ActualTests MetaFrame Presentation Server 4 0 Administration Exam 1Y0256

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Exam : 1Y0-256 Title : MetaFrame Presentation Server 4.0 Administration Ver

: 11-13-2008

1Y0-256

QUESTION 1: What is the purpose of the local host cache? A. It handles queries regarding server load values locally from application. B. It ensures that pertinent data is accessible locally even of the data store database is unavailable. C. It provides data about the local server to the Presentation Server Console over a TCP connection. D. It stores server load, active session and disconnected session information locally for Presentation Server. Answer: B Explanation: B: The Local Host Cache is the name of the Microsoft Access database that is created locally on every MPS server and that stores portions of the Data Store to keep the server functioning in the event of an outage. If the Data Store goes offline, the server continues to function normally using the Local Host Cache database for up to 48 hours. Incorrect options: A: The Local Host Cache does not handle queries. It carries enough information to keep the server running in the event that the main Data Store should become unavailable for any reason. C: This is not the purpose of the local host cache. D: The Local Host Cache stores portions of the Data Store to keep the server functioning in case of an outage. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 2 QUESTION 2: Which three types of persistent data are contained in the Presentation Server farm data store? (Choose three) A. License files B. User profiles C. Printer drivers and mappings D. Published application configurations E. Presentation Server administrator accounts Answer: C, D, E Explanation: C, D, E: The information stored in the Data Store includes: Published Application, Server Actualtests.com - The Power of Knowing

1Y0-256 Configuration, User Configuration, and the Print Environment. That makes printer drivers and mappings, published application configurations and Presentation Server administration accounts all persistent data. Incorrect options: A: The Data Store holds persistent data and license files are not included. License files are kept on the MetaFrame Access Suite License Server. B: User Profiles do not resort under persistent data. User profiles are kept locally on the MetaFrame Server - the default location is on the system drive of the MetaFrame Server under "Documents and Settings". User profile configurations can also be kept centrally on a file share as roaming profiles. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 2 QUESTION 3: What is contained in the data store database? A. User profiles for all servers in a given zone. B. Dynamic data for all servers in a given zone. C. License files for all servers in a given server farm. D. Persistent data for all servers in a given server farm. Answer: D Explanation: D: The Data Store is a database that stores all the configuration information needed by the Citrix farm. Any time you make configuration changes to a MetaFrame server, the changes are recorded in the Data Store. In this respect, if you are adding a new MetaFrame server to spread the user load of an application, this new server can get all its information by tapping into the Data Store. The information stored in the Data Store includes: Published Application, Server Configuration, User Configuration, and the Print Environment. This thus means all persistent data for all servers in a particular farm. Incorrect options: A: User profiles are not stored the data stored in the Data Store database as it is not persistent data. B: Dynamic data is not stored in this database. C: The Data Store database does not hold the License files; it holds all persistent data for that particular server farm. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 2 QUESTION 4: Which component manages the servers running Presentation by integrating with Actualtests.com - The Power of Knowing

1Y0-256 third-party management consoles such as HP OpenView? A. Load Manager B. Network Manager C. Resource Manager D. Installation Manager Answer: B Explanation: B: Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is known and widely used by various organizations for the purposes of monitoring their systems. Companies can use third-party tools such Microsoft Operations Management (MOM), HP OpenView, or various other tools to monitor and manage their servers. In addition, if you are using the Enterprise Edition of MetaFrame, you can use Citrix Network Manager as an SNMP agent to gather farmwide performance monitoring and management information. Incorrect options: A: This is not the purpose of the Load Manager. C: The Resource Manager does not perform that function. D: This is not the purpose of the Installation Manager. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 2 QUESTION 5: Scenario: While planning a Presentation Server deployment on multiple servers, an organization wants to ensure that there is no single point of failure. Which three database options eliminate the single point of failure? (Choose three) A. Oracle B. IBM DB2 C. Microsoft Access D. Microsoft SQL Server E. Microsoft SQL Desktop Engine (MSDE) Answer: A, B, D Explanation: A, B & D: These options do not have to be installed on the first Metaframe server in a farm thus they all eliminate the possibility of a single point of failure. Incorrect options: C & E: When you use Microsoft Access or Microsoft MSDE as the Data Store database, they should be installed on the first MetaFrame server in the farm. This results in them not eliminating the possibility of a single point of failure. Reference: Actualtests.com - The Power of Knowing

1Y0-256 Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 3 QUESTION 6: What are two technical considerations for deciding to create more than one farm in a Presentation Server environment? (Choose two) A. The band of network hardware B. The types of published applications C. The geographic location of the servers D. The type of network connection between the servers Answer: C, D Explanation: Organizations usually consider creating a second farm when servers are located in geographically dispersed areas and separation of communication is critical. For example, an organization that has a presence in the United States and also in Europe with servers in every continent should consider having separate farms for each region, which would improve performance and reliance on each other. Incorrect options: A: The network brand is irrelevant when making decisions of whether to have multiple farms. B: The types of published applications would be irrelevant. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 3 QUESTION 7: An administrator must consider which three factors when deciding which type of database to use in a farm? (Choose three.) A. Number of users B. Number of applications C. Number of License servers D. Number of Web interface servers E. Number of servers running Presentation Server Answer: A, B, E Explanation: The IMA Data Store supports the following database software: Microsoft Access - intended for use by organizations that have up to 50 MetaFrame servers in their farms. It is provided to you free with the MPS operating system and is Actualtests.com - The Power of Knowing

1Y0-256 installed automatically if you choose to deploy the Data Store as an Access database. It is also ideal in organizations in which experienced database administrators are not available. Microsoft SQL Server Desktop Engine (MSDE) MSDE, database software based on Microsoft SQL server, is a lightweight database installed on the first MPS server prior to installing MetaFrame. MSDE is geared toward small to medium-size businesses and is much more robust than Microsoft Access. It can be administered using standard Microsoft SQL Server tools. Microsoft SQL Server - recommended for any size organization. It can be costly in terms of price, so if cost is a major factor and the company is small to medium sized, other options such as Access or MSDE would be more appropriate. SQL is very robust and scalable. Oracle Similar to Microsoft SQL Server, Oracle - recommended for any size organization, but because of price considerations and the expertise needed for installation and administration, it is recommended for medium to large organizations. It is a very robust and scalable database system. IBM DB/2 Another enterprise class database software similar to Oracle and Microsoft SQL, IBM DB/2 is suited for medium to large organizations. It is very scalable and robust. It also requires extensive expertise to install and maintain. Thus it stands to reason that the number of users, applications and servers will all influence the choice of database. Information is required from the data store continually about the servers, applications and named users within the Farm. As such, it is these factors that need to be taken into account when designing the Farm data store. Incorrect options: C: The number of License servers is not influenced by the choice of database. Connection licenses are handled by the MetaFrame Access Suite in MetaFrame Presentation Server - the data store now has no license information stored within it. D: Web interface service quantities are not influenced by the choice of database. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 3 QUESTION 8: What are two technical considerations for deciding to create more than one farm in a Presentation Server environment? (Choose two.) A. The brand of network hardware B. The types of published application C. The geographic location of the servers D. The types of network connection between the servers Answer: C, D Explanation: Actualtests.com - The Power of Knowing

1Y0-256 Organizations usually consider creating a second farm when servers are located in geographically dispersed areas and separation of communication is critical. For example, an organization that has a presence in the United States and also in Europe with servers in every continent should consider having separate farms for each region, which would improve performance and reliance on each other. Incorrect options: A: The network brand is irrelevant when making decisions of whether to have multiple farms. B: The types of published applications would be irrelevant. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 3 QUESTION 9: During the setup of Presentation Server, which two options must an administrator select if company policy dictates that shadowing can only be performed with user permission? (Choose two) A. Prohibit remote control B. Log all shadow requests C. Force a shadow acceptance popup D. Allow shadowing of user sessions on this server E. Prohibit shadowing of user sessions on this server Answer: C, D Explanation: C: Force a Shadow Acceptance Popup, means that the administrator or any user with shadow capabilities cannot shadow another user's session without that user's consent. D: The "Allow shadowing of user sessions on this server" setting is necessary since shadowing must be allowed. Incorrect options: A: The Prohibit Remote Control option allows the administrator or user to shadow another session, but this user cannot control the mouse or use the keyboard to input data. B: The Log All Shadow Connections setting keeps a record of all sessions shadowed in the event that you need to refer back to them. This is not what is required here. E: This setting is permanent and will not help in this case as shadowing is supposed to be allowed. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 5 QUESTION 10: What happens to the user session when the session reliability timeout expires? Actualtests.com - The Power of Knowing

1Y0-256

A. The session resets. B. The session is logged off. C. The session remains active. D. The session is disconnected. Answer: D Explanation: D: Session Reliability allows you to maintain a session even after you lose connectivity to the server in the event of a signal loss or an IP failure. Sometimes when you're working, all of a sudden your PC or mobile device may lose its signal or IP connectivity. With session reliability enabled, the session freezes for a period of time that you can preconfigure; the default is 180 seconds. After 180 seconds, or the interval you have specified, if the signal or IP connectivity is not restored, the session is dropped. Incorrect options: A: The session does not reset, it is disconnected. B: The session is not logged off, it is disconnected. C: The session cannot remain active when a session reliability timeout expires. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 6 QUESTION 11: What is the default port for session reliability in Presentation Server? A. 80 B. 2598 C. 1604 D. 1494 Answer: B Explanation: B: Port 2598 is used to support the session reliability feature. Incorrect options: A: Port 80 is the default listening port for the Citrix XML Service. C: Port 1604 is a UDP port used for client broadcast. D: Port 1494 is used to establish and maintain an ICA session. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 6 QUESTION 12:

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1Y0-256 Scenario: John, a Citrix administrator, needs to enable the synchronization of PDA devices for both local and remote users. Users will connect from the LAN to the Web Interface. Which two options allow John to accomplish this? (Choose two) A. In the Microsoft Management Console, John can add the Device Manager snap-in. B. The Presentation Server Console, John can enable the automatic sharing of PDA devices in server properties. C. In the Presentation Server Console, John can create a policy under properties and enable the policy rule "Turn on automatic virtual COM port mapping". D. In the Access Suite Console, John can create a MetaFrame Presentation Server site, select Manage Client Connection settings and enable the PDA settings. Answer: C, D Explanation: C & D: Client-based PDA Synchronization MPS now supports USB-tethered PDA synchronization with Microsoft Windows-powered PDAs and Microsoft ActiveSync synchronization agent. PDA synchronization is controlled through MPS policies and is dependent on the ability to map client COM ports. To enable PDA synchronization, you need to configure a policy. The PDA Devices policy rule is disabled by default. Answer C alone is incorrect because PDA devices do not connect if the COM port redirection has een turned off. Incorrect options: Options A and B are incorrect on their own because enabling or disabling the COM port option does not enable PDA redirection unless the PDA Devices rule is also enabled properly. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 16 QUESTION 13: Through which three management tools or utilities can shadowing be enabled for users of Presentation Server? (Choose three) A. Access Suite Console B. Presentation Server Console C. Presentation Server Installation D. Citrix Connection Configuration Utility E. Web Interface Administration Console Answer: B, C, D Explanation: Actualtests.com - The Power of Knowing

1Y0-256 B: The administrative tools provided by the Core MetaFrame Presentation Server Software include a Shadow taskbar. This Shadow Taskbar enables an administrator to centrally manage multiple simultaneous concurrent shadow sessions by establishing a new MetaFrame session specifically for shadowing. C: Installing Presentation Server will allow shadowing. D: The settings in the Citrix Connection Configuration tool allow you to manipulate shadowing only if it was enabled during installation. Incorrect options: A: The MetaFrame Access Suite Console is intended to become the central location where you manage your MetaFrame Access Suite deployment. Itself is not meant to enable shadowing. E: The Program Neighborhood Agent is enables through the Web Interface Console and not shadowing. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapters 1, 7 QUESTION 14: Which Installation Manager property can an administrator configure from the Presentation Server Console? A. Restarting any server. B. Change the default file share. C. Change the root build location. D. Create Installation Manager reports. Answer: B Explanation: B: Custom privileges can be assigned to different nodes in the Management Console, or the generic Full authority or View-only authority privileges can be assigned. The different nodes within the Management Console (i.e. the Presentation Server Console) that provide access to server farm management and configuration features. The available nodes are: Applications, MetaFrame Administrators, Installation Manager, Isolation Environments (MPS 4.0 only), Load Evaluators, Policies, Printer Management, Resource Manager, and Servers Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 9 QUESTION 15: During the installation of the Program Neighborhood Agent Client, which information must be specified for the Client to function properly?

