Oswaal NDA-NA (National Defence Academy / Naval Academy) 12 Solved Papers (2017-2023) General Ability Test - General Studies For 2024 Exam 9789359580784, 9359580783

Citation preview

For 2024 Exam

HIGHLY RECOMMENDED

NDA / NA NATIONAL DEFENCE ACADEMY / NAVAL ACADEMY

YEAR-WISE

12

YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS 2017 - 2023

SOLVED PAPERS

GENERAL ABILITY TEST: GENERAL STUDIES As per Latest Exam Pattern Issued by UPSC

GENERAL ABILITY TEST:

The ONLY book you need to Crack NDA-NA

2017-2023

1

2

3

100% Updated

Extensive Practice

Concept Clarity

Valuable Exam Insights

Exam Analysis

with Fully Solved Apr. & Sep. 2023 Papers

with more than 1500+ Questions & 2 Sample Question Papers

with Detailed Explanations, Mind Maps & Mnemonics

with Tips to crack NDA/NA Exam in the first attempt

with Last 5 Years’ Chapter-wise Trend Analysis

4

(1)

5

3rd EDITION, YEAR 2023-24

ISBN

“9789359580784”

NDA/NA

SYLLABUS COVERED

PUBLISHED BY

C OPYRIG HT

RESERVED BY THE PUBLISHERS

All rights reserved. No part of this book may be reproduced, stored in a retrieval system, or transmitted, in any form or by any means, without written permission from the publishers. The author and publisher will gladly receive information enabling them to rectify any error or omission in subsequent editions.

OSWAAL BOOKS & LEARNING PVT. LTD. 1/11, Sahitya Kunj, M.G. Road, Agra - 282002, (UP) India

1010, Cambourne Business Centre Cambridge, Cambridgeshire CB 236DP, United kingdom

0562-2857671

[email protected]

www.OswaalBooks.com

DI SC L A IMER This book is published by Oswaal Books and Learning Pvt Ltd (“Publisher”) and is intended solely for educational use, to enable students to practice for examinations/tests and reference. The contents of this book primarily comprise a collection of questions that have been sourced from previous examination papers. Any practice questions and/or notes included by the Publisher are formulated by placing reliance on previous question papers and are in keeping with the format/pattern/guidelines applicable to such papers. The Publisher expressly disclaims any liability for the use of, or references to, any terms or terminology in the book, which may not be considered appropriate or may be considered offensive, in light of societal changes. Further, the contents of this book, including references to any persons, corporations, brands, political parties, incidents, historical events and/or terminology within the book, if any, are not intended to be offensive, and/or to hurt, insult or defame any person (whether living or dead), entity, gender, caste, religion, race, etc. and any interpretation to this effect is unintended and purely incidental. While we try to keep our publications as updated and accurate as possible, human error may creep in. We expressly disclaim liability for errors and/or omissions in the content, if any, and further disclaim any liability for any loss or damages in connection with the use of the book and reference to its contents”.

( 2 ) Edition Kindle

PREFACE 

“We fight to win and win with a knockout because there are no runners up in war.” — General JJ Singh

The National Defence Academy is an iconic institution and hallmark of global excellence in the sphere of military education. Over the years it has emerged as a unique military academy, attracting the best of youth from our nation and also from friendly foreign countries and transforming them into officers and gentlemen. National Defence Academy or NDA exam is conducted twice a year by Union Public Service Commission for admission to the Army, Navy, and Air Force wings of NDA and Indian Naval Academy Course (INAC). In 2023, 4.5 Lacs students applied for the NDA examination, the opportunity you get from the Indian Armed Forces is just limitless, which helps in enhancing your personality traits. For a youngster who is aspiring to get a job full of challenges and excitement, then there is no better job than the defence. This book aims to make aspirants exam-ready, boost their confidence and help them achieve better results in NDA. By making learning Simple, we are also making better careers and a better life for every student. Every day we are moving ahead pursuing our noble cause of spreading knowledge. This set of solved question papers is designed to enrich students with ample and exam-oriented practice so that they can clear NDA examinations with extraordinary results. Not one or two but 12 Previous Year Solved Question Paper (2017 to 2023) to focus on polishing every topic. Thorough studying of this book will boost my confidence and familiarise me with exam patterns. Some benefits of studying from Oswaal NDA 12 Previous year solved question papers: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 7.

100% updated with Fully Solved Paper of April & September 2023. Concept Clarity with detailed explanations of 2017 (I) to 2023 Papers. Extensive Practice with 1200+ Questions and Two Sample Question Papers. Crisp Revision with Mind Maps. Expert Tips helps you get expert knowledge master & crack NDA/NA in first attempt. Exam insights with 5 Year-wise (2023-2019) Trend Analysis, empowering students to be 100% exam ready.

Our Heartfelt Gratitude Finally, we would like to thank our authors, editors, and reviewers. Special thanks to our students who send us suggestions and constantly help improve our books. To stay true to our motto of ‘Learning Made Simple’, we constantly strive to present information in ways that are easy to understand as well as remember. Wish you all Happy Learning! All the Best!! TEAM OSWAAL

(3)

I courageuosly move in the direction of my dreams hat I lize w trol a e r n I ot Co d cann the goo t e l and ngs flow thi

I am Sup ported fully by t he universe

I am wra pp loving en ed in the ergy of universe the I allow m y desires to flow to me now

Affirmations for the new

"YOU"

sly I effortles y attract m desires

Accept yourself, love yourself, and keep moving forward. If you want to fly, you have to give up what weighs you down.

o, I create When I let g mething space for so better.

All of my thoughts are aligned with m y desires

en to I am op es perienc new ex e lcom and we ce into n a abund my life

I have the p ower to shift my m indset and see the goo d in everything .

CONTENTS g g g g g g g g

Tips to Crack NDA in the First Attempt Syllabus Scheme of Examination Height and Weight Standards NDA vs CDS: Know All the Similarities & Differences Trend Analysis from (2023-2019) NDA/NA 2023 - Solved Paper - I NDA/NA 2023 - Solved Paper - II

6 - 6 7 - 8 9 - 9 10 - 12 13 - 14 15 - 15 19 - 34 35 - 56

 Mind Maps

1 - 24

 NDA/NA 2022 - Solved Paper - I

25 - 44

 NDA/NA 2022 - Solved Paper - II

45 - 66

 NDA/NA 2021 - Solved Paper - I

67 - 89

 NDA/NA 2021 - Solved Paper - II

90 - 112

 NDA/NA 2020 - Solved Paper - I

113 - 123

 NDA/NA 2019 - Solved Paper - I

124 - 134

 NDA/NA 2019 - Solved Paper - II

135 - 145

 NDA/NA 2018 - Solved Paper - I

146 - 156

 NDA/NA 2018 - Solved Paper - II

157 - 168

 NDA/NA 2017 - Solved Paper - I

169 - 181

 NDA/NA 2017 - Solved Paper - II

182 - 192

 NDA/NA Sample Question Paper - I

193 - 204

 NDA/NA Sample Question Paper - II

205 - 216 qqq

Keep yourself updated! For the latest NDA updates throughout the Academic year 2023-24 Scan the QR code below

(5)

Tips to Crack NDA in the First Attempt

(6)

