Environmental Studies: Multiple Choice Questions 8179935825, 9788179935828

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Environmental Studies: Multiple Choice Questions contains more than 1400 multiple choice questions covering various environment-related topics, such as ecology and environment, biodiversity, natural resources, eco-marketing, environmental finance, air pollution, and water pollution. The first chapter is a comprehensive introduction to environmental studies. The book will prove beneficial for academicians, students pursuing courses on environmental studies, professionals, aspirants of various competitive exams, and stakeholders in the environment sector. It can also be handy for various quiz programmes.

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Arun K Tripathi

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS Arun K Tripathi

Tripathi

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Arun K Tripathi

The Energy and Resources Institute

© The Energy and Resources Institute, 2016

ISBN 978-81-7993-582-8

All rights reserved. No part of this publication may be reproduced, stored in a retrieval system, or transmitted in any form or by any means, electronic, mechanical, photocopying, recording or otherwise, without the prior permission of the publisher. All export rights for this book vest exclusively with The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI). Unauthorized export is a violation of terms of sale and is subject to legal action.

Suggested citation Tripathi, Arun K. 2016. Environmental Studies: Multiple Choice Questions. New Delhi: TERI

Published by Tel. 2468 2100 or 4150 4900 The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI) TERI Press Fax 2468 2144 or 2468 2145 India +91 • Delhi (0) 11 Darbari Seth Block E-mail [email protected] IHC Complex, Lodhi Road New Delhi – 110 003 Web www.teriin.org

Printed in India

Dedicated to my parents, Shiv Narayan and Shakuntala, wife, Awantika, and children Ananya and Awatans

Preface Instead of saying environment is an integral part of our lives, it would be more appropriate to mention that environment is the lifeline and habitat of living organisms. Rapid growth, industrialization, and urbanization are causing the natural environment to degrade day by day. It is often said that if there is development, it will be at the cost of environment. To maintain or improve the environment, development needs to be monitored. A balance needs to be struck between development and environment. Although environment as a subject is taught at the primary level and is included in various streams, it is rarely taught as an exclusive subject at the higher education level. In fact, the concept of environment is meant more for lifelong learning than for studying as a subject. A few universities and engineering institutions have introduced exclusive degree courses on environmental engineering, environmental studies, and environmental management. However, technical books on environment need to be developed and made available in tandem with latest developments. This book attempts to present the subject in a simple and precise manner for students, aspirants of various competitive exams, and even laymen. Keeping in view the present trends of different exams, the major aspects of environment and related issues have been presented in the form of multiple choice questions, which is the most common pattern of examination in every field of study in the science stream. The book includes more than 1100 questions. It is divided into 17 chapters. Chapter 1 discusses the concept of energy, the laws of conservation of energy, and measurement, transformation, and characteristics of energy. In Chapter 2, topics such as atmospheric environment, atmospheric processes, atmospheric chemistry, and hydrology and need for water are explained. Chapter 3 describes ecological footprint, interaction between man and environment, ecological extinction, ecological succession, and ecological sanitation. Chapter 4 analyses economic functions of the environment, environmental economics and ecological economics, economic values, and green economics. Chapter 5 deals with goals and objectives, guiding principles, long-term and short-term impacts, benefits of environmental impact assessment, and process and guiding principles. Chapter 6 examines air pollution, water pollution, land pollution, disaster, and disaster management. Chapter 7 explains air pollution from industries, automobiles, forest fires, outdoor air pollution, particulate air pollution, and air quality index. Chapter 8 deals with pollutants

PREFACE

of water, biomagnification, measurement of water quality, and wastewater treatment. Chapter 9 explains boundaries of an ecosystem, services provided by ecosystem, components of ecosystem, levels of organization in nature, homeostasis, and types of ecosystem. Chapter 10 analyses major types of biodiversity, biodiversity hot spot, extinction of species, keystone species, and evolution and status. Chapter 11 discusses classification of natural resources, water resources, land resources, energy resources, and forest resources. Chapter 12 reviews global warming, climate change, impacts of climate change, reduction in risk of climate change, and international initiatives taken on climate change. Chapter 13 presents the source of waste generation, solid waste management, and hazardous waste. Chapter 14 describes corporate environmentalism, eco-marketing process, and eco-labelling. Chapter 15 introduces socially responsible investment and polluter pays principle. Chapter 16 analyses theories of sustainable development and corporate social responsibility (CSR) and benefits of CSR. Chapter 17 helps readers evaluate their comprehension regarding the subject. Environmental studies related questions figure in various national level competitive examinations, including civil services, besides featuring in question papers for bachelor degree courses on environmental engineering, civil engineering, and other related streams. This book will be useful for students pursuing courses on environmental engineering, environmental studies, and environmental management. It will also be useful for students appearing in various competitive exams in which questions on environment are also asked. In addition, the book will be a quick reference tool for various quiz programmes organized in universities and colleges. Every care has been taken to ensure the correctness of the questions. However, any mistake brought to notice by the readers would be welcome. It is hoped that the book will be well received by students of various colleges and universities, including aspirants of various competitive examinations. The author would be grateful for valuable suggestions for further improvement of the book.

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Acknowledgements Today the format of multiple choice questions is in vogue in all fields and various examinations. This has been the reason for choosing this format for writing a book on environment. To write a book based on multiple choice questions on environmental studies has been a challenging task. It has been a wonderful experience as framing the questions requires a thorough study of the subject itself. In fact, the idea of writing the third book completely on multiple choice questions format came after the publication and success of my two earlier books—Multiple Choice Questions on Renewable Energy and Multiple Choice Questions on Energy. The inspiration to write a book on ‘‘Environmental Studies” came while I was pursuing my MBA on Environmental Management. It took me about two years to write the book from ‘concept’ to ‘reality’. I am grateful to teachers, my mentors, and the rich insights into course material on environmental management which gave me the subject on environment. I am highly indebted to all those who have been helpful, directly or indirectly, in bringing this book to the present shape. I remain grateful to Shri Upendra Tripathy, Secretary, MNRE for his encouragement to write this book. My sincere gratitude to the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE), Government of India, where I have been working for the last three decades. I have always believed that renewable energy helps in mitigating environmental degradation, emission of greenhouse gases, and thus both are interrelated and complementary to each other. The MNRE has provided ample opportunity and also given me rich experience within India and abroad in the field of renewable energy and environment. I am grateful to Anupama Jauhry, Sushmita Ghosh, Sachin Bhardwaj, and Shashi Bhushan of TERI Press for their constant persuasion for completing this book. I am grateful to Mr Pratap Singh for helping me with word processing and offering valuable suggestions. I am thankful to TERI for publishing this book. I am indebted to my father, late Shri S N Tripathi, and mother, Smt. Shakuntala Tripathi, for shaping me to the present position and their constant encouragement. They always dreamt high for me. I am thankful to Awantika, my wife, for her many valuable suggestions and encouragement. Appreciation is also due to the advice I got from my daughter, Ananya, and my son, Awatans. I also thank them for their understanding and patience during the period of writing this book.

Contents Preface vii Acknowledgements ix 1. Environment: The Lifeline and Habitat for Living Organisms 1 2. Fundamentals of Environment 23 3. Ecology and Environment 45 4. Environmental Economics and Regulations 73 5. Environmental Impact Assessment 89 6. Pollution and Disaster Management 105 7. Air Pollution 119 8. Water Pollution 133 9. Ecosystem 145 10. Biodiversity 155 11. Natural Resources 167 12. Climate Change 187 13. Management of Solid and Hazardous Wastes 197 14. Eco-marketing 211 15. Environmental Finance 223 16. Sustainable Development and Corporate Social Responsibility 239 17. General Questions 257 Glossary 291 Bibliography 331 Answers 335 About the Author 345

CHAPTER 1 Environment: The Lifeline and Habitat for Living Organisms

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Introduction The ancient Indian scriptures say that the living organism is made of five basic elements: earth (land), water, fire, air, and ether (Aakash). Similarly, the environment also has five major elements, that is land, water, air, atmosphere, and sunlight. The environment is the sum total of the surroundings of a living organism, including natural resources, and the interrelationships among them and with other organisms and materials. The environment is beyond these elements and also deals with the conditions of these elements which makes the existence of living organisms possible. The living organisms are affected by the environmental conditions around them because their existence is based on the conditions of these elements. We, humans, breathe air, consume water, cultivate food on land, see because of sunlight. All these are essential for our body. Thus, we and other living organisms are completely dependent on the environment and environmental conditions.

Atmosphere Atmosphere is a thin layer of various gases that surround the earth. It extends over 500 kilometres from the surface of the earth. The atmosphere is composed of five different layers based on chemical compositions, temperature changes, density, and movements. These layers are: troposphere, stratosphere, mesosphere, thermosphere, and exosphere. Nitrogen (78.1%) and oxygen (20.9%) constitute 99% of atmosphere. The remaining 1% comprises argon (0.9%), carbon dioxide (0.035%) and others including ozone, hydrogen, radon, helium, neon, krypton, and xenon.

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The atmosphere filters some of the sunlight, that is hazardous radiation including ultraviolet (UV), X-rays, from entering the earth. It maintains mean temperature on earth’s surface (+ 15°C), helps in water cycle and precipitation, stores large amount of nitrogen which is essential for vegetation, acts as a reservoir for carbon dioxide and oxygen, and dissipates and decomposes natural and anthropogenic emissions. Atmosphere is one of the five elements, that is ether; hence, it is an essential element.

Components of environment The environment can be divided into two major parts: biotic and abiotic. Biotic component includes the living things such as plants, animals, human beings, and microorganisms. Abiotic components are the non-living substances of the environment such as air, water, soil, pressure, light, wood, and utensils. All the substances present in the earth are the products of the interaction between biotic and abiotic components. Both components are invariably related to each other, affect each other, and regularly work together. The factors that determine the climate of a region are the quantity and seasonal pattern of the abiotic components of sunlight, water including precipitation and humidity, temperature, wind current, and ocean current. These have significant impact on the biotic components which include the type of species and their population growth. Biotic components can be further classified into mainly three categories: producers, consumers, and decomposers. Producers or green plants produce food by photosynthesis process. The producers are also called photo-autotrophs. Consumers are the organisms that feed on other organisms to obtain their food. Consumers are mainly of four types: herbivores that feed on plants (e.g., rabbit, cows, deer), carnivores that feed on herbivores as secondary carnivores (e.g., frog, small fish) or tertiary carnivores that feed on other consumers (e.g., snake, big fish), omnivores are those organisms that feed on both plants and animals (e.g., humans, rats, birds), and detritivores are those organisms that feed on dead organisms (e.g., earthworm, ants, crabs). Decomposers are the microorganisms like bacteria and fungi that breakdown large complex organic matter into simple organic compounds to get nutrition. These microorganisms are widely used in biotic industry for manufacture of several products and also in waste degradation through decomposition process. 3

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Environment and development Development is a phenomenon created by human beings to fulfil their ever increasing needs that change from time to time to make their life comfortable. The creation of infrastructure, that is houses, hotels, roads, industry, institutions, hospitals, and other related systems and equipment are said to be a sign of development. But the question arises: development at what cost? The costs of such development are of two types: capital cost that includes operation and maintenance cost and environment cost. The environment cost is the damage caused to environment due to cutting of trees, conversion of forest into agricultural land, air pollution, water pollution, generate of waste, land degradation, as a result of creation of these infrastructures. Another major environment cost is that of health degradation caused due to environment degradation. Industrialization is considered a sign of development that helps attain many social objectives, such as employment, gender equality, poverty eradication, labour standards, increased accessibility to education, and health care. However, industrialization has a negative impact on the environment and leads to loss of natural resources, extinction of species, climate change, and air and water pollution. In today’s scenario, the so-called development is bound to occur at the cost of environmental loss. Development and environment are interrelated but

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only inversely. Therefore, the planners and policy makers should maintain a fine balance between development and environment. If a development leads to severe environment degradation, then the former should be restricted to bare minimum.

Environment and people When human beings first appeared on planet earth, they had very little knowledge about the role of environment around them. They lived within the provision of natural resources available on the earth and natural surroundings in the atmosphere. Their activities were within the framework of available natural resources. So, there was an equilibrium between their need and exploitation of natural resources. Nature itself was able to replenish the exploited environment and natural resources. The environment was not disturbed and problems, such as pollution did not arise.

Population growth and environment Population growth and urbanization have placed greater pressure on natural resources. For habitat and infrastructure development such as roads, highways, industry, tourist facilities, educational complexes, more and more land is being acquired. These demands of converting forests, fertile land, agricultural land, etc., further degrades the environment. Population growth increases water scarcity, reduces per capita availability of water, and has adverse effects on sanitation. As population grows more food is required to feed. However, on the contrary, cultivable land is converted for other infrastructure purposes. Forest resources are also affected so as to meet the demands of human beings. As a result, protection of reserve forests and national parks becomes necessary. Energy resources are also overexploited giving rise to pollution. Shortage of housing and buildings pose a problem for ensuring proper habitat for human beings. The overall environment is affected because of population growth. India, especially, is facing such a problem.

Environmental challenges The first Earth Day was celebrated in 1970 when the humans realized the challenges posed on the environment. The challenges and environmental problems today remain the same but have increased manifolds. In spite of efforts of environmental engineers, scientists, enlightened legislators and aware public, the challenges are ever increasing. The mankind is making progress in terms of energy consumption, transport facilities, industrial

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ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

development, infrastructure development, but somewhere also paying the cost in terms of degradation of environment. Worldwide cities continue to be affected by smog, beaches periodically polluted by oil spills, and rivers and lakes affected of poorly treated sewage and industrial effluents. The environmental challenges are new, invisible and involve these pollutants. The radon present in homes, CO2 that lead to climate change, chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) that attack the earth’s ozone layer and the carcinogens and latchet that are contaminating the groundwater are all invisible but ever present. These invisible problems can be resolved with the help of scientific measurements and computer models. For this it is necessary to convince the public and the decision makers and policy makers about the importance of investing in cleaning up and avoiding the problems; the task is however very difficult. The new environmental problems have larger response time as we become accustomed to them. If suddenly sewage is stopped being dumped into rivers or cars are not driven in cities anymore, then in a few days the rivers will become clean by itself and smog would disappear. However, cleaning up an aquifer contaminated with toxic chemicals will take years. CFCs emitted today will be around for decades. CO2 emitted from power plants will be present in the atmosphere for centuries and radioactive wastes will pose a problem for thousands of years.

Environment and human health Environment has a direct effect on the health of humans. Any change in climate has a positive or negative affect on the health of a human being. Environment not only affects the health of a human being but also his or her nature and behaviour. For example when the weather is hot, a person will be irritable and not happy. If it is very cold, again the person will feel comfortable. Lack of artificial air conditioners seems to have adverse effects on the health of humans. Excessive rains can cause floods that can lead to health problems because of water contamination and waterborne diseases. In the case of no rain, drought takes place affecting agriculture. During pollination respiratory problems affect susceptible people. World Health Organization defines environmental health as comprising those aspects of human health that are determined by physical, chemical, biological, social, and psychological factors in the environment. Environmental health refers to the theory and practice of assessing, correcting, controlling, and preventing those factors in the environment that can potentially affect the health of present and future generations. Human health is affected by 6

CHAPTER 1 ENVIRONMENT: THE LIFELINE AND HABITAT FOR LIVING ORGANISMS

a wide range of environmental factors, that is water and sewage pollution, indoor and outdoor air pollution, noise pollution, nuclear contamination, electronic fields, contamination caused by hazardous substances, etc.

Sustainable development goals The United Nations General Assembly in the presence of 193 countries including India accepted 17 sustainable development goals (SDGs) and 169 associated targets to be achieved by 2030. The document “Transforming our World: The 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development” highlights poverty eradication as the overarching goal of SDGs and the integration of the economic, social and environmental dimensions of sustainable development. The 17 SDGs are: (i) no poverty, (ii) zero hunger, (iii) good health and well-being, (iv) quality education, (v) gender equality, (vi) clean water and sanitation, (vii) affordable and clean energy, (viii) decent work and economic growth, (ix) industry, innovation and infrastructure, (x) reduced inequalities, (xi) sustainable cities and communities, (xii) responsible consumption and production, (xiii) climate action, (xiv) life below water, (xv) life on land, (xvi) peace and justice and strong institutions, and (xvii) partnerships for the goals. At the opening ceremony of the summit, the UN Secretary General Ban Ki-Moon said, “It is an agenda for shared prosperity, peace and partnership that conveys the urgency of climate action and is rated in gender equality and respect for the right of all …” The SDGs aim at taking the global development initiatives forward from the Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) which were adopted in 2000 by the UN Assembly. Since all SDGs are cross-cutting in nature, in India NITI Aayog has been given the task of coordinating the achievements of these targets with the concerned ministries and departments. Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change is the nodal ministry which deals with SDGs in India.

Climate change Climate is the long-term pattern of weather conditions for a given area. Global climate is influenced by flow of solar energy, rotation of the earth, currents in ocean, condition of the atmosphere, etc. Till middle of the 20th century, the earth’s climate was generally regarded as stable and unchanging. Now, however, it is a topic of discussion globally as the global climate is changing. Scientists believe that the extreme changes in the weather events such as floods, cyclones, and drought are happening due 7

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

to climate change. Worldwide the effect of climate change is evident from various reports published by the concerned agencies. Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) in its Fifth Assessment Report released in 2014 clearly shows that climate change caused by human activities is the biggest environmental challenge faced by the world. India is especially vulnerable to climate change and its impact. Eight of the ten warmest years ever were recorded during 2001−10. Apart from sea level rise, melt down of Himalayan glaciers is another affect seen in India. Climate change has already affected our monsoon pattern and since 1951, instances of very heavy rains have gone up every year and moderate rains are going down.

Global warming Normally CO2 and other greenhouse gases or GHGs (CH4, O3, NO2, fluorinated gases) that surround the earth allow radiation from the sun to reach the earth but prevent some of the heat being reflected back. These GHGs help in keeping the earth warm; otherwise the earth would be much colder and largely covered in ice. When the amount of GHGs around the planet increases, the temperature increases making the earth warmer. This phenomenon results in global warming and this effect is called greenhouse effect. Global warming is a gradual increase in the average temperature of the earth’s atmosphere and its oceans, a change that is believed to be permanently changing the earth’s climate. Climate scientists looking at the data and facts agree that the planet earth is warming and the average temperature of the earth has risen between 0.4°C and 0.8°C over the past 100 years. The increased volumes of CO2 and other GHGs released by the burning of fossil fuels, land clearing, agriculture, and other human activities are believed to be the primary sources of global warming.

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Environment protection through green buildings Buildings have proven to be a lifeline. Buildings are used for living, working, education, hospitals, offices, etc. Buildings consume over 40% of electricity in any economy and, particularly, in India. A person visits five to six buildings per day for various requirements but fails to observe the energy consumption in any building. The energy consumed by a building is directly related to environment degradation such as pollution, exploitation of natural resources, transportation, deforestation, and other human activities. What is the solution? Green building is the answer. It has a few special features: designed using solar passive architecture principles that maximize the light and inhibit the entry of heat content of the sunrays, uses green certified building materials that consume less energy during manufacturing, maximum water conservation in the building through water recycling and water efficient taps with sensors, uses energy efficient HVAC, fans, lighting systems and electrical gadgets along with energy efficient fixtures, install renewable energy power plants for making its own electricity, uses solar water heaters for hot water supply, solar rooftops etc., and finally discharges minimum or zero waste out of building. A green building is considered complete only if the occupants adopt a green living pattern. Green living includes conserving and saving electricity and water, using less paper or a paperless system, releasing minimum or no wastes, using renewable energy to the extent possible, using public transport, and minimizing the use of cars, etc. Worldwide, many countries have developed green building rating systems. A few of the rating systems are GRIHA developed in India, LEED ratings of the USA, CASBEE of Japan, MINERGIE of Switzerland. A green building is claimed to save about 40% energy as compared to a conventional building.

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ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Environment protection through renewable energy Natural resources that can be replenished in a short period and regularly are termed as renewable resources. Example of renewable resources include sun, water, wind, biomass, geothermal tidal, etc. The energy exploited from these resources is called renewable energy. The renewable energy is environment friendly, non-polluting and has no adverse effects on the environment. Electricity produced from renewable resources is clean and green and does not harm the environment.

Ozone layer and its protection Ozone, a tri-atomic molecule, consists of three oxygen atoms. It is naturally found in the upper level of the earth’s atmosphere and filters high-energy UV radiation from reaching the surface. The UV radiation breaks down oxygen molecule and releases free atoms. Some of these free atoms bond with other oxygen molecules to form ozone. About 90% of ozone formed in this way lies between 10 and 50 kilometres above the earth’s surface and is called the stratosphere. The ozone found in this part of the atmosphere is called the ozone layer. The Vienna Convention for the Protection of the Ozone Layer and its Montreal Protocol (signed on 16 September 1987) on ‘Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer’ are the international treaties specific for the protection of the Stratospheric Ozone (ozone layer). It has been universally ratified and all the 197 United Nations’ member countries are parties to the Vienna Convention and its Montreal Protocol. In the last 29 years of operation of the Montreal Protocol, extraordinary international cooperation under this agreement has led to phase-out of production and consumption of several major ozone depleting substances (ODSs) such as CFCs, carbon tetrachloride (CTC) and halons globally from 1 January 2010. The production and consumption of methyl chloroform has been phased out globally as on 1 January 2015, with possible essential use exemptions. The production and consumption of methyl bromide has been phased out globally as on 1 January 2015, except use in quarantine and preshipment applications. Global systematic atmospheric levels of key ODSs are declining and it is estimated that with continued, full implementation of the Montreal Protocol’s Provisions, the global ozone layer should return to pre1980 levels by around the middle of this century and the Ataractic Ozone around 15 years later. The Montreal Protocol has also delivered substantial climate benefits.

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The Protocol is currently addressing the phase-out of hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs) with an accelerated phase-out schedule.

Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change started functioning from 1985 onwards. The mandate of this ministry is to ensure better environment management and preservation of biodiversity including wildlife; thereby providing a thrust to Swacch Bharat Abhiyan. The ministry plans, promotes, coordinates, and oversees environmental, ecological, forestry and wildlife programmes. Its main activities, include protection of the environment; conservation of existing forests, wildlife, aquatic bodies and water resources, biodiversity and other resources particularly in eco-sensitive areas; adaptation to and mitigation from climate change, and survey of various areas for identification of new species of flora and fauna; afforestation and regeneration of degraded areas; prevention and control of pollution (air, water, noise, and industrial pollution); management of hazardous substances and better environmental governance; ensuring

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ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

welfare of animals; capacity building, training and research in classical and molecular taxonomy; and international cooperation in forestry and environment. The tasks are being fulfilled through Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA), eco-regeneration, assistance to organizations implementing environmental and forestry research, extension, education and training to augment the requisite manpower, collection and dissemination of environmental information, and creation of awareness at the national level. It is the nodal ministry for United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), International Centre for Integrated Mountain Development (ICIMOD) and Multilateral Environmental Agreements (MEAs). The ministry also coordinates with multilateral bodies such as the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD), the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), and Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD). It is also the focal point of the Global Environment facility (GEF) and regional Asia and Pacific (ESCAP) and South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) on matters pertaining to environment. The broad objectives of the ministry are as follows: • Conservation and survey of flora, fauna including forests and wildlife. • Prevention and control of pollution. • Afforestation and regeneration of degraded areas. • Protection of environment. • Welfare of animals. These objectives are well supported by a set of legislative and regulatory measures, aimed at preservation, conservation, and protection of the environment. Besides the legislative measures, National Conservation Strategy and Policy Statement on Environment and Development 1992, National Forest Policy 1988, Policy Statement on Abatement of Pollution 1992, and National Environment Policy 2006, also guide the ministry’s work. The ministry is responsible for the following: (i) Environment and ecology, including environment in coastal waters, in mangroves, and coral reefs but excluding marine environment on the high seas. (ii) Environment research and development, education, training, information and awareness. (iii) Environmental health. 12

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(iv) Environmental impact assessment. (v) Forest Development Agency and Joint Forest Management and Afforestation. (vi) Survey and exploration of natural resources particularly of forest, flora, fauna, ecosystems, etc. (vii) Biodiversity conservation, including that of lakes and wetlands. (viii) Conservation, development, management and abatement of pollution of rivers which shall include National River Conservation Directorate (excluding the River Ganga and its tributaries). (ix) Wildlife conservation, preservation, protection planning, research, education, training and awareness including Project Tiger and Project Elephant.

Conclusion A good environment is essential for our life. Human activities have contributed in rapid degradation of environment. The unusual rains, storms, typhoons, cyclones, rising temperature, drought, melting of glaciers, water scarcity etc., are the few effects of climate change which the world is observing. If we do not take corrective measures today, it will be too late and beyond our control to protect the environment tomorrow. To address various aspects of environment, its effect in our daily life and its protection have been presented in this book.

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ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

EXERCISES 1.

The headquarters of the International Whaling Commission is in (a) New York (b) Kyoto (c) Perth (d) Cambridge

2.

Increased defoliation in plants is caused by (a) ozone depletion (b) acid rains (c) global warming (d) ground pollution

3.

The Himalayan Ibex is a type of (a) goat (b) deer (c) ass (d) cattle

4.

For providing environmental information to decision-makers, policyplanners, scientists, engineers, and research workers all over the country, Environment Information System (ENVIS) was established in (a) 1979 (b) 1980 (c) 1981 (d) 1982

5.

Which of the following missions is not listed under National Action Plan on Climate Change? (a) National Mission on Sustainable Development (b) National Mission on Enhanced Energy Efficiency (c) National Mission on Sustainable Himalayan Ecosystem (d) National Mission on Strategic Knowledge for Climate Change

6.

The Conference of the Parties (COP) that was held in India is (a) COP 12 (b) COP 13 (c) COP 14 (d) COP 15 14

CHAPTER 1 ENVIRONMENT: THE LIFELINE AND HABITAT FOR LIVING ORGANISMS

7.

Who is the author of Hotspots Revisited? (a) Walter Rosen (b) Norman Myers (c) Russell Mittermeier (d) Rachel Carson

8.

The State Bird of Uttarakhand is (a) Monal (b) Indian Bustard (c) Indian Roller (d) Sarus crane

9.

Which year was declared by the UN as the International Year of Forests? (a) 2011 (b) 2010 (c) 2009 (d) 2008

10.

The National Biodiversity Authority is located in (a) Thiruvananthapuram (b) Chennai (c) Imphal (d) Shimla

11.

The greenhouse gas with high-heat trapping capability is (a) carbon dioxide (b) nitrous oxide (c) sulphur hexafluoride (d) methane

12. Consider the following statements and state which one is correct? (I) Ocean acidification due to global warming activates coral growth. (II) Global warming may result in increased agricultural yield in certain parts of the earth. (a) Only I (b) Only II (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II 15

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

13.

The primordial earth’s atmosphere was (a) reducing (b) free with oxygen (c) cooler (d) All of the above

14.

The number of biosphere reserves in India, recognized as a part of world network of biospheres, is (a) four (b) five (c) six (d) seven

15.

Growing rice results in the release of ______ into the atmosphere. (a) methane (b) nitrous oxide (c) ozone (d) hydrofluorocarbons

16.

What is the difference between a threatened species and an endangered species? (a) A threatened species means that the population is likely to become endangered whereas an endangered species has population number so low that it is likely to become extinct. (b) A threatened species is already extinct whereas an endangered species means that the population number has increased greatly over the last five years. (c) A threatened species means that the population is likely to become endangered whereas an endangered species is already extinct. (d) A threatened species and an endangered species are both the same.

17.

The edge species (a) decrease biodiversity (b) only exist in areas that have been altered by humans (c) require the unique homogenous edge environment (d) may require conditions found in both of the bordering ecosystems

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18.

Which one of the following is a native species of India? (a) Two-horned rhinoceros (b) Rhesus monkey (c) Komodo dragon (d) None of the above

19.

Which book written by Rachel Carson resulted in the ban on DDT use in the USA? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Silent Spring The Environmentalism Biomagnification Food Chain

20. Which of the following competitions is severe? (a) Intraspecific (b) Interspecific (c) Extraspecific (d) None of the above 21.

The Water (Prevention and Control) Pollution Act came into force in (a) 1972 (b) 1974 (c) 1977 (d) 1981

22. The United Nations Conference on the Human Environment was held at _______ from 5–16 June 1972. (a) Stockholm, Sweden (b) Tbilisi, Soviet Union (c) Rio de Janeiro, Brazil (d) Kyoto, Japan 23. Man and the Biosphere (MAB) Programme is affiliated to (a) UNESCO (b) IUCN (c) WWF (d) WIPO

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ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

24. What does “system” imply in the term ”ecosystem”? (a) Environment (b) Interdependent complex (c) Systems approach (d) Ecological systems 25. The term “ecology” was defined for the first time in 1970 by (a) Haeckel (b) St Hilaire (c) Jackson Mivart (d) H. Reiter 26. The Vienna Convention, a multilateral environment agreement, is related to (a) international trade in endangered species (b) protection of ozone layer (c) biodiversity conservation (d) preservation of cultural environment 27.

Which of the following gases plays an important role in maintaining atmospheric temperature? (a) Nitrogen (b) Oxygen (c) Argon (d) Carbon dioxide

28. The world’s biggest GHG emitter is (a) China (b) USA (c) India (d) South Africa 29.

The outermost zone of a biosphere reserve is (a) manipulation zone (b) core zone (c) buffer zone (d) None of these

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CHAPTER 1 ENVIRONMENT: THE LIFELINE AND HABITAT FOR LIVING ORGANISMS

30. Identify the correct match of a tiger reserve and the state in which it is located. (a) Corbett—Madhya Pradesh (b) Darra—Rajasthan (c) Perambakulam—Karnataka (d) Bandipur—Tamil Nadu 31.

The main source of water pollution is (a) (b) (c) (d)

sewage water rainwater atmospheric pollutants well water

32. Which gas is mainly responsible for greenhouse effect? (a) CO2 (b) O2 (c) H2 (d) Water vapours 33. Cutting of trees in a forest is called (a) reforestation (b) afforestation (c) deforestation (d) None of the above 34. At (a) (b) (c) (d)

what intensity is sound regarded as safe noise level for a city? 80 dB 45 dB 120 dB 60 dB

35. Which of the following diseases is not caused by water pollution? (a) Typhoid (b) Dysentery (c) Malaria (d) Jaundice

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ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

36. The Earth Day is observed on (a) 16 February (b) 4 April (c) 22 April (d) 17 September 37.

Which state has the highest percentage of forests? (a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Mizoram (c) Assam (d) Uttar Pradesh

38. The Project Tiger was introduced in (a) 1973 (b) 1984 (c) 1995 (d) 2001 39.

The World Wildlife Fund was founded in (a) 1961 (b) 1965 (c) 1969 (d) 1992

40. The World Environment Day is observed on (a) 31 January (b) 5 June (c) 25 August (d) 31 October 41.

The branch of biology concerned with the interrelationship between plants and animals is called (a) physiology (b) ecology (c) anatomy (d) morphology

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CHAPTER 1 ENVIRONMENT: THE LIFELINE AND HABITAT FOR LIVING ORGANISMS

42. The largest unit of living organisms on earth is (a) ecosystem (b) biome (c) biosphere (d) population 43. The two components of an ecosystem are (a) plants and animals (b) biotic and abiotic (c) plants and light (d) weeds and microorganisms 44. The green plants are called (a) producers (b) consumers (c) decomposers (d) None of the above 15.

The total organic matter present in an ecosystem is called (a) biome (b) biomass (c) biotic community (d) litter

46. Plants are killed at low temperature because (a) desiccation takes place owing to the withdrawal of water from vacuolated protoplasm (b) precipitation of cell proteins takes place (c) cells rupture due to the mechanical pressure of ice (d) All of the above 47.

Which one of the following chemicals is responsible for the reduction of ozone content of the atmosphere? (a) SO2 (b) Chlorofluorocarbon (c) HCl (d) Photochemical smog

21

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

48. Acid rains occur when atmosphere is heavily polluted with (a) CO and CO2 (b) smoke particles (c) ozone (d) SO2 and NO2 49.

Spraying DDT on crops causes pollution of (a) soil and water (b) air and soil (c) crops and air (d) air and water

50. Soil erosion can be prevented by (a) increasing bird population (b) afforestation (c) removal of vegetation (d) overgrazing

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CHAPTER 2 Fundamentals of Environment

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Introduction Environment is the sum total of all surroundings of a living organism, including natural forces and other living things. It includes land, air, water, sun, and the interrelationships among them and with human beings, other living organisms and materials. The environment provides conditions for development and growth as well as for danger and damage. Environment also deals with the relationship existing between sun and earth, earth’s radiation budget, greenhouse effect, and regional climate that exist on earth. Environment and its components: atmospheric environment, atmospheric process, hydrosphere, groundwater hydrology, oceanography, lithosphere, pedosphere, bio-geological cycles, biosphere, and ecosystems are a few fields and topics related to fundamentals of environment. Various factors that determine the climate of a region are the amounts and seasonal patterns of abiotic components such as radiant energy (sunlight), water which includes precipitation and humidity, temperature, wind, and ocean current. These abiotic components have a significant impact on the biotic elements of the ecosystems including the type of species present and population growth. Differential factors play a role in determining the occurrence of specific biomes at particular locations. Moisture and temperature are the two key parameters that determine the ecosystem productivity. Different types of biomes are tropical rainforests, temperate evergreen forests, temperate deciduous forests, temperate grasslands, and deserts.

Atmospheric environment The atmosphere is a thin layer of various gases that surrounds the earth and extends over 550 kilometres from its surface. The atmosphere has five layers, that is troposphere, stratosphere, mesosphere, thermosphere, and exosphere. The troposphere, being the lowest layer, begins at the earth’s surface and has an extent of 8 to 14.5 kilometres. It maintains the earth’s temperature and helps life to survive. The stratosphere is the second layer and starts just above the troposphere. It has an extent of 50 kilometres. The mesosphere is the next higher layer above the stratosphere and reaches upto 85 kilometres. The thermosphere extends from the mesosphere and reaches upto 600 kilometres. The outermost layer of the earth’s atmosphere is the exosphere. It begins at an altitude of about 500 kilometres and reaches upto 10,000 kilometres. Oxygen and nitrogen are the major components of air. Water is also available in the form of solid, liquid, and gaseous states. Atmosphere 24

CHAPTER 2 FUNDAMENTALS OF ENVIRONMENT

protects the life of all creatures against hazardous radiations, which includes ultraviolet (UV) and X-rays from the sun. Atmosphere also helps in transfer of energy and forms a part of different vital cycles of matter. It stores large amounts of nitrogen, an important element for plants. It also acts as a reservoir of carbon dioxide (CO2) and oxygen (O2).

Atmospheric process A number of physical and chemical phenomena occur in the atmosphere, which regulate temperature, pressure, and precipitation. Aerosols and gases present in the atmosphere scatter, absorb or reflect the incoming solar radiation and help in maintaining temperature of the earth. Atmospheric pressure plays a very important role in mixing of gases and dispersion of pollutants. Atmospheric pressure coupled with atmospheric circulation determines precipitation. Atmospheric stability determines the turbulence of the atmosphere which in turn has a crucial role in the effective dispersion of air pollutants.

Atmospheric chemistry There is a relationship between rise in fossil fuel use, atmospheric concentration of CO2, and global temperature. Ozone in stratosphere protects life on earth from the sun’s UV radiation. Photochemical smog is the most dangerous effect of pollution on atmosphere. The major contributors to acid rain are the common air pollutants, that is sulphur dioxide (SO2), nitrogen oxides (NOx), nitric oxide (NO), and nitrogen dioxide (NO2). Suspended particulate matter (SPM) is the solid or liquid particles or combination of both that remains suspended in the atmosphere.

Hydrology and need for water Human life and biological sustainability depend upon the availability of water. Since historical times, human settlements have grown around waterbodies and the transportation service has been derived by humans from water systems. Rivers have been harnessed for exploring, colonizing, and settling new areas, as well as for transporting goods and communication. The demand for water is increasing day by day due to increasing population and agriculture. Hence, proper and strategic water management and its use is very crucial.

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ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Conclusion Groundwater hydrology and oceanography are the areas which form the fundamental studies of environment, besides lithosphere, pedosphere, bio-geological cycles, and biosphere. In addition, ecosystem services, relation of environment with people, and human impact on environment are also very important components of environment. The questions presented in this chapter are based on these areas of environment and will lay the foundation of the understanding the environment as a whole and will help in understanding further chapters.

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CHAPTER 2 FUNDAMENTALS OF ENVIRONMENT

EXERCISES 1.

The biotic components of the earth are (a) non-living substances of the environment (b) living things that constitute the environment (c) metals and water (d) None of the above

2.

The abiotic components are (a) non-living substances of the environment (b) air, water, and soil (c) living things that constitute the environment (d) Both (a) and (b)

3.

The sum total of land in and water and the interrelationship existing among them and with human beings, other living organisms and materials is known as (a) atmosphere (b) ecosystem (c) environment (d) lithosphere

4.

Temperature, sunlight, and soil are (a) biotic components (b) abiotic components (c) non-essential components of earth (d) not necessary for life

5.

Biotic components are classified into (a) producers (b) consumers (c) decomposers (d) All of the above

6.

The organisms that feed on plants are called (a) omnivores (b) herbivores (c) carnivores (d) detritivores

27

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

7.

Detritivores are the organisms that feed on (a) plants only (b) both plants and animals (c) dead organisms (d) animals only

8.

Autotrophs are also called (a) consumers (b) producers (c) decomposers (d) detritivores

9.

Which of the following takes part in scavenging and cleansing role of the environment? (a) Solar radiation (b) Soil texture (c) Carbon (d) Vulture

10.

Which of the following are the examples of herbivores? (a) Frogs, snakes, and fishes (b) Worms, ants, and crabs (c) Rabbits, deer, and goats (d) Rats

11.

The plants are also called (a) heterotrophs (b) autotrophs (c) decomposers (d) consumers

12. _________ % of earth is covered by water. (a) 30 (b) 71 (c) 90 (d) 50

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CHAPTER 2 FUNDAMENTALS OF ENVIRONMENT

13.

A concept that helps to understand the amount of heat energy that enters the earth through sunrays and the energy that is radiated back into the atmosphere as invisible light is known as (a) earth’s atmosphere (b) energy balance of earth (c) earth’s radiation budget (d) earth’s phenomenon

14.

When earth radiates more energy than it receives from the sun, it becomes (a) hot (b) cool (c) no change in temperature (d) wind blows

15.

A thin layer of gases surrounds the earth which is held by gravity and consists mainly nitrogen and oxygen with percentage of earth as (a) 50:50 (b) 42:58 (c) 78:21 (d) 03:97

16.

The earth’s atmosphere system absorbs (a) short-wave radiations (b) infrared radiations (c) long-wave radiations (d) medium-wave radiations

17.

Which of the following is a non-greenhouse gas (GHG)? (a) Methane (b) Ozone (c) Nitrogen (d) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)

18.

_________ is an important and abundant gas in atmosphere that fertilizes crops. (a) Sulphur (b) Ozone (c) Chlorine (d) Nitrogen 29

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

19.

Corporates and government agencies today are looking to reduce emissions of (a) carbon (b) hydrogen (c) ozone (d) None of the above

20. Climate and weather in earth are due to changes that occur in _________ layer of atmosphere. (a) stratosphere (b) troposphere (c) biosphere (d) None of the above 21.

Which of the following two chemicals are associated with ozone depletion discharged from halons? (a) CFCs and bromine (b) SO2 and SO4 (c) CO2 and SO4 (d) CH4 and bromine

22. In order to prevent ozone depletion, _________ is/are phased out from jet airplanes. (a) CFCs and bromine (b) carbon dioxide (c) nitrous oxide (d) methane 23. Aerosols induce a _________ effect. (a) cooling (b) heating (c) humidity enhancement (d) raining 24. The process through which heat energy is transferred without the involvement of a physical substance in the transmission is (a) convection (b) radiation (c) scattering (d) None of the above 30

CHAPTER 2 FUNDAMENTALS OF ENVIRONMENT

25. Temperature increases with altitude in stratosphere due to (a) low pressure area (b) high pressure area (c) heat convection (d) solar radiation 26. Tropical cyclones occur mainly due to (a) low pressure area (b) high pressure area (c) atmospheric pressure (d) None of the above 27.

_________ and _________ are two important factors that mainly influence the humidity in atmosphere. (a) Evaporation, solidification (b) Evaporation, condensation (c) Liquefaction, gasification (d) Gasification, condensation

28. A mass of water vapour that can be held in a kilogram of dry air at saturation is known as (a) mixing ratio (b) evaporation and condensation ratio (c) saturation mix ratio (d) air saturation 29.

Which of the following gas is mainly emitted from paddy fields and is also a GHG? (a) NO2 (b) CO (c) CO2 (d) CH4

30. Ozone in troposphere protects human health by filtering (a) solar insolation (b) gamma rays (c) ultraviolet (UV) radiation (d) heat convection

31

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

31.

Particulate matter of _________ sizes has a short residence time in the atmosphere. (a) smaller (b) greater (c) medium (d) micron

32. The major precursors of acid rain are (a) CO2 and NO2 (b) CO and CO2 (c) SO2 and NO2 (d) SO4 and CH4 33. Which of the following are the major carbon fractions in the particulate matter responsible for numerous health disorders? (a) Organic carbon and elemental carbon (b) Basic and acidic elements (c) Organic carbons (d) Inorganic elements 34. Evapotranspiration deals with (a) transfer of water from ground surface into atmosphere (b) evaporation from plants (c) atmospheric reactions (d) cloud formation 35. The freezing of water molecules may cause their mass to occupy a _________ volume. (a) larger (b) smaller (c) similar (d) reduced 36. Deltas are known for their _________ agricultural productivity. (a) low (b) optimum (c) high (d) slowest

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CHAPTER 2 FUNDAMENTALS OF ENVIRONMENT

37.

Sea water constitutes about _________ % of the water of the earth. (a) 25.5 (b) 85.5 (c) 50 (d) 97.5

38. Rapid urbanization may _________ the surface runoff. (a) increase (b) stabilize (c) reduce (d) fluctuate 39.

As scavengers, vultures provide important ecological service as they rapidly _________ animal carcasses and plants into simpler constituents. (a) reduce (b) increase (c) stop (d) sometimes reduce

40. The tropopause and the troposphere together are termed as (a) higher atmosphere (b) lower atmosphere (c) constant atmosphere (d) atmospheric layers 41.

Very small particles with mean radius ranging between 0.001 and 0.1 micron are known as _________ particles. (a) Aitken (b) gas (c) liquid (d) solid

42. Which of the following is the cause of damage to human and ecosystem in several cities of the United States? (a) UV rays (b) Ozone (c) Peroxyacetyl nitrate (d) Pulmonary edema

33

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

43. Which of the following is/are the main source(s) of water vapour? (a) Ice and snow (b) Soil (c) Oceans (d) Clouds 44. Water that adheres by capillary action is located just above the water table in a zone called (a) saturated zone (b) vadose zone (c) capillary fringe (d) unsaturated zone 45. Which day is celebrated as “World Oceans Day”? (a) 6 June (b) 6 July (c) 8 July (d) 8 June 46. _________ is related to oceanic crust and present at ocean basins. (a) Troposphere (b) Hydrosphere (c) Oceanic lithosphere (d) Stratosphere 47.

Which of the following acts as a coenzyme in biochemical reactions? (a) Potassium (b) Calcium (c) Sodium (d) Oxygen

48. Biogeochemical cycle is also known as (a) biological cycle (b) chemical cycle (c) cycle of nature (d) nature cycle 49.

Which of the following can act as a sponge? (a) Vegetation (b) Water flow regulation 34

CHAPTER 2 FUNDAMENTALS OF ENVIRONMENT

(c) Waste treatment (d) Processing 50. Which of the following plays an important role in protecting the biodiversity of particular areas? (a) Air quality regulation (b) Tourism (c) Manufacturing (d) Retailing 51.

The deposition of airborne acidic particles and precipitation on earth is known as (a) biodiversity (b) acid decomposition (c) acid deposition (d) acid precipitation

52. Which of the following is facing the problem of soil contamination? (a) Europe (b) North America (c) Latin America (d) West Asia 53. _________ part(s) of the atmosphere is/are responsible for the rainfall, temparature changes, and climate. (a) Only upper (b) Only lower (c) Only middle (d) Upper and lower 54. _________ and _________ announced a collaboration to work out a solution for low carbon economic growth. (a) TCS, Xynteo (b) Infosys, TCS (c) Xynteo, Infosys (d) Infosys, Wipro

35

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

55. The process through which heat energy is transferred via contact with neighbouring molecules is (a) convection (b) radiation (c) conduction (d) convension 56. Which of the following discharge large amounts of carbon dioxide into the atmosphere? (a) Cultivation of rice (b) Fossil fuels (c) Burning of biomass (d) GHGs 57.