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1Y0-256 A. The exact name of the server farm. B. The URL to the Web Interface logon page. C. The IP address or server name of a farm server. D. The URL to the Program Neighborhood Agent site server. Answer: D Explanation: D: The Program Neighborhood Agent Console is installed as part of the Web Interface, and the PN Agent Management Console is accessed using the following URL: /Citrix/PNAgentAdmin. You can also directly modify the configuration files used by the PN Agent. The default configuration file is called Config.xml and is accessed using the following URL: /Citrix/PNAgent. This means that you should have the URL to the PN agent site server specified during installation. Incorrect options: A: The exact name of the server farm will not allow the Client to function properly, what is required is that the URL to the PN site server be specified during installation to ensure proper functioning for the Client. B: The URL to the PN site server is the URL to be specified and not the URL to the Web Interface logon page. C: This is not required in this case. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 14 QUESTION 16: Which two tasks must be completed to ensure that and administrator receives Resource Manager alerts and Short Message Service (SMS) messages? (Choose two) A. Ensure that the administrator has full administration privileges. B. Add the administrator to the local administrator group for the server. C. Enable the Monitoring and Altering permissions for the administrator. D. Specify alert contact details in the administrator's account properties. E. Enable the Receive SMS and Email Notifications permissions for the administrator. Answer: D, E Explanation: D: You can configure Resource Manager to send you alerts by specifying the contact details in the administrator's account properties E: Resource Manager node gives you access to the SMS tab which allows you to configure Short Message Service (SMS) as a method by which alerts are delivered to your mobile device. Incorrect options: A: Full administration privileges will not guarantee that you receive alerts; you need to Actualtests.com - The Power of Knowing

1Y0-256 configure the Resource manager. B: Adding the administrator to the local administrator' group for the server is not going to ensure that alerts and SMS will be delivered to the administrator, it has to be configured. C: This option does not make the administrator receive alerts or SMSs. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 15 QUESTION 17: For an implementation of Web Interface in which multiple client-site proxy mappings are configured, in which two ways can you prioritize the mappings? (Choose two) A. Edit the WEBINTERFACE.CONF file. B. Edit the CONFIG.XML file on the Client. C. Select the mapping and use the Move Up and Move Down buttons to prioritize it. D. Set a policy for prioritization of client-side proxy mappings from the Presentation Server Console. Answer: A, C Explanation: A: The configuration method available on both Windows and UNIX systems, the specific file, called WebInterface.conf, is a plain-text file that you can edit to modify many of the Web Interface properties. You can prioritize mapping here. C: Making use of the Move UP and Move Down buttons represents another means of prioritizing mapping. Incorrect options: B: config.xml is the PN Agent configuration file. D: This is not the way to prioritize mapping for the implementation of the Web Interface. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 14 QUESTION 18: Scenario: All users in your environment use the published application, Microsoft outlook for email. The application is published and load balanced among 10 servers in the farm. All users access this application, as well as all other published applications, using the program Neighborhood Agent. Email often includes links to other web applications including the RTSP and MMS URL types, To ensure that the farm does not become busy responding to the many requests to launch browsers to run these attachments, which step is required? A. Associate a published application with the URL types needed. Actualtests.com - The Power of Knowing

1Y0-256 B. Enable client drive mapping using the Citrix Configuration Utility. C. Enable server-to-client content redirection in the MetaFrame Settings of the farm properties. D. Select the required URL types in the Content Redirection Section of the published applications properties. Answer: C. Explanation: C: Server-to-client content redirection refers to the opening of URLs encountered within applications running on a Presentation Server and redirecting the opening of those URLs to a local web browser or multimedia player running on the local client device. This means that enabling server-to-client redirection in the Metaframe Settings of the farm properties will make sure that the farm does not become busy responding to the requests to launch browsers to run those attachments. Incorrect options: A: Server-to-client redirection allows for the association of a server-side file with an application running on the user's local desktop. When the user clicks the URL link in the email message, the link can be redirected and opened using a web browser running on the local client. However, this does not mean that the farm will not become busy responding to the requests to launch browsers to run to those attachments. B: Drive mapping feature allows you to match up client and server drivers that do not have matching driver names. This does not prevent the farm from getting to respond to the subsequent requests. D: This option will not make sure that the farm does not get busy with the requests to launch those attachments. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 6 QUESTION 19: What must be installed before applications can be deployed using Installation Manager onto the server? A. Licenses B. Web interface C. Citrix Access Suite Console D. Installation Manager Package Answer: A Explanation: A: Until you add a license file to the MASL server, it operates in the startup grace period, which allows for a maximum of two non-administrators to log on to a MetaFrame server for a maximum of 96 hours (4 days) before a valid license file must be installed on the Actualtests.com - The Power of Knowing

1Y0-256 license server. Thus you need to install licenses before you can deploy applications via Installation Manager. Incorrect options: B: You first need to install license. C: The MetaFrame Access Suite Console is intended to become the central location where you manage your MetaFrame Access Suite deployment. But you still need to install licenses first. D: You first need to install licenses. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 4 QUESTION 20: What are two valid DMZ settings for Secure Gateway in the MetaFrame Presentation Server site? (Choose two.) A. Firewall B. Secure C. Alternate D. Translated Answer: C, D Explanation: C: With the alternate address defined on the MetaFrame server is returned to the client. Thus the Alternate setting is valid DMZ settings for Metaframe Presentation Server site. D: With the translated address, the Web Interface consults the server address translation map to determine the translated address to return to the client. When creating a translation entry, you specify the internal address and port for the server. You then specify the equivalent translated (external) address with the associated translated port number. This translation map is a convenient alternative to defining alternate addresses directly on each server. This is thus also a valid DMZ setting. Incorrect options: A: Firewall would be invalid in this case. B: Secure option is invalid in this case. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 14 QUESTION 21: For which task would enabling the Quick Launch Bar be appropriate during installation of the client? A. To administer shadowing Actualtests.com - The Power of Knowing

1Y0-256 B. To give administrators quick access to RDP sessions C. To launch a server desktop through Program Neighborhood Agent. D. To give administrators quick access to the remote servers from their desktop. Answer: D Explanation: D: The PN client includes a Quick Launch address bar where you can simply type in the name or address of a server and establish a connection without having to create a new custom ICA connection first. This means quick access to the remote servers from their desktops. Incorrect options: A: Enabling the Quick Launch Bar is not the appropriate way to administer shadowing during client installation. B: Enabling the Quick Launch Bar is not the appropriate way to give administrators quick access to RDP sessions during client installation. C: Enabling the Quick Launch Bar is not the appropriate way to launch a server desktop through Program Neighborhood Agent during client installation. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 16 QUESTION 22: Which statement is true? A. Zones can be viewed from the Server properties. B. Zones can be changed using the CHZONE command. C. You must restart a server once its zone has been changed D. Once a server is assigned to a zone it cannot be moved to another zone. Answer: C Explanation: C: If you move servers or create a new zone, you have to manually update the subfolders to reflect these changes. This means restarting the server. Incorrect options: A: One cannot view zones from the Server properties. B: There is no such command. D: This is incorrect as a zone can be shifted from one server to another even after it has been assigned. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 9

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1Y0-256 QUESTION 23: Scenario: An environment includes client devices running on Windows XP Professional. Users access the environment using the Remote Desktop Client. When some users were installing a new local application, the remote Desktop Client was accidentally deleted. What can the administrator use to deploy the Remote Desktop clients to users? A. Web interface B. Shadow Taskbar C. Installation Manager D. ICA Client Update Configuration tool Answer: A Explanation: A: Client deployment settings are managed from within the Web Interface Console (WIC). Client installations are advertised in the Web Interface through installation captions in the Message Center portion of the logon page. Incorrect options: B: You can initiate multiple simultaneous shadowing sessions through the Shadow Taskbar. However shadowing is not deploying Remote Desktop Clients. C: Installation Manager (IM) allows you to centrally manage the attended or unattended installation of applications and other software components (specific files, service packs, software patches, and so on) to the servers in your server farm. Under the circumstances in the question you should be making use of Web Interface to deploy Remote Desktop Client. D: An administrator can fully manage how various clients are updated through the ICA Client Update Configuration utility. However, if the remote desktop was deleted then it cannot be updated and should rather be installed. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapters 13 & 14 QUESTION 24: Although you plan to deploy Web Interface 4.0, you will not be upgrading your Citrix Presentation Server to version 4.0 until the next major maintenance window next month. In preparation for this upgrade, you plan to deploy the 9x version of the Presentation Server Client as part of the near-team upgrade. Which two options are available for deploying the Client software? (Choose two.) A. Web interface B. Shadow Taskbar C. Installation Manager Actualtests.com - The Power of Knowing

1Y0-256 D. ICA Client Update Configuration tool Answer: A, D Explanation: A: The Web Interface is a convenient and reliable deployment method Client software that organizations of any size (enterprise, application service provider, or small business) can make use of. D: The ICA Client Update Configuration utility is used to manage the Update Database and load in individual client images, thus making it a method of deploying client software. Incorrect options: B: The Shadow Taskbar is a tool dedicated to shadowing. One benefit of using it is the ability to shadow multiple users and switch between shadowed sessions in an easy and convenient manner. Not for deploying client software. C: From within the Installation Manager node, you manage the deployment of software packages to your MetaFrame servers. It is not to deploy client software. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 14 QUESTION 25: Scenario: you want to deploy the Client for Java by means of Web Interface and require the smallest download possible. What is the best way to do this? A. Compress the Clients software B. Enable users to select the packages downloaded C. Administratively designate the packages downloaded. D. Administratively designate the number of concurrent downloads Answer: C Explanation: C: The Java client is ideal for environments where client installation files cannot be downloaded and installed. Thus you will need to administratively designate the packages downloaded that will require the smallest download possible. Incorrect options: A: Compressing the client software will not necessarily mean the smallest download. B: This is not possible. D: Concurrent downloads does not influence the size of downloads. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 14

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1Y0-256 QUESTION 26: If the Web Interface server is located in the DMZ and the servers running Presentation Server are on the LAN, which port needs to be open from the DMZ to the LAN? A. The ICA port B. The IMA port C. The IPSec port D. The XML Services port Answer: D D: The Web Interface is deployed in the DMZ along with the Secure Gateway. The Web Interface must be configured to function with the Secure Gateway. And the Web Interface contacts the server farm via the Citrix XML Service running on a MetaFrame server. Communications to the Citrix XML Service are secured using SSL Relay. Thus the XML port needs to be open from the DMZ to the LAN. Incorrect options: A: The Web Interface contacts the server farm, in this case the LAN, via the Citrix XML Service. Thus the ICA port is not the required port between the DMZ and the LAN. B: The Web Interface contacts the server farm, in this case the LAN, via the Citrix XML Service. Thus the IMA port is not the required port between the DMZ and the LAN. C: The Web Interface contacts the server farm, in this case the LAN, via the Citrix XML Service. Thus the IPSec port is not the required port between the DMZ and the LAN. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter14 QUESTION 27: Where can workspace control be configured by the administrator? A. In the Access Suite Console B. In the Presentation Server Console C. In the License Management Console D. In the setup of the Access Suite Console Answer: A Explanation: A: The MetaFrame Access Suite Console is intended to become the central location where you manage your MetaFrame Access Suite deployment. This means that the Access suite Console also allows an administrator to configure workspace control. Incorrect options: B: Management Console for MetaFrame Presentation Server is the centralized source for defining the majority of settings for both the server farm and the servers within that farm. Actualtests.com - The Power of Knowing

1Y0-256 Thus not for the configuration of workspace by an administrator. C: The main management tasks for Metaframe Access Suite License server (MASL) are performed using the License Management Console (LMC), a web-based application that must be installed and run on the same server as the MASL component. D: Workspace is not configured in the setup of the Access Suite Console, rather the Console allows for the configuration of workspace by an administrator. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 1 QUESTION 28: Which two steps are required to enable support for Microsoft Active Directory Services on a MetaFrame Presentation Server site? (Choose two.) A. Select Windows as the authentication type B. Enable kerberos authentication to connect to servers C. Select Explicit as the available method for authentication D. Select Prompt as the available method for authentication E. Select the CONFIG XML file to configure authentication methods for the site Answer: A, C Explanation: A: With Windows selected as the authentication type you will be able to support Microsoft Active Directory Services. C: With Explicit as the available authentication, you can enable two-factor authentication with either RSA SecurID or SafeWord. You can select Windows or Novell NDS authentication on the next screen in the wizard. Domain and UPN customization options are available when you choose Windows. Thus you will comply with one condition to support Microsoft Active Directory Services. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 16 QUESTION 29: Scenario: You plan on deploying the Program Neighborhood Agent Client to a group of pilot users. The pilot environment consist of three Presentation Server farms. How will these three farms be designated? A. Users will select the farm names when logging in the first time. B. The administrator will specify the names of these farms in the Access Suite Console. C. The administrator will specify the names of these farms in the Presentation Server Console. Actualtests.com - The Power of Knowing

1Y0-256 D. Users will select the server URL of the Citrix XML Service server when logging in the first time. Answer: B Explanation: B: The MetaFrame Access Suite Console is intended to become the central location where you manage your MetaFrame Access Suite deployment. Through the Access Suite Console, you now create and manage all of your Web Interface for Presentation Server and Program Neighborhood sites. Thus the administrator can specify the names of these farms in the Access Suite Concole. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 16 QUESTION 30: Scenario: The administrator of a large server farm comprised of a single zone notices that the IMA Work Item Queue Ready Count metric on the data collector for the zone has been reporting a value greater than zero during the course of a day. The data collector supports 100 servers and hosts 10 productivity applications. There is no backup data collector configured for the zone. One server has only one proprietary application suite published, this proprietary application suite is only used by the Finance department, but is mission critical for that department. Which two options would best address the needs of the environment in this scenario? (Choose two) A. Restart the IMA service on the data collector. B. Increase the preference of one of the 100 servers to "Preferred" status. C. Increase the preference of the server hosting the proprietary application suite to "Most Preferred" status. D. Add the registry key entry MaxHostAddressCacheEntries to the data collector for the zone and set it to 150. E. Dedicate the existing data collector by removing the productivity applications from the server and set it to a "Most Preferred" status. Answer: B, E Explanation: You can set a server to have the Most Preferred setting, which means that this server will always be chosen as the Data Collector. Alternatively, you can set the preference to Preferred, which means this server is a favorite to win a Data Collector election. The third option is Default Preference, which basically means that this server may participate in the Data Collector election, and the last setting is Not Preferred, which means this server should never be elected as a zone Data Collector unless all the other servers with Most Preferred, Preferred, and Default Preference are unavailable. Options B and E Actualtests.com - The Power of Knowing

1Y0-256 would be best suited for the scenario sketched above. Incorrect options: A: There is no need to restart the IMA service on the data collector in this case. C: Increasing the preference of the server with the proprietary applications to most preferred will not address the issues in this case. D: Adding the registry key entry MaxHostAddressCacheEntries to the data collector and setting it to 150 will not address the issues at hand. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 6 QUESTION 31:

Property

Value

Server Name

Server 1

IP Address

10.22.4.1

Subnet Mask

255.255.252.0

Domain

DOMAINWORK

Farm Name

Citrix1 jschmo

Default Administrator

When installing Server1, what is the default zone name? A. 10.22.4.1 B. 10.22.4.0 C. 255.255.252.0 D. DOMAINWORK E. Citrix1_10_22_4_1 Answer: B Explanation: B: By default, unless you specify the name of the zone to create or join, a newly installed Presentation Server is assigned to the zone with the name matching the subnet of the server. For example, if the server has an IP address of 10.22.4.1, the zone name is set to 10.22.4.0 Incorrect options: A: That is the IP address of the server. C: The subnet mask cannot be the default zone name as well. D: That is the name of the domain. E: This is wrong. Reference: Actualtests.com - The Power of Knowing

1Y0-256 Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 6

QUESTION 32: Scenario: An administrator renamed a server from PSServ01 to W2KSPSServ01. The old name is still included in the server list and referred to in the data collector ranking, published application references and license assignments. What should the administrator do to remove the old server name from the farm data? A. Uninstall Presentation Server from the system. B. Force the removal of Presentation Server from the system. C. Select Remove server from farm in the Presentation Server Console. D. Update the references to the old name in the appropriate management consoles. Answer: C Explanation: C: As with Applications, permissions for the Servers node can be applied to the root or to subfolders and affect only those servers located within that folder. This removing the server from farm in the Presentation Server Console will address the problem. Incorrect options: A: Uninstalling does not remove old server names. B: This is incorrect. D: You need to remove the server from the farm and nor update references. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 9 QUESTION 33: Scenario: A user in Certkiller .com logs on to the farm and launches the published application, Microsoft Excel. Sometimes the user must wait for a minute or longer for Presentation Server to create all of the printers before the application can be used. How can the administrator improve the user's experience? A. The administrator can give the user workspace control. B. The administrator can configure the "Inherit client printer" settings option. C. The administrator can switch from a synchronous to an asynchronous configuration for printer creation. D. The administrator can use a policy to limit the bandwidth to the user consumes in an ICA session to improve user logon time.

