KVPY Stream SA 2020 16 Mock Test + Sectional Test for class 11 Edugorilla

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Your Guide to Success

KVPY : 2020 Stream SA Latest Edition Practice kit

16 Mock Tests based on Real Exam pattern

• Thoroughly Revised and Updated • Detailed Analysis of all MCQs

Introduction

EduGorilla is a bunch of youth who make exam preparation easy. We create and curate multi language online test series to cater to the success of students. In short, we let students breathe victory. We don’t lead students on the crooked path of competitive exam preparation. Rather we guide the malong the straight path to success. EduGorilla is a pioneer in online test preparation. Our website holds easy and exclusive test series for more than %s competitive exams. And this book is an endeavor to offer our digitized Gorilla Series in printed format. This book is not just a compilation of mocks, it rather your guide to success! The book has been written to meet the requirements of %s aspirants and provide them with well-conceptualized and structured practice material. It contains multiple-choice questions modeled on the relevant subjects and topics. The volume has been prepared by a team of prolific experts after thoroughly analyzing the exam pattern, syllabus, and previous years’ papers. The Gorilla Series begins with an overview of the exam and goes on to cover practice sets along with hints and solutions. The subsequent part of the book also includes previous years’ question papers and their solutions. This gives a fair idea to the students about the structure of the question paper and the type of questions asked in the exam Students can analyze their performance and gauge their preparation level.

Why KVPY Gorilla Series? ☛ 16 Mock Test + Sectional Test ☛ Tests modeled on the latest exam pattern ☛ Detailed explanation of questions

TABLE OF CONTENT

Paper 1. Mock Tests (SA)

Page 1-89

1.1 : KVPY SA (Part II) Mock 1

1

1.2 : KVPY SA (Part II) Mock 2

6

1.3 : KVPY SA (Part II) Mock 3

10

1.4 : KVPY SA (Part II) Mock 4

14

1.5 : KVPY SA (Part II) Mock 5

18

1.6 : KVPY SA (Part II) Mock 6

22

1.7 : KVPY SA (Part II) Mock 7

26

1.8 : KVPY SA (Part II) Mock 8

30

1.9 : KVPY SA (Part I) Mock-1

34

1.10 : KVPY SA (Part I) Mock-2

41

1.11 : KVPY SA (Part I) Mock-3

48

1.12 : KVPY SA (Part I) Mock-4

55

1.13 : KVPY SA (Part I) Mock-5

62

1.14 : KVPY SA (Part I) Mock-6

69

1.15 : KVPY SA (Part I) Mock-7

76

1.16 : KVPY SA (Part I) Mock-8

83

2. Biology 2.1 : Biology Test-1

90-138 90

2.2 : Biology Test-2

94

2.3 : Biology Test-3

99

2.4 : Biology Test-4

104

2.5 : Biology Test-5

109

2.6 : Biology Test-6

114

2.7 : Biology Test-7

119

2.8 : Biology Test-8

124

2.9 : Biology Test-9

129

2.10 : Biology Test-10

134

3. Physics

139-162

3.1 : Units Measurements and Dimensions

139

3.2 : Physics-1

144

3.3 : Physics-2

148

3.4 : Physics-3

153

3.5 : Physics-4

158

4. Chemistry

163-200

4.1 : Chemistry 1

163

4.2 : Chemistry 2

168

4.3 : Chemistry 3

173

4.4 : Chemistry 4

178

4.5 : Chemistry 5

183

4.6 : Chemistry 6

188

4.7 : Chemistry 7

193

4.8 : Chemistry 8

198

KVPY SA (PART II) MOCK 1

C. by adding lime

D. more fertilizers

7. In Universal indicators, a pH of 7 is shown with

Biology

A. pink color

B. yellow color

C. green color

D. blue color

1. What is the average life span of RBCs? A. 1 month

B. 4 days

C. 1 week

D. 120 days

2. On seeing good food our mouth waters. This fluid is actually A. Hormone

B. Enzyme

C. None of these

D. Water

3. The breakdown of pyruvate to give carbon dioxide, water andenergy takes place in A. cytoplasm.

B. mitochondria

C. nucleus.

D. chloroplast.

8. Bases leaves blue litmus A. red

B. black

C. pint

D. unchanged

9. Which one of the following can be used as an acid–base indicator by a visually impared student? A. Turmeric

B. Petunia leaves

C. Litmus

D. Vanilla essence

10. When a metal replaces hydrogen atom then compound form is A. salt

B. alcohol

C. ether

D. oxide

4. Movement of food through oesophagus is due to A. Peristalsis

B. Lubrication by saliva

C. Gravitational Pull

D. All of these

5. When water enters the guard cells the stomata A. Opens

B. No effect

C. Open or closes

D. Closes

Chemistry 6. Excess acidity caused by acid rain can be neutralized by adding A. by removing acidified B. by adding P2O5 soil

KVPY SA (Part II) Mock 1

Mathematics 11. From a pack of 52 cards, 1 card is drawn at random. Find the probability of a face card drawn. A. 1/52

B. None of these

C. 4/13

D. 1/4

12. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. What is the probability of getting the sum of the face number is at most 5? A. 5/18

B. 2/9

C. 2/18

D. 4/9

13. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. What is the probability of getting two numbers whose product is even ?

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A. 1/2

B. 3/4

C. 7/4

D. 1/4

14. A card is drawn from a pack of 52 cards. The probability of getting a queen of club or a king of heart is A. 1/13

B. 1/26

C. 1/52

D. 2/13

15. In a bag there are 4 white, 4 red and 2 green balls. Two balls are drawn at random.What is the probability that at least one ball is of red colour? A. 7/3

B. 1/3

C. 4/3

D. 2/3

Physics 16. Bending of light as it passes from one medium to another is called A. refraction

B. deflection

C. diffraction

D. reflection

17. Symbol to represent speed of light in vacuum or air is A. l

B. c

C. v

D. a

18. SI unit of the power of a lens is ___________. A. watt

B. cm

C. dioptre

D. metre

19. Bend of light rays or image in denser medium is termed as A. Refraction

B. Reflection

C. Transpiration

D. Opacation

20. A convex lens is called _________. A. both converging and diverging lens B. refracting lens C. diverging lens D. converging lens

KVPY SA (Part II) Mock 1

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SMART ANSWERSHEET

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Performance Analysis Avg. Score Toppers Score Cut Off Your Score

KVPY SA (Part II) Mock 1

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HINTS AND SOLUTIONS

KVPY SA (Part II) Mock 1

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KVPY SA (PART II) MOCK 2 Biology 1. Right part of the human heart contains c A. Mixed blood

B. Oxygenated blood

C. No blood

D. Deoxygenated blood

A. water

B. hydrogen gas

C. Both salts and water

D. hydroxides

8. An acid is ___________. A. a proton acceptor

B. a proton donor

C. electron acceptor

D. electron donor

9. Choose the acid salt from the following: A. Na2SO4 B. Na2CO3 C. NaHSO4 D. NaNO3

2. Blood consist of what fluid medium? A. Plasma

B. Lymph

C. Platelets

D. All of these

3. During the experiment on photosynthesis, leaf is boiled in which of these liquids? A. Water

B. Iodine

C. Alcohol

D. Sulphuric acid

10. Acid used for manufacture of fertilizers and explosives is A. hydrochloric acid

B. Sulfuric acid

C. Nitric acid

D. phosphoric acid

Mathematics

4. Lipase acts on A. All of these

B. Fats

C. Amino acids

D. Carbohydrates

5. Main site of photosynthesis

11. A basket contains 6 White 4 Black 2 Pink and 3 Green balls. If three balls are picked at random, what is the probability that two are Black and one is Green?

A. Stem

B. Chloroplast

A. 10/393

C. Leaf

D. Guard cells

B. 15/381

C. 14/455

D. 18/455

12. Anil placed a deck of 52 cards. If you pick two cards what is the probability that both are aces?

Chemistry

A. 4/663

B. 1/221

C. 1/338

D. 1/169

6. A substance that donates a pair of electrons to form coordinate covalent bond is called

13. A basket contains 5 red 4 blue 3 green marbles. If three marbles picked up random, What is the probability that at least one is blue?

A. Bronsted-Lowry base B. Lewis base

A. 49/55

C. Bronsted-Lowry acid

D. Lewis acid

7. When an acid (H+) is added to alkali (OH-), product is

KVPY SA (Part II) Mock 2

B. 41/55

C. 53/55

D. 47/55

14. If you roll a pair of dice, what is the probability that (at least) one of the dice is a 4 or the sum of the dice is 7?

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A. None of these

B. 4/36

C. 13/36

D. 15/36

15. A fruit basket contains 10 Guavas and 20 Bananas out of which 3 Guavas and 5 Bananas are defective. If two fruits selected at random, what is the probability that either both are Bananas or both are non-defective? A. 313/435 B. 317/435 C. 315/435 D. 316/435

Physics 16. The least distance of distinct vision is ______. A. 25 m

B. 25 cm

C. 2.5 m

D. 0.25 cm

17. Reciprocal of focal length in metres is known as the ______ of a lens. A. power of accommodation

B. far point

C. focus

D. power

18. Mid-point between lens surface and principle axis is termed as A. optical center

B. focal point

C. midway center

D. focal center

19. Parallel rays of light entering a convex lens always converge at _______. A. the focal plane

B. optical centre

C. the principal focus

D. centre of curvature

20. Point at which all rays converge is termed as A. converging center

B. converging point

C. focal point

D. focal center

KVPY SA (Part II) Mock 2

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KVPY SA (Part II) Mock 2

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HINTS AND SOLUTIONS

KVPY SA (Part II) Mock 2

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KVPY SA (PART II) MOCK 3 Biology 1. Which life process converts chemical energy into heat energy? A. Transpiration

B. Nutrition

C. Excretion

D. Respiration

2. What is the main excretory product in lizards? A. None of these

B. Uric acid

C. Ammonia

D. Urea

7. Phenolphthalein in acidic solution is A. yellow colored

B. pink colored

C. orange colored

D. colorless

8. When litmus is added to a solution of borax it turns___________. A. remains colourless

B. red

C. pink

D. blue

9. A weak acid in solution is ___________. A. mostly ions

B. mostly molecules

C. less water

D. both molecules and ions

10. Bleach has an approximate of 3. Which element is used in the synthesis of proteins? A. Carbon dioxide

B. Oxygen

C. Nitrogen

D. Hydrogen

A. 8

B. Purple

C. Orange

D. Blue

5. Which of these initiates the heart beat? A. SA Node

B. Bundle of His

C. Purkinje fibres

D. AV Node

Chemistry

D. 11

11. A bag contains 5 red caps, 4 blue caps, 3 yellow caps and 2 green caps. If four caps are picked at random, what is the probability that two are red, one is blue and one is green? A. 22/1001 B. 21/1001 C. 55/1001 D. 80/1001 12. A box contains 3 white, 4 red and 7 blue erasers. If five erasers are taken at random then the probability that all the five are blue color is: A. 12/121

6. One of the constituents of baking powder is sodium hydrogencarbonate, the other constituent is

C. 14

Mathematics

4. What is the colour of iodine-starch complex? A. Dark blue

B. 5

B. 3/286

C. 2/126

D. 13/211

A. hydrochloric acid

B. acetic acid

13. A bag contains 2 red caps, 4 blue caps, 3 yellow caps and 5 green caps. If three caps are picked at random, what is the probability that none is green?

C. sulphuric acid

D. tartaric acid

A. 5/13

KVPY SA (Part II) Mock 3

B. 3/13

C. 2/13

D. 1/13

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14. Bag A contains 7 Red Balls, ‘X’ Green Balls, and 5 Yellow Balls. The probability to pick Green Ball at random is 2/5. Another Bag B contains ‘X3’ Red Balls, ‘X-4’ Yellow Balls and 6 Green Balls. If two balls are picked one after the other from Bag B at random then what is the probability for the Balls to be Red? A. 3/21

B. 4/21

C. 1/21

D. 2/21

15. If two fair coins are flipped and at least one of the outcomes is known to be a head, what is the probability that both outcomes are heads? A. 1/4

B. 1/3

C. 2/3

D. 1/2

Physics 16. The power of a convex lens of focal length 50 cm is ______. A. - 2D

B. - 5D

C. 50 D

D. + 2D

17. The focal length of a lens whose power is 1.5 D is _______. A. -66.66 cm

B. -1.5 m

C. + 1.5 m

D. + 66.66 cm

18. Where should an object be placed so that a real and inverted image of the same size is obtained, using a convex lens? A. Between O and F

B. At 2 F

C. At infinity

D. At F

19. Symbol for refractive index is equal to A. n

B. i

C. rn

D. r

20. In a simple microscope lens used is __________. A. biconcave

B. biconvex

C. plano convex

D. cylindrical

KVPY SA (Part II) Mock 3

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KVPY SA (Part II) Mock 3

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HINTS AND SOLUTIONS

KVPY SA (Part II) Mock 3

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KVPY SA (PART II) MOCK 4

A. H+

B. H3O+

C. H2O

D. HCl-

7. KOH is used in making of

Biology

A. drain cleaner

B. liquid soap

C. antacid

D. cement

1. Which of these is not a raw material for photosynthesis?

8. In Universal indicators, weak alkalis are indicated through

A. Water

B. None of these

A. turquoise color

B. All of these

C. Carbon dioxide

D. Oxygen

C. light violet color

D. blue color

2. One cell-thick vessels are called A. Pulmonary artery

B. Veins

C. Arteries

D. Capillaries

3. The blood from systemic circulation first comes to which chamber of heart? A. Right auricle

B. Right ventricle

C. Left auricle

D. Left ventricle

9. Amount of Hydrochloric Acid (HCl) secreted daily by gastric glands is A. 2 lit

B. 3 lit

C. 4 lit

D. 1 lit

10. Which of the following substance will not give carbon dioxide on treatment with dilute acid? A. Limestone

B. Baking soda

C. Marble

D. Lime

4. The correct pathway of blood in circulatory system is A. atria → ventricles → arteries → veins

Mathematics

B. veins → ventricles → atria → arteries C. ventricles → veins → arteries → atria D. ventricles → atria → veins → arteries 5. Which chamber of the heart pushes the blood into systemic circulation?

11. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. What is the probability of getting two numbers whose product is even ? A. 1/2

A. Right ventricle

B. Right auricle

C. Left auricle

D. Left ventricle

Chemistry 6. Which of the following ionic species exist in a neutralization reaction?

KVPY SA (Part II) Mock 4

B. 3/4

C. 11/13

D. 5/7

12. Consider a random variable X that takes values +1 and −1 with probability 0.5 each. The values of the cumulative distribution function F(x) at x = −1 and +1 are A. 0 and 1

B. 0.25 and 0.75

C. 0.5 and 1

D. 0 and 0.5

13. A speaks truth in 75% of cases and B in 80% of cases. In what percentage of cases are they

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likely to contradict each other, narrating the same incident A. 25%

B. 45%

C. 35%

D. 15%

14. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. What is the probability of getting the sum of the face number is odd? A. 1/3

B. 2/3

C. 1/2

D. 3/4

15. In an examination, there are three sections namely Reasoning, Maths and English. Reasoning part contains 4 questions. There are 5 questions in maths section and 6 questions in English section. If three questions are selected randomly from the list of questions then what is the probability that all of them are from maths? A. 4/91

B. 8/91

C. 2/91

D. on the same side of the lens as the object 19. A convex lens has a focal length of 20 cm. Its power in dioptres is ___________. A. 2

B. 5

C. 0.2

D. 0.5

20. Convex lens always gives a real image if the object is situated beyond _______. A. radius of curvature

B. centre of curvature

C. focus

D. optical centre

D. 7/91

Physics 16. A positive magnification greater than unity indicates _____________________. A. distorted image B. virtual image C. neither real not virtual image D. real image 17. The part of the lens through which the ray of light passes without suffering deviation is called ________. A. pole

B. centre of curvature

C. focus

D. optical centre

18. Real images formed by single convex lenses are always ________________. A. inverted B. erect C. smaller than the object

KVPY SA (Part II) Mock 4

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SMART ANSWERSHEET

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KVPY SA (Part II) Mock 4

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HINTS AND SOLUTIONS

KVPY SA (Part II) Mock 4

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KVPY SA (PART II) MOCK 5 Chemistry Biology 6. PH at which methyl red changes color is 1. In normal expiration, the diaphragm is A. Perforated

B. Arched

C. Flattened

D. None of these

2. Which of the following organisms is a sarpophyte? A. Yeast

B. Leech

C. Ascaris

A. 9

B. 3.8

C. 5.5

D. 7

7. Which of the following is an intensive property? A. all of these

B. surface tension

C. temperature

D. viscosity

D. Vulture

3. Stomata open and close due to A. circadian rhythm

8. When cut-off ratio is __________ the efficiency of Diesel cycle approaches to Otto cycle efficiency.

B. pressure of gases inside the leaves

A. 2

C. turgor pressure of guard cells.

9. Which of the following gas has a minimum molecular mass?

D. genetic clock

B. 1/5

C. 1/4

D. zero

4. The movement of water, from one cell of cortex to adjacent one in roots, is due to

A. Oxygen

B. Methane

C. Nitrogen

D. Hydrogen

A. chemical potential gradient.

10. For a perfect gas, according to Boyle’s law (where p = Absolute pressure, v = Volume, and T = Absolute temperature)

B. accumulation of organic compounds in the cells C. accumulation of inorganic salts in the cells D. water potential gradient 5. During light reaction of photosynthesis, which of the following phenomenon is observed during cyclic phosphorylation as well as non-cyclic phosphorylation?

A. p v = constant, if T is kept constant B. p/T = constant, if v is kept constant C. T/p = constant, if v is kept constant D. v/T = constant, if p is kept constant

A. release of O2 B. involvement of PS I and PS II pigment systems. C. formation of NADPH D. formation of ATP

KVPY SA (Part II) Mock 5

Mathematics 11. There are three boxes each containing 3 Pink and 5 Yellow balls and also there are 2 boxes each containing 4 Pink and 2 Yellow balls. A Yellow ball is selected at random. Find the

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probability that Yellow ball is from a box of the first group? A. 51/61

B. 45/61

C. 42/61

B. 1/20

C. 9/20

B. 1/6

C. 2/3

18. An object is placed before a concave lens. The image formed _____________-. A. may be erect or inverted

B. is always erect

C. is always inverted

D. is always real

D. 7/20

13. Suppose a fair six-sided die is rolled once. If the value on the die is 1, 2, or 3, the die is rolled a second time. What is the probability that the sum total of values that turn up is at least 6? A. 5/12

D. less than one focal length

D. 52/61

12. A basket contains 5 red 4 blue 3 green marbles. If three marbles picked up random, What is the probability that either all are green or all are red? A. 3/20

C. less than twice the focal length

D. 10/21

19. The image produced by a concave lens is ________. A. always virtual and reduced in size B. sometimes real, sometimes virtual C. always virtual and enlarged D. always real

14. Three Bananas and three oranges are kept in a box. If two fruits are chosen at random, Find the probability that one is Banana and another one is orange?

20. An object is placed 25 cm from a convex lens whose focal length is 10 cm. The image distance is ________ cm.

A. 4/5

A. 50 cm

B. 6.66 cm

C. 16.66 cm

D. 10 cm

B. 2/5

C. 3/5

D. 1/5

15. Find the probability that getting 4 digit number with 1 in the unit place and 2 in the tens place when the numbers 1,2,3,4 and 5 are arranged at random without repeating. A. 1/20

B. 1/15

C. 1/10

D. 1/5

Physics 16. 1 D is the power of the lens of focal length of ______ cm. A. 1/100

B. 10

C. 1/10

D. 100

17. When a person uses a convex lens as a simple magnifying glass, the object must be placed at a distance. A. more than one focal length B. more than twice the focal length

KVPY SA (Part II) Mock 5

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KVPY SA (Part II) Mock 5

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HINTS AND SOLUTIONS

KVPY SA (Part II) Mock 5

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Chemistry

KVPY SA (PART II) MOCK 6 Biology

6. The behaviour of a perfect gas, undergoing any change in the variables which control physical properties, is governed by

1. An adaptation for better gaseous exchange in plant leaves is

A. Boyle's law

B. Gay-Lussac law

C. all of these

D. Charles' law

A. stomata on lower surface away from direct sun rays.

7. According to Avogadro’s law A. all of these

B. waxy cuticle C. hair on lower surface D. multiple epidermis 2. Highest auxin concentration occurs A. at base of plant organs

B. in leaves

C. in growing tips

D. in xylem and phloem.

3. Photosynthetic pigments found in the chloroplasts occur in A. thylakoid membranes

B. plastoglobules

C. chloroplast envelope.

D. matrix

B. the sum of partial pressure of the mixture of two gases is sum of the two C. equal volumes of all gases, at the same temperature and pressure, contain equal number of molecules D. the product of the gas constant and the molecular mass of an ideal gas is constant 8. A process, in which the temperature of the working substance remains constant during its expansion or compression, is called A. polytropic process

B. isothermal process

C. hyperbolic process

D. adiabatic process

9. Identify the correct statement from the following in a chemical reaction.

4. Removal of apical bud results in A. formation of lateral branching.

A. Both the enthalpy and the entropy remain constant

B. elongation of main stem

B. The enthalpy always decreases

C. death of plant

C. The entropy always increases

D. formation of new apical bud

D. The change in entropy along with suitable change in enthalpy decides the fate of a reaction

5. Which one is a C4-plant? A. potato

B. maize/corn

C. pea

D. papaya

10. When two bodies are in thermal equilibrium with a third body, they are also in thermal equilibrium with each other. This statement is called A. Second law of thermodynamics

KVPY SA (Part II) Mock 6

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16. An object is placed 12 cm from a convex lens whose focal length is 10 cm. The image must be.

B. First law of thermodynamics C. Zeroth law of thermodynamics

A. virtual and enlarged B. real and enlarged

D. Kelvin Planck's law

C. virtual and reduced D. real and reduced in in size size 17. Our eyes detect light in

Mathematics

A. ROYGBIV, rainbow color form

11. Out of 14 applicants for a job, there are 6 women and 8 men. It is desired to select 2 persons for the job. The probabilty that atleast one of selected persons will be a Woman is?

B. none of these ways C. RGB form, Red Blue Green form D. The simple form of a particular color 18. Refractive index of a medium is A. 54/91

B. 40/91

C. 45/91

D. 77/91

12. From a pack of 52 cards, two cards are drawn together, what is the probability that both the cards are kings A. 1/221

B. 1/57

C. 1/13

D. 1/119

A. Speed of light in vacuum to speed of light in air B. speed of light in the medium x speed of light in the air C. Speed of light in air to speed of light in vacuum

13. A bag contains 2 red, 3 green and 2 blue balls.Two balls are drawn at random.What is the probability that none of the drawn ball is blue?

D. focal length to object distance

A. 5/21

A. telescope

B. 20/21

C. 15/21

D. 10/21

14. A Bag contains some White and Black Balls. The probability of picking two white balls one after other without replacement from that bag is 14/33. Then what will be the probability of picking two Black balls from that Bag if bag can hold maximum 15 balls only? A. 11/32

B. 14/33

C. 1/11

D. 7/33

19. A virtual image is formed by _______.

B. the ordinary camera C. a slide projector in a cinema hall D. a simple microscope 20. Consequence of motor effect is A. emf

B. current

C. voltage

D. electromagnetic induction

15. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. What is the probability of getting the sum of the face number is at least 10? A. 1/3

B. 5/6

C. 1/6

D. 2/3

Physics

KVPY SA (Part II) Mock 6

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SMART ANSWERSHEET

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Performance Analysis Avg. Score Toppers Score Cut Off Your Score

KVPY SA (Part II) Mock 6

0/40 0/40 44/40

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HINTS AND SOLUTIONS

KVPY SA (Part II) Mock 6

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Chemistry

KVPY SA (PART II) MOCK 7 Biology 1. Twining of tendrils is due to A. heliotropism

B. thigmotropism

C. seismonasty

D. diageotropism.

6. The area under the temperature-entropy curve (T – s curve) of any thermodynamic process represents A. none of these B. either heat absorbed or heat rejected C. heat absorbed D. heat rejected

2. The most widely accepted theory for ascent of sap in trees is

7. The efficiency of Diesel cycle depends upon

A. role of atmospheric pressure

A. pressure ratio B. cut-off ratio and compression ratio

B. capillarity C. transpiration pull and cohesion theory of Dixon and Jolly. D. pulsating action of living cell 3. Which is employed for artificial ripening of banana fruits?

C. temperature limits D. compression ratio 8. The total energy of a molecule is shared equally by the various degrees of freedom possessed by it. This law is known as

A. auxin

B. ethylene

A. law of conservation of energy

C. cytokinin.

D. coumarin

B. none of these C. law of degradation of energy

4. Bananas can be prevented from over-ripening by A. maintaining them at room temperature

D. law of equipartition of energy 9. The entropy of water at 0°C is assumed to be A. 2

B. storing in a freezer. C. refrigeration D. dipping in ascorbic acid solution 5. Which is produced during water stress that brings stomatal closure? A. ferulic acid

B. abscisic acid

C. ethylene

D. coumarin.

B. 1

C. -1

D. 0

10. The sum of internal energy (U) and the product of pressure and volume (p.v) is known as A. enthalpy

B. none of these

C. entropy

D. workdone

Mathematics

KVPY SA (Part II) Mock 7

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11. A box contains 20 electric bulbs, out of which 4 are defective. Two bulbs are chosen at random from this box. The probability that at least one of these is defective is

16. E.M.F produced in conductor is known as

A. 6/19

17. Induced current in coil by a magnet turns it into an

B. 5/19

C. 7/19

D. 4/19

12. A box contains 5 green, 4 yellow and 3 white balls. Three balls are drawn at random. What is the probability that they are not of same colour. A. 52/55

B. 41/44

C. 3/44

D. 3/55

13. Suppose children like three types of chocolates Perk, Munch, and 5Star. If they are asked to choose to pick chocolate they have their own preference, one-sixth of children population preference is Perk>Munch>5star. One-sixth of children population preference is Munch>5star>Perk. Similarly remaining foursixths children preferences follows as per above combinations. If you met a random child and give him chance to pick a chocolate between Munch and Perk. He picked Munch. Now you offer Munch and 5star, what is the probability that he chooses again Munch? A. 2/3

B. 3/4

C. 1/6

D. 1/2

14. There are 12 boys and 8 girls in a tution centre. If three of them scored first mark, then what is the probability that one of the three is a girl and the other two are boys? A. none of these

B. 14/75

C. 44/95

D. 22/55

A. e.m.f

B. None of these

C. induced e.m.f

D. deduce e.m.f

A. magnet

B. straight wire

C. electromagnet

D. ammeter

18. When moving conductor was connected to galvanometer then shown quantity was A. None of these

B. current

C. resistance

D. voltage

19. Total number of magnetic field lines passing through an area is called A. magnetic flux density B. voltage C. magnetic flux

D. emf

20. Whenever magnetic flux linked with a coil changes induced e.m.f in circuit then e.m.f will be A. for a short time

B. as long as change in flux

C. for ever

D. for a long time

15. A speaks truth in 75% of cases and B in 80% of cases. In what percentage of cases are they likely to contradict each other, narrating the same incident? A. 40%

B. 30%

C. 45%

D. 35%

Physics

KVPY SA (Part II) Mock 7

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SMART ANSWERSHEET

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Performance Analysis Avg. Score Toppers Score Cut Off Your Score

KVPY SA (Part II) Mock 7

0/40 0/40 44/40

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HINTS AND SOLUTIONS

KVPY SA (Part II) Mock 7

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KVPY SA (PART II) MOCK 8

B. the temperature of the gas changes C. all of these D. no heat enters or leaves the gas

Biology 1. Minerals absorbed by root move to the leaf through A. sieve tubes

B. None of these

C. xylem

D. phloem

7. An isothermal process is governed by A. Boyle's law

B. Charles' law

C. Avogadro's law

D. Gay-Lussac law

8. In which of the following process, a maximum increase in entropy is observed? A. dissolution of salt in water

2. Abscisic acid controls

B. sublimation of naphthalene

A. cell elongation and wall formation.

C. condensation of water

B. cell division

D. melting of ice

C. leaf fall and dormancy D. shoot elongation 3. Greatest producers of organic matter are A. phytoplankton of oceans.

B. plants of the land area

C. forests

D. crop plants

9. Which of the following gas is mostly used in town for street and domestic lighting and heating? A. Mond gas

B. Coke oven gas

C. Coal gas

D. Producer gas

4. Klinostat is employed in the study of

10. One mole of which of the following has the highest entropy?

A. respiration.

B. growth movements

A. liquid nitrogen

B. hydrogen gas

C. photosynthesis

D. osmosis

C. diamond

D. mercury

5. In C4 plants, CO2 fixation is done by A. guard cells.

B. sclerenchyma

C. chlorenchyma and hypodermis

D. mesophyll cells

Chemistry 6. An adiabatic process is one in which A. the change in internal energy is equal to the mechanical workdone

KVPY SA (Part II) Mock 8

Mathematics 11. Six individual sock are present in a drawerTwo Red, Two Black and Two White. Pradeep picked one sock randomly to wear. Now he draws another sock from the drawer then what is the probability he draws a sock of same color? A. 1/30

B. 11/30

C. 1/5

D. 1/6

12. A boy gets a chance of 55% to win 1st round of a game and a girl gets a chance of 60% to win

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2nd round of the game. In what % of cases are they likely to contradict each other, narrating the same inci A. 54%

B. 49%

C. 71%

A. electromagnetic induction

B. photoelectric effect

C. x-rays

D. None of these

D. 38% 19. Emf for a coil depends upon

13. Sahil has two bags (A & B) that contain green and blue balls.In the Bag ‘A’ there are 6 green and 8 blue balls and in the Bag ‘B’ there are 6 green and 6 blue balls. One ball is drawn out from any of these two bags. What is the probability that the ball drawn is blue? A. 13/28

B. 23/28

C. 17/28

D. 15/28

14. From a pack of 52 cards, two cards are drawn together, what is the probability that both the cards are kings. A. 1/221

B. 2/221

C. 1/13

A. no. of turns of wire B. magnitude of magnetic flux density C. All of these D. cross sectional area 20. When field is parallel to plane of area, magnetic flux through coil is A. zero

B. infinite

C. 5

D. 2

D. 2/121

15. A committee of five persons is to be chosen from a group of 10 people. The probability that a certain married couple will either serve together or not at all is? A. 51/126

B. 54/199

C. 53/186

D. 52/195

Physics 16. According to Lenz's law, if you pull magnet away then induced current will A. go with pull

B. change pull

C. None of these

D. oppose pull

17. Magnitude of induced emf is proportional to A. rate of change of voltage B. rate of change of resistance C. rate of change of magnetic flux linkage D. rate of change of current 18. Converse of process of magnetic effect of current is

KVPY SA (Part II) Mock 8

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SMART ANSWERSHEET

Correct Q.