Syllabus PAPER-II GENERAL ABILITY SYLLABUS The general ability section comprises of two parts which are mentioned below: Part – A English: The English syllabus covers the topics like vocabulary, Grammar and usage, comprehension and cohesion in extended text to test the candidate’s proficiency in English. Part – B General Knowledge: The question paper comprises of general knowledge and covers the subjects that include Physics, Chemistry, Social Studies, General Science, Geography and Current Events. Section A – Physics Motion of objects, Newton’s Laws of Motion, Force and Momentum, Parallelogram of Forces, Stability and Equilibrium of bodies, Gravitation, elementary ideas of work, Velocity and Acceleration, Power and Energy, Sound waves and their properties, Simple musical instruments, Natural and Artificial Magnets, Properties of a Magnet, Earth as a Magnet, Siphon, Levers, Balloon, Pumps, Hydrometer, Pressure Cooker, Thermos Flask, Gramophone, Telegraphs, Telephone, Periscope, Telescope, Microscope, Mariner’s Compass; Lightening Conductors, Safety Fuses, Simple Pendulum. Simple Pulleys, Physical Properties and States of Matter, Mass, Weight, Volume, Density and Specific Gravity, Principle of Archimedes, Pressure Barometer, Effects of Heat, change of State and Latent Heat, Modes of transference of Heat, Rectilinear propagation of Light, Reflection and refraction. Spherical mirrors and Lenses. Human Eye, Static and Current Electricity, Measurement of temperature and heat, conductors and Non-conductors, Ohm’s Law, Simple Electrical Circuits, Heating, Lighting and Magnetic effects of Current, Measurement of Electrical Power, Primary and Secondary Cells, Use of X-Rays. Section B – Chemistry Preparation and Properties of Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen and Carbon-Di-oxide, Oxidation and Reduction, Material used in the preparation of substances like soap, Glass, Ink, Paper, Cement, Paints, Safety Matches, and Gun-Powder, Carbon – different forms, Physical and Chemical changes. Symbols, Formulas and simple Chemical Equations, Law of Chemical Combination (excluding problems). Properties of Air and Water, Acids, bases and salts, Elements, Mixtures and Compounds, Fertilizers – Natural and Artificial, Elementary ideas about the Structure of Atom, Atomic, Equivalent and Molecular Weights, Valency. Section C – General Science Basis of Life – Cells, Protoplasms and Tissues, Constituents of food, Balanced Diet, Achievements of Eminent Scientists, Difference between the living and non-living, Elementary knowledge of human Body and its important organs, Food – Source of Energy for man, Growth and Reproduction in Plants and Animals, Common Epidemics, their causes and prevention, The Solar System – Meteors and Comets, Eclipses. Section D – History Freedom Movement in India, Bhoodan, Sarvodaya, National Integration and Welfare State, Basic Teachings of Mahatma Gandhi, A broad survey of Indian History, with emphasis on Culture and Civilisation, Elementary knowledge of Five Year Plans of India, Elementary study of Indian Constitution and (7)

...CONTD. Administration, Panchayati Raj, Forces shaping the modern world; Renaissance, Exploration and Discovery; War of American Independence, French Revolution, Industrial Revolution and Russian Revolution, Impact of Science and Technology on Society, Concept of one World, United Nations, Panchsheel, Democracy, Socialism and Communism, Co-operatives and Community Development, Role of India in the present world. Section E – Geography Origin of Earth, Weathering – Mechanical and Chemical, Earthquakes and volcanoes, Atmosphere and its composition, Temperature and Atmospheric Pressure, Rocks and their classification, Planetary Winds, cyclones and Anti-cyclones, Humidity, Condensation and Precipitation, Major Natural regions of the World, Important Sea ports and main sea, land and air routes of India. Main items of Imports and Exports of India, Types of Climate, The Earth, its shape and size, Lattitudes and Longitudes, Concept of time, International Date Line, Movements of Earth and their effects, Ocean Currents and Tides, Regional Geography of India – Climate, Natural vegetation. Mineral and Power resources, location and distribution of agricultural and industrial activities. Section F – Current Events Current important world events, Knowledge of Important events that have happened in India in the recent years, prominent personalities – both Indian and International including those connected with cultural activities and sports. qqq

(8)

Scheme of Examination

1. The subjects of the written examination, the time allowed and the maximum marks allotted to each subject will be as follows:— Subject

Code

Duration

Maximum Marks

Mathematics

01

2½ Hours

300

General Ability Test

02

2½ Hours

600

Total

900

SSB Test/Interview:

900

2. THE PAPERS IN ALL THE SUBJECTS WILL CONSIST OF OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS ONLY. THE QUESTION PAPERS (TEST BOOKLETS) OF MATHEMATICS AND PART “B” OF GENERAL ABILITY TEST WILL BE SET BILINGUALLY IN HINDI AS WELL AS ENGLISH. 3. In the question papers, wherever necessary, questions involving the metric system of Weights and Measures only will be set. 4. Candidates must write the papers in their own hand. In no circumstances will they be allowed the help of a scribe to write answers for them. 5. The Commission have discretion to fix qualifying marks in any or all the subjects at the examination. 6.  The candidates are not permitted to use calculator or Mathematical or logarithmic table for answering objective type papers (Test Booklets). They should not therefore, bring the same inside the Examination Hall.

(9)

Height and Weight Standards

For Female Candidates joining NDA (Army): Age (yrs)

Height (cm)

Minimum weight for all ages

Age: 17 to 20 yrs

Age: 20 + 01 day - 30 yrs

Age : 30 + 01 Day - 40 yrs

Age: Above yrs

Weight (kg)

Weight (kg)

Weight (kg)

Weight (kg)

Weight (kg)

140

35.3

43.1

45.1

47.0

49.0

141

35.8

43.7

45.7

47.7

49.7

142

36.3

44.4

46.4

48.4

50.4

143

36.8

45.0

47.0

49.1

51.1

144

37.3

45.6

47.7

49.8

51.8

145

37.8

46.3

48.4

50.5

52.6

146

38.4

46.9

49.0

51.2

53.3

147

38.9

47.5

49.7

51.9

54.0

148

39.4

48.2

50.4

52.6

54.8

149

40.0

48.8

51.1

53.3

55.5

150

40.5

49.5

51.8

54.0

56.3

151

41.0

50.2

52.4

54.7

57.0

152

41.6

50.8

53.1

55.4

57.8

153

42.1

51.5

53.8

56.2

58.5

154

42.7

52.2

54.5

56.9

59.3

155

43.2

52.9

55.3

57.7

60.1

156

43.8

53.5

56.0

58.4

60.8

157

44.4

54.2

56.7

59.2

61.6

158

44.9

54.9

57.4

59.9

62.4

159

45.5

55.6

58.1

60.7

63.2

160

46.1

56.3

58.9

61.4

64.0

161

46.7

57.0

59.6

62.2

64.8

162

47.2

57.7

60.4

63.0

65.6

163

47.8

58.5

61.1

63.8

66.4

( 10 )

40

...CONTD. For Male Candidates joining NDA (Army): Height requirement varies as per the stream of entry. Weight should be proportionate to height as per the chart given below:Age (yrs)