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1Y0-256 Answer: C Explanation: C: The Turn on asynchronous writes to client disks policy is designed to improve drive access and folder browsing through client-mapped drives. This policy enables the asynchronous writing of data from server to client drive but should be enabled only when users are accessing over a high-bandwidth connection and experiencing high latency. Switching from synchronous to asynchronous configuration for the printer creation should improve the user's experience. Incorrect options: A: Workspace control will not address the user's problem in this case. B: Configuring the "Inherit client printer" settings will not improve the users' printing experience in this scenario. D: Limiting bandwidth will not have the desired effect. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 16 QUESTION 34: Scenario: Your environment includes five servers running Presentation Server. Microsoft Outlook and Internet Explorer are published in the farm. Which SpeedScreen option should be enabled to optimize the image display responsiveness of session in which these applications are used? A. SpeedScreen Flash Acceleration B. SpeedScreen Browser Acceleration C. SpeedScreen Multimedia Acceleration D. SpeedScreen Latency Reduction Manager Answer: B Explanation: B: The browser acceleration SpeedScreen feature enhances a web browser when running Internet Explorer 5.5 or later. It was designed specifically for web applications. It has a special compression algorithm that improves the performance of GIF and JPEG images in HTML pages. Applications such as Microsoft Internet Explorer, Microsoft Outlook, or Outlook Express can take advantage of this technology by presenting the user with the text on the page first and then gradually displaying the image as the packets arrive until the image is composed. This will optimize the image display responsiveness of session in which applications are used. Incorrect options: A: SpeedScreen Flash Acceleration addresses performance issues with Flash animations, which may run slow on a MetaFrame server. With the introduction of this technology, Citrix uses a technology known as Lossy Compression, which essentially reduces the size of the images in the animation, speeding up its delivery to the client. It does this by Actualtests.com - The Power of Knowing

1Y0-256 removing some of the image data reserved for advanced photo editing. Because this data is removed, the image size is reduced, and the flash animation is displayed quicker, improving performance. This is not optimal image display responsiveness. C: SpeedScreen Multimedia Acceleration tackles streaming audio and video through an ICA session. When enabled, streaming media runs as smoothly as it does when run locally. SpeedScreen Multimedia Acceleration compresses the packets sent across the link and makes the client's CPU do all the processing instead of having the server CPU do it. However, running smoothly due to less stress on the CPU is not akin to image display responsiveness. D: Latency Reduction addresses two features, mouse-click feedback and local text echo, both of which are designed to improve the perceived responsiveness of the server to the client. This is not the same as image display responsiveness. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapters 2 & QUESTION 35: Which three steps are required when deploying Clients from Microsoft Active Directory? (Choose three) A. Create a network share. B. Configure a policy in Presentation Server for Client deployment. C. Create a new package in the Software Installation object for an Active Directory GPO. D. Add users to an Organizational Unit designated for the Presentation Server environment. E. Browse to the installation files on the network share and assign them to the Organizational Unit which includes the client devices. Answer: A, C, E Explanation: A, C & E: Active Directory (AD) or Microsoft Systems Management Server (SMS) Organizations that have the necessary Windows AD domain or SMS infrastructure available may want to leverage this deployment to push out the appropriate Win32 client to the desired target desktops. The Win32 MSI package can be configured and deployed using either one of these methods. But you would need to have a network share, have a new package in the Software Installation object for an Active Directory GPO and you would need to browse the installation files on the network share and assign them to the OU which includes the client devices to be able to deploy Clients from the Microsoft AD. Incorrect options: B: The objective is to deploy Clients from the Microsoft AD and not Presentation Server. D: This is not a required step in the deployment of Clients in Microsoft AD. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 13 Actualtests.com - The Power of Knowing

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QUESTION 36: Scenario: In a farm the Zone Preference and Failover policy is configured to be filtered by users. However, users are always directed to the least-loaded server in the farm regardless of the user's configured preference. What is the cause of this issue? A. The users are launching applications through Web Interface. B. The users are launching applications through Program Neighborhood. C. The users are launching applications through Web Interface and using SSL. D. The users are launching applications through Program Neighborhood Agent. Answer: B Explanation: B: In the Program Neighborhood settings, when configuring the Application Appearance, one of the options is Application Startup Settings. In this Section, you can configure how the application will behave when initially launched. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 13 QUESTION 37: When configuring authentication methods for a Program Neighborhood Agent site, which authentication method allows users to save their passwords upon login? A. Prompt B. Smart Card C. Pass-through D. Pass-through with Smart Cart Answer: A Explanation: There are three tabs on the Logon Information configurations: 1. Local User Select this setting to ensure users are prompted for logon information. If pass-through authentication has been enabled, the associated check box can be selected, eliminating the need for users to provide their credentials every time they log on to the server or published application. 2. SmartCard This setting configures the client to require a SmartCard and associated PIN to authenticate against the server. The pass-through configuration is identical to the configuration that would be used when Local User was selected. 3. User-specified Credentials PN can authenticate using the credentials that you provide here. If the Save Password option has not been disabled, you can cache the credentials for Actualtests.com - The Power of Knowing

1Y0-256 future use. If the farm is performing authentication using Novell Directory Services (NDS), the User Name field should be used for the NDS distinguished name, the password should be provided normally, and the Windows domain name field should be omitted. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 13 QUESTION 38: What are three Presentation Server Client types that can be automatically deployed using Web Interface? (Choose three) A. Java B. Win32 C. Macintosh D. Remote Desktop E. WinCE/PocketPC Answer: A, B, D Explanation: With Java Client Fallback Support, the Java client can now be configured to act as an automatic fallback client if a user connects to the Web Interface without having the proper Win32 client installed. With no Win32 client detected, the WI automatically delivers the Java client as a substitute. Incorrect options: C: Client for Macintosh is not automatically deployed via the Web Interface. D: Although supported by Citrix, the Client for WinCE/PocketPC is not deployed automatically by the Web Interface. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 13 QUESTION 39: You would like to upgrade all of your users to version 9x of the Presentation Server Client. Because a large number of users have the new Client software, as they accessed the Citrix web download directly, it is not easy to determine which version of the Client is being used by each user. What is the most efficient means of upgrading all users? A. Implement workspace control. B. Deploy the Client via Web Interface. C. Deploy the Client via the Citrix SML Service. D. Include a link to a share point on Certkiller .com intranet home page. Actualtests.com - The Power of Knowing

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Answer: B Explanation: B: Two methods of web-based client deployment are available. The first leverages the Web Interface for Presentation Server and its built-in capability to prompt a user for the desired client installation when necessary. The Web Interface is a convenient and reliable deployment method for organizations of any size (enterprise, application service provider, or small business). The Client Update Database can be used to completely automate the ICA Client upgrade process. Thus the Web Interface would represent the most efficient means to upgrade all the users under the circumstances. Incorrect options: A: User Workspace rules manage some of the settings for the session in which the user runs his or her applications. Implementing workspace control is not going to upgrade all users efficiently. C: This option does not represent the most efficient way to upgrade users. D: Including a link to a sharepoint on the intranet home page does not represent the most efficient way to upgrade all users. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 13 QUESTION 40: If users are connecting to the Web Interface from a Macintosh device and wish to have the Presentation Server Client made available, which Client type can be automatically deployed using the Web Interface? A. Client for Java B. Client for OSX C. Client for Macintosh D. Client for WinCE/PocketPC Answer: A Explanation: A: With Java Client Fallback Support, the Java client can now be configured to act as an automatic fallback client if a user connects to the Web Interface without having the proper Win32 client installed. With no Win32 client detected, the WI automatically delivers the Java client as a substitute. Incorrect options: B: Client for OS X is not automatically deployed via the Web Interface. C: Client for Macintosh is not automatically deployed via the WI. D: Although supported by Citrix, the Client for WinCE/PocketPC is not deployed automatically by the Web Interface. Reference: Actualtests.com - The Power of Knowing

1Y0-256 Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 13 QUESTION 41: To ensure that the users must access published applications through Start>Program>My Computer>Published Applications, which option should be typed into the Start menu Folder of the Program Neighborhood Settings property for the published application. A. Published Applications B. My Company\Published Applications C. C:\Program Files\My Company\Published Applications D. Start>Program>My Computer>Published Applications Answer: B Explanation: B: This option should be typed into the start menu folder of the PN settings to ensure that the users access the published applications through the appropriate menu as required by the question. Incorrect options: A: This is not specific enough. C: This setting is not meant to assign the access. D: This setting applies to the location. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 13 QUESTION 42: What can be used to install both the client for Program Neighborhood and the Program Neighborhood Agent on the same device? A. ICA32.EXE B. ICA32T.EXE C. WFICAT.CAB D. ICA32PKG.MSI Answer: D Explanation: D: The Ica32Pkg.msi package contains the three Win32 clients (Program Neighborhood, Program Neighborhood Agent, and Web clients). Thus it can be used to install both the client for Program Neighborhood and the Program Neighborhood Agent on the same device. Actualtests.com - The Power of Knowing

1Y0-256 Incorrect options: A: The ICA32.EXE does not contain the necessary clients. B: The ICA32T.EXE does not contain the necessary clients. C: The WFICAT.CAB does not contain the necessary clients. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 13 QUESTION 43: Scenario: You created a policy for the Human Resources group which restricts the users in that group from accessing local drives. Human Resources has recently added five new recruiters to the team who will travel to universities throughout the country to recruit candidates. While on these trips the recruiters will need to save data to their laptops and upload information nightly to the database which is published and load-balanced across all servers in the farm. You create a new policy for the recruiters called "HR recruitment" and disable the rule which restricts the access to the client drivers. Which two filter types should be applied to the "HR recruitment" policy to exclude the recruiters from the client drive mapping rule? (Choose two) A. Server B. Location C. Client names D. Users and user groups E. Connections made through controlled access Answer: C, D Explanation: You can filter a policy on any combination of the following: 1. Client IP address You can define specific IP addresses or a range of addresses on which to filter. 2. Client name The MPS client name can be used as a filter. Although, in most cases, this name will match the device host or computer name, this does not always have to be true. Make sure you specify the MPS client name when using this filter. 3. Username or group name You can also filter on individual usernames or a group containing multiple users. 4. MetaFrame server name You can filter certain rules to apply only when users log on to a specific MetaFrame server. Incorrect options: A, B & C: These options are inappropriate for the circumstances as described in the question.. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 7 Actualtests.com - The Power of Knowing

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QUESTION 44: Scenario: You created several polices and configured filters for them in the Presentation Server Console. You now wish to verify the enforcement of these polices on specific user accounts in your enterprise. How can you view the effective Citrix policies for these user accounts? A. Filter the policies by user on the Policy Management Console. B. From the client device execute the GPRESULT application. C. In the Presentation Server Console, select Tools, Wizards, Effective Policy Wizard. D. In the Presentation Server Console, execute the search function focused on the target user accounts and click "View Resultant Policy". Answer: D Explanation: D: By specifying the desired search criteria, you can retrieve a list of all policies meeting that criteria. To view the specific settings based on the resultant set, you must provide all necessary search criteria. Otherwise, when you calculate the resultant set, it will show the rules that may be affected but will not display the actual setting for that rule (enabled or disabled). After you initiate a search, a list of matching policies is returned. There are a couple of different tasks that you can now perform. You can view the properties of the listed policies and edit rules directly, without having to load up the policy from the main Policies window. To perform these tasks, you must ensure that the Include check box appears beside each policy you want included in the resultant calculation and that the Partial column does not contain a warning exclamation mark. If it does, the resultant policy calculation will not be able to return the proper results. If this partial column is not flagged, you can click the View Resultant Policy button. Incorrect options: A: Filtering the policies is not the same as viewing the effective policies. B: This option will not yield the desired information. C: This is inaccurate. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 7 QUESTION 45: Scenario: You created a policy for the Human Resources group called "HR standard" which restricts the users in that group from accessing local drives. Human Resources has recently added five new recruiters to the team who will travel to universities throughout the country to recruit candidates. While on these trips the recruiters will need to save data on their laptops and upload information nightly to the database which is published on a Presentation Server. You create a new policy for the recruiters called "HR recruitment" and disable the rule which restricts the Actualtests.com - The Power of Knowing

1Y0-256 access to the client drivers. Which two steps are required to ensure that the recruiters are able to access their local drives? (Choose two) A. Rank the "HR recruitment" policy higher than the "HR standard" policy. B. Rank the "HR standard" policy higher than the "HR recruitment" policy. C. Filter the "HR standard" policy by users, specify the five recruiter accounts and allow access. D. Filter the "HR recruitment" policy by users, specify the five recruiter accounts and allow access. Answer: A, D Explanation: A: In MetaFrame, user policies are given a priority ranking starting at 1, the highest, and decreasing in priority as the value increases. The closer the priority number to 1, the higher the ranking compared to other policies. Thus you should rank the HR recruitment policy higher than the HR standard policy. This should result in recruiters being able to access their local drives. D: Before the rules in a policy can be applied to someone logging on to a MetaFrame server, you must decide what users, clients, and/or servers will be affected. You must then define the appropriate filters to enforce this assignment. To comply with the requirements you will need to filter the HR recruitment policy by users and then specify the five recruiter accounts and allow access. Incorrect options: B: Ranking these policies in this fashion will have the opposite effect of what is desired. C: The filter should be applied to the HR recruitment policy. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 7 QUESTION 46: Scenario: A production company has Presentation Server enabled for local and remote users. All users to the "Production" user group. In addition, a remote user group is configured. Several proprietary applications, which are critical to the organization's business, require audio. Remote users complain of degraded performance for these applications. The administrator limits the audio bandwidth for the remote users through a policy called Remote Audio. An additional policy, Production Audio, is configured for the entire Production group, which optimizes the audio for all employees in that group. To ensure that the"Remote Audio" policy is applied to remote user sessions only, which policy should be ranked highest? A. Default user Actualtests.com - The Power of Knowing