1

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Performance Analysis Avg. Score Toppers Score Cut Off Your Score

KVPY SA (Part II) Mock 8

0/40 0/40 44/40

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HINTS AND SOLUTIONS

KVPY SA (Part II) Mock 8

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KVPY SA (PART I) MOCK-1

7. In reflex action, the reflex arc is formed by ____________. A. spinal cord - receptor - muscles B. muscles - effector - brain

Biology

C. receptor - spinal cord - muscles D. muscles - receptor - brain

1. An example of a sex hormone is _________________. A. thymosin

B. insulin

8. A bridge of nerve fibers which connects two cerebral hemispheres is called

C. testosterone

D. thyroxin

A. corpus leuteum

B. corpus callosum

C. corpus scrotum

D. corpus callus

2. Dramatic changes of body features associated with puberty are mainly because of secretion of A. Testosterone from testes and Oestrogen from ovary

9. A nerve impulse is passed from one neuron to other through A. cellbody

B. dendrites

B. Oestrogen from testes and testosterone from ovary

C. node of ranvier

D. synapse

C. Testosterone from thyroid gland and Oestrogen from pituitary gland

10. An involuntary response to a stimulus is known as _______.

D. Oestrogen from adrenal gland and testosterone from pituitary gland

A. reflex

B. jerking

C. conditioning

D. answer

3. Receptors for smell, taste and for blood Oxygen etc. are

11. Adrenaline increases _____________.

A. Nociceptors

B. Thermoreceptors

A. heart rate

B. blood pressure

C. Mechanoreceptors

D. Chemoreceptors

C. All of these

D. amount of glucose in blood

4. The unit of the nervous system is _______________. A. dendron

B. neuron

C. cyton

12. The endocrine gland also known as 'master gland' is ______. D. axon

5. Male hormone is ________________. A. testosterone

B. oestrogen

C. adrenaline

D. progesterone

A. adrenal

B. pancreas

C. pituitary

D. hypothalamus

13. The nodes of Ranvier are ________________.

6. Junction of two neurons is called _____________.

A. collection of nerves in the heart

A. axon

B. dendrite

C. gaps in the cover of the nerve fibre

C. synapse

D. end plate

D. covering of the nerve fibre

KVPY SA (Part I) Mock-1

B. swelling along the nerve fibre

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14. Which of the following is not an involuntary action? A. Chewing

B. Salivation

C. Heart beat

D. Vomiting

21. Which oxide of a metal gets reduced only by coke and not by H2 gas or CO gas? A. CuO B. ZnO

15. Which of the following acts as both endocrine and exocrine glands? A. pancreas

B. ovaries

C. pituitary

D. adrenal

C. Fe2O3 D. PbO 22. Which among the following statements is incorrect for magnesium metal? A. It reacts with hot water to form magnesium hydroxide and evolves hydrogen gas B. It burns in oxygen with a dazzling white flame

Chemistry 16. Of these, the most reactive metal is ___________. A. Al

B. Zn

C. K

D. Fe

17. Metals form? B. None

C. Basic oxides

D. Amphoteric oxides

18. Alloys are homogeneous mixtures of a metal with a metal or nonmetal. Which among the following alloys contain non-metal as one of its constituents? B. Amalgam

C. Steel

B. Au

C. Al

A. K+

B. Cu2+

C. Ag+

D. Zn2+

24. When Copper turnings are added into the transparent silver nitrate solution,it turns? A. Noeffect

B. Black

C. Reddish brown

D. Remains blue

D. Bronze

19. 2 mL each of concentrated HCl, HNO3 and a mixture of concentrated HCl and concentrated HNO3 in the ratio of 3 : 1 were taken in test tubes labelled as A, B and C. A small piece of metal was put in each test tube. No change occurred in test tubes A and B but the metal got dissolved in test tube C respectively. The metal could be A. Pt

D. It reacts with steam to form magnesium hydroxide and evolves hydrogen gas 23. Of these, which ion will get reduced most readily?

A. Acidic oxides

A. Brass

C. It reacts with cold water to form magnesium oxide and evolves hydrogen gas

25. Which oxide of a metal gets reduced only by coke and not by H2 gas or CO gas? A. PbO

B. ZnO

C. CuO

D. Fe2O3

26. Which non-metal catches fire if the exposed to air A. Phosphorous

B. Calcium

C. Sodium

D. Uranium

D. Cu 27. The liquid metal is?

20. Of these, the least dense metal is ___________. A. Hg

B. Au

KVPY SA (Part I) Mock-1

C. Na

A. Mercury

B. Magnesium

C. Zinc

D. Copper

D. Cu

| 34

28. Which of the following metals is extracted only by electrolysis? A. Fe

B. Zn

C. Cu

D. Al

D. a > b Ʌ c > d this imply a + c < b + d 35. A quadratic Polynomial is of degree A. 5

B. 2

C. 3

D. 1

29. Which one of the following four metals would be displaced from the solution of its salts by other three metals?

36. Degree of a polynomial is the ________________

A. Mg

A. largest coefficients of x B. lowest power of x

B. Cu

C. Ag

D. Zn

30. When zinc is added into the blue colour copper sulphate solution,it turns?

C. smallest coefficient of D. highest power of x x

A. Blue

B. Cyan

37. X^2+ 4x + 4 is ____________

C. Transparent

D. Red

A. equation

B. polynomial

C. identity

D. None of these

38. If one of the zeroes of polynomial ax^2+ 6x +2 is -1, then the value of ‘a’ is:

Mathematics

A. 3 31. For all a,b belong R, a ≠ 0, b ≠ 0, 1 /a > 1⁄b this imply A. 1⁄a < 1⁄b

B. a > b

C. a = b

D. a < b

B. 2

C. 1

D. 4

39. A quadratic Polynomial, the sum and product of whose zeroes are -5 and -6 respectively is ____________ A. 𝑥 2 + 8𝑥 + 6 B. 𝑥 2 + 3𝑥 + 2

32. In decimals, cubic root of 9 is _____________ A. 2.08

B. 6.7

C. 4.5

2 C. 𝑥 + 5𝑥 − 6 = 0

D. 3.08

33. Transitive property of order of real numbers is that for all a, b,c belong R A. a < bɅ b < c this imly a < c

D. None of these 40. If sin θ = cos θ, then value of θ is A. 30°

B. 0°

C. 45°

D. 90°

41. The value of [(cos A/cot A) + sin A] is:

B. a < b Ʌ b < c this imply a≥c C. a c D. a < b Ʌ b < c this imply a = c

A. 2 sin A

B. sec A

C. cot A

D. 2 cos A

42. cos 1° × cos 2° × cos 3° × ... × cos 180° is equal to :

34. Additive property of order of real number is for all a,b,c,d belong to R.

A. 1/2

A. a > b Ʌ c > d this imply a + d > b + d

43. If sin θ = cos θ, then the value of cosec θ is :

B. a > b Ʌ c > d this imply c > b + d

A. 1

B. –1

B. 2

C. 0

C. √2

D. 1

D. 2/√3

C. a > b Ʌ c > d this imply a + c = b + d

KVPY SA (Part I) Mock-1

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44. If sinA + sin^2 A = 1 then what is the value of cos^2 A + cos^4 A? A. 2

B. ½

C. 1

A. safety device

B. current multiplication .

C. power multiplier

D. voltage multiplication

D. 3

45. Which of the following is correct some θ such that 0° ≤ θ < 90° A. secθ = 0

B. 1/secθ < 1

C. 1/cosθ < 1

D. 1/secθ > 1

51. Which device is used to convert electric energy into mechanical energy ? A. solenoid

B. electric iron

C. electric motor

D. electric generator

52. In an electric motor, the energy transformation is from

Physics

A. electrical to mechanical

B. chemical to light

C. electrical to chemical D. mechanical to electrical

46. The magnetic field produced at the center of a circular wire is proportional to _______ and inversely proportional to _______.

53. Which of the following describes the common domestic power supplied in India?

A. radius of loop, current

A. 110 V, 100 Hz

B. 220 V, 50 Hz

B. current, radius of loop

C. 220 V, 100 Hz

D. 100 V, 50 Hz

C. length of conductor, current D. weight of conductor, current 47. A soft iron bar is introduced inside a current carrying solenoid. The magnetic field inside the solenoid A. will become zero

B. will increase

C. will decrease

D. will remain unaffected

54. Which of the following devices works on the principle of electromagnetic induction? A. Voltmeter

B. Ammeter

C. Galvanometer

D. Generator

55. For making a strong electromagnet, the material of the core should be A. brass

B. soft iron

C. copper

D. steel

48. A current carrying conductor has a A. magnetic field

B. current capacity

C. resistance capacity

D. voltage capacity

56. When a fuse is rated 8A, it means A. it will not work if current is less than 8A B. it will burn if current exceeds 8A

49. Sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer can be increased by

C. it will work only if current is 8A D. it has a resistance of 8

A. by using a weak magnet. B. decreasing the area of a coil. C. decreasing the number of turns of coil. D. increasing the number of turns of coil.

57. The principle of magnetic induction was given by _______. A. Oersted

B. Ampere

C. Galileo

D. Michael Faraday

50. A fuse in an electric circuit acts as a

KVPY SA (Part I) Mock-1

| 36

58. The direction of magnetic field lines is taken A. leaving both poles

B. entering both poles

C. south to north

D. north to south

59. The principle of electric generator is _______. A. conversion of electrical energy into thermal energy B. conversion of electrical energy into light energy C. conversion of electrical energy into mechanical energy D. conversion of mechanical energy into electrical energy 60. This electromagnet consisted a coil of wire with A. steel magnet above B. steel magnet in it it C. iron magnet below it D. iron magnet in it

KVPY SA (Part I) Mock-1

| 37

SMART ANSWERSHEET

Correct Q.

1

Ans.

Correct Q.

Ans.

Skipped

Skipped

Skipped

59.16 %

44.74 %

C

13

C

A

A

C 13.82 % 53.45 %

29

C

41

A

19.22 %

33.03 %

13.22 %

48.05 %

37.54 %

56.46 %

70.87 %

18

C

C

D

A

B

C

B 25.22 %

80.78 %

33.33 % 46

B

22.82 %

12.91 %

38.74 %

43.84 %

27.63 %

67.27 %

17.42 %

23

C

39.04 %

B

26.72 %

50.15 % C

35

D

B

D

43.25 % 10.81 % D 54.66 % 43.54 % D 38.74 % 37.84 % 59

D 34.83 %

32.13 % 48

24.32 %

B

56.45 %

49.55 % 36

31.83 %

47 15.91 %

33.03 % 24

39.94 %

32.13 %

58

42.35 % C

40.24 %

57

15.91 % B

43.84 % B

45.65 % 45

15.92 % 34

42.34 %

56

27.32 % C

D

12.91 %

32.73 % 22

29.43 %

55

42.34 % A

39.04 %

71.47 % 44

A

B

12.91 %

58.86 % 33

49.85 %

54

C

23.12 %

27.03 % 21

52.26 %

57.96 % 43

37.54 % 32

27.92 %

A

16.22 %

12.01 %

35.14 %

38.14 %

C

62.76 % 31

14.72 % C

42 19.82 %

54.35 % B

20

D

C

20.42 % 19

B

30

24.92 %

53

39.63 % C

26.73 % 52

30.33 %

C

51.95 % C

54.65 % 40

30.33 %

17

36.94 % 51

74.47 %

A

A

10.51 %

36.04 %

40.54 %

12

C

35.14 %

36.34 %

11

D

43.84 % 50

81.98 % 39

33.93 % 28

41.15 %

10.51 %

47.45 %

33.93 %

10

D

31.23 %

24.62 % C

46.55 %

9

A

D

84.38 % 38

19.52 % 27

49 11.41 %

33.33 %

37.24 %

37.24 %

8

D

41.14 %

16

B

18.92 % 26

A

37 41.14 %

40.84 % 15

B

B

40.24 % 14

D

25 36.03 %

28.83 %

7

Ans.

21.62 %

40.24 %

6

Correct Q.

Skipped

41.14 %

5

Ans.

38.44 %

39.64 %

4

Correct Q.

Skipped

44.74 %

3

Ans.

46.85 % 37.23 % 2

Correct Q.

A

46.25 % 60

45.95 %

D 39.64 %

Performance Analysis Avg. Score Toppers Score Cut Off Your Score

KVPY SA (Part I) Mock-1

23/60 60/60 44/60

| 38

HINTS AND SOLUTIONS 9. A nerve impulse is transmitted from one neuron to another through junctions called synapses An impulse travels along the neuron pathways as electrical charges move across each neural cell membrane. Ions moving across the membrane cause the impulse to move along the nerve cells. When the impulse reaches the end of one neuron (the axon), the impulse reaches a synapse. A synapse is the space between neurons.

39.

𝛼 + 𝛽 = −5,  𝛼𝛽 = −6 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥 2 − (𝛼 + 𝛽)𝑥 + 𝛼𝛽 = 0 ⇒ 𝑥 2 − (−5)𝑥 + (−6) = 0 ⇒ 𝑥 2 + 5𝑥 − 6 = 0 Hence the quadratic Polynomial, is ⇒ 𝑥 2 + 5𝑥 −

6=0 So , the correct option is C

KVPY SA (Part I) Mock-1

| 39

KVPY SA (PART I) MOCK-2 Biology

7. Endocrine glands are those which pour their secretions into _________________. A. blood

B. ducts

C. sinuses

D. any of these

8. Auxins are _________________. 1. The hormone that causes blood sugar level to fall is _______________. A. glucagon

B. somatostatin

C. adrenalin

D. insulin

2. Medulla oblongata is situated in ___________. A. fore brain

A. enzymes

B. hormones

C. proteins

D. vitamins

9. The substance that accelerates the growth in the stem is ____. A. vitamin

B. enzyme

C. auxin

D. cytokinin

B. mid brain

C. partly in b and c each D. hind brain 3. Growth hormone is produced in ___________. A. pancreas

B. pituitary

C. hypothalamus

D. thyroid

10. The hormone that speeds up the ripening process is ______. A. ethylene

B. auxin

C. cytokinin

D. gibberelin

11. Inside of neuron, membrane is made more negative by

4. The cells in our body that can be over a foot long are _____.

A. fats

B. proteins and organic acids

A. nerve cells

B. blood cells

C. lipids

D. carbohydrates

C. muscle cells

D. bone cells

5. Release of corticotrophin releasing factor is controlled by nervous stimulation of hypothalamus as a result of A. All of these

B. heat and cold

C. pain

D. stress

6. Hormone produced by the ovarian follicle is __________ and in addition ________ is produced by the corpus luteum. A. oestrogen, progesterone

B. oestrogen, thyroxin

C. progesterone, oestorgen

D. progesterone, thyroxin

KVPY SA (Part I) Mock-2

12. Gastrin is hormone produced by mucosa of pyloric region of the A. stomach

B. intestine

C. kidney

D. lungs

13. Measure of capacity to do electrical work is called A. ion potential

B. electrical potential

C. charge potential

D. impulse potential

14. erebral hemispheres are centres of __________. A. balance

B. smell

C. taste

D. thinking

| 40

23. An alloy is 15. Cerebrum is present in the _______________.

A. an element

B. a compound

A. mid brain

B. hind brain

C. a heterogeneous mixture

D. a homogeneous mixture

C. fore brain

D. partly in a and b each 24. Which of the following metals does not displace H2 gas from dilute HCl or dilute H2SO4? A. Zn

Chemistry

B. Al

C. Mg

D. Cu

25. What happens when iron fillings are added to dilute hydrochloric acid?

16. All materials shown property of malleability expect

A. Iron oxie is formed. B. Iron salt and water is produced.

A. Aluminium

B. Silver

C. Iron

D. Graphite

C. Hydrogengas is evolved.

17. Of these, the most ductile metal is ___________. A. Al

B. Cu

C. Ag

D. Au

D. chlorine gas is evolved. 26. Which metal reacts less vigorously with water? A. Aluminium

B. sodium

18. Which of the following is displaced by 'Cu'?

C. potassium

D. Calcium

A. Ag+

27. Of these, the metal which occurs in a free state is ___________.

B. Al3+

C. Zn2+

D. Fe2+

19. During electrolytic refining of zinc, it gets A. Mg A. remains in the solution

B. Zn

C. Na

D. Pt

C. deposited on anode

28. The metal reacting readily with cold water is ___________.

D. deposited on cathode as well as anode

A. Na

20. Which one of the following metal reacts vigorously with oxygen and water?

29. Which of the following metals is extracted only by electrolysis?

A. Sodium

B. Magnesium

A. Zn

C. Potassium

D. Calcium

B. deposited on cathode

B. Ag

B. Al

C. Mg

C. Cu

A. Iodine

B. Chlorine

A. Cobalt

C. Bromine

D. Sulphur

C. Calcium

D. Fe

30. The liquid Non metal is?

21. The metal that form Amphoteric oxide is? B. Zinc

D. Au

D. Sodium

22. The solution of ash of magnesium ribbon isA. Acidic

B. Basic

C. Neutral

D. All of these

KVPY SA (Part I) Mock-2

| 41

39.

Mathematics 31.

A. 0

B. 1

C. 3

D. 2

A. tan 67° cot 67°

B. tan 47° cot 67°

C. tan 67° cot 47°

D. tan 47° cot 47°

40. I. x^2 + 9x – 52 = 0 II. 12y^2 + 16y + 4 = 0 A. if x ≥ y

32. Two supplementary angles are in the ratio 3:2. The angles are

B. if x = y or relationship between x and y can't be established

A. 54°, 36°

B. 108°, 72°

C. if x > y

C. 114°, 66°

D. 33°, 57°

D. if x ≤ y

33. Find the value of: [sin(90° - a) - cos a + tan (90 - a) + tan a], if a = 45°

41. I. x^2 – 4 (√2 + √5) x + 16√10 = 0II. y^2 – 5(√3 + 2√2) y + 50√6 = 0

A. 2

A. if x = y or relationship between x and y can't be established

B. 3

C. 1

D. 4

34. Given that sin A=1/2 and cos B=1/√2 then the value of (A + B) is:

B. if x ≥ y

A. 15°

D. if x > y

B. 45°

C. 75°

D. 30°

35. sin θ = 4/3 for some angle θ, is :

C. if x ≤ y

42. I. 36x^2 – 196x – 11 = 0II. 6y^2 – 12y – 378 = 0

A. true B. false C. may be true for certain cases

A. if x = y or relationship between x and y can't be established

D. None of these

B. if x ≥ y C. if x < y

36. If sec θ – tan θ = 1/3, the value of (sec θ + tan θ)

D. if x ≤ y

A. 2

43. I. 8x^2 + 29x + 26 = 0 II. 11y^2 + 39y + 18 = 0

B. 4

C. 3

D. 1

A. if x < y E

37.

B. if x ≤ y C. if x > y

A. R = P ≠ Q

B. Q = R ≠ P

C. P = Q = R

D. P = Q ≠ R

38. If (cotA – tan A)/2 = x, then the value of x is A. tan2A

B. cotA

C. tanA

D. if x = y or relationship between x and y can't be established 44. I. 84x^2 + 115x + 26 = 0 II. 27y^2 + 36y – 15 = 0

D. cot2A A. if x < y

KVPY SA (Part I) Mock-2

| 42

B. if x ≤ y C. if x = y or relationship between x and y can't be established

50. A device used for measuring small currents due to changing magnetic field is known as A. ammeter

B. voltmeter

D. if x ≥ y

C. potentiometer

D. galvanometer

45. I. 24x^2 + 25x – 11 = 0 II. 45y^2 + 36y + 7 = 0

51. Electromagnetic induction is the

A. if x ≤ y

A. rotation of the coil of an electric motor

B. if x ≥ y

B. production of current by relative motion between a magnet and a coil

C. if x = y or relationship between x and y can't be established D. if x > y

C. generation of magnetic field due to a current carrying solenoid D. charging of a body with a positive charge

Physics 46. The magnetic field of a solenoid is quite similar to that of

52. In our domestic electric supply we use following three colours of wire. A. red, black, green

B. black, green, yellow

C. red, yellow, blue

D. red, blue, green

A. a bar magnet

B. a straight conductor

53. A magnetic field line is used to find the direction of

C. any magnet

D. a horse-shoe magnet

A. magnetic field

B. a compass needle

C. south-north

D. a bar magnet

47. The magnetic field lines due to a straight wire carrying a current are A. parabolic

B. circular

54. You have a coil and a bar magnet. You can produce an electric current by

C. elliptical

D. straight

A. moving either the magnet or the coil

48. The magnetic field produced due to the current passing through a conductor is proportional to the _______. A. diameter of conductor

B. length of conductor

C. electric current

D. conducting material

49. An electric generator actually acts as A. source of heat energy B. a converter of energy C. an electromagnet

KVPY SA (Part I) Mock-2

D. source of electric charge

B. using another DC source C. moving the coil but not the magnet D. moving the magnet but not the coil 55. The insulation cover on the earth wire is _______. A. red

B. white

C. green

D. black

56. Who was the first person to notice the magnetic effect of electric current ? A. Oersted

B. Faraday

C. Ampere

D. Volta

57. The direction of the force on a currentcarrying wire placed in a magnetic field depends on

| 43

A. the direction of the current B. the direction of the field C. the direction of current as well as field D. neither the direction of current nor the direction of field 58. A charged particle experiences magnetic force in the presence of magnetic field. Which of the following statement is correct? A. The particle is stationary and magnetic field is perpendicular. B. The particle is stationary and magnetic field is parallel. C. The particle is moving and magnetic field is parallel to velocity. D. The particle is moving and magnetic field is perpendicular to the velocity.

59. An electric current passes through a straight wire in the direction of south to north. Magnetic compasses are placed at points A and B as shown in the figure.What is your observation? A. Only one of the needles will deflect B. Both the needles will deflect in the same direction C. The needles will deflect in the opposite directions D. The needle will not deflect 60. The magnetic lines of force inside a current carrying solenoid are A. circular and intersect each other B. circular and do not intersect each other C. along the axis and parallel to each other D. perpendicular to the axis and parallel to each other

KVPY SA (Part I) Mock-2

| 44

SMART ANSWERSHEET

Correct Q.

1

Ans.

Correct Q.

Ans.

Skipped

Skipped

Skipped

100.0 %

100.0 %

D

13

B

D

D

B 0.0 % 0.0 %

29

B

41

A

0.0 %

0.0 %

0.0 %

100.0 %

100.0 %

0.0 %

100.0 %

18

A

A

B

B

B

B

C

C

0.0 % 100.0 % A 0.0 %

0.0 %

0.0 % 0.0 % 46

0.0 % 57

100.0 % C

100.0 % C

100.0 % 45

0.0 % 34

0.0 %

56

100.0 % B

A

0.0 %

100.0 % 22

0.0 %

55

100.0 % A

0.0 %

100.0 % 44

A

A

0.0 %

100.0 % 33

100.0 %

54

D

0.0 %

100.0 % 21

100.0 %

100.0 % 43

100.0 % 32

0.0 %

A

0.0 %

0.0 %

100.0 %

0.0 %

A

100.0 % 31

0.0 % A

42 0.0 %

100.0 %

20

C

C

0.0 % 19

B

30

0.0 %

53

100.0 % A

100.0 % 52

0.0 %

D

0.0 % B

0.0 % 40

100.0 %

17

100.0 % 51

0.0 %

A

D

0.0 %

100.0 %

0.0 %

A

C 100.0 % 100.0 %

58

D

0.0 %

0.0 %

0.0 %

100.0 %

0.0 %

100.0 %

100.0 %

100.0 %

0.0 %

100.0 %

B

23

D

0.0 % A

35

B

0.0 %

0.0 % 12

C

0.0 %

100.0 %

11

A

0.0 % 50

0.0 % 39

100.0 % 28

0.0 %

0.0 %

100.0 %

0.0 %

10

D

0.0 %

0.0 % B

100.0 %

9

D

B

100.0 % 38

100.0 % 27

49 0.0 %

0.0 %

0.0 %

0.0 %

8

A

100.0 % 16

C

0.0 % 26

C

37 0.0 %

100.0 % 15

A

C

0.0 % 14

B

25 100.0 %

0.0 %

7

Ans.

100.0 %

0.0 %

6

Correct Q.

0.0 %

100.0 %

5

Ans.

Skipped

0.0 %

4

Correct Q.

0.0 %

100.0 %

3

Ans.

Skipped

100.0 % 2

Correct Q.