The maximum density of freshwater is around _________ °C. (a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 3 (d) 8

58. All rocks in the upper part of the earth’s crust possess openings known as (a) air (b) pores (c) crusts (d) holes 59.

The speed with which the water moves is known as (a) set (b) current (c) drift (d) periodic current

60. Which of the following supports the life forms? (a) Lithosphere (b) Stratosphere (d) Exosphere (d) Ionosphere 36

CHAPTER 2 FUNDAMENTALS OF ENVIRONMENT

61.

Which of the following is considered as the most important constituent among all the other constituents of the mineral portion of the soil? (a) Silt (b) Clay (c) Sand (d) Soil

62. 18% of the human body is made up of (a) (b) (c) (d)

nitric acid oxygen carbon carbon dioxide

63. Biotic components of ecosystem consist of (a) rock (b) soil (c) landscape (d) plant 64. What is the total value of the ecosystem services? (a) 33 (b) 45 (c) 33.3 (d) 65 65. Minerals obtained from the earth crust are often helpful in determining the _________ of a country. (a) economic development (b) economic activities (c) industrial activities (d) environmental activities 66. GLASOD refers to (a) Global Assessment of the Status of Human-induced Soil Deforestation (b) Global Assessment of the Status of Human-induced Soil Degradation (c) Global Assessment of the Status of Human-induced Soil Decomposition (d) Global Assignment of the Status of Human-induced Soil Degradation 37

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

67.

IPCC stands for (a) International Panel on Climatic Changes (b) International Panel on Climate Change (c) Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (d) Intergovernmental Policy on Climate Change

68. Which of the following system freely exchanges matter and energy from outside? (a) Ecosystem (b) Closed ecosystem (c) Open ecosystem (d) Middle ecosystem 69.

Volcanic eruptions and bushfires are the examples of _________ sources. (a) anthropogenic (b) wet deposition (c) precursors (d) biogenic

70. _________ serves as a viable source for supplying drinking water in hilly regions. (a) Groundwater (b) Hot water (c) Filtered water (d) Raw water 71. Which of the following metal was discovered initially? (a) Gold (b) Copper (c) Barium (d) Boron 72. Ecosystem supports the _________ resources. (a) environmental (b) political (c) legal (d) social

38

CHAPTER 2 FUNDAMENTALS OF ENVIRONMENT

73. Which of the following acts as a source of energy? (a) Silk (b) Hemp (c) Dung (d) Wood 74.

Green Revolution was developed in the (a) 1970s (b) 1980s (c) 1960s (d) 1990s

75. Acid deposition happens in the form of (a) rain (b) mist (c) snow (d) All of the above 76.

Agricultural productivity is reduced by (a) land degradation (b) deforestation (c) reforestation (d) industrial activities

77.

In (a) (b) (c) (d)

the higher latitude, _________ season is longer. winter growing season summer season rainy season

78. _________ that covers 71% of the earth’s surface is significant in climate determination. (a) Stratosphere (b) Troposphere (c) Hydrosphere (d) Mesosphere 79.

_________ is one of the important parts of atmosphere that maintains the earth’s natural thermostat and helps life to survive. (a) Stratosphere (b) Troposphere 39

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

(c) Ozone layer (d) Thermopause 80. Atmospheric pressure is normally measured in (a) nm (b) cm (c) mb (d) g/cm2 81.

Which of the following is the form of carbon aerosols? (a) Organic and inorganic (b) Organic, elemental, and inorganic (c) Elemental and inorganic (d) Organic and elemental

82. Which of the following is main issue that affects the maximum usage and preservation of the lakes? (a) Industrial use (b) Eutrophication and reduction in water volumes (c) Hydroelectric power (d) Agriculture and domestic use 83. Which of the following is helpful to prevent groundwater from draining? (a) Aquitard (b) Aquifer (c) Confining layer (d) Zone of saturation 84. A group of ocean currents rotating in a circular loop is called (a) drift (b) gyre (c) set (d) current 85. _________ is/are created due to several forces such as water, wind, and ice. (a) Rocks (b) Landforms (c) Marble (d) Slate 40

CHAPTER 2 FUNDAMENTALS OF ENVIRONMENT

86. Which of the following is a macronutrient present in the soil that helps in building cell walls? (a) Potassium (b) Hydrogen (c) Calcium (d) Oxygen 87.

Important part of the carbon cycle is carried out in (a) (b) (c) (d)

forests rivers oceans atmosphere

88. Biomass is normally indicated in (a) volumes (b) kilometres (c) metres (d) kilograms 89.

Which of the following is helpful while referring to the human demand on nature? (a) Regulation (b) Ecological footprint (c) Environment (d) Humidity

90. Industrial Revolution began in _________ in 1800. (a) Europe (b) Africa (c) Australia (d) Asia 91. Which of the following policies are helpful to improve energy efficiency? (a) Coal washing (b) Fluidized bed combustion (c) Scrubbers (d) All of the above

41

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

92. The impact of climate change on agriculture depends upon the level of _________ in the atmosphere. (a) carbon dioxide (b) sulphuric acid (c) oxygen (d) nitric acid 93. When ozone molecules absorb UV radiation, solar energy is converted into _________ energy. (a) solar (b) kinetic (c) heat (d) chemical 94. Which of the following halogen compounds are gaseous pollutants? (a) Hydrogen fluoride and hydrogen chloride (b) Sulphur dioxide and sulphur trioxide (c) Hydrogen sulphide and hydrogen fluoride (d) Nitogen dioxide and nitrous oxide 95. Which of the following is the base product of hydrocarbon combustion? (a) Methane (b) Ethane (c) Carbon dioxide (d) Propane 96. Acid rain may cause due to (a) huge dependence on coal (b) huge dependence on petroleum (c) less dependence on coal (d) less dependence on petroleum 97.

Increase in global temperature may result in (a) droughts (b) heat waves (c) storms and floods (d) All of the above

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CHAPTER 2 FUNDAMENTALS OF ENVIRONMENT

98. Which of the following statements are true? I. Biomes are the regions of our planet that are differentiated by their climate, fauna, and flora. II. Habitat and biodiversity are the common elements of biomes. III. There are six biomes in the world. IV. Rainforests receive 140–450 cm of rain a year. (a) Statements (I), (II), and (III) are true (b) Only statement (III) is true (c) Statements (I), (III), and (IV) are true (d) Statements (I), (II), and (IV) are true 99.

Identify the true and false statements amongst the following: The significant feature of atmosphere is to I. protect the lives of all creatures II. maintain a mean temperature of + 15°C III. act as a reservoir for nitrogen and oxygen IV. form a part of different vital cycles of matter (a) I–False, II–False, III–True, IV–False (b) I–True, II–False, III–True, IV–False (c) I–False, II–True, III–False, IV–False (d) I–True, II–True, III–True, IV–False

100. Which of the following statements are true? I. If the dew point is below freezing point, it is called the frost point. II. If the dew point is above freezing point, it is called the frost point. III. Dew point is usually seen when there is a relative humidity of 100% present in a mass of air. IV. The resistance of the atmosphere to vertical motion is termed as stability. (a) Statements (I), (II), and (IIII) are true (b) Statements (I) and (II) are true (c) Statements (I) and (III) are true (d) Statements (I), (III), and (IV) are true 101. Which of the following statements are true about lakes? I. Most of the lakes are filled and drained by canals and reservoirs; the only difference between them is the flowing water. 43

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

II. The fortification of lakes with different types of nutrients causes depletion of nitrogen content due to the decaying of organic matter. III. Lake is a huge waterbody comprising slow moving or stagnant water. It takes up a substantial size of an inland basin. IV. Mountainous areas, rift zones, and areas with continuous glacier formations are the ones that show the presence of natural lakes. (a) Statements (I) and (II) are true (b) Statements (II) and (III) are false (c) Only statement (II) is true (d) Statements (III) and (IV) are true 102. Match the following sets: I. Aquifer

(a) A measure of how well a material allows fluid to flow through.

II. Aquitard

(b) A saturated zone containing sufficient groundwater, which can be pumped out.

III. Permeability

(c) The flow of groundwater is retarded or restricted by a material.

IV. Porosity (a) (b) (c) (d)

(d) It is the percentage of empty (void) space in earth material, such as, soil or rock. I–a, II–b, III–d, IV–c I–b, II–c, III–a, IV–d I–c, II–d, III–b, IV–a I–d, II–a, III–b, IV–c

103. Identify the true and false statements from the following: I. The Indian Ocean currents usually follow the pattern of Pacific Ocean and Atlantic Ocean. II. Southwest monsoon current flows towards south and east, all over Arabian Sea, and Bay of Bengal. III. A part of south equatorial current flows towards the Mozambique Channel between Madagascar and Mainland. IV. The Benguela current is formed when a small portion of Agulhas current spins around southern end of Africa. (a) I–True, II–True, III–True, IV–True (b) I–False, II–True, III–True, IV–True (c) I–False, II–True, III–False, IV–False (d) I–False, II–False, III–False, IV–True 44

CHAPTER 3 Ecology and Environment

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Introduction Ecology is the analysis and study of the interactions among organisms, that is living beings and their environment or the interaction between biotic and abiotic components of the environment. It includes biology, geography, earth science, atmospheric science, climate, and weather. The word “ecology” (Okologie) was first introduced by German scientist Ernst Haeckel in 1866. The scope of ecology includes interaction of wide array of organizations that range from micro-level (cells) to planetary scale (biosphere) phenomenon. Ecology plays a vital role in our life. It gives indications for improving environment, helps in improving public health and natural resource management including solutions for forest, agriculture, fishing, and so on.

Ecological footprint Ecological footprint is measurement of the demand of human being on nature. It calculates the amount of land area and water area that a human population needs to generate resources and to absorb its carbon dioxide emissions. Ecological footprint determines the level of natural resources being used by human beings than they can regenerate. Today, the domain of ecological footprints is increasing due to ever increasing human activities. The ecological footprints now may include urban footprints, agricultural footprints, transportation footprints, water footprints, forest footprints among others. The pace of utilization/demand by mankind in these sectors is much faster than the speed at which nature can replenish the resources. This gives rise to offshoot and creates ecological deficits with footprints bigger than their own biological capacity of recovery.

Interaction of man and environment Humans are unique creatures as they can modify their environment. They have the ability to change the environment according to their needs, by clearing or planning vegetation, diverting or drilling for water, breeding crops and livestocks, constructing roads, buildings, railways. Thus, humans have a great impact on the environment. Man and the environment are interrelated and environment serves the mankind in many ways.

Ecological extinction Ecological extinction is the state of reduction of a species to such a level that the species is unable to play its normal ecological role in the community and no longer interacts significantly with other species. Ecological extinction 46

CHAPTER 3 ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

could be global or local. Global extinction is defined as the ubiquitous disappearance of a species while local extinction is the disappearance of a species from parts of it natural range.

Ecological succession Ecological succession is the gradual process by which ecosystems change and develop over time. It is the orderly process of transition from one biotic community to another in a given area. There are two type of succession: primary and secondary. Primary succession is the series of community changes that occur to an entirely new habitat, which has never been colonized before. For example, a new queried rock face or sand dunes. Secondary succession is the series of community changes that take place of a previously colonized but disturbed or damaged habitat. For example, after felling trees in a wood woodland, or a forest fire.

Ecological sanitation It is an approach characterized by a desire to safely close the loop between sanitation and agriculture. It is also called EcoSan. Ecological sanitation is a sustainable closed loop sanitation system that uses dry composting toilets. The main objectives of EcoSan are to reduce the health risks related to sanitation, contaminated water, and waste and to prevent groundwater pollution, surface water pollution, and to reuse nutrients or energy contained within wastes.

Conclusion Ecology and environment are interrelated to each other and humans can play a vital role in maintaining a balance between them. Ecology contains many ecosystems. The questions on related topics of ecology and environment have been presented in this chapter.

47

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

EXERCISES 1.

Acid rains are produced by (a) excess nitrogen dioxide (NO2) and sulphur dioxide (SO2) from burning fossil fuels (b) excess production of ammonia (NH3) by industry and coal gas (c) excess release of carbon monoxide (CO) by incomplete combustion (d) excess formation of CO2 by combustion and animal respiration

2.

Which one of these is normally not a pollutant? (a) Hydrocarbon (b) Carbon dioxide (c) Carbon monoxide (d) Sulphur dioxide

3.

The upper part of sea/aquatic ecosystem contains (a) plankton (b) nekton (c) plankton and nekton (c) benthos

4.

The competition for light, nutrients, and space is most severe between (a) closely related organisms growing in different niches (b) closely related organisms growing in the same area/niche (c) distantly related organisms growing in the same habitat (d) distantly related organisms growing in different niches

5.

A mutually beneficial association necessary for survival of both partners is (a) mutualism/symbiosis (b) commensalism (c) amensalism (d) Both (a) and (b)

6.

What is true of ecosystem? (a) Primary consumers are least dependent upon producers (b) Primary consumers outnumber producers

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CHAPTER 3 ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

(c) Producers are more than primary consumers (d) Secondary consumers are the largest and the most powerful 7.

Which one of these shows a one-way passage in an ecosystem? (a) Free energy (b) Carbon (c) Nitrogen (d) Potassium

8.

Greenhouse effect is warming due to (a) infrared rays reaching earth (b) moisture layer in atmosphere (c) increase in temperature due to increase in carbon dioxide concentration of atmosphere (d) ozone layer of atmosphere

9.

Soil conservation is (a) conversion of sterile soil into fertile soil (b) aeration of soil (c) erosion of soil (d) protection against loss

10.

The relation between algae and fungi in lichen is (a) symbiosis (b) parasitism (c) commensalism (d) protocooperation

11.

Major aerosol pollutant in jet plane emission is (a) sulphur dioxide (b) carbon monoxide (c) methane (d) fluorocarbon

12. Gas released during Bhopal tragedy was (a) methyl isocyanate (b) potassium isothiocyanate (c) sodium isothiocyanate (d) ethyl isothiocyante 49

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

13.

Deforestation will decrease (a) soil erosion (b) soil fertility (c) landslides (d) rainfall

14.

Pyramid of numbers in a grassland/tree ecosystem is (a) always inverted (b) always upright (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) spindle-shaped

15.

Domestic waste constitutes (a) non-biodegradable pollution (b) biodegradable pollution (c) effluents (d) air pollution

16.

Acid rain is due to the increase in atmospheric concentration of (a) ozone and dust (b) CO2 and CO (c) SO2 and CO (d) SO2 and NO2

17.

A non-renewable resource is (a) non-renewable and non-conventional energy source (b) non-renewable and conventional energy source (c) renewable and non-conventional energy source (d) renewable and conventional energy source

18.

Renewable source of energy is (a) biomass (b) coal (c) petroleum (d) kerosene

19.

Homeostasis is (a) tendency of biological systems to change with change in environment (b) tendency of biological systems to resist change 50

CHAPTER 3 ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

(c) disturbance of self-regulatory system and natural controls (d) biotic materials used in homeopathic medicines 20. Deep black soil is productive due to high proportion of (a) sand and zinc (b) gravel and calcium (c) clay and humus (d) silt and earthworm 21.

Soil water available to roots is (a) surface water (b) hygroscopic water (c) gravitational water (d) capillary water

22. Which one of these statements is true? (a) Commensalism when none of the interacting populations affect each other (b) Symbiosis when the interaction is useful to both the populations (c) Symbiosis when neither populations affect each other (d) Commensalism when the interaction is useful to both the populations 23. Food chain in which microorganisms breakdown the food formed by primary producers is a (a) parasitic food chain (b) detritus food chain (c) consumer food chain (d) predator food chain 24. Which one of the following is a correct food chain? (a) Grass Æ chameleon Æ insect Æ bird (b) Grass Æ fox Æ rabbit Æ bird (c) Phytoplankton Æ zooplankton Æ fish (d) Fallen leaves Æ bacteria Æ insect larvae 25. Most hazardous metal pollutant of automobile exhausts is (a) mercury (b) cadmium

51

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

(c) lead (d) copper 26. Fertility of soil is measured by its ability to (a) retain nutrients (b) hold organic materials (c) hold water (d) support life 27.

Petroleum is a (a) synthetic product (b) renewable resource (c) non-renewable resource (d) inconvenient resource

28. Minerals and metals are (a) biodegradable resources (b) renewable resources (c) non-renewable resources (d) Both (b) and (c) 29.

Soil fertility is reduced by (a) crop rotation (b) nitrogen-fixing bacteria (c) decaying organic matter (d) intensive agriculture

30. Water is a resource that is (a) non-degradable and non-maintainable (b) degradable and maintainable (c) renewable (d) non-renewable 31.

River water deposits (a) loamy soil (b) alluvial soil (c) laterite soil (d) sandy soil

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CHAPTER 3 ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

32. A fertile agricultural soil appears deep coloured at the surface as compared to the soil one metre down the surface. The reason for the colour of topsoil is (a) more moisture (b) rich in organic matter (c) rich in iron, calcium, and magnesium (d) recent formation 33. Soil particles determine its (a) texture (b) field capacity (c) water-holding capacity (d) soil flora 34. Ultraviolet radiations from sunlight cause a reaction that produces (a) fluorides (b) carbon monoxide (c) sulphur dioxide (d) ozone 35. American water plant that has become a troublesome waterweed in India is (a) Cyperus rotundus (b) Eichhornia crassipes or water hyacinth (c) Typha latifolia (d) Trapa bispinosa 36. Study of inter-relationships between organisms and their environment is (a) ecology (b) ecosystem (c) phytogeography (d) ethology 37.

The sum total of the populations of the same kind of organisms constitutes (a) colony (b) genus (c) community (d) species 53

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

38. The soil best suited for plant growth is (a) clay (b) loam (c) sandy (d) gravel 39.

An (a) (b) (c) (d)

association of animals when both partners are benefitted is colony mutualism commensalism ammensalism

40. Pyramid of numbers deals with number of (a) species in an area (b) individuals in a community (c) individuals in a tropic level (d) subspecies in a community 41.

Pyramid of numbers in a pond ecosystem is (a) irregular (b) inverted (c) upright (d) spindle-shaped

42. Which among the following is likely to have the highest levels of DDT depositions in its body? (a) Sea gull (b) Phytoplankton (c) Eel (d) Crab 43. Which one of the following gases contributes maximum to the greenhouse effect on the earth? (a) Carbon dioxide (b) Chlorofluorocarbon (c) Freon (d) Methane

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CHAPTER 3 ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

44. The dominant second trophic level, in a lake ecosystem, is (a) phytoplankton (b) zooplankton (c) benthos (d) plankton 45. Above what level is sound considered hazardous noise pollution? (a) Above 80 dB (b) Above 150 dB (c) Above 30 dB (d) Above 120 dB 46. A disease caused by eating fish, contaminated by industrial waste containing mercury compounds, is called (a) osteosclerosis (b) Hashimoto’s oxidase (c) Bright’s disease (d) Minamata disease 47.

When huge amount of sewage is dumped into a river, its biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) will (a) slightly decrease (b) remain unchanged (c) increase (d) decrease

48. If we completely remove the decomposers from an ecosystem, its functioning will be adversely affected, because (a) mineral movement will be blocked (b) the rate of decomposition will be very high (c) energy flow will be blocked (d) herbivores will not receive solar energy 49.

In (a) (b) (c) (d)

a biotic community, the primary consumers are detritivores herbivores carnivores omnivores

55

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

50. The abundance of a species population, within its habitat, is called (a) relative density (b) regional density (c) absolute density (d) niche density 51.

The Taj Mahal is threatened due to the effect of (a) oxygen (b) hydrogen (c) chlorine (d) sulphur dioxide

52. In Minamata Bay, Japan, the animal that remained free from Minamata disease, is (a) dog (b) cat (c) pig (d) rabbit 53. Which of the following pairs is a sedimentary type of biogeochemical cycle? (a) Phosphorus and nitrogen (b) Phosphorus and sulphur (c) Oxygen and nitrogen (d) Phosphorus and carbon dioxide 54. The toxic effect of carbon monoxide is due to its greater affinity for haemoglobin as compared to oxygen approximately by (a) 200 times (b) 1000 times (c) 2 times (d) 20 times 55. Which of the following isotopes is the most dangerous to Homo sapiens? (a) Phosphorus-32 (b) Strontium-90 (c) Caesium-137 (d) Iodine-131 56

CHAPTER 3 ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

56. Which of the following is the most stable ecosystem? (a) Mountain (b) Ocean (c) Forest (d) Desert 57.

The primary succession refers to the development of communities on a (a) (b) (c) (d)

forest clearing after devastating fire newly-exposed habitat with no record of earlier vegetation freshly cleared crop field pond that is freshly filled with water after a dry phase

58. A dental disease characterized by mottling of teeth is due to the presence of certain chemical element in drinking water. Which of the following is that element? (a) Fluorine (b) Boron (c) Mercury (d) Chlorine 59.

Which of the following is the main factor of desertification? (a) Overgrazing (b) Tourism (c) Irrigated agriculture (d) All of the above

60. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched? (a) Parasitism – intraspecific relationship (b) Uricotelism – aquatic habitat (c) Excessive perspiration – xeric adaptation (d) Streamlined body – aquatic adaptation 61.

The closely related morphologically similar sympatric populations, but reproductively isolated, are designated as (a) clones (b) sibling species (c) clines (d) denies 57

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

62. The true statement about “greenhouse effect” is that it is (a) caused by a combination of many gases (b) caused only by CO2 (c) caused by CO2, CFC, CH4, and NO2 (d) None of the above 63. Benthoic animals are the ones, which (a) are submerged in area (b) float on the sea surface (c) are deep dwellers in sea (d) are floating (free) organisms 64. Which country has the greatest contribution for the hole formation in ozone layer? (a) Russia (b) Japan (c) USA (d) Germany 65. The “niche” of a species is meant for (a) habitat and specific functions of a species (b) specific place where an organism lives (c) specific species function and its competitive power (d) None of the above 66. Where and when did the two great industrial tragedies, namely, methyl isocyanate and Chernobyl tragedies occurred? (a) Bhopal 1984, Ukraine 1986 (b) Bhopal 1986, Russia 1988 (c) Bhopal 1984, Ukraine 1990 (d) Bhopal 1984, Ukraine 1988 67.

The 10% energy transfer law of food chain was given by (a) Lindemann (b) Tansley (c) Stanley (d) Weismann

58

CHAPTER 3 ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

68. The most common indicator organism that represents polluted water is (a) C. vibrio (b) Entamoeba histolytica (c) E. coli (d) P. typhi 69.

In to (a) (b) (c) (d)

coming years, skin related disorders would be more common due water pollution depletion of ozone layer pollutants in air use of detergents

70. During adverse season, therophytes survive by (a) rhizomes (b) seeds (c) bulbs (d) corms 71. MAB stands for (a) mammals and biosphere (b) mammals and biology programme (c) man and biology programme (d) man and biosphere programme 72. Formation of ozone hole is maximum over (a) Europe (b) Africa (c) India (d) Antarctica 73. Which of the following ecosystems has the highest gross primary productivity? (a) Mangroves (b) Rainforest (c) Grassland (d) Coral reefs

59

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

74.

Phosphate pollution is caused by (a) sewage and phosphate rock (b) sewage and agricultural fertilizers (c) phosphate rock only (d) agricultural fertilizers only

75. Which of the following acts as “nature’s scavengers”? (a) Insects (b) Microorganisms (c) Man (d) Animals 76.

In desert grasslands, which type of animals are relatively more abundant? (a) Aquatic (b) Fossorial (c) Diurnal (d) Arboreal

77.

The supersonic jets cause pollution by the thinning of ________ layer. (a) O2 (b) O3 (c) CO2 (d) SO2

78. Which one of the following organisms is used as an indicator of water quality? (a) Azospirillum (b) Escherichia (c) Biggiata (d) Chlorella 79.

If there were no CO2 in the earth’s atmosphere, the temperature of earth’s surface would be (a) higher than the present (b) dependent on the amount of oxygen in the atmosphere (c) same as present (d) less than the present 60

CHAPTER 3 ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

80. Plants such as Prosopis, Acacia, and Capparis represent examples of tropical (a) deciduous forests (b) evergreen forests (c) grasslands (d) thorn forests 81.

Carbon monoxide is a pollutant because (a) (b) (c) (d)

it it it it

reacts with haemoglobin makes nervous system inactive reacts with oxygen inhibits glycolysis

82. How does carbon monoxide, emitted by automobiles, prevent transport of oxygen in the body tissues? (a) By forming a stable compound with haemoglobin (b) By obstructing the reaction of oxygen with haemoglobin (c) By changing oxygen into carbon dioxide (d) By destroying the haemoglobin 83. In which trophic level is the energy maximum in a terrestrial ecosystem such as forest? (a) T3 (b) T4 (c) T1 (d) T2 84. Which of the following communities is more vulnerable to invasion by outside animals and plants? (a) Temperate forests (b) Oceanic island communities (c) Mangroves (d) Tropical evergreen forests 85. The rate at which light energy is converted into chemical energy of organic molecules is the ecosystem’s (a) net secondary productivity (b) gross primary productivity (c) net primary productivity (d) gross secondary productivity 61

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

86. The Minamata disease in Japan was caused through the pollution of water by (a) cyanide (b) methyl isocyanate (c) lead (d) mercury 87.

DDT is (a) not a pollutant (b) an antibiotic (c) a non-degradable pollutant (d) a biodegradable pollutant

88. Which of the following organisms is likely to have more concentration of DDT in its body? (a) Top carnivores (b) Primary producers (c) Herbivores (d) Carnivores 89.

Which of the following is a pollution-related disorder? (a) Silicosis (b) Pneumonicosis (c) Fluorosis (d) Leprosis

90. Energy transfer from one trophic level to other, in a food chain, is (a) 10% (b) 20% (c) 1% (d) 2% 91. In (a) (b) (c) (d)

1984, Bhopal gas tragedy was caused due to the leakage of potassium isocyanate methyl isocyanate sodium monoxide None of the above

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CHAPTER 3 ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

92. Which of the following is a secondary pollutant? (a) PAN (peroxyacetyl nitrate) (b) Aerosol (c) CO (d) CO2 93. Which part of the world has a high density of organisms? (a) Deciduous forests (b) Tropical rainforests (c) Grasslands (d) Savannahs 94. In which of the following aquatic ecosystems is the maximum biomagnifications found? (a) Zooplanktons (b) Phytoplanktons (c) Fishes (d) Birds 95. Which of the following is the use of lichens in case of pollution? (a) They promote pollution (b) Lichens are not related with pollution (c) They treat the polluted water (d) They act as bioindicators of pollutions 96. Land mass occupied by forests is about (a) 30% (b) 60% (c) 11% (d) 22% 97.

What is the result of damage to relative biological effectiveness? (a) High temperature (b) Pollution (c) Radiation (d) Low temperature

98. What is the reason for highest biomass in aquatic ecosystem? (a) Nanoplankton, blue-green algae, and green algae (b) Sea grass and slime moulds 63

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

(c) Benthic and brown algae (d) Diatoms 99.

What is the best pH of the soil for cultivation of plants? (a) 3.4–5.4 (b) 6.5–7.5 (c) 4.5–8.5 (d) 5.5–6.5

100. What is BOD? (a) Amount of O2 utilized by organisms in water (b) Amount of O2 utilized by microorganisms for decomposition (c) Total amount of O2 present in water (d) All of the above 101. What is the intensity of sound in normal conversation? (a) 10–20 dB (b) 30–60 dB (c) 70–90 dB (d) 120–150 dB 102. Plant decomposers are (a) Monera and fungi (b) fungi and plants (c) Protista and Animalia (d) Animalia and Monera 103. Which of the following is absent in polluted water? (a) Hydrilla (b) Water hyacinth (c) Larva of stone fly (d) Blue-green algae 104. What is true for individuals of same species? (a) Live in same niche (b) Live in same habitat (c) Interbreeding (d) Live in different habitat

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CHAPTER 3 ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

105. By which of the following countries is the maximum greenhouse gas released? (a) India (b) France (c) USA (d) Britain 106. Which type of association is found between entomophilous flower and pollinating agent? (a) Mutualism (b) Commensalism (c) Cooperation (d) Coevolution 107. Two different species cannot live for long duration in the same niche or habitat. This law is (a) Allen’s law (b) Gause’s hypothesis (c) Dollo’s rule (d) Weisman’s theory 108. If a bamboo plant is growing in a fir forest, then what will be its trophic level? (a) First (T1) (b) Second (T2) (c) Third (T3) (d) Fourth (T4) 109. Fluoride pollution mainly affects (a) brain (b) heart (c) teeth (d) kidney 110. Escherichia coli is used as an indicator organism to determine pollution of water with (a) heavy metals (b) faecal matter (c) industrial effluents

65

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

(d) pollen of aquatic plants 111. Mycorrhiza is an example of (a) symbiotic relationship (b) ectoparasitism (c) endoparasitism (d) decomposers 112. Certain characteristic demographic developing countries are (a) high fertility, low or rapid fall rate, rapid population growth, and age distribution (b) high fertility, high density, mortality rate, and very young age (c) high infant mortality, low fertility population growth, and distribution (d) high mortality, high density, uneven growth, and a very old age distribution 113. What is a keystone species? (a) A species which makes up only a small proportion of the total biomass of a community, and yet has a huge impact on the community organization. (b) A common species that has plenty of biomass, and yet has a fairly low impact on the community organization. (c) A rare species that has minimal impact on the biomass and on other species in the community. (d) A dominant species that constitutes a large proportion of the biomass and which affects many other species. 114. Which of the following is expected to have the highest value (gm/ m2/yr) in a grassland ecosystem? (a) Secondary production (b) Tertiary production (c) Gross production (GP) (d) Net production (NP) 115. In (a) (b) (c)

1984, the Bhopal gas tragedy took place because methyl isocyanate reacted with DDT reacted with ammonia reacted with carbon dioxide

66

CHAPTER 3 ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

(d) reacted with water 116. Lead concentration in blood is considered alarming if it is (a) 20 g/100 mL (b) 30 g/100 mL (c) 4–6 g/100 mL (d) 10 g/100 mL 117. In which one of the following pairs, the specific characteristic of a soil is not correctly mentioned? (a) Laterite – contains aluminium compound (b) Terra rossa – most suitable for roses (c) Chernozems – richest soil in the world (d) Black soil – rich in calcium carbonate 118. An ecosystem, which can be easily damaged but can recover after some time if damaging effect stops, will be having (a) low stability and high resilience (b) high stability and low resilience (c) low stability and low resilience (d) high stability and high resilience 119. The maximum growth rate occurs in (a) stationary phase (b) senescent phase (c) lag phase (d) exponential phase 120. Common indicator organism of water pollution is (a) Lemna paucicostata (b) Eichhornia crassipes (c) Escherichia coli (d) Entamoeba histolytica 121. In which one of the following habitats does the diurnal temperature of soil surface vary most? (a) Shrubland (b) Forest (c) Desert (d) Grassland 67

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

122. In your opinion, which is the most effective way to conserve the plant diversity of an area? (a) Tissue culture method (b) By creating biosphere reserve (c) By creating botanical garden (d) By developing seed bank 123. Prolonged liberal irrigation of agricultural fields is likely to create the problem of (a) acidity (b) aridity (c) salinity (d) metal toxicity 124. Which one of the following is not used for disinfection of drinking water? (a) Chlorine (b) Ozone (c) Chloramine (d) Phenyl 125. Which of the following is not true for a species? (a) Members of a species can interbreed (b) Gene flow does not occur between the populations of a species (c) Each species is reproductively isolated from every other species (d) Variations occur among members of a species 126. Identify the correctly matched pair. (a) Basal Convention – Biodiversity conservation (b) Kyoto Protocol – Climatic change (c) Montreal Protocol – Global warming (d) Ramsar Convention – Groundwater pollution 127. More than 70% of the world’s freshwater is contained in (a) polar ice (b) glaciers and mountains (c) Antarctica (d) Greenland

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CHAPTER 3 ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

128. At which of the following latitudes, heat gain through insulation is approximately equal to heat loss through terrestrial radiation? (a) 22½° North and South (b) 40° North and South (c) 42½° North and South (d) 66° North and South 129. Animals have the innate ability to escape from predation. Examples for the same are given below. Select the incorrect example. (a) Colour change in chameleon (b) Enlargement of body size by swallowing air in pufferfish (c) Poison fangs in snakes (d) Melanism in moths 130. Which one of the following pairs is mismatched? (a) Fossil fuel burning – release of CO2 (b) Nuclear power – radioactive wastes (c) Solar energy – greenhouse effect (d) Biomass burning – release of CO2 131. In which year was the Biodiversity Act of India passed by the Parliament? (a) 1992 (b) 1996 (c) 2000 (d) 2002 132. Which of the following is considered a hot spot of biodiversity in India? (a) Aravalli Hills (b) Western Ghats (c) Indo-Gangetic Plain (d) Eastern Ghats 133. Limit of BOD prescribed by Central Pollution Control Board for the discharge of industrial and municipal wastewaters into natural surface waters, is (a) Less than 30 ppm (b) Less than 3 ppm 69

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

(c) Less than 10 ppm (d) Less than 100 ppm 134. Which one of the following is not used for the construction of ecological pyramids? (a) Fresh weight (b) Dry weight (c) Number of individuals (d) Rate of energy flow 135. Niche overlap indicates (a) mutualism between two species (b) active cooperation between two species (c) two different parasites on the same host (d) sharing of one or more resources between the two species 136. Photochemical smog pollution does not contain (a) PAN (b) ozone (c) nitrogen dioxide (d) carbon dioxide 137. In which of the following options, the BOD (biochemical oxygen demand) of sewage (S), distillery effluent (DE), paper mill effluent (PE), and sugar mill effluent (SE) have been arranged in ascending order? (a) SE < PE < S < DE (b) PE < S < SE < DE (c) S < DE < PE < SE (d) SE < S < PE < DE 138. In a coal-fired power plant, electrostatic precipitators are installed to control emission of (a) NOx (b) SPM (c) CO (d) SO2

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CHAPTER 3 ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

139. Geometric representation of age structure is a characteristic of (a) population (b) landscape (c) ecosystem (d) biotic community 140. The population of an insect species shows an explosive increase in numbers during rainy season followed by its disappearance at the end of the season. What does this show? (a) Food plants mature and die at the end of the rainy season (b) Its population growth curve is of J-type (c) Population of its predators increases enormously (d) An S-shaped or sigmoid growth of this insect 141. Which one of the following statements is correct? (a) Both Azotobacter and Rhizobium fix atmospheric nitrogen in root nodules of plants. (b) Cyanobacteria, such as Anabaena and Nostoc, are important mobilizers of phosphates and for plant nutrition in soil. (c) At present it is not possible to grow maize without chemical fertilizers. (d) Extensive use of chemical fertilizers may lead to eutrophication of nearby waterbodies. 142. If the mean and the median pertaining to a certain character of a population are of the same value, which of the following is most likely to occur? (a) Bi-modal distribution (b) T-shaped curve (c) Skewed curve (d) Normal distribution 143. A high density of elephant population in an area can result in (a) intra-specific competition (b) inter-specific competition (c) predation on one another (d) mutualism

71

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

144. Which of the following ecosystem types has the highest annual net primary productivity? (a) Tropical deciduous forest (b) Temperate evergreen forest (c) Temperate deciduous forest (d) Tropical rainforest 145. Which one of the following pairs of organisms are exotic species introduced in India? (a) Lantana camara, Water hyacinth (b) Water hyacinth, Prosopis cineraria (c) Nile perch, Ficus religiosa (d) Ficus religiosa, Lantana camara 146. Which one of the following is not a bioindicator of water pollution? (a) Bloodworms (b) Stoneflies (c) Sewage fungus (d) Sludge worms

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CHAPTER 4 Environmental Economics and Regulations

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Introduction An ecosystem is a complex set of relationships among living resources, habitats, and the residents of a particular area. It includes plants, trees, animals, fish, birds, microorganisms, water, soil, and people. Biodiversity is one of the most crucial aspects of an ecosystem. It indicates the variety of living organisms and species in that environment. An economic system can be defined as a network of organizations used by a society to resolve the basic problems of what, how, how much, and for whom to produce. Good economic system helps in increasing human well-being and social equity along with simultaneously reducing the risk of environmental and ecological balance. The conventional relationship among economy, economic growth, and the environment is considered controversial. According to traditional economic theories, a transactional nature exists between growth of economy and quality of the environment.

Economic functions of the environment In a conventional economic setting, output is a subset of three factors of production—land, labour, and capital. Conventional economic development strategies have always led emphasis on labour, capital, and the agricultural use of land. Land and other related natural resources have been considered to be of such use that they benefit the humanity.

Environmental economics and ecological economics Environmental economics and ecological economics include the strategies used by economists to make sure that the decisions of individuals, firms, and governments are in tandem with the economic importance of the environment and that the development paths chosen are sustainable. The following four crucial roles are played by the environment in sustaining economic activity: 1.

System of life support

2.

Supply of raw materials

3.

Absorption of waste products

4.

Supply of amenity services

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CHAPTER 4 ENVIRONMENTAL ECONOMICS AND REGULATIONS

Environmental economics: significance and analysis A subset of economics, environmental economics deals with the efficient distribution of environmental assets and resources. Like the raw materials intended for economic activity, the environment provides a direct value that makes the environment and the economy interdependent. Hence, the way in which economy is managed impacts the environment that, in turn, affects both the welfare and the performance of the economy. Economics, as we know, deals with the efficient allocation of resources and tools for making decisions about the use, conservation, and protection of natural resources, because it provides information about people’s choices, the costs and benefits of various proposed measures, and the likely outcome of environmental and other policies. In simple words, environmental economics refers to the application of the principles of economics to study the management of environmental resources. It considers issues such as conservation and valuation of natural resources, waste management, pollution control and recycling, along with efficient creation of emission standards.

Economic analysis of environment Economic analysis of environment means systematic approach of determining the maximum use of scarce resources, which involves comparing two or more alternatives to meet a specific objective with respect to given assumptions and constraints. Economic analysis of environmental issues tells the following things: •

Resources should be utilized in an effective manner rather than conserving them.

•

Resources may be common property or privately owned, which in turn affects the method available to achieve an environmental goal.

•

To avoid overexploitation of the common resources, internalization of external product cost should be done.

•

Discount factor is another method of analysing our willingness to pay for an environmental quality. Social cost-benefit analysis can be used to determine the environmental feasibility of a project provided the cost of all resources is available. Economic analysis involves two different kinds of environmental issues: (i) the use of desirable resources, such as fish in the ocean, oil in the ground, or forest on the land, and (ii) minimization of undesirable pollution.

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ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Economic values Economic value can be defined as the market-determined value of a good or service. It gave birth to the concepts of ‘value in use’ and ‘value in exchange’. Wealth maximization, a concept related to determination of economic value, predicts that given a choice, a person will try to obtain the cheapest possible good or service by paying the least in exchange. Economic value can also be defined as the worth of a desired object or condition compared to and based on other objects or conditions. It is expressed as ‘how much’ of one desirable condition or commodity will be given up in exchange for some other desired condition or commodity.

Green economics Green economics follows the concept of ‘use value’ and not ‘exchange value’. Quality is more important than quantity in green economics. Green economy focuses mainly on driving economic development as well as creating jobs with green investment, trade production, and utilization of green products. The term ‘green business’ is also used in relation to ecofriendly business practices.

Conclusion Environmental economics is an upcoming domain involving the principles and applications of economic theories into environment related projects and work. Microeconomics and resource allocation policies, economics of pollution control, trade and environment green economics, economics of climate change and regulatory framework in India have been covered in this chapter.

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EXERCISES 1.

Identify the form(s) in which market failure may occur. (a) Externality (b) Non-excludability (c) Non-rivalry (d) All of the above

2.

_____ is a complex set of relationships among the living resources, habitats, and the residents of a particular area. (a) Biodiversity (b) Ecosystem (c) Economic system (d) Environment

3.

Loss of environmental resources is a _____ problem because valuable resources disappear, with some perhaps irreversibly. (a) economic (b) social (c) cultural (d) sociocultural

4.

At prices above the equilibrium price P, the _____ of the product decreases. (a) equilibrium point (b) supply (c) demand (d) quality

5.

Identify the one out of the following aspects with which microeconomics does not deal with. (a) Pricing strategy of products and services (b) Reason behind the failure of certain markets (c) Policies used for allocating the resources (d) Quality of the products and services

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6.

Which of these refer to the main principle of study, use, and application behind economics? (a) Coping with scarcity of resources (b) Marking strategies for proper and satisfactory allocations of scarce resources (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Only (a)

7.

The method of imposing direct regulations to control the production quality and check the emission of pollutants at the producer’s end is referred to as (a) control and command approach (b) cost-benefit analysis (c) pricing and standard approach (d) Coase Theorem

8.

What is the main idea behind merging the science of economics and environment? (a) To determine over-extraction of resources (b) To evaluate the damage done to the quality of environment in terms of cost and benefit figures (c) To check certain forms of pollutants released into the atmosphere (d) To enumerate the benefits of a pollution-free environment

9.

Every big and small activity, from household chores to steel production, leads to the _____ of some or other _____ into the environment. (a) over-extraction, resource (b) depletion, resource (c) emission, pollutant (d) pollution, pollutant

10.

Providing a forum for settling disputes through negotiations is a function of (a) WTO (b) ILO (c) GATT (d) NAFTA

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11.

Which of the following was one of the reasons that paved the way for the expansion of international trade in developed and developing countries? (a) Revival of institutional framework of capitalism (b) Innovations through research and development (c) Economic growth (d) Low non-agricultural tariffs

12. Which article of GATT imposes different types of limit on the measures that a party can take to restrict trade? (a) Article XX: The Environmental Exceptions (b) Article XI: Quantitative Restrictions and Licenses (c) Article I and III (d) Only Article III 13.

Of the following, identify the area in which there was a disparity between the North and South. (a) Industrial production (b) Resource utilization (c) Agricultural production (d) Managed trade

14.

Which of the following emphasizes that lack of properties usually lead to externalities? (a) Coase Theorem (b) Cost-benefit analysis (c) Command and control approach (d) Pigovian tax

15.

After extraction, processing, and usage of natural resources, the waste generated is dumped into (a) air (b) water (c) land (d) All of the above

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16.

Which one of these is the method of imposing direct regulations to control the production and quality, and check the emission of pollutants at the producer’s end? (a) Cost-benefit analysis (b) Command and control approach (c) Marginal cost analysis (d) Pigovian tax

17.

_____ is incurred by a producer while producing a physical good. (a) Private cost (b) Social cost (c) Private benefit (d) Social benefit

18.

In the case of _____, the social costs are not completely included in the supply cost. (a) positive externalities (b) tax and subsidies (c) negative externalities (d) Pigovian tax

19.

In which of these rounds were efforts towards further trade liberalization made? (a) The Dillon Round (b) The Kennedy Round (c) The Tokyo Round (d) The Uruguay Round

20. From the following, identify the factors that impacted growth in the developing countries. (a) Decline in primary exports (b) Shift in agricultural labours to industry (c) Population growth (d) All of the above 21.

The rules and regulations that governed the _____ were manipulated to serve the needs and interests of the developed nations. (a) resource utilization (b) technological manipulation 80

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(c) world trade (d) inflow of capital 22. Which of the following statements pertains to the principle pertaining to non-discrimination? (a) According to regulation, a WTO member has to grant the mostfavourable conditions for multilateral trade. (b) Tariff commitments, which are made by the members of WTO in a multilateral trade negotiation, are enumerated in a concession schedule. (c) The government can impose restrictions under certain circumstances. (d) For maintaining institutions that allow the review of administrative decisions affecting trade, members need to publish their trade regulations. 23. Green economics can be defined as (a) a subset of economics that deals with the efficient distribution of environmental assets and resources (b) a subsystem that emphasizes upon preserving natural capital (c) a global movement which is growing fast to bring about changes in the economic systems for sustainable development (d) a study that considers individual households, firms, or communities, that is, on a smaller scale 24. From the following, identify the serious challenge to economic growth in the present times. (a) Responsibility (b) Fairness (c) Community (d) Human self-development being the core of sustainable economic growth 25. _____ is a global movement which is growing fast to bring about changes in the economic systems for sustainable development. (a) Ecological economics (b) Environmental economics (c) Green economics (d) Microeconomics

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26. Which of the following are the principles of sustainability value? (a) Community (b) Fairness (c) Responsibility (d) All of the above 27.

