless (3) Tyranny- Tolerant (4) Generous- General 48. Fill in the blank with the most appropriate Phrasal Verb from the options given below: I set my alarm clock because I have to ______ early tomorrow. (1) catch up (2) get up (3) fill up (4) stand up 49. Complete the sentence by choosing the correct option out of those given below: ____________being questioned, he wept. (1) At (2) For (3) On (4) In 50. Choose the most appropriate option to change the following sentence into the Passive Voice: He handed her a cheque. (1) She was handed a cheque by him. (2) She is handed by him a cheque. (3) A cheque was handed over to her. (4) A cheque been handed to her.

ANSWER KEY 1. (3)

2. (1)

3. (2)

4. (2)

5. (1)

6. (1)

7. (1)

8. (2)

9. (3)

10. (3)

11. (1)

12. (1)

13. (2)

14. (1)

15. (4)

16. (3)

17. (1)

18. (4)

19. (3)

20. (4)

21. (4)

22. (1)

23. (1)

24. (1)

25. (4)

26. (4)

27 (1)

28. (2)

29. (4)

30. (1)

31. (4)

32. (2)

33. (3)

34. (2)

35. (3)

36. (1)

37. (1)

38. (3)

39. (2)

40. (2)

41. (1)

42. (2)

43. (4)

44. (1)

45. (2)

46. (3)

47. (1)

48. (2)

49. (3)

50. (1)

112 Oswaal CUET (UG) Chapterwise Question Bank

ENGLISH

ANSWERS WITH EXPLANATION 1. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: Over the next few weeks, Allie, Alex and I fell into quite a nice routine. 2. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: This passage is written in first person. 3. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: It was a Saturday afternoon when Allie decided it was time to paint the brick fireplace white. 4. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: Petrified means someone who is so frightened that he or she is unable to move and being terrified. 5. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: Spot the areas in the passage for List I and then match them with sentence fragments from List II. A-I: She took me by the hand and walked me into the lobby like a five-year-old child. Didn’t she know I was pushing 15? This was the third home Nancy was placing me in-in a span of eight months! B- II: Over the next few weeks, Allie, Alex and I fell into quite a nice routine. She’d make pancakes for breakfast. C-III: Over the next few weeks, Allie, Alex and I fell into quite a nice routine. She’d make pancakes for breakfast, or he’d fry up some sausage and eggs. D-IV: This was the third home Nancy was placing me in-in a span of eight months! 6. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: The passage is about the world’s largest coral reef system, the Great Barrier Reef, its features, biodiversity, conservation efforts, and the challenges it faces, primarily due to climate change and human activities. 7. Option (1) is correct. 8. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: It is explicit in the passage that ‘The reef’s incredible biodiversity and unique ecosystems have earned it a place on the UNESCO World Heritage List.’ 9. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: The primary threat highlighted in the passage is the rising sea temperatures causing coral bleaching, which weaken the coral and disrupts the reef’s delicate balance. 10. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: The Great Barrier Reef is considered significant and renowned because it is a critical breeding ground for sea turtles, as mentioned in the passage. 11. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: From the passage, we learn that the distinct quality of ancient Egypt under the pharaohs was the fact that, although slavery existed, slaves were usually treated well and were allowed to own property. 12. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: In ancient Egypt, serfs were workers with limited freedom, as mentioned in the passage. They were not fully free and could be bought and sold with the estates where they worked. 13. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: The passage emphasises that the progress and prosperity of ancient Egypt were largely due to the hard work of the slaves and ordinary people, not just the claims of the Pharaohs. 14. Option (1) is correct. 15. Option (4) is correct. 16. Option (3) is correct.