100.0 % 24

D

100.0 %

B

C

C 0.0 %

0.0 % 48

0.0 %

59 100.0 %

100.0 % 36

0.0 %

47 0.0 %

C

0.0 % 60

100.0 %

C 0.0 %

Performance Analysis Avg. Score Toppers Score Cut Off Your Score

KVPY SA (Part I) Mock-2

16/60 32/60 44/60

| 45

HINTS AND SOLUTIONS

KVPY SA (Part I) Mock-2

| 46

KVPY SA (PART I) MOCK-3 Biology

7. Main transmitter for synapses that lie outside central nervous system is A. acetylcholine

B. serotonin

C. adrenaline

D. dopamine

1. Outer layer of adrenal gland is called

8. The cerebellum is concerned with _______________.

A. cortex

B. adrenal cortex

A. intelligence

B. conditioning

C. adrenal medulla

D. medulla

C. memory

D. coordination and precision

2. When a person is suffering from severe cold, he or she cannot A. Differentiate red light from green light

9. Cranial nerves also known as cerebral nerves arise from the

B. Differentiate a hot object from a cold object

A. peripheral nerves

B. brain

C. Differentiate the taste of an apple from that of an ice cream

C. spinal cord

D. vertebral column

D. Differentiate the smell of a perfume from that of an agarbatti 3. The box enclosing the brain is called the _____________. A. vertebral column

B. skull

C. cranium

D. head

10. Which statement is not true about thyroxin? A. Iron is essential for the synthesis of thyroxin B. It regulates carbohydrates, protein and fat metabolism in the body C. Thyroxin is also called thyroid hormone D. Thyroid gland requires iodine to synthesise thyroxin

4. The kind of nerve carrying impulses from the brain to a gland or a muscle is called ______.

11. The lobes - parietal, temporal, frontal and occipetal belong to _________________.

A. mixed

B. None of these

A. medulla oblongata B. cerebellum

C. affector

D. effector

C. cerebrum

D. hypothalamus

5. The CNS consists of _______________.

12. Diabetes insipidus is caused by lack of

A. brain and spinal cord

A. oxytocin

B. thyroxine

B. brain, spinal cord and all the nerves

C. vasopressin

D. steroids

C. brain D. spinal cord

13. There are ___________ pairs of cranial nerves.

6. Cerebellum is situated in ___________.

A. 41

A. mid brain

B. fore brain

C. hind brain

D. partly in a and b each

KVPY SA (Part I) Mock-3

B. 12

C. 21

D. 31

14. Many of sensory stimuli of nervous system are converted into hormonal responses in

| 47

A. pons

B. thalamus

C. hypothalamus

D. cerebrum

kept open in air. It reacts vigorously with water. Identify the element from the following A. Mg

B. Na

C. Ca

D. P

15. Axon may be more than A. two meter long

B. one meter long

C. three meter long

D. five meter long

23. Which one of the following is non metal? A. Zn

B. Fe

C. N

D. Al

24. The metal reacting readily with cold water is ___________. A. Na

Chemistry 16. Which one of the following metals does not react with cold as well as hot water? A. Ca

B. Fe

C. Mg

D. Na

B. Au

C. Mg

D. Ag

25. Which metal is stored in Kerosene Oil in a laboratory? A. Magnesium

B. Sodium

C. Copper

D. Zinc

17. Which of the following metals does not displace H2 gas from dilute HCl or dilute H2SO4?

26. What is the chemical formula of copper sulphate?

A. Mg

A. CuO

B. Zn

C. Cu

D. Al

B. CuCl2

C. CuSO4

D. CuCO3

18. Of these, which metal will lose electrons most readily and form cations?

27. The property of metal by which it can be drawn into wires is called

A. Au

A. malleability

B. Decorating

C. Ductility

D. Conductivity

B. K

C. Zn

D. Cu

19. The ability of metals to be drawn into thin wire is known as A. Malleability

B. Ductility

28. Which one of the following is a good conductor of electricity?

C. Conductivity

D. Sonority

A. Iron

B. Plastic

C. Glass

D. Wood

20. The metal that reacts with hydrogen to form its respective hydride is:

29. What is the product when sulphur reacts with oxygen?

A. Potassium

B. All of these

A. Sulphuric acid

B. Sulphur dioxide

C. Sodium

D. Calcium

C. Sulphurous acid

D. Sulphur trioxide

21. The property of metals by which they can be beaten in to thin sheets is called-

30. Which metal is present in Calcium Hydroxide?

A. Ductility

B. malleability

A. H

C. conduction

D. Expansion

B. O

C. C

D. Ca

22. An element A is soft and can be cut with a knife. This is very reactive to air and cannot be

KVPY SA (Part I) Mock-3

| 48

38. If a cuboid is 3.2 cm high, 8.9cm long and 4.7 wide then total surface area is ________ .

Mathematics 31. I. x^2 + 31x + 238 = 0II. y^2 + 47y + 552 = 0 A. if x > y

B. if x ≥ y

C. if x < y

D. if x ≤ y

A. 325.8 cm²

B. 180 cm²

C. 170.7 cm²

D. 205.7 cm²

32. I. 11x + 64/x = 54 II. 12y^2 + 40y + 17 = 0

39. If 200 liters of orange juice is to be poured in cylindrical drum with diameter of 80cm then depth of orange juice in drum is

A. if x ≤ y

A. 48.68 cm

B. 39.78 cm

B. if x ≥ y

C. 45.78 cm

D. 54.68 cm

C. if x > y D. if x < y E if x = y or relationship between x and y can't be established

40. If diameter of right circular cylinder is 18cm with height of 28cm and value of pi = 3.142 then total surface area of cylinder is

33. If a rectangular cuboid is 9cm long and 8cm wide with volume of 450cm³ then height of cuboid in 'cm' is

A. 4092.572cm²

B. 3092.572cm²

C. 1092.572cm²

D. 2092.572cm²

A. 6.25

34. If a cuboid is 2.7cm high, 7.8cm long and 3.7 wide then volume of cuboid is _______

41. If circular metal sheet is 0.65cm thick and of 50cm in diameter is melted and recast into cylindrical bar with 8cm diameter then length of bar will be _______

A. 83.456m³

B. 77.922cm³

A. 35.41 cm

B. 24.41 cm

C. 85.687cm³

D. 82.987cm³

C. 30.41 cm

D. 40.41 cm

B. 9.25

C. 8.25

D. 12.25

35. By converting 0.8m³ into cm³, answer will be _________

42. If volume of cylinder is 900 cm² with height of 20 cm then diameter of cylinder is ____

A. 800000cm³

B. 8000cm³

A. 12.23 cm²

B. 24 cm²

C. 80000cm³

D. 800cm³

C. 9.57 cm²

D. 7.57 cm²

36. If a rectangular tank is 21 cm long, 13 cm wide and 18 cm high and contains water up to a height of 11 cm then volume of water in liters is ______

43. If internal dimensions of wooden box are as 80cm long, 48cm wide, 20cm deep and box is 4cm thick then volume of wood that is to be used in constructing box is

A. 3.003 liters

B. 5.003 liters

A. 17050cm³

B. 18500cm³

C. 4.003 liters

D. 2.003 liters

C. 19296cm³

D. 250cm³

37. If a rectangular cuboid is 15cm long, 10cm wide and 9cm high with volume of 500cm³ then surface area of cuboid is

44. If diameter of a cylinder is 5 cm and volume of cylinder is 650 cm³ then height of cylinder is _______

A. 850cm²

A. 40 cm

B. 750cm² C. 800cm² D. 700cm²

KVPY SA (Part I) Mock-3

B. 25 cm

C. 45 cm

D. 33 cm

| 49

45. If there are 150 wood cylinders to be carved and each cylinder is 12cm long and has diameter of 45mm then total surface area for carving is __________ . A. 250 cm² B. 305 cm² C. 285 cm² D. 201 cm²

Physics 46. Magnetic field inside a long solenoid carrying current is

A. Fleming's left-hand rule B. Fleming's right-hand rule C. Ampere's rule D. Maxwell's right-hand thumb rule 52. If a velocity has both perpendicular and parallel components while moving through a magnetic field, what is the path followed by a charged particle? A. Circular

B. Linear

C. Helical

D. Elliptical

A. same at all points (uniform)

53. What is the frequency of the current used domestically in India ?

B. different at all points

A. 50 Hz

B. 220 Hz

C. 60 Hz

D. 110 Hz

C. zero D. different at poles and at the centre

54. Magnetic field produced at the centre of a current carrying circular wire is

47. The magnetic field due to electric current in a conductor is _______.

A. directly proportional to the square of the radius of the circular wire

A. in the direction opposite to electric current

B. directly proportional to the radius of the circular wire

B. circular around the conductor C. in the center of the conductor D. in the direction of electric current 48. Magnetic lines of force inside a solenoid are... A. intersect one another B. from S to N C. circular

D. from N to S

C. inversely proportional to the radius of the circular wire D. inversely proportional to the square of the radius of the circular wire 55. A galvanometer of resistance 50 Ω gives a full scale deflection for a current 5 × 10^–4 A. The resistance that should be connected in series with the galvanometer to read 3 V is

49. The magnetic field lines inside a long, current carrying solenoid are nearly

A. 5950 Ω

A. parabolic

B. circular

C. straight

D. elliptical

56. When the main switch of the house is put off, it disconnects

B. 595 Ω

C. 5059 Ω

D. 5050 Ω

A. live wire

B. neutral wire

50. Who first discovered the relationship between electricity and magnetism?

C. earth wire

D. live and neutral wires

A. Faraday B. Maxwell C. Oersted D. Newton

57. The direction of a magnetic field is taken _______.

51. The direction of induced curent is obtained by

A. north to south and

KVPY SA (Part I) Mock-3

B. south to north only

| 50

back C. north to south only D. south to north and back 58. A charged particle moves through a magnetic field perpendicular to its direction. Then A. both momentum and kinetic energy of the particle are constant. B. both momentum and kinetic energy of the particle are not constant. C. kinetic energy changes but the momentum is constant. D. the momentum changes but the kinetic energy is constant. 59. A cyclotron is used to accelerate ________ A. both positively and negatively charged particles. B. Neutron C. only positively charged particles. D. Only negatively charges particles 60. Kilowatt-hour is the unit of A. electric power

B. charge

C. potential difference D. electrical energy

KVPY SA (Part I) Mock-3

| 51

SMART ANSWERSHEET

Correct Q.

1

Ans.

Correct Q.

Ans.

Skipped

Skipped

0%

0%

B

13

B

D

B

0%

0%

0%

0%

0%

0%

18

B

A

B

C

B

D

D 0%

0%

0% 46

A

0%

0%

0%

0%

0%

0%

0%

23

C

A

0%

0% C

35

A

B

A

0% 0% C 0% 0% D 0% 0% 59

C 0%

0% 48

0%

D

0%

0% 36

0%

47 0%

0% 24

0%

0%

58

0% C

0%

57

0% B

0% A

0% 45

0% 34

0%

56

0% B

C

0%

0% 22

0%

55

0% A

0%

0% 44

A

A

0%

0% 33

0%

54

C

0%

0% 21

0%

0% 43

0% 32

C

0%

0%

0%

0% 12

A

0%

0%

D

0% 31

0% B

42 0%

0%

20

B

D

0% 19

D

30

0%

53

0%

0%

11

B

0%

0%

10

41

0% C

0% 52

0%

0%

9

D

0% B

0% B

0% 40

0% 29

0% 51

0% C

C

0%

0%

0%

8

B

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KVPY SA (Part I) Mock-3

0/60 0/60 44/60

| 52

HINTS AND SOLUTIONS

KVPY SA (Part I) Mock-3

| 53

KVPY SA (PART I) MOCK-4 Biology

A. Homo erectus

B. Hominidae

C. Homo habillis

D. Homo sapiens

8. The component of a chromosome that controls heredity is ____. A. DNA

B. RNA

1. Afferent nerves are also called the _______________.

C. histones

D. proteins

A. mixed nerves

B. association nerves

9. Which hormone is released from testes ?

C. sensory nerves

D. motor nerves

A. Testosterone

B. Progesterone

C. Estrogen

D. Relaxin

2. Efferent nerves are also called as _____________. A. mixed nerves

B. motor nerves

10. Which of the following character is seen in female ?

C. association nerves

D. sensory nerves

A. Mammary gland is namesake only

3. At the synapses, the impulses are always passed from the __________________. A. axon to the dendrites B. dendrites to the axon C. cyton to the dendrites

D. either way is possible

4. Alternative forms of a gene are called _____________. A. alleles

B. multiples

C. chromosomes

D. loci

5. Speciation takes place when variation occurs with A. changes due to accidents

B. geographical isolation

C. mood changes

D. death of an organism

6. Evidences of evolutionary relationships is found in ______. A. ocean beds

B. atmosphere

C. fossils

D. rocks

7. Human being belongs to the species of_____.

KVPY SA (Part I) Mock-4

B. Voice is heavy C. Muscles arestrong D. Mammary gland is well developed 11. Which of the following character is seen in male? A. Beard and mustache is not seen B. Voice is shrill C. Voice is heavy D. Muscles are comparitively weak 12. The cells which secrete male sex hormone testosterone are A. Leydig’s cells

B. Lieberkiihn

C. Crypt cells

D. isthmus

13. Which of the following gland is seen in male reproductive system ? A. Seminal vesicle

B. All of these

C. Bulbourethral gland

D. Prostate gland

14. A person with unknown blood group under ABO system, has suffered much blood loss in an accident and needs immediate blood

| 54

transfusion. His one friend who has a valid certificate of his own blood type, offers for blood donation without delay. What would have been the type of blood group of the donor friend?

A. Atomic mass

B. Atomic number

C. Valence electrons

D. Valency

A. Type A

A. 3 group and 1st period

B. 1 group and 3rd period

C. 1 group and 8th period

D. 17 group and 3rd period

B. Type AB C. Type B

D. Type O

15. Fertilization of ova in human take place in A. Vagina

B. Uterus

C. Fallopian tube

D. ovary

22. An element has configuration 2, 8, 1. It belongs to, _________.

23. Amphoteric exides are those which possess ________ properties

Chemistry 16. The metals that produce ringing sounds, are said to beA. sonorous

B. malleable

C. hard

D. Lustrous

A. Neutral and acidic

B. Basic

C. Acidic

D. Acidic and basic

24. The number of shells in the elements of 3rd period is __________. A. 3

B. 2

C. 1

D. 0

25. Lanthanides and actinides are also called ___________.

17. Which metal is found in liquid state t room temperature?

A. normal elements

A. Hg

C. transition elements D. noble gases

B. Zn

C. Al

D. Fe

18. Which one of the following is metal? A. N

B. Na

C. O

D. C

B. inner transition elements

26. At the end of each period the valence shell is __________. A. completely filled

B. singly occupied

19. Elements in the same vertical group of the periodic table have same

C. half filled

D. incomplete

A. Atomic volume

B. Number of valence electrons

27. Which one of the following is not a periodic property?

C. Atomic mass

D. Atomic number

A. Coordination number of ions B. Melting point of elements

20. The family of elements having seven electrons in the outermost shell is ______.

C. Boiling point of elements D. Ionization energy of elements

A. alkaline earth metals B. noble gases C. halogens

D. alkali metals

21. In modern periodic table all the leements are arranged in ascending order of

KVPY SA (Part I) Mock-4

28. The family of elements to which calcium belongs is __________. A. halogens

B. alkaline earth metals

C. noble gases

D. alkali metals

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A. Copper

B. Hydrogen

35. In triangle ABC, O is the centroid and AD, BE, CF are three medians and the area of triangle AOE = 20 cm^2, then area of quadrilateral ECDO is

C. Germanium

D. Sodium

A. 25 cm^2 B. 40 cm^2 C. 30 cm^2 D. 20 cm^2

29. Which element was not known when Mendeleev proposed his classification?.

30. Periodic table provides a basic framework to study elements with respect to their A. Properties of their compounds

36. In a ΔABC, ∠A = 100°. If BD and CD are internal bisectors of ∠B and ∠C respectively, then the ∠BDC is,

B. Physical properties

A. 100°

C. Chemical properties

37. In a ΔABC, BC is extended up to D; ∠ACD = 150°, ∠B = ¼ ∠A. Then ∠B is

D. All

A. 60°

B. 120°

B. 30°

C. 140°

C. 40°

D. 110°

D. 120°

38. The length of the radius of a circle with centre O is 5 cm and the length of the chord AB is 8 cm. The distance of the chord AB from the point O is __________

Mathematics 31. If a rectangular tank is 21 cm long, 13 cm wide and 18 cm high and contains water up to a height of 11 cm then total surface area is _________

A. 4 cm

B. 2 cm

C. 3 cm

D. 15 cm

A. 1450cm² B. 1200cm² C. 1021cm² D.1350cm² 32. ∠A, ∠B, ∠C are three angles of a triangle. If ∠A - ∠B = 18°, ∠B - ∠C = 30°, then ∠A, ∠B and ∠C are _____________. A. 80°, 64°, 45°

B. 70°, 60°, 30°

C. 82o, 64°, 34°

D. 80°, 60°, 44°

33. What is the length of the chord of a circle of radius 13 cm, touching another concentric circle of radius 5 cm? A. 10 cm

B. 24 cm

C. 16 cm

39. In the figure given below, AB is parallel to CD. ∠ABC = 65°, ∠CDE = 15° and AB = AE.What is the value of ∠AEF?

D. 26 cm A. 40°

34. O and O' are respectively the orthocentre and cicumcentre of an acute angled triangle PQR. the point P and O are joined and produced to meet the side QR at S. If ∠PQS = 60° and ∠QO'R = 130° then ∠RPS = ? A. 35°

B. 60°

KVPY SA (Part I) Mock-4

C. 75°

B. 30°

C. 45°

D. 35°

40. In a triangle, if three altitudes are equal, then the triangle is A. Isosceles

B. Equilateral

C. Right

D. Obtuse

D. 45°

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41. If ΔABC is an equilateral triangle of side 16 cm, then the length of altitude is A. 4√3

B. 8√3

C. 2√3

D. 5√3

42. D, E, F are the mid - points of the sides BC, CA and AB respectively of a ΔABC. Then the ratio of the areas of DEF and ΔABC is D, E, F.

A. 400 Ω

B. 200 Ω

C. 300 Ω

D. 100 Ω

49. When switch was turned of, iron bar A. gained current

B. lost its magnetism

C. held its magnetism

D. gained voltage

43. In Δ ABC, PQ is parallel to BC. If AP : PB = 1 : 2 and AQ = 3 cm; AC is equal to -

50. A galvanometer having internal resistance 10Ω requires 0.01 A for a full scale deflection. To convert this galvanometer to a voltmeter of fullscale deflection at 120 V, we need to connect a resistance of ____________

A. 12 cm

A. 11990 Ω in series

B. 11990 Ω in parallel

C. 12010 Ω in parallel

D. 12010 Ω in series

A. 1/8

B. 1/2

C. 1/4

B. 15 cm

C. 9 cm

D. 1/16

D. 6 cm

44. ABCD is a quadrilateral, the sides of which touch a circle. Which one of the following is correct?

51. The radiation in the sunlight that gives us the feeling of hotness is ______.

A. AB + AD = CB + CD

B. AB : AD = CB : CD

A. red

B. visible radiation

C. AB : CD = AD : BC

D. AB + CD = AD + BC

C. infra-red

D. ultra-violet

45. The angles of a triangle are (3x)°,(2x – 7)° and (4x – 11)°. The value of x is

52. The molten material mixed with gases in the mantle of the earth is called ______.

A. 20°

A. geyser

B. 30°

C. 22°

D. 18°

B. lava

C. magma

D. core

53. The energy of a thermal neutron is about ______.

Physics 46. The current passing through two separate lines (circuits) of our houses is _______ A and _______ A. A. 2, 5

B. 10, 15

C. 5, 10

D. 5, 15

47. Magnets turn on and off that makes electromagnets A. useless

B. stronger

C. weaker

D. very useful

48. A range of galvanometer is ‘V’, when 50Ω resistance is connected in series. Its range gets doubled when 500Ω resistance is connected in series. Galvanometer resistance is ________

KVPY SA (Part I) Mock-4

A. 0.0025 ev

B. 0.25 ev

C. 0.025 ev

D. 0.00025 ev

54. The energy which is not derived from the sun is ______. A. geo-thermal energy B. nuclear energy C. fossil fuels

D. bio-mass

55. The maximum temperature that can be attained in a box-type solar cooker is ______. A. 250 degree C

B. 140 degree C

C. 80 degree C

D. 200 degree C

56. In a solar panel, the metal used is ______. A. silver

B. nickel

C. copper

D. gold

| 57

57. The radiations emitted by a hot furnace are ______. A. micro waves

B. infra-red

C. ultra-violet

D. X-rays

58. Nuclear fusion reactions happens spontaneously in ______. A. the core of the earth B. the commercial nuclear reactor C. the eruption of a volcano D. the atmosphere of the sun 59. A solar heating system consists of A. a distribution system B. a collector C. All of these

D. a storage device

60. The source of energy of the sun is ______. A. nuclear fusion

B. chemical reaction

C. photoelectric effect

D. nuclear fission

KVPY SA (Part I) Mock-4

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SMART ANSWERSHEET

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Performance Analysis Avg. Score Toppers Score Cut Off Your Score

KVPY SA (Part I) Mock-4

0/60 0/60 44/60

| 59

HINTS AND SOLUTIONS

KVPY SA (Part I) Mock-4

| 60

KVPY SA (PART I) MOCK-5 Biology

7. Number of chromosomes in a human male is _________. A. 22 pairs

B. 23

C. 23 pairs

D. 22 pairs + XY

1. Which of these is homozygous recessive?

8. On what cellular structures are genes in eukaryotes carried?

A. SS

A. Chromosomes

B. Endoplasmic reticulum

C. Mitochondria

D. Nuclear membrane

B. s

C. ss

D. Ss

2. In dogs the chromosome number is 78. How many chromosomes are present in the dog sperm? A. 78

9. The Leydig cells as found in the human body are the secretory source of

B. cannot determine from this information

A. Progesterone

B. Glucagon

C. 39

C. Intestinal mucus

D. Androgens

D. variable 3. About which day in a normal human menstrual cycle does rapid secretion of LH (Popularly called LH-surge) normally occurs? A. 11th day

B. 20th day

C. 5th day

D. 14th day

10. In man the chromosome number is 46. How many chromosomes are present in man's muscle cells? A. 69

B. variable

C. 23

D. 46

11. Which connective tissue surrounds testis ?

4. Sertoli cells are found in

A. Fibrous tissue

B. Tunica albuginea

A. Liver

B. seminiferous tubules

C. None of them

C. Heart

D. Germinal epithelium

D. Spongy connective tissue

5. The central fluid filled cavity of the blastula is known as

12. What will be the genotypic ratio of the cross between Rr and Rr?

A. blastocyst

B. blastocoel

A. 1:1:1

C. morula

D. archenteron

6. Heredity or inheritance of specific traits became clearer due to A. Mendel worked on garden peas B. Neo-Darwinism

B. 1:1

C. 1:2:1

D. 3:1

13. The offspring resulting from a cross between two pure homozygous recessives would be _______. A. 75% homozygous recessive and 25% homozygous dominant

C. Darwinism

B. 75% homozygous recessive and 25% heterozygous dominant

D. Lamarck's theory

C. 100% homozygous recessive

KVPY SA (Part I) Mock-5

| 61

D. 50% homozygous recessive and 50% homozygous dominant 14. __________ was a predecessor of Darwin's and developed the theory of acquired characteristics. A. Weismann

B. Malthus

C. Lamarck

D. Mendel

D. Zero group elements 20. Elements belonging to groups 1 to 17 are called __________. A. noble gases

B. transition elements

C. inner transition elements

D. normal elements

21. Deuterium reacts with oxygen to form 15. Homologous chromosomes which are similar in both the sexes are called ______. A. allosomes

B. androsomes

C. autosomes

D. sex chromosomes

Chemistry

A. Heavy water

B. Water gas

C. Hard water

D. Soft water

22. The atoms of same element having same atomic number but different mass number are called A. Isomers

B. Isotopes

C. Isotropes

D. Isobars

16. Concept of Triads was introduced by

23. Which of the following always increases on going from top to bottom in a group?

A. Newland

B. Mendeleev

A. Oxidizing power

B. Electronegativity

C. Dobereiner

D. Al-Razi

C. Tendency to get reduced

D. Metallic character

17. Which discovery caused a revision in the periodic law as stated by Mendeleev? A. Atomic number by Moseley B. Location of nucleus by Rutherford C. Natural radioactivity by Henry Bacquerel.

24. Four elements along a period have atomic number (11, 13, 16 and 17). The most metallic among these has an atomic number of __________. A. 17

B. 16

C. 11

D. 12

D. X-rays by Roentgen 25. Metallic characters of alkali metals 18. In which of the following pairs are elements belonging to the same group? A. Boron & Beryllium

B. Magnesium & Aluminium

C. Nitrogen & Phosphorous

D. Gallium & Helium

19. Noble gases are named so because they are A. Having completely filled valence shell B. All of these C. less reactive

KVPY SA (Part I) Mock-5

A. No regular trend

B. Decrease down the group

C. Increase down the group

D. Remain same

26. Which statement is incorrect? A. All the metals form positive ions B. All the metals form acidic oxides C. All the metals are good conductor of heat D. All the metals are good conductor of

| 62

electricity.

A. 80°

27. The modern periodic table is given by ________ A. Mendeleev

B. Einstein

C. Bohr

D. Mosley

B. 90°

C. 130°

D. 100°

33. AB is the diameter of a circle with centre O and radius OD is perpendicular to AB. Find the angle BAD. A. 75°

B. 45°

C. 30°

D. 60°

28. Best position of hydrogen in the periodic table is above I.A Group which is mainly due to

34. O is the circumcentre of Δ ABC. If AO = 8 cm, then the length of BO is

A. Both form ionic compounds

A. 6 cm

B. Both are electropositive C. All of these D. Similar outer most shell electronic configuration 29. A purple coloured solid halogen is ________. A. astatine

B. iodine

C. bromine

D. chlorine

C. 12 cm

D. 8 cm

35. The tangents drawn at A and B on the circumference of a circle intersect at P. If ∠APB = 30°, then the measure of the ∠PAB is A. 90°

B. 45°

C. 75°

D. 60°

36. The sum of all interior angles of a regular polygon is twice the sum of all its exterior angles. The number of sides of the polygon is A. 10

30. Ionization energy depends upon

B. 3 cm

B. 12

C. 6

D. 8

37. BD and CE are medians of a triangle ABC right angled at A. Then 4(BD^2 + CE^2) is equal to _____

A. Atomic size B. Nuclear charge C. I.E depends upon all of the above and nature of orbital D. Shielding effect

A. 5BC^2

B. 4BC^2

C. 2BC^2

D. 3BC^2

38. Two equal arcs of two circles subtend angle of 60° and 75° at the centre. The ratio of the radii of two circles is A. 5/4

B. 4/5

C. 2/3

D. 3/2

Mathematics 31. Three circles are drawn at the vertices of a triangle with each circle touching the other circle externally. If the sides of the triangle are 9 cm, 7 cm and 6 cm, then the radii of the circles in centimeter are A. 2, 3, 4

B. 2, 3, 5

C. 2, 4, 5

D. 3 3, 4,

32. ABC is a triangle and its side AB, BC and CA are produced to E, F and G respectively. If ∠CBE = ∠ACF = 130°. Find ∠GAB.

KVPY SA (Part I) Mock-5

39. In the given figure below, ∠AOB = 48° and AC and OB intersect each other at right angles. What is the measure of ∠OBC? (O is the centre of the circle) A. 66°

B. 78.5°

C. 67°

D. 44°

| 63

40. If a circle of radius 12 cm is divided into two equal parts by one concentric circle, then radius of inner circle is A. 6√2 cm

B. 4√2 cm

C. 6 cm

B. 2 : 3

C. 1 : 2

D. Neither I nor II

D. 4 cm

41. In ∆ABC, the medians AD and BE meet at G. The ratio of the areas of ∆BDG and the quadrilateral GDCE is ________ A. 1 : 3

C. Only I

D. 3 : 4

42.

Physics 46. A body of mass 1kg is attracted by the earth with a force which is equal to A. 9.8m/s

B. 1 N

C. 9.8N

D. 6.67x 1011

47. he radiation in the sunlight that gives us the feeling of hotness is ______.

The angles x°, a°, c° and (π – b)° are indicated in the figure given below A. x° = a° + b° + c°

B. x° = a° – b° + c°

C. x° = b° – a° – c°

D. x° = a° + c° – b°

A. visible radiation

B. infra-red

C. red

D. ultra-violet

48. The main constituent of CNG is ______. A. ethane B. butane C. methane D. propane

43. PQ is a chord of a circle with centre O and SOR is a line segment originating from a point S on the circle and intersecting PQ produced at R such that QR = OS. If ∠QRO = 30° then ∠POS = ?

49. The main constituent of LPG is ______.

A. 90°

50. A solar cell converts ______.

B. 70°

C. 40°

D. 60°

44. A, O, B are three points on a line segment and C is a points not lying on AOB. If ∠AOC = 40° and OX, OY are the internal and external bisectors of ∠AOC respectively, then ∠BOY is A. 80°

B. 70°

C. 68°

KVPY SA (Part I) Mock-5

B. butane

C. methane

D. propane

A. solar energy into light energy B. heat energy into light energy C. solar energy into electrical energy D. heat energy into electrical energy

D. 75°

45. Consider the following statements I. The locus of points which are equidistant from two parallel lines is a line parallel to both of them and drawn mid way between them. II. The perpendicular distance of any point on this locus line from two original parallel lines are equal. Further, no point outside this locus line has this property. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A. Both I and II

A. hydrogen

51. Which of the following is normally used in solar cookers for trapping solar energy? A. Mirrors

B. Silicon cells

C. Solar panels

D. Any of these

52. Harmful radiation emitted by the sun is ______. A. visible

B. radio waves

C. ultra-violet

D. infra-red

B. Only II

| 64

53. The temperature difference between the upper layers and the deeper layers of the ocean should be ______ to install an OTEC power plant. A. 50 degree C

B. 30 degree C

C. 20 degree C

D. 40 degree C

54. Which of the following is not combustible? A. hydrogen

B. butane

C. methane

D. oxygen

55. A substance which produces a lot of heat on burning is called ______. A. biogas

B. biomass

C. fuel

D. oxidising agent

56. The scientist who first carried out critical nuclear fission reactionis ______. A. Enrico Fermi

B. Einstein

C. Hans Bethe

D. Otto Hahn

57. Fuel formed under the earth's surface by the decomposition of organic matter is called ______. A. fossil fuel

B. organic fuel

C. under ground fuel

D. biogas

58. India exploded her first underground nuclear device at ______. A. Ranchi

B. Jaipur

C. Pokhran

D. Kota

59. The lid of the solar cooker is made up of ______. A. glass

B. plane mirror

C. plastic sheet

D. black sheet

60. Energy coming directly from magma is called A. mechanical energy

B. electrical energy

C. heat energy

D. geothermal energy

KVPY SA (Part I) Mock-5

| 65

SMART ANSWERSHEET

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KVPY SA (Part I) Mock-5

0/60 0/60 44/60

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HINTS AND SOLUTIONS

KVPY SA (Part I) Mock-5

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KVPY SA (PART I) MOCK-6 Biology 1. By studying analogous structures we look for ______. A. Similarities in organ structure B. similarities in appearance bur differences if functions C. Similarities in cell make up D. similarities in appearance and function but different in structure 2. The difference between Homo sapiens and the Homo erectus was ____. . A. The size of their brain of Homo eructus was smaller to homo sapiens B. Homo eructus were much smaller in size than homo sapiens. C. Homo eructus stayed in Africa while Homo sapiens did not D. Homo sapiens originated in Africa while Homo erectus was in Asia 3. Which one of the following statements is correct? A. FSH and LH occur in both males and females B. FSH and LH stimulate the follicle to secrete estrogen. C. All of these are correct D. The ovarian cycle depends on the blood levels of FSH and LH. 4. Which of these is not a living fossil? A. Archaeopteryx

B. Frog

C. Lungfish

D. Duck-billed platypus

5. A man and a women, who do not show any apparent signs of a certain inherited disease, have seven children (2 daughter and 5 sons). Three of the sons suffer from the given disease but none of the daughters are affected. Which of the following mode of inheritance do you suggest for this disease? A. Sex-linked recessive B. Sex-linked dominant C. Sex-limited recessive D. Autosomal dominant 6. The part of Fallopian tube closest to the ovary is A. Infundibulum

B. Ampulla

C. Cervix

D. Isthmus

7. Signals for parturition originate from A. Placenta only B. Fully developed foetus only C. Both placenta as well as fully developed foetus D. Oxytocin released from maternal pituitary 8. Assertion: An organism with lethal mutation may not even develop beyond the zygote stage.Reason: All types of gene mutations are lethal. A. Both assertion and reason are false B. Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion. C. Assertion is true statement but reason is false. D. Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion. 9. What is the size of testis? A. 5 cm length and 2.5 cm diameter B. 5 cm length and 3.5 cm diameter C. 6 cm length and 2.5 cm diameter

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Chemistry

D. 6 cm length and 3.5 cm diameter 10. Implanation of blastocyst occurs on A. 6 th day

B. 7 th day

C. 4th day

D. 5 th day

16. The element, which has zero electron affinity in the 3rd period is __________.= A. P

11. Links between organisms that show branching pattern of evolutionary relationships are shown by_____. A. phylogenetic trees C. two fossil layerss

B. comparative embryology D. living fossils

12. Short-lived immunity acquired from mother to foetus across placenta or through mother's milk to the infant is categorized as:

B. Al

C. Ar

D. S

17. Elements with similar chemical properties appear in the A. p block elements

B. Same family

C. Same period

D. Right upper corner

18. The least reactive element in group 17 is ___________. A. fluorine

B. chlorine

C. iodine

D. bromine

A. Innate non-specific immunity 19. Which of the following cannot exist in solution

B. Cellular immunity C. Passive immunity

A. Cl-

D. Active immunity 13. A polygenic trait is controlled by 3 genes A, B and C. In a cross AaBbCc × AaBbCc, the phenotypic ratio of the offsprings was observed as 1 : 6 : x : 20 : x : 6 : 1. What is the possible value of x? A. 15

B. 9

C. 3

B. Na+

C. H+

D. O-2

20. The non-metallic element present in the third period other than sulphur and chlorine is _______. A. nitrogen

B. fluorine

C. oxygen

D. phosphorus

D. 25

14. Speciation is the evolutionary process by which _____. A. hybrids species form

21. The family of elements to which potassium belongs is _________. A. halogens

B. alkaline earth metals

C. alkali metals .

D. noble gases

B. evolutionary paths of species converge C. Shows up differences in physical traits

22. Non-metals usually form ______________ oxides

D. a new gene pool is formed 15. What will be the genotypic ratio of the cross between Rr and rr? A. 1:2:1

B. 1:1

C. 1:1:1

D. 3:1

A. All of these

B. Acidic

C. Amphoteric

D. Neutral

23. The atomic radii decreases by increasing atomic number in A. Halogens

KVPY SA (Part I) Mock-6

B. Elements from Li to Ne

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C. Alkaline earth metal D. Alkali metal 24. Higher value of electron affinity means

30. The element, which has the highest electron affinity in the 3rd period is _________. A. Mg

B. Na

C. Si

D. Cl

A. Atom will gain electron easily B. The reason is unknown C. Atom will lose electron easily

Mathematics

D. Atom may form di-positive ion 25. Which one of the following sets consists of all coinage metals? A. Cu Ag Au

B. Ag Au Hg

C. Cu Fe Au

D. Cu Hg Au

26. A liquid non-metal is ___________. A. mercury

B. nitrogen

C. phosphorous

D. bromine

27. Down a group, the electron affinity __________. A. decreases

31. In a triangle ABC, sides AB and AC are extended to points D and E respectively, outside the triangle. The bisectors of the exterior angles ∠ECB and ∠DBC meet at a point J. In terms of ∠A, ∠J can be written as ______ . A. 180° - ∠A

B. 90° + ∠A/2

C. 90° - ∠A/2

D. 180° + ∠A/2

32. In ΔABC, AB = AC. AD is the altitude drawn from A to BC. Angle bisectors of ∠ABC and ∠ACB meet AD at a point I. Which of the following is true?