The following are the principles that cover the important aspects of a green economy, except (a) Green economy follows naturally (b) Integration of environment and economy (c) Appropriate scale (d) Waste equals food

28. Achieving sustainable development presupposes that the limits of utilization of natural resources are commensurate with their renewal capacity. Which principle of green economy does this pertain to? (a) Conservation of natural resources and maintenance of biological diversity (b) Integration of environment and economy (c) Precaution, prevention, and evaluation of harmful effects on the environment (d) Collaboration, alliances, and contribution of communities 29.

In as (a) (b) (c) (d)

1972, _____ took a step towards climate change, which is regarded the beginning of global efforts in climate change. Toronto Conference World Climate Conference Stockholm Conference Traditional economic models

30. As pointed out by the _____, standards applied by some countries may be inappropriate in terms of economic and social costs to other countries. (a) Transnational Corporations (b) Rio Declaration (c) Environmental standards (d) Lack of universal environmental standards

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31.

Which of the following stages begins with the early perceptions of an environmental problem? (a) Formulation stage (b) Implementation stage (c) Recognition stage (d) Control stage

32. Which of the following is allocation of functions to private sector of social organization? (a) Awareness raising and education (b) Disaster preparedness (c) Development and application of economics and market instruments (d) Provision of environmental expertise 33. The policy life cycle has _____ stages. (a) three (b) four (c) five (d) two 34. Which of the following is an intergovernmental organization of eight countries? (a) United Nations Environment Programme (b) The World Bank (c) The Stockholm Conference (d) South Asia Co-operative Environment Programme 35. Which of the following energies is being used for water pumping, battery charging, and power generation? (a) Solar (b) Wind (c) Water source (d) Tidal 36. Which of the following stages is the final stage in the policy life cycle? (a) Control stage (b) Implementation stage 83

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(c) Formulation stage (d) Recognition stage 37.

Which of the following is the direct generation, collection, storage, transport, source separation, processing, treatment, recovery, and disposal of solid waste? (a) Biomedical waste (b) Waste management (c) Solid waste management (d) Industrial waste

38. Which of the following information is comprised in the Right to Information? (a) Taking non-certified samples of material (b) Taking notes, extracts, or non-certified copies of documents or records (c) Obtaining information in the form of notebooks (d) Inspection of work, records, and documents 39.

_____ introduced the Municipal Solid Wastes (Management and Handling) Rules, 2000. (a) Solid Waste Association of India (b) Ministry of Environment and Forest (c) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (d) Ministry of Urban Development

40. _____ is one of the residues generated in combustion, and comprises the fine particles that rise with the flue gases. (a) Bottom ash (b) Fly ash brick (c) Fly ash (d) Fly ash block 41.

_____ basically deals with forest and wildlife preservation or improvement strategies. (a) Productivity evaluation method (b) Travel cost method (c) Market price method (d) Hedonic Pricing Models and Averting Behaviour Methods

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42. Ecological Modelling is the work of (a) Herman Daly and Robert Costanza (b) Juan Martinez-Alier (c) Robert Costanza (d) Herman Daly and Juan Martinez-Alier 43. Which of the following methods is also referred to as derived value method? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Market price method Replacement cost method Contingent valuation method Productivity method

44. _____ and _____ believe in the source and sink functions of the environment, which state that the environment has the potential to supply energy and material. (a) Herman Daly, Robert Solow (b) Robert Solow, Martinez Weitzman (c) Nicholas Georgescu-Roegen, Herman Daly (d) Nicholas Georgescu-Roegen, Martinez Weitzman 45. _____ can be defined as “those parts of nature that can provide goods and services for humans, including opportunities for recreation, appreciation of scenic beauty, and disposal of wastes.” (a) Fertile farmland (b) Natural resources (c) Abiotic resources (d) Potential resources 46. _____ and the products of _____ affect metals and buildings. (a) Acid rain, plastic (b) Hydrogen sulphide, photochemical smog (c) Hydrogen sulphide, plastic (d) Acid rain, photochemical smog 47.

Which of these refers to the progress of the CFC policy? (a) Using marketable permits to do away with CFCs (b) Technological progress

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(c) Mitigating the resistance to a phase-down mainly in the developed countries, especially the USA (d) Arranged transition of the capacity of refinery without compromising the environmental quality 48. The main objective of the National River Conservation Plan is to (a) control the pollution of grossly polluted rivers (b) develop riverfronts (c) provision of low cost sanitation (d) review the implementation of the programmes related to cleaning of rivers 49.

Which of these studies is based on the findings of emission amounts along with the income per capita? (a) Pollution Haven Hypothesis (b) Environmental Kruznet’s Curve (c) Porter Hypothesis (d) All of the above

50. According to which of the following do the environmental regulations promote competitiveness amongst regions and nations, especially those producing, importing, or exporting similar goods? (a) Pollution Haven Hypothesis (b) Environmental Kruznet’s Curve (c) Porter Hypothesis (d) Developmental perspective 51.

All (a) (b) (c) (d)

of the following are positive product effects except Fuel efficient tools Improved production technology Machines for production Goods using toxic raw material

52. Which of the following is a part of economic incentives? (a) Grants (b) Cost-effectiveness (c) Disincentives (d) Cost-benefit analysis

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53. What was the issue that prompted the Montreal Protocol of 1987? (a) Confirmation of the depletion of ozone layer (b) Realization that depletion resulted in an increased ultraviolet radiation that causes deadly diseases such as skin cancer (c) Satellite images of ozone holes over the Antarctic (d) Casual effects of the CFCs being proved 54. Which of the following was agreed upon at the London Protocol? (a) Reduce depletion of ozone layer (b) Reduce CFC levels largely by 85% by 1997 (c) Reduction of greenhouse gases (d) Reduce water pollution 55. Which of the following are the aims of Integrated Rural Development Programme? (a) Generate employment among the rural population as single largest anti-poverty programme (b) Development of production potential of each area and utilization and upgrading of available human skills (c) Development of cottage, poultry, fishery, forestry, and cottage industries to raise the living standards of the poor villagers (d) All of the above 56. Which of the following is an international body formed to assess climate change and its effects on sociopolitical and economic aspects of life? (a) Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (b) Environmental aspects (c) United Nations Environment Programme (d) World Meteorological Organization 57.

Which of the following could be a source for taking non-specific trade measures? (a) Carbon taxes (b) Trade-Related Investment Measures (TRIMs) (c) Border-tax adjustments (d) The Convention Biological Diversity

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58. _____ incorporates genetic differences within each species as well as the variety of ecosystems. (a) The Convention on Biological Diversity (b) Biodiversity (c) The Rio Earth Summit (d) The Cartagena Protocol 59.

Which of the following convention was adopted on 22 March 1989 and entered into force on 5 May 1992? (a) Not in my backyard (NIMBY) (b) The Johannesburg Declaration 2002 (c) The Basel Convention (d) The Vienna Convention

60. CRZ-I comprises _____ areas. (a) built-up (b) ecologically sensitive (c) rural (d) water

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CHAPTER 5 Environmental Impact Assessment

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Introduction The United Nations Conference on Environment and Development, held from 3 to 14 June 1992 in Rio de Janeiro, set environmental impact assessment (EIA) as the most holistic approach to attain the goals of sustainable development. The impact of industrialization, urbanization and other activities affecting environment needs to be taken into account for sustainable development and cleaner environment. Used legally to give environmental clearance for initiating new projects, EIA is the holistic approach towards a greener environment. It also proves to be an important tool in providing environmental information when making decisions for various types of developmental plans. The environmental information primarily predicts what kinds of variations in the environment would occur if certain development plans are implemented in a specific way and how these changes can be managed if any one of the various alternatives is selected and implemented. Environmental impact assessment acts as a management tool with technical inputs and is not a supporting tool with additional management features. This difference is vital for the implementation of the EIA framework.

Goals and objectives The goals of EIA are (i) to amplify the ecological plan of the recommended project, (ii) to ensure the ecological acceptability of the recommendations evaluated to the capability of the area and the receiving ambiance, (iii) to ensure that resource is used suitably and professionally, (iv) to identity appropriate measures for mitigating the potential impacts of the proposal, and (v) to facilitate informed decision-making, including setting the environmental terms and conditions for implementing the proposal. Environmental impact assessment comprises a detailed study conducted on the basis of environmental assessment (EA) to decide the kind and level of effects an existing economic facility is having, or the proposed project would result into, on the natural environment. Its main objectives include: •

To help decide if the effects are feasible or need to be reduced for continuing the facility or proceeding with the proposed project.

•

To design/implement suitable monitoring, mitigation, and management measures.

•

To propose acceptable alternatives.

•

To prepare an environmental impact report (EIR). 90

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The objectives of EIA can be classified into two categories, that is immediate and long term. The immediate aim of EIA is to inform the process of decision-making by identifying the potentially significant environmental effects and risks of development proposals. The long-term objectives of EIA are to avoid irreversible changes and serious damage to the environment; to safeguard valuable resources; natural areas; and ecosystem components; to enhance the social aspects of proposal; to protect the health of humankind; and to ensure safety for them.

Guiding principles Environmental impact assessment is a ‘systemic process of identifying future consequences of a current or proposed action’. There are mainly eight guiding principles of EIA, that is (i) transparency, (ii) certainty, (iii) participation, (iv) practicability, (v) flexibility, (vi) cost-effectiveness, (vii) credibility, and (viii) accountability. The relationship between EIA and its guiding principles is depicted in Figure 1.

Figure 1.

EIA concept and eight guiding principles

Long-term and short-term impacts Short-term impact (example, a temporary remedy for an ailment, whereby advancement in the medicine can be hoped in the future) can be distinguished from long-term impact (example, invention of the photovoltaic effect, which

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led to the development of solar voltaic energy). The only flaw with the longterm impact is that it may have many long-term benefits, so one has to wait for a long time to reap the benefits. However, in developing countries more emphasis is given on short–term uses.

Reversible and irreversible impacts The impacts on the environment that can be rectified by physical efforts, natural process over a short period of time such that the environment is brought to its original state is referred to as reversible impact. The irreversible adverse environmental impacts not only degrade the environment, but also damage it to an extent beyond repair. They are called irreversible impacts. Various rehabilitation/resettlement or decommissioning activities may be considered and undertaken which may mitigate the adverse impacts of the reversible/irreversible events/actions to some extent and degree.

Cumulative impacts Cumulative impacts may be defined as the overall effects/disturbances of an event/action in addition to other already existing impacts, occurring at a specific place within a defined time period. The term ‘cumulative impacts’ is used because it means that all impacts are taken into consideration which occur over a period of time.

Benefits of environmental impact assessment There are several benefits of EIA that are as follows: •

Assists in decision-making by giving clear, well-structured and composed investigation of the results and outcome of the recommended projects.

•

Pre-emption or early extraction of unsound applications.

•

Assists in the selection of alternatives, including selection of the best practicable and most environment-friendly option.

•

Persuades both, in selecting assignment and devise by screening our ecologically unsound projects, and in modifying feasible projectsmitigation of negative environmental and social impacts.

•

Guides formal approval, including establishment of terms and conditions of project implementation and follow-up.

•

Results in best practice prediction and mitigation of the adverse effects of projects.

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•

Serves as an adaptive organizational learning process, in which the lessons of experience are incorporated into the overall policy, institutional framework, and project design-enhancement of positive aspects.

•

Incorporates stakeholder analysis.

•

Mitigates negative environmental and social impacts.

Process and guiding principles The EIA process is based on three core values: (i) integrity, (ii) utility, and (iii) sustainability. EIA is used as a planning mechanism to facilitate sustainable development by integrating environmental issues and concerns into a broad range of proposed activities. The process of EIA is governed by guiding principles that include EIA to be purposive, focused, adaptive, participative, transparent, rigorous, practical, credible, and efficient. Some of the key processes of EIA are screening, scoping (consultation, analysis and negotiation), impact analysis, mitigation, reporting, review, and decision making.

Conclusion Environmental impact assessment is a legal tool used for assessing and evaluating the adverse impacts of planned activities/projects well in advance to mitigate the potential adverse effect of the projects at the planning stage itself. The questions on environment and development, evolution and process of EIA, systems and practice of EIA in India, impact assessment approaches, strategic environmental assessment have been presented in this chapter.

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EXERCISES 1.

Which of the following impacts can be quantified as current actions that generate further actions? (a) Physical (b) Nibbling loss (c) Growth-inducing potential (d) Spatial and temporal crowding

2.

United Nations Conference on Environment and Development was held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil from (a) 3−14 June 1999 (b) 3−14 June 1992 (c) 4−30 May 2004 (d) 2−5 January 2000

3.

The most holistic approach, discussed in the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED) held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, to attain the goals of sustainable development is (a) Strategic environmental assessment (SEA) (b) Environmental impact assessment (EIA) (c) Environment Protection Agency (EPA) (d) sustainable development

4.

A systematic process for identifying future consequences of a current or proposed action is called (a) SEA (b) EIA (c) EPA (d) sustainable development

5.

Which of the following is undertaken so that the impacts, which occur over a period of time and affect the available resources, can be segregated into different types? (a) EIA (b) SEA (c) EPA (d) Cumulative impact analysis

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6.

To avoid irreversible changes and serious damage to the environment is the (a) long-term objective of EIA (b) short-term objective of EIA (c) basic principle of SEA (d) short-term goal of environment protection

7.

A management tool used at the project planning stage for integrating ecological features into designing and then implementing the same is (a) EPA (b) EIA (c) EPAC (d) SEA

8.

EIA process is based on which of the following core values? (a) Integrity and sustainability (b) Integrity, utility, and sustainability (c) Irreversibility, impact, and environment degradation (d) Only sustainability

9.

At (a) (b) (c) (d)

10.

The World Bank adopted and formulated ‘Operation Directives’ about the EIA in (a) 2000 (b) 1989 (c) 1997 (d) 2007

11.

The guiding principles of EIA are (a) simple and short-term assessment (b) purposive, focused, adaptive, and participative (c) transparent, rigorous, practical, credible, and efficient

the conceptual level, the idea of EIA was first implemented in 1969 in Italy 1999 in Japan 1969 in the USA 2000 in UK

(d) Both (b) and (c)

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12. Which of the following impacts may be more or less than the individual impacts of a single action or event? (a) Reversible (b) Cumulative (c) Irreversible (d) Long-term 13.

Which of the following terms is used legally to give environmental clearance for initiating new projects? (a) Environmental assessment (b) Sustainable development (c) Environmental impact assessment framework (d) Environmental impact assessment

14.

Which of the following key terms comprises the identification of major issues that need to be addressed by the EIA? (a) Scoping (b) Impact analysis (c) Reporting (d) Mitigation

15.

A leading multilateral development bank which provides loans and finances to the developing nations is (a) Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) (b) Ad hoc Committee on Environmental Assessment and Development Assistance (c) The World Bank (d) Development Assistance Committee

16.

The EIA process has to meet globally accepted standards of practice according to which of the following core values? (a) Sustainability (b) Integrity (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Utility

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17.

______ can check the periodic or annual reports on the execution and performance of the EIA systems. (a) Internal Monitoring and Evaluation Committee (b) EMP report (c) Auditor (d) EIA

18.

EIA was extended for covering several projects, which required the support of the (a) Planning Commission Boar (b) Central Government (c) Planning Investment Board (d) Public Investment Board

19.

During 1998–99, the surveys conducted in the villages of Bhadra Wildlife Sanctuary were (a) Ichnocarpus Frutescens (b) Ethno-botanical (c) Treatment of diabetes (d) Centella Asiatica

20. In (a) (b) (c) (d) 21.

India, which of the following EIA is mainly carried out? Sectoral Project-level Regional Strategic environmental assessment

Of the following, what can be considered as a part of dirt that has been dealt with earlier? (a) Vaporous emissions (b) Manufacturing (c) Dioxins (d) Particles filled by dissipated gases

22. In topography, which of the following features of the study area should be explained by using the latest satellite imagery? (a) Physiographical (b) Toposheet (c) Slope (d) Local 97

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23. Which of the following is produced by the AERMOD model? (a) US Environment Protection Agency (b) ISCST3 (c) Air quality index (d) Isopleths 24. Which of the following is an example of the GIS system? (a) Geographic Resources Analysis System Support (b) Geographic Resources Analysis System (c) Geographic Resources Analysis Support System (d) Geographic Analysis System 25. Which stage evaluates the significance of the effects after considering mitigation measures? (a) Evaluation (b) Prediction (c) Baseline data (d) Identification 26. Which of the following terms is used to assess if a development requires an EIA or a note? (a) Risk assessment (b) Screening (c) Scoping (d) Impact analysis 27.

Which of the following is an object or phenomenon having the potential of creating undesirable adverse consequences? (a) Exposure (b) Risk (c) Threat (d) Hazard

28. Which of the following requires the consultation of epidemiological and toxicological data? (a) Risk identification (b) Human health risks (c) Hazard identification (d) Immuno-suppressant toxin 98

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29.

Which of the following category of environmental authorities are involved in decision-making on pollution aspects of the proposed projects? (a) Health and safety authorities (b) Pollution controlling authorities (c) Regional and spatial decision-making authorities (d) Religion and global authorities

30. Which of the following is the amalgamation of all projected mitigation and monitoring actions? (a) EIA (b) Environmental management plan (EMP) (c) Mitigation (d) Decision-making 31.

Which of the following is one of the significant components of EMP? (a) Design phase (b) Construction phase (c) Environmental enhancement (d) Operation phase

32. The process of evaluating the likely effect of plans, programmes, and strategies on the environment, by public authorities is called (a) systematic environmental assessment (b) strategic environmental assessment (c) similar environmental impact (d) environmental impact assessment 33. Which of the following institutional models explains that the SEA provision is made through a similar and less formalized procedure/ process of policy and plan appraisal? (a) EIA based (b) Integrated policy and planning system (c) Sustainability appraisal (d) Environmental appraisal

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34. Which of the following concentrates on planned actions, such as new or altered rules, regulations, strategies, and programmes, at an advanced stage? (a) EIA (b) EEC (c) SEA (d) SEIA 35. At (a) (b) (c) (d)

the local level, SEA is implemented in projects and is therefore similar to performance assessment equivalent to EIA similar to hazard detection a support tool

36. Rather than simply treating the symptoms of environmental deterioration, SEA can address the causes of (a) air pollution (b) soil degradation (c) environmental impacts (d) technical regulations 37.

Which of the following decides the relevance of an SEA in relation to the development of a policy, plan, or programme (PPP) in the area under consideration? (a) Scoping (b) Monitoring (c) Screening (d) None of the above

38. Which of the following is an SEA process to find out the way in which development alternatives and proposals participate in environmentally sustainable progress? (a) Overall growth (b) Sustainability drive (c) EIA (d) Scoping

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39.

Which of the following methods may include regular work group meetings, newsletters, bulletin boards, and intranet sites? (a) Internal communication (b) External communication (c) Emergency preparedness and response (d) Operational control

40. EIA is used as a ______ mechanism to facilitate sustainable development. (a) purposive (b) transparent (c) adaptive (d) planning 41.

Which of the following key terms is used to check the quality of an EIA report? (a) Reporting (b) Impact analysis (c) Review (d) Decision-making

42. ______ refers to the situation of vulnerability to hazards. (a) Hazard (b) Risk (c) Exposure (d) Environmental risk assessment 43. Which of the following originated in 1978 as an effective market-based policy tool? (a) Environmental labelling (b) Blue Angel Programme (c) EU eco-labelling (d) Green Seal 44. The technique used to assess the environmental impacts related to all stages of a product’s life cycle is (a) EIA (b) life cycle assessment (c) life cycle costing (d) strategic environment assessment 101

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45. Which of the following systems may be implemented at an individual site, to a section operating at various sites, or to an entire company? (a) Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) (b) Environment Management System (EMS) (c) Environment Protection Agency (EPA) (d) Eco-Management and Audit Scheme (EMAS) 46. Which of the following is the long-term objective of EIA? (a) To enhance the financial aspects of project proposals (b) To safeguard valuable resources, natural areas, and ecosystem components (c) To allow the irreversible changes to the environment (d) To obtain a quantitative or qualitative detail of innate characteristics of the agent, who has the potential of causing adverse health effects due to exposure 47.

Which of the following is distinguishing the impacts from the transportation of raw and finished material, and recycling them after their usage? (a) Environmental auditing (b) Environmental management system (c) Life cycle assessment (d) Cradle to grave approach

48. Which of the following is an example of management performance indicator? (a) Raw material used per unit of product (b) Number of complaints from public or employees (c) Contaminant concentration in surface soil (d) Change in groundwater level 49.

In which of the following amendments was the EIA made mandatory for the construction of industrial estates? (a) Amendment on 7 July 2004 (b) Amendment on 4 August 2003 (c) Amendment on 4 July 2005 (d) Amendment in September 2003

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50. According to ______, clearance of site was made compulsory for petrochemical complexes, greenfield airport, and refineries. (a) Amendment on 7 July 2004 (b) Amendment on 4 August 2003 (c) Amendment on 4 July 2005 (d) Amendment in September 2003

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CHAPTER 6 Pollution and Disaster Management

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Introduction By pollution we understand contamination of air, land, or water by any form of material. The energy that can affect the ecological balance also causes pollution. Pollution has a detrimental affect on the entire biological systems and harms specific living beings. Pollution is caused mainly due to human activities, that is urbanization, industrialization, deforestation, disposal of human wastes into waterbodies such as rivers, and disposal of human activity-based solid wastes into land. It is also caused due to storms, highspeed winds, floods, and other natural activities. However, major pollution is caused due to human-induced activities. There are mainly three types of pollution: air pollution, water pollution, and land pollution.

Air pollution Air pollutants are substances that when in contact with air can cause harm to the environment and human beings. These pollutants may be biological material or chemical substances that may be visible to naked eyes or may be invisible. A hole has been created in the ozone layer because of intense air pollution and use of ozone depleting substances. The ozone layer filters the harmful ultraviolet (UV) rays of the sun from entering earth. The effects of air pollution extend beyond contaminating the air that one breathes and causes further harm when these pollutants fall on land in the form of acid rain. Major sources of air pollution are industrial sources like burning of fossil fuels in thermal power plant and motor vehicles, burning of firewood in cooking, release of gases such as methane, carbon dioxide, and sulphur dioxide. due to biological fermentation of organic matters in open fields.

Water pollution Water pollution refers to contamination of waterbodies with pollutants that are harmful to human beings and other living plants. Water pollution is caused due to basic function of human activities, that is drinking, bathing, washing, and cooking. Wastes of industries, sewage, nuclear, and oil. are other sources of water pollution. Acid rain, a resultant of air pollution, contains sulphuric acid and nitric acid that falls over the surface water polluting it as a consequence. Some natural causes such as volcanic eruptions and algal bloom also cause water pollution. Water pollution is a threat to humans because consumption of polluted water causes many waterborne diseases. The sources of water pollution could be point sources that include effluents being discharged into water or non-point sources in which the contaminant pass through various channels before finally being discharged 106

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into the waterbodies, for example rainwater from busy roads, water from agricultural fields, wastewater from industries, acid rains.

Land pollution Land pollution is caused when harmful pollutants contaminate land. Contaminating land can lead to a chain of events that include polluting groundwater which causes illness and diseases in people living in the area and using the polluted water. Land pollution is largely localized and its effects on living beings residing in the area can be drastic. Major sources of land pollution are municipal solid waste, industrial waste, biomedical waste, agrochemical pollutants, micro-, and macro pollutants, etc.

Disaster A disaster is a mishap or hazard that causes huge loss to life and property, and disrupts the balance of economy. According to Disaster Management Act, 2005, disaster means, “a catastrophe, mishap, calamity or accident or by accident or negligence which result in substantial loss of life or human suffering or damage to, destruction of property, or damage to, or degradation of environment. It is of such nature or magnitude as to be beyond the coping capacity of the community of the affected area.” A disaster can be either natural or man-made. Natural disasters are hazardous events caused by sudden changes in the environment. Man-made disasters are caused by human activities such as civil disruption, war, terrorism, technological faults or breakdown.

Environmental disaster An environmental disaster is a mishap or hazardous event that directly influences the environment and brings serious alterations to it. Examples of environmental disaster are hydro-meteorological, geo-physical, biological, chemical, and nuclear disasters. These disasters directly affect the ecosystem and may lead to such grave consequences with continued affect witnessed over the next few years or even next few generations. The common causes of environmental disasters are haphazard population growth, poor planning, and environmental degradation.

Disaster management Disaster management policies and frameworks are designed to guide and assist disaster control and rescue authorities before and after a disaster. The disaster management policy framework is divided into four main stages of 107

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

disaster management process: (i) prevention, (ii) preparation, (iii) response, and (iv) recovery. The disaster management policies are categorized on the basis of disaster research, policy and governance, disaster risk assessment, disaster mitigation, disaster preparedness, disaster response, disaster relief, and post-disaster assessment. After disaster, the next step is rehabilitation that involves the process of restoring balance in lives of the injured disaster victims. Restoration of balance into the lives of individuals helps them contribute enthusiastically in the reconstruction of the economy.

Conclusion Pollution control is necessary for protecting humans and environment, and in mitigating disasters. Disaster and pollution are related to some extent. In this chapter we have covered air and water pollution management; solid and hazardous waste management; urban environmental management; environmental-, natural-, and human-induced disasters; disaster management, etc.

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EXERCISES 1.

Identify the term used to describe the contamination of air, land, or water. (a) Contaminated water (b) Pollution (c) Industrialization (d) Barrier

2.

Which of the following leads to a detrimental effect on the entire biological system? (a) Healthy environment (b) Pollution (c) Chlorofluorocarbons (d) Acid rain

3.

Air pollutants can be (a) biological substances (b) bacteria (c) fungi (d) chemical components

4.

Detailed information about ______ chemicals that are used to increase crop yield should be provided to every farmer. (a) heavy (b) light (c) harsh (d) non-toxic

5.

Which one of the following countries has the largest public transport system in the world? (a) India (b) USA (c) UK (d) Africa

6.

The necessity to spread ______ is of prime importance in order to ensure that every individual does his/her best to curb pollution. (a) air pollution (b) pollution 109

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(c) awareness (d) the usage of chemicals 7.

The design for the environment is briefly categorized into ______ stages. (a) two (b) three (c) four (d) five

8.

Our constant interaction and interference with nature has led to the ______ of the environment. (a) adsorption (b) depletion (c) absorption (d) incineration

9.

The main component of particulate matter in the air is (a) sulphur (b) white carbon (c) black carbon (d) inorganic matter

10.

Which of the following methods is used to separate fine and ultra-fine particles from a gas before it is sent into the atmosphere? (a) (b) (c) (d)

11.

Carbon capture technologies Gaseous control technologies Electrostatic precipitator Scrubbers

Which of the following treatments is restricted to the separation of large impurities? (a) Secondary treatment (b) Primary treatment (c) Descriptive treatment (d) Final treatment

12. Secondary water treatment is also known as (a) wastewater treatment (b) biological treatment 110

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(c) biological wastewater treatment (d) water treatment 13.

Incineration reduces the solid mass of waste by (a) 80%−85% (b) 100% (c) 60% (d) 20%

14.

Which of the following is an integrated process of waste collection and waste treatment? (a) Municipal solid waste management (b) Waste management (c) Solid waste management (d) Water management

15.

Which of the following wastes is also known as municipal waste? (a) Hazardous (b) Household (c) Industrial (d) Hospital

16.

Which of the following is the main disadvantage of a landfill? (a) Little odour (b) Low water (c) Less cost (d) Damage to the environment

17.

Which of the following wastes is harmful to health? (a) Hazardous (b) Non-hazardous (c) Medical (d) Household

18.

Which of the following characteristics reveals that how easily hazardous waste can catch fire? (a) Flammability (b) Reactivity (c) Corrosiveness (d) Toxicity 111

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19.

Acid rain, a resultant of air pollution, contains (a) sulphuric acid and nitric acid (b) Acetic acid and ethane (c) Hydrochloric acid and methane (d) None of the above

20. ______ in the waste poses the grave risk of spreading diseases and illnesses. (a) Pathogen (b) Hydrogen (c) Oxygen (d) Nitrogen 21.

Which of the following belts is also known as the lungs of a city? (a) Black (b) Green (c) White (d) Red

22. ______ help in providing the city people unpolluted air to breathe. (a) Green spaces (b) Water (c) Wind (d) Soil 23. Which of the following systems is helpful in dealing with socioeconomic and environmental issues? (a) EM (b) MS (c) REM (d) UEM 24. Which of the following is/are used as a source of energy? (a) Water (b) Soil (c) Green spaces (d) Wind

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25. Which of the following is a component of built environment? (a) Urban design (b) Land use (c) Transportation (d) All of the above 26. Which of the following countries are vulnerable to disasters? (a) Developing countries (b) Developed countries (c) Underdeveloped countries (d) Foreign countries 27.

Marine debris is a major ______ disaster around the world. (a) air (b) land (c) water (d) biodiversity

28. Which of the following hazards include landslides and earthquakes? (a) Endogenous (b) Exogenous (c) Biological (d) Chemical 29.

Hurricanes are good examples of ______ risks. (a) financial (b) exogenous (c) endogenous (d) biodiversity

30. Natural disasters can be classified as (a) Endogenous (b) Exogenous (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Agricultural disasters 31.

Which of the following scales is the most popular for measuring earthquake magnitudes? (a) Richter scale (b) Likert scale 113

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

(c) Social distance scale (d) Graphic rating scale 32. ______ is very important for mitigating earthquake impact. (a) Community preparedness (b) Public education (c) Planning (d) Earthquake 33. Human-induced disasters are also known as (a) biological disasters (b) chemical disasters (c) anthropogenic disasters (d) induced disasters 34. ______ are used by the most of the industries in production. (a) Toxic elements (b) Medicines (c) Chemicals (d) Acids 35. Which one of the following is a stage of the disaster management process? (a) Mitigation (b) Preparedness (c) Response (d) All of the above 36. The disaster management cycle is divided according to the ______ main stages of the disaster management process. (a) three (b) two (c) four (d) five 37.

______ activities are taken up in anticipation, during, or after a disaster. (a) Disaster preparedness (b) Disaster mitigation

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(c) Disaster response (d) Disaster relief and recovery 38. Riverbanks are installed with bunkers, levees, reservoirs, and minidams to ______ the damages in the area that could be caused due to floods. (a) increase (b) reduce (c) moderate (d) enhance 39.

______ is the first step in understanding how badly a potential disaster would affect an area. (a) Forecasting (b) Disaster forecasting (c) Disaster management (d) Disaster vulnerability

40. ______ implies quantifying the losses from a potential disaster. (a) Exposure quantification (b) Response analysis (c) Hazard identification (d) Risk analysis 41.

Which of the following is a source of water pollution? (a) Nuclear waste (b) Oil (c) Macro- and micro pollutants (d) Sewage

42. Which of the following organisms require oxygen for their metabolism? (a) Aerobic (b) Anaerobic (c) Biotic (d) Abiotic 43. Recycling and reuse of material facilitates ______ management. (a) pollution (b) water

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(c) land (d) disaster 44. Which of the following uses the force of gravity to remove solid particles? (a) Cyclones (b) Electrostatic precipitators (c) Settling chambers (d) Thermal power plants 45. The process of waste minimization involves ______ steps. (a) three (b) four (c) six (d) seven 46. Which of the following methods is helpful in promoting the concept of energy conservation? (a) Standards and labelling (b) Less strengthening agencies (c) Higher education (d) Promoting disaster management 47.

Which of the following studies focuses on the source of emission as well as the method of managing the emission? (a) Air quality monitoring (b) Health impact study (c) Emission inventory study (d) Cost-benefit analysis

48. In ______ process, wastewater is collected in a basin and is constantly moved. (a) activated sludge (b) trickling filters (c) catalytic converter (d) rotating biological contractors

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49.

Which of the following is produced by burning the inorganic substances? (a) Heat (b) Waste (c) Ash (d) Fuel gas

50. Which of the following is a major source of solid waste generation? (a) (b) (c) (d) 51.

Water Freshwater Wastewater Industries

Which of the following systems is used for disposing both small and large quantities of waste? (a) Mapping system (b) Recycling (c) Reusing (d) Hazardous waste mapping system

52. Which of the following schedules identified hazardous wastes by means of waste streams and industrial processes? (a) Schedule I (b) Schedule II (c) Schedule III (d) Schedule IV 53. Which of the following companies are owned, managed, and financed by businessmen? (a) Private companies (b) Governmental organizations (c) Public companies (d) Public banks 54. Which of the following tools is used for hazard or risk mapping? (a) Geographic information system (b) Hazard mapping (c) Environmental impact assessment (d) Strategic environmental organization 117

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55. In the terminology of meteorology, an area of closed and circular fluid motion, that rotates in the same direction as the earth, is known as a (a) drought (b) cyclone (c) heavy rain (d) flood 56. ______ is a piece of lava, which has taken a round shape while soaring through the air and has hardened in that shape. (a) Volcanic bomb (b) Dust (c) Cinder (d) Volcanic block 57.

______ is an overflow of water from a waterbody that submerges land, which is not normally covered by water. (a) Flood (b) Sturzstrom (c) Vulnerability analysis (d) Hazard mapping

58. Which of the following hazard classes represents the miscellaneous dangerous goods? (a) Hazard Class 1 (b) Hazard Class 2 (c) Hazard Class 9 (d) Hazard Class 4 59.

______ is/are a reason of disease spread in disaster situations. (a) Cyclone effects (b) Food spoilage (c) Indirect effects (d) Drought effects

60. The response from the Central Government can be categorized into (a) policy response (b) administrative response (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Cabinet Committees

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CHAPTER 7 Air Pollution

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Introduction Pollution in air exists if gases, solids, or liquids present in the atmosphere are in high quantities and when mixed with air harm humans, organisms, or materials. The cause of the pollution could be natural phenomenon, that is forest fire, eruption of a volcano or because of human-induced activities, such as burning of fossil fuels including coal burning in power stations and industries, domestic cooking, mining activities, etc. Primary air pollutants are harmful chemicals that are released directly from a source into the atmosphere, including particulate matter (solid particles, liquid suspensions, soil particles, soot, lead, asbestos, sulphuric acid droplets), oxides of carbon and nitrogen and sulphur dioxide, hydrocarbons (methane and benzene). Secondary air pollutants are also harmful chemicals that are produced from chemical reactions of primary pollutants. For example, ozone and sulphur trioxide.

Air pollution from industries Exhaust gases from various industries, such as chemical industry automobile industry, dairy industry, electronic industry, garment industry, oil industry, power industry, fertilizer, cement industry, when exposed to the open air without any treatment, cause air pollution. For example, the rubber industry releases carbon monoxide, carbon dioxide, and black carbon in abundance, while the pulp and paper industry releases carbon monoxide, carbon dioxide, hydrogen sulphide, etc.

Air pollution from automobiles Rapid industrialization and urbanization has given rise to an increase in a number of motor vehicles used for transportation of goods and travelling/ commutation by human beings. Worldwide, the number of vehicle is increasing exponentially. Smoke emitted from motor vehicle contains carbon monoxide and nitric oxide which react with the oxygen present in atmosphere, resulting in the formation of nitrogen peroxide. Sulphur monoxide from diesel vehicles lead to the formation of sulphur dioxide in the atmosphere. Lead coming out of motor vehicles is a poisonous material and when humans or animals inhale it, it gets deposited on their lungs.

Air pollution from forest fires Forest fire is a worldwide problem. It is caused either through accident or through deliberate actions of humans. It releases carbon dioxide in the atmosphere and increases the temperature which causes death of many 120

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species in the forest. Sulphur dioxide, nitric oxide, carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide are a few harmful gases released through forest fires that mix with atmosphere.

Smog Smog, an outdoor pollution, is formed by the combination of smoke, fog, and chemical pollutants. It poisons the air. Photochemical smog is formed by the chemical reactions between sunlight, unburnt hydrocarbons, ozone, and other pollutants.

Effects of outdoor air pollutions All forms of air pollutants have a bad effect on the health of human beings. At lower levels, air pollutants irritate eyes and cause inflammation of respiratory tract. They also accentuate skin allergies. Many pollutants also depress the immune system and make the human body prone to infections. Carbon monoxide, for example, from automobile emissions can cause headache at lower level, and mental impairment and even death at higher level. Particulate matter can reduce visibility, soil the clothes, corrode metals, and erode buildings. On a larger scale air pollution causes acid rain, ozone layer depletion, and global warming.

Particulate air pollution Particulate air pollution occurs when particles of unwanted substances such as dust, smoke or chemicals enter the atmosphere, making it unhealthy for living organisms. Particulate air pollution control systems are used to remove unwanted particulates from air.

Control of air pollution Outdoor air pollution can be controlled or reduced by adopting cleaner technologies, reducing pollution at source, implementing laws and regulations, creating awareness and education by showing the effects of pollution, and introducing appropriate transportation policies. Examples of air pollution control systems, include settling chambers, scrubbers, and cyclone separators. Gaseous control technologies are used to clean the emitted polluted gas into atmosphere. Some of the techniques used are absorption, adsorption, biological treatment, oxidation, reduction, condensation, etc. Carbon capture technology is used to release the carbon dioxide produced in various industrial processes in a controlled manner in the atmosphere. Automobile emissions can be reduced by making cleaner and fuel efficient 121

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cars, using lead-free petrol in existing cars, shifting from diesel to natural gas, and introducing policies that encourage the use of mass transit systems and discourage the use of personal transport.

Air quality index Air quality index (AQI) is used to depict the status of ambient air quality through selected pollutants present in air. These pollutants are sulphur dioxide, nitrogen dioxide, lead, ozone, PM10, PM2.5, carbon monoxide and ammonia, on short term (24 hr) basis. There are six AQI categories, namely good, satisfactory, moderately polluted, poor, very poor and severe. Each of these categories is decided based on ambient concentration values of air pollutants and their likely impact on health. In India, the National Air Quality Index was launched on 06 April 2015 by Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change.

Conclusion Clean air is directly proportional to the health of organisms, including human beings. It is necessary to keep the air quality within the prescribed AQI of the country. The questions related to various aspects of air pollution have been presented in this chapter.

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EXERCISES 1.

If the level of gases, solids, or liquids present in the atmosphere is high enough to harm humans, other organisms, or materials, it is (a) water pollution (b) air pollution (c) solid waste pollution (d) gaseous pollution

2.

Air pollution is caused by (a) forest fire (b) eruption of a volcano (c) mixing of dust into atmosphere (d) All of the above

3.

Which of the following statements is not true about air pollution? (a) Air pollution is caused only by human activities. (b) Urban areas have high air pollution. (c) A burning forest produces air pollution. (d) Air pollution is caused by volcanoes.

4.

The chemicals that are released directly from a source into the atmosphere are called (a) primary air pollutants (b) human induced pollutants (c) secondary air pollutants (d) None of the above

5.

The harmful chemicals that are produced from chemical reactions involving primary pollutants are called (a) primary air pollutants (b) human induced pollutants (c) secondary air pollutants (d) None of the above

6.

Which one of the following is not a primary air pollutant? (a) Particulate matter (b) Sulphur dioxide (c) Nitrogen oxide (d) Hydrogen 123

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

7.

Which one of the following is a secondary air pollutant? (a) Particulate matter (b) Methane (c) Nitrogen oxide (d) Ozone

8.

The sources of outdoor air pollution are (a) burning of fossil fuels in automobiles (b) mining activities leading to dust and fires (c) emissions from decaying organic matters (d) All of the above

9.

The major contributors of outdoor air pollution are (a) industries and automobiles (b) agricultural activities (c) rivers (d) rains

10.

Lead pollution in air is caused mainly by (a) automobiles (b) agricultural activities (c) mining activities (d) forest fires

11.

Smog is caused by (a) pollutants due to mining activities (b) dust particles (c) a combination of smoke, fog, and chemical pollutants (d) water pollutants

12. Urban heat island effect is found in the (a) cold areas in the cities as compared to surrounding rural areas (b) crowded urban areas that are warmer than the surrounding rural areas (c) slum areas in a city (d) forest area between cities

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13.

According to a 2014 World Health Organization Report on Outdoor Air Pollution, air quality is poorest in the (a) American region (b) European region (c) Southeast Asian region (d) African countries

14.

Which of the following cities has been ranked as the most polluted city in the WHO Outdoor Air Pollution database 2014? (a) Karachi (b) Doha (c) Peshawar (d) Delhi

15.

Which of the statements is not true in terms of reducing outdoor air pollution? (a) Making cleaner and fuel-efficient cars. (b) Using lead-free petrol in existing cars. (c) Shifting from diesel to natural gas for trucks and buses. (d) Using diesel-based rather than CNG-based vehicles.

16.

The Indian Government began regulating automobile emissions in (a) 1970 (b) 1985 (c) 1991 (d) 2002

17.

From Bharat Stage-I to Bharat Stage-IV vehicles, the emission reduction is of the order of (a) 10% (b) 50% (c) 60% (d) 90%

18.

Of the following, what is not the cause of indoor air pollution? (a) Mosquito repellents (b) Pesticides (c) Mining activities (d) Cleaning agents 125

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19.

According to Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) of USA, which of the following is not one of the six major pollutants? (a) Ozone (b) Carbon monoxide (c) Nitrogen oxide (d) Carbon dioxide

20. The Pollution Standard Index (PSI) scale spans from (a) 0−200 (b) 0−300 (c) 0−400 (d) 0−500 21.

Which of the following is an organic gas? (a) Hydrocarbons (b) Aldehydes (c) Ketones (d) Ammonia

22. Which of the following is an inorganic gas? (a) Carbon monoxide (b) Hydrogen sulphide (c) Chlorine (d) All of the above 23. The major contribution of carbon monoxide comes from (a) motor vehicles (b) industrial processes (c) stationary fuel combustion (d) None of the above 24. Fugitive emissions consist of (a) street dust (b) dust from construction activities (c) dust from farm cultivation (d) All of the above

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25. Ozone is found in (a) mesosphere (b) ionosphere (c) stratosphere (d) exosphere 26. Ozone is formed in the upper atmosphere by a photochemical reaction with (a) (b) (c) (d) 27.

ultraviolet solar radiation infrared radiation visible light All of the above

The principal source of volatile organics (hydrocarbons) is (a) transportation (b) industrial processes (c) stationary fuel combustion (d) volcanoes

28. The function of catalytic converter in an automobile is to control emissions of (a) Unburnt hydrocarbon (b) CO and H (c) CO and CO2 (d) CO and NO2 29.

The threshold concentration of SO2 in any industrial activity should not be permitted beyond (a) 2 ppm (b) 3 ppm (c) 4 ppm (d) 5 ppm

30. The threshold limit of benzene is (a) 15 ppm (b) 20 ppm (c) 25 ppm (d) 30 ppm

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31.

Which of the following is used as an anti-knock compound in gasoline? (a) Tetramethyl lead (b) Tetraethyl lead (c) Tetrimethyl lead (d) Tetriethyl lead

32. The boiler flue gas is source of (a) HCl (b) HF (c) NO (d) volatile organic compounds 33. Which of the following is responsible for the emission of black carbon in the atmosphere? (a) Diesel vehicles (b) CNG-based vehicles (c) Electric vehicles (d) LPG-based vehicles 34. Which of the following causes black carbon emissions in the atmosphere? (a) LPG cookstoves (b) PNG cookstoves (c) Biomass-based cookstoves (d) Electric ovens 35. As per the latest report of the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change, which of the following statements is correct? (a) Over a 100-year period, the black carbon found in the particulate matter has decreased. (b) Over a 100-year period, the black carbon found in the particulate matter is twice that of CO2. (c) Over a 100-year period, the black carbon found in the particulate matter is 800 times more potent than CO2. (d) CO2 is 100 times more potent than black carbon.

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36. Black carbon belongs to the basket of pollutants known as (a) long-lived climate forcers (b) short-lived climate forcers (c) non-existing pollutants (d) safe pollutants which are not harmful to human health 37.

Which of the following greenhouse gases stays in the air for over 100 years? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Carbon dioxide Methane Nitrous oxide Sulphur hexafluoride

38. The black carbon is not notorious for (a) warming impacts (b) accelerating ice melt rate in arctic, Himalayan region (c) interfering with cloud formation and rainfall pattern (d) cold impacts 39.

Black carbon is a product of (a) complete combustion of LPG (b) incomplete combustion of biomass and diesel vehicles (c) complete combustion of biomass (d) All of the above

40. Among the various fractions of particulate matter, which of the following statements is not correct? (a) Organic carbon has cooling effect. (b) Sulphate has cooling effect. (c) Organic carbon has heating effect. (d) Black carbon is light absorbing. 41.