Minimum weight Age: 17 to for all ages 20 yrs

Age: 20 + 01 day - 30 yrs

Age : 30 + 01 Day - 40 yrs

Age: Above 40 yrs

Height (cm) 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174

Weight (kg) 35.3 35.8 36.3 36.8 37.3 37.8 38.4 38.9 39.4 40.0 40.5 41.0 41.6 42.1 42.7 43.2 43.8 44.4 44.9 45.5 46.1 46.7 47.2 47.8 48.4 49.0 49.6 50.2 50.8 51.4 52.0 52.6 53.3 53.9 54.5

Weight (kg) 45.1 45.7 46.4 47.0 47.7 48.4 49.0 49.7 50.4 51.1 51.8 52.4 53.1 53.8 54.5 55.3 56.0 56.7 57.4 58.1 58.9 59.6 60.4 61.1 61.9 62.6 63.4 64.1 64.9 65.7 66.5 67.3 68.0 68.8 69.6

Weight (kg) 47.0 47.7 48.4 49.1 49.8 50.5 51.2 51.9 52.6 53.3 54.0 54.7 55.4 56.2 56.9 57.7 58.4 59.2 59.9 60.7 61.4 62.2 63.0 63.8 64.6 65.3 66.1 66.9 67.7 68.5 69.4 70.2 71.0 71.8 72.7

Weight (kg) 49.0 49.7 50.4 51.1 51.8 52.6 53.3 54.0 54.8 55.5 56.3 57.0 57.8 58.5 59.3 60.1 60.8 61.6 62.4 63.2 64.0 64.8 65.6 66.4 67.2 68.1 68.9 69.7 70.6 71.4 72.3 73.1 74.0 74.8 75.7

Weight (kg) 43.1 43.7 44.4 45.0 45.6 46.3 46.9 47.5 48.2 48.8 49.5 50.2 50.8 51.5 52.2 52.9 53.5 54.2 54.9 55.6 56.3 57.0 57.7 58.5 59.2 59.9 60.6 61.4 62.1 62.8 63.6 64.3 65.1 65.8 66.6

( 11 )

...CONTD. Age (yrs)

Minimum weight Age: 17 to for all ages 20 yrs

Age: 20 + 01 day - 30 yrs

Age : 30 + 01 Day - 40 yrs

Age: Above 40 yrs

Height (cm) 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200 201 202 203 204 205 206 207 208 209 210

Weight (kg) 55.1 55.8 56.4 57.0 57.7 58.3 59.0 59.6 60.3 60.9 61.6 62.3 62.9 63.6 64.3 65.0 65.7 66.4 67.0 67.7 68.4 69.1 69.9 70.6 71.3 72.0 72.7 73.4 74.2 74.9 75.6 76.4 77.1 77.9 78.6 79.4

Weight (kg) 70.4 71.2 72.1 72.9 73.7 74.5 75.4 76.2 77.0 77.9 78.7 79.6 80.4 81.3 82.2 83.0 83.9 84.8 85.7 86.6 87.5 88.4 89.3 90.2 91.1 92.0 92.9 93.8 94.8 95.7 96.7 97.6 98.6 99.5 100.5 101.4

Weight (kg) 73.5 74.3 75.2 76.0 76.9 77.8 78.6 79.5 80.4 81.3 82.1 83.0 83.9 84.8 85.7 86.6 87.6 88.5 89.4 90.3 91.3 92.2 93.1 94.1 95.0 96.0 97.0 97.9 98.9 99.9 100.9 101.8 102.8 103.8 104.8 105.8

Weight (kg) 76.6 77.4 78.3 79.2 80.1 81.0 81.9 82.8 83.7 84.6 85.6 86.5 87.4 88.4 89.3 90.3 91.2 92.2 93.1 94.1 95.1 96.0 97.0 98.0 99.0 100.0 101.0 102.0 103.0 104.0 105.1 106.1 107.1 108.2 109.2 110.3

Weight (kg) 67.4 68.1 68.9 69.7 70.5 71.3 72.1 72.9 73.7 74.5 75.3 76.1 76.9 77.8 78.6 79.4 80.3 81.1 81.9 82.8 83.7 84.5 85.4 86.2 87.1 88.0 88.9 89.8 90.7 91.6 92.5 93.4 94.3 95.2 96.1 97.0

( 12 )

NDA vs CDS: Know All the Similarities & Differences The National Defence Academy (NDA) and the Combined Defence Services (CDS) Exams are gateways to the Indian Armed Forces. Though both the exams are conducted by the Union Public Service Commission, i.e. UPSC, there are many similarities and differences in the recruitment, training, salary, perks and promotion opportunities, etc. For those who are planning to join Indian Army, Navy or Air Force, it is essential to know the differences and similarities in NDA and CDS. The similarities are given below: Parameter

NDA

CDS

16.5-19.5 Years

19-25 Years

Men only

Men & Women

10+2

Degree

Scheme of Examination

Written + SSB

Written + SSB

Frequency of the Exam

Twice/Year

Twice/Year

Duration of Training

4-4.5 Years 3 Yrs. at NDA and 1 Yr. at IMA (For Army cadets) 3 Yrs. at NDA and 1 Yr. at Naval Academy (For Naval cadets)/ 3 Yrs. at NDA and 1 & 1/2 Yrs. at AFA Hyderabad (For AF cadets)

18 months for IMA Cadets 37-40 months for Navy Officers 74 months for Air Force Officers

Training Centres

National Defence Academy, Khadakwasla, Pune Indian Military Academy, Dehradun Indian Naval Academy, Ezhimala Indian Air Force Academy, Hyderabad

Indian Military Academy (IMA), Dehradun for Army Cadets Indian Naval Academy, Ezhimala for Navy Cadets Indian Air Force Academy, Hyderabad for Air Force Officers Officers Training Academy (OTA), Chennai

Degrees awarded

Army Cadets - B.Sc./B.Sc. (Computer)/BA /B.Tech. degree Naval Cadets - B.Tech. degree Air Force Cadets B.Tech. degree

Army Cadets in IMA - PG Diploma in ‘Military and Defence Management OTA Chennai – Post Graduate Diploma in Defence Management and Strategic Studies

Age Eligibility Educational Qualification

Rank assigned after training Stipend during training

Lieutenant

Lieutenant

Rs. 21,000/- p.m. (fixed)

Rs. 21,000/- p.m. (fixed)

( 13 )

...CONTD. Promotional Avenues Rank

Min. Commissioned Service for Promotion NDA Officer

CDS Officer

Lieutenant

On Commission

On Commission

Captain

02 Years

02 Years

Major

06 years

06 years

Lieutenant Colonel

13 years

13 years

Colonel(Selection)

15 years

15 years

Colonel (Time Scale)

26 years

26 years

Brigadier

On Selection

23 years

Major General

On Selection

25 years

Lieutenant General

On Selection

28 years

General

On Selection

No restrictions qqq

( 14 )

Trend Analysis (2023-2019) No. of Questions in Subjects

2023

2022

2021

2021

2020

2019

I

I

I

II

I

I

Physics

22

25

21

23

25

23

Chemistry

19

15

18

15

17

18

General Science

9

10

12

12

4

10

History

18

17

20

19

15

19

Geography

17

15

14

16

13

11

Current Events

15

18

15

15

26

19

Total

100

100

100

100

100

100

( 15 )