B. increases and then decreases

A. AI = BI = CI

C. remains same

B. I is the incentre of triangle ABC

D. increases

C. AI = ID D. AI : ID = 2 : 1

28. Many properties of an element and its compounds can be predicted from the position of the element in the periodic table. What property could not be predicted in this way? A. The formula of its oxide

B. The nature of its oxides

C. The charge on its ions

D. Its number of isotopes

29. Hydrogen resembles with carbon because of having

33. In a circle of radius 17 cm, two parallel chords of lengths 30 cm and 16 cm are drawn. If both the chords are on the same side of the centre, then the distance between the chord is A. 23 cm

B. 7 cm

C. 9 cm

D. 11 cm

34. A chord of a circle of radius 9 cm makes an angle of 90° at centre. Area of minor segment would be A. 29.76 cm^2

B. 24.32 cm^2

A. Same number of electrons in the valence shell

C. 23.11 cm^2

D. 26.87 cm^2

B. Remarkable reducing properties

35. In a triangle ABC, ∠BAC = 90o and AD is perpendicular to BC. If AD = 6 cm and BD = 4 cm, then the length of BC is

C. Homovalent (show same valency) D. Similar physical state

A. 15 cm

KVPY SA (Part I) Mock-6

B. 10 cm

C. 13 cm

D. 12 cm

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36. If the incentre of an equilateral triangle lies inside the triangle and its radius is 6 cm, then the side of the equilateral triangle is A. 3√3 cm

B. 6 cm

C. 6√3 cm

D. 12√3 cm

37. The ratio between the number of sides of two regular polygons is 1 : 2 and the ratio between their interior angles is 2 : 3. The number of sides of these polygons is respectively. A. 5, 10

B. 6, 12

C. 4, 8

B. 3 : 4

C. 4 : 5

A. 1

B. 1/2

C. 2

D. 0

45. In a box, there are 8 red, 7 blue and 6 green balls. One ball is picked up randomly. What is the probability that it is neither blue nor green? A. 8/21

B. 2/3

C. 9/22

D. 3/7

D. 7, 14

38. If the arcs of same length in two circles subtend angles of 60° and 75° at their centres, the ratio of their radii is A. 5 : 4

44. In a throw of coin what is the probability of getting tails.

D. 3 : 5

39.

Physics 46. Which of these is not a renewable source of energy? A. Natural gas

B. The sun

C. Ocean tidal energy

D. Wind

47. Which is the most popular kitchen fuel in India? .

A. 40°

B. 20°

C. 50°

D. 30°

40. Bag contain 10 back and 20 white balls, One ball is drawn at random. What is the probability that ball is white A. 2/3

B. 1/3

C. 1

D. 4/3

A. Coal

B. LPG

C. Kerosene

D. Firewood

48. In which of the following kinetic energy is converted into electrical energy? A. Wind energy

B. Tidal energy

C. Hydro energy

D. All of these

41. In a throw of coin what is the probability of getting head.

49. The radiations absorbed by ozone layer are ______.

A. 1/2

A. infra-red

B. ultra-violet

C. gamma rays

D. visible

B. 2

C. 1

D. 0

42. Two unbiased coins are tossed. What is probability of getting at most one tail ?

50. A solar cell is made up of ______.

A. 3/2

A. titanium

B. teflon

C. silicon

D. magnesium

B. 3/4

C. 2/3

D. 1/2

43. In a throw of dice what is the probability of getting number greater than 5 A. 1/6

B. 1/2

C. 1/4

D. 1/8

51. Floating generators are used in the sea to harness ______. A. wave energy

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B. energy from OTEC power plant C. hydel energy D. tidal energy 52. Which of the following is not a bio-mass source? A. Gobar gas

B. Nuclear energy

C. Wood

D. Coal

60. A ray of light passing through the _______ retraces its path. A. vertex

B. pole

C. centre of curvature

D. focus

53. Which of the following causes the least pollution when burnt? A. Diesel

B. Petrol

C. Coal

D. Natural gas

54. The radiations emitted by the sun and responsible for the cause of skin cancer are ______. A. X-rays

B. micro-waves

C. infra-red

D. ultra-violet

55. Which of the following is the ultimate source of energy for us? A. CNG

B. Solar

C. LPG

D. Nuclear

56. Dams are used for generation of A. mechanical energy

B. electrical energy

C. nuclear energy

D. heat energy

57. Change in quality of environment that can be harmful for living things is called A. None of these

B. pollution

C. power

D. energy conversion

58. The fuel used in the nuclear reactor is ______. A. Cadmium B. Uranium C.Radium D.Thorium 59. he efficiency of the solar cooker can be increased by placing a ______. A. plane mirror

B. convex lens

C. concave lens

D. convex mirror

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SMART ANSWERSHEET

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Performance Analysis Avg. Score Toppers Score Cut Off Your Score

KVPY SA (Part I) Mock-6

0/60 0/60 44/60

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HINTS AND SOLUTIONS

KVPY SA (Part I) Mock-6

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KVPY SA (PART I) MOCK-7

C. Nephrons

D. Neptune

6. Bile juice is secreted by

Biology

A. Small intestine

B. Pancreas

C. Stomach

D. Liver

1. Excessive growth of hair on the pinna is a feature found only in males because

7. In Photosynthetic process, atmospheric carbon di oxide is _______ to carbohydrates

A. The gene responsible for the character is recessive in females and dominant only in males

A. Reduced

B. Burnt

C. oxidised

D. Neutralised

B. The gene responsible for the character is present on the Y chromosome only

8. The autotrophic mode of nutrition requires

C. The character is induced in males as males produce testosterone D. The female sex hormone estrogen suppresses the character in females 2. How many different kinds of gametes will be produced by a plant having the genotype AABbCC? A. Nine

B. Three

C. Two

D. Four

3. The morphogenetic movement change the hollow spherical blastula into a A. Gastrula

B. Morula

C. Neurula

D. Embryonic disc

4. Haemophilia is more commonly seen in human males than in human females because A. This disease is due to an X-linked dominant B. This disease is due to an X-linked recessive mutation

A. sunlight.

B. chlorophyll.

C. All of these

D. carbon dioxide and water.

9. Proteins after digestion are converted into A. Amino acids

B. starch

C. Carbohydrates

D. Small globules

10. The enzyme Pepsin is inactive in stomach without the presence of b A. Acetic acid

B. Nitric Acid

C. Butyric acid

D. Hydrochloric acid

11. The kidneys in human beings are a part of the system for A. nutrition

B. excretion.

C. respiration

D. transportation.

12. Villi present on the inner lining of the intestinal wall d

C. This disease is due to a Y-linked recessive mutation

A. Decreases the surface area for absorption

D. A greater proportion of girls die in infancy

C. Increases the surface area for absorption

5. In human each kidney has large numbers of filtration units called ___ A. Neurons

KVPY SA (Part I) Mock-7

B. Secretes enzymes for digestion

D. Secretes hormones 13. Which of these is the simplest food?

B. Neutrons

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A. Butter

B. Glucose

C. Wheat

D. Rice

14. The small pores present of leaf’s surface are called A. Guard cells

B. None of these

C. Stomata

D. Chlorophyll

15. The xylem in plants are responsible for A. transport of amino acids.

B. transport of water.

A. mercury

B. acids

C. water

D. bases

22. If pH value is greater than 7, then solution is A. neutral

B. basic

C. acidic

D. salty

23. Which is a soluble base in water? A. Fe(OH)3 B. Cu(OH)2 C. Zn(OH)2 D. NaOH 24. PH of water is A. 3

B. 7

C. 8

D. 2

C. transport of oxygen. D. transport of food. 25. In Universal indicators, red color shows

Chemistry

A. strong acids

B. weak acids

C. strong alkalis

D. weak bases

26. Substances that react with both acids and bases are called

16. Inner transition elements are called A. Actinides

B. All of these

C. Lanthanides

D. Rare earth metals

17. The number of electrons in the valence shell is equal to its ________. A. group number

B. atomic mass

C. atomic volume

D. period number

A. conjugate acids

B. neutral

C. amphoteric substances

D. conjugate bases

27. To protect tooth decay we are advised to brush our teeth regularly. The nature of the tooth paste commonly used is A. acidic

B. basic

C. corrosive

D. neutral

18. The first alkali metal is _________. A. sodium

B. francium

C. lithium

D. hydrogen

28. Preservatives are used to preserve A. water

B. acids

C. food

D. bases

19. Modern periodic table has been divided in _______ blocks

29. Apples contain A. acetic acid

B. citric acid

A. 7

C. tartaric acid

D. malic acid

B. 8

C. 4

D. 2

20. An element having low value of ionization energy and low value of electron affinity is likely to belong to

30. Process in which acids (H+) and bases (OH-) react to form salts and water is called A. halogenation

B. sublimation

A. Group VIIA

B. Group IA

C. hydrogenation

D. neutralization

C. Group VIII

D. Group IB

21. Corrosive effect on skin is caused by

KVPY SA (Part I) Mock-7

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A. 2/3

Mathematics 31. In a throw of dice what is the probability of getting number greater than 5? A. 1/6

B. 1/2

C. 1/5

D. 1/3

32. Bag contain 10 back and 20 white balls, One ball is drawn at random. What is the probability that ball is white. A. 1/3

B. 1

C. 2/3

D. 4/3

33. Two dice are thrown simultaneously ,what is the probability of getting a total of 7? A. 1/6

B. 1/24

C. 1/12

D. 1/3

34. A box contains 27 marbles some are blue and others are green. If a marble is drawn at random from the box, the probability that it is blue is 1/3. Then how many number of green marbles in the box? A. 10

B. 18

C. 15

D. 14

35. What is the probability of getting a sum 9 from two throws of dice. A. 1/3

B. 1/9

C. 1/6

D. 1/12

36. In a class, there are 12 boys and 16 girls. One of them is called out by an enroll number, what is the probability that the one called is a girl? A. 1/4

B. 4/7

C. 2/5

D. 5/12

37. In a box, there are 8 red, 7 blue and 6 green balls. One ball is picked up randomly. What is the probability that it is neither blue nor green? A. 9/22

B. 8/21

C. 2/3

D. 3/7

B. 5/6

C. 4/9

D. 1/6

39. A speaks truth in 75% of cases and B in 80% of cases. In what percentage of cases are they likely to contradict each other, narrating the same incident A. 35%

B. 45%

C. 40%

D. 30%

40. A card is drawn from a pack of 52 cards. The probability of getting a queen of club or a king of heart is A. 1/52

B. 1/13

C. 1/26

D. None of these

41. Two groups, A and B wrote an exam. The probability of A's pass is 2/7 and the probability of B's pass is 2/5. What is the probability that only one of them is passed out? A. 5/6

B. 1/3

C. 18/35

D. 12/43

42. A card from a pack of 52 cards is lost. From the remaining cards of the pack, two cards are drawn and are found to be both hearts. Find the Probability of the lost card being a heart? A. 12/50

B. 8/50

C. 9/50

D. 11/50

43. Two unbiased coin are tossed .What is the probability of getting at most one head? A. 1/4

B. 2

C. 3/4

D. 1

44. The last 5 alphabets are written at random then the probability that the letters y and z are written down side by side is : A. 3/5

B. 4/5

C. 1/5

D. 2/5

45. What is the probability of getting a sum 9 from two throws of dice. A. 1/9

B. 2/9

C. 1/3

D. 1/12

38. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. What is the probability of getting the face numbers are same?

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Physics 46. Reflection by smooth surfaces is called A. reflection

B. refraction

C. irregular reflection

D. regular reflection

47. An image formed by a convex mirror is always ________. A. virtual, erect and diminished B. real, erect and magnified

A. 15 cm

B. 45 cm

C. 7.5 cm

D. 30 cm

53. The centre of the sphere of which the spherical mirror forms a part is called ____________. A. pole

B. centre of curvature

C. vertex

D. focus

54. Phenomenon in which light travelling in one medium falls on surface of another medium and turns back in same medium is called

C. real, inverted and diminished

A. Diffraction of light

B. Bending of light

D. virtual, real and magnified

C. Refraction of light

D. Reflection of light

48. Angle of incidence and angle of reflection are

55. When an object is placed at the focus of a concave mirror, the image will be formed at ________.

A. coherent

B. opposite

C. un equal

D. equal

A. focus

B. centre of curvature

C. infinity

D. pole

49. The phenomenon by which the incident light falling on a surface is sent back into the same medium is known as ________.

56. Dentists use a _____________ to focus light on the tooth of a patient.

A. refraction

B. polarization

A. convex mirror

B. plane mirror

C. reflection

D. absorption

C. cylindrical mirror

D. concave mirror

50. Incident ray, reflected ray and normal lie at different points is a

57. Virtual image is of same size as object' is a true statement of plane mirror image.

A. neutral law of reflection

A. Wrong

B. false law of reflection

C. true law of reflection D. it

B. Neither right nor wrong C. May be right or may be wrong D. Right

51. Image that is created in plane mirror is virtual' is a true statement of plane mirror image.

58. An example for non-luminous object is ___________.

A. Right

A. a candle

B. an electric bulb

B. May be right or may be wrong

C. the sun

D. the moon

C. Neither right nor wrong D. Wrong 52. The focal length of a concave mirror is 15 cm. What is its radius of curvature?

KVPY SA (Part I) Mock-7

59. If the image formed by a concave mirror is virtual, erect and magnified, then the object is placed __________. A. beyond the centre of curvature

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B. at the centre of curvature C. at the focus D. between the pole of the mirror and the focus 60. An object of size 2.0 cm is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a concave mirror. The distance of the object from the mirror equals to the radius of curvature. The size of the image will be ______________. A. 1.5 cm

B. 1.0 cm

KVPY SA (Part I) Mock-7

C. 0.5 cm

D. 2.0 cm

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SMART ANSWERSHEET

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Performance Analysis Avg. Score Toppers Score Cut Off Your Score

KVPY SA (Part I) Mock-7

0/60 0/60 44/60

| 80

HINTS AND SOLUTIONS

KVPY SA (Part I) Mock-7

| 81

KVPY SA (PART I) MOCK-8 Biology

7. Temporary finger like extensions on amoeba are called A. Pseudopodia

B. Cilia

C. Cell membrane

D. Cell wall

8. The food is stored in which form in leaves? 1. Respiration is a process in which

A. Glucose

B. Starch

A. Energy is released and stored in the form of ATP

C. Glycogen

D. Fructose

B. Energy is used up C. Energy is stored in the form of ADP

9. What is the term for process of taking food in the body?

D. Energy is not released at all.

A. Ingestion

B. Digestion

C. Assimilation

D. Absorption

2. Which of these components of blood is responsible for oxygne transport? A. RBC

B. WBC

10. Carbohydrates in the plants are stored in the form of

C. Platelets

D. Plasma

A. Glucose

B. Glycogen

C. Starch

D. Maltose

3. What is the role of platelets? A. Oxygen transport

B. Clotting of blood

C. Immunity

D. Carbon dioxide transport

4. During cellular respiration one molecule of glucose is first broken down into two molecules of ________ A. Pyruvic acid

B. None of these

C. Lactic acid

D. Acetic acid

11. What is the functional unit of human excretory system? A. Kidney

B. Loop of Henle

C. Nephron

D. Bowman’s Capsule

12. Where is bile produced? A. Blood

B. Liver

C. Spleen

D. Gall bladder

13. Photosynthesis is a 5. Respiratory pigment in human body is A. haemoglobin

B. Chlorophyll

A. Amphibolic process B. Photochemical lprocess

C. Water

D. Blood

C. Catabolic process

6. The chlorophyll in photosynthesis is used for

D. Parabolic process

A. Absorbing light

14. Opening and closing of pores is a function performed by

B. Reduction of CO2

A. Stomata

B. Chloroplast

C. Breaking down water molecule

C. Chlorophyll

D. Guard cells

D. No function

KVPY SA (Part I) Mock-8

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15. What is the main excretory product in humans?

22. When acid reacts with metal carbonate, products are

A. Uric acid

B. Urea

A. All of these

B. salt

C. None of these

D. Ammonia

C. carbon dioxide

D. water

23. A strong acid in solution is ___________. A. mostly water

B. mostly ions

Chemistry

C. both molecules and D. mostly molecules ions

16. A salt derived from a strong base and a weak acid will give a salt that is _______.

24. Which of the following is acidic in nature? A. Human blood

B. Lime juice

A. basic

B. volatile

C. Lime water

D. Antacid

C. neutral

D. acidic 25. Mineral acids are

17. Acids ionize in water to produce

A. include formic acid B. naturally occurring

A. OH- ions

B. H+ ions

C. H2O molecules

D. SO4-2 ions

C. man made

D. include malic acid

26. Which of the following is not a mixed salt? 18. Acids (H^+) reacts with metal hydroxides (OH^-) to from A. salt and alkali

B. salt and hydrogen gas

C. salt and hydrogen oxides

D. salt and water

19. Salt among following is A. H3PO4

B. HNO3

C. KCl

D. HCl

20. The drying of milk of lime (white washing) is due to the action of ___________. A. hydrogen in air

B. oxygen in air

C. CO2 in air

D. nitrogen in air

A. K.Ca.PO4

B. Ca(OCl)Cl

C. KCl

D. Na.K.CO3

27. A specie which is able to accept a proton is called A. base

B. acid

C. neutral compound

D. cation

28. Which of the following is a weak base? A. NH4OH

B. NaOH

C. KOH

D. Ca(OH)2

29. The pH of a carbonated drink is ___________. A. less than 7

B. equal to 7

21. Bases (OH-) are

C. approximately 7.8

D. more than 7

A. corrosive B. turn litmus from red to blue

30. The characteristic properties of an acid is due to the presence of ___________.

C. turn litmus from blue to red

A. hydride ions

B. hydroxyl ions

D. non-metal oxides

C. oxide ions

D. hydronium ions

KVPY SA (Part I) Mock-8

| 83

38. A basket contains 6 White 4 Black 2 Pink and 3 Green balls.If two balls are picked at random, what is the probability that either both are Pink or both are Green?

Mathematics

A. 4/105

B. 8/137

C. 5/137

D. 2/105

31. In a school, 45% of the students play football, 30% play volleyball and 15% both. If a student is selected at random, then the probability that he plays football or volleyball is:

39. The first 7 alphabets are written down at random. what is the probability that the letters a,b,c always come together?

A. 1/4

A. 4/7

B. 3/5

C. 4/5

D. 2/7

32. A basket contains 5 red 4 blue 3 green marbles. If two marbles picked up random, What is the probability that both are red? A. 8/33

B. 4/33

C. 5/33

A. 1/52

B. 1/4

C. 3/13

D. None of these

34. A basket contains 6 White 4 Black 2 Pink and 3 Green balls. If three balls picked up random, What is the probability that all three are White? C. 4/91

D. 5/93

35. You have drawn a card from 52 cards deck. without replacing it you have drawn another card. Then what is the probability of that card to be King of Diamond? A. 1/51

B. 3/52

C. 1/52

D. 2/51

36. Out of all the 2-digit integers between 1 and 100, a 2-digit number has to be selected at random. What is the probability that the selected number is not divisible by 7? A. 77/90

B. 13/90

C. 12/90

D. 78/90

37. Three unbiased coins are tossed, what is the probability of getting at least 2 tails ? A. 1/4

B. 1/2

KVPY SA (Part I) Mock-8

C. 1/8

D. 1/7

D. 7/33

33. From a pack of 52 cards, 1 card is drawn at random. Find the probability of a face card drawn.

B. 8/92

C. 3/7

40. A bag contains 5 red caps, 4 blue caps, 3 yellow caps and 2 green caps.If three caps are picked at random, what is the probability that two are red and one is green? A. 15/81

A. 7/97

B. 2/7

D. 1/6

B. 10/91

C. 5/91

D. 22/55

41. Born babies to be boy is having 0.52 probability, and to be girl is 0.48. If you have two children, then what is the probability that they are both girls? A. 0.7696

B. 0.2496

C. 0.2704

D. 0.2304

42. A bag contains 6 white and 4 black balls. Two balls are drawn at random. Find the probability that they are of same colour. A. 3

B. 2/15

C. 1

D. 7/15

43. A basket contains 6 White 4 Black 2 Pink and 3 Green balls. If four balls are picked at random, what is the probability that atleast one is Black? A. 69/91

B. 80/91

C. 21/91

D. 55/91

44. Tickets numbered from 1 to 40 are in a bag and one ticket is drawn at random. What is the probability that ticket drawn is a multiple of 3 or 7? A. 17/30

B. 15/30

C. 16/30

D. 18/30

45. A speaks truth in 75% cases and B in 80% of cases. In what percentage of cases they contradict each other in narrating the same incident?

| 84

A. 25%

B. 45%

C. 35%

D. 15%

53. An object placed 2m from a plane mirror is shifted by 0.5 m away from the mirror. What is the distance between the object and its image? A. 1.5 m

Physics

B. 3 m

C. 2 m

D. 5 m

54. The focal length of a mirror is 15 cm. Identify the type of mirror.

46. Butter paper is an example for _______ object. A. a translucent

B. a transparent

C. an opaque

D. a luminous

A. Concave mirror

B. Cylindrical mirror

C. Plane mirror

D. Convex mirror

55. Virtual image undergoes a little inversion' is a false statement of plane mirror image.

47. When light is incident on a polished surface ___________ reflection takes place.

A. May be right or may be wrong

A. irregular

B. diffused

C. Neither right nor wrong

C. normal

D. regular

D. Right

48. Which mirror has a wider field of view? A. Cylindrical mirror

B. Convex mirror

C. Concave mirror

D. Plane mirror

B. Wrong

56. If an incident ray passes through the centre of curvature of a spherical mirror, the reflected ray will __________________. A. pass through the centre of curvature

49. A converging mirror is known as ________.

B. pass through the pole

A. concave mirror

B. convex mirror

C. retrace its path

C. plane mirror

D. cylindrical mirror

D. pass through the focus

50. Name the type of image that can be obtained on a screen.

57. The focus of a concave mirror is ________. A. undefined

B. real

A. Real

B. Diverging

C. virtual

D. at the pole

C. Converging

D. Virtual

51. The image formed by a plane mirror is always _______. A. real and inverted

B. virtual and erect

C. virtual and inverted

D. real and erect

52. An object is placed 1.5 m from a plane mirror. How far is the image from the person? A. 1 m

B. 3 m

C. 1.5 m

D. 2 m

58. Which of the following is used to make a periscope? A. Lens

B. Concave mirror

C. Plane mirror

D. Convex mirror

59. An object becomes invisible when it undergoes ______ reflection. A. regular

B. diffused

C. irregular

D. normal

60. Light can travel in

KVPY SA (Part I) Mock-8

| 85

A. both air and vacuum B. vacuum only C. air only

KVPY SA (Part I) Mock-8

D. none of mediums

| 86

SMART ANSWERSHEET

Correct Q.

1

Ans.

Correct Q.

Ans.

Skipped

Skipped

0.0 %

0.0 %

100.0 %

A

13

B

A

D

C 100.0 % 0.0 %

29

A

0.0 %

41

100.0 % 52

0.0 %

B

100.0 % B

0.0 % 40

100.0 %

17

0.0 % 51

0.0 %

A

A

100.0 %

100.0 %

D

B 0.0 % 0.0 %

53

D

100.0 %

100.0 %

100.0 %

100.0 %

0.0 %

0.0 %

0.0 %

0.0 %

0.0 %

100.0 %

A

18

D

A

C

B

0.0 % C

B

A

C

A

C

100.0 %

100.0 %

0.0 %

100.0 %

C

0.0 %

46

100.0 % 57

0.0 % 34

100.0 % C

0.0 % 45

100.0 % A

0.0 % 56

0.0 % 22

B

100.0 %

100.0 % C

100.0 % 55

0.0 % 44

0.0 % 33

0.0 %

100.0 %

100.0 %

0.0 % 21

D

0.0 % 43

0.0 % 32

54 100.0 %

100.0 %

100.0 %

0.0 %

D

0.0 % 31

C

42 100.0 %

100.0 % 20

A

D

0.0 % 19

B

30 100.0 %

0.0 %

A

C 0.0 % 0.0 %

58

D

100.0 %

100.0 %

100.0 %

0.0 %

0.0 %

0.0 %

0.0 %

0.0 %

100.0 %

100.0 %

C

23

B

100.0 % B

35

A

100.0 %

0.0 % 12

D

0.0 %

100.0 %

11

A

100.0 % 50

0.0 % 39

0.0 % 28

0.0 %

100.0 %

100.0 %

0.0 %

10

A

100.0 %

0.0 % A

100.0 %

9

A

A

0.0 % 38

0.0 % 27

49 100.0 %

100.0 %

0.0 %

100.0 %

8

C

100.0 % 16

B

0.0 % 26

B

37 100.0 %

100.0 % 15

A

B

0.0 % 14

B

25 100.0 %

0.0 %

7

Ans.

Skipped

0.0 %

6

Correct Q.

0.0 %

100.0 %

5

Ans.

Skipped

0.0 %

4

Correct Q.

0.0 %

100.0 % 3

Ans.

Skipped

100.0 % 2

Correct Q.