1Y0-256 B. SpeedScreen C. Remote Audio D. Production Audio Answer: C Explanation: C: When a new policy is created, it is automatically assigned the lowest available priority. You can then modify the policy's priority either by highlighting the policy and selecting the up or down arrows located on the Management Console toolbar, or by right-clicking on the policy and selecting the appropriate arrow from the Priority menu. In MetaFrame, user policies are given a priority ranking starting at 1, the highest, and decreasing in priority as the value increases. The closer the priority number to 1, the higher the ranking compared to other policies. Thus to ensure that the Remote Audio policy is applied to remote user sessions only, the remote Audio policy should be ranked higher. Incorrect options: A: It is the remote users that should have this policy applied to them and not the default user. B: SpeedScreen is the collective set of technologies Citrix developed to improve the responsiveness and speed of published content access, particularly over low-bandwidth/high-latency communication links. This is not what is require din this case. D: It is only the remote users that should have the Remote Audio policy applied and not the entire Production group. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 7 QUESTION 47: Client network printers ________. A. Always route through the client device. B. Can have routing configured within printer management properties. C. Can have routing configured by means of the print job routing policy. D. Always route directly from the Presentation Server to the network printer. Answer: C Explanation: C: Direct routing to the printer occurs only when the printer is on the same network as the MetaFrame server. If MetaFrame detects that the client network printer is not on the local network, the job is automatically routed through the client. Thus client network printers can have routing configured through the print job routing policy. Incorrect options: Actualtests.com - The Power of Knowing

1Y0-256 A: Client network printers do not route through the client device. B: Routing is not configured in the printer management properties. D: This is inaccurate. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 7 QUESTION 48: Which two steps are required to configure server-to-server content redirection for specific users? (Choose two) A. Create a policy. B. Enable client drive mapping. C. Enable the content redirection rule for a policy. D. Specify available browsers in the environment. E. Specify URL types that are supported in the published applications properties. F. Configure Program Neighborhood Agent to use server-to-client content redirection. Answer: A, C Explanation: A & C: The ability to prioritize MetaFrame user policies makes it simple to create special exception policies that grant (or deny) access to certain features. For example, you may have a policy that enables server-to-client content redirection to all MetaFrame users, but a special exception rule that has been created and assigned a higher ranking specifically disables this rule when users belong to a group restricting such access. In this scenario it is requested that content redirection be for specific users only, thus the necessary steps would be to create a policy and then enable the content redirection rule for the policy. Incorrect options: B: Citrix created the driver mapping feature, which allows for the creation of an association between client and server driver names that do not match. This is not the case here. D: To specify the available browsers in the environment will not ensure that content redirection be for specific users only. E: This option will not make sure the content redirection is for specified users only. F: Content redirection (client-to-server) refers to integrated support available only through PN Agent; the question is referring to the configuration of server-to-server redirection. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 7 QUESTION 49: When applying a newly created policy to a farm, in which three ways can the policy Actualtests.com - The Power of Knowing

1Y0-256 be filtered? (Choose three) A. By farm B. By server C. By location D. By client IP address E. By user or user group Answer: B, D, E Explanation: You can filter a policy on any combination of the following: 1. Client IP address - You can define specific IP addresses or a range of addresses on which to filter. 2. Client name - The MPS client name can be used as a filter. Although, in most cases, this name will match the device host or computer name, this does not always have to be true. Make sure you specify the MPS client name when using this filter. 3. Username or group name - You can also filter on individual usernames or a group containing multiple users. 4. MetaFrame server name - You can filter certain rules to apply only when users log on to a specific MetaFrame server. Incorrect options: A: Policies are not filtered by farm. C: Policies are not filtered by location. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 7 QUESTION 50: Scenario: You want to configure your printing environment so that network printers automatically appear to users without further configuration. Which policy rule should be used? A. Auto-creation policy rule B. Print job routing policy rule C. Session printer policy rule D. Turn off client printer mapping policy rule Answer: C Explanation: C: By configuring the options under the Session Limits category, you can assign the maximum bandwidth that particular channels in the ICA data stream can consume. All bandwidth caps are assigned a value in kilobits per second (Kb/s). Settings under here are rarely assigned based on a user ID but more often are assigned based on the client device Actualtests.com - The Power of Knowing

1Y0-256 name or IP address because they are location specific more than user specific. Incorrect options: A: Auto Creation manages whether client printer mapping is enabled, and if so, what printers are actually mapped. B: This category contains only a single rule, which dictates whether a job destined for a network client printer is sent via the client or directly through the network. D: The Drivers rule controls what drivers (native, universal printer driver, or both) are used, while client printer mapping can be disabled completely when the last rule in this category is enabled. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 7 QUESTION 51: Scenario: Certkiller .com has one remote office. The user accounts from this office are organized in a "Remote User" group in the Presentation Server Consol. Users in the remote office accessed published application on servers running Presentation Server over a WAN connection and often are troubled with latency and bandwidth issues. You want to apply a policy to client IP addresses that correlates the range assigned to client devices in the remote office. Which three steps are required to apply the policy? (Choose three.) A. Apply the policy at Client log in. B. Apply the Client IP address filter. C. Apply the filter to all Client IP addresses D. Specify start and end ranges for IP addresses E. Apply the filter to a select range of IP addresses Answer: B, D, E Explanation: The IP Address range ensures that if a user is connecting from an IP address located on the internal network, the extra security settings are not enforced. Likewise, using the wildcard WI_* ensures that all Web Interface clients otherwise receive the policy settings defined. Thus to apply the policy as requested in the question, you would need to specify start and end ranges for IP addresses, apply a filter to the select range of IP addresses and then apply the Client IP address filter. Incorrect options: A: Applying the policy at client login will not address the issue of applying the policy to a range of client devices in the remote office. C: This will not comply with the requirements. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 7

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1Y0-256 QUESTION 52: Scenario: You created a policy for the Human Resources group named "HR standard" which uses a rule that restricts the users in that group from accessing local drivers. Human Resources has recently added five new recruiters to the team who will travel to universities throughout the country to recruit candidates. While on these trips the recruiters will need to save data on their laptops and upload information nightly to the database which is published on a server running Presentation Server. You create a new policy for the recruiters called "HR recruitment" and disable the rule which restrict the access to the client drivers. The two new policies added to the list of existing configured policies including an HR policy, which is applied to all employees and a "Default user" policy that is used to configure access and restrictions for remote users. Which policy should be ranked highest to ensure that the exception to the policy is appropriately applied? A. HR policy B. Default user policy C. HR standard policy D. HR recruitment policy Answer: D Explanation: D: When a new policy is created, it is automatically assigned the lowest available priority. Disabling a rule simply means that if it was enabled in a lower-ranked policy, it is now effectively not configured, meaning it has no effect. It does not mean that the opposite setting is now enabled. But disabling the rule simply cancels out any instance in which it may have been enabled in a lower rule. Under the circumstances, you should rank the HR recruitment policy the highest priority to ensure that the exception policy is properly applied. Incorrect options: A: Assigning the highest priority to the HR policy will not apply the exception. B: This option will not properly apply the exception policy. C: This policy should not be assigned the highest ranking as it will not apply the exception policy. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 7 QUESTION 53: Scenario: a production company has Presentation Server enabled for local and remote users. There is a remote user group configured. Several applications which are critical to the organization's business require audio. Remote users complain of degraded performance of applications which require audio. The administrator Actualtests.com - The Power of Knowing

1Y0-256 decides to limit the audio for the remote users through a policy. Which three steps are required to configure the policy? (Choose three.) A. Enable the audio rule. B. Apply a filter to the policy C. Optimize the policy for WAN users. D. Decrease the band width for the audio E. Decrease bandwidth for remote users Answer: A, B, D Explanation: A: When enabled, the properties for the rule are applied to the connecting user, unless disabled by a higher-priority rule. B: Before the rules in a policy can be applied to someone logging on to a MetaFrame server, you must decide what users, clients, and/or servers will be affected. You must then define the appropriate filters to enforce this assignment. D: The final state for rules depends on what policies are applied when a user logs on. If the Low Bandwidth Policy is applied, the rules are enabled. Incorrect options: C: Optimizing the policy for WAN users will not have the desired effect. E: The bandwidth for the audio should be decreased. Not the remote users. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 7 QUESTION 54: Before launching the Application Publishing Wizard, which action must be completed to publish a package? A. The target servers must be specified. B. The location of the package must be identified. C. The package deployment schedule must be set. D. The package needs to be added to the Presentation Server Console. Answer: D Explanation: D: Published applications and packages are centrally managed and controlled through the Management Console for Presentation Server. Thus the package first needs to be added to the Presentation Server Console to be able to successfully publish a package before launching the Application Publishing Wizard. Incorrect options: A: This is not a requirement to launch the Application Publishing Wizard. B: Adding the package to the Presentation Server Console is more crucial than Actualtests.com - The Power of Knowing

1Y0-256 identifying the location of the package when launching the Application Publishing Wizard. C: Scheduling is not as crucial as adding the package to the Presentation Server Console in the event of launching the Application Publishing Wizard. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 10 QUESTION 55: Content redirection from client-to-server redirects______. A. file storage B. virtual memory C. desktop memory D. desktop sessions E. application launching Answer: E Explanation: E: Content redirection from client-to-server redirects application launching, not desktop session. Incorrect options: A: Application launching is redirected and not file storage. B: Application launching is redirected and not virtual memory. C: Application launching is redirected and not desktop memory. D: Application launching is redirected and not desktop sessions. Reference: thethin.net/citrixse/white/Citrix_ iForum_2002_Presentations/ContentRedirection.ppt http://www.dabcc.com/miab/miab21/19.-How-to-Implement-Client-to-Server-Content-Redirection-MIAB2.aspx QUESTION 56: Scenario: During the past few weeks the IT team has been noticing an increase in the number of Program Neighborhood shortcuts that are left on user desktops when users exit the Program Neighborhood Agent. Which setting in the Program Neighborhood sites can be used to automatically delete shortcuts created on user desktops? A. Server Settings B. Client Tab Control C. Application Options D. Manage Application shortcuts

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1Y0-256 Answer: D Explanation: D: The Program Neighborhood Settings screen allows you to control how the application is presented to the user. The configurable options are as follows: Program Neighborhood Folder, and Application Shortcut Placement The options in this section allow you to place this application under the Program Neighborhood folder on the Start menu, where you can further customize where the published resources show up by creating a custom folder under the Programs menu of the Start menu. Incorrect options: A: The server settings do not configure the shortcuts on the user desktops automatically. The Server Settings tab gives control to what Web Interface server clients are getting their details from, how they access this and security. B: On the Tools menu of the Client tab you will find the three options that can be configured: ICA setting, modems and serial devices. The Client Tab control is used to specify which option tabs are available to clients. This is not meant for deleting shortcuts. C: The Application tab is not used for deleting shortcuts automatically, it does not exist. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 10 QUESTION 57: In which two locations can a host server for a published application be designated (Choose two.) A. Farm node. B. Policy node C. Isolation Environment node D. Application Publishing Wizard E. Properties of a published application Answer: D, E Explanation: D: In the Application Publishing Wizard there is a section that allows you to specify how many servers will service this application. In that section there are three buttons. One is the Edit Configuration button. You can select this option only after you have added a server to the Configured Servers list. It is a useful option when you are publishing an application that is installed in different locations on the MPS servers. This does then allow you to designate the host server for a published application. E: After you publish an application to the server farm, you can always go back into its properties and modify the settings you made during the Application Publishing Wizard process. The node: Application Location is the equivalent of the Specify What to Publish step in the Application Publishing Wizard and offers the same settings. This means that you can designate the host server for the published application in this location. Actualtests.com - The Power of Knowing

1Y0-256 Incorrect options: A: The farm node does not represent the location to designate host servers for published applications. B: The policy node does not represent the location to designate host servers for published applications C: The isolation environment node does not represent the location to designate host servers for published applications Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 10 QUESTION 58: Which three steps are required when configuring client-to-server content redirection? (Choose three.) A. Client drive mapping must be enabled on the Server. B. Program Neighborhood Agent must be deployed to the users. C. File type associations must be set for the published applications. D. Content redirection must be specified on a per-farm or a per-server level. E. A policy must be created and the Content Redirection rule must be applied from the user Workspace folder. Answer: A, B, C Explanation: To implement client-to-server redirection, the users must have client drive mapping enabled. Client-to-server redirection requires that users run the Program Neighborhood Agent client, which requires the Web Interface. When the application is published, the final screen of the Application Publishing Wizard allows you to define file types that are associated with the published application. These file types are used by the PN Agent to update the Win32 Registry with the necessary server-side application references. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 10 QUESTION 59: Which step must be completed in the Application Publishing Wizard to publish a packaged application manually? A. A package group must be created. B. A filter for the assigned servers should be enabled. C. The location of the installation files must be specified D. The name of the packaged application must be selected

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1Y0-256 Answer: D Explanation: D: The first wizard screen prompts you for a display name and an application description of the resource you are publishing. You should fill in the necessary information. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 11 QUESTION 60: In the Presentation Server Console, what is a requirement for deploying a package using the Project Wizard? A. Project Wizard requires network share point on the file server. B. The administrator must have write access to the network share point to deploy a package using the Project Wizard. C. Only packages 500MB or smaller can be used to deploy a package using Project Wizard to a local drive or a network drive. D. Project Wizard and Active Directory must be used to deploy the packages to all the servers and a network share point is not required. Answer: A Explanation: A: Before you begin the creation of an ADF package, you need to ensure that the Package Server meets the requirements outlined in the "Components of Installation Manager" Installation Manager is made up of four components, whose configuration and deployment are based on the type of environment within which Installation Manager is intended to run. The four components are the package management server, network share point server, package server, and target servers. Thus to deploy a package you will need network share point on the file server as it is one o the requirements for package deployment. Incorrect options: B: to be able to have write access to network share point server, you would first need network share point on the file server. C: the size of the package is not a criterion in this case. D: the network share point is essential to deploying packages using the Project Wizard. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 11 QUESTION 61: Scenarios: You created a new ADF package using Installation Manager Packager. You want to keep the recorded application on the packager server permanently. Actualtests.com - The Power of Knowing