ORDER FORM JEE (MAIN) 15 Mock Test Papers (For 2024 Exam) JEE (MAIN) 15 Mock Test Papers (Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry) JEE (MAIN) Year-wise 22 Solved Papers(All Shifts) (For 2023 Exam)

National Talent Search Exam (NTSE) Year-wise Solved Papers (2011 -2021) NTSE 10 Yearwise Solved Papers 2011-2021 NRA Question Bank 10th Pass

Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry JEE (MAIN) Chapter-wise & Topic-wise Solved papers (2019-2023) Question Bank (For 2024 Exam) Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry JEE (MAIN) 24 Online Previous Years’ Solved Papers (All Shifts) 2023 (For 2024 Exam) Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry JEE(Main) RMT Cards Physics Part - I, Physics Part - II, Chemistry Part - I Chemistry Part - II, Mathematics Part -I, Mathematics Part - II JEE Advanced (For 2024 Exam) 22 Year-wise Solved Papers (2002-2023) Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry JEE Advanced 10 Mock Test Papers Paper 1 & Paper 2 (For 2024 Exam) JEE Advanced 10 Mock Test Papers (Paper-1 & 2) GATE 14 Year-wise (For 2024 Exam) Solved Papers (2010 to 2023)

Quantitative Aptitude, Logical Reasoning, General Awareness, General English NRA Question Bank 12th Pass Quantitative Aptitude, Logical Reasoning, General Awareness, General English NRA Question Bank Graduation Pass Quantitative Aptitude, Logical Reasoning, General Awareness, General English Objective General English Objective General English Objective Quantitative Aptitude Objective Quantitative Aptitude CAT CAT 15 Mock Test Papers, CAT 25 Years’ Chapterwise & Topicwise Solved Papers (1990-2008) & (2017-2022), CAT 10 Years’ Chapterwise & Topicwise Solved Papers (2005-2008) & (20172022), CAT 5 Years’ Solved Papers Shift-wise (2018-2022) CLAT & AILET 10 Solved Papers (For 2024 Exam)

GATE 14 Yearwise Solved Paper (General Aptitude), GATE 14 Yearwise Solved Paper (Engineering Mathematics) GATE 14 Years’ (For 2024 Exam) Chapterwise & Topicwise Solved Papers (2010 to 2023) GATE 14 Years’ Chapterwise & Topicwise Solved Papers (General Aptitude), GATE 14 Years’ Chapterwise & Topicwise Solved Papers (Engineering Mathematics) NEET (UG) 36 Years’ Solved Papers (For 2024 Exam) Chapterwise & Topicwise 1988-2023 Biology, Physics, Chemistry NEET (UG) 18 Year-wise Solved Papers (2006 to 2023) Biology, Physics, Chemistry

CLAT & AILET 10 Year-wise Solved Papers CLAT (2020-2023) & AILET (2018-2023) UGC-NET UGC NET Paper-1 Year-Wise-13 Solved Papers (2015-2023) (For 2024 Exam) General Aptitude, UGC NET Paper-1-15 Years’ Question Bank Chapterwise & Topicwise Solved Papers (20092023) General Aptitude & UGC NET Paper-1 - 15 Mock Test Papers (For 2024 Exam) General Aptitude RRB NTPC 2023 1st Stage Exam RRB NTPC 12 Previous Years’ Papers 2016 (All Shifts) & 2019 (Two Shifts) +10 Mock Test Papers UPSC CSE Prelims 10 Years’ Solved Papers (2014 -2023) English Medium (For 2024 Exam) UPSC CSE Prelims General Studies (Paper-1), UPSC CSE Prelims General Studies (Paper-2) (CSAT)

NEET (UG) 15 Mock Test Papers (For 2024 Exam) Physics, Chemistry, Biology

UPSC CSE NCERT One for All (For 2024 Exam)

NEET (UG) RMT Cards Physics Part-1, Physics Part-2, Chemistry Part-1, Chemistry Part2, Biology Part-1, Biology Part-2 Handbook Class 11 & 12, Entrance Exams (Engineering & Medical)

Polity, Economy, History, Geography, General Science UPSC Power Bank For UPSC CSE & State PSCs Exam (For 2024 Exam) Ancient & Medieval History, Art & Culture, Geography, Indian Polity, Indian Economy, Science & Tech., Environment & Ecology, Modern History

Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics & Biology Vedic Maths

UPSC CSE Prelims Mock Test Papers (For 2024 Exam)

Vedic Maths (Ashima Sekhri)

15 Mock Test Papers General Studies Paper-1, 15 Mock Test Papers (CSAT) General Studies Paper-2

CUET (UG) Mock Test Papers (For 2024 Exam) English, Accountancy, Biology, Business Studies, Chemistry, Mathematics/Applied Mathematics, Entrepreneurship, Computer Science/Informatics Practices, Sociology, Economics, Geography, History, Physics, Political Science, Psychology, Physical Education, General Test CDS Chapter-Wise & Topic-Wise Solved Papers (2014-2023)

UPSC CSE (Pre) 29 Years’ Solved Papers (1995-2023) (For 2024 Exam) UPSC 29 Years’ Topicwise Solved Question Paper Prelims GS Paper -1 & 2 UPPSC Prelims 15 Year-Wise Solved Papers UPPSC Prelims 15 Year-Wise Solved Papers GS Paper-1 & Paper-2

Elementary Mathematics, English, General Knowledge NDA-NA Chapter-Wise & Topic-Wise Solved Papers (2014-2023) Mathematics, General Ability Test: English, General Ability Test: General Studies CUET (UG) General Test Question Bank (For 2024 Exam) Quantitative Aptitude, Logical Reasoning, General Awareness

CDS Year wise 11 Solved Papers (2018-2023) Elementary Mathematics, English, General Knowledge NDA-NA Year-wise 12 Solved Papers (2017-2023) Mathematics, General Ability Test: English, General Ability Test: General Studies

Exam Preparation Books for Class 1 to 12 : CBSE, CISCE Boards & Karnataka Board | OLYMPIADS | JEE | NEET | CUET | NDA | CDS | CAT | GATE | UPSC | UGC NET | NRA CET & more

We are available in all leading e-commerce platforms and all good bookstores.