0.0 % 24

B

100.0 %

D

A

A 0.0 %

100.0 % 48

100.0 %

59 0.0 %

0.0 % 36

100.0 %

47 100.0 %

B

100.0 % 60

0.0 %

A 0.0 %

Performance Analysis Avg. Score Toppers Score Cut Off Your Score

KVPY SA (Part I) Mock-8

6/60 12/60 44/60

| 87

HINTS AND SOLUTIONS

KVPY SA (Part I) Mock-8

| 88

7. If the growing plant is decapitated, then

BIOLOGY TEST-1

A. its growth stops B. axillary buds are activated.

Biology

C. axillary buds are inactivated D. leaves become yellow and fall down

1. Maximum solar energy is trapped by A. growing grasses.

B. planting trees

C. cultivating crops

D. growing algae in tanks

2. The enzyme that catalyses carbon dioxide fixation in C4 plants is A. PEP carboxylase

B. Carbonic anhydrase

8. During monsoon, the rice crop of eastern states of India shows lesser yield due to limiting factor of A. water

B. C02

C. light

D. temperature

9. A group of freely inter-breeding organisms constitutes a

C. RuBP carboxylase D. Carboxydismutase.

A. family

3. The C02 fixation during C4 pathway occurs in the chloroplast of

10. An example of phylum Echinodermata is

A. spongy parenchyma.

B. bundle sheath cells

C. mesophyll cells

D. guard cells

B. species

C. genera

A. starfish

B. apis

C. octopus

D. prawn

D. class

11. Binomial nomenclature was introduced by 4. Which of the following is used to determine the rate of transpiration in plants? A. poromeer/hygrometer

B. auxanometer

C. tensiometer/barometer.

D. potometers

5. Chlorophyll a occurs in A. help retain chlorophyll B. in all higher plants

A. A. L. de Jussien

B. A. P. de Candolle

C. John Ray

D. Carolus Linnaeus

12. Homo: generic name :: sapiens: ________. A. human name

B. organism name

C. species name

D. division name

C. all photosynthetic autotrophs

13. Which taxonomic term may be substituted for any rank in the classification?

D. inhibit protoplasmic streaming.

A. Class

6. The first carbon dioxide acceptor in C4-plants is

14. Who is the Father of Taxonomy?

A. phosphoenolpyruvate

B. phosphoglyceric acid.

C. oxalo-acetic acid

D. ribulose 1, 5diphosphate

Biology Test-1

B. Species

C. Taxon

D. Genus

A. Eichler

B. Carolus Linnaeus

C. E.H. Haeckel

D. Robert Whittaker

15. In Whittaker's classification, unicellular organisms are grouped under

| 89

A. protista

B. protozoa

24. Mesoglea is characteristic of

C. fungi

D. porifera

A. platyhelminthes

B. mollusca

C. aschelminthes

D. cnidaria

16. In platyhelminthes, the excretory organs are A. malpighian tubules

B. nephridia

C. flame cells (solenocytes)

D. green glands

25. The class Aves have all the following features except that their A. heart is 4 chambered

17. Chondrichthyes are also called

B. skeleton is light C. fore limbs are modified into wings

A. bony fish

B. lamprey

D. respiration is not through lungs

C. creeping vertebrates D. cartilaginous fish 26. 'Venus flower basket' is the dried skeleton of 18. Choanocytes are unique to A. protozoa

B. mollusca

C. porifera

D. echinodermata

A. leucosolenia

B. euplectella

C. euspongia

D. spongilla

27. Birds differ from bats in absence of 19. Radial symmetry is found in _________. A. arthropoda

B. protozoa

C. flatworms

D. coelenterata

A. tracheae

B. homeothermy

C. diaphragm

D. four-chambered heart

28. The body cavity of arthropoda is 20. Protochordates consist of _______ and _______. A. urochordata and cephalochordata B. cephalochordata and vertebrata

A. coelom

B. acoelom

C. pseudocoel

D. haemocoel

C. None of these

29. In phylum Aschelminthes, the alimentary canal is

D. urochordata and vertebrata

A. None of these

B. not present

C. complete

D. incomplete

21. Respiration in arthropods occurs through A. book lungs

B. All of these

30. Hag fish is the common name of

C. trachea

D. gills

A. myxine

B. balanoglossus

C. peteromyzon

D. octopus

22. What is the scientific name of the National bird of India? A. Passer domesticus

B. Psittacula eupatra

C. Pavo cristatus

D. Corvus splendens

23. Sub-phylum urochordata includes _____. A. terrestrial animals

B. amphibians

C. marine animals

D. All of these

Biology Test-1

| 90

SMART ANSWERSHEET

Correct Q.

1

Ans.

Correct Q.

Ans.

Ans.

Skipped

Skipped

Skipped

38.64 %

59.09 %

61.36 %

D

7

B

A

C

B

A

A

A

C

B

C

25.0 %

11.37 %

61.36 %

54.55 %

D

6.82 %

23

50.0 % 28

38.64 % 17

52.27 % C

43.18 % 22

13.64 % D

9.09 % 27

43.18 % 11

B

4.54 %

13.64 % C

38.64 % 26

81.82 % 21

38.64 % 16

13.64 %

18.18 %

6.81 %

50.0 % 10

D

40.91 % 20

79.55 % 15

4.55 %

25 13.64 %

18.18 %

75.0 %

50.0 %

D

27.27 % 14

B

19 4.54 %

9.09 % 9

D

C

65.91 % 8

C

13 18.18 %

2.27 %

6

Correct Q.

Skipped

68.18 %

5

Ans.

38.64 %

6.82 %

4

Correct Q.

Skipped

65.91 %

3

Ans.

47.73 % 9.09 % 2

Correct Q.

C

D 18.18 % 72.73 %

29

C

13.64 %

29.54 %

9.09 %

13.63 %

6.82 %

63.64 %

61.36 %

40.91 %

29.55 %

27.27 %

A

12

C

11.36 %

18 6.82 %

C

24 20.45 %

D

30 4.54 %

A 29.55 %

Performance Analysis Avg. Score Toppers Score Cut Off Your Score

Biology Test-1

14/30 30/30 44/30

| 91

HINTS AND SOLUTIONS

Biology Test-1

| 92

D. Plant cell wall is a non-living structure

BIOLOGY TEST-2

7. Plasma membrane is composed of

Biology

A. Protein and Lipids

B. Protein

C. Cellulose

D. Lipids

1. Spiders and scorpions are

8. The main function of Centrosome is

A. insects

B. millipedes

A. Protein synthesis

B. osmoregulation

C. crustaceans

D. arachnids

C. Formation of spindle fibre

D. Secretion

2. Elasmobranchs do not have A. notochord

B. operculum

C. placoid scales

D. gill-slits

9. The cell theory is not applicable to A. algae

B. Virus

C. fungi

D. Bacteria

3. Identify the non -membraneous organelle from the following

10. Plant cell wall mainly composed of

A. Nucleus

B. Chloroplast

A. starch

B. cellulose

C. Endoplasmic reticulam

D. Ribosome

C. lipid

D. protein

4. Fine cytoplasmic connections between neighbouring cells through the cell wall for cell to cell communication is called A. Plasmosome

B. Mesosome

C. Plasmodesmata

D. All of these

5. Which of the following cellular structures always disappears during mitosis and meiosis? A. Plasma membrane B. Nucleolus and nuclear envelope C. Plastids

11. Meiosis occurs for the human female in ______. A. Pancreas

B. Liver

C. Kidney

D. Ovary

12. The term cell was coined by A. Schwann

B. Robert Hooke

C. de Bary

D. Tatum

13. Food is converted to energy in A. Nucleus

B. Chloroplast

C. Nucleolus

D. Mitochondria

D. none of these 14. Ribosomes help in 6. Which of the following statements are not true regarding cell wall A. Cell wall provides mechanical support to the cell

A. Respiration

B. Lipid Synthesis

C. Protein synthesis

D. Photosyntheis

15. Cell theory states that

B. Cell was is semi-permeable C. Plant cell wall is made up of cellulose

Biology Test-2

A. All cell have nuclei

| 93

B. All cells are living

23. Chitinous cell wall is present in

C. Cell reproduce by mitosis and meiosis

A. Fungi

B. Plants

D. Cells are fundamental structural units of plants and animals

C. Bacteria

D. Protists

16. Exchange of paternal and maternal chromosome material during cell division is

24. Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum is called ‘rough’ because A. rough texture of the surface

A. Synapsis

B. Dyad formation

C. Crossing over

D. Bivalent formation

B. surface is studded with membrane proteins C. All of these

17. Cytoplasmic division of a cell is called

D. surface is studded with ribosomes

A. Cell plate formation B. Cytokinesis

25. The sedimentation constant of ribosome is generally 70S . Its breaks up into two subunits whose sedimentation constants are

C. Mitosis

D. Synapsis

18. In Human secondary spermatocyte how many chromosomes are present? A. 45

B. 30

C. 15

A. 50 S and 30 S

B. 40 S and 30 S

C. 50 S and 20S

D. 60 S and 10 S

D. 23 26. The membrane around the vacuole is called

19. Which of the following statements are true regarding endoplasmic reticulum A. ER provides structural framework to the cell B. SER is involved in synthesis of lipids C. All of these

A. cytoplast

B. elaioplast

C. amyloplast

D. tonoplast

27. Smooth endoplasmic reticulam is the site of A. Lipid synthesis

D. ER acts as an intracellular transporting system 20. Cell theory was proposed by

B. amino acid synthesis

C. carbohydrate synthesis D. protein synthesis

A. Schleiden and Schwann B. Robert Hooke

28. Cellular organelles containing hydrolytic enzymes are called

C. Leenuwenhoeck

A. Peroxisomes

B. Lysosomes

C. Ribosomes

D. Mesosomes

D. Beadle and Tatum

21. Prokaryotic cell does not possess A. Cytoplasm

B. Nuclear membrane

29. Which of the following is associated with the structure of Golgicomplex?

C. Plasma membrane

D. Cell wall

A. Quatasomes

B. Annuli

C. Cisternae

D. Cristae

22. Crossing-over results in A. Dominance of alleles B. Segregation of alleles C. Linkage between genes D. Recombination of linked alleles

Biology Test-2

30. Which of the following statements are true regarding cellulose synthesis A. Cellulose is synthesized on the external surface of the cell

| 94

B. The enzyme involved is a plasma membrane bound complex called cellulose synthetase C. UDP glucose is the precursor of cellulose D. All of these

Biology Test-2

| 95

SMART ANSWERSHEET

Correct Q.

Ans.

1

D

Skipped

Correct Q.

Ans.

7

A

0%

3

D

0%

5

C

C

9

B

Ans.

19

C

15

D

0%

A

21

B

0%

0%

0%

0%

0%

0%

0%

16

C

22

D

0%

0%

0%

0%

0%

0%

0%

0%

11

D

0%

17

B

0% 12

B

0%

0% 0%

23

A

0% 18

D

0% 0%

A 0% 0%

26

D

27

A

D

0% 28

B

0%

0% 0% 0% 29

0%

0% 0%

C

0% 24

Skipped 0%

0%

0% B

25 0%

20

0% 10

Ans.

0%

0% C

Correct Q.

0%

0% 14

Skipped

0%

B

B

0%

Skipped

Correct Q.

0%

0%

0% 6

D

0% 8

0%

4

13 0%

0% B

Ans.

0%

0% 2

Skipped

Correct Q.

0% 30

D

0% 0%

Performance Analysis Avg. Score Toppers Score Cut Off Your Score

Biology Test-2

0/30 0/30 44/30

| 96

HINTS AND SOLUTIONS

Biology Test-2

| 97

BIOLOGY TEST-3 Biology 1. Bacterial cell wall is made up of A. N-acetyl glucosamine, N-acetyl muramic acid and amino acids B. None of these

A. 70 S unit

B. 90 S unit

C. 80 S unit

D. 100 S unit

8. Chromosomes can be counted best at the stage of A. Late prophase

B. Telophase

C. Late anaphase

D. Metaphase

9. During meiosis I, the number of chromosomes is

C. N-acetyl glucosamine

A. Tripled

B. Quadrupled

D. N-acetyl muramic acid

C. Halved

D. Doubled

2. DNA replication takes place during

10. In mitosis, nuclear envelope and nucleolus disappear during

A. G2 - phase

B. Prophase

C. S - phase

D. G1 - phase

A. Prophase

B. Metaphase

C. Telophase

D. Interphase

3. Which of the following organelles has a continuous connection with nuclear membrane

11. Protein subunit found within microtubules is

A. RER

B. Lysosome

A. Tubulin

B. Collagen

C. SER

D. Gol

C. Myosin

D. DNA

4. Which of the following organelle is involved in cell wall synthesis

12. Crossing over occurs in A. Pachytene

B. Diplotene

A. Mitochondria

B. Golgi apparatus

C. Zygotene

D. Leptotene

C. Chloroplast

D. lysosome

13. Plant cell wall is made up of

5. The stage in which daughter chromosomes move toward the poles of the spindle is

A. Cellulose only

A. Telophase

B. Metaphase

C. Cellulose, hemicelluloses and pectin

C. Anaphase

D. Prophase

D. Cellulose and chitin

6. Cell plate grows from

B. Cellulose, hemicelluloses and chitin d)

14. High lipid content is a characteristic of

A. Simultaneously

B. Wall to centre

A. inner mitochondrial membrane

C. Centre to wall

D. One wall to another

B. outer mitochondrial membrane

7. Assembly of two subunits 40 S and 60 S of the ribosome is

Biology Test-3

C. myelin sheath membrane D. erythrocyte membrane

| 98

15. Which of the following organelle is involved in xenobiotic detoxification A. Lysosome

B. Golgi

C. Both SER and Lysosome

D. RER

16. Extra nuclear DNA is found in A. Endoplasmic reticulum

B. Nucleus

C. Ribosomes

D. Chloroplast

A. Ligament

B. Bone

C. Areolar tissue

D. Cartilage

23. The trachea divides into two smaller tubes called ______. A. Eustachian tubes

B. Trachea

C. Microtrachea

D. Bronchi

24. Bile contribution to digestion is

17. Chiasma formation occurs in A. Diplotene

B. Zygotene

C. Leptotene

D. Pachytene

18. Opening to the trachea is covered by a small flap of tissues termed as the ______. A. Epiglottis

B. Larynx

C. Trachea

D. Glottis

19. Which one of the following statement is true about spongy bone? A. All of these are correct

A. Phagocytosis B. Nucleic acid metabolism C. Emulsification of dietary lipids D. Carbohydrate digestion 25. Name the hormone that stimulates the secretion of gastric juice. A. Enterogastrone

B. Gastrin

C. Renin

D. Enterokinase

26. Which one of the followings is the largest portion of the brain in humans? A. Cerebellum

B. Cerebrum

C. Medulla

D. Pons

B. Unorganized appearance C. Lighter than compact bone D. Surrounds the bone marrow cavity 20. Recording of the electrical activity associated with the heartbeat is called ______. A. Oscilloscope

B. Stethoscope

C. Laparoscope

D. Electrocardiogram

27. The basic cyclic pattern of inspiration and expiration are established by a respiratory center within the ______. A. Cerebellum

B. Thalamus

C. Medulla oblongata

D. Cerebral cortex

28. Which one of the following statement is not correct about intestinal villi?

21. Bronchi branch into the tubes of smaller diameters (less than 1 mm) known as ______.

A. Supplied with capillaries and the lacteal vessels

A. Microtrachea

B. Eustachian tubes

C. Bronchioles

D. Alveoli

B. Increase the internal surface area of the intestinal wall. C. Participate only in digestion of fats

22. The supportive skeletal structures in the human external ears and in the nose tip are examples of ______.

Biology Test-3

D. A multitudinous finger-like projections having many microvilli

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29. Motor neurons electrically stimulate nearby muscle fibers at ______. A. Creatine phosphate

B. Actin filament

C. Neuromuscular junction D. Cross-bridges 30. What protects the moist membranes of the respiratory tract? A. Mucus and cilia B. A 'c' shaped cartilage rings C. An acidic glands D. A pebbly epidermal surface

Biology Test-3

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HINTS AND SOLUTIONS

Biology Test-3

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BIOLOGY TEST-4 Biology

7. A young infant may be feeding entirely on mother's milk which is white in colour but the stool which the infant passes out is quite yellowish. What is this yellow colour due to A. Undigested milk protein casein B. Pancreatic juice poured into duodenum

1. Thoracic cage of man is formed of

C. Intestinal juice

A. Ribs and thoracic vertebrae

D. Bile pigments passed through bile juice

B. Ribs, sternum and thoracic vertebrae C. Ribs, sternum and lumbar vertebrae

8. Which one of the followings is correct regarding larynx?

D. Ribs and sternum 2. Spinal cord and brain are wrapped in protective membranes known as ______. A. Meninges

B. Axomembranes

C. Nodes of Ranvier D. Myelin sheath

A. It prevents foreign objects from entering the trachea B. It houses the vocal cords C. It is an organ made of cartilage and connects the pharynx to the trachea D. All of these are correc

3. The kind of tissue that forms the supportive structure in our Pinna (external ears) is also found in A. Tip of the nose

B. Vertebrae

C. Ear ossicles

D. Nails

4. Amount of air in the lungs that remains after deep breathing is called ______. A. Vital capacity

B. Residual volume

C. Dead space

D. Ventilation rate

9. Emphysema, a chronic disorder is high in cigarette smokers. In such cases the ______ of the person is/are found damaged. A. Plasma membrane

B. Respiratory muscles

C. Bronchioles

D. Alveolar walls

10. Which one of the followings is responsible for the improvement of nutrient flow to the neurons and provides electrical insulation? A. Interneuron

B. Sensory neuron

5. Asthma is due to

C. Neuroglia

D. Motor neuron

A. Damage in diaphragm B. Degradation of alveolar wall

11. When sympathetic nervous system is activated it causes the secretion of

C. Bronchioles constrict due to muscle spasms

A. Adrenaline which inhibits the organ

D. Elasticity of lungs is reduced

B. Acetylcholine which stimulates the organ

6. Which one of the followings is not part of the large intestine? A. rectum

B. cecum

C. colon

D. duodenum

Biology Test-4

C. Adrenaline which stimulates the organ D. Acetylcholine which inhibits the organ 12. Liver the largest gland is associated with several functions. Which one of the following is stated incorrectly?

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A. Makes all the cholesterol that human body needs B. Secrete hormone called gastric C. Stores glucose as glycogen D. Manufactures bile, converts the amino groups to urea 13. Inner surface of the bronchi, bronchioles and fallopian tubes are lined by A. Columnar epithelium B. Ciliated epithelium C. Squamous epithelium

D. Cubical epithelium

C. Enterokinase will not be released from the duodenal mucosa and so trypsinogen is not converted to trypsin D. In the absence of HCl secretion, inactive pepsinogen is not converted into the active enzyme pepsin 18. The respiratory membrane, through which gas must diffuse, consists of the followings EXCEPT: A. Capillary basement membrane B. Lymphatic vessel basement membrane C. Epithelial basement membrane

14. Which of the following is not related to the autonomic nervous system? A. Excretion

B. Peristalsis

C. Digestion

D. Memory and learning

15. The following list describes four major digestive enzymes. Which one of the following is incorrect? A. Lipase - Pancreas - Small intestine B. Nuclease - Small intestine - Stomach C. Salivary amylase - Salivary glands - Mouth D. Pepsin - Gastric glands - Stomach 16. Which one of the following statements is incorrect? A. Tuberculosis can't be treated by antibiotics B. Tuberculosis is highly infectious and can be spread by airborne droplets. C. Tuberculosis is caused by a rod-shaped bacterium, Mycobacterium tuberculosis. D. In Pulmonary Tuberculosis the elasticity of lungs is reduced.

D. Alveolar cells and endothelial cells of the capillary 19. What is the instrument that measures the amount of air inhaled and exhaled with each breath? A. Hygrometer

B. Sphygmomanometer

C. Spirometer

D. Stethoscope

20. The amount of air a person takes in during normal, restful breathing is called the ______. A. Tidal volume

B. Dead space

C. Vital capacity

D. Ventilation rate

21. The maximum volume of air that can be released from the lungs by forceful expiration after deepest inspiration is called the ______. A. Ventilation rate

B. Vital capacity

C. Total lung capacity

D. Tidal volume

22. If for some reason our goblet cells are nonfunctional this will adversely affect A. Maturation of sperms

17. What will happen if the secretion of parietal cells of gastric glands is blocked with an inhibitor?

B. Secretion of sebum from the sebaceous glands

A. Gastric juice will be deficient in pepsinogen

D. Smooth movement of food down the intestine

B. Gastric juice will be deficient in chymosin

Biology Test-4

C. Production of somatostatin

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23. Which one of the followings is NOT correct regarding Exhalation (expiration)?

A. actin and myosin

B. troponin and tropomyosin

A. Exhalation starts when the expiratory muscles relax

C. tubulin and tropomyosin

D. actin and tropomyosin

B. Expiration is typically a passive process C. The elastic properties of the lung help to expel deoxygenated air during exhalation D. During exhalation, elastic properties of the lung help to expel deoxygenated air

28. Respiratory center is located in the ________. A. Medulla oblongata B. Alveoli C. Apneustic center

D. Pneumotaxic center

24. Select the correct statement from the ones given below

29. Which one of the followings is correct in regard to the function of cerebellum?

A. Barbiturates when given to criminals make them tell the truth

A. Sense reception

B. Morphine is often given to persons who have undergone surgery as a pain killer C. Cocaine is given to patients after surgery as it stimulates recovery D. Chewing tobacco lowers blood pressure and heart rate

B. Muscle coordination

C. Regulate heartbeat D. Secretes melatonin 30. The protein carrier in the membrane, called "sodium-potassium pump" pumps ______ A. Na+ in and K+ out

B. Both Na+ and K+ out

C. Both Na+ and K+ in D. Na+ out and K+ in

25. The type of muscles present in our A. Thigh are striated and voluntary B. Heart are involuntary and unstriated smooth muscles C. Intestine are striated and involuntary D. Upper arm are smooth muscle fibres fusiform in shape 26. Which one of the following statement is NOT correct regarding trachea? A. Opening to the trachea is covered by epiglottis. B. It splits into the right and left bronchi to supply air to the lungs C. It usually lies posterior to the muscular esophagus. D. Tracheal rings are C-shaped 27. The two protein molecules, closely associated with actin filaments are ______ and ______.

Biology Test-4

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HINTS AND SOLUTIONS

Biology Test-4

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BIOLOGY TEST-5

D. absence of microbial action 7. The green house gases, otherwise called radioactively active gases includes

Biology 1. Lakes and forests are best classified as examples of A. artificial biosphere

B. artificial ecosystem

C. natural biosphere

D. natural ecosystem

A. Carbon dioxide

B. N2O

C. CH4

D. All of these

8. Parasites that lives inside host body to get shelter and food are called A. digestion parasites B. endoparasites C. synthetic parasites D. ectoparasites

2. Man made sources of radiation pollution are: A. nuclear fuels and preparation of radioactive isotopes

9. Representation of biomass for per unit area at various trophic levels graphically is classified as

B. mining A. pyramid of decomposers

C. all of these D. explosion of nuclear weapons

B. pyramid of biomass C. pyramid of primary consumers

3. Ozonospere seen in

D. pyramid of numbers

A. thermosphere

B. mesophere

C. ionosphere

D. stratosphere

4. The effects of radioactive pollutants depends upon A. energy releasing capacity B. all of these C. Rate of diffusion D. rate of deposition of the contaminant 5. Harmful trace metals in fly ash:

10. Drinking of fluoride containing water results : A. fluorosis

B. chlorosis

C. methaemoglobinema

D. minemata

11. Lice, leeches and mosquitoes are considered as examples of A. endoparasites

B. synthetic parasites

C. ectoparasites

D. digestion parasites

A. all of the above

B. antimony

12. Chipco movement is a public agitation that occurred in

C. arsenic

D. cadmium

A. Tehri Garhwal area of Uttar Pradesh

6. A high Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) indicates that: A. water is pure B. High level of microbial pollution C. Low level of microbial pollution

Biology Test-5

B. Silent valley in Kerala C. Sundarban area in Bengal D. Mansbal area in Kashmir 13. The two gases making highest relative contribution to the greenhouse gases are

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A. CO2 and CH4

B. CH4 and N2O

C. CO2 and N2O

D. CFC5 and N2O

14. Breakdown of nitrogenous wastes and dead organisms proteins into ammonia is classified as A. denitrification

B. ammonification

C. assimilation

D. nitrification

21. Process in which inorganic nutrients are enriched with water is called A. eutrophication

B. industrialization

C. pollution

D. contamination

22. The major pollutant from automoblie exhaust is A. Soot

15. The range of normal human hearing is in the range of A. 50 Hz to 80 Hz

B. 10 Hz to 80 Hz

C. 50Hz to 15000 Hz

D. 15000 Hz and above

B. SO2

C. CO

D. NO

23. The cutting down of trees and setting them on fire and raising crops on the resulting ash is called: A. Taungya system

B. Shift cultivation

16. Tertiary consumers that are fed on primary carnivores are also known as

C. Pyrolysis

D. Jhum

A. secondary herbivores B. secondary carnivores

24. Measuring Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a method used for

C. primary carnivores

D. tertiary carnivores

A. Working out the efficiency of R.B.Cs. about their capacity to carry oxygen

17. Algal bloom results in A. Eutrophication

B. Global warming

C. Salination

D. Biomagnification

B. Measuring the activity of Saccharomyces cerevisiae in producing curd on a commercial scale

18. Carbon dioxide is called green-house gas because it is

C. Estimating the amount of organic matter in sewage water

A. Transparent to sunlight but traps heat

D. Working out the efficiency of oil driven automobile engines

B. Transparent to both sunlight and heat C. Used in green-house to increase plant growth

25. The main atmospheric layer near the surface of earth is

D. Transparent to heat but traps sunlight

A. ionosphere

B. stratospere

C. mesophere

D. troposphere

19. Soap and detergents are the source of organic pollutants like: A. all of these

B. polyphosphates

C. sulphonated hydrocarbons

D. glycerol

Biology Test-5

B. 10%

A. intense level of microbial pollution B. moderate microbial pollution C. absence of microbial pollution

20. Percentage of forest area recommended by the the national forest policy for plains is Forest A. 33%

26. High biological oxygen demand indicates:

C. 30%

D. 67%

D. all of these 27. In an area where DDT had been used extensively, the population of birds declined significantly because

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A. Birds stopped laying eggs B. Many of the birds eggs laid, did not hatch C. Cobras were feeding exclusively on birds D. Earthworms in the area got eradicated 28. Commonly used radioactive isotopes in scientific research A. 14 C

B. 32 P

C. 125 I

D. all of these

29. Organisms that are capable to synthesize organic compounds into simple raw materials are called A. secondary consumers

B. tertiary consumers

C. primary consumers D. producers 30. Common indicator organism of water pollution is: A. Entamoeba histolytica

B. Eichhornia crassipes

C. Escherichia coli

D. Lemna paucicostata

Biology Test-5

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HINTS AND SOLUTIONS

Biology Test-5

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BIOLOGY TEST-6 Biology

green house gases that contribute to the total global warming? A. CFCs 14%, Methane B. Methane 20%, N2O 20% 18% C. N2O 6%, CO2 86%

D. CO2 40%,CFCs 30%

1. Which one of the following is not a bioindicator of water pollution?

7. Identify the correctly matched pair

A. Blood-worms

B. Sludge-worms

C. Sewage fungus

D. Stone flies

B. Ramsar Convention – Ground water pollution

2. Considering ecosystem components, ones that depends on consumers and cannot make their own food are called A. producers

B. detritivores

C. decomposers

D. consumers

3. The pollution which does not persistent harm to life supporting system is A. Radiation pollution B. All of these C. Noise pollution

D. Organochlorine pollution

4. dB is a standard abbreviation used for the quantitative expression of

A. Montreal Protocol - Global warming

C. Basal Convention – Biodiversity Conservation D. Kyoto protocol – Climatic change 8. Shell of egg in bird becomes thin (not properly formed) due to the pollution of pesticides. This is due to interference in the activity of : A. None of these

B. Ca ATPase

C. Mg ATPase

D. Calmodulin

9. Growing agricultural crops between rows of planted trees is known as A. Social forestry

B. Agroforestry

C. Jhum

D. Taungya system

A. The dominant Bacillus in a culture B. The density of bacteria in a medium

10. Example of primary pollutant

C. A particular pollutant

A. SO2

B. hydrocarbons

D. A certain pesticide

C. NO2

D. CO

5. Industrial melanism is an example of

11. Trichoderma harzianum has proved a useful microorganism for:

A. Darkening of skin due to industries B. Defensive adaptation of skin against UV radiations

A. Bioremediation of contaminated soils

C. Protective resemblance with the surrounding

C. Biological control of soil-borne plant pathogens

D. Drug resistance

D. Gene transfer in higher plants

6. Which one of the following is the correct percentage of the two (out of the total of 4)

12. The slow rate of decomposition of fallen logs in nature is due to their:

Biology Test-6

B. Reclamation of wastelands

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A. Poor nitrogen content

C. adrenal medulla is removed

B. Low cellulose content C. Low moisture content D. Anaerobic environment around them 13. Which is the highest layer in the atmosphere? A. Mesosphere

B. thermosphere

C. exosphere

D. troposphere

14. The gland that plays a role in 'fight or flight response' is _________________. A. adrenal medulla

B. pituitary

C. adrenal cortex

D. pancreas

A. involuntary action

B. reflex action

C. None of these

D. voluntary action only

16. The hormone secreted by the alpha cells of islets of Langerhans is _____________. B. insulin

C. thymosin

D. glucagon

21. The processes that conduct signals towards the nerve cell body are the ___________. A. fibres

B. dendrites

C. All of these

D. axons

22. Receptors which produce sensation of pain are A. Mechanoreceptors

B. Chemoreceptors

C. Nociceptors

D. Thermoreceptors

23. Hypothalamus is a part of

15. Blinking of eyes is a ________________.

A. adrenaline

D. cortex is removed

A. forebrain

B. midbrain

C. hindbrain

D. future brain

24. When an impulse reaches a synaptic knob, synaptic vesicles fuse with the A. synaptic cleft

B. post-synaptic membrane

C. neurotransmitters

D. pre-synaptic membrane

25. Sympathetic nervous system is associated with

17. Distention of cervix stimulates release of A. testosterone

B. thyroxine

C. oestrogen

D. oxytocin

18. There are ______________ pairs of spinal nerves. A. 21

B. 12

C. 31

D. 8

19. A spinal nerve is a ________________ nerve. A. mixed

B. motor

C. sensory

B. hormonal secretions

C. fear and rage

D. fight and flight

26. Melanophore stimulating hormone (MSH) is secreted by A. median lobe of pituitary

B. posterior lobe of pituitary

C. frontal lobe of pituitary

D. anterior lobe of pituitary

D. long

20. In rats, ability to withstand any stress situation such as cold is diminished if A. medulla is removed B. adrenal cortex is removed

Biology Test-6

A. skeletal muscles

27. Lobe of pituitary often referred to as master gland is the A. anterior

B. frontal

C. median

D. posterior

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28. The preganglionic fibres and the postganglionic fibres are a part of ____________. A. central nervous system

B. autonomous nervous system

C. endocrine system

D. peripheral nervous system

29. Gibberellins were discovered from ______________. A. algae

B. fungi

C. bacteria

D. mosses

30. Thyroxine hormone belongs to family A. steroids

B. amino acid and derivatives

C. proteins

D. polypeptides

Biology Test-6

| 115

SMART ANSWERSHEET

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| 116

HINTS AND SOLUTIONS

Biology Test-6

| 117

8. The hormone that is used to keep flowers fresh is _______.

BIOLOGY TEST-7 Biology 1. Bilobed-mass composed of two ganglia are present in body of A. rats

B. humans

C. planaria

D. hydra

A. gibberellic acid

B. auxin

C. cytokinin

D. ethylene

9. The outermost covering of the nerve is called the ________. A. epineurium

B. perineurium

C. myelin sheath

D. capsule

10. Learning is related to ______________. 2. In animal kingdom types of nervous system are A. four

B. one

C. two

A. hypothalamus

B. cerebrum

C. thalamus

D. cerebellum

D. three

3. The grey matter consists of ___________.

11. Detection of vibration of ground by terrestrial vertebrates is because of receptors in

A. nerve cell bodies and dendrites

A. cartilage

B. Joints

B. nerve cells

C. muscles

D. bones

C. nerve cell bodies D. nerve cell bodies, dendrites and axons 4. Diffused type nervous system is present in

12. A self-fertilizing trihybrid plant forms: A. 8 different gametes and 32 different zygotes B. 8 different gametes and 16 different zygotes

A. hydra

B. earthworm

C. 8 different gametes and 64 different zygotes

C. amoeba

D. rats

D. 4 different gametes and 16 different zygotes

5. Ganglion is made up of ___________. A. axons

B. neurons

C. dendrites

D. cytons

6. Meaning of word Cephalo is A. head

B. neck

C. brain

D. shoulders

7. Na+ diffusion into neuron causes its membrane to undergo A. semi-polarization

B. neutralization

C. polarization

D. depolarization

Biology Test-7

13. Which one of the following statements is false in respect of viability of mammalian sperm? A. Sperms must be concentrated in a thick suspension B. Viability of sperm is determined by its motility C. Survival of sperm depends on the pH of the medium and is more active in alkaline medium D. Sperm is viable for only up to 24 hours 14. Which of the following are not examples of analogous structures?