1Y0-256 Within the packager, which action is appropriate? A. From the File menu, save the project. B. From the File menu, rollback the project. C. From the Tools menu, archive the project. D. From the Tools menu, rollback the project. Answer: A Explanation: Saving the project will make the recorded application permanent on the packager server. Incorrect options: B: The Rollback option is located under the Tools menu and not the file menu. C: Archiving is not required here. D: Packager enables you to roll back those changes to preserve the initial state of the Package Server. This is not the same as keeping recorded applications on the packager server. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 11 QUESTION 62: What is required for a target server to recognize that an Installation Manager package is being installed? A. Packager B. Data Collector C. Installer Service D. Access Suite Console Answer: C Explanation: C: All MetaFrame servers on which Installation Manager Packages are deployed are known as target servers. To be a valid target server for IM, the server must be running MetaFrame Presentation Server Enterprise Edition and have the Installer service component (called ADF Installer Service) of IM running. Incorrect options: A: Packager is the name of the utility B: Data Collectors (DCs) are responsible for keeping zone-specific information. This is not what is required. D: The MetaFrame Access Suite Console is intended to become the central location where you manage your MetaFrame Access Suite deployment. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Actualtests.com - The Power of Knowing

1Y0-256 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapters 11, 13 QUESTION 63: Installation Manager packages can be deployed to and filtered by servers based on_________. A. Server name B. Presentation Server version C. Applications previously installed D. Windows Server operating system Answer: D Explanation: D: Of the main components of the Packager application and ADF packages include a Project information file. This binary file, named .aep, contains information on the properties of the project such as name, description, and target operating system. Thus you can deploy and filter packages for the Installation Manager based on the Windows Server operating system. Incorrect options: A: Installation Manager Packages are not deployed and filtered based on server name. B: Installation Manager Packages are not deployed and filtered based on Presentation Server version. C: Installation Manager Packages are not deployed and filtered based on previously installed applications. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 11 QUESTION 64: Scenario: An administrator is deploying a package group containing seven packages. Including among these are: a hotfix for Application_A (sixth in sequence= and an update to Application_A (second in sequence) The administrator wants to ensure that the hotfix is applied before the update. How can she accomplish this? A. Specify the order when scheduling the install job. B. Right-click the hotfix and then specify the sequence. C. Select the hotfix package and click the Move Up button placing it first in the installation sequence. D. Edit the package group properties to ensure that only the hotfix and the update are listed in the assigned packages list.

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1Y0-256 Answer: C Explanation: C: When more than one package belongs to a package group, you order the packages for deployment on the Install Sequence tab. In this case, since the update to the application is second in sequence you will need to move the hotfix package into position one in the sequence to as to ensure that the hotfix is applied before the update. Incorrect options: A: This will not address the issue at hand. B: This will not apply the hotfix before the update. D: This option does not address the order of the deployment of packages. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 11 QUESTION 65: After creating a package, to which objects does the scheduling feature allow an administrator to schedule a package? A. Install Groups B. Third-party servers C. Any users on the network D. Active Directory Organizational Units Answer: A Explanation: A: When deploying applications you can create any required package groups. If the application you are deploying consists of multiple packages, you can group these packages into a single package group, assign an installation order for the packages, and then deploy it as a single object entity instead of having to schedule each package individually. Incorrect options: B, C & D: The scheduling feature allows for the installation of Groups to schedule packages. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 11 QUESTION 66: To deploy an MSI-based application to all servers an administrator must _____________. (Fill in the blank with the correct option.) A. Open the Package and the follow the wizard Actualtests.com - The Power of Knowing

1Y0-256 B. Append the file to the data store database C. Publish the application into an isolated environment D. Add the package to the Presentation Server Console Answer: D Explanation: D: When deploying applications one of the steps includes adding the package to Installation Manager. The package must be added to Installation Manager, located in the Presentation Server Console, before it can be deployed. Incorrect options: A: This is not how an msi-based application is deployed to all servers. B: Appending the file to the data store database will not accomplish deploying the msi-based application. C: Publishing the application into an isolated environment is not the method in which to deploy msi-based application to all servers. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 11 QUESTION 67: In order to perform an installation using an unattended installation package, what is required? A. Project Wizard B. An INI file that completes the unattended installation process C. An answer file that completes all the steps otherwise entered by an administrator D. A user on the network with the package information and requirements to deploy other users Answer: C Explanation: C: The answer file would then be doing what the administrator would do, making this option an unattended installation package. Incorrect options: A: Unlike with the Installation Recording Wizard, the unattended installation program is not executed during the package build. The resulting ADF package is intended to deploy and launch the unintended installation program directly and not record specific installation information. It is for this reason that you are unable to generate an uninstall package for a package generated using the Unattended Program Wizard. B: You need an answer file to complete the steps that needs to be entered and not a .ini file. D: Having a user on the network with the information package is not unattended installation. Actualtests.com - The Power of Knowing

1Y0-256 Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 11 QUESTION 68: When the package in Installation Manager is used to make a recording, which step should performed after the recording is made to return the Package to a clean state? A. Save the package B. Close the package C. Delete the package D. Roll back the package Answer: D Explanation: D: After you have completed the recording of an application installation, Packager enables you to roll back those changes to preserve the initial state of the Package Server. Thus to return the Package to a clean state, you should roll back the package. Incorrect options: A: Saving the package does not return it to a clean state. B: Closing the package does not return the package to a clean state. C: Deleting the package will leave you with no package at all. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 11 QUESTION 69: Which two statements are true for client-to-server content redirection for published content? (Choose two) A. Redirecting published content require both client-side and server-side configurations. B. Client-side configurations are not required to enable content redirection for published content. C. Client-to-server content redirection for published content is configured by default in Program Neighborhood. D. If published content is to be redirected to run from the client, no file type association needs to be configured on the server. Answer: B, D Explanation: B: With Content redirection Client-to-Server, if the application is published, the final Actualtests.com - The Power of Knowing

1Y0-256 screen of the Application Publishing Wizard allows you to define file types that are associated with the published application. These file types are used by the PN Agent to update the Win32 Registry with the necessary server-side application references. This means that clientside configurations are not necessary. D: Content Redirection (Client to Server) allows local file associations to open applications published in the farm. Thus there is no need to configure file type associations on the server. Incorrect options: A: There is no need to have client side configuration. C: Since users must have client drive mapping enabled to implement client-to-server redirection, there is no default configuration in the Program Neigborhood. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 7 QUESTION 70: Which command line utility can be used to view server load values? A. QFARM /LOAD B. QLOAD /FARM C. QLOAD /SERVER D. QSERVER /LOAD Answer: A Explanation: QFARM reports a Load Level thus QFARM/LOAD allows you to view server load values Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 8 http://support.citrix.com/article/CTX105610&parentCategoryID=617 Citrix Consulting Services, Citrix Presentation Server 4.0: Administration 256 Exam Enablement Guide, Citrix Systems, Inc. Fort Lauderdale, USA, 2005 QUESTION 71: Which two rules should be used in conjunction with at least one other rule? (Choose two) A. Disk I/O B. IP Range C. Scheduling D. Page Faults E. Server User Load Actualtests.com - The Power of Knowing

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Answer: B, C Explanation: B: The IP Range rule is not really a load rule because it does not actually use any criteria to spread load. Instead, it is used to control access to published applications based on an IP range. For example, if a client's computer falls within this IP range, this rule allows or does not allow access. This rule should be used in conjunction with another rule to achieve some level of load management. C: The Scheduling rule, similar to the IP Range rule, is not considered a load-balancing rule. It is used to allow or disallow access to a server or published application during specific days of the week or times of the day. This rule should be used in conjunction with another rule so that load management can really spread load. Incorrect options: A: The Disk Data I/O rule calculates load in kilobytes based on disk data I/O. It has a low/high configurable threshold, and the same as the other rules, when the disk data I/O is within the low/high threshold, load is reported. There is no need to apply it in conjunction with another rule. D: The Page Fault rule allows the load evaluator to calculate load based on the number of page faults per second that occur. A page fault occurs every time the operating system uses physical memory flushed to the hard disk. It has a low/high threshold configuration. There is no need to apply in conjunction with another rule. E: The Server User Load rule balances load based on the number of users who log in to a particular server. It spreads load evenly between servers. There is no need to apply this rule in conjunction with another rule. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 8 QUESTION 72: Which two steps are Citrix recommended practices for creating a custom load evaluator? (Choose two) A. Disable all other custom load evaluators. B. Determine baseline performance of the servers. C. Set maximum threshold below maximum utilization. D. Disable connectivity to the server while creating the evaluator. Answer: B, C Explanation: B: When a baseline has been determined then setting thresholds is more realistic. This makes determining a baseline a recommended practice. C: Rules are always to be configured within the threshold which makes the setting of the maximum threshold to below maximum utilization advisable. Actualtests.com - The Power of Knowing

1Y0-256 Incorrect options: A: Disabling all custom load evaluators defeats the whole purpose of load balancing. D: Disabling connectivity while creating an evaluator is not advisable. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 8 QUESTION 73: In which environment would assigned the Advanced Load Evaluator to more appropriate than assigning the Default Load Evaluator? A. In a Presentation Server Advanced Edition environment. B. In any Presentation Server environment in which server resources are varied. C. In a Presentation Server environment that uses interoperability with MetaFrame 1.8. D. In any Presentation Server environment in which the default load evaluator requires customization. Answer: B Explanation: B: The advanced load evaluator is much more powerful than the default and is better suited to handle servers with different hardware resources. It balances the load based on the CPU utilization, memory usage, and page swaps rules. Incorrect options: A: The Advanced Edition provides all the features found in the Standard Edition as well as additional scalability and administration features such as CPU prioritization, resource-based load balancing, smooth roaming, and application performance controls. Thus making this option an inappropriate answer. C: The Advanced Load Evaluator was designed with Presentation Server with varied server resources in mind and not interoperability with Metaframe 1.8. D: The Default load evaluator is assigned to all servers by default. It balances the load based on the user load rule. You can also set a maximum user limit. For example, if you set the limit to 150 users, when the 151st user tries to establish a session, that user is rejected by the server. This evaluator cannot be modified or deleted. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 8 QUESTION 74: What are three rules available when creating custom load evaluators? (Choose three.) A. IP Range B. Scheduling Actualtests.com - The Power of Knowing

1Y0-256 C. Page Faults D. Thread Counts E. Bandwidth Usage Answer: A, B, C A: IP Range This rule is not really a load rule because it does not actually use any criteria to spread load. Instead, it is used to control access to published applications based on an IP range. For example, if a client's computer falls within this IP range, this rule allows or does not allow access. This rule should be used in conjunction with another rule to achieve some level of load management. B: Scheduling This rule, similar to the IP Range rule, is not considered a load-balancing rule. It is used to allow or disallow access to a server or published application during specific days of the week or times of the day. This rule should be used in conjunction with another rule so that load management can really spread load. C: Page Fault This rule allows the load evaluator to calculate load based on the number of page faults per second that occur. Incorrect options: E: Bandwidth usage does not exist. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 8 QUESTION 75: Which command line can be used to view server load values? A. QFARM/APP B. QFARM/LOAD C. QSERVER/APP D. QSERVER/LOAD Answer: B Explanation: QFARM reports a Load Level thus QFARM/LOAD allows you to view server load values QFARM/APP for instance displays Application Names with Strange Symbols or Characters. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 8 http://support.citrix.com/article/CTX105610&parentCategoryID=617 Citrix Consulting Services, Citrix Presentation Server 4.0: Administration 256 Exam Enablement Guide, Citrix Systems, Inc. Fort Lauderdale, USA, 2005

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1Y0-256 QUESTION 76: Scenario: You implemented a small farm of 10 servers running Presentation Server. Some servers are older models and some are new with higher level resources. You want to effectively load balance sessions across these servers, but have no time to perform detailed load testing. Which load evaluator should you attach to the servers? A. Basic B. Custom C. Default D. Advanced Answer: D Explanation: Load Manager is available only with the Advanced and Enterprise Editions of MPS. The Standard Edition does not come with Load Manager. Load Manager is a utility that allows published applications to be load-balanced across multiple Presentation Servers. When users connect to a published application, they are directed by the Load Manager to the least-loaded server. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 8 QUESTION 77: How can a custom load evaluator be created? A. By changing the Load Manager policy. B. By copying an existing load evaluator and modifying the settings C. By changing the settings in the Default or Advanced Load evaluators D. By copying and pasting Custom settings from a text file into the Load Manager window Answer: B Explanation: B: The default load evaluator cannot be modified or edited. This is by design. To get around this limitation, you can create a new load evaluator, give it the same rule as the default one, and modify the value to your liking. This means copying the existing load evaluator and then modifying the settings. Incorrect options: A: Changing the policy does not create a custom load evaluator. C: The default or advanced Load Evaluators cannot be modified or edited. D: This will not create a custom Load Evaluator, you need to copy the existing one and Actualtests.com - The Power of Knowing

1Y0-256 then modify it. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 8 QUESTION 78: Which consideration does an administrator need to keep in mid when configuring printer drivers using the auto-replication method instead of the manual replication method? A. The auto-replication method always overwrites any existing drivers. B. Auto-replication of printer drivers cannot be performed over a WAN. C. All servers need to be manually refreshed after an auto-replication of printer drivers is performed. D. Auto-replication increases server load and consumes network bandwidth, so it should be done during off-peak hours. Answer: D Explanation: D: Auto-replication controls the replication of drivers from one server to another. This results in bandwidth consumption which will interfere with the normal day-to-day activities on the network. Preferably auto-replication should be scheduled to happen in off-peak times. Incorrect options: A: The question is concerned with an issue of choosing to make use of auto-replication rather than manual replication to install printer drivers. This option is addressing another issue. B: This is not correct. C: The question focuses on the selection of a replication method and not the refreshment of the servers. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 12 QUESTION 79: For which two scenarios would it be most appropriate to implement universal printing? (Choose two) A. At Certkiller .com with a diverse printing architecture. B. At an organization with a small IT staff and management of print drivers is not a desired task. C. At a small advertising company which requires color printouts exclusively from Mac clients. Actualtests.com - The Power of Knowing