In the global black carbon emissions, which of the following is responsible for about 25% of black carbon emissions? (a) Transport sector with diesel consumption (b) Transport sector with petrol consumption (c) Brick kilns (d) Cookstove burning

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42. The black carbon pollution inventory in the USA and Europe is dominated by (a) transport black carbon (b) agricultural burning (c) cookstove burning (d) industrial furnace burning 43. Which of the following is the occasional cause of air pollution? (a) Mining (b) Driving automobiles (c) Industrial furnace burning (d) Celebrating a festival 44. Tiny particles of solid matter which are suspended in a gas or liquid are called (a) aerosols (b) suspended particles (c) particulate matter (d) dust particles 45. The size of coarse particulate matter ranges from (a) 2.5 Fm to 10 Fm (b) 1.0 Fm to 2.5 Fm (c) 0.5 Fm to 1.0 Fm (d) 0.1 Fm to 0.5 Fm 46. Which of the following is not a particulate air pollution control system? (a) Settling chambers (b) Fabric filters (c) Cyclone separators (d) Water filters 47.

A catalytic converter reduces the pollutants and emits (a) CO2 (b) N2 (c) O2 (d) All of the above

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48. CNG stands for (a) compressed natural gas (b) combined natural gas (c) compressed neutral gas (d) catalytic natural gas 49.

Air Quality Index does not measure (a) ozone (b) fine particulate matter (c) sulphur dioxide (d) methane

50. In (a) (b) (c) (d)

an automobile, a catalytic converter is fixed in the exhaust combustion chamber governor fuel pump

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CHAPTER 8 Water Pollution

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Introduction Water pollution is the contamination of water sources, that is ponds, lakes, rivers, groundwater, and oceans. Water pollution occurs when pollutants are discharged directly or indirectly into waterbodies without treatment of harmful compounds. Water pollution affects plants and organisms living in these polluted waterbodies and human beings using the polluted water.

Pollutants of water Many kinds of pollutants, mostly because of human activities, contaminate water sources; however, some natural activities also contribute to water pollution. The main categories of water pollutants are infectious organisms, such as parasitic worms, viruses and bacteria from infected organisms as well as human and animals wastes, organic compounds, such as acids, salts and heavy metals (lead and mercury) from industrial effluents, surface runoff and household cleaning agents, inorganic nutrients such as nitrogen and phosphorous from animal waste, plant residues and fertilizer runoff, and sediments (excessive soil particles). These agents make water unfit for use. Radioactive substances and hot water from power plants and industrial processes also lower the oxygen levels and pollute the water. The major industrial pollutants are discharged by distillery and fermentation industry, sugar industry, pulp and paper industry, tannery industry, chemical industry, food industry, dairy and beverages industry, dyeing and textile industry. The effluents of these industries need to be treated before being discharged into river or any waterbody. Exclusive extraction of water leads to natural pollution of groundwater. Groundwater gets polluted because of the pollutants from septic tanks, landfills, hazardous waste dumps and underground tanks containing petrol, oil, chemicals, etc. Groundwater pollution has long lasting effects.

Biomagnification Biomagnification is the increase in concentration of a substance, such as, pesticides that occur in food chain. The pollutants enter the first organism and move up the chain as the next organism consumes the first one.

Measurement of water quality Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) increases the degree of water pollution from oxygen-demanding wastes and plant nutrients. BOD is the amount of dissolved oxygen needed to breakdown to organic material in specified conditions. 134

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Total dissolved solid (TDS) is a measure of the combined content of all organic and inorganic substances contained in a liquid. The presence of disease-causing organisms is a measure of colonies of coliform bacteria present in a 100 mL sample of water. Drinking water should not contain any coliform colony, while swimming pool water can contain up to 200 colonies per 100 mL.

Wastewater treatment Treatment of wastewater is necessary. This is because every litre of wastewater discharged by an industry pollutes on an average 8 litres of freshwater. The first step to freshwater purification is to use a chemical that makes the suspended particles settle down. The water is then filtered and disinfected. The most common disinfectant is chlorine. Wastewater, including sewage has to pass through several stages of treatment. The primary treatment removes suspended particles by screening and settling. The secondary treatment uses microorganisms to decompose the organic material in the wastewater. The tertiary treatment is a complex biological and chemical process that removes the remaining pollutants such as minerals, metals, organic compounds, and viruses. Eco-friendly methods can be used for treating wastewater by combining human efforts and environment. These methods include constructed wet lands (with vegetation and microorganisms) and aerobic treatment. When wastewater is fed to wetlands, the plants/organisms clean the water by taking away the organic waste. Anaerobic treatment of wastewater is carried out by those bacteria or organisms that do not need oxygen for their activities. Reverse osmosis (RO) method, ultraviolet (UV) method, distillation method, and plants filters are some methods used for wastewater treatment.

Conclusion Wastewater pollution and its treatment is a vast subject which cannot be covered in this write-up. There are many treatment processes that are in vogue. These include activated sludge, tricking filters, rotating biological contractors, wetlands construction, and anaerobic treatment, and slug treatment. Treated wastewater can be used for non-potable purposes too. These aspects have been covered in form of multiple choice questions in this chapter.

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EXERCISES 1.

Which of the following units is not used to measure turbidity of water? (a) NTU (b) ATU (c) JTU (d) FTU

2.

Which of the following is not a method of purifying water? (a) Reverse osmosis (b) Ultraviolet radiation (c) Distillation (d) Evaporation from a pond

3.

A technique used to determine the concentration of odour compounds in a sample is known as (a) stripping (b) settling (c) flushing (d) chlorination

4.

In filtration, the amount of dissolved solids passing through the filters is (a) the difference between total solids and suspended solids (b) the sum of total solids and suspended solids (c) independent of suspended solids (d) None of the above

5.

Which of the following methods can reduce the total dissolved solids (TDS) in water? (a) Distillation (b) Reverse osmosis (c) Ion exchange (d) All of the above

6.

According to the United States Geological Survey, water having less than 1000 mL/L of the total dissolved solids is (a) freshwater (b) slightly saline 136

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(c) moderately saline (d) brine water 7.

Which of the following causes alkalinity in natural water? (a) Potassium carbonate (b) Potassium bicarbonate (c) Sodium carbonate (d) All of the above

8.

Which of the following causes alkalinity as well as hardness in natural water? (a) Calcium carbonate (b) Calcium bicarbonate (c) Magnesium carbonate (d) All of the above

9.

Temporary hardness in water is caused due to (a) magnesium carbonate (b) calcium sulphate (c) magnesium sulphate (d) magnesium chloride

10.

Permanent hardness in water is caused due to (a) Magnesium carbonate (b) Magnesium bicarbonate (c) Magnesium sulphate (d) All of the above

11.

According to the World Health Organization, the soft water has 0 to _____ mL/L of CaCO3. (a) 30 (c) 60 (b) 90 (d) 120

12. The teeth of children appear mottled and discoloured due to the presence of (s) fluorides (b) chlorides

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(c) hardness (d) All of the above 13.

Fluorides can be removed by (a) reverse osmosis (b) lime softening (c) ion exchange (d) All of the above

14.

The source of arsenic in water is (a) industrial waste (b) fertilizers (c) phosphate rocks (d) All of the above

15.

The process of nutrient enrichment is termed as (a) eutrophication (b) limiting nutrients (c) enrichment (d) schistosomiasis

16.

Freshwater lakes are most often limited by (a) nitrogen (b) phosphorus (c) carbon (d) None of the above

17.

Which of the following is not a water-borne disease? (a) Typhoid (b) Scabies (c) Cholera (d) Hepatitis

18.

Which of the following is not a water-hygiene disease? (a) Leprosy (b) Conjunctivitis (c) Trachoma (d) Diarrhoea

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19.

Which of the following is by far the leading cause of water pollution? (a) Mining (b) Factories (c) Sewage treatment plants (d) Agricultural activities

20. According to the World Health Organization (WHO), the number of people on earth who do not have access to clean drinking water are estimated to be (a) 1 out of 100 (b) 1 out of 50 (c) 1 out of 20 (d) 1 out of 6 21.

Of the following organisms, the one that is least likely to cause a disease is (a) bacteria (b) protozoa (c) algae (d) parasitic worm

22. A good water quality indicator is the presence of the number of (a) ducks (b) fish (c) turtles (d) coliform bacteria 23. To be considered safe for drinking, a 100 mL sample of water should contain _______ colonies of coliform bacteria. (a) 0 (b) 5 (c) 10 (d) 100 24. To be considered safe for swimming, a 100 mL sample of water should contain _______ or fewer colonies of coliform bacteria. (a) 10 (b) 50 139

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(c) 100 (d) 200 25. A body of water can be depleted of its oxygen by (a) viruses and parasitic worms (b) organic wastes (c) sediments and suspended matter (d) organic compounds, such as oil, plastics, solvents, and detergents 26. Which of the following is a point source of water pollution? (a) Offshore oil wells (b) Livestock feedlots (c) Urban lands (d) Crop lands 27.

Which of the following is a non-point source of water pollution? (a) Sewage treatment plant (b) Electric power plant (c) Active and inactive coal mines (d) Logged forest

28. To determine the presence and concentration of water pollutants, scientists are least likely to use (a) chemical analysis of water samples (b) satellite photographs (c) analysis of indicator species (d) genetically-engineered bacteria and yeasts (e) chemical analysis of sediment 29.

BOD is (a) a measure of the organic matter present in water (b) usually less than COD (c) biochemical oxygen demand (d) All of the above

30. BOD/COD ratio will always be (a) equal to one (b) less than one (c) more than one (d) None of the above 140

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31.

BOD measures (a) industrial pollution (b) air pollution (c) pollution capacity of effects (d) dissolved oxygen needed by microbes to decompose organic waste

32. Excess fluoride in drinking water is likely to cause (a) (b) (c) (d)

blue baby syndrome fluorosis change in taste and odour intestinal irritation

33. Fluoride pollution mainly affects (a) kidney (b) brain (c) heart (d) teeth 34. Which of the following statement is true with regard to ecological sanitation? (a) Ecological sanitation toilet uses water to carry away the solid waste. (b) Ecological sanitation considers the human excreta as waste. (c) Ecological sanitation increases the load on sewage plants. (d) It gives us pleasant-smelling compost. 35. Septic tank is an (a) aerobic attached growth treatment system (b) aerobic suspended growth biological treatment system (c) anaerobic attached growth biological treatment system (d) anaerobic suspended growth treatment system 36. The disease caused by eating fish inhabiting mercury-contaminated water is (a) Bright’s disease (b) Hiroshima episode (c) Minamata disease (d) Osteosclerosis 141

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37.

Which of the following is not a marine pollutant? (a) Oil (b) Plastic (c) Dissolved oxygen (d) All of the above

38. Which of the following is a major source of thermal pollution in waterbodies? (a) Sewage treatment plant (b) Solid waste disposal sites (c) Thermal power plant (d) All of the above 39.

Which of the following is not a wastewater treatment method? (a) Activated sludge (b) Trickling filters (c) Rotating biological contractors (d) Water soluble stone treatment

40. What is a wastewater treatment? (a) Physical treatment (b) Chemical treatment (c) Biological treatment (d) All of the above 41.

What is sludge? (a) Waste collected from primary treatment of wastewater (b) Waste collected from secondary treatment of wastewater (c) Waste collected from primary and secondary treatments of wastewater (d) None of the above

42. What are the different ways of the treatment of sludge? (a) Anaerobic digestion (b) Aerobic digestion (c) Incineration (d) All of the above

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43. Soil, gravel, sawdust, and other coarse material are called (a) primary sludge (b) secondary sludge (c) wastewater treatment materials (d) None of the above 44. The treated wastewater cannot be used for (a) agricultural reuse (b) industrial reuse (c) drinking purpose (d) recreational impoundment 45. Which of the following techniques is not a primary method used to remove waste from water? (a) Sedimentation (b) Skimming (c) Anaerobic digestion (d) Cleaning through soil, gravel, sawdust, and other coarse material 46. Grey water is (a) water of grey colour (b) wastewater from household (c) sewage wastewater (d) wastewater from agricultural field 47.

Which of the following properties is not that of grey water? (a) Grey water is not very high in nutrients. (b) Grey water has very high content of toxins. (c) The pH level of grey water is basic. (d) Grey water contains some amount of dirt and impurities.

48. Ecological sanitation does not bring one of the following. (a) Human waste (b) Rainwater (c) Drinking water (d) Grey water

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49.

Which of the following processes is the anaerobic treatment of wastewater? (a) Activated sludge process (b) Trickling filters process (c) Upflow anaerobic sludge blanket process (d) Rotating biological contractors

50. Which one of the following statements is false for the anaerobic treatment process of wastewater? (a) Microorganisms are used to decontaminate wastewater. (b) Heavy equipment is required to pump air into system. (c) Microorganisms use waste present in water as the food for their survival and multiplication. (d) Generated sludge can be used for generation of biogas.

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CHAPTER 9 Ecosystem

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Introduction An ecosystem can be defined as a region in which living beings/organisms interact with their environment. It is a community of living organisms interacting with one another and with the physical and chemical components of their environment. The interactions are such as to perpetuate the community and to remain stable under varying conditions. An ecosystem comprises all the living beings of a particular area and the resources with which they interact. These resources include air, soil, water, and sunlight. Ecology is the scientific study of interactions of human beings with one another and the environment.

Boundaries of an ecosystem Where the forest ends and the adjoining grasslands start, where the sea ends and land begins, where the river ends on both sides and the land begins, where the lake ends and land begins, such boundary lines are the natural boundaries of an ecosystem. An ecosystem gradually merges with the adjoining ecosystem through a transitional zone called ecotone. In an ecotone, a mixture of species found in both the ecosystems remain present or sometimes non-existent of species in either of the adjoining ecosystems may also be found. This phenomenon is known as edge effect. Coastal zone is an example of edge-effect zone. Here due to flow of tides, the coastal zone does not have fixed boundaries on the seawards or the landwards directions. This area is rich in biodiversity and the organism can survive in water and on land.

Services provided by ecosystem The major valuable services provided by the ecosystem to us are provisioning, regulating, and supporting life. Ecosystem also contributes to culture. However, the quality of the services reached the threshold as communities started exploiting land resources in the pretext of meeting their own needs. No other ecosystem resource holds greater significance as water does after air. Water is a fundamental resource for development and vital for survival, health, and dignity of human population. Ecosystem services that nature gives us virtually free include provision of food and water, climate regulation, soil formation, maintenance of biochemical cycles, waste recycle and detoxification, and control of pests and diseases. Understanding the relationship between air pollution and ecosystem services is vital for achieving sustainable development of 146

CHAPTER 9 ECOSYSTEM

communities. Air is a precious resource that supplies us with oxygen, an essential element for our survival. Pure air is a mixture of several gases that are invisible and odourless.

Components of ecosystem Biosphere and biome are the two main components of an ecosystem. The biosphere is the biological component of the earth system. It consists of all living organisms on earth, along with the dead organic matter produced by them. The concept was introduced by geologist Eduard Suess in 1875 and is central to many significant disciplines. According to him biosphere is the place on earth’s surface where life dwells. A biome is a large area comprising similar flora, fauna, and microorganisms. Biomes categorize the biological communities on the earth according to similarities found in the dominant vegetation, climate, geographic location, and various other characteristics. Each of these categories contains species that have adapted to varying conditions of water, heat, and soil. A biome consists of many similar ecosystems throughout the world grouped together. Ecologists have identified at least five major categories of biome, namely aquatic, desert, forests, grasslands, and tundra. A biome is characterized by a unique set of abiotic factors, particularly climate, and encompasses an ecological community. An ecosystem is much smaller than a biome and can be of varying sizes. The term ecosystem comprises two words: ‘eco’ meaning habitat and ‘system’ referring to a set of connected things or parts which link together to make the system work. An ecosystem comprises a biological community, which is found in some locale, as well as physical and chemical factors that make up its non-living or abiotic environment. It can be defined as a dynamic complex of plants, animals, microbes, and physical environmental features that interact with one another. Regional ecosystems are referred to as biome, while the largest of all the possible ecosystems is called a biosphere.

Levels of organization in nature The ecology of the earth has different levels of organization, ranging from organism to the biosphere. The level of organization in nature is shown in Figure 1.

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Figure 1

The levels of organization in nature

Homeostasis The self-regulating process by which an ecosystem maintains its stability is called homeostasis. It refers to a process by which living things actively maintain fairly stable conditions necessary for their survival. If homeostasis is successful, the organisms continues to live, if it is unsuccessful, the organism dies.

Types of ecosystem On the basis of geographical and natural conditions, an ecosystem can be terrestrial and aquatic. Terrestrial ecosystem may be a garden, forest, grassland, desert, mountains, etc. Aquatic ecosystem may be life zones which include ponds, lakes, rivers, oceans, and wet lands. 148

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Conclusion Ecosystem is a part of our life and we get free services from it. Ecosystems represent complex interactions among organizations and between the environment. An ecosystem always moves towards a state of dynamic balance. Ecosystems provide invaluable services to us. The questions relating to various aspects of ecosystems have been covered in this chapter.

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EXERCISES 1.

Which of the following statements is true? (a) The organisms in a species are capable of reproducing naturally among themselves. (b) Organisms from different species always interbreed and produce fertile offspring. (c) The members of a species living and interacting across the biosphere are together called a population. (d) Human beings form a species, but neem trees do not.

2.

Which of the following statements is true? (a) Ecosystem is different from ecological system. (b) There is no interaction between an ecosystem and its environment. (c) An ecosystem is a region in which living organisms interact with their environment. (d) Ecosystems are same as populations.

3.

Which of the following statements is true? (a) The terrestrial portion of the biosphere is divided into biomes. (b) A biome is just a community of populations. (c) A biome is just a population of a species. (d) Biome stands for biological home.

4.

_________ is not an abiotic condition. (a) Water (b) Soil (c) Temperature (d) Bacterium

5.

Which of the following statements is true? (a) We can see the edge effect in an ecotone. (b) Ecotone stands for ecological tone. (c) Ecotone is the sharp line separating two ecosystems. (d) Ecotone will not contain the species found in adjoining ecosystems.

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6.

_________ is the basis of all food chains. (a) Consumer (b) Producer (c) Decomposer (d) Detrivore

7.

Which of the following statements is true? (a) Energy is not lost when mechanical energy is converted into electrical energy. (b) Energy can be created and destroyed. (c) Whenever energy changes its form, some part of it is lost. (d) As we move up the trophic levels, the amount of usable energy available at each stage remains the same.

8.

Which of the following aspects is not associated with the ecological niche of a given species? (a) Ways in which the given species reproduces itself. (b) Other species that consume the given species. (c) Food consumed by the predator that consumes the given species. (d) Food consumed by the given species.

9.

Which of the following factors does not determine the types of organisms that thrive in an aquatic life zone? (a) Salinity (b) Waves (c) Light penetration (d) Precipitation

10.

Which of the following organisms is producer in ocean? (a) Phytoplankton (b) Nekton (c) Benthos (d) Zooplankton

11.

Which of the following statements is not true with regard to ocean? (a) There is just a single ocean. (b) The ocean covers nearly three-fourths of the earth’s surface. (c) The Indian Ocean is the deepest of all oceans. (d) The biodiversity of the ocean far exceeds that of the land. 151

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12. Which of the following statements is not true? (a) Coral reefs are increasing in area everywhere. (b) Corals are formed by polyps. (c) Corals are the nurseries for hundreds of marine organisms. (d) Coral bleaching is the biggest threat faced by reefs. 13.

Which of the following statements is not true with regard to mangroves? (a) Mangrove roots are the breeding grounds and nurseries for many fish species. (b) Mangrove branches are nesting sites for birds. (c) Mangroves stabilize soil and prevent erosion. (d) Mangroves do not provide protection against cyclones.

14.

Which international agreement governs the oceans? (a) UN Convention on the Law of the Sea (b) International Tribunal for the Law of the Sea (c) International Seabed Authority (d) Montreal Protocol

15.

Ecology deals with the study of (a) living beings (b) living and non-living components (c) reciprocal relationships between components (d) environment

16.

The pyramid of energy of an ecosystem is (a) always upright (b) always inverted (c) may be upright or inverted (d) None of the above

17.

The energy flow in an ecosystem is (a) unidirectional (b) bi-directional (c) multidirectional (d) None of the above

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18.

The source of energy in an ecosystem is (a) ATP (b) sunlight (c) DNA (d) RNA

19.

Trophic levels are formed by (a) only plants (b) only animals (c) only carnivorous (d) organisms linked in food chain

20. In (a) (b) (c) (d) 21.

a grassland ecosystem foodchain, the top consumers are herbivores carnivores bacteria either carnivores or herbivores

MAB stands for (a) man and bacteria (b) man and biosphere (c) man and biotic community (d) man and biology

22. Species that occur in different geographical regions separated by special barriers are (a) allopatric (b) sympatric (c) siblings (d) None of the above 23. Wide variety of living things is called (a) habitat (b) biodiversity (c) diversity (d) population

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24. Sleep-like state which an animal adopts to lower metabolic rates is called (a) migration (b) hibernation (c) transpiration (d) shedding of leaves 25. Air, water, light, temperature, and pH make up (a) foodchain (b) ecosystem (c) abiotic environment (d) biotic environment 26. The self-regulating system by which an ecosystem maintains its stability is called (a) allotropic system (b) homeostasis (c) stable ecosystem (d) homeopathy 27.

Which of the following is not a biome? (a) Tundra (b) Tropical rainforest (c) Earth (d) Desert

28. _________ is/are example(s) of a natural ecosystem. (a) Agricultural crops (b) Forests (c) Prairies (d) Both (b) and (c) 29.

_________ is not found in a tropical rainforest. (a) Desert area (b) Rich diversity of plants and animals (c) Acidic soil (d) Abundant rainfall

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CHAPTER 10 Biodiversity

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Introduction Biodiversity or biological diversity refers to the numbers, variety, and variability of living organisms and ecosystems. The term includes terrestrial, marine, and other aquatic organisms. It deals with diversity within species, between species, and the variation among ecosystems. Apart from this, it is concerned with their complex ecological interrelationships.

Major types of biodiversity Species diversity refers to the number of plant and animal species present in a community or in an ecosystem. It varies a great deal between ecosystems. For example, species diversity is very high in tropical rainforests and coral reefs and is low in isolated islands. Genetic diversity is the variety in the genetic makeup among individuals within a species. Ecosystem diversity is the variety of habitats found in an area. It is the variety of forests, deserts, grasslands, and aquatic ecosystems occurring in an area. Very little is known about aquatic biodiversity. This is because, till date only less than 5% of the oceans have been explored and mapped. In corals reefs, estuaries, and deep-ocean floor, a variety of biodiversity can be found. The deep ocean species are mostly microbes that live on the seabed where oxygen is not available. Near the coasts biodiversity is high because a variety of producers, habitats, and nursery areas are found.

Availability of biodiversity The majority of the species are vastly found in the developing countries. The tropical moist forests account for just 6% of the land area; however almost 50%–75% of all species live here. In a small area of a tropical forest, hundreds of species and more than a million individual organisms can be found. In the tropical and sub-tropical regions, rich biodiversity can be witnessed as a result of on-going evolutionary activity. This phenomenon is not true in the colder northern regions because the recurrent ice ages in those regions slowed the proliferation of life forms and as a result biodiversity is less.

Factors determining the degree of diversity in an ecosystem or community •

Habitat stress: Diversity is low in habitats that are under any stress such as harsh climate and pollution.

•

Geographical isolation: Diversity is less in isolated regions. For example, in an island if a species disappears due to random events, it cannot be easily replaced. This is because organisms from the mainland may find it difficult to reach and colonize. 156

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•

Dominance by one species: When the dominant species consumes a disproportionate share of the available resources, it does not allow other species to evolve and flourish.

•

Availability of ecological niches: A complex community offers a greater variety of niches and promotes greater diversity in comparison to the diversity offered by a simple community.

•

Edge effect: There is always greater diversity in ecotones or transition area between ecosystems.

•

Geological history: Old and stable ecosystems like rainforests that have not experienced many changes have high diversity. An ecosystem like the Arctic has undergone many changes and it does not allow many species to establish themselves.

Biodiversity hot spot If an area is unusually rich in biodiversity and its flora and fauna are under constant threat of overexploitation, it is called a biodiversity hot spot. There are about 25 such hot spots in the world, mostly in the tropical forests. The biodiversity hot spots together cover just 1.4% of land and yet hold about 60% of the world’s biodiversity. One-third of the known species of the world are endemic to these hot spots.

Extinction of species Extinction means the complete disappearance of a species, or in other words not a single member of the species can be found on earth. It is an irreversible loss and is called biological extinction. Before a species becomes biologically extinct, it goes through stages of local and ecological extinction. Local extinction means that the species is no longer found in the area it once inhabited. It is, however, present elsewhere in the world. Ecological extinction means that so few members are left that the species can no longer play its normal ecological role in the community.

Keystone species Keystone species play roles affecting many other organisms in an ecosystem. They determine the ability of a large number of other species to survive. When a keystone species becomes extinct, it could result in a cascade of extinctions of other species. An example of keystone species is a top predator such as the grey wolf. If wolves become locally extinct, maybe because of hunting, in an ecosystem, then the population of deer and other herbivores will increase exponentially. The grazing pressure will then drive

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many plant species to extinction. This will result in the disappearance of small animals and insects that depend on the plant species.

Biodiversity conservation Biodiversity conservation involves the study of how human activities affect diversity of plants and animals, and ways to develop solutions that protect the diversity. Conservation ranges from protecting the population of a specific species to preserving entire ecosystems. There are two main types of conservation: in-situ (on-site) conservation and ex-situ (off-site) conservation. In-situ (on-site) conservation is an attempt to protect species in their natural habitat. Ex-situ (off-site) conservation is the preservation and protection of species in a place away from their natural habitat. In general, in-situ conservation is more cost-effective. In many cases, however, the ex-situ may be the only feasible approach.

In-situ conservation In-situ conservation requires identification and protection of natural areas that have high biodiversity. This includes establishment of national parks and reserves. Over the past few decades, there has been an increase in the number of reserves and the area covered. The main objective of in-situ conservation is to preserve large areas of undeveloped land so that the ecosystems and the biodiversity can continue to flourish and evolve. Large animals like elephants need large reserve area. Moreover, large reserves are less vulnerable to disturbances, since their edge length is short relative to the area covered. If a reserve is split into patches, then corridors are provided to enable movement of animals.

On-farm conservation A special case of in-situ approach is on-farm conservation, which is a method followed by the farmers since long. Faced with the problems of gene banks and in-situ methods, the important role played by the farmer in biodiversity conservation has been re-discovered. In this approach, there is a farmer–scientist partnership to collect, maintain, and improve the traditional plant varieties. It is impossible to preserve all biodiversity in-situ. Given the population and other pressures, it is difficult to set aside the required huge land area. Ex-situ conservation is equally important. In some cases, where the population of a species has dwindled to extremely low level, ex-situ conservation may be the only way out.

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Evolution and status The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) is one of the key agreements adopted during the Earth Summit held in Rio de Janeiro in 1992. The objectives of the CBD were the conservation of biological diversity, sustainable use of its components, and fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising out of the use of genetic resources. India has also taken the conservation of biodiversity seriously. India enacted the Biological Diversity Act in 2002 to give effect to the provision of this convention. It has also prepared a National Biodiversity Action Plan (NBAP) in 2008 and an Addendum to NBAP in 2014 with 20 national targets on biodiversity. The Nagoya Protocol on access and benefit sharing (ABS) adopted under the aegis of CBD in 2010 is aimed at fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from the utilization of generic resources. India signed the protocol on 11 May 2011, and ratified it on 9 October 2012.

Conclusion Biodiversity being a very vast subject cannot be covered in a small chapter. However, the questions dealing with various major areas of biodiversity have been presented in this chapter.

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EXERCISES 1.

Which of the following statements is not true with regard to biodiversity? (a) Biodiversity refers to the numbers, variety, and variability of living organisms and ecosystems. (b) Biodiversity covers diversity within species and between species. (c) Biodiversity is not necessary for human survival. (d) Biodiversity covers variation among ecosystems.

2.

When we visit a forest and enjoy its beauty, which kind of value are we placing on biodiversity? (a) Aesthetic (b) Economic (c) Ecological (d) Ethical

3.

Which of the following statements is not true with regard to the species of the world? (a) Most of the species in the world are insects and microorganisms, which are not visible to the naked eye. (b) The exact number of species inhabiting the earth is not known. (c) Most of the species on earth have been identified. (d) Every year, about 10,000 new species are identified.

4.

Majority of species are found in (a) poor countries (b) rich countries (c) Europe (d) United States

5.

Which is the first stage in the process of a species becoming irreversibly extinct? (a) Ecological extinction (b) Mass extinction (c) Local extinction (d) Biological extinction

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6.

What is the estimated number of species that are lost every year? (a) One out of every million (b) 350 to 35,000 (c) 350,000 (d) One million

7.

Variety in the genetic makeup among individuals within a species is known as (a) (b) (c) (d)

ecosystem biodiversity aquatic biodiversity genetic biodiversity genetic constitution

8.

The degree of diversity in an ecosystem or community is determined by (a) habitat stress (b) geographical isolation (c) dominance by one species (d) All of the above

9.

Under any stressful situation in the habitat, the degree of diversity will be (a) high (b) low (c) unaffected (d) None of the above

10.

In (a) (b) (c) (d)

11.

The diversity in ecotones or transition areas will be (a) high (b) low (c) unaffected with transition (d) None of the above

an isolated region like island, the biodiversity will be high low unaffected None of the above

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12. Which one of the following countries is not in the list of the most biodiverse nations? (a) Australia (b) Brazil (c) India (d) Dubai 13.

Which one of the following is not true for the extinction of species? (a) Complete disappearance (b) It is an irreversible loss (c) It is a reversible loss (d) It is also called biological extinction

14.

Which type of extinction of species is irreversible? (a) Biological extinction (b) Ecological extinction (c) Local extinction (d) Countrywide extinction

15.

Which of the following statements related to the extinction of species is not true? (a) Climate change has no affect on extinction. (b) Ecological extinction is reversible. (c) Local extinction is reversible. (d) Climate change affects the extinction of species.

16.

Around ______ of the species are now extinct. (a) 99.9% (b) 50.9% (c) 95% (d) 10%

17.

The gradual disappearance of species due to changes in local environmental conditions is termed as _________ extinction. (a) biological (b) ecological (c) local (d) background

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18.

If the rate of disappearance of species due to the changes in local environmental conditions is extremely high, it is called _________ extinction. (a) biological (b) ecological (c) local (d) mass

19.

Which one of the following factors is not responsible for mass extinction? (a) Global cooling (b) Falling sea levels (c) Excessive rainfalls (d) Predation

20. ________ species control or determine the ability of a large number of other species to survive. (a) Keystone (b) Sentinel (c) Local (d) Vulnerable 21.

Frogs are the examples of _________ species. (a) keystone (b) sentinel (c) local (d) vulnerable

22. IUCN stands for (a) International Union for Conservation of Nature (b) International United Conservation Nations (c) Internal Union for Conservation of Nature (d) International Union for Conversion of Nature 23. Which of the following category of threatened species has not been classified by IUCN? (a) Vulnerable species (b) Sentinel species (c) Endangered species (d) Critically endangered species 163

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24. If an area is unusually rich in biodiversity and its flora and fauna are under a constant threat of overexploitation, it is known as (a) biodiversity hot spot (b) biodiversity cold spot (c) endangered biodiversity (d) vulnerable biodiversity 25. Rapid increase in global economic activity, global population and consumption, urbanization and industrialization are the causes of (a) growth of biodiversity (b) loss of biodiversity (c) neither growth nor loss of biodiversity (d) None of the above 26. An endemic species is (a) found in a given region or location and nowhere else in the world (b) found everywhere in the world (c) an extinct species (d) vulnerable species 27.

Which of the following methods is not in-situ conservation of biodiversity? (a) Setting up a national park (b) Establishing a reserve forest (c) Setting up a biosphere reserve (d) Building a seed bank

28. Which of the following methods is not ex-situ conservation of biodiversity? (a) Breeding animals in zoo (b) Setting up a botanical garden (c) Establishing a national park (d) Setting up an aquarium 29.

Which is the most important international agreement for conserving biodiversity? (a) Convention on Biological Diversity (b) Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species 164

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(c) United Convention on the Law of the Sea (d) Convention on Ballast Water 30. Which of the following measures is not a part of India’s National Biodiversity Strategy and Action Plan? (a) Restoration and regeneration of degraded ecosystems (b) Recognition of community rights (c) Preventing deprivation of indigenous people from natural resources (d) Allowing free export of medicinal plant species

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Introduction Natural resources often determine the wealth and status of a nation in the world’s economic system. Every natural resource has a unique value. In addition, it can also trigger social instability. Natural resources include material such as air, water, land, natural gas, coal, petroleum products, minerals, wood, soil, fauna, and flora. Coal, iron ore, mica, manganese, bauxite, chromite, titanium ore, natural gas, limestone, diamonds, petroleum, and thorium are some of the important mineral resources of India.

Classification of natural resources Natural resources can be classified depending on their quality, availability, mode of uses, assurance of occurrence based on economic consideration, resources, categories such as economic resources, sub-economic resources, part marginal resources, and sub-marginal resources. United Nations Framework Classification (UNFC) has classified resources for mineral and energy on the basis of geological assessment, feasibility assessment, and economic viability. Based on origin, national resources can be divided into biotic resources and abiotic resources. Natural resources are classified on the basis of their stages of development as potential resources, actual resources, reserve resources, and stock resources. They can be categorized as renewable resources and non-renewable resources on the basis of their renewability. On the basis of availability, natural resources can be classified as inexhaustible resources and exhaustible resources. Based on the distribution resources, they can be categorized as ubiquitous and local resources. Renewable resources are those resources that can be continuously replenished or can be replenished in short time with the help of natural process. Renewable resources include sun, wind, geothermal, hydropower, biomass, etc. Non-renewable resources are those resources that cannot be replenished by natural resources or replaced by natural process in a very long time, say more than 1000 years. These resources include oilfields, natural gas fields, coalbeds, minerals, fossil fuels, oil shale, nuclear resources, etc. Mineral ores are also resources and metallic ores provide metals and could be ferrous and non-ferrous.

Water resources About one-fourth of the earth’s surface is land and the rest is covered by water. The amount of freshwater available on earth is very less. Of the total water quantity available on earth, only about 2.7% is freshwater. Rest 97.3% is the ocean/sea water which is non-potable. Out of 2.7% freshwater, 75.2% 168

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is in the form of frozen ice sheets and glaciers, the rest 22.7% is found in lakes, rivers, and underground. Water resources can be classified into two types: dynamic reserve and static reserve. Dynamic reserve is measured as flow and it focuses on developmental needs of the water resource. Static reserve is measured in terms of quantity, length, and volume of the water resources.

Water utilization and scarcity Water is essentially needed for both domestic and industrial requirements including drinking, developmental activities, irrigation for agriculture, power plants, etc. It is the lifeline of all living beings. The world is facing scarcity of water and as per UN estimates, water scarcity has already affected every component of life.

Virtual water When water is used indirectly in making items that we eat, drink or use is called virtual water. Agricultural and industrial processes use huge quantities of water for producing items.

Water footprint Water footprint is an indicator that measures both direct and virtual use of water by a consumer or a producer. The water footprint of a product is the volume of freshwater used for produce items, taking into account the volume of water consumed and polluted in different steps of the supply chain.

Land resources The land area of earth is about 140 million km2 and occupies approximately 71% of the earth’s surface. Land is vital for our existence as it preserves terrestrial biodiversity and genetic pool, regulates water cycle and carbon cycle, and acts as the store of basic resources such as groundwater, minerals, and fossil fuels. It becomes a dumping ground of solid and liquid wastes and forms the basis for human settlements and transport activities. Land resources are the key to human life as agriculture is done only on land which provides us with food necessary for our survival. Wasteland is the land that is deteriorating due to natural causes or due to lack of appropriate water and soil management. Such land is not uncultivated or is underutilized. Wasteland can be reclaimed and revived. It can be brought under vegetated cover and made productive.

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Urbanization and industrialization have led to degradation of land because of human-induced pollution.

Energy resources Energy cannot be created. We can only use available energy resources for creating energy as per our requirement. These resources can be renewable resources that are natural resources, and can be replenished regularly or in a short period of time. The energy drawn out of natural energy resources is called renewable energy. Renewable energy converts the energy present in sunlight, water falling from a height, wind, waves, geothermal heat, or biomass into the form of heat or electricity. A renewable energy system is also known as non-conventional energy. The energy drawn out of non-renewable resources is called nonrenewable energy or conventional energy. These include fossil fuel-based resources such as oilfields, natural gas fields, coalbeds, etc.

Forest resources Forests are the lungs of the earth. They provide a range of renewable products and ecosystem services. Forests purify air, provide produces for human survival, habitat for organisms, biodiversity, etc. Forests have direct relation with climate change. They influence climate change and are also influenced by it. Deforestation releases carbon and contributes to climate change. On the other hand, climate change causes forest fires and damages forests through extreme weather. Human activities have adverse impact on forests. State of the World’s Forests 2014 report (SOFO 2014) indicates that the global rate of deforestation, although slowed slightly in the last decade, is still progressing at an alarmingly high rate in many parts of the world. Forests and their various products support about 1.3 billion people and ensure fuel security. Afforestation is an essential process to stop degradation of forests and to increase forest area in the world.

Conclusion Natural resources are the wealth given to us by nature. Human beings have overexploited these resources, a major cause of climate change and pollution. There should be a balance between the resource availability and their exploitation. Although a wide range of natural resource is available, four major resources, that is water, land, energy, and forests have been discussed in this chapter. 170

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EXERCISES 1.

What is the most important reason for water scarcity even in highrainfall places such as Cherrapunji? (a) Forests have been cut down. (b) Too much water is consumed. (c) Forests do not retain water. (d) There is no reservoir.

2.

Why is water a unique resource? (a) There is a finite amount of water in the world. (b) Water is often polluted. (c) We cannot meet the demand. (d) Water has no substitute.

3.

Which of the following statements is true with regard to water? (a) There is not enough water available per capita. (b) We cannot reuse water. (c) There is a lot of water and yet there is scarcity. (d) Total amount of water in the world is constantly decreasing in quantity.

4.

Which of the following statements is true with regard to water use and sanitation in the world? (a) Human beings are using less water than before. (b) Water contamination is not the main cause of diseases. (c) 50% or more of the population lack sanitation facilities. (d) People are never displaced due to water scarcity.

5.

Which of the following items uses the maximum amount of water per kilogram during its production? (a) Rice (b) Beef (c) Potato (d) Sugar

6.

Which of the following statements is true with regard to rooftop rainwater harvesting? (a) Water cannot be used at home. (b) Water is very expensive. 171

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(c) Large amounts of water can be collected even with small roof area. (d) Only the first rain must be collected. 7.

Which of the following statements is not true with regard to rainwater harvesting? (a) With good rains, even small roofs can collect a lot of rainwater. (b) Rainwater can be harvested by building bunds and check dams. (c) Rooftop rainwater can be used to recharge groundwater. (d) Rooftop rainwater is unfit for drinking.

8.

Which sector uses the maximum percentage of water globally? (a) Agriculture (b) Industry (c) Homes (d) Hotels

9.

Which of the following statements is not true with regard to the water situation in India? (a) Thousands of villages have no source of drinking water. (b) Per capita availability of water is going down. (c) Millions of children die due to contaminated water. (d) Indian cities have enough water supplies.

10.

Which of the following is considered a non-renewable natural resource? (a) Petroleum that could replenish itself over millions of years. (b) Water that is replenished every year, thanks to the water cycle. (c) Mango tree that gives fruits every year. (d) Forest that is cut down but grows back in 20 years.

11.

Virtual water is the (a) water used for producing the industrial products (b) water used for producing the agricultural products (c) water used for the construction activities (d) All of the above

12. Water footprint is an indicator that (a) measures the direct use of water (b) measures the virtual use of water by the consumer

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(c) measures both the direct and virtual uses of water by the consumer (d) None of the above 13.

In (a) (b) (c)

India, water supply systems are designed for the consumption of. 500 litres per day per person of water 135 litres per day per person of water 350 litres per day per person of water

(d) None of the above 14.

Water footprint is the highest for (a) cane sugar (b) milk (c) beef (d) potato

15.

Per capita water footprint is highest in (a) Germany (b) USA (c) China (d) India

16.

World’s _______ water is in oceans. (a) 50% (b) 65% (c) 97% (d) 83%

17.

Water as a resource is (a) replaceable (b) irreplaceable (c) produced through industrial process (d) produced from ocean

18.

Pattern of water used globally is (a) 70% for agriculture, 22% for industry, and 8% for domestic use (b) 10% for agriculture, 80% for industry, and 10% for domestic use (c) 10% for agriculture, 50% for industry, and 40% for domestic use (d) None of the above 173

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19.

A country is said to have water scarcity, if it has about ______ m3 of water per person per year. (a) 1700 (b) 5000 (c) 1000 (d) 10

20. What is the linkage between water and food scarcity? (a) There is no linkage. (b) Food supply increases with scarcity of water. (c) Food supply decreases with scarcity of water. (d) Food production decreases with abundance supply of water. 21.

Which source provides the maximum percentage of energy to the people of India? (a) Fuelwood or firewood (b) LPG (c) Animal dung (d) Electricity

22. Which of the following statements is true with regard to global energy? (a) We clearly know the amount of available reserve energy. (b) Industrialized countries consume a huge part of the total energy. (c) Energy supply is evenly distributed across all countries and within countries. (d) Fuelwood is easily available for the poor people in the developing countries. 23. Which is the world’s fastest growing form of energy use? (a) Manufacturing (b) Buildings (c) Transport (d) Home consumption

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24. Which of the following statements is not true with regard to fossil fuels? (a) Amount of fossil fuel consumed by us in one day is equivalent to the amount formed by the earth in one thousand years. (b) Fossil fuels are non-renewable sources of energy. (c) Burning of fossil fuels causes environmental damage. (d) Fossil fuels continue to be formed at a rapid pace. 25. Which of the following is a renewable energy source? (a) Natural gas (b) Coal (c) Wind (d) Uranium 26. Which of the following is not a problem with regard to solar energy? (a) Efficient collection of energy (b) Conversion of energy into electricity (c) Availability as a renewable source (d) Storage of energy 27.

Which of the following is not a problem with regard to hydropower? (a) It is a renewable source. (b) People have to move to other places. (c) Dams submerge large areas. (d) Dams are silted up.

28. What is the main problem in using hydrogen as fuel? (a) Burning of hydrogen produces no emissions. (b) Burning of hydrogen produces water. (c) Hydrogen can be produced from water. (d) It takes energy to produce hydrogen. 29.

Which of the following is not a fossil fuel? (a) Coal (b) Oil (c) Gas (d) Wind

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30. Which of the following is not a renewable source of energy? (a) Sun (b) Water (c) Natural gas (d) Wind 31.

Which of the following is not conventional oil? (a) Crude oil (b) Natural gas liquids (c) Petroleum oils (d) Shale oil

32. Crude oil stored in a rock formation is called (a) petroleum (b) shale oil (c) natural gas liquid (d) rock oil 33. What is the environmental cost of oil? (a) Air pollution and damage to the ecosystems in the extraction area (b) No environmental cost is accrued (c) Environmental degradation due to oil exploration and oil utilization (d) Loss of oil due to evaporation 34. Natural gas is a mixture of (a) methane and butane (b) butane and propane (c) methane, ethane, propane and butane (d) ethane and propane 35. Natural gas is found (a) above oil reserves (b) below oil reserves (c) in the open atmosphere (d) in the water wells

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36. Liquefied petroleum gas contains (a) propane and butane (b) methane and carbon dioxide (c) methane only (d) ethane and methane 37.

Methane is a (a) red house gas (b) black house gas (c) greenhouse gas (d) mixture of propane and butane

38. Nuclear energy cannot be used for (a) electricity generation (b) medical purpose (c) cooking (d) heating purpose 39.

India has about ______ of nuclear power generation capacity. (a) 50,000 MW (b) 100,000 MW (c) 5000 MW (d) 10 MW

40. Solar energy can be used for (a) electricity generation (b) running the car (c) water pumping (d) chemical purification of water 41.