( 16 )

Exclusive School Boos Supplier WEST KAMENG BANGLORE RAJKOT

MAHARASHTRA

ANDHRA PRADESH

Sri Vikas Book Centre, 9848571114, 9440715700,

ASSAM

PUNE JALNA

Madhusheela Books & Stationery, 7875899892 Anil Paper Mart, 9422722522, (02482) 230733

KARNATAKA

CHENNAI

Bookmark-IT, 7305151653

GUJRAT

HYDERABAD

Dutta Book Stall, 8729948473 Satish Agencies, 8861630123 Royal Stationers, 9824207514

ANDHRA PRADESH

VIJAYAWADA

Akshaya Books Corner, 9666155555

PORTBLAIR

Krishna Book Centre, 9474205570, Kumar Book Depot, 9932082455, Kumar Book Depot, 9932082455, Sree aditya Book Centre, 8332972720, 7013300914

PATNA

TELANGANA

Sri Balaji Book Depot , 9676996199, (040) 27613300

WEST BENGAL

United Book House, 9831344622

Our Distributors

VISAKHAPATHAM JBD Educational, 9246632691, 9246633693, Sri Rajeshwari Book Link, 9848036014

GUWAHATI

KOLKATA

TAMIL NADU

INDORE

Bhaiya Industries, 9893326853, Sushil Prakashan,(0731) 2503333, 2535892, 9425322330, Bhaiya Store, 9425318103, Arun Prakashan, 9424890785, Bhaiya Book Centre, 9424081874, Seva Suppliers, 9826451052

ANDAMAN & NICOBAR ISLAND

JABALPUR SAGAR

ASSAM

KATNI

Shri Mahavir Agency, 9425363412

BHOPAL

Gupta Brother, 9644482444

Book Emporium, 9675972993, 6000763186, Ashok Publication, 7896141127, Kayaan Enterprises, (0361) 2630443, Orchid Book house, 9864624209, Newco, 9864178188

BIHAR

Nova Publisher & Distributors, (0612) 2666404, Shri Durga Pustak Mandir, 9334477386, Sharda Pustak Bhandar, 9334259293, Vikas Book Depot, 9504780402, Alka Book Agency, 9835655005, Metro Book(E&C), Ishu Pustak Bhandar, 8294576789, Gyan Ganga Limited, 6203900312, Ishu Pustak Bhandar, ( E & C ), 9334186300/8294576789

UJJAIN

PUNE

Vinay Pustak Sadan, 8962362667, Anand Books and Stationers, 9425323508 Princi Book Depot, Sagar, 9977277011 Shreenath Book Depot, 9827544045

MAHARASHTRA

Natraj Book Depot, (020) 24485054, 9890054092, Vikas Book House, 9921331187, Pravin Sales, 9890683475, New Saraswati Granth Bhandar, 9422323859, Akshar Books & Stationary, 7385089789, Vardhaman Educational, 9860574354, Yash Book Centre, 9890156763, Pragati Book Centre, (ISC), 9850039311, Praveen Sales, Pragati Book Centre, Pune ( E & C ), 9850039311 Shree Sainath Agencies, 7350294089, Maya Book Centre, (ISC), 9372360150 Vidyarthi Sales Agencies, 9819776110, New Student Agencies, 7045065799, Shivam Books & Stationery, 8619805332

Pustak Bhandar, 7870834225

CHATTISGARH

AURANGABAD MUMBAI

AMBIKAPUR

Saini Brothers, 9425582561, M.P Department Stores, 9425254264

JALGAON

BOKARO BHILAI

Bokaro Student Friends Pvt. Ltd, Bokaro, 7277931285 Anil Book Depot, 9425234260

LATUR KOLHAPUR

Yash Book House, 9637936999, Shri Ganesh Pustakalay, 9730172188 Granth the Book World, 9922295522

KORBA

Kitab Ghar, Korba ( E & C ), 9425226528

NANDED

MUZAFFARPUR

DURG

RAIPUR RAIGARH DELHI

Bhagwati Bhawani Book Depot, 0788-2327620, 9827473100

NAGPUR

Sharma Book Depot & Stat. (ISC), 9421393040

Laxmi Pustakalay and Stationers, (0712) 2727354, Vijay Book Depot, 9860122094

Shri Ramdev Traders, 9981761797, Gupta Pustak Mandir, 7974220323, Anil Publication, 9691618258/7999078802

NASHIK

Renuka Book distributor, 9765406133, Novelty Book Depot, 9657690220, Karamveer Book Depot, 9923966466, Arun Book & Stationers, 9423110953 Abhang Pustakalaya, 9823470756/9175940756 Rahul Book Centre, 9970849681, New India Book House, 9623123458

DELHI

YAVATMAL

Shri Ganesh Pustkalaya, 9423131275

Sindhu Book Deopt, 9981935763

Mittal Books, (011) 23288887, 9899037390, Singhania Book & Stationer, 9212028238, AoneBooks, New Delhi, 8800497047, Radhey Book Depot, 9818314141, Batheja Super Store, 9871833924, Lov Dev & Sons, Delhi ( E & C ), 9811182352, Zombozone, 9871274082, LDS Marketing, 9811182352/9999353491

DHULE VASAI

Navjeevan Book Stall, 7020525561

Prime Book Centre, Vasai, 9890293662

ODISHA A. K. Mishra Agencies, 9437025991, 9437081319

GUJARAT

CUTTACK

BHAVNAGAR DAHOD VAPI

Patel Book, 9898184248, 9824386112, 9825900335, Zaveri Agency, 9979897312, 9979890330, Hardik Book Agency, (ISC) 079-24110043, 9904659821 Samir Book Stall, Bhavnagar (ISC) 9586305305 Collegian Book Corner, 9925501981 Goutam Book Sellers, 9081790813

BHUBANESHWAR M/s Pragnya, 8847888616, 9437943777, Padmalaya, 9437026922, Bidyashree, 9937017070, Books Godown, 7894281110 BARIPADA Trimurti Book World, 9437034735 KEONJHAR Students corner, 7008435418

VALSAD NAVSARI

Mahavir Stationers, 9429474177 College Store, (ISC) NO CALL 02637-258642, 9825099121

AMBALA PATIALA

VADODARA

Umakant Book Sellers & Stationer, 9624920709

HARYANA

FEROZPUR LUDHIANA

ROHTAK

Manish Traders, 9812556687, Swami Kitab Ghar, 9355611088,

CHANDIGARH

REWARI

Sanjay book depot, 9255447231

AHMEDABAD

SURAT

BALLABGARH HISAR BHUNA

BOKARO RANCHI DUMKA HUBLI BANGLORE

BELLERI ERNAKULAM KOTTAYAM TRIVANDRUM CALICUT

Shopping Point, 9824108663

Babu Ram Pradeep Kumar, 9813214692

PUNJAB

JALANDHAR

Bharat Book Depot, 7988455354 Goel Sons, 9463619978, Adarsh Enterprises, 9814347613

Cheap Book Store, 9872223458, 9878258592, City Book Shop, 9417440753, Subhash Book Depot, 9876453625, Paramvir Enterprises, 9878626248 Sita Ram book Depot, 9463039199, 7696141911 Amit Book, 9815807871, Gupta Brothers, 9888200206, Bhatia Book Centre, 9815277131 Mohindra Book Depot, 9814920226

RAJASTHAN

Laxmi General Store, Ajmer, 0145- 2428942 9460652197 Vardhman Book Depot, 9571365020, 8003221190 Raj Traders, 9309232829

Kashi Ram Kishan lal, 9289504004, 8920567245 Natraj Book Distributors, 7988917452

AJMER KOTA

Khurana Book Store, 9896572520

BHILWARA

JAMMU

JAIPUR

Sahitya Sangam, 9419190177

UDAIPUR

Nakoda Book Depot, (01482) 243653, 9214983594, Alankar Book Depot, 9414707462 Ravi Enterprises, 9829060694, Saraswati Book House, (0141) 2610823, 9829811155, Goyal Book Distt., 9460983939, 9414782130 Sunil Book Store, 9828682260

Crown Book Distributor & Publishers, (0651) 2213735, 9431173904, Pustak Mandir, 9431115138, Vidyarthi Pustak Bhandar, 9431310228