Explanation: The homonym pair “Confident” and “Confidant” are not exactly similar in pronunciation and also have different meanings. The latter one has more of ‘a’ sound. “Confident” means self-assured, while “Confidant” refers to a trusted person with whom one shares secrets. 17. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: Adjectival phrases are phrases that function as adjectives to modify nouns. Sentence B contains the adjectival phrase “skillful dancer,” which describes the noun “she” and sentence C contains the adjectival phrase “thoughtful act,” which describes the noun “That.” 18. Option (4) is correct. Explanation: A. “Ad interim” means “in the meantime,” so it matches with “I. Meanwhile.” B. “Carte blanche” means “full freedom of action,” so it matches with “IV. Full freedom of action.” C. “De jure” means “according to law,” so it matches with “II. According to law.” D. “Pot Pourri” means “mixture,” so it matches with “III. Mixture.” 19. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: Option (3) “a, a” is correct because both “gem” and “person” are indefinite, indicating that the person is a gem but not necessarily unique or specific. 20. Option (4) is correct. Explanation: Option (4) “has won” is the correct choice because it indicates that the school music club has already won the first prize in the regional competition, which is the intended meaning. 21. Option (4) is correct. Explanation: Though grammatically all the options can fill the blank in different contexts but in the given sentence a request has been made to bring a cup of coffee. ‘Wouldn’t’ is a more polite way of conveying something when compared to ‘won’t’. ‘Shall’ and ‘will’ are not correct words in the context of a request. They indicate authority or order which make them inappropriate for the given sentence. Thus, based on these conditions, ‘wouldn’t’ is the most appropriate option to be used in the blank. 22. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: Capacious means having a lot of space inside and Limited means confined space. 23. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: The question tag “aren’t you?” is the correct choice because it forms a negative question to match the affirmative statement, making it grammatically correct. 24. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: Shriek which means scream is different from whisper which means undertone. Therefore option ‘A’ suits here as both the words in the pair have different meanings. Otherwise, words in the rest of the options carry similar meanings. 25. Option (4) is correct. Explanation: The appropriate word is “elicit.” It means to draw or obtain a response or information, which fits the context of trying to obtain a response from the prisoner. 26. Option (4) is correct. Explanation: The rearranged sentence begins by introducing “The Indian giant squirrel” (C), highlighting its similarity with monkeys in (A). It then explains their common behavior of scolding, barking, and raising an alarm (D) when they spot a suspicious object (B).

PRACTICE PAPER 1

27. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: “Tout de Suite” means “immediately” in French. It implies a sense of urgency or promptness in acting or responding to a situation. 28. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: ‘Lived’ looks absurd here as the time period is not given. Options (3) and (4) are incorrect as they do not give grammatically correct sentences. Option (2) is the most appropriate verb to fill the blank. We use ‘used to’ when things in the past which are no longer true are referred to. It can refer to repeated actions or to a state or situation. As the action of living in London was done in the past, ‘used to live’ is the correct option for the blank. 29. Option (4) is correct. Explanation: The correct preposition is “through.” In this context, it means that the book has undergone or experienced fifteen editions or printings, making option (4) the correct choice. 30. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: R has the relative pronoun ‘who’ and it talks of the subject. So, R should start the sequence. The verb (P) should follow this clause. The only option that starts with RP is option (1), making it the correct answer. 31. Option (4) is correct. Explanation: ‘Although’ expresses contrast between his possession – (he has a lot of energy) and its effect on his work. Hence, the correct answer is (4). 32. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: In the pair “Relegate: Promote,” ‘relegate’ means to move down or demote, while ‘promote’ means to move up or advance. Similarly, in the pair “Apprehension: Confidence,” ‘apprehension’ represents a negative or fearful feeling, while ‘confidence’ represents a positive and assured feeling, showing an opposite relationship, just like “relegate” and “promote.” 33. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: “Cynophobia” specifically refers to the fear of dogs. The other options do not relate to the fear of dogs but represent different phobias: (1) “Chronophobia” is the fear of time. (2) “Gynaephobia” is the fear of women. (4) “Geraphobia” is the fear of aging or growing old. 34. Option (2) is correct. 35. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: The rearranged sequence, “RPSQ,” creates a meaningful sentence where the speaker emphasizes the difficulty of their journey towards the light, indicating it was not easy. 36. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: This sentence conveys the same information as the original sentence but in an exclamatory form. 37. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: The original sentence, “He asked me if I could meet him the next day,” is transformed into direct speech as, “He said, ‘Can you meet me tomorrow?’”