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A. Tendril of Lathyrus and tendril of Gloriosa

A. Cytosol

B. Wings of bat and forelimb of cattle

C. Chloroplast genome D. Mitochondrial genome

C. Thorn and spine D. Wings of bat and butterfly 15. Which of the following structures are derivatives of the endoderm? A. Skin and nerve cord B. Alimentary canal and respiratory structures C. Muscles and blood D. Excretory and reproductive structures 16. Lysosomes and ribosomes A. Lysosomes and ribosomes B. Mitochondria and chloroplasts

B. Nuclear-genome

21. In human beings, the eggs are A. microlecithal

B. alecithal

C. macrolecithal

D. mesolecithal

22. Foramen ovale A. Is a shallow depression in the interventricular septum B. Is a condition in which the heart valves do not completely close C. Connects the two atria in the fetal heart D. Is a connection between the pulmonary trunk and the aorta in the fetus

C. Ribosomes and chloroplast D. Endoplasmic reticulum and mitochondria 17. If a colourblind woman marries a normal visioned man, their sons will be

23. Ovulation in the human female normally takes place during the menstrual cycle A. At the beginning of the proliferative phase B. At the mid secretory phase

A. One-half colourblind and one-half normal B. Three-fourths colourblind and one-fourth normal C. All colourblind

C. Just before the end of the secretory cycle D. At the end of the proliferative phase 24. Which of the following sentences is true about the evolutionary process?

D. All normal visioned 18. Fertilizin is a chemical substance produced from

A. humans are unique, a totally new type of organism. B. progress is nature's religion.

A. Middle piece of spermB. Polar bodies C. acrosome

D. Mature eggs

19. Where is situated epididymis ?

C. Evolution of life forms was rapid in the beginning ages. D. There is no real 'progress' in the idea of evolution.

A. Below the testis B. Above the testis C. External surface of the testis

25. In a normal pregnant woman, the amount of total gonadotropin activity was assessed. The result expected was

D. Internal surface of the testis 20. Genes for cytoplasmic male sterility in plants are generally located in:

Biology Test-7

A. High levels of FSH and LH in uterus to stimulate endometrial thickening B. High level of circulating FSH and LH in the uterus to stimulate implantation of the

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embryo C. High level of circulating HCG to stimulate endometrial thickening D. High level of circulating HCG to stimulate estrogen and progesterone synthesis 26. Where seminiferous tubules of each lobe empty sperms ? A. Vas deference

B. Vasa efferentia

C. Epididymus

D. Seminal vesicles

27. Grain colour in wheat is determined by three pairs of polygene. Following the cross AABBCC (dark colour) x aabbcc (light colour), in F2generation what proportion of the progeny is likely to resemble either parent A. Less than 5 percent

B. One third

C. One fourth

D. None of these

28. A common test to find the genotype of a hybrid is by: A. Crossing of one F2 progeny with male parent B. Crossing of one F2 progeny with female parent C. Studying the sexual behaviour of F1 progenies D. Crossing of one F1 progeny with male parent 29. Microevolution takes place due to A. Successive variation B. somatogenic variation C. blastogenic variation D. continuous variation 30. Non geographic speciation can be found in _____. A. allopatric speciation B. peripatric speciation C. parapatric speciation D. sympatric speciation

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SMART ANSWERSHEET

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HINTS AND SOLUTIONS

Biology Test-7

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7. Cut or excised leaves remain green for long if induced to root or dipped in

BIOLOGY TEST-8 Biology 1. Double circulation is well developed in which of these animals? A. Fish

B. Frog

C. Crocodile

D. Bird

2. The transport of soluble products of photosynthesis is called translocation and it occurs inthe part of the vascular tissue called A. Collenchyma

B. Phloem

C. Sclerenchyma

D. Xylem

3. Phosphorous and nitrogen ions generally get depeleted in soil because they usually occur as

A. ethylene.

B. cytokinins

C. auxins

D. gibberellins

8. Dwarfness can be controlled by treating the plant with A. cytokinin

B. antigibberellin.

C. auxin

D. gibberellic acid

9. Which one is an essential mineral, not constituent of any enzyme but stimulates the activity of many enzymes A. K

B. Mg.

C. Zn

D. Mn

10. Photosystem II occurs in A. cytochrome

B. grana

C. stroma

D. mitochondrial surface.

B. negatively charged ions

11. Which of the following hormones can replace vernalisation?

C. neutral ions

A. ethylene.

B. auxin

D. both positively and negatively charged but disproportionate mixture.

C. gibuerellins

D. cytokinin

A. positively charged ions

4. Water movement between cells is due to

12. A chemical believed to be involved in flowering is

A. T.P.

B. D.P.D.

A. IBA.

B. gibberellin

C. W.P.

D. incipient plasmolysis.

C. florigen

D. kinetin

5. Which of the following pigments acts as a reaction- centre during photosynthesis?

13. Conversion of starch to organic acids is required for

A. P700

B. cytochrome.

A. stomatal opening

B. stomata! closing

C. phytochrome

D. carotene

C. stomatal activity.

D. stomatal formation

6. At constant temperature, the rate of transpiration will be higher at

14. Phytochrome is involved in A. photorespiration

B. phototropism

A. 1 km below sea level B. 1.5 km above sea level.

C. geotropism.

D. photoperiodism

C. sea level

15. Cytokinins

Biology Test-8

D. 1 km above sea level

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A. photoperiod less than 12 hours photoperiod below a critical length and uninterrupted long night long night

22. Translocation of carbohydrate nutrients usually occurs in the form of A. starch

B. maltose

B. short photoperiod and interrupted long night.

C. sucrose.

D. glucose

C. influence water movement

23. Gibberellins promote

D. promote abscission

A. seed dormancy

B. leaf fall

16. NADP+ is reduced to NADPH in

C. root elongation

D. seed germination

A. Calvin cycle B. PS I

24. Carbon dioxide joins the photosynthetic pathway in

C. PS II

A. PS I

B. PS II

D. noncyclic photophosphorylation.

C. light reaction

D. dark reaction.

17. The regulator which retards ageing/senescence of plant parts is

25. In guard cells when sugar is converted into starch, the stomatal pore

A. abscisic acid.

B. auxin

A. remains unchanged. B. closes completely

C. cytokinin

D. gibberellin

C. opens partially

18. Leaf fall can be prevented with the help of A. florigen

B. auxins

C. cytokinins.

D. abscisic acid

D. opens fully

26. Mowing grass lawn facilities better maintenance because A. removal of apical dominance and stimulation of intercalary meristem

19. The size of chlorophyll molecule is

B. wounding stimulates regeneration

A. head 10 x 12 A, tail 25 A.

B. head 15 x 15 A, tail 20 A

C. removal of apical dominance and promotion of lateral meristem.

C. head 15 x 15 A, tail 25 A

D. head 20 x 20 A, tail 25 A

D. removal of apical dominance 27. Ferredoxin is a constituent of

20. The closure of lid of pitcher in pitcher plant, is due to A. tropic movement. C. turgor movement

B. autonomous movement D. paratonic movement

21. In C4 plants, Calvin cycle operates in

A. Hill reaction

B. P680.

C. PS I

D. PS II

28. Plants, but not animals, can convert fatty acids to sugars by a series of reactions called A. photosynthesis

B. Kreb’s cycle

C. glycolysis

D. glyoxylate cycle.

A. stroma of mesophyll chloroplasts. B. stroma of bundle sheath chloroplasts

29. The substrate for photorespiration is

C. grana of bundle sheath chloroplasts

A. serine

B. phosphoglyceric acid

D. grana of mesophyll chloroplasts

C. glycine

D. glycolate

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30. Chiasmata are first seen in A. Pachytene

B. Diplotene

C. Zygotene

D. Leptotene

Biology Test-8

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SMART ANSWERSHEET

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HINTS AND SOLUTIONS

Biology Test-8

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BIOLOGY TEST-9

A. lumen of mitochondria B. lumen of rough endoplasmic reticulum C. lumen of lysosomes

Biology

D. lumen of smooth endoplasmic reticulum 8. During oogenesis the cell that is fertilized by a sperm to become an egg is

1. A bivalent consists of A. Four chromatids and four centromeres

B. secondary oocyte

B. Two chromatids and two centromeres

A. primary spermatocyte

C. Two chromatids and one centromere

C. primary oocyte

D. secondary spermatocyte

D. Four chromatids and two centromeres 2. Semiautonomous organelle in the cell is A. Chloroplast

B. Peroxisomes

C. Golgibodies

D. Endoplasmic reticulam

9. A change in the amount of yolk and its distribution in the egg will affect: A. Pattern of cleavage B. Formation of zygote C. Number of blastomeres produced

3. Haploid complement of chromosome of an organism is

D. Fertilization

A. Phenotype

B. Genotype

10. The transport of secretory proteins takes place trough organelles in the order

C. Genetic system

D. Genome A. RER->SER-> secretory vescicles -> golgi

4. In higher plants, the shape of the chloroplast is

B. RER->golgi->SER-> secretory vescicles

A. girdle shaped

B. cup shaped

D. RER->SER->golgi-> secretory vescicles

C. Discoid

D. ribbon shaped

C. SER->RER->golgi-> secretory vescicles

5. Clathrin coated pits are associated with

11. Which of the following membrane has the largest amount of proteins

A. exocytosis

A. outer mitochondrial membrane

B. pinocytosis

B. erythrocyte membrane

C. receptor mediated endocytosis

C. myelin sheath membrane

D. phagocytosis

D. inner mitochondrial membrane

6. During gamete formation, the enzyme recombinase participates during

12. Secondary cell wall of plants is

A. Prophase-I

B. Metaphase-I

B. Located inside the plasma membrane

C. Anaphase-II

D. Prophase-II

C. Located outside the primary wall

7. Protein glycosylation occurs in the

Biology Test-9

A. Located inside the primary wall

D. Located just beneath middle lamellae

| 128

13. During mitosis ER and nucleolus begin to disappear at A. Early metaphase

B. Early prophase

C. Late metaphase

D. Late prophase

22. Experiments demonstrating the importance of the nucleus in controlling the growth of the cell was performed in A. Acetabularia

B. Starfish

14. Mitochondria have first seen by

C. Leucocytes

D. Neurospora

A. Robert Hooke

B. Robert Brown

C. Lipmann

D. Altmann

23. Which of the statements are incorrect regarding plant cell wall

15. The term ‘endoplasmic reticulum’ was coined by

A. In certain plants, tertiary cell wall is also present which has xylan beside cellulose

A. Reinert B. Pomaret C. Johnson D. Porter

B. Middle lamella is made up of pectin and lignin

16. Ribophorins are

C. Primary and secondary walls are present in meristamatic cells

A. transmembrane glycoprotein on SER

D. Secondary cell wall consists of three concentric layers (S1, S2 and S3) one after the other

B. luminal proteins on SER C. luminal proteins on RER D. transmembrane glycoprotein on RER

24. SER in the retinal cells are called as

17. Balbiani rings occur in

A. Retinal reticulam

B. Amyloid bodies

A. Autosome

B. Heterosome

C. Myeloid bodies

C. Polytene chromosome

D. Lampbrush chromosome

D. Sarcoplasmic reticulum

18. Meiosis is best seen in A. Pollen grain

B. Anther wall

C. Gamete

D. Microsporangium

19. In RER, ribosomes are located on A. None of these

B. the cytoplasmic side

25. In cell membrane, carbohydrates in glycoproteins or glycolipids are oriented A. towards outside and B. randomly distributed inside C. towards inside

D. towards outside

26. During which stage the chromosomes first become visible.

C. on the luminal side D. all through out

A. Metaphase

B. Prophase

20. Cellulose is a polymer of D-glucose units joined by

C. Anaphase

D. Telophase

A. α 1-4 linkage

B. α 1-6 linkage

27. Which of the following is a aromatic polymer of phenols

C. β 1-6 linkage

D. β 1-4 linkage

A. Cutin

21. Lampbrush chromosomes are observed in

B. Pectin

C. Lignin

D. Chitin

A. Mitotic prophase

B. Meiotic prophase

28. Middle lamella is made up of pectin. Pectin is chemically

C. Mitotic metaphase

D. Meiotic metaphase

A. Glucoronic and galacturonic acid

Biology Test-9

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B. N-acetyl glucosamine and N-acetyl muramic acid C. Heteropolymer of xylose, mannose and arabinose D. Polymer of D-glucose units 29. Pectin is stained using A. acetocrmine

B. Iodine

C. Sudan III

D. Ruthenium red

30. The distribution of intrinsic proteins in the cell membrane is A. uniform

B. assymetrical

C. symmetrical

D. random

Biology Test-9

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SMART ANSWERSHEET

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7

B

A

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B

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HINTS AND SOLUTIONS

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transport

BIOLOGY TEST-10 7. Lipid bi layer is

A. hydrophilic and hydrophobic

Biology

B. hydrophilic C. depends on the surrounding medium

1. Which of the following transport induces conformational change in protein

D. hydrophobic

A. ion driven active transport

B. facilitated diffusion

8. Which one of the followings stands incorrect regarding skeletal muscle?

C. active transport

D. simple diffusion

A. Stimulated by central nervous system

2. In humans, at the end of the first meiotic division, the male germ cells differentiate into the: A. Spermatids

B. Primary spermatocytes

C. Spermatogonia

D. Secondary spermatocytes

B. Cell fibers have multiple nuclei C. Contract and expand slowly D. Responsible for voluntary movement 9. The difference in voltage between the inside and outside of a cell is called ______. A. Spike potential

B. Action potential

C. Resting potential

D. Reaction potential

3. Chlorzinc Iodide is used to stain A. Hemicellulose

B. Pectin

C. Cellulose

D. Lignin

10. Which one of the following aspects is an exclusive characteristic of living things? A. Increase in mass from inside only

4. The plasma membrane is impermeable to all molecules except

B. Increase in mass by accumulation of material both on surface as well as internally

A. rea

C. Perception of events happening in the environment and their memory

B. ATP

C. Glucose

D. K+

5. RER is involved in the synthesis of A. Membrane proteins and secretory proteins B. Membrane proteins and secretory proteins and nuclear proteins C. Different proteins of the cell

D. Isolated metabolic reactions occur in vitro 11. Which one is the cofactor of carbonic anhydrase? A. Cu

B. Mg

C. Zn

D. Fe

D. Membrane proteins, secretory proteins and lysosomal proteins

12. Bulk of carbon dioxide (CO2) released from body tissues into the blood is present as

6. Na+ glucose transporter is an example of

A. 70% carbaminohemoglobin and 30% as bicarbonate

A. Symport

B. antiport

C. facilitated diffusion

D. ATP driven active

Biology Test-10

B. Carbaminohemoglobin in RBCs C. Bicarbonate in blood plasma and RBCs

| 133

13. Which one of the following is NOT correct?

18. When a neuron is in resting state i.e. not conducting any impulse, the axonal membrane is

A. Lung volumes and vital capacity measure lung function.

A. Comparatively more permeable to Na+ ions and nearly impermeable to K+ ions

B. The nasal cavity warms and humidifies the air before it enters the lungs.

B. Comparatively more permeable to K+ ions and nearly impermeable to Na+ ions

C. The visceral pleura is in direct contact with the chest wall.

C. Impermeable to both Na+ and K+ ions

D. Free CO2 in blood plasma

D. The right lung is composed of three lobes, but the left lung has only two lobes 14. Which of the following does not act as a neurotransmitter? A. Tyrosine

B. Epinephrine

C. Glutamic acid

D. Acetylcholine

15. Which one of the following cranial nerves is carrying the nerve fibres originating from the Edinger-Westphal nucleus? A. Oculomotor

B. Vagus

C. Abducens

D. Trochlear

16. Which one of the following is a possibility for most of us in regard to breathing, by making a conscious effort? A. The lungs can be made fully empty by forcefully breathing out all air from them B. One can breathe out air totally without oxygen

D. Equally permeable to both Na+ and K+ ions 19. Which portion of the brain is responsible for various emotions such as pleasure, fear, and happiness? A. Reticular formation

B. Thalamus

C. Hypothalamus

D. Limbic system

20. Secretion of osteoid by osteoblasts forms ______. A. Cartilage

B. Canaliculi

C. Marrow

D. Matrix

21. Bile salts act as activator of which enzyme? A. Trypsinogen

B. Lipase

C. Pancreatic amylase

D. Pepsinogen

22. The thin and convoluted outer layer of gray matter that covers the cerebral hemispheres is A. Meninges

B. Medulla oblongata

C. Thalamus

D. Cerebral cortex

C. One can consciously breathe in and breathe out by moving the diaphragm alone, without moving the ribs at all

23. Aerobic respiratory pathway is also termed as ______ pathway.

D. One can breathe out air through eustachian tubes by closing both the nose and the mouth

A. Catabolic

B. Creatine phosphate

C. Amphibolic

D. Anabolic

17. Skeletal muscles are controlled by ______.

24. Which one of the following is the correct matching of two capacities and volumes?

A. Autonomic nerves B. Parasympathetic nerves

A. 2500 mL, (c) 4500 mL B. 1200 mL, (d) 2500 mL

C. Sympathetic nerves D. Somatic nerves

C. 3500 mL, (a) 1200 mLD. 4500 mL, (b) 3500 mL

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25. The maximum volume of air contained in the lung by a full forced inhalation is called A. Inspiratory capacity

B. Total lung capacity

C. Vital capacity

D. Tidal volume

26. Which one of the following statements is incorrect regarding the pharynx? A. Contributes to the production of speech B. Organ of the upper respiratory tract C. Connects to the larynx D. Composed of smooth muscle 27. Which of the following nerves is the largest of all the cranial nerves? A. Abducens nerve

B. Olfactory nerve

C. Trigeminal nerve

D. Oculomotor nerve

28. The generation of excitation-contraction coupling involves all the following events except A. Hydrolysis of ATP to ADP B. Formation of cross-linkages between actin and myosin C. Release of calcium from troponin D. Generation of end-plate potential 29. Which one of the common neurotransmitters is paired wrongly with the site where it is released? A. Somatostatin - pancreas B. Serotonin - spinal cord C. Acetylcholine - Neuromuscular junctions D. Endorphins - autonomic nervous system 30. Yellow bone marrow, in the medullary cavity of the diaphysis is primarily ______. A. Collagen fibers, made of protein B. None of thes C. Bone-forming and bone-absorbing cells D. Fat that can be utilized for energy

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SMART ANSWERSHEET

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| 136

HINTS AND SOLUTIONS

Biology Test-10

| 137

UNITS MEASUREMENTS AND DIMENSIONS

C. (1) - (C), (2) - (B), (3) - (A), (4) - (D) D. (1) - (C), (2) - (D), (3) - (B), (4) - (A) 5. If force (F), work (W) and velocity (v) are taken as fundamental quantities, then what is the dimensional formula of time (T)?

Section - 1

A. [WFv] B. [WFv-1]

1. Convert 1 kWh into joules. A. 33

105 Joule

B. 36

105 Joule

C. 36

104 Joule

C. [W-1F -1v] D. [WF-1v -1] 6. Which of the following sets of quantities has the same dimensional formula?

D. None of these 2. If the atmospheric pressure is 106 dyne/cm2, then what is its value in SI units? A. 105 N/m2 6

2

7

2

B. 10 N/m C. 10 N/m

A. Frequency, angular frequency and angular momentum B. Surface tension, stress and spring constant C. Acceleration, momentum and retardation D. Work, energy and torque

D. 108 N/m2 3. What is the dimensional formula of thermal conductivity?

7. The dimensions of

permitivity of free space, E : electric field)

A. [MLT θ ]

are

B. [MLT-3θ-1]

A. [MLT-1]

C. [M2LT-3θ-2]

B. [ML2T-2]

D. [ML2T-2θ]

C. [ML-1T-2]

-1 -1

( where

D. [ML2T-1]

4. Match the following:

8. The displacement of a particle moving along x-axis is given as x = at + bt2 - ct3, where t is time. The respective dimensions of a, b and c are

List - I

List - II

(1) Planck's constant

(A) [ML-1T-2]

(2) Gravitational constant

(B) [ML-1T-1]

A. L2, T, LT2

(3) Bulk modulus

(C) [ML2T-1]

B. LT2, LT, LT-2

(4) Coefficient of viscosity (D) [M-1L3T-2]

C. LT-1, LT-2, LT-3

A. (1) - (C), (2) - (D), (3) - (A), (4) - (B)

D. L, LT, T2

B. (1) - (B), (2) - (A), (3) - (C), (4) - (D)

Units Measurements and Dimensions

| 138

9. The density of material of a cube is measured by measuring its mass and length of its side. If the maximum errors in the measurement of mass and length are 3% and 2%, respectively, then the maximum error in the measurement of density is

A. [M0L0TA0] B. [ML0TA-2] C. [ML0TA2] D. [MLTA-2] 14. The velocity 'v' of a particle at time 't' is

A. 1% B. 5% given by 'v' = at + , where 'a', 'b' and 'c' are constants. The dimensions of 'a', 'b' and 'c' are

C. 7% D. 9% 10. The length, breadth and thickness of a block are given as l = 12 cm, b = 6 cm and t = 2.45 cm, respectively. The volume of the block, according to the idea of significant figures, should be A. 1 x 102 cm3 B. 2 x 102 cm3 C. 1.763 x 102 cm3 D. 1.83 x 102 cm3

A. [LT-2], [L] and [T] B. [L2], [T] and [LT2] C. [LT2], [LT] and [L] D. [L], [LT] and [T2] 15. If the velocity of light 'c', gravitational constant 'G' and Planck's constant 'h' are chosen as fundamental units, then the dimensions of length 'L' in the new system will be

11. Time period 'T' of a simple pendulum may

A. [h1c1G-1]

depend on 'm', the mass of the bob, ' ', the length of the string, and 'g', the acceleration due

B. [h1/2c1/2G-1/2]

to gravity. This means that 'T' ∝ ma gc. What are the respective values of 'a', 'b' and 'c'? A. 1/2, 0 and 1/2

C. [h1c-3G1] D. [h1/2c-3/2G1/2] E. [h1coGo]

C. 0, 1/2 and - 1/2

16. Which of the following units denotes the dimensions [ML2/Q2], where 'Q' represents the electric charge?

D. 0, 1/2 and 1/2

A. Wb/m2

B. 1/2, 0 and - 1/2

12. The volume of a cube in m3 is equal to the surface area of the cube in m2. The volume of the cube is A. 64 m3

B. Henry (H) C. H/m2 D. Weber (Wb) 17. What are the dimensions of permittivity of

B. 216 m

3

C. 512 m

3

D. 196 m

3

13. If 'C' and 'R' respectively denote capacitance and resistance, then what will be the dimensions of 'CR'?

Units Measurements and Dimensions

free space

?

A. M-1L-3T4A2 B. ML1T3A1 C. ML-1T-2A-2 D. M-1L-2T2A-1

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18. The dimensional formula of Stefan's constant is A. MT–3K–4 B. ML2T2K–4 C. ML2T–2 D. MT–2L0 19. In an experiment, the values of two resistances were measured as R1 = 5 0.2 ohm and R2 = 10 0.1 ohm. What is their combined resistance in series? A. [15

2%]

B. [10

6%]

C. [5

7%]

D. [4

8%]

20. To express the size of a molecule and an atom, a small size unit called the ____ is used. A. parsec B. light year C. angstrom D. nanometre

Units Measurements and Dimensions

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SMART ANSWERSHEET

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1

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Ans.

Ans.

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Ans.

Skipped

Skipped

Skipped

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26.26 %

28.28 %

55.56 %

43.43 %

B

5

D

A

D

C

B

C

C

26.27 %

A 22.23 %

D

24.24 % 19

A

21.22 %

41.42 %

33.33 % 16

35.36 %

37.37 % 18

46.46 % 15

B

32.33 %

28.28 %

34.34 % 12

33.34 %

A

1.01 %

33.33 % 8

A

52.53 % 14

58.59 % 11

17 11.11 %

10.11 %

37.38 %

45.45 %

A

49.49 % 10

30.3 % 7

11.11 %

13 33.34 %

30.31 %

62.63 %

A

D

36.36 % 6

B

9 40.41 %

23.24 %

4

Correct Q.

Skipped

48.48 %

3

Ans.

64.65 % 6.06 % 2

Correct Q.

B

38.38 % 20

37.38 %

C 34.35 %

Performance Analysis Avg. Score Toppers Score Cut Off Your Score

Units Measurements and Dimensions

8/20 20/20 44/20

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HINTS AND SOLUTIONS

Units Measurements and Dimensions

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PHYSICS-1

8. Michael faraday observed that e.m.f was set up in a conductor in year of

Physics 1. Negative of rate of change of magnetic flux through coil changing with time is known as A. Lenz's law

B. faradays law

C. newton's law

D. All of these

2. Induced current depends upon speed with which conductor moves and A. resistance of loop

B. current of loop

C. resistance of galvanometer

D. voltage of loop

3. Self induced e.m.f is sometimes also known as A. deduce e.m.f

B. induced e.m.f

C. None of these

D. back e.m.f

A. 1832

B. 1840

C. 1831

D. 1842

9. A current carrying coil placed in magnetic field experiences force, this law is stated byor A. None of these

B. AC generator

C. DC motor

D. DC generat

10. A helium nucleus enters perpendicularly in magnetic field B with velocity then magnetic force acting on it will be A. None of these

B. 2 Bev

C. evB

D. zero

11. Height of tower when stone dropped from it reaches ground in 5 s is A. 130 m

B. 200 m

C. 125 m

D. 150 m

C. sp

D. v

12. Symbol for speed is

4. With alternative current inductor behave like

A. sd

A. transistor

B. wire

C. capacitor

D. resistor

13. If object is at rest then distance-time graph is

5. Dimensions of rate of change of flux are equivalent to those of A. current

B. 1/charge

C. voltage

D. charge

6. In alternative current generator, AC current reverses its direction A. once/sec

B. f times per second

C. per sec

D. T times per second

7. In generators, rate of change of flux linkage is maximum when coil is moving through the A. horizontal position

B. diagonal position

C. vertical position

D. at an angle of 45°

Physics-1

B. a

A. straight lined

B. variable

C. constant

D. None of these

14. Quantities between which graph is plotted is called A. scalars

B. vectors

C. variables

D. None of these

15. Symbol for distance is A. d

B. a

C. s

D. dt

16. Which of following is one of characteristic of air resistance A. It decreases with speed of object

| 143

B. It decreases with surface area

A. variable speed

B. uniform speed

C. It does not oppose motion

C. instantaneous speed

D. average speed

D. It increases with density of air

25. Changing or unconsistant speed is termed as

17. When speed remains constant, velocity

A. average speed

B. uniform speed

A. remain constant

B. must changes

C. instantaneous speed

D. variable speed

C. slightly increases

D. may change

18. Air resistance is a A. frictional force

B. backward force

C. balanced force

D. gravitational force

26. Spinning of body about its axis is A. circular

B. translational

C. rotatory

D. None of these

19. Acceleration due to free-fall or gravity doesn't depend on

27. Theory that 'all object falling under gravity accelerate at same constant rate' was discovered by

A. Size

A. Galileo Galilei

B. Sir Isaac Newton

C. Albert Einstein

D. Robert Hooke

C. Shape and size

B. Shape, size and material D. Material

28. When speed of object changes, velocity

20. Distance in specified direction is termed as

A. increases

B. decreases

A. Directional Distance B. Uni-directional Distance

C. remains same

D. also changes

C. Directional Displacement

29. Unchanged or constant speed is termed as

D. Displacement

21. Change of distance in a specified direction per unit time is termed as A. Acceleration

B. Velocity

C. Directional Speed

D. Speed

22. Distance covered per unit time is termed as A. Velocity

B. Acceleration

C. Speed

D. Deceleration

A. uniform speed

B. variable speed

C. average speed

D. instantaneous speed

30. Velocity is the A. time taken per unit distance B. displacement covered per unit time C. distance covered per unit time D. time taken per unit displacement

23. If we drop a rock and a small pebble. Which will reach ground first? A. Both at same time

B. Pebble

C. Rock

D. They won

24. Speed that you check for a moment on speed-o-meter is termed as

Physics-1

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Physics-1

0/30 0/30 44/30

| 145

HINTS AND SOLUTIONS

Physics-1

| 146

of net force on the stone during its upward motion?