AGARTALA

Book Corner, 8794894165, 8984657146, Book Emporium, 9089230412

KARNATAKA

COIMBATORE

JHARKHAND

Bokaro Student Friends, (0654) 2233094, 7360021503, Bharati Bhawan Agencies, 9431740797

JODHPUR

Krishna book house, 9739847334, Hema Book Stores, 9986767000,

Chatinya book centre, 9886064731

PUDUCHERRY

Academic Book House, (0484) 2376613, H & C Store, 9864196344, Surya Book House, 9847124217, 9847238314 Book Centre, (0481) 2566992 Academic Book House, (0471) 2333349, 9447063349, Ponni Book Stall, 9037591721

TRICHY

KERALA

Aman Book Stall, (0495) 2721282,

MADHYA PRADESH

CHHINDWARA

Pustak Bhawan, ( E & C ), 8982150100

GWALIOR

Agarwal Book Depot, 9425116210

TRIPURA

TAMIL NADU

Renuka Book Distributor, (0836) 2244124, Vidyamandir Book Distributors, 9980773976 CHENNAI

Sapna Book House Pvt. Ltd., 9980513242, Hema Book World, (Chamrajpet) (ISC) 080-40905110, 9945731121

Second Hand Book Stall, 9460004745

SALEM

THENI MADURAI VELLORE

HYDERABAD

Majestic Book House, (0422) 2384333, CBSC Book Shop, 9585979752

Arraba Book Traders, (044) 25387868, 9841459105, M.R. Book Store (044) 25364596, Kalaimagal Store, (044) 5544072, 9940619404, Vijaya Stores, 9381037417, Bookmark It-Books & Stat. Store, 7305151653, M.K. Store, 9840030099, Tiger Books Pvt. Ltd., 9710447000, New Mylai Stationers, 9841313062, Prince Book House, Chennai, 0444-2053926, 9952068491, S K Publishers & Distributors, 9789865544, Dharma Book Shop, 8667227171 Sri Lakshmi Book Seller, 7871555145 Pattu book centre, 9894816280

P.R.Sons Book Seller, 9443370597, Rasi Publication, 9894816280 Maya Book Centre, 9443929274 Selvi Book Shoppe, 9843057435, Jayam Book Centre, 9894658036 G.K book centre and collections, 9894517994

TELANGANA

Sri Balaji Book Depot, (040) 27613300, 9866355473, Shah Book House, 9849564564 Vishal Book Distributors, 9246333166, Himalaya Book World, 7032578527

( 17 )

0808

VIJAYAWADA

...CONTD. UTTARAKHAND

GORAKHPUR

Central Book House, 9935454590, Friends & Co., 9450277154, Dinesh book depot, 9125818274, Friends & Co., 9450277154

DEHRADUN

Inder Book Agencies, 9634045280, Amar Book Depot , 8130491477, Goyal Book Store, 9897318047, New National Book House, 9897830283/9720590054

JHANSI

Bhanu Book Depot, 9415031340

MUSSORIE

Ram Saran Dass Chanda kiran, 0135-2632785, 9761344588

KANPUR

Radha News Agency, 8957247427, Raj Book Dist., 9235616506, H K Book Distributors, 9935146730, H K Book Distributors, 9506033137/9935146730

UTTAR PRADESH

LUCKNOW

Vyapar Sadan, 7607102462, Om Book Depot, 7705871398, Azad Book Depot Pvt. Ltd., 7317000250, Book Sadan, 9839487327, Rama Book Depot(Retail), 7355078254,

Ashirwad Book Depot, 9235501197, Book.com, 7458922755, Universal Books,

9450302161, Sheetla Book Agency, 9235832418, Vidyarthi Kendra Publisher & Distributor Pvt Ltd, (Gold), 9554967415, Tripathi Book House, 9415425943

AGRA

Sparsh Book Agency, 9412257817, Om Pustak Mandir, (0562) 2464014, 9319117771,

MEERUT

ALLAHABAD

Mehrotra Book Agency, (0532) 2266865, 9415636890

NOIDA

Prozo (Global Edu4 Share Pvt. Ltd), 9318395520, Goyal Books Overseas Pvt.Ltd., 1204655555 9873387003

AZAMGARH

Sasta Sahitya Bhandar, 9450029674

PRAYAGRAJ

Kanhaiya Pustak Bhawan, 9415317109

ALIGARH

K.B.C.L. Agarwal, 9897124960, Shaligram Agencies, 9412317800, New Vimal Books, 9997398868, T.I.C Book centre, 9808039570

MAWANA

Subhash Book Depot, 9760262264

BULANDSHAHAR

Rastogi Book Depot, 9837053462/9368978202

BALRAMPUR

Universal Book Center, 8933826726

KOLKATA

BAREILLY

Siksha Prakashan, 9837829284

RENUKOOT

HARDOI

Mittal Pustak Kendra, 9838201466

DEORIA

Kanodia Book Depot, 9415277835

COOCH BEHAR

S.B. Book Distributor, Cooch behar, 9002670771

VARANASI

Gupta Books, 8707225564, Bookman & Company, 9935194495/7668899901

KHARAGPUR

Subhani Book Store, 9046891334

MATHURA

Sapra Traders, 9410076716, Vijay Book House , 9897254292

SILIGURI

Agarwal Book House, 9832038727, Modern Book Agency, 8145578772

FARRUKHABAD

Anurag Book Agencies, 8844007575

DINAJPUR

Krishna Book House, 7031748945

NAJIBABAD

Gupta News Agency, 8868932500, Gupta News Agency, ( E & C ), 8868932500

MURSHIDABAD

New Book House, 8944876176

DHAMPUR

Ramkumar Mahaveer Prasad, 9411942550

Sanjay Publication, 8126699922 Arti book centre, 8630128856, Panchsheel Books, 9412257962, Bhagwati Book Store, (E & C), 9149081912

Ideal Book Depot, (0121) 4059252, 9837066307

WEST BENGAL Oriental Publishers & Distributor (033) 40628367, Katha 'O' Kahini, (033) 22196313, 22419071, Saha Book House, (033), 22193671, 9333416484, United Book House, 9831344622, Bijay Pustak Bhandar, 8961260603, Shawan Books Distributors, 8336820363, Krishna Book House, 9123083874

Om Stationers, 7007326732

Entrance & Competition Distributors PATNA

BIHAR

CUTTAK

A.K.Mishra Agencies, 9437025991

Metro Books Corner, 9431647013, Alka Book Agency, 9835655005, Vikas Book Depot, 9504780402

BHUBANESHWAR

M/s Pragnya, 9437943777

CHATTISGARH KORBA

PUNJAB

Kitab Ghar, 9425226528, Shri Ramdev Traders, 9981761797

JALANDHAR

Cheap Book Store, 9872223458, 9878258592

DELHI

RAJASTHAN

DELHI

Singhania Book & Stationer, 9212028238, Radhey Book depot, 9818314141, The KOTA Book Shop, 9310262701, Mittal Books, 9899037390, Lov Dev & Sons, 9999353491