113 in direct speech, ‘could’ changes to ‘can’, ‘the next day’ changes to ‘tomorrow’. This represents the direct reporting of the question asked by the speaker. 38. Option (3) is correct. 39. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: A “casino” is a public place or building where gambling games are played. The other options do not relate to a place for gambling: (1) “Cemetery” is a burial ground. (3) “Cloakroom” is a place to store coats and belongings. (4) “Creche” is a nursery or daycare center for children. 40. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: This idiom means to stop or terminate something, often abruptly. 41. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: The error is in part (1) because “the” before “quarter” is unnecessary when specifying the time. 42. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: The adverb forms are: (C) Lovingly - Adverb form of “loving.” (E) Frantically - Adverb form of “frantic.” 43. Option (4) is correct. Explanation: In this context, “point blank” means to reject something directly and bluntly, without any hesitation or ambiguity. 44. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: (A) “Hail” means to greet or acknowledge, aligning with (III) “Greet.” (B) “Just” implies fairness or honesty, corresponding to (I) “Honest.” (C) “Lure” means to attract or entice, which matches with (IV) “Attract.” (D) “Radiant” means glowing or shining brightly, relating to (II) “Glowing.” 45. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: It is a type of fever. 46. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: Itinerary means a plan of a journey, including the route and the places that you will visit. A travelogue means an account of a journey or places visited. 47. Option (1) is correct. Explanation: Homophones are words that sound the same but have different meanings or spellings. In this case, “cite” and “site” are homophones because they have the same pronunciation but different meanings. 48. Option (2) is correct. Explanation: The phrasal verb “get up” is appropriate here as it means to rise from bed. The sentence indicates setting an alarm to wake up early the next day. 49. Option (3) is correct. Explanation: In this context, “on” is used to indicate the circumstance or trigger (being questioned) that led to the action (he wept). 50. Option (1) is correct.

PRACTICE PAPER-2 Maximum Marks: 200

Time: 45 Minutes

Important Instructions: (i) This paper consists of 50 MCQs, attempt any 40 out of 50 (ii) Correct answer or the most appropriate answer: Five marks (+ 5) (iii) Any incorrect option market will be given minus one mark (– 1) (iv) Unanswered/Marked for Review will be given no mark (0) (v) If more than one option is found to be correct then. Five marks (+5) will be awarded to only those who have marked any of the correct options. (vi) If all options are found to be correct then Five marks (+5) will be awarded to all those who have attempted the question. (vii) Calculator/any electronic gadgets are not permitted. (vii) If none of the options is found correct or a question is found to be wrong or a Question is dropped then all candidates who have appeared will be given five marks (+5). A. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follows: Last year, the government notified new rules regarding the unmanned aircraft systems/vehicles. The “liberalised drone rules” are aimed at reducing paperwork, cutting the red tape and facilitating the government’s vision to make India the global drone hub by 2030. The use of drones-as-a- service in sectors like agriculture, mining, infrastructure, surveillance, emergency response, transportation, photography and videography, geospatial mapping, defence, and law enforcement is being encouraged. In sectors like e-commerce, retail and health, drone technology is being seen as a game changer in the last-mile delivery of goods. Delhi Police has also been frequently using drones in monitoring law and order of late. A separate unit for drones is also being planned. When asked about the new regulations in place, senior aviation and police officers said that all drones must be registered with the DGCA, and operators must have a licence to fly them. A fine of up to one lakh rupees can be levied on violations. “Registrations can be done on the ‘Digital Sky’ platform operated by the DGCA, which is a single- window online platform for drone approvals. The operators must be over 18 years of age and trained from a DGCA-approved institution,” an official said. According to the new rules, a drone operating licence, issued on the basis of a remote pilot certificate, is valid for 10 years and a certificate is not required for operating nano drones (weighing