PHYSICS-2 Physics

A. 0.49 N vertically downwards

B. 0.49 N vertically upwards

C. 0.98 N vertically downwards

D. 9.8 N vertically downwards

1. Displacement is defined as A. All of these B. the longest distance between two points C. the distance between two points D. the shortest distance between two points

8. A machine gun fires a bullet of mass 40 g with a velocity 1200 ms^–1. The man holding it can exert a maximum force of 144 N on the gun. How many bullets can he fire per second at the most? A. Three

B. Four

C. One

D. Two

2. Formula for acceleration is A. time taken/change in velocity B. change in velocity/displacement covered

9. Mass of object is quantitative measure of its inertia stated law is newton's

C. distance covered/time taken

A. second law

B. first law

D. change in velocity/time taken

C. hird law

D. fourth law

3. Deceleration is also known as

10. Force with which earth attracts bodies towards its center is called _________

A. retardation

B. inertia

C. acceleration

D. opposite velocity

4. Negative acceleration is termed as A. ceasing

B. retardation

C. opposite velocity

D. inertia

5. "Every action has an equal and opposite reaction" is newton's

A. weight

B. gravitational force

C. inertia

D. mass

11. If a body is moving in a straight line then net force acting on it is ________ A. constant

B. decreasing

C. increasing

D. zero

6. If a bus takes a sharp turn then passengers inside move outward due to _________

12. Three blocks with masses m, 2m and 3m are connected by strings, as shown in the figure. After an upward force F is applied on block m, the masses move upward at constant speed v. What is the net force on the block of mass 2 m?(g is the acceleration due to gravity)

A. friction

B. normal force

A. 6 mg

C. inertia

D. force

A. second law

B. fourth law

C. third law

D. first law

7. A stone of mass 0.05 kg is thrown vertically upwards. What is the direction and magnitude

Physics-2

B. 2 mg

C. Zero

D. 3 mg

13. A light spring balance hangs from the hook of the other light spring balance and a block of mass M kg hangs from the former one. Then the true statement about the scale reading is

| 147

A. The scale of the lower one reads M kg and of the upper one zero

A. 15500 J

B. 7500000 J

C. 30 J

D. 14500 J

B. The reading of the two scales can be anything but the sum of the reading will be M kg

19. Potential energy and kinetic energy are types of

C. Both the scales read M kg each

A. Thermal energy

B. Electrical energy

D. Both the scales read M / 2 kg each

C. Mechanical energy

D. Magnetic energy

14. A block of mass m is placed on a smooth wedge of inclination θ. The whole system is accelerated horizontally, so that the block does not slip on the wedge. The force exerted by the wedge on the block (g is acceleration due to gravity) will be :

20. Pendulum bob stops moving when all its original gain in gravitational potential energy has been converted to

A. mg/cos θ

B. mg sin θ

C. mg

D. mg cos θ

A. Sound Energy

B. Thermal Energy

C. Kinetic Energy

D. Light Energy

21. A car uses total energy of 2500 J and output is 750 J. efficiency of car is

15. In a typical power station, amid a series of energy transfers and conversions, about 70% of energy input gets wasted in form of thermal energy, efficiency of such a power station is about ______ .

A. 80%

A. 0.3

B. Chemical Potential Energy

B. 1

C. 0.4

D. 0.7

16. Pendulum bob stops moving when all its original gain in gravitational potential energy has been converted to ___________ A. Thermal Energy

B. Kinetic Energy

C. Sound Energy

D. Light Energy

B. 30%

C. 50%

D. 25%

22. Solar energy is converted by plants in process of photosynthesis into ________ A. Gravitational Potential Energy

C. Elastic Potential Energy D. Kinetic energy 23. SI unit for work done is A. Ohms

B. Newton

C. Joules

D. Pascals

17. Formula for gravitational potential energy is

24. Solar energy is converted by plants in process of photosynthesis into

A. Ep = gh/m, where m is mass, g is gravitational pull and is height

A. Elastic Potential Energy

B. Ep = mg/h, where m is mass, g is gravitational pull and is height

C. Gravitational Potential Energy

C. Ep = m/gh, where m is mass, g is gravitational pull and is height D. Ep = mgh, where m is mass, g is gravitational pull and is height 18. A car travels a distance of 15 km with a constant force of 500 N, its work done is

Physics-2

B. Kinetic energy

D. Chemical Potential Energy 25. Output of a truck is 4500 J and its efficiency is 50%, input energy provided to truck is A. 9000 J

B. 500 J

C. 900 J

D. 5000 J

26. A car uses total energy of 2500 J and output is 750 J. efficiency of car is _________

| 148

A. 25%

B. 50%

C. 30%

D. 80%

27. In order to do work, energy is A. used up

B. lost or transferred

C. transferred or converted

D. lost

28. A bus travels with a constant force of 5000 N and work done by bus is 2500 J, distance travelled by bus is A. 2500 m

B. 2 m

C. 7500 m

D. 0.5 m

29. An object is lifted 5 m above levelled ground, mass of object is 20 kg and gravitational pull is 10 N kg-2, Ep of object is A. 0.4 J

B. 2.5 J

C. 40 J

D. 1000 J

30. In a typical power station, amid a series of energy transfers and conversions, about 70% of energy input gets wasted in form of thermal energy, efficiency of such a power station is about A. 0.4

Physics-2

B. 0.3

C. 0.7

D. 1

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SMART ANSWERSHEET

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Physics-2

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| 150

HINTS AND SOLUTIONS

Physics-2

| 151

PHYSICS-3 Physics 1. A particle of mass m moving in the x direction with speed 2v is hit by another particle of mass 2m moving in the y direction with speed v. If the collision is perfectly inelastic, the percentage loss in the energy during the collision is close to _____________ A. 62%

B. 50%

C. 56%

D. 44%

2. A particle of mass m moving in the x direction with speed 2v is hit by another particle of mass 2m moving in the y direction with speed v. If the collision is perfectly inelastic, the percentage loss in the energy during the collision is close to A. 50%

B. 62%

C. 56%

D. 44%

3. A block of mass 10 kg moving in x direction with a constant speed of 10 ms–1, is subjected to a retarding force F = 0.1x J/m during its travel from x = 20 m to 30 m. Its final KE will be

A. 10 ms^–1

B. 14 ms^–1

C. 20 ms^–1

D. 28 ms^–1

6. Two identical balls A and B having velocities of 0.5 m/s and –0.3 m/s respectively collide elastically in one dimension. The velocities of B and A after the collision respectively will be A. 0.3 m/s and 0.5 m/s B. –0.5 m/s and 0.3 m/s C. 0.5 m/s and –0.3 m/s D. –0.3 m/s and 0.5 m/s 7. Statement-1 : Two particles moving in the same direction do not lose all their energy in a completely inelastic collision.Statement-2 : Principle of conservation of momentum holds true for all kinds of collisions. A. Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement-2 is the correct explanation of Statement-1 B. Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true C. Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false D. Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement-2 is the not the correct explanation of Statement-1

4. Two similar springs P and Q have spring constants KP and KQ such that KP > KQ. They are stretched first by the same amount (case a), then by the same force (case b). The work done by the springs WP and WQ are related as, in case (a) and case (b), respectively

8. A person trying to lose weight by burning fat lifts a mass of 10 kg upto a height of 1 m 1000 times. Assume that the potential energy lost each time he lowers the mass is dissipated. How much fat will he use up considering the work done only when the weight is lifted up? Fat supplies 3.8 × 107 J of energy per kg which is converted to mechanical energy with a 20% efficiency rate. Take g = 9.8 ms–2

A. WP = WQ ; WP > WQ B. WP < WQ ; WQ < WP

A. 12.89 × 10–^3 kg

B. 6.45 × 10–^3 kg

C. WP > WQ ; WQ > WP D. WP = WQ ; WP = WQ

C. 9.89 × 10–^3 kg

D. 2.45 × 10–^3 kg

5. A ball is thrown vertically downwards from a height of 20 m with an initial velocity v02. It collides with the ground, loses 50 percent of its energy in collision and rebounds to the same height. The initial velocity v0 is (Take g = 10 ms– 2)

9. A bullet of mass 10 g moving horizontally with a velocity of 400 ms–1 strikes a wood block of mass 2 kg which is suspended by light inextensible string of length 5 m. As a result, the centre of gravity of the block found to rise a vertical distance of 10 cm. The speed of the

A. 450 J

Physics-3

B. 475 J

C. 250 J

D. 275 J

| 152

bullet after it emerges out horizontally from the block will be A. 100 ms6–1

B. 80 ms^–1

C. 120 ms^–1

D. 160 ms^–1

10. This question has Statement 1 and Statement 2. Of the four choices given after the Statements, choose the one that best describes the two Statements.If two springs S1 and S2 of force constants k1 and k2, respectively, are stretched by the same force, it is found that more work is done on spring S1 than on spring S2.Statement 1 : If stretched by the same amount, work done on S1, will be more than that on S2Statement 2 : k1 < k2 A. Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true, Statement 2 is the correct explanation for statement 1. B. Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false. C. Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true, Statement 2 is not the correct explanation of Statement 1. D. Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is true. 11. The respective number of significant figures for the numbers 23.023, 0.0003 and 2.1 × 10–3 are A. 5, 1, 5

B. 4, 4, 2

C. 5, 5, 2

D. 5, 1, 2

12. In the expression for Boyle’s law, the product ‘PV’ has dimensions of A. momentum

B. impulse

C. force

D. energy

13. A screw gauge gives the following reading when used to measure the diameter of a wire.Main scale reading : 0 mmCircular scale reading : 52 divisionsGiven that 1 mm on main scale corresponds to 100 divisions of the circular scale.The diameter of wire from the above data is A. 0.005 cm

B. 0.52 cm

C. 0.026 cm

D. 0.052 cm

Physics-3

14. A student measured the length of a rod and wrote it as 3.50 cm. Which instrument did he use to measure it? A. A screw gauge having 100 divisions in the circular scale and pitch as 1 mm B. A screw gauge having 50 divisions in the circular scale and pitch as 1 mm C. A vernier calliper where the 10 divisions in vernier scale matches with 9 division in main scale and main scale has 10 divisions in 1 cm D. A meter scale 15. A wire of length l = 6 ± 0.06 cm and radius r = 0.5 ± 0.005 cm and mass m = 0.3 ± 0.003 gm. Maximum percentage error in density is A. 1

B. 4

C. 2

D. 6.8

16. Two full turns of the circular scale of a screw gauge cover a distance of 1 mm on its main scale. The total number of divisions on the circular scale is 50. Further, it is found that the screw gauge has a zero error of −0.03 mm. While measuring the diameter of a thin wire, a student notes the main scale reading of 3 mm and the number of circular scale divisions in line with the main scale as 35. The diameter of the wire is A. 3.73 mm B. 3.32 mm C. 3.38 mm D. 3.67 mm 17. The diameter of a cylinder is measured using a Vernier callipers with no zero error. It is found that the zero of the Vernier scale lies between 5.10 cm and 5.15 cm of the main scale. The Vernier scale has 50 divisions equivalent to 2.45 cm. The 24th division of the Vernier scale exactly coincides with one of the main scale divisions. The diameter of the cylinder is A. 5.124 cm

B. 5.136 cm

C. 5.112 cm

D. 5.148 cm

18. The ratio of the dimensions of Planck constant and that of moment of inertia has the dimensions of

| 153

A. frequency

B. velocity

C. 6 hours

C. time

D. angular momentum

19. Which of the following units denotes the dimensions ML2/Q2, where Q denotes the electric charge? A. Weber (Wb)

B. Wb/m^2

C. Henry (H)

D. H/m2

20. A Vernier calipers has 1 mm marks on the main scale. It has 20 equal divisions on the Vernier scale which match with 16 main scale divisions. For this Vernier calipers, the least count is A. 0.1 mm B. 0.2 mm C. 0.05 mm D. 0.02 mm 21. The density of a solid ball is to be determined in an experiment. The diameter of the ball is measured with a screw gauge, whose pitch is 0.5 mm and there are 50 divisions on the circular scale. The reading on the main scale is 2.5 mm and that on the circular scale is 20 divisions. If the measured mass of the ball has a relative error of 2%, the relative percentage error in the density is A. 4.2%

B. 3.1%

C. 2.4%

D. 0.9%

22. If the radius of the earth were to shrink by one percent, its mass remaining the same, the acceleration due to gravity on the earth’s surface would A. increase

B. none of these

C. decrease

D. remains unchanged

D. 12 hours

25. The escape velocity of projection from the earth is approximately (R = 6400 km) A. 112 km/sec

B. 7 km/sec

C. 12.2 km/sec

D. 1.1 km/sec

26. “Heat cannot by itself flow from a body at lower temperature to a body at higher temperature” is a statement or consequence of A. conservation of momentum B. second law of thermodynamics C. conservation of mass D. first law of thermodynamics 27. Kepler’s second law regarding constancy of arial velocity of a planet is a consequence of the law of conservation of A. angular momentum

B. none of these

C. linear momentum

D. energy

28. The period of geostationary artificial satellite is A. 24 hours

B. 6 hours

C. 12 hours

D. 48 hours

29. There is no atmosphere on the moon because A. the escape velocity of gas molecules is less than their root mean square velocity here B. it gets light from the sun C. it is closer ot the earth

23. A thief stole a box with valuable article of weight ‘W’ and jumped down a wall of height h. Before he reach the ground he experienced a load of A. W

B. 2 W

C. zero

D. W / 2

D. it revolves round the earth 30. If the radius of the earth were to shrink by 1% its mass remaining the same, the acceleration due to gravity on the earth’s surface would

24. The period of geostationary artificial satellite of earth is

A. will increase by 9.8%

B. remain unchanged

A. 365 days

C. increase by 2%

D. decrease by 2%

Physics-3

B. 24 hours

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HINTS AND SOLUTIONS

Physics-3

| 156

6. The masses of two planets are in the ratio 1 : 2. Their radii are in the ratio 1 : 2. The acceleration due to gravity on the planets are in the ratio.

PHYSICS-4 Physics 1. When the planet comes nearer the sun moves A. None of these

B. fast

C. constant at every point

D. slow

A. 1 : 2

B. 3 : 5

C. 5 : 3

D. 2 : 1

7. An ideal gas is compressed to half its initial volume by means of several processes. Which of the process results in the maximum work done on the gas? A. Isobaric

B. Adiabatic

2. Geo-stationary satellite

C. Isothermal

D. Isochoric

A. has a time period less than that of the earth’s satellite

C. is stationary in the space

8. If escape velocity from the earth’s surface is 11.2 km/sec. then escape velocity from a planet of mass same as that of earth but radius one fourth as that of earth is

D. moves faster than a near earth satellite

A. 44.8 km/sec

B. 22.4 km/sec

C. 11.2 km/sec

D. 5.65 km/sec

B. revolves about the polar axis

3. A missile is launched with a velocity less than the escape velocity. The sum of its kinetic and potential energy is A. may be positive or negative

B. Positive

C. Negative

D. Zero

9. The period of a satellite in a circular orbit of radius R is T. The period of another satellite in circular orbit of radius 4R is A. T/8

B. 8T

C. 2T

D. T/4

4. A 100 gram vessel of this metal is to be cooled from 20°K to 4°K by a special refrigerator operating at room temperature (27°C). The amount of work required to cool the vessel is

10. A Carnot engine, having an efficiency of η =1/10 as heat engine, is used as a refrigerator. If the work done on the system is 10 J, the amount of energy absorbed from the reservoir at lower temperature is

A. Equal to 0.002 kJ

A. 99 J

B. Less than 0.028 kJ

B. 90 J

C. 100 J

D. 1 J

5. Who among the following first gave the experimental velocity of G?

11. A Carnot engine, whose efficiency is 40%, takes in heat from a source maintained at a temperature of 500K. It is desired to have an engine of efficiency 60%, then the intake temperature for the same exhaust (sink) temperature must be :

A. Copernicus

B. Brook Taylor

A. 750 K

C. none of these

D. Cavendish

B. 1200 K

C. Greater than 0.148 kJ D. Between 0.148 kJ and 0.028 kJ

C. 600 K

Physics-4

| 157

D. efficiency of Carnot engine cannot be made larger than 50% 12. A satellite is revolving around the sun in a circular orbit with uniform velocity v. If the gravitational force suddenly disappears, the velocity of the satellite will be A. infinity

B. 2v

C. v

D. zero

13. The radii of the earth and the moon are in the ratio 10 : 1 while acceleration due to gravity on the earth’s surface and moon’s surface are in the ratio 6 : 1. The ratio of escape velocities from earth’s surface to that of moon surface is A. 7.74 : 1

B. 6 : 1

C. 1.66 : 1

D. 10 : 1

14. Which statement is incorrect? A. All reversible cycles have same efficiency.

A. Compressing the gas through adiabatic process will require more work to be done B. Which of the case (whether compression through isothermal or through adiabatic process) requires more work will depend upon the atomicity of the gas C. Compressing the gas isothermally will require more work to be done D. Compressing the gas isothermally or adiabatically will require the same amount of work 18. The escape velocity from the earth’s surface is 11 km/sec. A certain planet has a radius twice that of the earth but its mean density is the same as that of the earth. The value of the escape velocity from this planet would be A. 5.5 km/sec

B. 16.5 km/sec

C. 11 km/sec

D. 22 km/sec

B. Reversible cycle has more efficiency than an irreversible one.

19. What would be the duration of the year if the distance between the earth and the sun gets doubled?

C. Carnot cycle has the maximum efficiency in all cycles.

A. 365 days

B. 1032 days

C. 129 days

D. 730 days

D. Carnot cycle is a reversible one. 15. A planet has twice the radius but the mean density is 1/4th as compared to earth. What is the radio of the escape velocity from the earth to that from the planet? A. 3 : 1

B. 1 : 1

C. 1 : 2

D. 2 : 1

16. The coefficient of performance of a refrigerator is 5. If the temperature inside freezer is –20°C, the temperature of the surroundings to which it rejects heat is A. 41°C

B. 21°C

C. 11°C

D. 31°C

17. A gas is compressed isothermally to half its initial volume. The same gas is compressed separately through an adiabatic process until its volume is again reduced to half. Then

Physics-4

20. A Carnot engine working between 300 K and 400 K has 800 J of useful work. The amount of heat energy supplied to the engine from the source is A. 2400 J

B. 1200 J

C. 3200 J

D. 3600 J

21. If the earth is 1/4th of its present distance from the sun, the duration of the year would be A. 1/6 of the present year

B. 1/8 of the present year

C. 1/4 of the present year

D. 1/16 of the present year

22. A thin uniform, circular ring is rolling down an inclined plane of inclination 30° without slipping. Its linear acceleration along the inclined plane will be

| 158

A. g/3

B. g/2

C. g/4

D. 2g/3

23. A piece of ice falls from a height h so that it melts completely. Only one-quarter of the heat produced is absorbed by the ice and all energy of ice gets converted into heat during its fall. The value of h is[Latent heat of ice is 3.4 × 10^5 J/kg and g = 10 N/kg] A. 34 km

B. 136 km

C. 68 km

D. 544 km

24. An ideal gas heat engine operates in a Carnot cycle between 227ºC and 127ºC. It absorbs 6 kcal at the higher temperature. The amount of heat (in kcal) converted into work is equal to A. 1.6

B. 1.2

C. 3.5

D. 4.8

25. A current I flows along the length of an infinitely long, straight, thin walled pipe. Then _______ A. the magnetic field is different at different points inside the pipe. B. the magnetic field at any point inside the pipe is zero. C. the magnetic field at all points inside the pipe is the same, but not zero. D. the magnetic field is zero only on the axis of the pipe. 26. Discovery of Hans Oersted was later on used by an/a A. British scientist

B. English scientist

C. French scientist

D. Chinese scientist

27. A commutator changes the direction of current in the coil of A. an AC generator B. a DC motor and a DC generator C. a DC motor D. a DC motor and an AC generator

Physics-4

| 159

SMART ANSWERSHEET

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7

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B

B

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11

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17

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A

12

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24 0%

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23

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13

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0%

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Physics-4

0/27 0/27 44/27

| 160

HINTS AND SOLUTIONS

Physics-4

| 161

A. it is impossible to construct an engine working on a cyclic process, whose sole purpose is to convert heat energy into work

CHEMISTRY 1 Chemistry 1. The gas constant (R) is equal to the __________ of two specific heats.

B. it is impossible to construct a device which operates in a cyclic process and produces no effect other than the transfer of heat from a cold body to a hot body

A. product

B. difference

C. it is possible to construct an engine working on a cyclic process, whose sole purpose is to convert heat energy into work

C. sum

D. ratio

D. none of these

2. The temperature of the system .decreases in an ______.

7. One kg of carbon produces __________ kg of carbon dioxide.

A. isothermal expansion

A. 11/7

B. isothermal compression

C. adiabatic expansion D. adiabatic compression

B. 3/7

C. 11/3

D. 4/11

3. Reheating in a gas turbine

8. According to the kinetic theory of gases, in an ideal gas, between two successive collisions a gas molecule travels

A. decreases the thermal efficiency

A. in a circular path

B. increases the compressor work

B. in a wavy path

C. increases the thermal efficiency

C. in a straight line path

D. increases the turbine work

D. with an accelerated velocity

4. Those substances which have so far not been resolved by any means into other substances of simpler form are called

9. States of matter are

A. molecules

B. compounds

C. atoms

D. elements

A. solid, molten

B. solid, gas

C. solid, vapor

D. solid,liquid,gas

10. A gas deviates from ideal behaviour at a high pressure because its molecules

5. Otto cycle efficiency is higher than Diesel cycle efficiency for the same compression ratio and heat input because in Otto cycle

A. are bound by covalent bonds

B. have kinetic energy

A. combustion is at constant volume

C. show the Tyndall effect

D. attract one another

B. maximum temperature is higher C. expansion and compression are isentropic D. heat rejection is lower 6. According to Kelvin-Planck’s statement of second law of thermodynamics,

Chemistry 1

11. One element may have different crystalline and molecular forms called as A. allomorphs

B. allotropes

C. isotopes

D. allophorms

| 162

12. In order to increase the volume of a gas by 10%, the pressure of the gas should be

20. Pressure which is being exerted by vapor in equilibrium state is known as

A. increased by 10%

B. decreased by 10%

A. vapor pressure

B. endothermic

C. increased by 1%

D. decreased by 1%

C. exothermic

D. equilibrium

13. Mixture of metal or metals with non-metals gives off an

21. Particles of gas are A. All of these

B. randomly arranged

A. allotrope

B. lattice

C. far apart

D. freely moving

C. isotope

D. alloy

14. Metals can be hammered into different shapes and drawn into wires hence they are A. soft

B. strong

C. malleable

D. weaker

22. Carbon atoms are arranged in planar layers in A. graphite

B. diamond

C. mercury

D. tin

23. If we heat a solid, the 15. Melting and boiling points of ionic compounds are

A. forces of attraction will increase B. vibration will increase

A. low

B. mediate

C. constant

D. high

16. Mixture of 70% copper and 30% zinc is an alloy called A. aluminum

B. silver

C. brass

D. gold

17. When movement of water molecules in liquid becomes equal to molecules in vapor form, a state is called

C. liquid changes into gas D. solid changes into gas 24. Ionic bonding is very strong hence it needs a A. high pressure

B. constant temperature

C. high temperatures

D. low temperatures

A. constant

B. equilibrium

25. ‘n’ mole of an ideal gas at temperature T (in Kelvin) occupy “V” litres of volume, exerting a pressure of ‘P’ atmospheres. What is its concentration (in mole.lit)? (R = gas constant)

C. ideal

D. non-ideal

A. P/RT

18. State which have regular arrangement and cannot change its shape is

B. RT/P

C. PT/R

D. R/PT

A. gas

B. liquid

26. 10g each of CH4 and O2 are kept in cylinders of same volume under same temperatures, give the pressure ratio of two gases.

C. All of these

D. solid

A. 3 : 4

19. Change from liquid in to gaseous state is known as A. freezing

B. vaporization

C. condensation

D. sublimation

B. 1 : 4

C. 2 : 1

D. 2 : 3

27. One mole of oxygen at 273 k and one mole of sulphur dioxide at 546 k are taken in two separate containers, then, A. kinetic energy of O2 > kinetic energy of SO2 . B. kinetic energy of O2 < kinetic energy of SO2.

Chemistry 1

| 163

C. kinetic energy of both are equal. D. None of these 28. Ceramics bear properties of A. All of these B. high melting and boiling point C. chemically unreactive D. hard 29. Metallic lattice is surrounded by sea of A. All of these

B. electrons

C. neutrons

D. protons

30. In a flask of ‘V’ litres, 0.2 moles of O2, 0.4 moles of N2, 0.1 moles of NH3 and 0.3 moles of He gases are present at 27°C. If total pressure exerted by these non-reacting gases is 1 atm, the partial pressure exerted by N2 gas is A. 0.3 atm B. 0.1 atm C. 0.4 atm D. 0.2 atm

Chemistry 1

| 164

SMART ANSWERSHEET

Correct Q.

1

Ans.

Correct Q.

Ans.

Skipped

Skipped

69.7 %

42.42 %

B

7

C

C

D

D

21.22 % 78.79 % 26

C 12.12 %

75.76 % 21

C

A

18.18 % A

27.27 % 27

B

9.09 %

18.18 % 16

30.3 % 25

A

3.03 %

69.7 % 10

Skipped

57.58 % 20

87.88 % 15

Ans.

18.19 %

42.43 %

21.21 %

54.55 %

6

C

54.55 % D

B

39.39 % 14

15.15 % 9

19 12.12 %

72.73 % C

9.09 % D

D

24.24 % 8

C

13

Correct Q.

Skipped

87.88 %

5

Ans.

63.64 %

27.27 %

4

Correct Q.

Skipped

51.52 %

3

Ans.

48.48 % 39.4 % 2

Correct Q.

15.15 %

39.39 % 22

A

81.82 % 28

A

18.18 %

6.06 %

54.55 %

9.09 %

6.06 %

90.91 %

69.7 %

45.45 %

84.85 %

57.58 %

D

11

B

17

B

23

B

29

6.06 %

18.18 %

9.1 %

3.03 %

48.48 %

51.52 %

39.39 %

63.64 %

A

12

B

27.28 %

18 30.3 %

D

24 36.37 %

C

12.12 % 27.27 % 30

24.24 %

B

C 30.31 %

Performance Analysis Avg. Score Toppers Score Cut Off Your Score

Chemistry 1

15/30 30/30 44/30

| 165

HINTS AND SOLUTIONS

Chemistry 1

| 166

C. increases the rms velocity by √2 times.

CHEMISTRY 2

D. increases the rms velocity by two times 7. Giant ionic structures is also name given to

Chemistry 1. 138 grams of ethyl alcohol is mixed with 72 grams of water. The ratio of mole fraction of alcohol to water is A. 1 : 1

B. 1 : 4

C. 3 : 4

D. 1 : 2

2. When gas liquefies, molecules lose kinetic energy and experience increase

A. crystal lattice

B. ionic lattice

C. metallic lattice

D. covalent lattice

8. At 400K temperature and 0.0821 Pressure the density of Carbon dioxide is (gm/lit) A. 2.5

B. 4.4

C. 0.01

D. 0.11

A. forces of attraction

B. volume

9. At 100K r.m.s velocity of a gas is 104 cm/sec hence at what temperature r.m.s velocity becomes 3 ×104cm/sec

C. pressure

D. density

A. 900°C

B. 127°C

C. 327°C

D. 627°C

3. Porcelain is made for making crockery which is itself being prepared by

10. State of matter with fixed volume which can be compressed slightly is

A. mud

A. All of these

B. liquid

C. solid

D. gas

B. silicon

C. soil

D. clay

4. 2000 years ago, a statue of 33 meter was built in A. Rhodes (Greece)

B. Spain

C. Rome

D. Persia

11. 7.5 grams of a gas occupy 5.6 litres of volume at STP. The gas is (Atomic weights of C, N and O are 12, 14 and respectively) A. CO2

5. In the equation of state of an ideal gas PV = n RT, the value of the universal gas constant would depend only on A. the units of the measurement

B. N2O

C. NO

D. CO

12. If a gas expands at constant temperature, it indicates that:

B. the pressure of the gas

A. Kinetic energy of molecules remains the same

C. the nature of the gas

B. Kinetic energy of molecules decreases

D. None of these

C. Number of the molecules of gas increases D. Pressure of the gas increases

6. For one mole of an ideal gas, increasing the temperature from 10°C to 20°C ______. A. increases the average kinetic energy by two times.