Vardhman Book Depot, 9571365020, Raj Traders, 9309232829

NEW DELHI

Anupam Sales, 9560504617, A ONE BOOKS, 8800497047

Goyal Book Distributors, 9414782130

JAIPUR

HARYANA AMBALA

BOKARO

UTTAR PRADESH

Bharat Book Depot, 7988455354

AGRA

BHAGWATI BOOK STORE, 9149081912, Sparsh Book Agency, 9412257817, Sanjay Publication, 8126699922

JHARKHAND

ALIGARH

New Vimal Books, 9997398868

Bokaro Student Friends Pvt. Ltd, 7360021503

ALLAHABAD

Mehrotra Book Agency, (532) 2266865, 9415636890

MADHYA PRADESH

GORAKHPUR

Central Book House, 9935454590

INDORE

Bhaiya Industries, 9109120101

KANPUR

Raj Book Dist, 9235616506

CHHINDWARA

Pustak Bhawan, 9827255997

LUCKNOW

Azad Book Depot PVT LTD, 7317000250, Rama Book Depot(Retail), 7355078254 Ashirwad Book Depot , 9235501197, Book Sadan, 8318643277, Book.com , 7458922755, Sheetla Book Agency, 9235832418

MAHARASHTRA

PRAYAGRAJ

Format Center, 9335115561, Garg Brothers Trading & Services Pvt. Ltd., 7388100499

NAGPUR

Laxmi Pustakalay and Stationers, (0712) 2727354

PUNE

Pragati Book Centre, 9850039311

MUMBAI

New Student Agencies LLP, 7045065799

UTTAR PRADESH DEHRADUN

WEST BENGAL

ODISHA

KOLKATA

Bijay Pustak Bhandar Pvt. Ltd., 8961260603, Saha Book House, 9674827254 United Book House, 9831344622, Techno World, 9830168159

Trimurti Book World, 9437034735

0808

BARIPADA

Inder Book Agancies, 9634045280

( 18 )

NDA / NA

GENERAL ABILITY TEST

National Defence Academy / Naval Academy

I

QUESTION PAPER

2023

Time : 1 hr. 40 min. 

Total Marks : 400

Instructions :

1. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. 2. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet. 3. All items carry equal marks. 4. Penalty for wrong answers : THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS. (i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. (ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question. (iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.

1. Two identical spring balances S1 and S2 are connected one after the other and are held vertically as shown in the figure. A mass of 10 kg is hanging from S2. If the readings on S1 and S2 are W1 and W2 respectively, then :

S1

W1

S2

W2

10 kg (a) W1 = 5 kg and W2 = 10 kg (b) W1 = 10 kg and W2 = 5 kg (c) W1 = 5 kg and W2 = 5 kg (d) W1 = 10 kg and W2 = 10 kg 2. A stone is thrown horizontally from the top of a 20 m high building with a speed of 12 m/s. It hits the ground at a distance R from the building. Taking g = 10 m/s2 and neglecting air resistance will give : (a) R = 12 m (b) R = 18 m (c) R = 24 m (d) R = 30 m 3. A sphere of volume V is made of a material with lower density than water. While on Earth, it floats on water with its volume f1V (f1 < 1) submerged. On the other hand, on a spaceship

accelerating with acceleration a < g (g is the acceleration due to gravity on Earth) in outer space, its submerged volume in water is f2V. Then : a (a) f2 = q1 (b) f2 = (1 – ) f1 g (c) f2 > f1 (d) f2 = –a/gf1 4. Two identical containers X and Y are connected at the bottom by a thin tube of negligible volume. The tube has a valve in it, as shown in the figure. Initially container X has a liquid filled up to height h in it and container Y is empty. When the valve is opened, both containers have equal amount of liquid in equilibrium. If the initial (before the valve is opened) potential energy of the liquid is P1 and the final potential energy is P2 then : X

Y

h

(a) P1 = P2 (b) P1 = 4P2 (c) P1 = 2P2 (d) P1 = 8P2 5. A particle is moving in a circle of radius R with a constant speed v. Its average acceleration over

20

Oswaal NDA/NA Year-wise Solved Papers

the time when it moves over half the circle is : v2 πv2 (a) (b) R 2R

2 (c) 2v (d) 0 πR 6. Two forces of 5.0 N each are acting on a point mass. If the angle between the forces is 60°, then the net force acting on the point mass has magnitude close to : (a) 8.6 N (b) 4.3 N (c) 5.0 N (d) 6.7 N 7. Which one of the following is not an igneous rock ? (a) Granite (b) Slate (c) Basalt (d) Gabbro 8. Which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. Hypocenter is the point on the surface of the Earth, nearest to the focus. 2. Velocity of earthquake waves is higher in denser materials. 3. P waves move faster and are the first to arrive at the surface of the Earth. Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only 9. In terms of geological time scale, the quaternary period consists of two epochs. They are : (a) Pleistocene and Pliocene (b) Holocene and Pleistocene (c) Pleistocene and Miocene (d) Holocene and Eocene 10. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of arrangement of the given planets in descending order of their density (in gm/ cm3) ? (a) Earth > Jupiter > Venus > Saturn (b) Jupiter > Earth > Saturn > Venus (c) Earth > Venus > Jupiter > Saturn (d) Earth > Venus > Saturn > Jupiter 11. Which one of the following is not a cold current? (a) Western Australian Current (b) Eastern Australian Current (c) Benguela Current (d) Peru Current 12. The process of Podsolization is predominantly found in : (a) Equatorial forest (b) Monsoon forest (c) Taiga forest (d) Mediterranean forest

13. Joint Military exercise ‘Keen Sword 23’ was conducted between : (a) India and Japan (b) India and USA (c) USA and Japan (d) Japan and Taiwan 14. The Battle of Rezang La, an epic battle in hostile conditions, was fought by the Indian Army in : (a) 1948 (b) 1956 (c) 1962 (d) 1972 15. Consider the following statements about ‘Exercise Sea Vigil-22’: 1. Its aim is to assess India’s preparedness in the domain of Maritime security and coastal defence. 2. Naval forces of USA and Japan also took part in the exercise. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 16. Consider the following statements : 1. England is the only country that won the ICC T20 World Cup twice. 2. Virat Kohli is the only player to be adjudged as the Player of the Series in the ICC T20 World Cup twice. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 17. Who among the following is not a recipient of Nobel Prize in Chemistry in 2022 ? (a) Carolyn R. Bertozzi (b) Benjamin List (c) Morten Meldal (d) K. Barry Sharpless 18. Consider the following statements regarding cell wall composition : 1. Bacterial cell wall is made of peptidoglycan. 2. Fungal cell wall is made of cellulose. 3. Animals lack cell wall and have extracellular matrix made up of sugar and proteins. Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) 2 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 19. Which one of the following structures is not present in a prokaryotic cell ? (a) Cell wall (b) Ribosomes (c) Nucleus (d) Plasma membrane 20. In a plant cell, which one of the following contains their own DNA ? (a) Nucleus and Endoplasmic Reticulum (b) Ribosome and Golgi apparatus (c) Mitochondria and Chloroplast (d) Chloroplast and Vacuoles

21

SOLVED PAPER – 2023 (I)