Which of the following statements describes best the status of global forests? (a) The definition of a forest varies from one assessment to another. (b) The rate of deforestation shows sign of decreasing, but is still alarmingly high. (c) The forest cover has stabilized since 1999. (d) Asia continues to have the largest net loss of forest.

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42. What are plantation forests? (a) They are old-growth forests. (b) They are second-growth forests. (c) They are more diverse than natural forests. (d) They are managed forests. 43. Which of the following items is not provided by natural forests? (a) Fuelwood (b) Honey (c) Medicinal plants (d) Monoculture 44. Which of the following statements is true with regard to deforestation? (a) It adversely affects local communities. (b) It does not lead to global warming since trees absorb carbon dioxide. (c) It does not affect rainfall pattern. (d) It does not lead to the loss of topsoil. 45. Which of the following statements is true with regard to forest certification? (a) It is carried out only by the United Nations Forum on Forests. (b) It is now compulsory. (c) It enables the consumer to make responsible choices. (d) India’s reserve forests are all covered by certification. 46. Which of the following statements is not true with regard to joint forest management? (a) It recognizes the important role of local communities in forest conservation. (b) The local people are allowed to have controlled access to forest areas. (c) The local people are not permitted to harvest the resources, since the forest belongs to the government. (d) The local people act as the guardians of the forest.

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47.

What did the word Chipko become famous for? (a) It is the name of the people’s movement to save the forests in the Himalayas. (b) It means ‘hugging trees’. (c) It is a song of the hill communities. (d) It happened only in Reni village.

48. Which organization carries out Global Forest Resource Assessment every five years? (a) UNFCC (b) UNIDO (c) UNDP (d) UNFAO 49.

The key finding of Global Forest Resource Assessment 2010 carried out by UNFAO is that the forests cover ______ of the total land area in the world. (a) 31% (b) 60% (c) 51% (d) 22%

50. As per India State of Forest Report 2013 (SFR 2013), the seven northeastern states of India have nearly ______ of the country’s forest cover. (a) one-half (b) one-fourth (c) one-tenth (d) one-sixth 51.

As per India State of Forest Report 2013 (SFR 2013), the forest and tree cover of the country was about ______ million hectares which is about ______ of the geographical area. (a) 70, 21% (b) 40, 11% (c) 140, 42% (d) 210, 63%

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52. The Western Ghats and Assam have ______ type of forests. (a) tropical moist (b) tropical dry evergreen (c) subtropical pine (d) tropical dry deciduous 53. The Himalayas have ______ types of forests. (a) tropical moist (b) tropical dry evergreen (c) subtropical pine (d) tropical dry deciduous 54. Which of the following is not a category of forests? (a) Old-type forests (b) Second-growth forests (c) Plantations forests (d) Tertiary-growth forests 55. Which of these is not the actual product or service provided by forests? (a) Industrial wood and fuelwood (b) Non-wood products (c) Ecosystem services (d) Food production 56. Which is not the impact of deforestation? (a) Soil is exposed (b) Shade species are exposed to wind, sunlight, and evaporation (c) Regional rainfall pattern is affected (d) Wildlife is protected 57.

Extractive reserves are the (a) protected forests where local communities are allowed to harvest forest produce (b) unprotected forests where local communities are allowed to harvest forest produce (c) forests where local communities are not allowed to enter (d) forests which are meant for wildlife only

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58. Name the ministry responsible for forest management. (a) Ministry of Environment and Forest (b) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (c) Ministry of Climate Change (d) Ministry of Forests Management 59.

Forest Conservation Act was passed in India in (a) 1999 (b) 1980 (c) 2012 (d) 2005

60. As per India State of Forest Report (SFR) 2013 released in 2014 by Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, India had forests or forest cover area of ______ million hectares. (a) 69.8 (b) 105 (c) 42 (d) 91.6 61.

Which one of the following is the most important support for the plant growth and all types of? (a) Topsoil (b) Fertilizer (c) Farming (d) Pesticide

62. Which of the following is not a problem associated with land? (a) Water logging (b) Salinization (c) Desertification (d) Climate change 63. Which of the following statements is not true? (a) Soil supports earth’s biodiversity. (b) Soil helps us in combating and adapting to climate change. (c) Soil stores and filters water. (d) Soil is a quickly renewable natural resource.

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64. Which of the following statements is true with regard to food on earth? (a) There is unlimited amount of fish. (b) There is enough food to feed every person. (c) Every person is able to buy food. (d) Green Revolution has solved the problem of hunger. 65. Which of the following statements is not true with regard to Green Revolution? (a) It increased crop yields. (b) It needs fertilizers and pesticides. (c) It requires decreasing inputs over time. (d) It uses high-yielding varieties of seeds. 66. Which of the following statements is true with regard to organic farming? (a) It uses chemical fertilizers. (b) Over time, it makes the soil healthier. (c) It uses chemical pesticides. (d) It does not use animal or green manure. 67.

Which of the following statements is not true with regard to GM crops? (a) They have greater resistance to pests. (b) They are proven completely safe. (c) They could resist drought or salinity. (d) They could reduce the amount of fertilizer needed.

68. Which of the following statements is not true with regard to global fisheries? (a) Most of the marine fish stocks are now fully exploited or overexploited. (b) We are now fishing down the food web. (c) The demand for luxury foods and livestock feed has led to overexploitation. (d) The rate of fish population growth exceeds the rate of harvest.

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69.

Which of the following statements is not true with regard to communities in mining areas? (a) They often lose their land and livelihood. (b) All of them get employed in the mines. (c) They often do not have access to freshwater and sanitation. (d) They are displaced from their land.

70. Which of the following statements is not true? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Desertification More than 160 Desertification Desertification

happens only in dry lands. countries are affected by desertification. is a silent, invisible crisis. leads to a refugee crisis.

71. A massive increase in global fishing began in (a) 1950s and 1960s (b) 2004 and 2014 (c) 1910s and 1920s (d) 1990s and 2000s 72. Which one of the following countries suffers most from water logging? (a) Pakistan (b) Egypt and USA (c) India (d) All of the above 73. The land which is deteriorating due to either the natural causes or lack of appropriate water and soil management is known as (a) dry land (b) wasteland (c) fellow land (d) cultivable land 74.

Which one is not among the measures undertaken to prevent and restore degraded land? (a) Prevention of soil erosion (b) Afforestation and reforestation (c) Improved early warning system and water resource management (d) Creating the playgrounds 183

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75. While Green Revolution increased yields dramatically, it is a high input system that has (a) degraded the soil (b) lowered water tables (c) reduced biodiversity (d) All of the above including impoverishing the small farmers 76.

A mineral is any substance that is (a) naturally present in the earth’s crust (b) formed from animals (c) created in industries (d) created inside earth due to human-induced activities

77.

Minerals are (a) renewable resources (b) non-renewable resources (b) man-made resources on the earth’s crust (d) None of the above

78. The process of extracting and processing minerals is called (a) mineralization (b) mining (c) extraction (d) None of the above 79.

Which one of the following is not a mineral? (a) Coal (b) Gold (c) Iron (d) Water

80. Which one of the following is not the impact caused due to mining? (a) Displacement of the communities (b) Loss of land and livelihood (c) Increased health risks due to contamination of natural resources (d) Lowering the income of the community

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81.

India produces about ______ types of minerals and metals. (a) 500 (b) 354 (c) 85 (d) 70

82. To improve the degraded condition of soil, one of the methods used is (a) (b) (c) (d)

organic farming chemical-, fertilizer-based agriculture farm mechanization using wind energy

83. Wasteland reclamation cannot be done through (a) soil conservation through contour bunds (b) water conservation through water harvesting (c) growing fast-growing species (d) use of wind power 84. Industrialization leads to (a) deforestation (b) diversion of forest land (c) displacements of forest communities (d) All of the above 85. Forest resources remain unaffected by (a) wildlife crimes due to poaching (b) urbanization and industrialization (c) forest fire (d) growing more vegetation

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CHAPTER 12 Climate Change

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Introduction Climate change has become the topic of discussion worldwide as it has been changing throughout the planet. Till middle of the 20th century, the earth’s climate was generally regarded as stable. Scientists believe that the extreme changes being witnessed in weather, such as floods, cyclones, and drought are taking place due to change in climate worldwide. While climate is the long-term pattern of weather conditions for a given area, weather is the condition of the atmosphere at a particular place and time, such as temperature, humidity, rain, wind. Global climate is influenced by flow of solar energy, rotation of the earth, currents in ocean, condition of the atmosphere, among others.

Global warming Carbon dioxide (CO2) and greenhouse gases (GHGs), such as CH4, O3, NO2, fluorinated gases, are present in the earth’s atmosphere. They allow radiation from sun to reach the earth but prevent some of the heat from being reflected back. These GHGs help in keeping the earth warm, otherwise our planet will be much colder and largely covered in ice. When GHGs increase in the atmosphere, it makes the earth warmer and leads to temperature increase. This phenomenon results in global warming and this effect is called greenhouse effect. Sources of GHGs vary. GHGs are emitted from burning of fossil fuels, domestic activities, power stations, and other industrial processes. The burning of fossil fuels results in high emission of CO2 in the atmosphere. CO2 remains in the atmosphere for hundreds or even thousands of years. Thus, we can say that the emissions which we release today from our cars and other sources will decide the climate upto thousands of years. On the other hand, methane captures more than 20 times the heat captured by CO2 in the atmosphere. The main sources of methane release are bovine excreta, human excreta, rice paddies, solid waste lying without treatment on ground, untreated wastewater, etc. The main sources of nitrous oxide (N2O) are use of fertilizers in agriculture, burning of organic matters, cars with catalytic converters, production of nitric acid, etc.

Climate change Worldwide, the effect of climate change is evident from various reports published by concerned agencies. Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) in its Fifth Assessment Report released in 2014 clearly stated that climate change, caused by human activities is the biggest environmental 188

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challenge faced by the world. The major findings of the report are as follows: •

Warming of climate system is unequivocal. Since the 1950s, many of the observed changes are significant. The rise in atmospheric temperature has reduced snowcaps that has led to sea-level rise.

•

Human influence on climate change is clear. Recent anthropogenic emissions of GHGs have been highest in the 20th century.

•

In recent decades, changes in climate have caused impacts on natural and human systems on all continents across the ocean.

•

Continued emission of GHGs will cause long lasting climate change leading the severe, pervasive, and irreversible impacts for people and ecosystems.

Impacts of climate change Climate change has already arrived and day by day it is becoming worse. The impacts of climate change may be seen in the form of natural disasters, frequent floods and droughts, oceans becoming warmer and more acidic, besides, rise in sea levels, melting of polar ice caps/glaciers, dying of coral reefs, changing cropping pattern due to change in temperature among others. Biodiversity loss, disturbance in ecosystems, water scarcity, human migration, shifting of marine species, are a few serious problems that have already started taking place all over the world as an impact of climate change. India is vulnerable to climate change and its impact. Eight of the ten warmest years ever recorded were during 2001−10. Apart from sea-level rise, melting of Himalayan glaciers is another effect seen in India. Climate change has already affected monsoon pattern and since 1951, instances of very heavy rains have gone up every year and moderate rains are going down. Unseasonable heavy rains and hail storms across the country are destroying crops. The effect of climate change will be such that frequencies and intensities of tropical cyclones in Bay of Bengal could increase, low-lying coastal areas could be flooded resulting in migration of people, and loss of property and humans.

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Reduction in risk of climate change Adaptation and mitigation are complementary strategies that help in reducing and managing the risks of climate change. Mitigation reduces the emissions of GHGs responsible for climate change to avoid the intensity of changes. We should reduce net GHGs emissions to almost zero and bring down CO2 concentration in the atmosphere to 350 ppm. Adaptation is dealing with the consequences of warming and other aspects of climate change, such as extreme weather events. Adaptation can consist of a wide variety of actions by an individual, community, or government to prepare for, or respond to, climate change impacts.

National and state action plans on climate change India’s domestic strategy for addressing climate change is reflected in many of its social and economic development programmes. The National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC) coordinated by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) is being implemented through the Nodal Ministries in specific sectors/areas. Eight national missions in the area of solar energy, enhanced energy efficiency, water, Himalayan ecosystem, green India, and strategic knowledge for climate change form the core of NAPCC. All national missions approved by the Prime Minister’s Council on Climate Change (PMCCC) are at different stages of implementation.

International initiatives on climate change World community is striving to agree on emission reductions. UN Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) came into force in 1994 which recognized that climate system is a shared resource whose stability is affected by industrial and other emissions of CO2 and other GHGs. Kyoto Protocol was an international agreement to reduce GHGs emissions under UNFCCC during a meeting held in Kyoto, Japan. In 1997, it was a legally binding agreement under which industrialized countries were to reduce their collective emissions of GHGs by 5.2% compared to year 1990. Kyoto Protocol offered a market-based mechanism to meet the targets such as International Emissions Trading and Clean Development Mechanism. The Kyoto Protocol expired in 2012 and the international community is trying hard to ratify it or to develop a new mechanism. The successful negotiations were held in COP 21, held in Paris in December, 2015 and another meeting held in April, 2016 in New York. The new mechanism is yet to be finalized and implemented.

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Conclusion Climate change is an unavoidable natural phenomenon which is caused due to man-made activities. It can be mitigated only if the suitable measures are taken for reducing GHG emissions. India even without being a major producer of GHG emissions has taken several voluntary measures to curb GHG emissions to control the effect of the climate change by implementing the National Action Plan of Climate Change with eight national missions. In early 2015, four new missions, namely wind energy mission, human health mission, coastal resources mission, and waste-to-energy mission have been undertaken in India. Various aspects of climate change have been covered in this chapter.

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EXERCISES 1.

What is the main cause of global warming and climate change? (a) Photosynthesis (b) Change in weather (c) Burning fossil fuels (d) Carbon cycle

2.

Carbon footprint measures the (a) amount of carbon consumed by an individual (b) land needed for sustaining oneself indefinitely (c) GHG emissions caused by an individual (d) amount of travel undertaken by an individual

3.

Which of the following statements is not true with regard to the Kyoto Protocol? (a) It commits countries to specified reductions in emissions. (b) It has not been implemented seriously. (c) It concerns specified GHGs. (d) It has a uniform emission target for all.

4.

Which of the following statements is not true with regard to the IPCC? (a) It conducts research. (b) It comes out with periodical assessment reports. (c) It consists of scientists from many countries. (d) It provides a basis for UNFCCC meeting.

5.

Which of the following statements is not true with regard to global warming and climate change? (a) The Arctic is melting fast. (b) Global warming will cease immediately if we stop burning fossil fuels. (c) There are many extreme weather events happening. (d) There is an overwhelming agreement among scientists that climate change is happening.

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6.

What temperature is considered a safe limit for the increase in global average temperature? (a) 1°C (b) 1.5°C (c) 2°C (d) None of the above

7.

Which of the following statements is not true with regard to the ozone layer? (a) It has now recovered fully. (b) It absorbs most of the UV-B radiation. (c) It screens out the UV-C radiation. (d) Its depletion leads to cancer.

8.

Which of the following is a successful international agreement on ozone layer depletion? (a) Kyoto Protocol (b) Montreal Protocol (c) Vienna Convention (d) Copenhagen Accord

9.

Acid rain is formed when (a) an acid mixes with rain (b) man-made chemical air pollutants combine with atmospheric water droplets (c) factories emit gases (d) matter decomposes

10.

Which of the following is not an effect of acid rain? (a) Death of trees (b) Plants losing productivity (c) Soil turning alkaline (d) Lakes turning lifeless

11.

Weather is the condition of atmosphere (a) at a particular time (b) at a particular place (c) at a particular place and time (d) None of the above 193

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12. Climate is a (a) short-term pattern of weather conditions (b) long-term pattern of weather conditions (c) change in weather conditions (d) None of the above 13.

The CO2 concentration in the atmosphere in terms of ppm (a) has been decreasing over the time (b) is constant (c) has been increasing over the time (d) None of the above

14.

By burning large amount of fossil fuels, ______ is released into the atmosphere in huge quantities. (a) CO2 (b) SO2 (c) CH4 (d) C2H2

15.

Why are environmentalists focused on CO2 emission? (a) It is the cause of most of the warming since 1750. (b) It remains in the atmosphere for over thousands of years. (c) Other GHGs are far less in the atmosphere in comparison to CO2. (d) All of the above

16.

The total GHG emissions caused directly and indirectly by a person, organization, event, product, or country is measured as (a) ecological footprint (b) carbon footprint (c) hydrogen footprint (d) GHG footprint

17.

Carbon footprint is measured in terms of the (a) area covered (b) volume covered (c) weight of carbon (d) tonnes of CO2 equivalent

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18.

CO2 emissions per capita is highest in (a) China (b) USA (c) Russia (d) India

19.

Carbon footprint in tonnes of CO2 equivalent is highest in (a) Singapore (b) Russia (c) China (d) USA

20. Which of the following is not an impact of climate change? (a) Natural disaster (b) Melting of glaciers, icecaps, and permafrost (c) Sea-level rising (d) Increase in population 21.

UNIPCC stands for (a) United Nations International Protection on Climate Change (b) United Nations International Panel on Climate Change (c) United Nations Intergovernmental Protection on Climate Change (d) United Nations Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change

22. The melting of ice sheets and glaciers lead to (a) destruction of infrastructure (b) endangering of species (c) desertification (d) destruction of human settlements 23. Humans perspire when the body temperature is warm and (a) precipitation is low (b) precipitation is high (c) humidity is high (d) weather is too cold 24. A condition of long period of insufficient or no rainfall is called (a) flood (b) drought 195

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(c) desertification (d) endangering 25. Tropical monsoon and equatorial are ___________ type of climate. (a) polar (b) temperate (c) tropical (d) frontal 26. The unit of measurement of temperature is (a) degree Celsius (b) degree Fahrenheit (c) percentage (d) both (a) and (b) 27.

Process in which water vapours are released in air by leaves of plants is called (a) respiration (b) precipitation (c) evaporation (d) transpiration

28. ___________ is used to measure the extent to which the weather is hot or cold. (a) Wind (b) Precipitation (c) Humidity (d) Temperature 29.

COP 21 was held in which city? (a) London (b) Paris (c) Washington (d) Lima

30. Climate change is not likely to cause massive increase in (a) national change (b) population growth (c) sea-level rise (d) biodiversity loss 196

CHAPTER 13 Management of Solid and Hazardous Wastes

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Introduction Waste is any material that is not needed by the owner, producer or process. Waste has always been a part of the earth’s ecosystem, but due to rapid growth in human activities, that is urbanization and industrialization, the quantity and types of wastes have increased exponentially, which makes it necessary for their proper management. Solid waste can be categorized into household wastes, hazardous wastes, and biomedical or hospital wastes. The composition, quantity, and disposal of waste determine the environment problem. To minimize the adverse effects of any waste, it needs to be scientifically managed and disposed of after treatment. Solid waste is the waste arising from human and animal activities that are normally solid and discarded as unwanted material. The term ‘solid waste’ is all inclusive and encompasses the heterogeneous mass of throwaways from the urban communities, agricultural, industrial and mineral wastes.

Source of waste generation Solid waste is of various forms and is generated out of activities of domestic, industrial, commercial, institutional sectors, besides agriculture. Biomedical waste originates from hospitals and clinics, and includes blood, diseased organs, poisonous medicines, etc. E-waste is the more recent form of waste generated from discarded electronic equipment such as TV, computers, laptops, tablets, mobile phones, white goods (fridge, washing machines, dryers), home appliances. Radioactive waste is a by-product of nuclear power technology and nuclear power generation. This waste remains active for thousands of years. Natural disasters also lead to waste generation in the form of rubbles from earthquakes, slag and ash from volcanoes, and waste left behind by floods, cyclones and typhoons.

Solid waste management It is better to prevent generation of waste than to produce waste and then ‘manage’ it. Waste can simply be not thrown away. What we throw or dispose of remains in the ecosystem and causes some form of pollution. Waste reduction must come before waste management, and we should follow ‘refuge, reduce, reuse, and recycle’. Solid waste management is necessary for curbing pollution and it can be defined as an integrated process of collecting, storing, transporting,

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treating, recycling, reusing, and disposing waste. All steps are conducted simultaneously one after the other.

Disposal of solid waste Solid waste treatment and disposal are the important steps of solid waste management. Treatment and disposal methods include sanitary landfills, incineration, pyrolysis, composting, and anaerobic digestion.

Pollution caused by solid wastes If not treated properly before disposal, solid waste causes pollution in the atmosphere as well as in land and groundwater. In India, the normal practice is to dump solid waste in land (landfill). When rainwater passes through the dumping yard, it percolates into the ground below. It carries leachates, that is poisonous water, and mixes with groundwater; thus, contaminating it. When solid waste is burnt in open, poisonous gases are released as the waste contains polythene, plastics, rubber, and as a result, air pollution takes place.

Hazardous waste management Hazardous waste is any kind of waste that can cause death, birth defects, illness, and functional abnormalities in living creatures. The damage or harm caused by hazardous waste to humans or surroundings are beyond repair. Hazardous waste is commonly produced in industries and hospitals. Hazardous waste of industries contains chemicals and toxic substances while that of hospitals contains pathogens, chemicals and other infectious substances. These wastes need to be disposed of properly; otherwise it can be harmful to humans and the environment.

Classification of hazardous waste Hazardous waste has been carefully classified into 18 categories. Identification of source and category of hazardous waste helps trace the cause of its generation and how to reduce it at the source itself.

Characteristics of hazardous waste Hazardous waste has four main characteristics: flammability, reactivity, corrosiveness, and toxicity. These are responsible for causing ill effects to humans or their surroundings.

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Handling and disposal of hazardous waste Handling and disposal of hazardous waste is a dangerous process. Employees dealing with it must be educated and well trained. After generation, hazardous waste is stored at the source site or disposal site before being sent for processing. Its transportation should be leakage free. Infectious hazardous wastes are disposed of using techniques such as incinerator or autoclaving. Hazardous waste management in India follows seven steps: (i) production of hazardous wastes, (ii) quantification, (iii) identifying its nature, (iv) finding appropriate disposal sites, (v) transport, (vi) storage facilities, and (vii) disposal procedure.

Conclusion “Prevention is better than cure” applies truly to the management of solid and hazardous wastes. Hazardous waste needs special skills and techniques for its management. Both types of wastes cause pollution and, hence, their proper and scientific management is necessary. In this chapter, an attempt has been made to cover all aspects of solid and hazardous wastes through multiple choice questions.

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EXERCISES 1.

The highest heating value is of (a) garbage (b) rubbish (c) hospital waste (c) industrial waste

2.

The highest moisture content is in (a) garbage (b) rubbish (c) hospital waste (d) agricultural waste

3.

Which of the following is a likely characteristic of hazardous waste? (a) Ignitability (b) Corrosivity (c) Reactivity (d) All of the above

4.

By which of the following ways can the high-level radioactive waste be managed? (a) Open dumping (b) Composting (c) Incineration (d) Dumping in sealed containers

5.

Which of the following methods can be used to dispose of biomedical waste? (a) Incineration (b) Autoclaving (c) Land filling (d) Both (b) and (c)

6.

Which of the following is a biodegradable organic chemical/ substance? (a) Plastic (b) Oil (c) Pesticide (d) Garbage 201

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7.

Which of the following is not a solid waste? (a) Plastic waste (a) Waste oils (b) Waste from demolition of buildings (c) Garbage from households

8.

Which of the following is not a household waste? (a) Leftover fruits (b) Vegetable peals (c) Waste from demolition of buildings (d) Bandages and culture samples

9.

Waste that can cause death, birth defects, illnesses, and functional abnormalities in living creatures is categorized under (a) household waste (b) biomedical or hospital waste (c) hazardous waste (d) sewage waste

10.

Municipal waste does not include (a) kitchen waste (b) vegetable peals and leftover fruits (c) hazardous waste (d) waste from demolition of buildings

11.

Which of the following processes are included in solid waste management? (a) Collection and sorting (b) Transportation and storage (c) Treatment, recycling, and disposal (d) All of the above

12. Which of the following is not a solid waste disposal method/ technique? (a) Landfill (b) Incineration (c) Pyrolysis (d) Collection of waste

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13.

Hazardous waste is commonly produced in (a) industries and hospitals (b) households (c) schools and colleges (d) hotels

14.

Once known as “The Green City in the Sun”, ______ is now called “The Stinking City in the Sun” due to the odour of uncollected garbage (a) (b) (c) (d)

Beijing Nairobi Woburn Hong Kong

15.

Which of the following practices is used to reduce and manage municipal solid waste (MSW)? (a) Waste combustion (b) Source reduction (c) Recycling of materials (d) All of the above

16.

Which of the following is not a material in MSW? (a) Agricultural wastes (b) Food wastes (c) Glass and plastic (d) Wood wastes

17.

Which of the following is not a source of reduction activity? (a) Products package reuse (b) Reducing use by modifying practices (c) Saving energy by using recycled materials (d) Package or product design that reduces material or toxicity

18.

Facilities that perform the function of preparing recyclables for marketing are referred to as (a) WTE’s (b) RDF’s (c) TSD’s (d) MRF’s 203

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19.

Which of the following is not a method for the disposal of hazardous wastes? (a) In-situ vitrification (b) Landfills (c) Deep-well injection (d) Surface impoundments

20. Which of the following is not a major option for managing hazardous wastes? (a) Reducing the production of waste while increasing the amount generated (b) Reducing the volume and/or hazard of the waste (c) Long-term storage or disposal (d) Dumping at sea 21.

Secure landfills require all but one of the following. (a) Single liners (b) Groundwater monitoring (c) Financial guarantee for post-closure activities (d) Leachate collection system

22. One of the most effective forms of hazardous waste disposal may be (a) landfills (b) deep-well injection (c) incineration (d) surface impoundment 23. What is the most common form of waste management in the United States? (a) Recovery (b) Combustion (c) Sanitary landfill (d) Hog feeding 24. Landfills have historically been sources of all but one of the following. (a) Breeding ground for insects and rodents (b) Producers of propane gas (c) Pollution to groundwater (d) Odour 204

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25. Compost is being used for all of the following except (a) landfill cover (b) landscaping (c) low-grade fertilizers (d) agricultural feed 26. Problem of solid waste disposal can be reduced through (a) recycling (b) lesser pollution (c) more timber (d) population control 27.

Hazardous waste of industries contains (a) non-toxic substances (b) food particles (c) pathogens (d) chemicals and toxic substances

28. Hazardous wastes in India have been classified into (a) 5 categories (b) 52 categories (c) 18 categories (d) 65 categories 29. Cyanide waste has been classified in the category number __________ in India. (a) 5 (b) 18 (c) 1 (d) 7 30. Category number 4 of hazardous waste contains (a) metal finishing waste (b) wastes from oil and oil emulsions (c) phenols (d) mercury, arsenic, thallium, and cadmium bearing waste

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31.

Which of the following is not a characteristic of hazardous waste? (a) Flammability (b) Reactivity (c) Toxicity (d) Flowability

32. Hospital waste contains (a) pathogens (b) chemicals (c) poisonous materials (d) edible waste materials 33. Which of the following characteristics decides how easily hazardous waste can catch fire? (a) Flammability (b) Reactivity (c) Toxicity (d) Flowability 34. Hazardous waste categorization helps in deciding its (a) nature (b) reactivity (c) toxicity (d) flowability 35. The hazardous waste disposal of dioxin, printed circuit board, and toxins is done through (a) landfills (b) incineration (c) chemical treatment (d) All of the above 36. Hazardous Waste (Management and Handling) Rules were notified by the Ministry of Environment and Forest, Government of India on (a) 28 July 1989 (b) 20 September 1951 (c) 01 January 2012 (d) 28 May 2007

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37.

Monthly output of hazardous waste amounting to 100 kg or more but less than 1000 kg is termed as (a) small quantity waste (b) large quantity waste (c) medium quantity waste (d) None of the above

38. Basel Convention deals with (a) (b) (c) (d) 39.

household waste sewage wastewater municipal solid waste hazardous waste

The primary objective of Basel Convention is to (a) reduce and control the trans-boundary movement and generation of hazardous waste (b) encourage the trans-boundary movement and generation of hazardous waste (c) reduce and control the trans-boundary movement and generation of electronic waste (d) trade with generation of hazardous waste

40. Which of the following does not fall in the category of hazardous waste? (a) Household waste (b) Pathogenic waste (c) Polychlorinated bi-phenyl (PCB) (d) Dioxins 41.

Infectious hazardous wastes are disposed of using techniques like (a) composting (b) landfills (c) incineration or autoclaving (d) None of the above

42. Monthly output of hazardous wastes amounting to 1000 kg or more but less than 1000 kg is termed as (a) small quantity waste (b) large quantity waste 207

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(c) medium quantity waste (d) extra-large quantity waste 43. The study of modern refuse and trash as well as the use of trashcans, compactors, and various types of trashcan liners is known as (a) garbology (b) materiology (c) incineration (d) autoclaving 44. Biodegradable waste includes any organic matter in waste, which can be broken down into carbon dioxide, water, methane or simple organic molecules by microorganisms and other living things can be treated using (a) anaerobic digestion (b) plasma arc technology (c) incineration (d) autoclaving 45. Which of the following technologies is not used for the processing of MSW for energy generation? (a) Landfill gas capture (b) Plasma arc technology (c) Incineration (d) Autoclaving 46. For hazardous wastes, the containers should be labelled (a) after the container has been filled with waste (b) never (c) as soon as the first drop of waste is added to the container (d) when the waste is brought to EHS for disposal 47.

All of the following statements about hazardous waste containers are true, except for the one. Identify that statement. (a) Containers must be closed except when removing or adding waste. (b) Containers must be clean on the outside. (c) Contents must be compatible with the type of waste containers. (d) Any type of container, including food containers, can be used to contain hazardous waste. 208

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48. Which method is considered as an unacceptable (illegal) means of disposing of hazardous waste? (a) Pouring down the sink (b) Placing in the regular trash (c) Pouring down the storm sewer (d) None of the above 49.

A hazardous waste can be a (a) (b) (c) (d)

solid liquid sludge All of the above

50. While labelling a vessel containing hazardous waste, which statement is correct? (a) Only the hazardous substance present in greatest volume needs to be listed on the label. (b) Only flammable, corrosive, and reactive substances need to be listed. (c) All hazardous components and their concentrations should be listed. (d) Only the liquid’s colour, taste, and general smell need to be listed.

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CHAPTER 14 Eco-marketing

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Introduction Awareness about environmental concerns has created an atmosphere that can not be ignored. Any product, right from procurement of raw material, production process, packaging, marketing strategy, that addresses the environment issues is said to be an eco-product. Similarly, any service that addresses the environmental issues will be an eco-service. Marketing of eco-product or services is eco-marketing. The concept of eco-marketing was introduced in the 1970s but it gained significance during the 1990s because of the measures initiated to curb environmental degradation and encourage eco-friendly products. Eco-marketing has evolved over the years, and is no longer confined to eco-products. On the other hand, new objectives have been included with the aim of achieving eco-efficiency during the production process and supply chain. It also focuses on encouraging sustainability to be achieved at the organization level. Reputed multi-national companies such as Toyota, Ford, Honda, Nokia, Tata Consultancy Services, Wipro, Samsung, McDonald’s, Wall Mart, have adopted eco-marketing as their business strategy. Concurrently, government agencies, non-governmental agencies, pollution control board, among others, are framing rules and regulations that promote environmental concerns including eco-marketing concepts. Bill Pride and O C Ferrell define eco-marketing as ‘green marketing’ and sustainable marketing as “an organization’s efforts at designing, promoting, pricing and distributing products that will not harm the environment.”

Corporate environmentalism Global warming and environmental degradation have made it necessary for the corporate sector to rethink/redesign their business model and formulate an eco-friendly corporate management strategy. The American Market Association (AMA) in 1991 reused an environment policy statement that made an appeal to the marketers to incorporate environmental concerns in the business decision making, enhance eco-friendly products, and find solutions for environment problems. The role of corporates or private companies as a protector of environment is termed as ‘corporate environmental responsibility’. It can be achieved only if the corporate sector/organizations consider the entire society as stakeholder.

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Eco-marketing process Eco-marketing includes a wide range of activities, such as eco-product development, green packaging, eco-labelling, green procurement, green promotions, etc.

Benefits of Eco-marketing Today, due to awareness about environment friendly products, companies have the responsibility of designing and manufacturing green eco-products. Eco-marketing helps an organization to meet its environmental protection needs, to eliminate and manage wastes, to modify production process and packaging, to access new market, and to achieve employee and customer satisfaction. In addition, eco-marketing also ensures opportunity for innovation, regulatory compliance, competitive advantage, market reputation, and environmental sustenance.

Green supply chain management Green supply chain management is integration of environmental thinking into supply chain management. It includes supply planning, demand planning, green logistics, and green packaging.

Eco-labelling Eco-labelling is a method that creates a brand name or a trademark of an eco-product. Eco-labels provide information regarding the materials used in the production, impact of the product on the environment, and environmental significance of a product. It builds brand equity and wins brand loyalty among the customers. The Indian Government has launched an eco-labelling scheme known as ‘Eco-mark’ for easy identification by consumers of environmentally friendly products. The eco-mark label is in the form of an earthen pot as shown in Figure 1. Eco-mark label is awarded to those products that meet the specified environmental criteria and quality requirements of ‘Indian Standards’. Most of the countries are adopting eco-labelling programmes. Germany’s eco-labelling programme launched in 1977 is named as ‘Blue Angel’, USA’s eco-label is known as ‘Green Seal’, ‘Nordic Swan’ is for Sweden, ‘EcoMark’ is for Japan, ‘EU Flower’ represents the eco-label scheme of European Union.

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Figure 1 Eco-mark label of India

Eco-mark scheme of India Eco-mark, the eco-labelling scheme, was constituted by the Government of India in 1991 for easy identification of environment-friendly products. The specific objectives of the scheme are as follows: • To provide an incentive for manufacturers and importers to reduce adverse environmental impact of products. • To reward genuine initiatives by companies to reduce adverse environmental impact of their products. • To assist consumers to become environmentally responsible in their daily lives by providing information to take account of environmental factors in their purchase decisions. • To encourage citizens to purchase products which have less harmful environmental impacts. • To improve the quality of the environment and encourage the sustainable management of resources.

Conclusion Eco-marketing gives rise to green consumerism and helps to create awareness about environment degradation. The various aspects of eco-marketing and related areas have been discussed in this chapter. 214

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EXERCISES 1.

_________ formulated an environmental policy statement that urged all marketers to incorporate environmental concerns into their internal decision-making process of the business. (a) American Marketing Association (b) American Association for Marketing (c) Marketing Association of America (d) Association for American Market

2.

Which of the following theories includes the discipline of business law? (a) Corporate accountability (b) Stakeholder (c) Corporate social responsibility (d) Sustainable development

3.

According to which theory does the society have many explicit and implicit contracts? (a) Rights theory (b) Social contract theory (c) Social justice theory (d) Deontological theory

4.

Who defined sustainability marketing as the process of creating, producing, and delivering sustainable solutions with higher net sustainable value whilst continuously satisfying customers and other stakeholders? (a) Donald A Fuller (b) Martin Charter (c) Philip Kotler (d) Gerald Zaltman

5.

_________ is the first phase of evolution of green marketing. (a) Environmental green marketing (b) Ecological green marketing (c) Sustainable green marketing (d) Social green marketing

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6.

_________ is an eco-theory of marketing which mainly focuses on the overall system of improvement. (a) Theory of constraints (b) Theory of planned behaviour (c) Theory of reasoned action (d) Theory of marketing myopia

7.

_________ is the basis of eco-marketing process. (a) Eco-labelling (b) Green promotion (c) Product development (d) Green packaging

8.

_________ is one of the significant environmental aspects assessed in a company. (a) Company standards (b) Raw material purchased (c) Cost of the final product (d) Customer requirements

9.

The E-waste Management and Handling Rules, 2011 place the responsibility of the entire lifecycle of the product, from design to disposal, on (a) manufacturers (b) government (c) Pollution Control Board (d) consumers

10.

In eco-designing, the one of the methods used for minimizing the energy consumed by the product is (a) energy efficiency (b) regulatory (c) stakeholder (d) material restriction

11.

In developed countries, innovation in __________ has reduced the energy consumption by the industrial sector. (a) sustainable production (b) sustainable consumption 216

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(c) waste management (d) product recycling 12. Which is the third stage of a product life-cycle development? (a) Distribution (b) Manufacture (c) End-of-life (d) Rigging 13.

Which one of the following levels is part of the product development process? (a) Product implementation (b) Product development (c) Product synthesis (d) Product design

14.

_________ is one of the best practices followed for eco-design in many countries. (a) Eco-design dissemination (b) Database collection (c) Methodical development (d) Unstructured development

15.

_________ is one of the steps in implementing eco-design during product development. (a) Training on eco-design issues (b) Merging companies (c) Venturing into newer products (d) Wasting raw material

16.

_________ strategy specifies that organizations have to procure products which comprise environment-friendly attributes. (a) Behaviour standard (b) Product standard (c) Collaboration (d) Environmental management system

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17.

_________ is an approach that forms a basis of the green supply chain planning. (a) Life cycle engineering (b) Supply chain planning (c) Green logistics (d) Demand planning

18.

_________ has identified seven strategies to improve eco-efficiency. (a) World Business Council for Sustainable Development (b) European Union (c) European Commission (d) World Business Council for Eco-innovation Development

19.

_________ helps to regenerate natural resources. (a) Waste treatment (b) Material re-processing (c) Natural metabolism (d) Raw material processing

20. The strategy that deals with instructing the consumers regarding the importance of an organization’s eco-marketing steps from the environmental perspective is called ________. (a) being genuine (b) educating the consumers (c) qualification and disclosures (d) overstatement of environmental attribute 21.

An ‘eco-label’ is a _________ phenomenon used to identify a product that meets specified environmental performance criteria or standards. (a) social (b) political (c) industrial (d) consumer-induced

22. __________ is the first country to enact a law that will create a green public purchasing or procurement policy. (a) Denmark (b) Taiwan (c) Spain (d) Thailand 218

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23. Many governments and industry groups recognize _________ as a tool that provides the required economic incentives. (a) product labelling (b) non-labelling (c) eco-labelling (d) cost labelling 24. Eco-labelling highly depends on the _________ of a country and consumers. (a) government (b) society (c) purchasing pattern (d) culture 25. _________ is/are considered as the most important asset of an organization. (a) Brand (b) Machines (c) Public (d) Systems and processes 26. Consumers nowadays use _________ to measure the environmental impact of their lives. (a) demographic data (b) ecological footprint (c) psychographic data (d) carbon dating 27.

Green consumer behaviour is driven by (a) values (b) attitude (c) price of green products (d) quality of green products

28. _________ has made environmentalism a strategic issue for companies. (a) Eco-labelling scheme (b) Stakeholder activism

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(c) Investment in technology (d) Reclamation of environmentally-sensitive products 29.

Consumers are more skeptical about (a) eco-labelling schemes (b) eco-marketing (c) green advertising claims (d) technologies used to produce green products

30. Which of the following is one of the eco-friendly jewellery makers in India? (a) Blue Banyan (b) Eco-Earth Conscious Optics (c) The Navneet Publication Ltd (d) Tata Motors 31.

In (a) (b) (c) (d)

which year did Government of India adopt the Eco-mark sign? 1975 1991 1997 1980

32. Which of the following is not a principle of successful green products? (a) Customer value positioning (b) Calibration of consumer knowledge (c) Credibility of product claim (d) Accreditation of the company 33. _________ is the eco-mark label of India. (a) A blue bird (b) A red rose (c) An earthen pot (d) White rabbit 34. Blue Angel is the eco-mark label of (a) India (b) China (c) Germany (d) Japan 220

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35. The eco-mark label of the USA is (a) Blue Bird (b) Green Seal (c) Nordic Swan (d) An earthen pot

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CHAPTER 15 Environmental Finance

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Introduction Environmental finance is the finance required for protecting the environment, biodiversity, and conservation to improve the environment. A part of environmental economics, it has been considered as a priority by the international donor community. Environmental finance should not be considered a donor-supported activity or separate projects but a part of national and global financing. Environmental accounting deals with the measurement of environment performance. It analyses both financial and non-financial data. Environmental accounting systems provide information on the environmental impacts of the organization. Environmental accounting has four approaches: (i) financial risk reporting, (ii) social accountability reporting, (iii) energy and materials accounting, and (iv) environment-related management accounting.

International environment funds There are many forms of environment funds available in the global world, and there are a number of international funding agencies which provide funds for a variety of sustainable environment-related activities. United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) supports programmes and projects that are financed by the Global Environmental Facility (GEF). The Environment and Thematic Trust Fund (EE TTF) provides financial assistance to modern and catalytic initiatives. World Bank, UN Environment Programme, International Finance Corporation, UNIDO, UN Food and Agricultural Organization, World Bank Forest Carbon Partnership Fund, GEF Tropical Forest Account, World Bank Clean Technology Fund (CTF), GEF-IFC Earth Fund, World Bank Strategic Climate Fund, Kyoto Protocol Adaptation Fund are some of the international funding agencies available for financing environment-related projects and activities.

Climate change financing The variations in the climatic conditions that persist for an extended period of time is known as climate change. To mitigate climate change, various mechanisms are being tried worldwide. Kyoto Protocol is an international treaty in which 37 industrialized countries participated and committed to reduce greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions. Three market-based mechanisms: (i) Emission Trading, (ii) Clean Development Mechanism, and (iii) Joint Implementation have been tried under Kyoto Protocol. The Kyoto Protocol is at present under review and the new mechanism with active participation of more countries is expected soon.

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Socially responsible investment Socially responsible investment involves avoiding investments in firms that produce alcohol, tobacco, etc., and extends help to firms producing ecofriendly products. Green banking is a type of banking which uses environmental and ecological aspects in its lending principles. It encourages industries to invest in environmental management to reduce their adverse impact on environment.

Taxing tools for environment financing Environment finance can be raised by imposing tax on environmentally polluting substances. Environment taxes can be imposed on any industrial activity to curb the emission of GHGs. Energy tax, insurance premium tax, solid waste tax, toxic waste tax, and corporate environment income tax are some types of environment taxes. A recent environment tax is the coal cess that is imposed for promoting clean technologies. The finance for environment protection can also be raised by imposing fees on water and sewer, recycling and disposal processes, fertilizers and pesticides, leather industrial products, etc.

Environment financing sectors Environment financing is required for protecting and improving environment, waterbodies, controlling solid waste pollution, curbing air pollution, industrial waste pollution, treating sewage, health-related expenditure due to environment degradation, setting up of pollution treatment plants, installation of pollution control devices, etc. The major sectors, include transport, housing, industrial, institutional, municipal, commercial where due to daily activities, waste is created and if not handled properly, pollution degradation takes place.

Market approach for pollution abatement To control pollution, the technologies involved are expensive, require reformulation of production process, and consume both time and money. Regulatory framework and pollution standards have been put in place to control pollution. However, pollution is controlled in a better way by using market approach to achieve ambient air quality and reduce emissions from sources as well. The Clean Air Act Amendments in 1990, introduced by USA, is a market-based incentive to reduce pollution.

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There are two forms of incentives—pollution fees and marketable permits—introduced as a market approach to pollution abatement. Pollution fees refer to the taxes levied on polluters depending on the amount of pollutants discharged into landfills and airshed waterways. Marketable permits are tradable licences that polluters can buy and sell to reach the control levels set by regulatory authorities. These permits have been used in the United States because they do not levy large taxes on small-scale industries. Cap and trade is a method of reducing pollution where a cap is set on the amounts of pollutants that can be discharged into the environment and the permits obtained by the companies can be traded. Emission reduction credit (ERC) is given to an emission source whose emission levels are lesser than the fixed limit. These permits can be sold or banked for future use. Demand side management pricing is a method in which energy consumption is balanced depending on the available energy. Pricing of water conservation using financial instruments is necessary to avoid wastage of water as water is an economic good. Environmental self-audits refer to the voluntary audits conducted by the respective industries to keep a check on the emission of pollutants. Financial incentives are provided to companies that use costeffective, eco-friendly technologies to conserve energy and prevent pollution. Planning transport effectively by using biofuels also saves energy and avoids pollution. Green buildings are buildings that not only conserve energy but also provide a healthier and more resource-efficient living environment. Ecotourism, water finance, public–private partnership, communitybased environment protection are a few practical approaches to protect the environment.

Polluter pays principle Polluter pays principle (PPP) is an environmental policy in which the polluter is made to pay for polluting the environment. This policy determines the various ways in which pollution prevention and control can be allocated. It is also known as the extended polluter responsibility. The aim of this principle is to transfer the responsibility of waste management from governments to the entities that cause pollution. The scope of PPP has evolved over time and it even prevents accidental pollution.