13. Hydrogen diffuses six times faster than gas A. The molar mass of gas A is: A. 36

B. 96

C. 72

D. 24

B. increases both the average kinetic energy and rms velocity, but not significantly.

Chemistry 2

| 167

14. In two vessels of 1 L each at the same temperature 1 g of H2 and 1 g of CH4 are taken, for these

A. P1 > P2 > P3

B. P1 > P3 > P2

C. P3 > P2 > P1

D. P2 > P3 > P

A. pressure will be same

19. Maximum deviation from ideal gas is expected from

B. total kinetic energy will same C. kinetic energy per/mol will be same D. Vrms values will be same 15. In which one of the following, does the given amount of chlorine exert the least pressure in a vessel of capacity 1 dm3 at 273K? A. 0.0355 g

B. 6.023 × 10^21 molecules

C. 0.071 g

D. 0.02 mole

16. Which one of the following statements is NOT true about the effect of an increase in temperature on the distribution of molecular speeds in a gas? A. The area under the distribution curve remains the same as under the lower temperature B. The distribution becomes broader C. The fraction of the molecules with the most probable speed increases D. The most probable speed increases 17. a' and 'b' are van der Waals' constants for gases. Chlorine is more easily liquefied than ethane because A. a for Cl2 > a for C2H6 but b for Cl2 b for C2H6 B. a and b for Cl2 < a and b for C2H6 C. a for Cl2 > a for C2H6 but b for Cl2 < b for C2H6 D. a and b for Cl2 > a and b for C2H6 18. At 27°C a closed vessel contains equal weight of He, CH4 and SO2 exerts a pressure of 210 mm. and partial pressures of He, CH4 and SO2 are P1, P2 and P3. Which one of the following is correct?

Chemistry 2

A. NH3(g)

B. N2(g)

C. CH4(g)

D. H2(g)

20. At 400 K, the root mean square (rms) speed of a gas X (molecular weight = 40) is equal to the most probable speed of gas Y at 60 K. The molecular weight of the gas Y is A. 10

B. 4

C. 6

D. 8

21. 4 gms of an ideal gas occupies 5.6035 liters of volume at 546K and 2atm pressure. What is its molecular weight? A. 64

B. 16

C. 32

D. 4

22. Equal masses of ethane and hydrogen are mixed in any empty container at 25°C. The fraction of total pressure exerted by hydrogen is A. 1 : 16

B. 1 : 1

C. 15: 16

D. 1: 2

23. A certain mass of a gas occupies a volume of 2 litres at STP. To what temperature the gas must be heated to double its volume, keeping the pressure constant? A. 546°C

B. 273 k

C. 100 k

D. 273°C

24. Remaining amount of copper ores on earth is less than A. 0.13

B. 0.02

C. 0.12

D. 0.01

25. Dalton’s law of partial pressures is applicable to which one of the following systems? A. NH3 + HCl

B. CO + H2

C. H2 + Cl2

D. NO + O2

26. By what ratio the average velocity of the molecule in gas change when the temperature is raised from 50 to 200°C? A. 1.46/1

B. 4/1

C. 1.21/1

D. 1.14/1

| 168

27. The family of elements to which potassium belongs is _________. A. alkaline earth metals B. alkali metals C. halogens

D. noble gases

28. At the end of each period the valence shell is __________. A. incomplete

B. completely filled

C. singly occupied

D. half filled

29. Concept of Triads was introduced by A. Mendeleev

B. Newland

C. Al-Razi

D. Dobereiner

30. Elements in the same vertical group of the periodic table have same A. Atomic mass

B. Number of valence electrons

C. Atomic number

D. Atomic volume

Chemistry 2

| 169

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B

B

C 0%

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D

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12

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29

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D

0%

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0%

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6

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A

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C

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13

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0%

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0%

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Chemistry 2

0/30 0/30 44/30

| 170

HINTS AND SOLUTIONS

Chemistry 2

| 171

D. Boiling point of elements

CHEMISTRY 3

7. Lanthanides and actinides are also called ___________.

Chemistry 1. The family of elements having seven electrons in the outermost shell is ______. A. alkali metals

B. alkaline earth metals

C. noble gases

D. halogens

A. normal elements

B. inner transition elements

C. transition elements D. noble gases 8. Noble gases are named so because they are A. All of these B. Having completely filled valence shell

2. Periodic table provides a basic framework to study elements with respect to their

C. Zero group elements D. less reactive

A. Physical properties B. All of these C. Properties of their compounds D. Chemical properties

9. Which of the following always increases on going from top to bottom in a group? A. Metallic character

B. Oxidizing power

C. Electronegativity

D. Tendency to get reduced

3. The family of elements to which calcium belongs is __________. A. noble gases

B. halogens

10. Best position of hydrogen in the periodic table is above I.A Group which is mainly due to

C. alkaline earth metals D. alkali metals A. Both form ionic compounds 4. Which element was not known when Mendeleev proposed his classification?

B. Both are electropositive

A. Germanium

B. Copper

C. Sodium

D. Hydrogen

D. Similar outer most shell electronic configuration

C. All of these

5. The atoms of same element having same atomic number but different mass number are called

11. Amphoteric exides are those which possess ________ properties A. Acidic and basic

B. Acidic

A. Isomers

B. Isotropes

C. Neutral and acidic

D. Basic

C. Isotopes

D. Isobars

6. Which one of the following is not a periodic property? A. Coordination number of ions

12. The modern periodic table is given by ________ A. Bohr

B. Mendeleev

C. Einstein

D. Mosley

B. Ionization energy of elements C. Melting point of elements

Chemistry 3

13. In which of the following pairs are elements belonging to the same group?

| 172

A. Nitrogen & Phosphorous

B. Magnesium & Aluminium

C. fluorine

C. Boron & Beryllium

D. Gallium & Helium

20. Which of the following cannot exist in solution

14. Ionization energy depends upon A. I.E depends upon all of the above and nature of orbital B. Nuclear charge C. Atomic size D. Shielding effect 15. Higher value of electron affinity means A. Atom will gain electron easily B. Atom will lose electron easily C. Atom may form di-positive ion D. The reason is unknown 16. Which discovery caused a revision in the periodic law as stated by Mendeleev?

A. Na+

D. oxygen

B. H+

C. O-2

D. Cl-

21. An element has configuration 2, 8, 1. It belongs to, _________. A. 17 group and 3rd period

B. 1 group and 3rd period

C. 3 group and 1st period

D. 1 group and 8th period

22. The atomic radii decreases by increasing atomic number in A. Elements from Li to Ne

B. Alkaline earth metal

C. Halogens

D. Alkali metal

A. X-rays by Roentgen

23. The number of electrons in the valence shell is equal to its ________.

B. Location of nucleus by Rutherford

A. period number

B. atomic mass

C. Atomic number by Moseley

C. atomic volume

D. group number

D. Natural radioactivity by Henry Bacquerel. 17. An element having low value of ionization energy and low value of electron affinity is likely to belong to A. Group VIII

B. Group IA

C. Group VIIA

D. Group IB

24. Elements with similar chemical properties appear in the A. Same period

B. p block elements

C. Right upper corner D. Same family 25. In modern periodic table all the leements are arranged in ascending order of

18. Metallic characters of alkali metals

A. Valency

B. Valence electrons

A. No regular trend

B. Decrease down the group

C. Atomic number

D. Atomic mass

C. Remain same

D. Increase down the group

19. The non-metallic element present in the third period other than sulphur and chlorine is _______. A. nitrogen

Chemistry 3

B. phosphorus

26. Many properties of an element and its compounds can be predicted from the position of the element in the periodic table. What property could not be predicted in this way? A. Its number of isotopes

B. The charge on its ions

C. The nature of its oxides

D. The formula of its oxide

| 173

27. The scientist who did not contribute in the construction of periodic table? A. Democritus

B. Dobereiner

C. Al-Razi

D. Moseley

28. Elements belonging to groups 1 to 17 are called __________. A. normal elements

B. noble gases

C. transition elements D. inner transition elements 29. Hydrogen resembles with carbon because of having A. Similar physical state B. Remarkable reducing properties C. Same number of electrons in the valence shell D. Homovalent (show same valency) 30. Which statement is incorrect? A. All the metals are good conductor of heat B. All the metals form positive ions C. All the metals are good conductor of electricity. D. All the metals form acidic oxides

Chemistry 3

| 174

SMART ANSWERSHEET

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1

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7

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B

A

C

B

A 0%

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0% 23

D

0%

0%

0%

0%

0%

0%

0%

12

D

0%

18 0%

D

24 0%

0%

D

0% B 0% 0% 30

0%

A 0%

29

0% A

0% 28

0% B

0% C

0% 22

0% 17

0% 27

0% A

A

0%

0% 11

0% 26

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C

C

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C

0%

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0%

0%

0%

0%

6

A

0% A

B

0% 14

0% 9

19 0%

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0% A

A

0% 8

C

13

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0%

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4

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0%

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3

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Performance Analysis Avg. Score Toppers Score Cut Off Your Score

Chemistry 3

0/30 0/30 44/30

| 175

HINTS AND SOLUTIONS

Chemistry 3

| 176

A. 8

CHEMISTRY 4

B. 7

C. 2

D. 4

9. Which one of the following sets consists of all coinage metals?

Chemistry

A. Cu Ag Au

B. Cu Fe Au

C. Cu Hg Au

D. Ag Au Hg

1. Non-metals usually form ______________ oxides

10. Inner transition elements are called

A. Acidic

B. Amphoteric

A. Rare earth metals

B. All

C. All of these

D. Neutral

C. Lanthanides

D. Actinides

2. Melting points of VII-A group elements down the group

11. A liquid non-metal is ___________. A. mercury

B. nitrogen

A. Remain constant

B. No regular trend

C. bromine

D. phosphorous

C. Increase

D. Decrease 12. Water exist in only

3. Deuterium reacts with oxygen to form A. Hard water

B. Water gas

C. Heavy water

D. Soft water

A. one state

B. two state

C. three states

D. 4 states

4. The first alkali metal is _________.

13. Which of the following pose threat to historical monument Taj ?

A. hydrogen

B. sodium

A. Weathering of marble.

C. francium

D. lithium

B. Air pollutants from Mathura refinery

5. Keeping in view the size of atom which order is correct one? A. C1 > I

B. Ba > Mg

C. Mg > Sr

D. Lu > Ce

6. Among halogens the highest boiling point is of A. Chlorine

B. Bromine

C. Iodine

D. Flrorine

7. A purple coloured solid halogen is ________.

C. Floods in Yanuna river D. Temperature mediated spoilage of marble 14. Ozone layer of stratosphere requires protection from indiscriminate use of A. Atomic explosions and industrial wastes B. Weather balloons. C. Fungicides, insecticides, bactericides and medicines D. Aerosols and high flying jets

A. chlorine

B. astatine

15. .Environmental pollution affects

C. iodine

D. bromine

A. Humans only

8. Modern periodic table has been divided in _______ blocks

Chemistry 4

B. Biotic components C. Both biotic and abiotic components of

| 177

environmint.

A. 4: 1

B. 2: 1

C. 1: 2

D. 3: 1

D. Plants only 16. In the Tertiary Treatment, the effluent (treated wastewater) goes to the __________________ process for further treatment.

23. Whcih of the following is biodegradable pollutant ? A. Aluminium foil.

B. Mercury salts

C. Domestic waste

D. DDT

A. Sanitation Center

B. UV Disinfection

24. Chief source of water and soil pollution is

C. Ultra violet sun

D. Reproduction center

A. Agro-industry

B. Thermal power plant

C. All of these.

D. Mining of ores

17. As it passes into food chain, the concentration of DDT A. Remains same

B. unpredictable

25. Vinegar has a pH reading of 2.2 and is considered a________.

C. decreases

D. increases

A. Weak acid

B. Weak base

C. Strong acid

D. Strong base

18. Hardness which can be removed by boiling is called A. temporary hardness B. toughness C. permanent hardness D. stiffness 19. ____________ are used to kill or control weeds form growing. A. Weed Poison

B. Hydrolysis

C. Photosynthesis

D. Herbicides

26. Water is often treated with chlorine to A. Increase oxygen content B. Remove insoluble impurities. C. Cause sedimentation D. Kill germs 27. Density of water becomes maximum at A. 5°C

20. Which of the following is a mode of controlling pollution in big cities? A. Broder roads and shifting of factories out of the residential areas B. Cleanliness and less use of insecticides C. All the these D. Proper disposal of organic wastes, sewage and industrial effluents 21. Which of the following reacts with haemoglobin of blood and produce toxic effect. A. Carbon dioxide

B. Oxygen

C. Carbon monoxide

D. Carbon suboxide.

22. Ratio of hydrogen (H) and oxygen (O) in water molecule by volume is

Chemistry 4

B. 4°C

C. 12°C

D. 10°C

28. Sewage containing organic waste should not be disposed in water bodies because it causes major water pollution. Fishes in such a polluted water die because of A. Increase in the amount of dissolved oxygen. B. Decrease in the amount of dissolved oxygen in water. C. Clogging of gills by mud. D. Large number of mosquitoes. 29. Temporary hardness can be removed by adding A. lime

B. oxygen

C. slaked lime

D. carbon

| 178

30. Which of the following cause water pollution ? A. Smoke/fly ash

B. Automobile exhausts

C. Aeroplanes

D. Silt and pesticides.

Chemistry 4

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| 180

HINTS AND SOLUTIONS

Chemistry 4

| 181

7. Which of these transport mechanisms requires energy?

CHEMISTRY 5 Chemistry

A. Active Transport

B. Osmosis

C. Diffusion

D. Gas

8. Which of the following statements is correct? 1. Water in swimming pools is purified by adding A. sodium

B. chlorine

C. potassium

D. phosphorus

2. Water pollution is due to A. All of these

B. Industrial effluents

A. Ozone hole is a hole formed in stratosphere from which ozone oozes out. B. Ozone hole is a hole formed in the troposphere from which ozone oozes out. C. Ozone hole is thinning of ozone layer of stratosphere at some places.

C. Sewage and other D. Agricultural discharges wastes

D. Ozone hole means vanishing of ozone layer around the earth completely

3. Fish die in water bodies polluted by sewage due to

9. DDT is

A. Clogging of gills by silt

A. Nondegradable contaminent

B. Biodegradable pollutant

B. Reduction in dissolved oxygen

C. An antibiotic.

D. Air pollutant

C. Foul smell. D. Pathogens

10. In a Sewage Treatment Plant, the final place effluent goes to is the ________.

4. .Domestic waste mostly constitutes

A. River

B. Garbage

C. Drinking water

D. None of these

A. Biodegradable pollution

B. Effluents

C. Non-biosegradable pollution

D. Air pollution.

11. Water which forms scum with soap is called A. distilled water

B. hard water

C. un distilled water

D. soft water

5. Hard water can block radiators due to formation of

12. Photochemical smog is related to pollution if

A. insoluble sodium salts

A. All of these

B. Soil

B. insoluble potassium salts

C. Air

D. Water

C. in soluble phosphate salts D. insoluble calcium and magnesium salts 6. Out of total amount of water available for human use is A. 0.2%

Chemistry 5

B. 0.30%

C. 40%

D. 50%

13. Most hazardous metal pollutant of automobile exhaust is A. Lead.

B. Cadmium

C. Mercur

D. Tin

14. Burning of fossil fuels is the main source of which of the following pollutant?

| 182

A. Nitric oxide

B. Nitrous oxide

C. Nitrogen oxide

D. Sulphur dioxide.

15. Air pollution is not caused by

extended upto 10 km from sea level, this layer is _________. A. Hydrosphere

B. Troposphere

C. Stratosphere

D. Mesosphere

A. Hydroelectric power B. Automobiles. C. Pollen grains

D. Industries

21. The agricultural field that produces maximum methane gas intoatmosphere is

16. Drained sewage has B.O.D.

A. Paddy field

B. Groundnut field.

A. Equal to that of water

B. None of these

C. Wheat field

D. Cotton field

C. Less than that of water

D. More than that of water

22. The presence of which of the following in drinking water is responsible for mottling of teeth

17. Which of the following practices will not come under green chemistry?

A. Iodine

B. Chlorine

C. Mercury

D. Fluorine.

A. If possible, making use of soap made of vegetable oils instead of using synthetic detergents.

23. Which of the following statements is wrong?

B. Using plastic cans for neatly storing substances. C. Using bicycle for travelling small distances instead of using petrol/ diesel based vehicles. D. Using H2O2 for bleaching purpose instead of using chlorine based bleaching agents. 18. The pollutants which come directly in the air from sources are called primary pollutants. Primary pollutants are sometimes converted into secondary pollutants. Which of the following belongs to secondary air pollutants? A. Hydrocarbon

B. Peroxyacetyl nitrate

C. NO

D. CO

19. .Disease caused by eating fish found in water contaminated with industrial waste having mercury is A. Minamata disease

B. Hashimotos disease

C. Osteosclerosis.

D. Brights disease

20. The gaseous envelope around the earth is known as atmosphere. The lowest layer of this is

Chemistry 5

A. Ozone can oxidise sulphur dioxide present in the atmosphere to sulphur trioxide. B. Ozone hole is thinning of ozone layer present in stratosphere. C. Ozone is produced in upper stratosphere by the action of UV rays on oxygen. D. Ozone is not responsible for green house effect. 24. Purified wastewater that is released into rivers or lakes is known as: A. Sewage

B. Septic sludge

C. Effluent

D. Storm runoff

25. Dinitrogen and dioxygen are main constituents of air but these do not react with each other to form oxides of nitrogen because _________. A. the reaction is endothermic and requires very high temperature. B. N2 and O2 are unreactive C. the reaction can be initiated only in presence of a catalyst. D. oxides of nitrogen are unstable.

| 183

26. Natural water is A. pure

B. acts as solute

C. distilled

D. impure

27. U.V. radiation from the sun causes a reaction in the atmosphere that leads to production of A. Fluorides

B. Sulphur dioxide

C. Carbon monoxide

D. Ozone.

28. During thunderstorms, water dissolves A. clouds

B. dust particles

C. nitric acid

D. HCl

29. Which of the following statements is not true about classical smog? A. It contains compounds of reducing nature. B. Produced in cold and humid climate. C. It contains smoke, fog and sulphur dioxide. D. Its main components are produced by the action of sunlight on emissions of automobiles and factories. 30. Photochemical smog consists of excessive amount of X in addition to aldehydes, ketones, PAN etc. X is A. Carbondioxide

B. Carbon monoxide

C. Methane

D. Ozone.

Chemistry 5

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| 185

HINTS AND SOLUTIONS

Chemistry 5

| 186

8. Addition of 2nd electron to a uninegative ion is always

CHEMISTRY 6 Chemistry 1. Which of the following will not form crystalline structure with opporitely charged ions A. Mg2+

B. Ca2+

C. H-

D. H+

2. A factor that affects the ionisation potential of an element is __________..

A. Data is insufficient

B. Endothermic

C. Unpredictable

D. Exothermic

9. Six elements A, B, C, D, E and F have the following atomic numbers (A = 12, B = 17, C = 18, D = 7, E = 9 and F = 11). Among these elements, the element, which belongs to the 3rd period and has the highest ionisation potential, is __________. A. F

B. B

C. A

D. C

10. Which set of elements is listed in order of increasing ionization energy?

A. electron affinity .

B. neutrons

C. electro-negativity

D. atomic size A. Cl < Sb < P < As < S

3. Which one of the following element has highest exidation state in its compounds?

B. Sb < As < S < P < Cl

A. Mn

D. Sb < As < Cl < S < P

B. Cr

C. O

D. Sn

C. As < Cl < P < S < Sb

4. Melting points of VII-A group elements down the group

11. The property which increases upto group IVA then decreases onwards

A. Decrease

A. Atomic radii

B. Remain constant

C. IncreaseRemain consta D. No regular trend 5. Among halogens the highest boiling point is of A. Iodine

B. Chlorine

C. Flrorine

D. Bromine

6. The longest period in the modern periodic table is A. 5th

B. 7th

C. 6th

D. 2nd and 3rd both

7. Which of the p-block elements are not representative elements? A. Group-14 elements B. Group-18 elements (IV-A) (VIII-A) C. Halogens (VII-A)

Chemistry 6

D. Alkali metals (I-A)

B. Atomic volume C. Ionization energy D. Melting & boiling points 12. Oxidation state of an atom represents A. Number of electrons B. Its vacancies lost C. Apparent charge in compound

D. Number of electrons gained

13. True increasing order of acidity of the oxides of Mn is A. Mn2O7 > MnO2 > MnO

B. MnO2 > Mn2O7 > MnO

C. MnO2 > MnO > Mn2O7

D. MnO < MnO2 < Mn2O7

| 187

14. Which of the following factors does not affect the metallic character of an element?

22. Less electronegative elements such as Be Ga A? etc form

A. Electronegativity

B. Atomic radius

A. Ionic halide

B. Covalent halide

C. Ionisation potential

D. Atomic size

C. Polymeric halide

D. All of these

15. Which of the following possesses maximum hydration energy?

23. Which of the following ion is stable in aqueous solution?

A. Na+

A. H-

B. All are stable

C. Cl-

D. H+

B. Mg+2

C. K+

D. Ca+2

16. Iodine is solid due to A. High polarizability

24. Shielding effect across the period

B. Strong covalent bond

A. Can not be predicted B. Increases

C. Large value of dipole moment

C. Decreases

D. Strong hydrogen bonding 17. Seventh period contains ______________ normal elements A. 8

B. 6

C. 4

D. 2

D. Remains constant

25. Keeping in view the size of atom which order is correct one?] A. C1 > I

B. Mg > Sr

C. Lu > Ce

D. Ba > Mg

18. The valency of chlorine with respect to oxygen is __________.

26. As an electrolyte, water is A. a good insulator

B. strong

A. 1

C. weak

D. neutral

B. 7

C. 5

D. 3

19. Halides in which halogen atoms act as a bridge between two atoms of the other element are called A. Polymeric halides B. Covalent halides C. Polymeric hydrides D. Electronegative halides 20. The statement that is not true about electron affinity is1. A. It causes energy to be released B. It is expressed in electron volts C. It involves formation of an anion D. It causes energy to be absorbed

27. Carbonisation of coal consists of A. none of these B. heating the wood with a limited supply of air to temperature not less than 280°C C. moulding the finely ground coal under pressure with or without a binding material D. drying and crushing the coal to a fine powder 28. One kg of carbon requires 4/3 kg of oxygen and produces __________ kg of carbon monoxide gas. A. 11/7

21. The scientist who did not contribute in the construction of periodic table? A. Al-Razi

B. Democritus

C. Dobereiner

D. Moseley

Chemistry 6

B. 11/3

C. 8/3

D. 7/3

29. In which of the following process, a maximum increase in entropy is observed? A. condensation of water

| 188

B. dissolution of salt in water C. melting of ice D. sublimation of naphthalene 30. A series of operations, which takes place in a certain order and restore the initial conditions at the end, is known as A. none of these

B. irreversible cycle

C. reversible cycle

D. thermodynamic cycle

Chemistry 6

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SMART ANSWERSHEET

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Chemistry 6

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| 190

HINTS AND SOLUTIONS

Chemistry 6

| 191

CHEMISTRY 7 Chemistry 1. The value of gas constant (R) in S. I. units is A. 287 J/kgK

B. 0.287 J/kgK

C. 2.87 J/kgK

D. 28.7 J/kgK

A. very low

B. low

C. high

D. very high

7. Kelvin-Planck’s law deals with A. conversion of heat into work B. conversion of work into heat C. conservation of heat D. conservation of work 8. Otto cycle is also known as

2. Stirling and Ericsson cycles are

A. constant temperature cycle

A. irreversible cycles

B. quasi-static cycles

B. constant temperature and pressure cycle

C. reversible cycles

D. semi-reversible cycles

C. constant pressure cycle

3. If one mole of ammonia and one mole of hydrogen chloride are mixed in a closed container to form ammonium chloride gas, then A. there is no relationship B. ΔH > Δu C. ΔH = Δu

D. ΔH < Δu

4. Which of the following is correct? A. Absolute pressure = Gauge pressure Atmospheric pressure B. Absolute pressure = Gauge pressure + Atmospheric pressure C. Gauge pressure = Absolute pressure + Atmospheric pressure D. Atmospheric pressure = Absolute pressure + Gauge pressure 5. The amount of the heat released when 20 ml 0.5 M NaOH is mixed with 100 ml 0.1 M HCl is x kJ. The heat of neutralization is

D. constant volume cycle 9. A cycle consisting of one constant pressure, one constant volume and two isentropic processes is known as A. Otto cycle

B. Stirling cycle

C. Carnot cycle

D. Diesel cycle

10. Glass, furnance lining and abrasive for grinding is done by ceramic which contain A. aluminum oxide

B. All of these

C. magnesium oxide

D. silicon oxide

11. A and B are ideal. The molecular weights of A and B are in the ratio of 1:4. The pressure of a gas mixture containing equal weights of A and B is P atm. What is the partial pressure (in atm) of B in the mixture? A. P/2.5

B. P/5

C. P/2

D. 3P/4

A. +50 x kJ/mol

B. + 100 x kJ/mol

12. Which one of the following element has highest exidation state in its compounds?

C. – 100 x kJ/mol

D. – 50 x kJ/mol

A. Mn

6. The efficiency and work ratio of a simple gas turbine cycle are

Chemistry 7

B. O

C. Cr

D. Sn

13. Which of the p-block elements are not representative elements?

| 192

A. Alkali metals (I-A)

B. Group-18 elements (VIII-A)

C. Halogens (VII-A)

D. Group-14 elements (IV-A)

14. Oxidation state of an atom represents

20. The longest period in the modern periodic table is A. 7th

B. 6th

C. 5th

D. 2nd and 3rd both

A. Number of electrons B. Apparent charge in lost compound

21. Which order of ionization energy is correct A. None of these

B. Mg < A1

C. Number of electrons D. Its vacancies gained

C. Si > P

D. Mg > A1

15. True increasing order of acidity of the oxides of Mn is

22. Halides in which halogen atoms act as a bridge between two atoms of the other element are called

A. MnO2 > MnO > Mn2O7

B. Mn2O7 > MnO2 > MnO

A. Polymeric hydrides B. Electronegative halides

C. MnO < MnO2 < Mn2O7

D. MnO2 > Mn2O7 > MnO

16. Addition of 2nd electron to a uninegative ion is always A. Unpredictable

B. Data is insufficient

C. Endothermic

D. Exothermic

17. The property which increases upto group IVA then decreases onwards A. Ionization energy

C. Polymeric halides D. Covalent halides 23. Shielding effect across the period A. Increases

B. Remains constant

C. Decreases

D. Can not be predicted

24. An element has electronic conviguration 1s2 2s2 2p2. It belongs to A. Group VI-A

B. Group VII-A

C. Group II-A

D. Group IV-A

25. Iodine is solid due to

B. Atomic volume

A. Large value of dipole moment

C. Atomic radii

B. High polarizability

D. Melting & boiling points

C. Strong hydrogen bonding 18. Which set of elements is listed in order of increasing ionization energy?

D. Strong covalent bond 26. Which of the following will not form crystalline structure with opporitely charged ions

A. Cl < Sb < P < As < S B. Sb < As < S < P < Cl C. As < Cl < P < S < Sb

A. H-

B. Ca2+

C. H+

D. Mg2+

D. Sb < As < Cl < S < P 19. Which of the following factors does not affect the metallic character of an element?

27. Seventh period contains ______________ normal elements A. 4

A. Ionisation potential

B. Atomic size

C. Electronegativity

D. Atomic radius

Chemistry 7

B. 8

C. 6

D. 2

| 193

28. Which of the following possesses maximum hydration energy? A. Ca+2

B. Na+

C. K+

D. Mg+2

29. Which of the following ion is stable in aqueous solution? A. H+

B. Cl-

C. H-

D. All are stable

30. Less electronegative elements such as Be Ga A? etc form A. Polymeric halide

B. Covalent halide

C. All of these

D. Ionic halide

Chemistry 7

| 194

SMART ANSWERSHEET

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| 195

HINTS AND SOLUTIONS

Chemistry 7

| 196

Industrial Revolution. What viewpoint is this statement?

CHEMISTRY 8 Chemistry

A. Scientific

B. Political

C. Ecological

D. Recreational

1. Photochemical smog is generally formed

7. In a Sewage Treatment Plant, the second place sewage goes to is ____________.

A. around mid day in summer months

A. Headworks

B. in early hours of winters

C. Secondary Treatment D. Primary Treatment

C. When concentration of particulate matter is very low. D. When intensity of solar radiations is very low 2. Carbon dioxide content in atmosphere is A. 0.0034%

B. 3.4%.

C. 0.034%

D. 0.34%

B. Tertiary Treatment

8. Biochemical Oxygen Demand, (BOD) is a measure of organic material present in water. BOD value less than 5 ppm indicates a water sample to be __________. A. rich in dissolved oxygen. B. highly polluted.

3. Which of the following play significant role in depletion of ozone layer ? A. None of these

B. Oxides of carbon

C. Oxides of nitrogen

D. Oxides of sulphur

4. Which of the following statements about photochemical smog is wrong? A. It has high concentration of oxidising agents. B. It can be controlled by controlling the release of NO2 , hydrocarbons, ozone etc.

C. poor in dissolved oxygen. D. not suitable for aquatic life. 9. Addition of washing soda removes A. hydrogen from water B. temporary hardness of water C. permanent hardness D. softness of water of water 10. The fourth place sewage goes to in a Sewage Treatment Plant is in _______________.

C. It has low concentration of oxidising agent. D. Plantation of some plants like pinus helps in controlling photochemical smog

A. Fourth Clarifiers

B. Secondary Treatment

C. Tetriary Treatment

D. Fourth Treatment

5. Which of the following is major sink for carbon monoxide ? A. animal respiration B. Salts dissolved in ocean water. C. Soil D. Water 6. Carbon dioxide levels have been measured and analyzed. They have been rising since the

Chemistry 8

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Chemistry 8

0/10 0/10 44/10

| 198

HINTS AND SOLUTIONS

Chemistry 8

| 199