1Y0-256 D. In an organization in which most users print to locally attached printers using the same print drivers. Answer: A, B Explanation: A: Universal printers address issues like ill-behaved drivers in a MetaFrame environment causing failures of the print spooler service, which impact all users on the server. Although less common now compared to a few years ago, some third-party native printer drivers do not function well in multiuser diverse printing environments such as MetaFrame. B: Universal printers address issues like the transmission of large print job files generated by native drivers that do not employ advanced printer languages such as PCL or PS. Since the organization has a small IT staff and printing is not a major desired task, it would be appropriate to make use of universal printers. In the scenarios sketched in A and B, making use of Universal printers would make sense since it will help to reduce the impact of certain native driver-related issues. Incorrect options: C: Requiring color printouts from specializing clients will not be served best be making use of Universal printers. D: This situation does not warrant the use of a universal printer. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 12 QUESTION 80: Scenario: You are an administrator of a farm at a software engineering firm where users are experiencing delayed log-in-times. Although network printers have been imported and assigned, users typically use their default printer and only change printers when their default printer does not support a needed feature such as duplexing or color printing. Users are technically competent and usually manage access to both the default and network printers on their own within ICA sessions. After enabling the auto-creation printing policy rule, which connection should be selected to optimize the user' experience? A. Auto-create all client printers B. Do not auto-create client printers C. Auto-create the client's default printer only D. Auto-create local (non-network) client printers only Answer: C Explanation: C: There are four options under Auto-Create These Client Print Devices. The Default Client Printer Only option maps only the local client default printer. Any other client Actualtests.com - The Power of Knowing

1Y0-256 printers are ignored. This option will optimize the users' printing experience. Incorrect options: A: Auto-Create All Client Printers maps all client printers. This option will thus not suffice. B: Not auto-creating any printers will not have the desired effect. D: Auto-Create Local (Non-Network) Client Printers Only setting maps all printers that are local to the client and ignores any network-mapped printers. This is not desired in this case. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 12 QUESTION 81: Scenario: Two weeks ago you imported a print server and assigned a printer to all users a session printers policy. Now a new printer has been added to the same print server. If you want all users to have access to the newly added printer which two steps should you take? (Choose two) A. Map the required driver. B. Enable universal driver policy. C. Configure the auto-creation rule for all clients. D. Add the printer to the existing session printers policy. E. Update the network print server in the Printer Management node. Answer: D. E Explanation: D: The session printers policy combines the MPS 3.0 policy found in Resources/Local Printers/Default with the Network Printer Auto-Creation feature that was available in the Printer Management node. Within this policy, you can select any number of available network printers in the farm and assign them to the policy recipients. You also have the option of whether to remap the default printer to match the local client default printer. But these are not printer properties retention policies. This will allow all users access to the new printers. E: The Network Print Servers tab in the Print Management node also displays the date that information was last updated from the server. The list of available printers from a network print server is not dynamically maintained in the Management Console. If any printer additions or deletions have been made on the print server, the changes will not be reflected in the Management Console until a manual update is performed. Thus updating the network print server will make the new printers accessible to all users. Incorrect options: A: The driver mapping feature allows you to match up client and server drivers that do not have matching driver names. But this does not mean access for all the users. B: The use of universal printer drivers can reduce or eliminate the need to manually Actualtests.com - The Power of Knowing

1Y0-256 install and replicate native or custom printer drivers. This is not the same as making the printer available to all users. C: Configuring auto-creation for all clients does not necessarily mean availability and access to the new printer for all users as they can still be excluded by other settings. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 12 QUESTION 82: In an environment in which universal printing is not being used, when is configuring printer driver mapping recommended? A. Whenever network printing is in use. B. Whenever local printers exist in the environment. C. When clients are allowed to print from an application running on a Presentation Server. D. When there are Windows 9X clients with drivers installed that are allowed to print from the server. Answer: D Explanation: D: The driver mapping feature allows you to match up client and server drivers that do not have matching driver names. If a match is not found, depending on the configuration of the server, either an attempt is made to use a MetaFrame universal printer driver, or the client printer mapping fails. This name matching process is reliable when the client and server are both running similar versions of the Windows software (Windows 2000 Professional and Windows 2000 Server or Windows XP and Windows Server 2003). In these situations, the same drivers are used on both the client and server, so the names almost always match each other. The matching process breaks down when the same printer has different driver names on the client and server. This is common when using an older Windows client such as Windows 95 or 98. Many Windows 9x printer drivers have slightly different names from the equivalent Windows 2000 Server or Windows Server 2003 printer driver. To overcome this problem, Citrix created the driver mapping feature, which allows for the creation of an association between client and server driver names that do not match. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 12 QUESTION 83: Scenario: At Certkiller .com headquarters, where Presentation Server is implemented, there are five printers installed and configured by the IT staff. In remote offices, users are required to install and manage any local printers on their Actualtests.com - The Power of Knowing

1Y0-256 own. Which option should be enabled to ensure that the remote users can still print from published applications to both the five network printers as well as to the printers that are locally attached? A. Use the universal printer only B. Auto-install the universal driver C. Use only printer model specific drivers D. Use universal driver only if requested driver is unavailable Answer: D Explanation: D: The Use Universal Driver Only If Requested Driver Is Unavailable setting is that the default behavior attempts to fall back on using a universal driver only if a requested driver cannot be found. This should ensure that the remote users will still be able to print from published applications as requested in the question. Incorrect options: A: The Universal Driver Only setting is that the opposite configuration always uses one of the universal drivers. When this setting is enabled, native drivers are never searched during the client printer connection process. B: By enabling this option and setting Install Windows Native Drivers as Needed, you instruct the MetaFrame Server to install native Windows drivers if necessary when a client connects with a new client-mapped printer. Only drivers present in the driver.cab file are installed. Auto-installing the universal driver will not solve the problem. C: If a model specific printer driver is used then it will not address the problem at hand. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 12 QUESTION 84: If you want all users to have access a network printer which two steps should you take? (Choose two.) A. Import the print server. B. Map the required driver. C. Enable universal printing. D. Configure the auto-creation rule for all clients. E. Assign users to the printer using a session printers policy. Answer: A, E Explanation: A & E: To access printers shared on non-MPS print servers, you must import these network print servers into the farm. You do this through the Network Print Servers tab. Actualtests.com - The Power of Knowing

1Y0-256 When you first create a server farm, this tab is blank until you choose a print server to import. Within this policy, you can select any number of available network printers in the farm and assign them to the policy recipients. You also have the option of whether to remap the default printer to match the local client default printer. Thus options A and E will ensure access for all users to a network printer. Incorrect options: B: Printers that are mapped by other means such as logon scripts do not have native drivers automatically installed. This might exclude some users. C: There is still the possibility that some users will not have access to the network printer. D: Session Printers in MPS 4.0 replaces the network printer auto-creation feature found in MPS 3.0, which was accessed by right-clicking on a printer in the Printers node. This auto-creation option does not exist in MPS 4.0. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 12 QUESTION 85: Scenario: Based on testing and business requirements, your manager has determined that the universal printer will be suitable for the supported printers used by remote users. How will you enable this? A. Select the "Use universal driver only" setting of the universal driver policy B. Select the "Use universal driver only" setting in the Citrix Connection Utility C. Select the "Use universal driver only" option Active Directory Group Policy Object (GPO) D. Select the "Use universal driver only" option under printer management node in the Presentation Server Console. Answer: A Explanation: A: Bandwidth restrictions are applied on a per-server basis and thus apply to client printers only. Thus you need to set the universal driver policy. Incorrect options: B: You need to set the universal driver policy and not the settings in the Ctrix Connection Utility. C: It is the universal driver policy that has to be set in this case and not the Active Directory GPO. D: You should rather set the universal driver policy. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 12 Actualtests.com - The Power of Knowing

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QUESTION 86: How can an administrator reduce the number of printer drivers that are manually installed by the administrator in an environment? A. Utilize a print server B. Implement universal printing C. Use a trusted driver install path D. Enable the native driver auto-install function Answer: B Explanation: B: Citrix has provided the universal printer driver (UPD) as an alternative to maintaining drivers for many different printers in a large MetaFrame environment. Three variations of the UPD are supported in MPS 3.0. One supports PostScript (PS) language, and the other two support different versions of the Printer Control Language (PCL5c and PCL4, respectively). Instead of using a native printer driver, MetaFrame can be configured to employ one of these three universal drivers in its place. The generic driver is still responsible for creating the print data stream, spooling the job and directing it to the client. Thus to reduce the number of manually installed printer drivers, you could make use of universal printing. Incorrect options: A: You still need to install drivers. C: This option will not reduce the number of drivers to install manually. D: This option will not result in a reduction of the manual installation of drivers. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 12 QUESTION 87: Scenario: A farm at an architectural firm requires that users have access to a variety of networked specialty printers, including large format 1200 dpi printers for architectural drawings that require special drivers. For these printers, native drivers are installed. Remote users also have a wide variety of client printers. Which universal printing policy setting is recommended for this environment? A. Use universal driver only. B. Both universal and native drivers. C. Use only printer model specific drivers. D. Use universal driver only if required driver is unavailable. Answer: D D: The Use Universal Driver Only If Native Driver Is Unavailable option is the default Actualtests.com - The Power of Knowing

1Y0-256 behavior that attempts to fall back on using a universal driver only if a native driver cannot be found. This would be the solution for the situation. Incorrect options: A: Universal Driver Only The opposite configuration always uses one of the universal drivers. When this setting is enabled, native drivers are never searched during the client printer connection process. This setting would thus not be recommended under the cricumstnces. B: With both Universal and Native Drivers selected, it actually attempts to create two client printers, one using the native driver and the other using a universal driver. If the native driver does not exist or has been excluded using printer compatibility, only the UPD-based client printer will be created. Not required here. C: This setting will result in the printer not being connected. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapters 12 & 16 QUESTION 88: Scenario: User_A calls the help desk complaining that while he can see all of his printers from within a published application's print menu, the default printer in the published application is not the same as the default printer on the client workstation. After investigating, the help desk staff discovers that the application is published with the Wait for client printers to be created option selected. Which two actions could potentially resolve User_A's issue? (Choose two.) A. Ensure that the Default to main client printer option is selected in the Client Settings tab of the connection properties in the Citrix Connection Configuration Utility. B. Create a policy an enable the Printing>Client Printers>Auto-creation rule. Select Default Printer Only and assign this policy with a user filter that selects User_A. C. Create a policy and enable the Printing>Session Printers rule. Select Set default printer to the client's main printer and assign this policy with a user filter that selects User_A D. Create a policy an enable the Printing>Client Printers>Auto-creation rule. Select Auto-create all clients' printers and assign this policy with a user filter that selects User_A. Answer: A, C Explanation: A: This setting will result in resolving the issues that User_A is experiencing. C: If a network printer is mapped on a local client device, from a MetaFrame session, it is considered to be a client printer, not a network printer. Only when a shared network printer is mapped from within a MetaFrame session is it considered a network printer. Incorrect options: B: Auto creation would be incorrect and you should check the Set default printer to the client's main printer and not check the Default Printer Only. Actualtests.com - The Power of Knowing

1Y0-256 D: There is no need to auto-create the drivers for the printer as it will not address the problem at hand. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapters 7 & 12 QUESTION 89: What should be considered when managing printing bandwidth for client sessions? A. Bandwidth can only be managed through policies. B. Bandwidth is best managed through the application of a policy. C. Bandwidth can only be managed through the creation of a GPO in Active Directory. D. Bandwidth is best managed on a per Server basis through the Citrix Connection Configuration Utility. Answer: B Explanation: B: Bandwidth restrictions are applied on a per-server basis and thus apply to client printers only. It is thus a best practice to make use of a policy application to manage printing bandwidth. Incorrect options: A: This is not accurate. C: This is not the only method of managing bandwidth. D: You need to manage printing bandwidth through the bandwidth tab in the Print Management node. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapters 7 & 12 QUESTION 90: Scenario: Your environment includes Terminal Services mandatory profiles. Users have complained that the printing properties designated during each session are not retained. Which two options within the printer properties retention policy will address this complaint? (Choose two) A. Enable session printers. B. Retained in user profile only. C. Saved on the client device only. D. Held in profile if not saved on client.