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Conclusion Environmental finance is required for conserving and making sustainable use of natural resources especially forest, soil, water, mineral resources, energy resources, land resources, etc. It includes the aspects of corporate finance, risk management, investment analysis, climate mitigation, pollution costs, renewable energy, and energy efficiency. The related aspects of environmental finance have been covered in this chapter and the questions have been presented accordingly.

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EXERCISES 1.

The ______ of native biodiversity is the irreversible human impact on ecosystems. (a) loss (b) gain (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above

2.

______ development implies economic development that can sustain itself in the long run without adversely affecting the environment. (a) Increasing (b) Emerging (c) Sustainable (d) Constant

3.

The ______ is the global developmental network of the United Nations. (a) UN (b) UNCTAD (c) UNDP (d) UNFCCC

4.

Which of the following is the harmful gas that is warming the climate by accumulating in the atmosphere? (a) Methane (b) Ethane (c) Propane (d) Butane

5.

Which of the following can explain how business activities are affecting its employees? (a) Environmental mainstreaming (b) Environmental finance (c) Sustainable development (d) Environmental strategy

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6.

The Indian Government is providing its support by granting (a) subsidies (b) grants (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) imposing taxes

7.

The capacity of a system to do work is defined as (a) energetic (b) energy (c) resource (d) renewable energy

8.

PASS stands for (a) Pollution Abatement Systems Specialists (b) Population Abatement Systems Specialists (c) Pollution Amendment Systems Specialists (d) Pollution Abatement Systems Specialty

9.

Which of the following plays a key role in agricultural productivity? (a) Lithosphere (b) Stratosphere (c) Pedosphere (d) Ionosphere

10.

The operators of tourism industry are mainly concerned with achieving (a) an equal amount of return on investment (RoI) (b) more amount of RoI (c) less amount of RoI (d) None of the above

11.

Environment conservation includes the precious element that is (a) water (b) oxygen (c) nitrogen (d) oxygen

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12. ______ are business relationships that exist between the public sector and the business world where there is allocation of risks, rewards, and responsibilities. (a) Purchasing power parity (b) Public–private partnerships (c) Private–private sector (d) Public–public sector 13.

______ is a holistic concept in which decisions, results, and accountability are related to ESG factors. (a) Sustainable community (b) Public–private partnerships (c) Purchasing power parity (d) Sustainability

14.

Investments should not be made on the personal views of the (a) stakeholder (b) designer (c) decision-maker (d) retailer

15.

The spending on environmental management is between 3% and 5% of the (a) gross national product (b) gross domestic product (c) national product (d) domestic product

16.

______ is a biological environment that includes organisms living in a particular area and also the non-living components that the organism interacts with. (a) Ecosystem (b) Environment (c) Environment system (d) Biological system

17.

Which of the following are the regional development banks? (a) African Development Bank (b) European Investment Bank 230

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(c) Bank for Reconstruction and Development (d) All of the above 18.

Global Environment Facility (GEF) is mainly designed for (a) dealing with the critical issues of global environment (b) dealing with the various issues (c) verifying proposals (d) building national cooperation

19.

______ absorbs the heat and re-emits a portion of the heat to the earth’s surface, thus preventing the earth from becoming very cold. (a) Methane (b) Ozone (c) Water vapour (d) Nitrous oxide

20. Which of the following phase is involved in kick-off meeting? (a) Preparation (b) Baseline analysis (c) Scenario analysis (d) Implementation 21.

In India, the management of solid waste tax is financed by ______ tax. (a) property (b) environmental (c) traditional (d) sales

22. Energy generated from sources that are available on the earth in limited quantities and are gradually depleting is called (a) renewable sources of energy (b) non-renewable sources of energy (c) energy (d) kinetic energy 23. ERC stands for (a) Emission reduction credit (b) Emission reducing credit

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(c) Emission reduction card (d) Emission reducing card 24. Community participation in ecotourism can be grouped into ______ groups. (a) two (b) three (c) four (d) five 25. Ecotourism can be stated as (a) conserving natural and cultural resources (b) enriching and empowering tourist’s experience (c) improving both economic and business profitability (d) All of the above 26. ______ describes the relationship between the global water resources and the human demand for it. (a) Water (b) Water crisis (c) Water act (d) Water shortage 27.

In ______ arrangement, the private sector is the owner, builder, and operator of a facility. (a) privatization (b) merchant facility (c) developer financing (d) turnkey facility

28. ______ is the knowledge of building, maintaining, restoring, or improving the equilibrium between society and nature. (a) Eco-design (b) Eco-literacy (c) Eco-marketing (d) Eco-design measures

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29.

The United Nations has developed ______ principles for responsible investment. (a) six (b) five (c) seven (d) eight

30. Environmental factors mainly focus on (a) (b) (c) (d) 31.

resource management and pollution prevention health and safety diversity shareholder rights

Which of the following is the primary goal for sustainable development? (a) Eliminating wastes and emissions (b) Increasing emissions (c) Decreasing emissions (d) Moderating emissions and wastage

32. Which of the following connects different countries to share knowledge, experience, and resources? (a) UNDP (b) UN (c) UNCTED (d) NGO 33. Which of the following strategies has been developed in order to resolve the drawbacks of national environmental strategies? (a) Investment strategy (b) Institutional strategy (c) Environmental financing strategy (d) Environmental strategy 34. Which of the following are the environmental issues caused due to fossil fuels? (a) Oil spills (b) Acid rain (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Rain 233

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

35. _______ refers to the marketing of environmental-friendly products and services. (a) Eco-marketing (b) Eco-design (c) Green marketing (d) Ecotourism 36. Which of the following risks may be encountered due to a decline in the water quality? (a) Financial risk (b) Liquidity risk (c) Reputational risk (d) Physical risk 37.

Which of the following sources of revenue may probably get affected by the financial risks? (a) Tariffs (b) Taxes (c) External transfers (d) All of the above

38. A person at _______ eco-literacy level has knowledge and understands the nature. (a) nominal (b) functional (c) operational (d) None of the above 39.

The companies can gain _______ by giving importance to ESG. (a) competitive advantage (b) high profits (c) risks (d) suppliers

40. The environmental finance in developing countries is a mix of the uses of (a) Official development assistance (b) mechanisms that are similar to ODA (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) ecodesign measures 234

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41.

Which of the following plants is the major cause for the loss of biodiversity? (a) Parthenium (b) Pterogyne nitens Tul. (c) Abies delavayi Franch (d) Entada polystachya

42. _______ and government officials make use of reports to ensure that the organization is operating in compliance with regulations. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Regulators Stakeholders Customers Suppliers

43. Which of the following private sectors of the World Bank helps the initiatives of directly financing the private sectors? (a) IFC (b) GEF (c) UNIDO (d) FAO 44. The _______ supports developing countries to overcome vulnerabilities and develop resistance towards the impact of climate change. (a) UNAP (b) UNEP (c) REED (d) UNDP 45. Partnership-based financing is also known as (a) purchasing power parity (b) public–private partnership (c) purchasing power partnership (d) public power partnership 46. Remediation type of coverage is also referred to as (a) clean-up cost cap (b) stop loss insurance (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) cover-up cost cap 235

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

47.

According to the Law of _______, energy can neither be created nor be destroyed. (a) National Authorities (b) Conservation of Energy (c) government (d) None of the above

48. _______ is a method used to flatten the rise and fall in energy demand. (a) Load-levelling (b) Load control (c) Rate schedules (d) Time-of-use rates 49.

Which of the following is the basic indicator to measure the benefits of a tourism industry? (a) ROI (b) GOR (c) PPP (d) NPV

50. Which of the following are the possible business opportunities with the generation of money? (a) Increased employment opportunities (b) Local distribution of tourism revenues (c) Improved local infrastructure (d) Heightened awareness and nature appreciation for visitors and local residents 51.

Which of the following sectors is facing a major challenge in water resource management? (a) Manufacturing sector (b) Sales sector (c) Commercial sector (d) Wholesale sector

52. The public organization increases the equity in the facility with every _______ payment. (a) lease (b) bank 236

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(c) monthly (d) yearly 53. The _______ provides a standard benchmark called LEED India for designing, constructing, and operating green buildings. (a) IGBC (b) IREDA (c) TERI (d) World Bank 54. Which of the following factors can create value in both short term and long term? (a) Environmental (b) Social (c) Governance (d) Legal 55. _______ is mainly used for the extractive industry and infrastructure projects. (a) Banking (b) Performance bond (c) Build–operate–transfer (d) Regulatory framework 56. Which of the following is the major task for attaining sustainable development? (a) Designing and executing an implementation plan (b) Creating supportive corporate culture (c) Developing measures and standards of performance (d) Preparing reports 57.

The energy sector is responsible for about three-fourth of the ______ emissions and one-fifth of the ______ emissions. (a) CH4, CO2 (b) CO2, CH4 (c) N2O2, CO2 (d) SO2, CO2

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58. Which of the following acts as a coenzyme in various biochemical reactions? (a) K (b) He (c) Li (d) Na 59.

Responsible investment practices are categorized into ______ activities. (a) proxy voting (b) shareholder involvement (c) economically targeted investments (d) All of the above

60. NGOs are recognized as _______ to focus and fix the problems present in the development process. (a) favoured child (b) unfavoured child (c) magic bullet (d) unmagic bullet

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CHAPTER 16 Sustainable Development and Corporate Social Responsibility

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Sustainable development The World Development Report 1992 defines sustainable development as the ‘‘development that lasts’’. Sustainable development emphasizes the importance of a healthy environment for sustainable livelihood. The global community is facing a wide range of challenges such as economic, social, and environmental issues that are intensifying due to climate change and globalization. Promotion of sustainable development stands out as the most well-articulated plan of action as response to all these challenges. Sustainable development refers to the process of broadening an individual’s choices. The most important are to lead a healthy life, to be literate, and to enjoy a decent standard of living. The objective of sustainable development is to create an enabling environment for people to enjoy healthy, long, and creative lives. Sustainable development bridges the gap between a nation’s economy and ecology. The Brundtland Report resulted in the organization of United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED) in 1992. The Conference was popularly known as the Earth Summit held at Rio de Janeiro in Brazil. In its report, the Brundtland Commission defined sustainable development as ‘‘a concept developed through conjunction of sustainability and development to mean development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their needs.’’ Sustainable development implies the development that absorbs the impact on environment and minimizes environmental damage. Edward Barbier presented a holistic approach to the concept of sustainable development through the Venn diagram (Figure 1). According to the diagram, development is said to be sustainable if the level of satisfaction of environment, economic, and social needs does not go down over time and the level of satisfaction of at least one type of need increases.

Figure 1

Sustainable development

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Global response to sustainable development has been the focus of various developed and developing nations since the understanding of harmful effects of industrialization, urbanization, consumerism, has became more clear. Several treaties, protocols, declarations have been formulated and conferences were held over the past few decades on sustainable development. In 1972, the United Nations Conference on the Human Environment held in Stockholm and the World Conservation Strategy of the International Union for the Conservation of Nature (on 5 March 1980) brought the developed countries together to describe the rights of the human family to a productive and healthy environment and assert the interdependence of conservation and development.

Corporate social responsibility The concept of corporate social responsibility (CSR) has been one of the most significant trends in business management and governance over the past few decades. Traditionally, CSR meant just another regulatory compliance on the part of a corporate organization. Now corporates are committing themselves to improving society and protecting the environment as it has become obligatory for them to integrate CSR into their corporate strategies, decision-making and management, and link it to the society in which they operate. The trend has caught on to the extent that CSR in now considered to be a business opportunity that allows companies to improve their reputation increasingly by adopting good business practices of which CSR is an integral part. Corporate social responsibility can be defined as a form of self-regulation practised by businesses and integrated into an organization’s business model. It may function as an in-built mechanism that helps an organization to monitor itself and ensure its compliance with law, ethical standards, and international norms. It helps the organization to embrace responsibility for its actions and encourage positive impact through its activities relating to protection of the environment and rights of consumers, employees, communities, and stakeholders. The corporate social responsibility has been defined by many organizations. World Business Council for Sustainable Development in 1999 defined CSR as ‘‘the commitment of business to contribute to sustainable economic development, working with employees, their families, local community and society at large to improve their quality of life.’’ Philip Kotler and Nancy Lee (2005) defined CSR ‘‘a commitment to improve community well-being through discretionary business practices and contributions of corporate resources.’’ 241

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

World Bank defines it as ‘‘CSR is the commitment of business to managing and improving the economic, environmental and social implications of its activities at the firm, local, regional and global levels.’’ Although the Government of India has made efforts to make CSR practice mandatory for companies, by directing them to spend at least 2% of their net profits on CSR, this measure had to be abandoned after being subject to strong criticism. ISO 26000 is the recognized international standard for CSR. The scope of the term includes corporate sustainability, corporate citizenship, corporate social investment, business sustainability, and corporate governance. CSR is a comprehensive phenomenon which covers major dimensions, that is legal dimension, ethical dimension, economic dimension, and philanthropic dimension. The associated activities under these dimensions are shown in Figure 2.

Figure 2

Dimensions of CSR

Theories of corporate social responsibility The modern concept of CSR can be traced back to mid-1800s, when industrialists like John H. Patterson of National Cash Register started the industrial welfare movement and philanthropists like John D. Rockefeller set up a charitable precedent.

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Bernard Dempsy, in his article titled ‘The Roots of Business Responsibility’, published in the Harvard Business Review in 1949, laid out a rationale for responsible business practice. Without using the term CSR, Dempsey provided a foundation of the concept and underlined four concepts of justice: (i) exchange, (ii) distributive, (iii) general, and (iv) contributive.

Benefits of corporate social responsibility Corporate social responsibility has evolved as an important activity in the global business community and is slowly becoming a mainstream activity. Various benefits of CSR can be documented; however, these can be easily categorized under company benefits, community benefits, and environmental benefits. Company benefits include better financial performance, less operating costs, better brand image and reputation, and increased productivity. Community benefits include contributions through charity, volunteer programmes by employees, and community development programmes conducted by companies. Environmental benefits include emphasis on the use of renewable resources of energy, enhanced functionality of the product as well as durability, and combining environmental management tools with business plans. The benefits of CSR also include a brand differentiation for the company, addressing consumer prospective, risk management, and also helping in employee retention which have been depicted in Figure 3.

Figure 3

Benefits of CSR

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Conclusion Sustainable development and CSR, although not directly related, are complementary to each other. Both are beneficial to the society. On the basis of reciprocity with an objective to maintain a successful company in the long run, CSR is usually used as the fibre of sustainable development approach. The topics relating to sustainable development, its process and initiatives for sustainable management, recent advances, CSR, its impact on market growth and society have been covered in this chapter.

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EXERCISES 1.

______ is a large area comprising similar flora, fauna, and microorganisms. (a) Biological substances (b) Biome (c) Stratosphere (d) Lithosphere

2.

The ______ shows movement of food energy through an ecosystem. (a) food chain (b) biosphere (c) exosphere (d) abiotic components

3.

According to Eduard Suess, “______ is defined as the place on Earth’s surface where life dwells.” (a) Pollution (b) Troposphere (c) Biosphere (d) Biome

4.

Identify the biotic components from the following. (a) Inorganic elements (b) Dead organic matter (c) Climate (d) Animals

5.

Which of the following are the components of an ecosystem? (a) Biotic components (b) Abiotic components (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Microcomponents

6.

______ attempts to create a well-functioning association of individuals, society, and the economy. (a) Economic sustainability (b) Environmental sustainability (c) Economic development (d) Sustainable development 245

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

7.

Sunderlal Bahuguna has coined the ______ movement slogan: “Ecology is a permanent economy.” (a) Chipko (b) Vande Mataram (c) Swadeshi (d) Quit India

8.

Who is the Chairman of several influential projects of the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN)? (a) Johnson (b) Thomson (c) Robert Prescott Allen (d) Reo

9.

The ______ defines the sustainability as improving the quality of human life while living with the carrying capacity of supporting ecosystem. (a) IFAD (b) IUCN (c) ALLEN (d) UNAP

10.

The ______ Movement was a result of hundreds of independent and local initiatives mainly led by the village women of Tehri Garhwal of Uttarakhand. (a) Vande Mataram (b) Chipko (c) Swadeshi (d) Quit India

11.

Which of the following is an effective way to attain sustainability in agriculture? (a) Soil fertility (b) Sustainability (c) Sustainable development (d) Biodiversity

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12. Most of the conventional industrial processes are invloved in the ______ Model. (a) Take (b) Take-make-waste (c) Make (d) Waste 13.

Which of the following is the primary step involved in industrial sustainability? (a) Eco-efficiency (b) Sustainability (c) Economic sustainability (d) Eco-friendly

14.

Sustainable agriculture involves replenishing the soil and reducing the dependence on ______ resources. (a) renewable (b) non-renewable (c) natural (d) artificial

15.

Trying to attain ______ involves environmental regulation, defining limits, and establishing standards for emissions. (a) sustainability (b) industrial sustainability (c) sustainable development (d) industrial development

16.

Which of the following methods aids in the planning and decisionmaking process? (a) LEED (b) PPP (c) P3 (d) EIA

17.

______ is a significant step involved in the sustainable agricultural development. (a) Satisfying the human need for food (b) Decreasing the quality of environment 247

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

(c) Decreasing the quality of life for peasants and society (d) Limited utilization of resources 18.

Which of the following actions is needed to be taken to ensure that sustainable agricultural practices are implemented? (a) Declining existing production systems (b) Ensuring the protection of natural resources (c) Decreasing the efficiency of existing resources (d) Declining storage systems

19.

The Indian Government has initiated the ______ Programme, which envisages undertaking massive afforestation of degraded forestlands in the country. (a) Soil Fertility (b) Green India (c) Sustainable Development (d) Biodiversity

20. Which of the following are the Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) identified by the UN Secretariat, except (a) UNICEF (b) IMF (c) OECD (d) Mutual funds 21.

The ______ form a blueprint agreed upon by all the nations and leading institutions to meet the needs of the world’s poorest. (a) MDGs (b) NGO (c) UN (d) OECD

22. Which of the following concepts has been introduced in order to reduce carbon emissions? (a) Eco-friendly (b) Eco-labelling (c) Carbon equity (d) Carbon emissions

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23. ______ is an important ecosystem resource. (a) Temperature (b) Air (c) Atmosphere (d) Water 24. Which of the following is a prerequisite for the protection of the environment? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Poverty eradication Atmosphere Sound pollution Economic development

25. Which of the following strategies is helpful in ensuring the sustainability of natural resources? (a) Water management (b) Green agriculture (c) Green building (d) Integration of agriculture 26. Which of the following is the dimension of corporate social responsibility? (a) Physiological (b) Political (c) Ecological (d) Philanthropic 27.

The book Company and Community, 1900–60, published in 1970, is written by (a) David (b) Dempsey (c) Morrell Healed (d) Bernard

28. True social responsibility requires meeting of all ______ levels consecutively. (a) four (b) three (c) five (d) two 249

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

29.

The most important and widely-used definition of international competitiveness is provided by the (a) public companies (b) OECD (c) NGO (d) government

30. Competitiveness at the ______ level focuses on the measurement of levels and growth of GDP. (a) national (b) international (c) second (d) local 31.

Which of the following are the external drivers of CSR? (a) Cultural traditions (b) Political reforms (c) Socio-economic priorities (d) Investment incentives

32. At the ______ level, the concept of competitiveness is not limited to a market perspective. (a) initial (b) second (c) territorial (d) third 33. Which of the following principles recognize that the customers have the choice in the selection of goods and services? (a) Principle 9 (b) Principle 8 (c) Principle 7 (d) Principle 3 34. In 2009, Government of India established the ______ Company status, which raises a company’s investment ceiling from ` 1000 crore to ` 5000 crore. (a) Maharatna (b) Navratna 250

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(c) Miniratna (d) Ratna 35. Public sector companies in India are divided into ______ categories. (a) two (b) three (c) four (d) five 36. The adoption of National Voluntary Guidelines will help to (a) reduce competitive strengths (b) reduce reputations (c) attract and retain talent (d) enable managing relations with the investors 37.

Which of the following steps in the implementation process of CSR includes the development of CSR strategy? (a) Plan (b) Do (c) Check (d) Act

38. The eligibility criteria for being a Maharatna Company include having (a) significant global presence (b) international operations (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) national operations 39.

Which of the following principles recognizes that ethical conduct in all its functions and processes is the cornerstone of the responsible business? (a) Principle 1 (b) Principle 2 (c) Principle 5 (d) Principle 4

251

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

40. Which of the following is the simplest and best example for reflecting the effects of globalization? (a) National exchange of goods (b) International exchange of goods and services (c) National exchange of services (d) National exchange of exports 41.

Sustainable development refers to the (a) protection of animals (b) ecological living resources (c) ecological non-living resources (d) protection of poor people

42. OECD development assistance committee is the conglomeration of ______ member countries. (a) 31 (b) 32 (c) 34 (d) 36 43. Development Assistance Committee (DAC) mainly concentrates on the key areas like (a) overcoming poverty (b) participating fully in their societies (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) maintaining poverty 44. ______ promotes an understanding of sustainable development. (a) EUC (b) IMF (c) IOSD (d) MF 45. Which of the following banks offers innovative ways to deliver financial services to the poor? (a) State Bank of Hyderabad (b) HDFC Bank (c) ICICI Bank (d) Kotak Mahindra Bank 252

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46. Indian Green Building Council was formed by ______ in 2001. (a) LEED (b) RMZ (c) IMR (d) CII 47.

Triggering off the Green Building Movement in India is the first _________ green building in India. (a) (b) (c) (d)

silver platinum gold radium

48. Which of the following are referred to as non-profit bodies? (a) State frameworks (b) Civil society frameworks (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) District frameworks 49.

Which of the following is an approach of developing and operating public utilities and infrastructure by the private sector under the terms and conditions agreeable to both the government and the private sectors? (a) Public in centre private partnership (b) Green Building Programme (c) Non-governmental organization (d) Rural development organization

50. ______ is defined as a process of involving the local people in the protection and management of forests. (a) Environmental management (b) Energy resource management (c) Joint forest management (d) Water management 51.

______ involves the diffusion/dispersal of authority in terms of decision-making from the higher to the lower level of management. (a) Decentralization (b) Liberalization 253

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

(c) Resettlement (d) Rehabilitation 52. ______ facilitates creative thinking and innovation in planning and decision-making through increased opportunities. (a) Project screening (b) Community participation (c) Water management (d) Consultation 53. ______ is defined as the process of providing alternate land to a community displaced by man-made projects. (a) Resettlement (b) Decentralization (c) Displacement (d) Rehabilitation 54. Poverty can magnify the problem of (a) hunger (b) malnutrition (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) air pollution 55. Which of the following companies have huge oil distribution network all over the country? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Indian Oil Corporation Limited Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited Both (a) and (b) Overseas Marine Certification Services

56. ______ analysis decomposes the current image into images so that each image shows details of increasing scales. (a) Data (b) Trail sequential analysis (c) Wavelet (d) Value chain

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57.

______ is an apex body in the domain of water quality management in India. (a) CPCB (b) EQM (c) CSR (d) OMCs

58. Who was the Secretary General of the United Nations in 2004? (a) (b) (c) (d) 59.

Boutros Boutros-Ghali Kurt Waldheim Kofi Annan Ban Ki-moon

The evolution of CSR in India has followed the approaches like ______ model. (a) statistical (b) ethical (c) liberal (d) stakeholder

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CHAPTER 17 General Questions

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

EXERCISES 1.

Biotic environment includes (a) producers (b) consumers (c) decomposers (d) All of the above

2.

Decomposers include (a) bacteria (b) fungi (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) animals

3.

Abiotic environment does not include (a) air (b) water (c) soil (d) plants

4.

Vermicomposting is done by (a) fungi (b) bacteria (c) worms (d) animals

5.

The group of organisms that convert light into food are called (a) autotrophs (b) heterotrophs (c) decomposers (d) omnivores

6.

Which one of the following is not biodegradable? (a) Vegetables (b) Fruits (c) Earthworm (d) Aluminium foil

7.

Which animal(s) is/are active at night? (a) Owl (b) Rat 258

CHAPTER 17 GENERAL QUESTIONS

(c) Cockroach (d) All of the above 8.

An (a) (b) (c) (d)

animal that can tolerate the heat of the desert is rat camel cow lion

9.

Air pollution is also caused by (a) insecticides (b) sewage (c) smoke (d) loudspeakers

10.

Which of the following diseases will spread if waste materials contaminate the source of drinking water? (a) Scurvy (b) Typhoid (c) Malaria (d) Anaemia

11.

In (a) (b) (c) (d)

India, the Van Mahotsav Day is observed on 2 October 1 December 10 August 1 July

12. Which of the following wastes cannot be decomposed by bacteria to form compost? (a) Kitchen wastes (b) Plastic and polythene bags (c) Dead plants (d) Bodies of insects living in the soil 13.

Which of the following problems is not created by noise pollution? (a) Diarrhoea (b) Hypertension (c) Deafness (d) Irritation 259

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

14.

Plants are green because of the presence of a pigment called (a) glucose (b) nitrogen (c) chlorophyll (d) oxygen

15.

Air is composed of gases, water vapours, and (a) dust particles (b) rainfall (c) snowfall (d) light

16.

Quinine medicine is composed of __________ plant. (a) eucalyptus (b) aconite (c) cinchona (d) money

17.

The chief source of energy in environment is (a) fire (b) moon (c) sun (d) stars

18.

When trees are cut, the amount of oxygen (a) decreases (b) increases (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) remains same

19.

The process through which plants reproduce is known as (a) eating (b) evaporation (c) pollination (d) condensation

20. Of the earth’s surface, 71% is covered with (a) land (b) air 260

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(c) water (d) coal 21.

Which of the following concepts can be used to study the rate of acceleration of the Universe? I. Supernova explosions II. Dark matter III. Dark energy (a) (b) (c) (d)

IV. Black holes I and III only I and II only II, III, and IV only I, III, and IV only

22. Which of the following can be a trigger for Coral Bleaching? I. Increase in ocean temperature II. Decrease in ocean temperature III. Decline in Zooplankton levels IV. Changes in salinity V. Elevated sea levels due to global warming (a) All except II (b) All except II and IV (c) All except V (d) None of the given options (I, II, III, IV, or V) 23. The Basel Convention on the Control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes and their Disposal, usually known as the Basel Convention, I. is an international treaty that was designed to reduce the movements of hazardous wastes from developed to less developed countries. II. does not address the movement of radioactive wastes. (a) I only (b) II only (c) Both I and II are correct (d) Neither I nor II is correct

261

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

24. Which of the following statements is/are correct about Red Tide—a term used to describe harmful algal blooms (HABs) in marine coastal areas? I. These blooms are not associated with tides. II. HABs tint the seawater to a reddish colour. III. Not all algal blooms are harmful; not even those involving red discolouration. (a) I and III only (b) I and II only (c) II and III only (d) I, II, and III 25. Which of the following statements is/are correct? I. Ozone depletion causes reduction in stratospheric and upper tropospheric temperatures. II. Increase in greenhouse gases causes reduction in stratospheric and upper tropospheric temperatures. (a) I only (b) II only (c) Both I and II are correct (d) Neither I nor II is correct 26. Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to ozone depletion? I. Ozone hole is measured in terms of ozone concentrations, which is expressed in Dobson unit. II. The major cause of ozone depletion is the presence of CFCs in stratosphere (CFCs are entirely man-made and not found naturally). (a) I only (b) II only (c) Both I and II are correct (d) Neither I nor II is correct 27.

Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to vitamin D? I. Vitamin D is produced in the skin by ultraviolet light. II. Higher levels of vitamin D are associated with higher morbidity. 262

CHAPTER 17 GENERAL QUESTIONS

(a) (b) (c) (d)

III. Body has no mechanism to prevent sunlight from producing too much vitamin D. I and III only I and II only II and III only I, II, and III

28. If the Arctic Ice was somehow replaced with dense forest, which of the following situations may arise? (a) Global warming will accelerate. (b) Global warming will decelerate. (c) It may or may not affect global warming. (d) It will have no effect on global warming. 29.

Recently Chinese scientists have developed carbon aerogel. Which of the following statements is/are correct about it? I. It is the second lightest material after graphite aerogel. II. It has excellent elasticity. III. It is expected to play an important role in pollution control. IV. It is expected to become an ideal material for sound absorption. (a) II, III, and IV only (b) II and IV only (c) I and III only (d) All of the given statements are correct

30. Lantana, known as “Phool Lakhri” in local parlance, is a shrub found in abundance in Himachal Pradesh. Which of the following statements is/are correct about Lantana? I. It is a toxic weed and it has affected the mountain diversity of the state. II. Lantana species is widely cultivated for their flowers. III. It is endemic to India. IV. It is considered as a potential fire hazard and is combustible even when green. (a) I, II, and IV only (b) II and IV only (c) I and III only (d) All of the given statements are correct 263

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

31.

Which of the following statements is/are correct about C-band and Ku-band that are used for satellite communication transmissions? I. The frequency of Ku-band is greater than C-band. II. C-band performs better under adverse weather conditions in comparison to Ku-band. III. C-band has a higher likelihood of terrestrial interference in comparison to Ku-band. (a) I, II, and III (b) I and II only (c) I and III only (d) II and III only

32. Which I. II. III.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

of the following statements is/are true regarding soda lakes? Soda lakes are highly acidic. Soda lakes are highly productive ecosystems. A critical geological condition for the formation of soda lake is the absence of soluble calcium or magnesium. IV. Lonar Lake and Sambhar Lake are examples of soda lakes in India. I, II, and III only I and IV only II, III, and IV only III and IV only

33. Which of the following statements is/are the industrial uses of hydraulic fracturing? I. Arousing production from oil and gas wells II. Disposal of waste by injection into deep rock formations III. Measuring the stress in the Earth (a) I, II, and III (b) I only (c) I and III only (d) II and III only 34. Plasma arc technology is used for the disposal of waste. Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to this technology? I. It can be used for the disposal of both hazardous and radioactive wastes. 264

CHAPTER 17 GENERAL QUESTIONS

(a) (b) (c) (d)

II. Oxides of sulphur and nitrogen are the polluting gases produced in this process. III. This technology has not been tried in India. I, II, and III I and II only I and III only III only

35. What do you understand by the term ‘dark fermentation’? (a) It is a method of reducing carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. (b) It is a method of producing hydrogen as a fuel from wastewater. (c) It is a method of disposing nuclear wastes. (d) It is a method of producing methane from organic waste. 36. Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to Hepatitis (A, B, C, D, and E)? I. Hepatitis is the inflation of liver due to viral infection. II. Hepatitis B vaccine is enough to keep Type D at bay. III. Type B and Type C are mainly transmitted through blood transfusion. IV. Type A and Type E are caused due to exposure to polluted food and water. (a) I, II, and III only (b) I, III, and IV only (c) II and IV only (d) All of the given statements are correct 37.

Which of the following functions is/are performed by the liver? I. It plays a role in immunity. II. It helps in processing the nutrients. III. It helps in maintaining clotting capacity of blood. IV. It helps in purifying blood. (a) I, II, and III only (b) II, III, and IV only (c) I and IV only (d) All of the given statements are correct

265

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

38. Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to carbon monoxide? I. It is produced in the human body. II. It helps in treating sickle-cell anaemia. III. It acts as a neurotransmitter. (a) I, II, and III (b) I only (c) I and III only (d) II and III only 39.

On the basis of the given below assertion and reason, select the right answer. Assertion: Viral pneumonia does not require intensive care and treatment. Reason: Viruses do not respond to vaccines and antibiotics. (a) Assertion and reason both are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion. (b) Assertion is wrong but reason is correct. (c) Assertion is correct but reason is wrong. (d) Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

40. Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to mobile touchscreen technologies? I. When a user touches a capacitive touchscreen, some charge is transferred to the user from the screen. II. Capacitive touchscreen technology has more life than resistive touchscreen technology. III. Capacitive screens provide clearer image than resistive screens. (a) I, II, and III (b) I only (c) I and III only (d) II and III only

266

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41.

The Rajasthan University of Veterinary and Animal Sciences has set up an emu breeding farm and is promoting emu breeding in the state because I. Emu meat has much lower fat compared to chicken, mutton, pork, or turkey, and is also low in cholesterol. Hence it is good for heart patients. II. Emu oil can be used to cure arthritis and joint pains. III. Emu oil is an analgesic, antiseptic, and anti-allergic. IV. Emu oil is used in cosmetic products. V. Feathers of emu are used to make artefacts and decorative items. VI. Emu egg is a great nutritional supplement as one egg can feed an entire family. Which of the above statements is/are correct with regard to emu? (a) All except III, IV and VI (b) All except III and IV (c) All except III (d) None of the given statements is correct

42. A new vertical single bud technique has been implemented in some areas of Punjab for sugarcane cultivation. Which of the following statements is/are true about this technique? I. This technique requires 85% fewer seeds than traditional method for the same field size. II. It reduces water consumption by 50%. III. The yield has almost doubled. (a) I, II, and III (b) I only (c) I and III only (d) II and III only 43. Which I. II. III.

of the following species is/are critically endangered? White-bellied heron Gangetic dolphin River terrapin

267

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

(a) I, II, and III (b) II only (c) I and III only (d) II and III only 44. Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to Siddha form of medicinal system? I. Siddha form of medicinal system is usually practised in South India. II. Siddha is believed to be the oldest medicinal system in the world. (a) I only (b) II only (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II 45. Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to Siddha and Unani forms of medicinal systems? I. Siddha system is based on the premise that only a healthy body can help develop a healthy soul. II. According to Unani medicinal system, management of any disease depends upon the diagnosis of disease. (a) I only (b) II only (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II 46. Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to Ayurveda form of medicinal system? I. Hygiene is a central practice of Ayurveda medicine. II. According to Ayurveda, suppressing natural urges is seen to be unhealthy, and doing so can lead to illness. III. Ayurveda is related to the Vedic period in India. (a) I only (b) I and II only (c) II and III only (d) All of the above statements are correct

268

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47.

Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to Homeopathy form of medicinal system? I. According to homeopathy, a substance that causes the symptoms of a disease in healthy people will cure similar symptoms in sick people. II. Scientific community regards homeopathy as a sham. (a) I only (b) II only (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II

48. Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to Naturopathy? I. According to Naturopathy, food is the only medicine; hence, no external medications are used. II. Performing prayer according to one’s spiritual faith is an important part of treatment. III. The treatment of all diseases is elimination of morbid matter from the body. (a) I only (b) I and II only (c) II and III only (d) I, II, and III 49.

Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to SowaRigpa medicinal system? I. This system is popular in the Himalayan region of India. II. It is similar to Ayurveda. III. It is believed that Buddha himself taught it. IV. It includes a few principles of traditional Chinese medicinal systems. (a) I and IV only (b) II and III only (c) I, II, and III only (d) All of the statements are correct

269

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

50. Match the following. I. National Institute of Homeopathy II. National Institute of Siddha III. National Institute of Unani Medicine IV. National Institute of Naturopathy V. National Institute of Ayurveda (1) Chennai (2) Kolkata (3) Pune (4) Jaipur (5) Bengaluru (a) I – 1, II – 2, III – 3, IV – 4, V – 5 (b) I – 2, II – 1, III – 5, IV – 3, V – 4 (c) I – 5, II – 4, III – 3, IV – 2, V – 1 (d) I – 2, II – 1, III – 3, IV – 5, V – 4 51.

Which of the following statements is/are the potential benefits of nuclear fusion reactors? I. They have enough readily available fuel to last more than millions of years. II. There is no greenhouse gas emission. III. Plants will produce more readily controllable nuclear wastes. IV. Deuterium and Lithium can be used as potential fuels. (a) I, II, and III only (b) II, III, and IV only (c) I and IV only (d) All of the given benefits are correct

52. Which of the following statements is/are correct about syngas? I. It is a mixture of carbon monoxide and hydrogen. II. It can be easily converted into gasoline through a process called steam reforming. III. It is easily storable. IV. It is combustible and can be used as fuel in internal combustion engines. V. Syngas has almost double the energy density to that of natural gas. 270

CHAPTER 17 GENERAL QUESTIONS

(a) All except IV (b) All except V (c) All except I and V (d) None of the given statements is correct 53. Which of the following is/are the objectives of Mars Orbiter Mission launched by India on 5 November 2013? I. Detect methane in the atmosphere of Mars

(a) (b) (c) (d)

II. Map the surface composition of Mars III. Measure atomic hydrogen in the atmosphere of Mars IV. Understand Martian dust storms I, II, and III only II, III, and IV only I and IV only All of the given objectives (I, II, III, and IV) are correct

54. Which of the following statements with regard to two solar events, namely Solar Flare and Coronal Mass Ejection are correct? I. Coronal Mass Ejection (CME) can cause serious problems for electrical systems on Earth. II. Solar flares have no effect on terrestrial life. III. All CMEs are accompanied by solar flares. IV. The Northern and Southern Lights (aurora borealis and aurora australis) are often associated with coronal mass ejections. V. Both solar flares and coronal mass ejections are the result of magnetic activity on the sun. (a) All except II and V (b) All except II and III (c) All except III (d) All of the given statements are incorrect 55. Which of the following statements is/are correct about Lagrange point in the context of space terminology? I. Lagrange points are locations in space where gravitational forces and the orbital motion of a body balance each other. II. Lagrange points are locations in space where net force due to gravity is zero. III. There are five Lagrange points in the Sun−Earth system. 271

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

IV. No such points exist in the Earth−Moon system. (a) II and III only (b) I, III, and IV only (c) II, III, and IV only (d) I and IV only 56. Which of the following statements is/are correct about dark matter? I. Dark matter does not interact with any electromagnetic radiation. II. Dark matter interacts with ordinary matter through gravity only. III. The force between dark matter and ordinary matter is repulsive. (a) I only (b) I and II only (c) II and III only (d) I, II, and III 57.

On the basis of the given below assertion and reason with regard to thorium-based nuclear power plants, select the right answer. Assertion: Thorium cannot be used directly to produce nuclear energy. Reason: Thorium does not contain any fissile material. (a) Assertion and reason are correct and the reason is correct explanation of assertion. (b) Assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion. (c) Assertion is wrong, but reason is correct. (d) Assertion is correct, but reason is wrong.

58. Which of the following cyber-attacks is related to India? (a) Stuxnet (b) Flame (c) Titan Rain (d) Ghost Net

272

CHAPTER 17 GENERAL QUESTIONS

59.

Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to the solar cell technologies? I. Crystalline silicon solar cells have a greater market share than thin film solar cells. II. Thin film solar cells are cheaper than crystalline silicon solar cells. III. Crystalline silicon cells are more efficient than thin film solar cells.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

IV. Both technologies operate on the same photovoltaic principle. V. Crystalline silicon solar cells are more environmental friendly to dispose than thin film solar cells at the end of their respective lives. All except II and V All except II and III All except III All of the given statements are incorrect

60. According to Western Ghats Ecological Expert Panel Report, the ecologically sensitive areas are I. ecologically important II. economically important III. vulnerable to even mild disturbances On the basis of the information given above, select the correct answer from the following. (a) I only (b) I and III only (c) III only (d) I, II, and III are correct 61.

Which of the following types of coral reefs are found in India? I. Atoll II. Fringing III. Barrier (a) I and II only (b) I and III only (c) II and III only (d) All of the options (I, II, and III) are correct 273

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

62. The Union Ministry of Environment and Forest has introduced a new scheme called the ‘Emissions Trading Scheme’. Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to this scheme? I. This is a market-based scheme to reduce air pollution. II. It has been implemented only in three states till now. III. The scheme allows the pollution control boards to set a cap on the level of pollution permitted in an industrial area, and then allows the industries to self-regulate to ensure that pollution does not exceed this cap. IV. This scheme is the first of its kind in the world. (a) All of the above statements are correct (b) I and III only (c) II and III only (d) I, II, and III 63. Which of the following species is/are locally extinct in India? I. White-bellied heron II. Siberian Crane III. Gyps Vulture IV. Forest owlet (a) I, II, and IV only (b) I and II only (c) II only (d) I, III, and IV only 64. Desertification can lead to I. decrease in food supplies II. decrease in water supplies III. migration IV. loss of jobs V. global warming (a) All except IV and V (b) All except V (c) All except IV (d) All of the given options (I, II, III, and IV) are incorrect

274

CHAPTER 17 GENERAL QUESTIONS

65. Which of the following is true with regard to regulation of GM crops in India? I. At present, GM crops are regulated under the purview of the Union Ministry of Agriculture. II. Ministry of Environment and Forests has introduced a new bill to set up a new regulatory system for GM crops by the name, Biotechnology Regulatory Authority of India (BRAI). III. The bill proposes setting up BRAI under the Ministry of Science and Technology. IV. BRAI will act as a single window clearance system for products of modern biotechnology, including GM crops. (a) I, II, and IV only (b) I, II, and III only (c) I, III, and IV only (d) III and IV only 66. Pyrolysis/gasification is a process of chemical decomposition of organic matter through heat. The organic matter is heated in the absence of air till it breaks down to smaller molecules of gas. The gas is known as producer gas. The constituents of this gas are I. carbon dioxide II. carbon monoxide III. nitrogen IV. hydrogen V. sulphur dioxide VI. ammonia (a) All except V (b) All except VI (c) All except V and VI (d) All of the given options (I, II, III, IV, V, and VI ) are incorrect 67.

Landfill gas recovery is a measure of recovering gas from waste dumps wherein the waste slowly decomposes to produce ‘landfill gas’. Which of the following statements is/are correct? I. This gas consists of a high percentage of methane. II. It has a high calorific value. III. It cannot be used for generating power.

275

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

(a) I and II only (b) I and III only (c) II and III only (d) I, II, and III 68. Consider the following statements. I. Refineries and fertilizer plants are the major consumers of hydrogen gas. II. Refineries and fertilizer plants are the major producers of hydrogen gas. The correct statement(s) is/are (a) I only (b) II only (c) Both I and II are correct (d) Neither I nor II is correct 69.

Hydrogen is being projected as the fuel for future. Which of the following processes are used to produce hydrogen? I. Steam methane reformation II. Gasification of coal III. Gasification of biomass IV. Electrolytic process wherein electricity is used to produce hydrogen V. Photolytic process wherein sunlight is used to produce hydrogen (a) All except I (b) All except II (c) All except I and II (d) All of the given processes (I, II, III, IV, and V) are incorrect

70. Which of the following are potential reasons for decline of house sparrow? I. Severe changes in urban ecosystem II. Radiations from mobile tower III. Excessive use of chemical fertilizers IV. Poaching (a) I and IV only (b) I, II, and III only 276

CHAPTER 17 GENERAL QUESTIONS

(c) I and II only (d) All of the given reasons (I, II, III, and IV) are correct 71. The riverbank between the Tungabhadra Reservoir and the Kampli Reservoir has been identified as a ‘protected area’ for otters. Which of the following is/are true about otters? I. Otters are listed as endangered in the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species. (a) (b) (c) (d)

II. Otters are hunted for their fur. I only II only Both I and II are correct Neither I nor II is correct

72. Consider the following lakes in Jammu and Kashmir. I. Hokersar II. Tsomoriri III. Mansar IV. Surinsar Which of these lakes are listed under the Ramsar Convention? (a) All except II (b) All except III (c) All except IV (d) None of these 73. The Montreux Record is a register of wetland sites on the List of Wetlands of International Importance where changes in ecological character have occurred, or are occurring, or are likely to occur as a result of technological developments, pollution, or other human interference. It is maintained as part of the Ramsar List. Which of the following lakes from India are included in the Montreux Record? I. Loktak Lake II. Chilka Lake III. Wullar Lake (a) I only (b) I and II only (c) II and III only (d) I, II, and III only 277

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

74.

Which of the following statements are correct according to the India State of Forest Report 2011 published by the Forest Survey of India? I. There has been a net decrease in the forest cover of hill districts of India in comparison to the previous assessment. II. There has been a net decrease in the forest cover of tribal districts of India in comparison to the previous assessment. III. There has been a net decrease in the forest cover of northeastern states of India in comparison to the previous assessment. IV. There has been a net decrease in the Mangrove cover in comparison to the previous assessment. V. There has been a net decrease in the forest cover of India in comparison to the previous assessment. (a) All except II (b) All except III (c) All except IV (d) None of the given statements is correct

75. The Union Ministry of Environment and Forests has suggested species recovery action plans in the state to save Great Indian Bustard, Lesser Florican, and Bengal Florican. Which of the following statements with regard to these three birds is/are correct? I. All the three birds are critically endangered according to IUCN Red list. II. Lesser Florican is mostly found in the western part of India whereas Bengal Florican is found in the eastern part of India. III. All the three birds belong to the Bustard family. (a) I and II only (b) I and III only (c) II and III only (d) I, II, and III only 76.

Consider the following four birds. • Great Indian Bustard • Lesser Florican • Bengal Florican • Houbara Bustard

278

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Now read the following statements about these birds. I. Out of these birds, two are listed as critically endangered according to IUCN Red list. II. Out of these birds, one is listed as vulnerable according to IUCN Red list. III. Out of these birds, one is listed as threatened according to IUCN Red list. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) I only (b) III only (c) All of the above statements are correct (d) I and III only 77.

Forest Rights Act recognizes the rights of forest dwellers over forestland and forest resources, such as the minor forest produce, which they have traditionally been extracting and using. Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to this act? I. Forest dwellers can transport minor forest produce by any appropriate means of transport. II. A committee set up by Gram Sabha issues transit passes for transporting minor forest produce. (a) I only (b) II only (c) Both I and II are correct (d) Neither I nor II is correct

78. Consider the following statements and state which one is correct? I. The year 2012 was the 40th anniversary of Stockholm Conference. II. The year 2012 was the 25th anniversary of Montreal Protocol. III. The year 2012 was the 20th anniversary of Rio Earth Summit. IV. The year 2012 was the 10th anniversary of World Sustainable Summit. (a) II and IV only (b) I, II, and III only (c) All of the above statements are correct (d) III and IV only 279

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

79.

Which of the following ozone-depleting substances (both production and consumption) have been completely phased out from India? I. Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) II. Carbontetrachloride (CTC) III. Halons IV. Methyl bromides V. hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs) (a) All except IV and V (b) All except V (c) All except II, III, IV, and V (d) None of the given options is correct

80. The Indian firm Godrej claims to be the first company in the world to have started making and selling air conditioners that do not use hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs). Which of the following statements with regard to HFCs is/are correct? I. HFCs have replaced CFCs and HCFCs as coolant for refrigerators. II. HFCs pose no harm to the ozone layer. III. HFCs are potent greenhouse gases. IV. HFCs are generated during the manufacturing of HCFCs. (a) II and IV only (b) I, II, and III only (c) All of the statements are correct (d) III and IV only 81.

The targets for the first commitment period of the Kyoto Protocol cover emissions of the six main greenhouse gases. Which of the following gases is not one of these gases? (a) Carbontetrachloride (CTC) (b) Hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs) (c) Perfluorocarbons (PFCs) (d) Sulphurhexafluoride (SF6)

82. The Himalayan Yew Tree in the Himalayan region that has cancer curing properties is near extinction. The reason for this is (a) a widespread attack of fungus on these trees (b) introduction of other invasive species 280

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(c) overexploitation (d) construction of new dams that has led to submersion of vast areas 83. Consider the following lakes. • Sasthamkotta Lake • Vembanad Lake • Ashtamudi Lake • Vellayani Lake Which of the following statements about these lakes are correct? I. All these lakes are located in Kerala. II. Three out of four lakes are located in Kerala. III. All of these lakes are Ramsar sites. IV. Three out of four lakes are Ramsar sites. (a) I and IV only (b) II and III only (c) I and III only (d) II and IV only 84. Boron is an essential micronutrient for crops. Which of the following are its functions in crops? I. Facilitates pollination II. Aids in translocation of sugar and carbohydrates III. Plays an important role in the proper functioning of cell membranes IV. Helps in nitrogen fixation V. Aids in photosynthesis (a) All except IV and V (b) All except V (c) All except III, IV, and V (d) All are correct 85. Which of the following can accelerate global warming? I. Rice cultivation II. Cattle breeding III. Melting of permafrost in the Arctic region

281

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

(a) I and III only (b) I and II only (c) II and III only (d) I, II, and III 86. Which of the following statements are correct? I. Indian High Temperature Reactor (IHTR) will be installed in remote areas and will require refuelling only once in 15 years. II. Compact High Temperature Reactor (CHTR) will generate hydrogen. III. Advanced Heavy Water Reactor (AHWR) will generate electricity from thorium. (a) I and III only (b) I and II only (c) II and III only (d) All of the statements are correct 87.

Under the Integrated Nutrient Management (INM), mycorrhiza is an indispensable agricultural input. Mycorrhiza is a symbiotic association of fungus with the root of the plant. Select the correct benefit(s) among the following. I. Improved supply of water and nutrients to the plants II. Increased tolerance of plants to environmental stress III. Protects plant from soil borne pathogenic diseases IV. Maintains biological health of soil (a) II and IV only (b) I, II, and III only (c) All of the given benefits are correct (d) III and IV only

88. Algaculture is a form of aquaculture involving the farming of species of algae. The potential benefits of algal biomass are that I. it can be used as a fertilizer II. it can be used for power generation III. it can be used for production of biodegradable plastic IV. it is useful for food processing V. it can help in controlling air and water pollution 282

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VI. it can be used in cosmetics and pharmaceutical industries VII. it can be used to produce biodiesel Which among the above-mentioned benefits is/are correct? (a) All except IV and V (b) All except I and V (c) All except VII (d) None of the mentioned benefits is correct 89.

Over 140 countries have agreed on the first international treaty, the Minamata Convention, which aims to reduce the emission and release of mercury into the air, water, and land. Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to this treaty? I. The convention prohibits primary mining of mercury. II. The use of mercury in products like CFL, batteries, soaps, cosmetics, and medical appliances must be phased out by 2020. III. The treaty keeps exception for the products like vaccines, preservatives, and products related to religious faith. (a) I only (b) All of the statements are correct (c) III only (d) I and II only

90. On the basis of the given below assertion and reason, select the correct answer. Assertion: The ozone depletion of the Arctic tends to be milder and short-lived than that of the Antarctic. Reason: CFCs, frigid temperatures, and sunlight are never present together at the Arctic. (a) Assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion. (b) Assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion. (c) Assertion is wrong, but reason is correct. (d) Assertion is correct, but reason is wrong.

283

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91. Which of the following greenhouse gases are produced during agricultural activities? (a) CO2, NO2, and CH4 (b) NO2 and CH4 (c) CO2 and CH (d) CH4 92. Which of the following crops are used for producing biofuels? I. Sugarcane II. Corn III. Potato (a) I and II (b) I and III (c) II and III (d) All are correct 93. On the basis of the given below assertion and reason, select the right answer. Assertion: Two major energy blocks, the USAand the EU, are leading the way to phase out first-generation biofuels and replace them completely with second-generation biofuels. Reason: Second-generation biofuels do not interfere with food production. (a) Assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion. (b) Assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion. (c) Assertion is wrong, but reason is correct. (d) Assertion is correct, but reason is wrong. 94. A recent study taken up by a team of researchers from the Zoological Survey of India (ZSI), Chennai, brought to light the serious threat of extinction, the coral reef colonies and mangrove forests in the Palk Bay are facing. Choose the correct reason from the given below reasons for this decline. I. Global warming II. Siltation III. Overgrowth of algae 284

CHAPTER 17 GENERAL QUESTIONS

(a) I and II only (b) I and III only (c) II and III only (d) All are correct 95. Which of the following Indian Biosphere Reserves have been included in the World Network of Biosphere Reserves under the Man and Biosphere Programme of UNESCO?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

I. Simplipal Biosphere Reserve II. Achanakmar-Amarkantak Biosphere Reserve III. Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve IV. Western Ghats I, II, and IV only I and III only All are correct I, II, and III only

96. Graphite, an allotrope of carbon, is a convenient choice to act as a neutron-moderator in a nuclear reactor. What can be a potential reason for this? I. The carbon atom has a light nucleus that can absorb a lot of energy from fast neutrons, thus slowing them down effectively. II. Carbon is easily available as a solid. III. It is light and inexpensive to handle. (a) I only (b) III only (c) I, II, and III (d) I and II only 97.

Horticulture is the science of cultivation of I. fruits II. vegetables III. flowers (a) I and II only (b) III only (c) I, II, and III (d) I and III only 285

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

98. Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to deer and antelopes? I. Deer have antlers. II. Antlers are permanent. III. Horns grow periodically. (a) I and III only (b) I and II only (c) I, II, and III (d) II only 99.

Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to ‘grass’?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

I. Grass has flowers. II. Grass has fruits. III. Grass has a stem. IV. Bamboo is a grass. V. Sugarcane is a grass. All except V All except I and II All except II None of the statements is correct

100. The Coastal Regulation Zone 2011 notification states that the coastal zone is

(a) (b) (c) (d)

I. 500 m on the landward side from high-tide line. II. 500 m on the landward side from low-tide line. III. 12 nautical miles on the seaward side from the high-tide line. IV. 12 nautical miles on the seaward side from the low-tide line. II and IV only I and III only I and IV only II and III only

101. Consider the following statements. I. A gulf is a large body of sea surrounded by land on three sides. II. A bay is a large area of sea partially enclosed by land.

286

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III. A lagoon is a shallow lake of salt water separated from sea by offshore islands. IV. Chilka Lake is a lagoon. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) I, II, and IV only (b) All of the statements are correct (c) III and IV only (d) I, II, and III only 102. Consider the following statements. I. Aceclofenac is a painkiller used by veterinary doctors. II. Aceclofenac is derived from diclofenac. III. Aceclofenac is a potential threat to vultures. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) I only (b) III only (c) All of the statements are correct (d) I and II only 103. Consider the following statements with regard to Global Hunger Index (GHI). I. The dimensions of hunger that are measured for GHI are undernourishment, child underweight, and child mortality. II. Countries are ranked on a 100-point scale. III. The higher the GHI values, the lower is the ranking of the country. IV. India has a higher rank than Bangladesh but a lower rank than Pakistan. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) I and IV only (b) III only (c) I, II, and III only (d) All of the statements are correct

287

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104. In which of the following diseases, a mosquito can pick up the infection from one human and transmit the infection to another? I. Malaria II. Japanese Encephalitis III. Filariasis (a) I and II only (b) II only (c) I, II, and III (d) I and III only 105. Which of the following statements with regard to Type 1 diabetes and Type 2 diabetes are correct? I. The onset of Type 1 is sudden whereas onset of Type 2 is gradual. II. Type 2 is more common than Type 1. III. In Type 2, the body stops producing insulin. IV. The onset of Type 2 is primarily due to lifestyle reasons whereas the onset of Type 1 is unrelated to lifestyle. V. Type 1 mostly affects children whereas Type 2 mostly affects adults. (a) All except V (b) All except I (c) All except II and IV (d) All except III 106. Chemical castration is a medical procedure that reduces sexual urges and arousals in a human being. The side effects of chemical castration include I. loss in bone density II. loss of body hair III. greater deposition of body fat IV. female like breasts in male (a) I and III only (b) II and III only (c) I, II and IV only (d) All are incorrect

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107. Rabies has been made as the priority disease for control under the 12th Five-year plan. Rabies is caused by the bite of I. Dogs II. Monkeys III. Cats (a) I and III only (b) II and III only (c) I, II, and III (d) I and II only 108. Which of the following statements with regard to BCG is/are correct? I. BCG is a vaccine for tuberculosis (TB). II. BCG cannot be given to human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) positive people. III. BCG is a live attenuated vaccine. (a) I and III only (b) II and III only (c) I, II, and III (d) I and II only 109. Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia, a form of cancer, was in news recently for which of following reasons? (a) Glivec Patent Case (b) Angelina Jolie double mastectomy—gene patent case (c) A new cure has been found for this form of cancer (d) Fukushima nuclear disaster 110. Which of the following is a correct statement? (a) North-western Himalayas are famous for Karewa formations. (b) Karewa formations are helpful in the cultivation of saffron. (c) Both (a) and (b) are correct (d) Both (a) and (b) are incorrect 111. What do you understand by the Intensive Subsistence Agriculture? (a) Yield per unit area is high but per labour productivity is low (b) Yield per unit area is low but per labour productivity is high (c) Yield per unit area and per labour productivity are low (d) Yield per unit area and per labour productivity are high 289

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

112. The net primary productivity of an ecosystem is (a) Gross primary productivity minus plant respiration (b) Primary productivity at herbivore level (c) Primary productivity at consumer level (d) Productivity at top consumer level minus at all levels 113. Which of the following is a correct statement? (a) Ecotype is a genetically different form of the same organism. (b) Pyramid of trophic level is always upright in the case of energy. (c) Both (a) and (b) are correct (d) Neither (a) nor (b) is correct 114. Which of the following is a correct statement? (a) Black foot disease is caused by an excess of fluoride in water. (b) Snow blindness is caused due to ultraviolet radiations. (c) Both (a) and (b) are correct (d) Both (a) and (b) are incorrect 115. Of the following, which is a correct statement? (a) The term ‘ecology’ was first coined by the German zoologist Ernst Haeckel. (b) Richael Carson’s famous book Silent Spring dealt with the impacts of agro-chemicals on ecological functions. (c) Both (a) and (b) are correct (d) Neither (a) nor (b) is correct 116. An (a) (b) (c) (d)

oligotrophic lake has high levels of nutrients in water high aquatic productivity algal blooms low nutrients and low productivity

117. Which of the following statements about eutophication is incorrect? (a) It is the enrichment of surface waters with plant nutrients. (b) It can lead to algal blooms, deoxygenation of water, and ultimately killing of fish. (c) Eutrophicated water is oxygen rich and safe for direct human consumption without requiring any treatment. (d) None of the above statements 290

Glossary

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Abiotic components: Chemical substances and physical conditions that support life in an ecosystem. Abyssal zone: Cold and dark zone at the bottom of the ocean. Acceptable daily intake: Maximum amount of an agent predicted on a body mass basis, which might be exposed to individuals in a sub-population daily throughout their lifetime without appreciable health risk. Acid rain: Rainfall made sufficiently acidic by atmospheric pollution, which is a mixture of wet and dry deposition (deposited material) from the atmosphere containing higher than normal amounts of nitric and sulphuric acids. Adverse effects: Reduction in environmental quality of a system, or some other depletion of the environmental resource capital. Aerosol: A suspension of fine solid particles or liquid droplets in a gas. Agenda 21: A plan for use by governments, local authorities, and individuals to implement the principle of sustainable development contained in the Rio Declaration. The action plan to save environment was devised by the United Nations in 1992 during the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development held in Brazil. Agent Orange: A compound herbicide used by the US Army in the Vietnam War to kill all vegetation. Agroforestry: A system of land use in which crops are grown along with trees. Algal bloom: A population explosion of some pigmented marine algae seen as an explosion of orange, red, or brown colours on the ocean. Allocation policy: Plans made to divide the available resources among various users or user processes. Alternative: A possible course of action, in place of another, that would meet the same purpose and need (of the proposal). Annex I countries: Group of 41 countries including the European Union that are classified as industrialized countries and countries in transition under the Kyoto Protocol. Appraisal: Detailed examination by the EAC or SEAC of the application as well as other documents, like the outcome of the public consultations 292

GLOSSARY

including public hearing proceedings and the final EIA report that has been submitted by the applicant to the regulatory authority responsible for the allowance of environmental consent. Appropriate technology: Technology that does not necessarily require large capital and resource intensive industrial systems. Aquaculture: Artificial production of fish in ponds or underwater cages. Aquatic-life zone: The non-terrestrial part of the biosphere, including wetlands, lakes, rivers, estuaries, inter-tidal zone, coastal ocean, and open ocean. Aquifer: A sub-surface geological rock formation that has a high-tomoderate permeability and can yield economically significant amount of water. It is a saturated zone containing sufficient groundwater, which can be pumped out. Aquitard: The retarded or restricted flow of groundwater by a material. Asbestos: A fibrous silicate mineral used as construction material and insulation. It is very dangerous to health when its fibres are inhaled. Assessment: Appraisal or evolution of an analysis of facts and the conclusion of possible result related to a particular process or an object. Assessment end-point: Quantitative/qualitative expression of a particular factor with a risk may be in association as determined through appropriate suitable risk assessment. Assessment factor: The numerical adjustment, which is used to extrapolate from experimentally determined (dose-response) relationships, for estimating the exposure to and below which an unfavourable effect is not likely to occur. Asthenosphere: The upper mantle of the earth that is viscous, weak, and ductile-deforming. It is found under lithosphere between 100 km and 200 km depth and sometimes extends up to 700 km. Auditing: An organized, recorded, regular, and purposeful assessment of how good the performance of the environmental management plan is in terms of aiding to protect the environment.

293

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Autotrophs: Mainly the green plants, and in addition certain bacteria and algae, having the ability to synthesize their own food from simple inorganic compounds. Baseline studies: The studies of existing environmental conditions that are designed to establish baseline condition against which any future changes can be measured or predicted. Bathyal zone: The dimly lit middle-level zone in the ocean, roughly between 200 m and 1500 m in depth. Benthos: Bottom-dwelling organisms adapted to live on the floor of a waterbody. Bio-capacity: It calculates the bio-productive supply that is accessible within a particular area, such as arable land, pasture, forest, and productive sea. Biodegradable waste: Any waste item that breaks down into raw material of nature, and becomes part of the environment in reasonable time. Biodiversity (Biological diversity): The number, variety, and variability of living organisms and ecosystems from all sources, which includes inter alia, terrestrial, marine, and other aquatic ecosystems. It is the degree of variation of life forms within a given ecosystem. It covers diversity within species, between species, as well as the variation among ecosystems. It is also concerned with their complex ecological inter-relationships. Biodynamic farming: A type of organic farming that exploits bio- and solar rhythms. It is based on the ideas of Rudolf Steiner. Biofertilizer: Living microorganisms that are cultured and multiplied for use as fertilizer. Biofuel: Fuel oil from the seeds of certain trees; it can be mixed with diesel and used in engines. Biogas: Gas generated from human and animal waste. Biogeochemical cycle: A cycle (with biological, geological, and chemical interactions) in which matter moves through ecosystems and is powered directly or indirectly by solar energy. Examples include water and carbon cycles. 294

GLOSSARY

Bioinformatics: A field of study that combines biology with computer science and, thus, uses the power of information technology to study and conserve biodiversity. Bio-intensive farming: A type of organic farming that involves intensive garden cultivation using deep-dug beds. Biological extinction: It is the complete disappearance of a species. It is an irreversible loss with not even a single member of the extinct species being found on earth. Biological oxygen demand (BOD): The measure of the oxygen used by microorganisms to decompose organic waste. Biological pest control: The intentional introduction of predators, diseases, or parasites to control pests. Biological resources: Resources comprising genetic resources, population or other biotic components of ecosystems, organisms, or parts thereof, with actual or potential use for humanity (or other living organisms). Biomagnification: The increasing concentration of pollutants in organisms as we move up the food chain. Biomass: The organic plant matter produced by solar energy through photosynthesis. Biome: The similar climatic conditions on the earth, such as communities of plants, animals, and soil organisms, and are often referred to as ecosystem. It is a group of similar or related ecosystems with a distinct climate and life forms adapted to the climate. A biome is more extensive and complex than an ecosystem. It is the next level of ecological organization above a community and an ecosystem. Biomedical waste: Waste that originates mainly from hospitals and clinics, and includes blood, diseased organs, poisonous medicines, etc. It consists of solid, liquid, and laboratory wastes that are potentially infectious or dangerous, and are considered biowaste. Biopesticide: The pesticides derived from animals, plants, bacteria, and certain minerals. Biophysical parameters: Environment or ecology parameters, which have physical impact on the biological systems.

295

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Biopiracy: The commercial development of naturally occurring biological materials, such as plant substances or genetic cell lines, by a technologically advanced country or organizations without fair compensation to the people or nation in whose territory the materials were originally discovered. Bioremediation: The use of biotechnology to clean up wastes and toxic pollutants. Biosphere reserve: Area of land or water that is protected by law in order to support the conservation of the ecosystem. Biosphere: The zone of the earth where life is found. It includes parts of the atmosphere, waterbodies, and soil. Biota: The living components of an ecosystem, also called the biotic community. The biotic community includes the plants, animals, and microorganisms. Biotechnology: The technology that manipulates living organisms or cells to create a product or an effect. Biotic components: The living components of an ecosystem, which includes plants, animals and microbes, that is the total community. Bottom trawling: The practice of fishing by scraping the sea floor with a net. By-catch: The species caught in the fishing nets along with the targeted ones. Cap and trade policy: The policy wherein the government determines the pollution level depending upon the nature of industry and their adherence to the regulated limits. Captive breeding: The reproduction of threatened animals in captivity. Carbon credit: Internationally tradable carbon emission units. Carbon cycle: The cyclic movement of carbon in various forms from the environment to organisms and then back to the environment. Carbon footprint: The total greenhouse gas emissions caused directly and indirectly by a person, organization, event, product, or country.

296

GLOSSARY

Carbon standards: Nationally or internationally recognized and accredited methodologies for measuring the carbon footprint of organizations, products, projects, and investments. Carbon trading: International trading in carbon emission credits under the Kyoto Protocol. Carnivores: Organisms that feed on other consumers. Carrying capacity: Population of humans or animals that can be supported by a given environment. It also refers to the capacity of the environment to tolerate stress or pollution. It is the maximum number of individuals of a given species that an area’s resource can sustain indefinitely without significantly depleting or degrading those resources. Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety: Set up under the United Nations Convention on Biological Diversity to regulate international trade of living modified organisms (LMOs). Catchment area: Area of land surrounded by watersheds draining into a basin, river, or reservoir. Certification audit: An audit which is conducted specifically for the verification that an organization can be awarded a certificate in confirmation with the environmental management system of an organization which meets the minimum requirements to formally conform to a specified ISO standard or EMAS. Characterization: The second step in impact assessment that characterizes the magnitude of the potential impacts of each inventory flow to its corresponding environmental impact. Check dam or johad: A small structure of earth and stones, which blocks the path of any flow of water and helps recharge the groundwater. Chlorofluorocarbon (CFC): A type of chemical that is used as a refrigerant or aerosol propellant. It causes ozone depletion when it breaks apart in the atmosphere and then releases chlorine atoms. Classification: The first step in impact assessment in which the inventory outputs are assigned into specific environmental impact categories. Clean Development Mechanism (CDM): The UN mechanism to allow a country to implement an emission-reduction project in developing 297

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

countries and earn tradable carbon credits. It is one of the ‘flexibility’ mechanisms defined in the Kyoto Protocol to assist parties not included in Annex I to achieve sustainable development and to contribute to the ultimate objective of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). Climate change: A significant and lasting change in the statistical distribution of weather patterns over periods ranging from decades to millions of years. A significant and persistent change in the mean state of the climate or its variability. Coalesce: The coming together and forming one mass or whole. Coastal regulation zone: The coastal stretches of sea, bays, estuaries, creeks, river, and backwaters, which are influenced by tidal action (in the landward side) up to 500 m from the High Tide Line (HTL) and in the land between the Low Tide Line (LTL) and the HTL. Coastal zone: The area extending from the high tide mark on land to the edge of the continental shelf, where there is a sharp increase in the depth of water. Common effluent treatment plant (CETP): A common plant where waste from several units of an industrial estate is collected and treated in order to make the waste safe (least harmful). Community (of populations): The assemblage of all the interacting populations of different species existing in a geographical area. It is a complex interacting network of plants, animals, and microorganisms. Competent authority (CA): The state designed authority accountable for carrying out the listed definite directives. Composting: The process of converting organic waste into fertilizer. Coniferous forest: A type of forest with an abundance of coniferous trees, such as spruce, fir, pine, and hemlock. Consumer: An organism that feeds on producers or other organisms. It is also called heterotroph. Continental shelf: The submerged part of the continent at the edge of a coastal zone, where there is a sharp increase in the depth of water. It marks the beginning of the open ocean.

298

GLOSSARY

Control source: Approach in which waste released by the plant is treated at source to prevent the harm caused to the environment. Convention on Biological Diversity: A product of the 1992 Earth Summit, the Convention on Biological Diversity aims to conserve biological diversity for its intrinsic value and provide for the sustainable use of its components. Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Flora and Fauna (CITES): An international framework for regulating and restricting trade in specimens of species of wild animals and plants. It is a system of certification for imports and exports. Convention: Provides a framework to be respected by each party, which has to adopt its own national legislation to ensure that the ‘convention’ is implemented at the national level. Coral reefs: The colourful protective crust of limestone formed by colonies of tiny organisms called polyps. Coriolis force: A force, caused due to the rotation of the earth that deflects the movement of air or water. Cost of illness: The value of the resources that is expended or foregone as a result of a health problem, including sector costs, the value of lost productivity by the patient (indirect cost), and the cost of pain and suffering (intangible costs). Cost–benefit analysis: It compares the estimated cost of a project with the benefit that will be achieved. It is often used to rationally decide whether to proceed with a given project. Crude birth rate: The number of live births per 1000 people in a population in a given year. Crude death rate: The number of deaths per 1000 people in a population in a given year. Cumulative impacts: The progressive environmental degradation over time throughout an area or region, resulting from a range of activities, each of which when considered in isolation may not be regarded as a significant contributor.

299

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Cyclone: The violent tropical storm in which strong winds move in a circle; occurs mainly in the Indian Ocean. DDT (dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane): An insecticide that protects crops and human beings from insects. Being harmful to organisms, it is now banned in many countries. Decibel (db): A logarithmic scale for measuring the intensity of sound. Decomposer: An organism that gets its nourishment from dead organic material. Demand-side Management (DSM): The process of managing the consumption of energy to optimize the available resources. De-nitrification: If the soil becomes depleted of oxygen, some microorganisms can use the oxygen in nitrate as an alternative by reducing it to nitrogen gases. Desertification: Land degradation in arid and semi-arid areas caused by human activities and climatic changes. Detrivore: A consumer that feeds on detritus, which refers mainly to fallen leaves, parts of dead trees, and faecal waste of animals. Developer: The candidate for approval of a private project or the public agency that kicks off a project. Development projects: A wide range of human activities that provide (a) favourable conditions for increase in the transformation of the natural, biophysical environment to provide goods and services available to society, and (b) actions that directly produce the goods and services. Development: The act of altering and modifying resources in order to obtain the potential benefits. Dew point: The temperature at which point water vapour saturates from air mass into solid or liquid, generally forming dew, frost, snow, or rain. Diatom: A single-celled algae that has a cell wall of silica. Dietary energy supply: The food available for human consumption, expressed in kilocalories per person per day. Dioxin: A highly toxic chemical compound that occurs as contaminants in a number of industrial processes and products; also formed when we burn waste, plastics, coal, or cigarettes.

300

GLOSSARY

Disaster management: The effective way of managing disasters including mitigation, preparedness, response, and recovery. Disaster mitigation: Reducing the effects of potential disasters through suitable measures. Displacement: The movement of people from their homes to new locations. DNA: Stands for deoxyribonucleic acid, it is the molecule of an organism that contains information about its characteristics and behaviour. Doomsday clock: A symbolic indicator that warns the public about how close the world is to a potentially civilization-ending catastrophe. Dose-effect relationship: The relationship between the total amount of an agent taken up by, administered to, or absorbed by an organism, system, or (sub) population and the scale of a continuously graded impact to that system, organism, or (sub) population. Dose-response function (DRF): Relates the quantity of a pollutant that affects a receptor, such as population, to the physical impact, such as incremental number of hospitalizations, on this receptor. Doubling time: The number of years taken by the population of an area to increase twofold at the present population growth rate. Eccentricity: The measure of the elliptical nature of the earth’s orbit. The shape of earth’s orbit around the sun becomes slightly more oval, and then becomes less oval every 100,000 years. Eco-labels: A type of sustainability yardstick focusing on customer, meant for making it easy to consider environmental concerns while making purchases; a few labels compute pollution or energy utilization by means of index tally or units of measurement. These labels are used to mark a consumer product to indicate that it is environment friendly with regard to its manufacture and use. Ecological architecture: The architecture that seeks to minimize the ecological footprint of a house, building, or complex that is being designed and constructed. Ecological economics: A transdisciplinary field of academic research that aims to address the interdependence and co-evolution of human economies and natural ecosystems over time and space. 301

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Ecological extinction: The number of members left of a species that can no longer play a normal ecological role in the community. Ecological footprint (EF): It calculates the bio-productive area (whether land or water) that the people would require to produce on a sustainable basis for the renewable resources it consumes, and to absorb the waste it creates using prevailing technology. A measure of the ecological impact of an entity, expressed as the extent of land needed to sustain the entity completely. Ecological niche: All the physical, chemical, and biological factors that a species needs in order to live and reproduce. Ecological or Eltonian pyramids: It is a graphical representation or pyramidshaped diagram, which depicts the number of organisms, biomass, and productivity at each trophic level. Ecological pyramid: A graphical representation of the change that occurs as we move from one trophic level to the next in a food chain. Ecological sanitation (EcoSan): A sustainable closed-loop sanitation system that uses dry composting toilets. Ecological succession: The orderly process of transition from one biotic community to another in a given area. Ecological sustainability: The maintenance of life-support systems and the achievement of a ‘natural extinction rate’. Ecologist: A scientist who works in the field of ecology. Ecology: The science that studies the relationships between living things and their environment. It is often considered as a discipline of biology. Eco-mark: Eco-label established by the Indian Government for easy identification of environment-friendly products. Economic analysis of environment: The systematic approach for determining the maximum use of scarce resource, which involves the comparison of two or more alternatives for meeting a specific objective with respect to the given assumptions and constraints. Economic growth: The increase in the amount of revenue generated by the trade activities of a nation.

302

GLOSSARY

Economic system: A network of organizations, which is used by a society for resolving basic problems of what, how, how much, and for whom to produce. Economic values: The specific impacts, such as jobs created or income generated, which result from the implementation of ‘environmental decision’. Ecosystem (Ecological system): A set of species living in an area and interacting with their environment. It is a biological system consisting of all living organisms or (biotic components) in a particular area and the non-living (abiotic component) with which the organisms interact, such as air, mineral soil, water, and sunlight. An ecosystem can also be defined as a community of interdependent plants and animals which inhabit and interact with the surrounding environment. Ecosystem diversity: A variety of habitat found in an area which includes forests, deserts, grasslands, aquatic ecosystems, and so on. Ecosystem service: Ecological services, such as the maintenance of the biogeochemical cycles, modification of climate, waste removal and detoxification, and control of pests and diseases, provided by an ecosystem. Ecotone: The transitional zone between adjoining ecosystems. Edge effect: The presence of rich and unique biological diversity found in an ecotone. Effect/Impact: Any change in the physical, natural, or cultural environment brought about by a development project. Effluent: Liquid waste or sewage discharged into a river or the sea. El Nino: An abnormal warming of the surface ocean waters in the eastern tropical Pacific a few years. EI Nino Southern Oscillation (ENSO): A global event caused due to large-scale interactions among the ocean and atmosphere, usually an oscillation in the surface pressure (atmospheric mass) between the southeastern tropical Pacific and the Australian−Indonesian regions.

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EIA team: The core group that conducts environmental research and prepares the environment in order for compliance to the sanctioning authority. Ekman transport: The variation in the direction of wind with altitude, caused by the varying effect of surface friction. Electromagnetic radiation: A form of energy radiated as waves and caused by changing electric and magnetic fields. Electrostatic precipitator: The filtration device that does not restrict the flow of air and removes the particles from the air by using an electrostatic charge. Eluviation: The lateral or downward movement of dissolved or suspended material within soil when rainfall exceeds evaporation. Emission: The gaseous or aerosol waste streams discharged into the environment as industrial facility process residues. Emission trading: Also known as ‘carbon trading’ or ‘carbon markets’, it is a way of controlling pollution by providing economic incentives for companies that achieve reductions in their emissions. Endangered species: The state of a species when the number of survivors is so small that it could soon become extinct in all or most of its habitat. Endorheic: A closed drainage basin that retains water and allows no outflow to other bodies of water, such as rivers or oceans. Endosulfan: A highly toxic pesticide used to protect many crops from pest attacks. Energy flow: The flow of energy in a food chain from one organism to the next in a sequence. Energy plantations: The trees meant to produce biomass fuel. In other words the, biomass–energy plantations to supply fuelwood. Enhanced greenhouse effect: It occurs when outgoing long wave radiation is retained in more amount than the required amount. It results in greater warming of the atmosphere than normal. Environment Kruznet’s curve: The graphical estimation of the relation between economic growth and environmental pollution.

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Environment perspective: Thinking from the view of protecting and preserving the environment or ecosystem. Environment: The natural world in which people, animals, and plants live. It is the combined features and resource capital that provides the basis for development, environmental management, and conservation. Environmentalist: A person who helps in the conservation of the environment. Environmental aspects: The elements of a business products, actions, or activities that may interact with the environment. Environmental audit: A management tool comprising a systematic, documented, periodic, and objective evaluation of how well a project, organization, or equipment is performing in relation to safeguard the environment. Environmental conservation: Ways in which we protect nature and try to reverse the damage caused to the natural environment. Environmental consultant: Firms or individuals who act in an independent and unbiased manner to provide information for decision-making on environmental issues. Environmental data: The facts about environmental quality derived from analytical processes dealing with the conversion of environment samples to numerically estimated (within error limits) environmental quality characteristics. Environmental degradation: This term refers to the damage caused to the natural environment by human action and otherwise. It is also the changes in environmental quality due to external disturbances. Environmental education: A subject concerned with all environmental issues. It has a wider coverage than environmental science or ecology and includes the social aspects of the environment. Environmental ethics: Moral principles that attempt to define our responsibility towards the environment. Environmental health: Aspects of human health that are determined by physical, chemical, biological, social, and psychosocial factors in the environment.

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Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA): The study of the likely shortterm and long-term impacts of a new project on the natural and social environment. It is the interdisciplinary analyses of natural, human health, and social-cultural effects that are expected to result from the actions of both the public and the private sectors, such as development projects. Environmental impact: Alterations in the quality of environment due to external disturbances to a system. Any change, adverse or beneficial, in the environment that is arising wholly or partially from an organization’s activities, products, or services. Environmental information: The information provided by a developer to a competent authority on inter alia, the project and its environmental effects. Environmental loadings: The release of pollutants, such as atmospheric and waterborne emission and solid wastes, to the environment. Environmental management system (EMS): It refers to the management of an organization’s environmental programmes in a comprehensive, systematic, planned, and documented manner. EMS is a management system that enables an organization to control its impacts on the environment. Environmental objectives: The overall aims that the business sets for itself to improve environmental performance through its EMS. Environmental performance indicators (EPIs): The indicators that provide information related to the environmental performance of the establishment, its capacity for the management of resources, and its effectiveness. Environmental performance: The result of an organization’s management of its environmental impacts. Environmental policy: A statement of an organization’s commitment to improve its environmental performance. Environmental public hearing (EPH): Carried out as a part of the process of the environmental studies for the EIA preparation for its appraisal, earlier to the endowment of environmental clearance based on the location specificity and nature of the project.

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Environmental refugee: A person who has been displaced due to environmental degradation or a development project. Environmental sampling: The physical collection of a representative portion of the environment, using techniques which facilitate accurate generation of reliable data. Environmental science: The systematic and scientific study of environment and our role in it. Environmental stability: The maintenance of natural processes in a state of balance. Forests contribute to environmental stability. Environmental statement: A document that sets the assessment of the likely effects of a project on the environment. Environmental studies: The branch of study concerned with environmental issues. It has a broader canvas than environmental science and includes the social aspects of the environment. Environmental targets: They provide short-term goals on the way in achieving the overall objectives. Equilibrium: The state of equality and balance or coherence between the demand and supply in a domestic market in microeconomics. Estuary: The wide part of a river where it flows into the sea. Euphotic zone: Upper part of the open ocean where there is enough light for the phytoplankton to carry out photosynthesis. Eutrophication: The excessive addition of chemical nutrients like nitrogen or phosphorus into the soil or a standing waterbody, which promotes the excessive growth of some species leading to the death of others. E-waste: Electronic waste that results from discarded devices, such as, mobile phones, computers, television sets, telephones, and music systems. Exclusion list: A record of the brinks and criteria for specific groups of projects describing those projects for which the EIA is not needed since they are regarded as improbable to affect the environment in a big way. Exclusive economic zone (EEZ): Area of the ocean up to a distance of 200 nautical miles from a country’s shoreline over which the country has the exclusive right to exploit the resources. 307

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Exhaust: Waste gases or air expelled from an engine, turbine, or other machine in the course of its operation. Exhaustible resources: The resources that cannot be replenished or regained once the existing pools are over. Exponential growth: The growth of a quantity with time in such a way that the curve is relatively flat in the beginning, but becomes steeper with time. Exposure assessment: The evaluation of an organism’s exposure to the system or (sub) population to an agent (and its derivatives). Ex-situ conservation: The conservation of biodiversity and wildlife in artificial settings outside the natural habitats of the species. External costs: The expenses (monetary or otherwise) that are borne by someone other than the individuals or groups using a resource. Externalities: When demand price and supply price are not equal (due to some market reasons), the externalities occur; these can be both positive and negative. A cost or benefit not transmitted through prices that are incurred by a party who did not agree to the action causing the cost or benefit. Extractive reserve: The protected forests in which local communities are allowed to harvest non-timber products in ways that do not harm the forest. Fauna: All the animals living in an area. Flora: All the plants of a particular area. Fluorosis: An ailment caused by the excess intake of fluoride. Fly ash: One of the residues generated in combustion, and comprises the fine particles that rise with the flue gases. Food chain: A sequence of species in which each species is the food for the next one in the chain. Food web: An interconnected set of food chains. Forest certification: A system for certifying forests that adopt sustainable management practices.

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Forest protection committee: A committee consisting of local people as well as forest and local officials that helps in protecting and managing the forest in a sustainable manner. Fossil fuels: The remains of organisms, which lived 200−500 million years ago, converted by heat and pressure into coal, oil, and natural gas. Fuel cell: An electrochemical unit that burns hydrogen to produce electricity. Functional unit: The unit of comparison to ascertain that the products being compared are provided an equivalent level of function or service. General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT): Treaty organization affiliated with the United Nations whose purpose is to facilitate international trade. Genetic diversity: The variety in the genetic makeup among individuals within a species. Genetic engineering: The manipulation of the genes in an organism to change its characteristics. For example, moving a favourable gene from one organism to another, which had specific changes introduced into their DNA by genetic engineering. Geographical Information System: A computerized data system that stores, retrieves, manipulates, and displays spatial/environmental information. Geothermal energy: The energy from the hot liquid rock under the earth’s crust tapped from the hot water that comes to the surface. Global Assessment of the Status of Human-induced Soil Degradation (GLASOD): The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) formulated a project proposal in 1987 for GLASOD, which developed methodologies to create soil and terrain databases. Global Environment Facility (GEF): The largest multilateral fund supporting measures for improving the state of the global environment in the context of sustainable development. Global warming: Warming of the earth’s atmosphere and oceans since the late 19th century and its projected continuation due to an abnormal increase in the concentration of greenhouse gases.

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Good-neighbourliness: According to this principle, a state has to use its property in such a way that its action does not injure and harm the property or the legal interests of another state. Goods: The commodities, which are offered by businesses or manufacturers in the form of physical products or services. Grasslands: The regions where the average annual precipitation is high enough for grass and a few trees to grow. Green benches: The benches constituted by the Chief Justice of the respective high courts either on their own or on the directions of the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court to constitute exclusively a bench (quorum consisting of more than one judge) to deal with matters relating to environment and issues connected therewith. Green bond: It is a tax exempt bond used for the development of land areas called brownfield sites, which are underutilized, underdeveloped, or abandoned. Green building: Any building that is constructed using the principles of ecological architecture. Green business: An enterprise that has no negative impact on the global or local environment, community, society, or economy. Green economics: A methodology of economics that supports the harmonious interaction between humans and nature, and attempts to meet the needs of both simultaneously. Green economy: The economic activity related to reducing the use of fossil fuels; decreasing pollution and greenhouse gas emissions; increasing the efficiency of energy usage and recycling materials; and developing and adopting renewable sources of energy. Green livelihood: The productive and sustainable livelihoods based on natural resources. Green Revolution: A way of agriculture that greatly increases crop yields by using new seed varieties, and large quantities of chemical fertilizers, pesticides, and water. Greenhouse gases: Gases produced when fossils are burnt, which then trap the heat radiated from the earth, and contribute to climate change. Examples are carbon dioxide and methane. 310

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Gross world product: The total value of all the products and services offered throughout the world. Groundwater: The water contained underneath the earth’s surface. Gyre: Ocean current with circular or spiral motion. Habitat: An area where a species is biologically adapted to live. It is marked by the physical and biological features of its environment that includes vegetation, climatic conditions, presence of water and moisture, and soil type. Habitat fragmentation: The process by which continuous areas of species habitat are reduced in extent or divided into patchwork of isolated fragments due to human impact. Herbivore: An organism that feeds directly on producers. Homeostasis: The tendency or ability of an ecosystem to maintain internal stability in the face of disturbances. Hubbert curve: Proposed by the geophysicist M. King Hubbert, it describes the pattern of oil availability in a field over time. Hurricane: Violent storm with very strong winds experienced mainly in the western Atlantic Ocean. Heterotrophs: They do not produce their own food and depend on the producers directly or indirectly to obtain their energy requirements. Hazardous waste: Hazardous waste is any kind of waste that can cause death, birth defects, illness, and functional abnormalities in living creatures. The damage or harm caused by hazardous waste to humans or surroundings are beyond repair. Hazard: Intrinsic property of a situation or an agent with the potential of causing adverse effects when a system, organism, or (sub) population is exposed to that particular agent. Hazard identification: Identification of the nature and type of adverse effect that an agent has the capacity of causing in a system, and organism, or (sub) population. Idea of progress: The belief that humankind would move on an unceasing path of better material conditions and a better life through economic and industrial development, exploiting natural resources.