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1Y0-256 Answer: C, D Explanation: C: Saved on the Client Only is suitable for situations in which users have mandatory profiles or roaming profiles that are not saved. This setting is supported only on MPS 4.0 or later and the Citrix client 9.0 or later. D: Held in Profile Only If Not Saved on Client is enabled by default, and it instructs the MPS server to try to maintain client settings if supported; otherwise, they are retained on the server. This setting is compatible with MPS 3.0 and the MPS client 8.x or earlier. Incorrect options: A: This policy combines the MPS 3.0 policy found in Resources/Local Printers/Default with the Network Printer Auto-Creation feature that was available in the Printer Management node. Within this policy, you can select any number of available network printers in the farm and assign them to the policy recipients. You also have the option of whether to remap the default printer to match the local client default printer. But these are not printer properties retention policies. B: Retained in User Profile Only preserves the settings in the Terminal Server profile. There is no attempt to write information to the client. This option is supported with MPS 3.0 and the MPS client 8.x or earlier. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 16 QUESTION 91: Scenario: You just received an update to an application that is published in your server farm. You wish to prevent users from using the application while performing the update. In order to accomplish this with the least amount of administrative effort, which two Presentation Server Console configurations should be completed before updating the application? (Choose two) A. In the published application properties hide the application. B. Remove all users from the published application properties. C. Remove all servers from the published application properties. D. In the published application properties disable the application. Answer: A, D Explanation: A: Hiding the application will prevent users from opening the application on their workstations and will not result in having to reinstalling the application when all that is required is to update it. D: Disabling the application will result in users being unable to use the application which will allow for the update to be completed. These two options are the least administrative effort in accomplishing the task at hand. Actualtests.com - The Power of Knowing

1Y0-256 Incorrect options: B: Removing all users will result in all of them having to be added again as well as the update that must still be run. This will result in unnecessary administrative effort when all that is required is to just hide or disable the application. C: This is not the solution to accomplish what is being required in this question. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 10 QUESTION 92: Scenario: Prior to deploying an application, testing shows that the application performs optimally when running on a Windows 2000 Server 2003 platform. Your farm includes both Windows Server 2003 and Windows 2000 Servers. How can you ensure that this published application will launch only on servers running Windows Server 2003? A. Only add the servers running Windows 2000 Server to the configured server list. B. Before assigning servers to the published application, filter the available servers list by platform. C. Before assigning servers to the published application, filter the configured servers list by platform. D. Edit the configured servers list for the published application to remove all Windows Server 2003 systems. Answer: B Explanation: B: A policy filter is criteria created to enforce one or more policies on a set of users, client devices, and/or servers. Filters can be created on any combination of client IP address, client name, username or group name, and Presentation Server name. When specifying servers in the publication of applications, you also encounter the "Filter Servers By" option which allows you to limit the servers in the Available Servers dialog box based on the operating system they are running. The options to filter based on operating system are Windows NT 4.0 TSE, Windows 2000, and Windows Server 2003. You also can filter by whether the server has Installation Management capabilities. Incorrect options: A: This will have the opposite effect of what is desired since the application will then launch on the Windows 2000 Server servers and not on the Windows Server 2003 servers. C: It is the available servers that has to be filtered and not the configured servers as is suggested in this option. D: This is not the correct option to follow in this case. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 10 Actualtests.com - The Power of Knowing

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QUESTION 93: Which two Program Neighborhood Agent-related published application settings would you use to allow users to launch published applications from a location other than the system tray? (Choose two) A. Add to the client's Start Menu. B. Place under the Programs folder. C. Add shortcut to Control Panel folder. D. Add shortcut to Program Neighborhood Agent. Answer: A, B Explanation: The Program Neighborhood Settings screen allows you to control how the application is presented to the user. There are two configurable options: A: Application Shortcut Placement which allows you to place this application under the Program Neighborhood folder on the Start menu. B: Program Neighborhood Folder In this field, you specify a folder under which this application will appear within the Program Neighborhood interface. Incorrect options: C: The Control Panel Folder is not meant to launch programs. D: You want to launch published application and not the Program Neighborhood Agent Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 10 QUESTION 94: To ensure that users must access published applications through Start>Programs>My Company> Published Applications, which option should be typed into the Start Menu Folder field of the Program Neighborhood Settings property for the published application? A. Published Applications B. My Company\ Published Applications C. C:\Program Files\My Company\Published Applications D. Start > Programs > My Company > Published Applications Answer: B Explanation: B: If your users have the Program Neighborhood Agent version of the ICA client, you can further customize where the published resources show up by creating a custom folder under the Programs menu of the Start menu. To do this, check the box next to Place Actualtests.com - The Power of Knowing

1Y0-256 Under Programs Folder: (Program Neighborhood Agent Only). In the Start Menu Folder text box, enter a name for the folder where you want to place this published resource under the Programs menu of the Start menu. Thus option B is the correct answer to ensure that users access published applications through Start>Programs>My Company> Published Applications. Incorrect options: A: This option will not ensure that the users access published applications in the desired manner. C: This option presents users with another option to access published publications other than what is question requires. D: You only need to enter a name for the folder where you want to place the published application under the Programs menu of the start menu when you customize the way users must access the published resource. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 10 QUESTION 95: Which statement is true? A. Active Directory Organizational Units (OUs) can be added as active accounts for a published resource. B. If anonymous connections are allowed to a published resource then users must access them with guest accounts. C. Both anonymous users and explicit Active Directory users can be assigned to a single published resource at the same time. D. Presentation Server install 14 anonymous accounts which can access published resources that are configured for anonymous connections. Answer: D Explanation: D: When you install MetaFrame Presentation Server, as part of the installation, 14 anonymous user accounts are created and added to the Users container of the local machine. These accounts are in the format of anon001 through anon014. Incorrect options: A: It is preferable to work with groups and not organizational units. Making use of organizational units presupposes the presence of Windows Active Directory. B: Anonymous accounts does not necessarily mean access through guest accounts. C: Both can be assigned but NOT simultaneously, you either assign anonymous access OR explicit access. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 10

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1Y0-256 QUESTION 96: Scenario: In a Presentation Server implementation Program Neighborhood Agent is deployed to client devices. User's access published resources from their start menu, as well as from the system tray. While performing an update to a published application, an administrator disables it in the Presentation Server Console. What are two reasons to also hide the disabled application? (Choose two) A. To ensure that the update is deployed safely. B. To ensure that notification of the outage is sent. C. To prevent the application from appearing in the users Start menu. D. To prevent confusion for the user who attempt to launch the disabled application Answer: C, D Explanation: C: Hide Application Title Bar allows you to hide the application title which means it will not appear in the users Start menu. D: The Hide Disabled Application option. If you disable the application, it will still show up in the user's list of available applications but will not work when the user tries to launch it. If you disable the application and then hide it, the icon for that application is completely hidden from the user. This capability can be useful in alleviating support calls from users complaining that they see the application but nothing happens when they click it. Thus it will prevent confusion if you also hide the disables application. Incorrect options: A: Deploying updates is not the reason for hiding disabled applications. B: Hiding disabled applications is not to ensure that notification is sent to users. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 10 QUESTION 97: When allowing Active Directory users access to a published resource, it is important to note that_______________. (Fill in the blank with the correct answer.) A. Organizational Units (OUs) cannot be added. B. Explicit users should be assigned to the anonymous group. C. To see groups, administrators must click the "Show Detail" checkbox. D. Individual users cannot be assigned access, only user groups can be. Answer: A Explanation: A: You can't take advantage of user groupings in organizational units Incorrect options: Actualtests.com - The Power of Knowing

1Y0-256 B, C & D: The fact that Organizational Units cannot be added is more important to remember in the issues relating to Active Directory user access to published resources. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 10 QUESTION 98: Scenario: An Application Service Provider wants to use Web Interface to host sites for ten different companies. These companies will share the same published applications but will require unique branding for each organization. What is the most efficient way for them to accomplish this task? A. Create multiple Web Interface sites on the same web server. B. Have a separate server running Web Interface for each company. C. Create multiple Web Interfaces sites on the same web server and group them into site groups. D. Create multiple Web Interface sites on multiple web servers and have all sites use a central configuration source. Answer: A Explanation: A: One of the new features include Multiple Site Support - Multiple Presentation Server, PN Agent, Published Applications and Conference Manager sites can co-exist on the same Web Interface server. Creating multiple Web Interface sites on the same web server would represent the most efficient way under the circumstances. Incorrect options: B: Having a separate server for each company is not only less efficient, but also unnecessarily costly. C: There is no need to group them into site groups as this would not comply with the required unique branding for each company. D: Making use of multiple web servers is not the most efficient way of accomplishing the task at hand. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 16 QUESTION 99: There are five servers running Presentation Server behind a firewall, users will need to access these servers through the Web interface. However, the administrator has only obtained one external IP address. What are two things the administrator can do to allow external access to these servers? (Choose two)

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1Y0-256 A. Setup port address translation on the firewall. B. Assign numbers in the Presentation Server Console. C. Run ALTADDR and assign the same external IP to all the servers. D. Configure the Alternate Address Section for the MetaFrame Presentation Server site in the Access Suite Console. E. Configure the Address Translation Section for the MetaFrame Presentation Server site in the Access Suite Console. Answer: A, E Explanation: Network address translation (NAT) allows a local area network to use a set of IP addresses internally, while a separate set of addresses is used for external, usually Internet, traffic. Typically, a hardware- or software-based firewall exists between the two networks and is responsible for managing the translation of addresses from the external to the internal, and vice versa. The Web Interface consults the server address translation map (at the bottom of the page) to determine the translated address to return to the client. When creating a translation entry, you specify the internal address and port for the server. You then specify the equivalent translated (external) address with the associated translated port number. This translation map is a convenient alternative to defining alternate addresses directly on each server. The MetaFrame Access Suite Console is intended to become the central location where you manage your MetaFrame Access Suite deployment. Thus to allow external access to these servers under the circumstances, you will need to setup port address translation on the firewall and then configure the address translation section for the Presentation server site in the Access Suite Console. Incorrect options: B: One does not assign numbers in the Presentation server console. This is too vague. C: Running ALTADDR and assigning the same external IP to all servers is not the solution. D: You should configure the Address Translation section and not the Alternate Address section since it is an address translation issue and not a alternate address issue. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 14 QUESTION 100: In which two instances is it appropriate to allow anonymous access to published resource? (Choose two) A. When the application is not licensed. B. When user tracking is a requirement C. When user tracking is not a requirement. D. When installing Presentation Server on a domain controller. E. When demonstrating a test application publicly on your web site.

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1Y0-256 Answer: C, E Explanation: C: The "Allow Anonymous Connections" will result in all users having access to this application without needing to authenticate; in other words, they will not need to provide a username, password, or domain. Thus it would be appropriate to use when user tracking is not a requirement. E: The "Allow Anonymous Connections" will result in all users having access to this application without needing to authenticate; in other words, they will not need to provide a username, password, or domain. This is ideal in cases there the application is to be tested publicly on a web site. Incorrect options: A: Licensing is irrelevant in this question. B: When user tracking is a requirement, making use of anonymous access is highly inappropriate. D: Allowing anonymous access to a published resource is not the appropriate instance when installing Presentation Server on a domain controller. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 10 QUESTION 101: Scenario: A finance company has a proprietary financial database published in their server farm. The database is only available to users in the "Broker" user group. As this database contains highly sensitive data, company policy dictates that for this resource a higher encryption level is required to ensure the integrity of the session. The brokers must have access to other applications that do not require a high level of encryption. Which action will meet the requirements for this scenario? A. Configure a policy in the console and apply it to the database. B. Configure Client connections using the Citrix Connection Configuration Utility. C. Configure a policy in the console and apply it to the users of the Broker group. D. Configure the Client options for the published applications from the Presentation Server Console. Answer: D Explanation: D: Configuring client options from the Management Console for the published application will enable you to grant Brokers access to other applications that does not require a higher encryption level while still requiring the desired higher encryption for the exclusive database. Incorrect options: A & C: When a minimum encryption requirement has been defined (either in the Actualtests.com - The Power of Knowing

1Y0-256 connection settings, a policy, or a published application's properties), only the clients with their encryption level configured to meet or exceed this requirement can log on to the MetaFrame server. Anyone with lower encryption settings receives an error message stating "You do not have the proper encryption level to access this session." When encryption settings have been defined in multiple locations, the most restrictive encryption requirement always takes precedence. This will then restrict the Broker user group. B: This option is not viable in the circumstances. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 9 QUESTION 102: What are the three categories of Presentation Server administrator privileges? (Choose three) A. Special B. Custom C. View Only D. Complete E. Temporary F. Full Administration Answer: B, C, F Explanation: The three categories of privilege types available are: 1. View Only - This category provides read-only access to all areas of the system. This privilege may be assigned to those administrators responsible for end-user or operations support who would need to be able to view aspects of the farm but are not authorized to make any changes. 2. Full Administration - The second category grants complete access to view and modify all areas of the farm configuration. A very limited number of users should ever have this full access. 3. Custom - When this selection is chosen, you can define specific privileges for the different nodes in the Management Console. Incorrect options: A, D & E: These are not categories in administrator privileges. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 9 QUESTION 103:

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1Y0-256 Which Manage Server setting in the Program Neighborhood Agent site determines if communication between the client and the server running Web Interface will be secured? A. Force server authentication B. Schedule automatic refresh C. Use SSL/TTLS for communication D. Allow user to customize the server URL. Answer: C Explanation: C: The Citrix SSL Relay component allows you to secure communications between MPS clients and/or the Web Interface to MetaFrame servers using Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) or Transport Layer Security (TLS). Because the communications are secured using SSL/TLS, not only is the information encrypted, but message integrity checks exist that verify the data transmitted to ensure it has not been tampered with. Incorrect options: A, B & D: the question asks for which settings in the PN Agent site determines the security status of communication between the client and the server running Web Interface. Neither of these options is the proper setting. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 9 QUESTION 104: Scenario: Company policy requires encryption at RC5 level for all Clients to access an application you are publishing. Which setting should be enabled to ensure that the required encryption level is met by all Clients that attempt to launch the published resource? A. Use server certificate for encryption B. Set minimum requirement for encryption C. Enable SSL on the Web Interface server D. Apply a policy to the application to limit to the RC5 encryption level Answer: B Explanation: B: When a minimum encryption requirement has been defined (either in the connection settings, a policy, or a published application's properties), only the clients with their encryption level configured to meet or exceed this requirement can log on to the MetaFrame server. Anyone with lower encryption settings receives an error message stating "You do not have the proper encryption level to access this session." This should ensure that all Clients that attempt to launch the published resource must have the Actualtests.com - The Power of Knowing

1Y0-256 minimum encryption level. Incorrect options: A: Making use of certificates is meant for authentication purposes and will not ensure that encryption is being used as is required in this case. C: The Citrix SSL Relay component allows you to secure communications between MPS clients and/or the Web Interface to MetaFrame servers using Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) or Transport Layer Security (TLS). Securing communication is not encrypting communications and ensuring that clients all conform to encryption standards. D: Limiting the application to the RC5 encryption level via policy is not the solution. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 9 QUESTION 105: To enable PKI (public Key infrastructure)-based security and enable Citrix SSL. Relay Service, which three steps must you take? (Choose three.) A. Configure Web interface for secure connections. B. Install corresponding root certificates on the client systems. C. Configure SSL Relay Service on the Presentation Server and enable it. D. Install server certificates on all the servers running Presentation Server. Answer: B, C, D Explanation: The Citrix SSL Relay component allows you to secure communications between MPS clients and/or the Web Interface to MetaFrame servers using Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) or Transport Layer Security (TLS). One of the general client requirements for implementing SSL Relay is that the client device needs to have the appropriate root certificate installed so that it can verify the certificate authority that issued the certificate for the server. To be able to properly validate and secure the communications, all MetaFrame servers running the SSL Relay service must have a valid server certificate installed. When a client connects, it must be able to verify the authenticity of the certificate. Having the necessary root certificate available ensures this is the case. To utilize SSL Relay, you must configure the service on at least one MetaFrame server within your server farm. Thus options B, C and D would enable PKI-based security and enable Citrix SSL Relay Service. Incorrect options: A: This is incorrect since the question requires PKI-based security with SSL Relay Service enabled. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 9