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In-situ conservation: The conservation that tries to protect species in their natural habitat. Indicator species: The species that are very sensitive indicators of environmental problems. They give us early warning of problems that could potentially affect other species. Indigenous knowledge: The traditional and local knowledge held by the members of a given community. Inter-tidal zone: Area of shoreline between low and high tides. It is a transition between land and the ocean. ISO 14000: Voluntary environmental management system that provides practical tools for companies and organizations seeking to fulfil their environmental responsibilities. It refers to a family of voluntary standards and guidance documents to help organizations address environmental issues. Illuviation: The deposition in the underlying soil layer of colloids, soluble salts, and mineral particles leached out of an overlying soil layer. Internal costs: The expenses (monetary or otherwise) borne by the people using a resource. International Trade Organization (ITO): Conceived as a complement to the International Monetary Fund and the World Bank, ITO was established by Bretton Woods to provide international discipline in the uses of trade policies. International Environmental Legislation: The various policies, agreements, and treaties to address the issues of multinational concern. Impact Assessment Agency (IAA): Reviews the documents submitted for clearance to the Ministry of Environment and Forest (MoEF). Indicator/indices: The means by which various thresholds are translated into measurable terms; help in describing the environmental quality and allow the measurement of progress. Impact assessment: The evaluation of the environment consequences of energy and natural resource consumption and waste release that are associated with a proposed or an actual action. Impact categories: The classification of environmental effects and human heath caused by a product throughout its life cycle. 312

GLOSSARY

Impact indicators: It measures the possibility of an impact to occur rather than directly quantifying the actual impact. Impact system: A collection of operations that perform some defined functions together. Infestation: The state of being invaded or overrun by parasites. Incentive: Certain subsidies and rewards provided by the government to those industries that control their pollution levels or those that utilize green energy. Joint forest management: Sustainable management of forests involving local communities in the planning and execution of the conservation programme. Judicial activism: The proactive role of the judiciary in responding to the complaints of citizens or public interest litigation, and assuming the role of policy makers, educators, administrators, and, in general, friends of the environment. Kyoto Protocol: A protocol linked to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC or FCCC), aimed at fighting global warming. Key performance indicators (KPIs): Assessable metrics that replicate the environmental performance of an establishment in the context of attaining its broader aims and objectives rather than environmental ones. Keystone species: The species that play a key role in affecting the other organisms in an ecosystem. Land quality: The condition of land relative to the land use; it includes agriculture forestry, industry, conservation, and environmental management. Landfill: An area, usually located just outside the city, on which municipal waste is dumped. Landslides: The sliding of soil and rocks on a mountain slope. Least developed country (LDC): The name given to a country, which, according to the United Nations, exhibits the lowest indicators of socioeconomic development, with the lowest human development index rating of all countries in the world. 313

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Life cycle analysis (LCA): The process used to evaluate the environmental burden associated with a product, process, or activity. Life cycle assessment: A cradle-to-grave approach for assessing the industrial systems used for evaluating all the stages of a product’s life and providing a comprehensive view of the environmental aspects of a process or a product. Life cycle inventory: The identification and quantification of resource usage, energy and environmental emissions for a particular activity, process, or product. Limits to growth: An argument based on the belief that the way of life in rich countries is unsustainable, primarily because it involves huge resource and environmental costs. Local extinction: The state of a species when it is no longer found in the area it once inhabited. It is, however, present elsewhere in the world. Macro pollutants: The large quantities of pollutants contaminating land and producing drastic results. Major non-conformance: A failure to fulfil any requirement of ISO 14001 or multiple minor non-conformance, sufficient to lead auditors to conclude that an ISO 14000 requirement is not effectively implemented. Mandatory list: A list of threshold and measures for precise types of projects determining those projects that necessitate the need for EIA because they are likely to affect the environment substantially. Mangrove: A unique salt-tolerant tree with interlacing roots that grows in shallow marine sediments. Marginal cost: That part of the total production cost which is used for decision-making. Marine protected area (MPA): An area set up by a country to protect a marine ecosystem, its natural processes, habitats, and species. Marsh: A wetland with few trees. Mass extinction: A global, catastrophic extinction of species, with more than 65% of all species becoming extinct over some millions of years. It is characterized by a rate of disappearance significantly higher than the background extinction. 314

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Maximum sustainable yield (MSY): The yield of a species of fish that we could harvest annually leaving enough breeding stock for the population to renew itself. MSY is the amount that can be caught every year indefinitely. Mesosphere: The layer occupying the space above the stratosphere, up to about 80 km above the earth’s surface. Methemoglobinemia or Blue Baby Syndrome: A condition caused due to concentration in blood-oxygen levels in infants affected by elevated concentration of nitrate in drinking water. Methyl Iso-cyanate (MIC): A highly poisonous chemical used in pesticide manufacture. Micropollutants: The small quantities of pollutants causing contamination in a slow and steady manner. Microeconomics: The study of buying and selling behaviour of suppliers and consumers restricted to smaller frames of domestic firms, companies, household, and markets. Millennium Development Goals (MDGs): Adopted by the United Nations Millennium Summit in September 2000 to improve human well-being by reducing poverty, hunger, child and maternal mortality, ensuring education for all, controlling and managing diseases, tackling gender disparity, ensuring sustainable development, and pursuing global partnerships. Minor non-conformance: A single lapse implementing or meeting the EMS requirement. Mitigation: Any process, activity, or design to avoid, reduce, or rectify adverse environmental impact that is likely to be caused by a development project. Moisture: The presence of a liquid, especially water, often in trace amounts. Monocropping: Planting only a single species over a piece of land. Multilateral Environment Agreements (MEAs): The agreements between states that may take the form of ‘soft-law’, setting out non-legally binding principles which parties will respect when considering actions which affect a particular environmental issue, or ‘hard-law’ that specify 315

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legally binding action to be taken to work towards an environmental objective. Net primary productivity (NPP): It is defined as the net flux of carbon from the atmosphere into green plants per unit time. Natural resources: Those parts of nature that can provide goods and services for humans, including opportunities for recreation, appreciation of science beauty, and disposal of wastes. National Environment Policy Act (NEPA): Passed by the US Congress, it mandates all federal agencies and departments to consider and assess the environmental effects of proposals for legislation and other major projects. Natural farming: Pioneered by Masanobu Fukuoka of Japan, it follows ‘no-tillage’ and prefers organic farming. Naturalist: A person who studies animals, plants, birds, and other living things. Nautical mile: The unit of distance used in the ocean. One nautical mile is equal to 1.85 km. Nekton: The strong swimmers of the ocean, including all the larger organisms such as fish, turtles, and whales. Net energy yield: The usable amount of high-quality energy that can be extracted from an energy source. NIMBY (Not In My BackYard) syndrome: The practice of objecting to something that would affect one or take place in one’s locality, even though it would benefit many others. Non-renewable energy source: An energy source that is limited in supply and gets depleted with use. Non-point source of water pollution: A large area over which water flows and picks up pollutants. Nuclear radiation: Energy particles or rays that are released from a decaying radioactive element such as uranium. Nutrient: Any food, element, or compound that is essential for an organism to live and grow.

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Ozone depleting substances (ODS): These are the substances that have the ability to harm ozone layer in the atmosphere, for example CFCs. Organisation for economic Co-operation and Development (OECD): An international economics organization of 34 countries, founded in 1961, to stimulate economic progress and world trade. Optimal level of pollution: It occurs when the marginal benefit of the last unit of pollution exactly equals the marginal cost of pollution so that the net benefits to the society are maximized. Ozone Mapping Spectrometer: The device used for measuring the density and thickness of the ozone layer in the atmosphere. Old-growth forest: Forests that have not been seriously disturbed by human activities or natural disasters for several hundred years or more. Omnivore: An organism that eats producers as well as consumers. Open ocean: Area of the ocean beyond the coastal zone. Opportunistic infection: Infection that attacks the body when its immune system has broken down, say, by the HIV. Organic farming: A method of farming that does not use chemical fertilizers and chemical pesticides. It is a return to the traditional methods such as crop rotation, use of animal and green manures, and some forms of biological control of pests. Organism: Any living thing — an animal, a plant, or a microbe. Ozone depleting potential (ODP): The amount of ozone depletion caused by a substance. Ozone layer: The layer of ozone that exists in the upper atmosphere, or stratosphere, between 10 km and 50 km above the earth’s surface. Pareto-efficient systems: The economic system at a stage where reallocation of certain good(s) will do good for some individuals while not deteriorating or negatively affecting the well-being of any other group of individuals. Pathogen: A bacterium, virus, or other microorganism that can cause disease.

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Peak oil: The maximum rate of production of oil in any area under consideration, recognizing that it is a finite natural resource, subject to depletion. Pedosphere: The outermost layer of the earth that is made up of soil and is subject to soil formation processes. Peridotite: It is a dense, coarse-grained igneous rock, which is a dominant rock of the upper part of the earth’s mantle. Permaculture: A way of designing sustainable human settlements through an approach of land use, which weaves together microclimate, annual and perennial plants, animals, soils, water management, and human needs into intricately connected, productive communities. Permeability: A measure of how well the fluid flows through a material. Persistent organic pollutants (POPs): A group of persistent, toxic chemicals that can accumulate in organisms and can contaminate sites far removed from their source. They cause reproductive, immunological, and neurological problems in marine organisms and possibly in humans. pH: The measure of the acidity or basicity of a medium. Photochemical smog: A form of outdoor air pollution formed by the chemical reactions between sunlight, unburnt hydrocarbons, ozone, and other pollutants. A condition that develops when oxides of nitrogen and volatile organic compounds (VOCs) interact in the presence of sunlight to produce a mixture of hundreds of hazardous chemicals, which have a major toxic effect on environment and bio-organisms. Photosynthesis: The process in which green plants take in carbon dioxide from the atmosphere, water from the soil, and energy from the sun to make food. Photovoltaic (PV) cell: A device that converts solar energy directly into electricity. Phytoplankton: Microscopic plants that live in water columns of oceans, seas, and bodies of freshwater and are the base of marine food chain. Plankton: Free-floating microorganisms that cannot swim easily and are buffeted about by the waves and currents.

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Planning: Preferences, alternatives and means for allocating resources in terms of appropriateness and availability, following the introduction and implementation of logical sectoral and international policies. Point source of water pollution: Specific places like factories that discharge pollutants into waterbodies. Policy: The roadmap with distinct objects, established preferences, regulations, and means to put objectives in place. Polluter pays principle (PPP): Enacted to make the party responsible for producing pollution responsible for paying for the damage done to the natural environment. Pollution: The release of any material, surplus energy or other waste stream into the environment in sufficient quantities to exceed thresholds, and adversely affect environmental quality in short, medium or long term. Polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs): A group of toxic chemical compounds that are very stable, have good insulation qualities, are fire resistant, and have low electrical conductivity. Polyp: Tiny organism that forms the coral. Population pyramid: A bar chart arranged vertically showing the distribution of a population by age and sex. By convention, the younger ages are at the bottom with males on the left and females on the right. Porosity: Percentage of empty (void) space in earth material, such as soil or rock. Post-EIA evaluation: Carried out as an essential element of the execution of EIS and follow up. For instance, to identify the lessons and results of the experience and put them back into policy action. Precipitation: All the forms in which water comes down on earth, including rain, snow, and hailstorm. Primary air pollutants: Harmful chemicals that are released directly from a source into the atmosphere. Primary production: It is the synthesis of new organic material from inorganic molecules such as water and carbon dioxide. Producer: An organism, also called autotroph, such as a green plant, produces their own food through photosynthesis.

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Programme: Organized schedule with definite objectives to be realized during programme execution, with specification of actions and programme investment, in the agenda of applicable policies and strategies. Project: A comprehensive proposal, method, or pattern of any advancement act or activity, which stands for an investment, comprises building works, and implements policy/arrangement purposes. Protected area: An area in which the biodiversity and wildlife are protected from human exploitation. National parks, sanctuaries, and biosphere reserves are examples. Protocol: An international agreement that stands on its own but is linked to an existing convention. Public interest litigation (PIL): Petitions filed in courts by individual citizens, groups, and voluntary organizations seeking justice in matters involving public interest. Population: Members of a species living interacting within a specific geographical region. The term refers only to those members of a certain species that live within a given area. Pyramid of biomass: The graphical representation of the reduction in biomass of organisms as we move from one trophic level to the next. Pyramid of energy: The graphical representation of the reduction in usable energy of organisms as we move from one trophic level to the next. Quarry: A place or a large deep pit from which stone or other materials are or have been extracted. Radiosonde: A meteorological instrument that measures temperature, pressure, humidity, and winds in the upper atmosphere. It consists of a package of instruments and a radio transmitter attached to a balloon. Rainforest: A type of forest found in the hot and humid regions near the Equator. These regions have abundant rainfall and little variation in temperature over the years. Rainwater harvesting: It involves the collection of water from surfaces on which the rain falls, and subsequently storing it for later use.

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Normally, water is collected from the roofs of buildings and stored in rainwater tanks. Rangeland: The land that is not suitable for crop production and is used for grazing by animals. Receptor/sensitive receptor: A component of the natural or man-made environment, such as water, air, building, or a plant that is potentially affected by an impact. Recycle: To convert waste back into a useful form. Red Data List: The list of threatened species prepared by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). Reduce: To decrease the amount of things we buy and consume. Reference dose: The estimated daily exposure dose that is not likely to cause serious effect even after the occurrence of continuous exposure throughout a lifetime. Refurbishment: The process of performing huge amount of repair to an item, either mechanically or aesthetically. Rehabilitation: The provision of opportunities and facilities to displaced people to help them find livelihoods and shelter in a new area. Relative humidity: The amount of water vapour in the air is relative to the amount of saturation; percentage of the maximum amount that the air can contain at a specified temperature. Renewable energy: The type of energy (like solar energy) that can be replaced by natural processes and can be used forever; energy comes from natural resources, such as sunlight, wind, rain, tides and geothermal heat, which are renewable (naturally replenished). Renewable energy source: An energy source that is replenished by natural processes and, hence, can be used indefinitely. Reserve forest: An area of forest set aside and preserved by the government as wild national park or the like. Resettlement: The relocation of displaced persons in new areas. Resource allocation: It refers to the art or science of thinking rationally and appropriately dividing suitable portion or percentage of available resources to different areas for use.

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Resource efficiency: The use of smaller amounts of physical or natural resources for the production of a unit of output. Resource intensity: The consumption of primary as well as secondary materials per unit of the real gross domestic product (GDP); calculated for one commodity at the country level. Resources: Any material in raw form, which could be directly moulded to form utility items or has direct role in the production process of one or more products and processes. Reuse: To extend the life of an item or to find a new use for it. Reverse osmosis (RO) method: Purifying water by forcing it through a semi-permeable membrane. Richter scale: A measure of the severity of an earthquake. It is a measure of the amount of energy released, which is indicated by the vibrations in a seismograph. Rio Declaration on Environment and Development: It describes states’ obligations for promoting the principle of sustainable development. Riparian zones: An area located at the interface between land and a river or stream. RSPM (Respirable Suspended Particulate Matter): Particulate matter that is 10 mm or less in diameter. Sacred grove: Forest that is protected by the local community through social traditions and taboos, which incorporate spiritual and ecological values. Safety factor: Composite (reductive) factor used to divide an observed or estimated no-observed adverse effect level (NOAEL) to arrive at a standard or criterion that is considered to be safe without significant risk. Salinization of soil: Building up of salt in the soil, following the evaporation of excess water. Sanitary landfill: Land waste disposal site that is located to minimize water pollution from runoff and leaching. Waste is spread in thin layers, compacted, and covered with a fresh layer of soil each day to minimize pest, disease, air pollution, and water pollution problems. 322

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Saturated zone: An area below the water table where all the pore spaces are filled with water. Savannah: Tropical grasslands with widely scattered clumps of low trees. They are marked by low rainfall and prolonged dry periods. Scoping: Initial stage in determining the nature and potential scale of environmental impacts arising from proposed development and assessing what further studies are required to establish their significance. It includes the identification of key issues to be addressed by the EIA. Screening: It is done to assess if a development proposal requires an EIA or not. Secondary air pollutant: A harmful chemical that is produced from chemical reactions involving primary pollutants. Second-growth forest: A forest that results from secondary ecological succession that takes place when forests are cleared and then left undisturbed for a long period of time. Seismograph: An instrument that measures the amount of energy released in an earthquake by sensing the vibrations. Sentinel species: Species that are very sensitive indicators of environmental problems. Sequestered carbon: Carbon stored in plants or soil. It is formed by the conversion of CO2 to different forms of carbon. Services: Non-physical entities that make the life conditions easier for the consumers. Seventh-generation principle: Being cautious while making decisions in a community by considering the effects of each decision on the next seven generations. Shale oil: Crude oil stored in a rock formation called shale. Ship breaking: The process of breaking up decommissioned ships for recycling the parts to the extent possible. Sludge: Toxic material left behind after the treatment of sewage. Social benefit: Benefit(s) that all humans (other than the direct producers and consumers) would enjoy as a result of positive externality.

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Social cost: The cost of the damage done to the environment in terms of changing climate, depletion of resources, polluted atmosphere, and the like. Social environment: The environment that surrounds a person, living organism, citizen, company, and the like. Social fencing: A community barrier to prevent overgrazing and degradation of land. Social forestry: Planting of trees, often with the involvement of local communities, in wasteland or common land. Soil texture: Common term used for the proportionate allocation of different sizes of mineral particles in soil. Special economic zone: A particular area inside a state which acts as foreign territory for tariff and trade operations, wherein the government provides tax exemption (information technology, excise, customs, sales), subsidized water and electricity, and the like. Species: A set of organisms that resemble one another in appearance and behaviour. Organisms in a species are potentially capable of reproducing naturally among themselves. Species diversity: The number of plant and animal species present in a community or an ecosystem. Species extinction: A situation in which no members of the species are found to exist anywhere on earth. State Level Expert Appraisal Committee (SEAC): The committee that decides whether an activity or a project needs further environmental studies for the EIA preparation for its appraisal, earlier to the endowment of environmental clearance based on the location specificity and nature of the project. State responsibility: Traditional principle of general international law which can be applied to environmental wrongdoing; a state incurs state responsibility if there is a breach of any international obligation. Steady state economy: An economic system, which has reached a stable state where the extraction and consumption from the earth’s pool of resources is equal to or below the capacity or carrying capacity of the ecosystem. 324

GLOSSARY

Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants: It aims to protect human health and the environment by banning the production and use of some of the most toxic chemicals. Strategic environment assessment (SEA): The formal process of systematic analysis of the environmental effects of development policies, plans, programmes, and other proposed strategic actions. Stratosphere: The layer of earth above the troposphere extending to about 50 km above the earth’s surface. Styrofoam: A kind of expanded polystyrene. Sulphur cycle: The cyclical movement of sulphur in the environment. Surveillance audit: The audit that is undertaken to verify whether an organization with an existing (ISO) certification is still meeting the minimum requirements of certification. Sustainable consumption: It is the selection, consumption, and disposal for products and services in a way that conserves energy and material, minimizes the depletion of natural resources, prevents toxic and hazardous substances, and optimizes the quality of life for consumers and workers throughout the lifecycle of products or services. Sustainable development: The development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs. Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs): International development goals proposed by the UN to follow and build on the MDGs. Ways of living and working that enable all people of the world to lead healthy, fulfilling, and economically secure lives without destroying the environment. Sustainable forest management: The use of the world’s forests in such a way that they continue to provide resources without depriving future generations of their needs. Sustainable marketing: Marketing of sustainable goods and services that assure customer requirements and considerably improve the social as well environmental performance for whole life cycle, while growing customer value and achieving the company’s aims. Sustainable value: Integrates environment and social dimension in financial analysis and investment decision-making. 325

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Swamp: A wetland dominated by trees and shrubs. Tailings: Waste products that come out of the initial processing of uranium ore. Tar sands: Sands containing oil-rich bitumen. Temperate forest: A type of forest with seasonal variations in climate; freezing in winter, and warm and humid in summer. Terminator technology: Technology to generate seeds that produce sterile plants. This technology is employed in some genetically modified crops so that new seeds have to be bought every year. Thermodynamics: The study of the laws that govern the conversion of energy from one form to another, the direction in which heat will flow, and the availability of energy to do work. Fourth law of thermodynamics states that perfect recycling is impossible since matter becomes dissipated and unavailable for use. According to second law of thermodynamics, entropy in an isolated system always increases. Thermal pollution of water: Sudden increase or decrease in temperature of any natural body of water caused by human activity. Thermohaline circulation: The global density-driven circulation of the oceans. Thermosphere: The space above the mesosphere up to about 600 km above the earth’s surface. Third-party audits: The external audits conducted by a third party and means of independently verifying internal audits conducted by an organization. Threatened species: The species facing a high risk of global extinction. Threshold: A point after which an environment, organism, society or economy is clearly affected and degraded. Tidal energy: Energy from large changes in tides. Tight oil: The same as shale oil. Topsoil: Topmost layer of the soil, where most plant roots, microorganisms, and other animal life are located. Toxic waste: Waste that contains poisons, which could kill certain organisms. 326

GLOSSARY

Toxicity: Intrinsic property of an agent responsible for causing an adverse biological effect. Trade liberalization: Openness of trade, that is, the extension of trade from the domestic markets to the other nations. Trade perspective: Thinking from the viewpoint of developing trade and boosting the economic growth. Transboundary pollution: A pollution that originates in one country and is able to spread to another country through pathways, like water or air, thus affecting the country’s environment. Trophic level: The specific feeding stage of an organism in the ecosystem. Troposphere: The part of the atmosphere up to a distance of 17 km from the earth’s surface. Tsunami: An undersea high-energy wave set off by an (undersea) earthquake; when the wave hits the coast, resulting in giant waves. Tundra: Forests in the Arctic that occur in the extreme northern latitudes where the snow melts seasonally. Typhoon: Violent storm with very strong winds experienced mainly in western Atlantic Ocean. Union Carbide India Limited (UCIL): Pesticide plant in Bhopal that is the site of Bhopal gas tragedy. Unsaturated zone: Area above the water table where most of the pore spaces are filled with water. Upwelling: An oceanographic phenomenon that involves wind-driven motion of dense, cooler, and generally nutrient-rich water towards the ocean’s surface, replacing the warmer, usually nutrient-deplete surface water. Urban heat island: A city area that is significantly warmer than its surrounding rural areas due to human activities. Urban sprawl: Unplanned and uncontrolled spreading of urban development into areas adjoining the edge of a city. Urbanization: The process by which more and more people live and work in cities rather than in the rural areas. 327

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

United States Council for Environmental Quality (USCEQ): Issues, regulations, and specific requirements for programmatic assessments for NEPA that apply to USAID. UV method: The use of ultraviolet radiation to kill harmful organisms in water. Verification audit: Usually carried out as a means of checking the validity and accuracy of the information contained in a report that is more specifically an environmental report. Vermicompost: Product or process of composting utilizing various species of worms, usually red wigglers, white worms, and earthworms to create a heterogeneous mixture of decomposing vegetable or food waste bedding materials and vermicast. Vermicomposting: Composting organic waste more efficiently using earthworms. Village forest: Reserved forest assigned to a village community. Virtual water: The amount of water required to prepare items for eating, drinking, or other purposes. Voluntary standard: The standard in which there is no obligation to comply either legally or de facto. Vulnerable species: Species considered to be facing a high risk of extinction in the world. Wasteland reclamation: The process by which a wasteland is brought again under vegetative cover and made productive. Water cycle: The process that continually recycles and transports water among the atmosphere, land, and ocean. Water footprint: The total volume of freshwater that is used to produce the goods and services consumed by an individual or community or produced by a business. An indicator measures both direct and indirect usage of water. Water harvesting: The process of collecting the rainwater whenever and wherever it falls. Water table: The top layer of the saturated zone.

328

GLOSSARY

Water shade: A region from which water flows (or drains) into a waterbody, such as stream, lake, reservoir, wetland. Wave energy: Kinetic energy in the moving waves tapped by suitable methods. Weathering: Breakdown and alteration of rocks and minerals at or near the earth’s surface. Wetland: Land surface covered or saturated with water for a part or whole of the year. World Trade Organization (WTO): An authority on the worldwide regulations of trade between countries; its prime function is to make sure that trade takes place without hindrances, as planned and desired. It encourages trade between member nations, administers global trade agreements, and resolves disputes when they arise. Zooplankton: Primary consumers that feed on phytoplankton. Zooxanthellae: Tiny single-celled algae, which live inside the tissues of the polyps that form the corals. They produce food and oxygen through photosynthesis and give colours to the corals.

329

Bibliography

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Andrews, J. and N. Jelley. 2007. Energy Science: principles, technologies, and impacts, p. 323. New York: Oxford University Press Avallone, E. A., T. Baumeister, and A. Sadegh. 1997. Marks’ Standard Handbook for Mechanical Engineers, 10th edn. New Delhi: Tata McGraw Hill Publishing Company Ltd Bhattacharya, T. 1998. Terrestrial Solar Photovoltaics. New Delhi: Narosa Publishing House Pvt. Ltd Boyle, G. (ed.). 2004. Renewable Energy, p. 452. New York: Oxford University Press Centre for Science and Environment (CSE). 2016. Annual State of India’s Environment 2016, New Delhi: Centre for Science and Environment Cleveland, C. J. and C. Morris. 2006. Directory of Energy. New Delhi: Elsevier Ltd Garg, H. P. and J. Prakash. 2000. Solar Energy: fundamentals and applications. New Delhi: Tata McGraw Hill Publishing Co. Ltd Gilbert, M. Masters. 1998. Introduction to Environmental Engineering and Science. Englewood Cliff, New Jersey: Prentice-Hall of India Pvt. Ltd Kishore, V. V. N. 2008. Renewable Energy Engineering and Technology: a knowledge compendium. New Delhi: TERI (The Energy and Resources Institute) Kothari, D. P., K. C. Singal, and R. Rakesh. 2011. Renewable Energy Sources and Emerging Technologies, 2nd edn. New Delhi: PHI Learning Pvt. Ltd Mital, K. M. 1997. Non-conventional Energy Systems: principles, progress, and prospects. New Delhi: Wheeler Publishing MNRE (Ministry of New and Renewable Energy). 2008. 25 Years of Renewable Energy in India. New Delhi: MNRE MNRE (Ministry of New and Renewable Energy). 2016. Annual Report 2015/16. New Delhi: MNRE MoEFCC (Ministry of Environment Forest and Climate Change). 2016. Annual Report 2015/16. New Delhi: MoEFCC MoPNG (Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas). 2009. Practical Guide to Energy Conservation PCRA, 2009. New Delhi: MoPNG Helmat, M. and Z. Harald. 1985. The Purification of Biogas. Braunschweig, Germany: Friedrich Vieweg und Sohn Verlagsgesellschaft mbH Nagpal, G. R. 1996. Power Plant Engineering. New Delhi: Khanna Publishers Planning Commission. 2012. 12th Five-year Plan 2012/13. New Delhi: Planning Commission Rai, G. D. 1992. Non-conventional Energy Sources, 2nd edn. New Delhi: Khanna Publishers

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BIBLIOGRAPHY

Rajgopalan, R. 2016. Environmental Studies: from crisis to cure, 3rd edn. New Delhi. Oxford University Press Sikkim Manipal University (SMU). 2010a. Eco-marketing Sikkim Manipal University (SMU). 2010b. Environmental Economics and Regulatory Framework, Eco-marketing Sikkim Manipal University (SMU). 2010c. Environmental Finance, Eco-marketing Sikkim Manipal University (SMU). 2010d. Environmental Impact Assessment and ISO 14001 Standards, Eco-marketing Sikkim Manipal University (SMU). 2010e. Fundamentals of Environment, Eco-marketing Sikkim Manipal University (SMU). 2010f. Natural Resource Conservation and Management, Eco-marketing Sikkim Manipal University (SMU). 2010g. Pollution and Disaster Management, Eco-marketing Sikkim Manipal University (SMU). 2010h. Sustainable Development and Corporate Social Responsibility, Eco-marketing Singhal, R. K. 2005. Non-conventional Energy Sources, 2nd edn. New Delhi: S. K. Kataria and Sons TERI (The Energy and Resources Institute). 2007. Indian Energy Sector: an overview. TERI Energy Data Directory and Yearbook 2007, p. 18. New Delhi: TERI Thareja, B. L. 1979. A Textbook of Electrical Technology. New Delhi: S Chand and Co. Ltd Tiwari, G. N. and M. K. Ghoshal. 2007. Fundamentals of Renewable Energy Sources. New Delhi: Narosa Publishing House Pvt. Ltd Tripathi, Arun K. 2015. Multiple Choice Questions on Energy, 2nd edn. New Delhi: TERI (The Energy and Resources Institute) Tripathi, Arun K. 2015. Multiple Choice Questions on Renewable Energy, 3rd edn. New Delhi: TERI (The Energy and Resources Institute) Websites

http://powermin.nic.in.

333

Answers

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

CHAPTER 1: 1. 6. 11. 16. 21. 26. 31. 36. 41. 46.

(d) (a) (c) (a) (b) (b) (a) (c) (b) (d)

CHAPTER 2: 1. 6. 11. 16. 21. 26. 31. 36. 41. 46. 51. 56. 61. 66. 71. 76. 81. 86. 91. 96. 101.

(b) (b) (c) (c) (a) (a) (b) (c) (a) (c) (c) (b) (b) (b) (a) (a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (c)

ENVIRONMENT: THE LIFELINE AND HABITAT FOR LIVING ORGANISMS 2. 7. 12. 17. 22. 27. 32. 37. 42. 47.

(a) (c) (b) (d) (a) (d) (a) (b) (c) (b)

3. 8. 13. 18. 23. 28. 33. 38. 43. 48.

(a) (a) (a) (d) (a) (a) (c) (a) (b) (d)

4. 9. 14. 19. 24. 29. 34. 39. 44. 49.

(d) (a) (d) (a) (b) (a) (b) (a) (a) (a)

5. 10. 15. 20. 25. 30. 35. 40. 45. 50.

(a) (b) (a) (a) (d) (b) (c) (b) (b) (b)

5. 10. 15. 20. 25. 30. 35. 40. 45. 50. 55. 60. 65. 70. 75. 80. 85. 90. 95. 100.

(d) (c) (c) (b) (d) (c) (a) (b) (d) (b) (c) (a) (a) (a) (d) (c) (c) (a) (c) (d)

FUNDAMENTALS OF ENVIRONMENT 2. 7. 12. 17. 22. 27. 32. 37. 42. 47. 52. 57. 62. 67. 72. 77. 82. 87. 92. 97. 102.

(d) (c) (b) (d) (c) (b) (c) (d) (c) (a) (a) (a) (c) (c) (a) (b) (b) (a) (a) (d) (b)

3. 8. 13. 18. 23. 28. 33. 38. 43. 48. 53. 58. 63. 68. 73. 78. 83. 88. 93. 98. 103.

(c) (b) (c) (d) (a) (c) (a) (a) (d) (c) (b) (b) (d) (c) (c) (b) (a) (a) (b) (d) (a)

336

4. 9. 14. 19. 24. 29. 34. 39. 44. 49. 54. 59. 64. 69. 74. 79. 84. 89. 94. 99.

(b) (d) (b) (a) (b) (d) (a) (a) (c) (a) (a) (c) (c) (d) (a) (b) (b) (b) (a) (d)

ANSWERS

CHAPTER 3:

ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

1. (a)

2. (b)

3. (a)

4. (b)

5. (a)

6. (c)

7. (a)

8. (c)

9. (d)

10. (a)

11. (d)

12. (a)

13. (d)

14. (b)

15. (b)

16. (d)

17. (b)

18. (a)

19. (b)

20. (b)

21. (d)

22. (b)

23. (b)

24. (c)

25. (c)

26. (d)

27. (c)

28. (d)

29. (d)

30. (c)

31. (b)

32. (b)

33. (a)

34. (d)

35. (b)

36. (a)

37. (d)

38. (b)

39. (b)

40. (c)

41. (c)

42. (a)

43. (c)

44. (b)

45. (d)

46. (d)

47. (c)

48. (a)

49. (b)

50. (d)

51. (d)

52. (d)

53. (b)

54. (a)

55. (b)

56. (b)

57. (b)

58. (a)

59. (d)

60. (d)

61. (c)

62. (c)

63. (c)

64. (c)

65. (a)

66. (a)

67. (a)

68. (c)

69. (b)

70. (b)

71. (d)

72. (d)

73. (d)

74. (b)

75. (b)

76. (b)

77. (b)

78. (b)

79. (d)

80. (d)

81. (a)

82. (a)

83. (c)

84. (d)

85. (b)

86. (d)

87. (c)

88. (a)

89. (c)

90. (a)

91. (b)

92. (a)

93. (b)

94. (c)

95. (d)

96. (a)

97. (b)

98. (c)

99. (d)

100. (b)

101. (b)

102. (a)

103. (c)

104. (c)

105. (c)

106. (d)

107. (b)

108. (a)

109. (d)

110. (c)

111. (a)

112. (a)

113. (a)

114. (c)

115. (d)

116. (b)

117. (d)

118. (a)

119. (d)

120. (c)

121. (c)

122. (b)

123. (c)

124. (d)

125. (b)

126. (b)

127. (a)

128. (b)

129. (c)

130. (c)

131. (d)

132. (b)

133. (a)

134. (a)

135. (d)

136. (d)

137. (b)

138. (b)

139. (a)

140. (b)

141. (d)

142. (d)

143. (d)

144. (d)

145. (a)

146. (b)

337

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

CHAPTER 4:

ENVIRONMENTAL ECONOMICS AND REGULATION

1. (d)

2. (b)

3. (a)

4. (c)

5. (d)

6. (c)

7. (a)

8. (b)

9. (c)

10. (a)

11. (d)

12. (b)

13. (c)

14. (a)

15. (d)

16. (b)

17. (a)

18. (c)

19. (c)

20. (d)

21. (c)

22. (a)

23. (b)

24. (d)

25. (c)

26. (d)

27. (b)

28. (a)

29. (c)

30. (b)

31. (c)

32. (a)

33. (b)

34. (d)

35. (b)

36. (a)

37. (c)

38. (d)

39. (b)

40. (c)

41. (b)

42. (a)

43. (d)

44. (c)

45. (b)

46. (d)

47. (c)

48. (a)

49. (b)

50. (c)

51. (d)

52. (a)

53. (b)

54. (c)

55. (d)

56. (a)

57. (d)

58. (b)

59. (c)

60. (b)

CHAPTER 5:

ENVIRONMENTAL IMPACT ASSESSMENT

1. (c)

2. (b)

3. (b)

4. (b)

5. (d)

6. (a)

7. (b)

8. (b)

9. (c)

10. (b)

11. (d)

12. (b)

13. (c)

14. (a)

15. (c)

16. (b)

17. (c)

18. (b)

19. (b)

20. (b)

21. (b)

22. (a)

23. (c)

24. (c)

25. (a)

26. (a)

27. (d)

28. (b)

29. (b)

30. (b)

31. (c)

32. (b)

33. (d)

34. (c)

35. (d)

36. (c)

37. (c)

38. (b)

39. (b)

40. (d)

41. (c)

42. (c)

43. (a)

44. (b)

45. (b)

46. (b)

47. (d)

48. (b)

49. (a)

50. (d)

CHAPTER 6:

POLLUTION AND DISASTER MANAGEMENT

1. (b)

2. (b)

3. (a)

4. (c)

5. (a)

6. (c)

7. (b)

8. (b)

9. (c)

10. (c)

11. (b)

12. (c)

13. (a)

14. (a)

15. (b)

16. (d)

17. (b)

18. (a)

19. (a)

20. (a)

21. (b)

22. (a)

23. (d)

24. (a)

25. (d)

26. (a)

27. (c)

28. (a)

29. (b)

30. (c)

338

ANSWERS

31. (a)

32. (a)

33. (c)

34. (c)

35. (d)

36. (c)

37. (c)

38. (b)

39. (b)

40. (a)

41. (c)

42. (a)

43. (a)

44. (c)

45. (c)

46. (a)

47. (c)

48. (a)

49. (c)

50. (d)

51. (d)

52. (a)

53. (a)

54. (a)

55. (b)

56. (a)

57. (a)

58. (c)

59. (b)

60. (d)

3. 8. 13. 18. 23. 28. 33. 38. 43. 48.

(a) (d) (c) (c) (a) (b) (a) (d) (d) (a)

4. 9. 14. 19. 24. 29. 34. 39. 44. 49.

(a) (a) (d) (d) (d) (d) (c) (b) (c) (d)

5. 10. 15. 20. 25. 30. 35. 40. 45. 50.

(c) (a) (d) (d) (c) (c) (c) (c) (a) (a)

3. 8. 13. 18. 23. 28. 33. 38. 43. 48.

(a) (d) (d) (d) (a) (b) (d) (c) (a) (c)

4. 9. 14. 19. 24. 29. 34. 39. 44. 49.

(a) (a) (d) (d) (d) (c) (d) (d) (c) (c)

5. 10. 15. 20. 25. 30. 35. 40. 45. 50.

(d) (c) (a) (d) (b) (b) (d) (d) (c) (b)

3. 8. 13. 18.

(a) (c) (d) (b)

4. 9. 14. 19.

(d) (d) (a) (d)

5. 10. 15. 20.

(a) (a) (c) (a)

CHAPTER 7: 1. 6. 11. 16. 21. 26. 31. 36. 41. 46.

(b) (d) (c) (c) (d) (a) (b) (b) (a) (d)

CHAPTER 8: 1. 6. 11. 16. 21. 26. 31. 36. 41. 46.

(b) (a) (b) (b) (c) (a) (d) (c) (c) (b)

CHAPTER 9: 1. 6. 11. 16.

(a) (b) (a) (a)

AIR POLLUTION 2. 7. 12. 17. 22. 27. 32. 37. 42. 47.

(d) (d) (b) (d) (d) (b) (c) (a) (d) (d)

WATER POLLUTION 2. 7. 12. 17. 22. 27. 32. 37. 42. 47.

(d) (d) (a) (b) (d) (d) (b) (c) (d) (b)

ECOSYSTEM 2. 7. 12. 17.

(c) (c) (c) (a)

339

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

21. (b) 26. (b)

CHAPTER 10:

22. (a) 27. (c)

23. (b) 28. (d)

24. (b) 29. (a)

25. (c)

BIODIVERSITY

1. (c) 6. (b)

2. (a) 7. (b)

3. (c) 8. (d)

4. (a) 9. (b)

5. (c) 10. (b)

11. (a)

12. (d)

13. (c)

14. (a)

15. (a)

16. (a)

17. (d)

18. (d)

19. (c)

20. (a)

21. (b)

22. (a)

23. (b)

24. (a)

25. (a)

26. (a)

27. (d)

28. (c)

29. (a)

30. (d)

CHAPTER 11:

NATURAL RESOURCES

1. (a)

2. (d)

3. (c)

4. (c)

5. (b)

6. (c)

7. (d)

8. (a)

9. (d)

10. (a)

11. (d)

12. (c)

13. (b)

14. (c)

15. (b)

16. (c)

17. (b)

18. (a)

19. (a)

20. (a)

21. (a)

22. (b)

23. (c)

24. (d)

25. (c)

26. (c)

27. (a)

28. (d)

29. (d)

30. (c)

31. (d)

32. (b)

33. (a)

34. (c)

35. (a)

36. (a)

37. (c)

38. (c)

39. (b)

40. (d)

41. (b)

42. (d)

43. (d)

44. (a)

45. (c)

46. (c)

47. (a)

48. (d)

49. (a)

50. (a)

51. (a)

52. (b)

53. (c)

54. (d)

55. (d)

56. (d)

57. (a)

58. (b)

59. (b)

60. (b)

61. (a)

62. (d)

63. (d)

64. (b)

65. (c)

66. (b)

67. (b)

68. (d)

69. (b)

70. (a)

71. (a)

72. (a)

73. (b)

74. (d)

75. (d)

76. (a)

77. (b)

78. (b)

79. (a)&(d)

80. (d)

81. (c)

82. (a)

83. (d)

84. (d)

85. (d)

CHAPTER 12:

CLIMATE CHANGE

1. (c)

2. (c)

3. (d)

4. (a)

5. (b)

6. (d)

7. (a)

8. (b)

9. (b)

10. (c)

11. (c)

12. (b)

13. (c)

14. (a)

15. (d)

340

ANSWERS

16. (b)

17. (d)

18. (b)

19. (d)

20. (d)

21. (d)

22. (b)

23. (c)

24. (b)

25. (c)

26. (d)

27. (d)

28. (d)

29. (b)

30. (b)

CHAPTER 13:

MANAGEMENT OF SOLID AND HAZARDOUS WASTES

1. (b)

2. (d)

3. (d)

4. (d)

5. (d)

6. (d)

7. (b)

8. (d)

9. (c)

10. (c)

11. (d)

12. (d)

13. (a)

14. (b)

15. (d)

16. (a)

17. (c)

18. (d)

19. (a)

20. (a)

21. (a)

22. (c)

23. (c)

24. (b)

25. (d)

26. (a)

27. (d)

28. (c)

29. (c)

30. (d)

31. (d)

32. (d)

33. (a)

34. (a)

35. (a)

36. (a)

37. (a)

38. (a)

39. (a)

40. (a)

41. (c)

42. (b)

43. (a)

44. (a)

45. (d)

46. (c)

47. (d)

48. (d)

49. (d)

50. (c)

CHAPTER 14:

ECO-MARKETING

1. (a)

2. (a)

3. (b)

4. (b)

5. (b)

6. (a)

7. (c)

8. (b)

9. (a)

10. (a)

11. (a)

12. (a)

13. (c)

14. (a)

15. (a)

16. (b)

17. (a)

18. (a)

19. (c)

20. (b)

21. (a)

22. (d)

23. (c)

24. (d)

25. (a)

26. (b)

27. (a)

28. (b)

29. (c)

30. (a)

31. (b)

32. (d)

33. (c)

34. (c)

35. (b)

CHAPTER 15:

ENVIRONMENTAL FINANCE

1. (a)

2. (c)

3. (c)

4. (a)

5. (c)

6. (c)

7. (b)

8. (a)

9. (c)

10. (b)

11. (a)

12. (b)

13. (a)

14. (c)

15. (a)

16. (a)

17. (d)

18. (a)

19. (b)

20. (b)

21. (b)

22. (b)

23. (a)

24. (c)

25. (d)

26. (b)

27. (a)

28. (b)

29. (a)

30. (a)

31. (a)

32. (a)

33. (c)

34. (c)

35. (d)

341

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

36. (c)

37. (d)

38. (b)

39. (a)

40. (c)

41. (a)

42. (a)

43. (a)

44. (a)

45. (b)

46. (b)

47. (b)

48. (a)

49. (b)

50. (d)

51. (c)

52. (a)

53. (a)

54. (c)

55. (b)

56. (a)

57. (b)

58. (a)

59. (d)

60. (c)

CHAPTER 16:

SUSTAINABLE DEVELOPMENT AND CORPORATE SOCIAL RESPONSIBILITY

1. (b)

2. (a)

3. (c)

4. (d)

5. (c)

6. (b)

7. (a)

8. (c)

9. (b)

10. (b)

11. (d)

12. (b)

13. (a)

14. (b)

15. (b)

16. (d)

17. (a)

18. (b)

19. (a)

20. (d)

21. (a)

22. (c)

23. (d)

24. (a)

25. (b)

26. (d)

27. (c)

28. (a)

29. (b)

30. (a)

31. (d)

32. (c)

33. (a)

34. (a)

35. (b)

36. (c)

37. (a)

38. (c)

39. (a)

40. (b)

41. (c)

42. (b)

43. (c)

44. (c)

45. (c)

46. (d)

47. (b)

48. (c)

49. (a)

50. (c)

51. (a)

52. (b)

53. (a)

54. (c)

55. (c)

56. (c)

57. (a)

58. (c)

59. (b)

60. (c)

61. (b)

62. (b)

63. (d)

64. (b)

65. (b)

66. (c)

67. (b)

68. (c)

69. (a)

70. (a)

71. (c)

72. (a)

73. (c)

74. (b)

CHAPTER 17:

GENERAL QUESTIONS

1. (d)

2. (c)

3. (d)

4. (c)

5. (a)

6. (d)

7. (d)

8. (b)

9. (c)

10. (b)

11. (d)

12. (b)

13. (a)

14. (c)

15. (a)

16. (c)

17. (c)

18. (a)

19. (c)

20. (c)

21. (d)

22. (d)

23. (c)

24. (d)

25. (c)

26. (b)

27. (b)

28. (a)

29. (a)

30. (a)

31. (a)

32. (c)

33. (a)

34. (c)

35. (b)

36. (d)

37. (d)

38. (a)

39. (a)

40. (a)

41. (d)

42. (a)

43. (c)

44. (c)

45. (c)

342

ANSWERS

46. (d)

47. (c)

48. (d)

49. (d)

50. (b)

51. (d)

52. (b)

53. (d)

54. (c)

55. (b)

56. (b)

57. (a)

58. (d)

59. (c)

60. (d)

61. (d)

62. (d)

63. (c)

64. (b)

65. (d)

66. (c)

67. (a)

68. (c)

69. (d)

70. (d)

71. (b)

72. (d)

73. (a)

74. (c)

75. (c)

76. (c)

77. (c)

78. (c)

79. (a).

80. (c)

81. (a)

82. (c)

83. (a)

84. (b)

85. (d)

86. (c)

87. (b)

88. (d)

89. (b)

90. (a)

91. (a)

92. (d)

93. (a)

94. (d)

95. (d)

96. (d)

97. (c)

98. (b)

99. (d).

100. (c)

101. (c)

102. (c)

103. (d)

104. (d)

105. (d)

106. (d)

107. (c)

108. (c)

109. (a)

110. (c)

111. (a)

112. (a)

113. (c)

114. (b)

115. (c)

116. (d)

117. (c)

343

About the Author Dr Arun K Tripathi has a degree in Agricultural Engineering. He is an MTech from IIT Kharagpur. He did his PhD in Biomass Energy from IIT Delhi. He is also an MBA in Environmental Management. Presently, Dr Tripathi is Advisor in the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy, Government of India. He has over three decades of experience in planning, development, and implementation of various renewable energy programmes, particularly on biogas development, biomass gasification, solar rooftops, waste-to-energy, village energy security, solar cities, green buildings, and information and public awareness in the country. He has widely travelled withthin India and abroad for various renewable energy-related assignments. He has 11 research papers published in reputed international journals and 30 technical papers/articles published in reputed journals and magazines in India. He has authored two books—Multiple Choice Questions on Renewable Energy and Multiple Choice Questions on Energy. He has also co-authored a book titled Reaching the Sun with Rooftop Solar. He is the editor of Akshay Urja, a popular and exclusive magazine on renewable energy. He has deep interest in plays and Indian classical music. He has also acted in a few plays and enjoys playing guitar, keyboards, mouth organ, banjo, harmonium, and other instruments.

Environmental Studies: Multiple Choice Questions contains more than 1400 multiple choice questions covering various environment-related topics, such as ecology and environment, biodiversity, natural resources, eco-marketing, environmental finance, air pollution, and water pollution. The first chapter is a comprehensive introduction to environmental studies. The book will prove beneficial for academicians, students pursuing courses on environmental studies, professionals, aspirants of various competitive exams, and stakeholders in the environment sector. It can also be handy for various quiz programmes.

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Arun K Tripathi

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS Arun K Tripathi

Tripathi