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1Y0-256 QUESTION 106: What can be used to secure communication between Web Interface and the server running Presentation Server? A. RC5 B. SSL Relay C. ICA Protocol D. Secure Gateway Answer: B Explanation: B: The Citrix SSL Relay component allows you to secure communications between MPS clients and/or the Web Interface to MetaFrame servers using Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) or Transport Layer Security (TLS). Incorrect options: A: RC5 is an encryption algorithm, but in this case it must be used with SSL Relay. C: ICA is Citrix's Presentation Services protocol that allows a client to establish a session with a MetaFrame server and access server-based applications and content as if they were available locally on the client. D: The Secure Gateway is used to secure access to server farms and access centers. Access is not communication. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 9 QUESTION 107: In a double-hop DMZ configuration, where should the Secure Gateway server be located? A. Behind the internal firewall. B. Between the internal and the secondary firewalls. C. Between the secondary and the external firewalls. D. Behind either the internal, secondary or external firewalls. Answer: C Explanation: C: Double-hop DMZ is a setup that provides additional security by requiring traffic from the Internet to pass through two DMZs before accessing systems on the internal network. Servers placed in the first stage have no direct access into the internal network but are configured to have limited access to specific machines within the second DMZ. Only systems in the second DMZ are configured with access to servers on the internal network. The Secure Gateway component employed in a double-hop DMZ acts as a Actualtests.com - The Power of Knowing

1Y0-256 conduit of data transmissions between the Secure Gateway and the secure internal network. Thus the Secure Gateway server should be between the secondary and the external firewalls. Incorrect options: A: This would not be double-hop DMZ configuration. B: Between the internal and secondary firewalls would make the DMZ ineffective. D: This location would make the Secure Gateway server ineffective. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 14 QUESTION 108: Where is the Secure Ticketing Authority Service for Secure Gateway embedded? A. In the Citrix IMA Service B. In the Citrix XML Service C. In the Citrix Licensing Service D. In the Secure Gateway Service Answer: B Explanation: C: Citrix XML Service - The Web Interface contacts the server farm via the Citrix XML Service running on a MetaFrame server. Communications to the Citrix XML Service are secured using SSL Relay. Incorrect options: A: IMA Service provides integrated support by listening on port 1604 and not for Secure Ticketing Authority Service. The IMA protocol is UDP-based, communicating from server to server via port 2512. Connections from the Management Console for Presentation Server are serviced on port 2513. C: Licensing is not Ticketing. D: The service is meant for Secure Gateway, but it is embedded in the XML Service. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapters 9 & 14 QUESTION 109: Which three statements are correct regarding the use of digital certificates for Presentation Server running on Windows Server 2003? (Choose three) A. "GOV" ciphersuite is usually used with TLS protocol. B. Root certificates are often embedded with client operating systems. C. Server certificates can be created using the Citrix Certificate Generation Tool. Actualtests.com - The Power of Knowing

1Y0-256 D. Digital certificates are used for both, SSL Relay Service and Secure Gateway environment. Answer: A, B, D Explanation: A: During the advanced installation of the Secure Gateway, which prompts for all parameter values, you are asked to also specify the cipher suite and GOV is the one that is usually used with TLS protocol. B: A CA can be a third-party organization, or it can be internal to an organization, employing certificate-generating software such as Microsoft Certificate Services. Thus often the root certificates are embedded with client operating systems. D: The Citrix SSL Relay Service as well as Secure Gateway makes use of digital certificates. Incorrect options: C: This is incorrect. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapters 9 & 14 QUESTION 110: Which two ciphersuites are supported with Citrix SSL Relay Service? (Choose two) A. GOV B. COM C. Independent D. Secure Cipher Answer: A, B Explanation: A & B: During the advanced installation of the Secure Gateway, which prompts for all parameter values, you are asked for amongst other pieces of information, the cipher suite. This setting asks you to choose GOV, COM, or ALL. COM represents commercial-strength cipher suites, and GOV represents government-strength cipher suites. When ALL is selected, both suites are available, with preference given to the highest encryption strength. Thus GOV and COM is supported. Incorrect options: C: Only GOV and COM is supported with Citrix SSL Relay Service. D: Only GOV and COM is supported with Citrix SSL Relay Service. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 14

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1Y0-256 QUESTION 111: Scenario: A new security patch for Windows Server 2003 was released. You are preparing to apply the patch to the primary server running Presentation Server overnight. While most users will not likely be online, you wish to prevent users from logging on to the server while you are patching the server. Which server setting is appropriate for this scenario? A. At the server level, notify users of session degradation. B. At farm level, disable logons to the server from the MetaFrame Settings. C. At the farm level, enable users to view sessions during broken connections. D. At the server level, disable logons to the server from the MetaFrame Settings. Answer: D Explanation: D: To disable logons to an MPS server, you should expand the Servers node in the Management Console, right-click the server in question, and click Properties. Then select MetaFrame Settings, uncheck the box next to Enable Logons to This Server. This should prevent users from logging on to the server while you are busy patching. Incorrect options: A: Notifying users of session degradation is not going to prevent them logging on to the server. B: You can't disable logins from the farm node. C: Enabling users to view sessions during broken connections will not prevent them form logging on to the server. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 6 QUESTION 112: Scenario: Your manager has directed you to deploy Web Interface into the DMZ for access by external customers and has asked for your recommendations for maximizing security and minimizing support requirements. Which two options should you recommend? (Choose two) A. Enable workspace control B. Implement Secure Gateway C. Implement Citrix Secure XML D. Enable and default to the Client for Java Answer: B, D Explanation: B: Secure Gateway is a component of the MetaFrame Access Suite that provides the Actualtests.com - The Power of Knowing

1Y0-256 capability to secure access to Presentation Server and Secure Access Manager. Acting as single point of entry into the secured network, Secure Gateway minimizes the attack surface of the environment while ensuring that all the necessary Presentation Server functionality is available to users, regardless of where they are connecting from. Secure Gateway employs SSL to ensure data integrity and security. D: Client for Java allows you to choose the components included with the Java applet. Selecting only the packages required minimizes the size of the data downloaded. One option is the Use a Private Root Certificate setting. If you are implementing Secure Gateway for MetaFrame or SSL Relay and have used certificates that require a root certificate not already available on a client, you can use this option to deliver that certificate to the client. The certificate must be placed into the same folder as the Java client packages on the web server. The Java client is ideal for environments where client installation files cannot be downloaded and installed. Incorrect options: A: Workspace Control is a feature that enables users to quickly disconnect or log off all applications or to reconnect to all applications. It facilitates moving quickly between client devices and gaining access to all their applications when they log on. Not what is required in this case. C: Under the circumstances implementing XML is not viable. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 14 QUESTION 113: Scenario: Certkiller .com has a strict security policy which requires that users only be allowed to change their passwords upon expiration. In addition, users are restricted to two domains. When configuring the MetaFrame Presentation Server site, which three steps are needed to meet these requirements? (Choose three) A. Run discovery to locate the domains. B. Enable the hide all other domains option. C. Select Explicit as the authenticated method. D. Specify the two domains and enable enforcement. E. Allow users to change password only when it expires. F. Use Kerberos authentication to connect to the servers. Answer: C, D, E Explanation: The Explicit Login authentication method is the default setting, this requires the user to provide a user ID and password to log on to the Web Interface. You can choose either Windows domain or Novell NDS authentication. Three general settings apply to either Windows domain or NDS settings. You can allow users to change their passwords. You can also configure two-factor authentication using RSA SecurID or Safeword. The Time Actualtests.com - The Power of Knowing

1Y0-256 To Live value specifies how long a ticket used for explicit authentication is valid before it expires. The default is 200 seconds, but you can adjust this value. To restrict the users to two domains you will need to specify those domains and enable the enforcement of the authentication method. Incorrect options: A: Running discovery to locate the domains is not going to restrict users to the two domains. B: Hide all other domains is not going to comply with the requirements. F: Kerberos authentication will not allow the users to change their own passwords. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 14 QUESTION 114: Scenario: An administrator is configuring a Presentation Server environment for remote access. The Secure Gateway server and the server running Presentation Server will be separated by a firewall that performs Network Address Translation. In this scenario, Web Interface must be configured to use ________. A. Normal addressing B. Alternate addressing C. Secure Gateway with normal addressing D. Secure Gateway with alternate addressing Answer: D Explanation: D: Network address translation (NAT) allows a local area network to use a set of IP addresses internally, while a separate set of addresses is used for external, usually Internet, traffic. Typically, a hardware- or software-based firewall exists between the two networks and is responsible for managing the translation of addresses from the external to the internal, and vice versa. When a user accesses the Web Interface from an external address, you need to ensure that you have properly configured network address translation to ensure the Web Interface returns the appropriate external address for a Presentation Server. Under the circumstances as posed in the question you would need to have Web Interface configured to use Secure Gateway with Alternate addressing. Incorrect options: A: This is the default behavior. The actual address of the Presentation Server is returned to the client. Under the circumstances this option is not desired. B: With alternate address defined on the MetaFrame server the alternate address is returned to the client. C: Secure Gateway with alternate addressing would represent the correct configuration for the Web Interface and not normal addressing under the circumstances. Reference:

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1Y0-256 Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 14 QUESTION 115: Scenario: You plan to enable workspace control in your Presentation implementation. Your security manager has agreed to the implementation as long as a user session cannot be transferred from one device to another without the user taking some proactive action. Which solution would you suggest? A. Allow users to customize workspace control. B. Implement workspace control for all sessions. C. Implement workspace control for disconnected sessions only. D. Do not implement workspace control as it is not a viable option for this scenario. Answer: C Explanation: C: Workspace Control allows a user to quickly disconnect all running applications, log completely out of all running applications, or reconnect to all of the user's applications, whether disconnected or active at another client device. To implement workspace control for disconnected sessions only would thus be the solution. Incorrect options: A: This is not desired. B: Implementing workspace control for all sessions is not going to solve the problem. D: You need to implement workspace control for disconnected sessions only in this scenario. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 14 QUESTION 116: Scenario: Certkiller .com has acquired a new team which is located remotely. The remote users will access published resources on the Presentation Server farm using the ICA Client from across the WAN. Certkiller .com policy dictates that all connections to mission-critical applications such as Microsoft Outlook and SAP must be encrypted with a minimum of 128-bit RC5 level encryption. Which three options are available to secure remote client access to farm? (Choose three.) A. Configure farm properties to require connections at the mandated encryption level B. Configure the server properties to require connections at the mandated encryption levels. C. Configure a policy for the remote users that sets the encryption levels required as Actualtests.com - The Power of Knowing

1Y0-256 minimum requirement. D. Configure the ICA client connection advanced settings for the required encryption levels on all servers in the farm. E. Configure the client options for the published applications, Microsoft Outlook and SAP, that sets the required encryption levels as a minimum. Answer: C, D, E Explanation: ICA connection encryption has configurable settings on both the client and server. On the client side, the desired encryption settings for the session are defined prior to establishing the connection to the MetaFrame server. When the client connects to a MetaFrame server, it attempts to negotiate the use of this encryption level for the session. Three factors may prevent this encryption level from being employed, and consequently, the user being denied access to log on to the MetaFrame server: The first factor is the minimum required encryption level that has been defined for ICA connections on the server. The second factor is whether a MetaFrame user policy has been defined to enforce a minimum encryption level for the user. And if the client is connecting to a published application, the final factor is whether a minimum encryption level has been defined for the published application itself. One of the properties within a published application is the encryption level that will be enforced. Thus options C, D and E is appropriate. Incorrect options: A: This option would not be available. B: This option is not available in this case. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapters 9 & 13 QUESTION 117: When implementing address translation with Secure Gateway, which two options can be designed? (Choose two.) A. IP address B. MAC address C. TCP port number D. UDP port number Answer: A, C Explanation: A & C: When the Secure Gateway Server is employed, this option must be selected along with the corresponding translation type. Choosing a translation type for the Secure Gateway determines how Presentation Server addresses are translated when the Secure Actualtests.com - The Power of Knowing

1Y0-256 Gateway attempts to communicate with a server. A translation option is required only if NAT is employed on a firewall between the Secure Gateway and the MetaFrame server farm. If the translated address option was chosen, you do not populate the address translation map on this page. Instead, you need to populate similar settings on the Secure Gateway Support page. Thus the IP address and TCP port number can be designed. Incorrect options: B & D: Both MAC address and UDP port number is not designed when implementing address translation with Secure Gateway. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapters 14 & 16 QUESTION 118: To configure the Client to use secure proxy settings for Web Interface, which two steps are required? (Choose two.) A. Configure the client device for Secure Proxy. B. Configure the Web Interface to use Secure Proxy. C. Configure Secure Proxy settings on the Presentation Server. D. Configure the Web Interface to use the proxy setting specified on the Client. Answer: A, D Explanation: A: When a proxy server is employed on the client side of the Web Interface, you can define settings here that dictate whether the Presentation Server client must communicate through the proxy server when connecting to a MetaFrame server. These options are the same as those found in the MPS 3.0 Web Interface console. This then means that the Client device should be configured for Secure Proxy. C: Client-Side Proxy is a settings page in the Web Interface console. Settings are configured on this page when you have remote clients that have local proxy servers between themselves and your server. Through these settings, you are able to define whether client connections to the Presentation Servers must go through those client-side proxy servers. By defining these settings on the Web Interface, you can manipulate their ICA client settings, ensuring that they can successfully connect to the Presentation Server. Thus you should configure the Web Interface to use the proxy setting specified on the Client. Incorrect options: B: You need to configure the Client to use proxy settings for Web interface and not the Web Interface. The Web Interface should be configured to use the proxy setting specified on the Client. C: It is the Client that requires configuration. Reference: Todd Mathers, Elias Khnaser, Citrix CCA MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 and 4.0 Actualtests.com - The Power of Knowing

1Y0-256 Exam Cram (Exams 223 and 256), Que Certifications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 14 & 16

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