21. One advantage of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction is that it helps species to survive over long evolutionary time. This is because sexual reproduction produces : (a) more offspring in each reproductive cycle. (b) robust and healthy offspring. (c) genetically similar offspring. (d) more variation in offspring. 22. Which one of the following structures or components is not always present in living cells ? (a) Cell wall (b) Plasma membrane (c) Cytoplasm (d) Genetic material 23. Browning of the chopped apple can be minimized by : (a) using table sugar. (b) preserving in a container. (c) using lemon juice. (d) using milk of magnesia. 24. Which of the hydrocarbons are arranged as per the increasing order of their boiling points ? (a) Methane, Butane, Propane, Heptane (b) Propane, Butane, Pentane, Octane (c) Propane, Butane, Heptane, Methane (d) Octane, Ethane, Methane, Propane 25. Which one of the following apparatus is used for separating benzene and water mixture ? (a) Round bottom flask (b) Conical flask (c) Separating funnel (d) Dean and Stark apparatus 26. An iron nail dipped in copper sulphate solution turns brown. This is due to which one of the following types of reactions ? (a) Addition reaction (b) Decomposition reaction (c) Substitution reaction (d) Displacement reaction 27. Among the following, which is not the correct method for keeping the curd ? (a) Keeping in stainless steel vessel (b) Keeping in copper vessel (c) Keeping in plastic vessel (d) Keeping in glass vessel 28. Toothpaste prevents tooth decay by : (a) neutralizing the excess acidity. (b) means of emulsification. (c) the action of fluoride. (d) making a coat of calcium over the teeth surface.

29. Freedom fighter Kanaklata Barua was martyred in: (a) Sepoy Mutiny (b) Quit India Movement (c) Non-Cooperation Movement (d) Peasant Uprising of 1893 - 1894 30. Which one among the following statements about the Mansabdari system is correct ? (a) All army troopers were allotted mansabs. (b) Mansabs were usually assigned on the basis of ancestry. (c) Position and salary of mansabdars were indicated by a numerical designation called zat. (d) Mansabdars were never paid in cash. 31. Which Governor General of Bengal underwent impeachment proceedings in the British Parliament ? (a) Robert Clive (b) Henry Vansittart (c) Warren Hastings (d) Lord Cornwallis 32. Who among the following composed the ‘Prayag Prashasti’ of Samudragupta ? (a) Harishena (b) Chand Bardai (c) Vishakhadatta (d) Kalidasa 33. Which one of the following kingdoms was founded by the two brothers Harihar and Bukka ? (a) Bahmani (b) Vijayanagara (c) Malwa (d) Maratha 34. At which one of the following places did the Danes establish their settlement in India ? (a) Chinsura (b) Karaikal (c) Mahe (d) Tranquebar 35. A rectangle ABCD is kept in front of a concave mirror of focal length f with its corners A and B being, respectively, at distances 2f and 3f from the mirror with AB along the principal axis as shown in the figure. It forms an image A’B’C’D’ in front of the mirror. What is the ratio of B’C’ to A’D’ ?

D f

A 2f 3f

(a) 1 1 (c) 2

(b) 2 2 (d) 3

C B

22

Oswaal NDA/NA Year-wise Solved Papers

36. Shown in the figure are two plane mirrors XY and YZ (XY ⊥ YZ) joined at their edge. Also shown is a light ray falling on one of the mirrors and reflected back parallel to its original path as a result of this arrangement. The two mirrors are now rotated by an angle θ to their new position X’YZ’, as shown. As a result the new reflected ray is at an angle a from the original reflected ray. Then : X

Z

 Z Y (a) a = 0 (b) a = θ (c) a = 2θ (d) a = 4θ 37. A railway wagon (open at the top) of mass M1 is moving with speed v1 along a straight track. As a result of rain, after some time it gets partially filled with water so that the mass of the wagon becomes M2 and speed becomes v2. Taking the rain to be falling vertically and water stationary inside the wagon, the relation between the two speeds v1 and v2 is : (a) v1 = v2 1 1 (b) M1v12 < M2v22 2 2

(c) M1v1 = M2v2 (d) M1v1 < M2v2 38. Which one of the following statements is not true for a flute, a musical instrument ? (a) Momentum of waves on the blowing jet determines the loudness of the produced note. (b) Arrival time of the waves on the blowing jet determines the pitch of the produced note. (c) Sound comes from a vibrating column of air inside the flute. (d) Sound comes from a vibrating column of air inside as well as outside the flute. 39. A positive charge is moving towards south in a space where magnetic field is pointing in the north direction. The moving charge will experience : (a) a deflecting force towards north direction. (b) a deflecting force towards east direction. (c) a deflecting force towards west direction. (d) no deflecting force.

40. Which one of the following is not a main greenhouse gas ? (a) Water vapour (b) Oxygen (c) Carbon dioxide (d) Methane 41. Which one of the following statements about X-rays is not true ? (a) They have wavelengths of about 1 Å. (b) These can be generated by bombarding a metal target by high energy electrons. (c) Due to their wavelengths being shorter, these can be used for radar systems. (d) These are also used for the treatment of certain forms of cancer. 42. Which one among the following is the northernmost geographical location ? (a) New Delhi (b) Kathmandu (c) Thimphu (d) Dhaka 43. Consider the following statements : 1. Distance between the longitudes becomes zero on North Pole and South Pole. 2. Distance between the longitudes is maximum on the Equator. 3. Number of longitudes is more than number of latitudes. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 44. Which one among the following states is the leading producer of Manganese in India ? (a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Jharkhand (c) Rajasthan (d) Karnataka 45. Mica is mainly used in : (a) food and beverage industry. (b) iron and steel industry. (c) aluminium industry. (d) electrical and electronic industries. 46. According to Koppen’s climatic classifications, the Great Northern Plains of India have which one of the following climates ? (a) Aw climate (b) Cwg climate (c) Amw climate (d) Dfc climate 47. Which of the following statements about Lachit Borphukan is/are correct ? 1. He was a General of the Ahom Force. 2. He is known for his leadership in the Battle of Saraighat. 3. Lachit Borphukan Gold Medal is given to the best cadet at the National Defence Academy. Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 only (d) 2 only

SOLVED PAPER – 2023 (I)

48. The 4th edition of joint military exercise ‘DUSTLIK’ between the Indian Army and the Uzbekistan Army was held in : (a) Ranikhet (b) Gangtok (c) Pithoragarh (d) Leh 49. Which of the following is India’s first privately developed rocket launched by ISRO recently ? (a) Skyroot (b) Prarambh (c) Bazoomq (d) Vikram-S 50. Which one among the following villages was recently declared as India’s first 24 × 7 solarpowered village ? (a) Mawlynnong, Meghalaya (b) Modhera, Gujarat (c) Ziro village, Arunachal Pradesh (d) Malana, Himachal Pradesh 51. Tableaux of which one of the following States was adjudged the best in the Republic Day Parade, 2023 ? (a) Uttarakhand (b) Punjab (c) Gujarat (d) Uttar Pradesh 52. Organisms capable of using CO2 as principal carbon source are called : (a) Autotrophs (b) Heterotrophs (c) Parasites (d) Decomposers 53. When yeast cells are O2 starved, fermentation serves as the source of energy. This results in the production of: (a) ATP + CO2 + Ethanol (b) ATP + O2 + Pyruvate (c) ATP + CO2 + Lactic acid (d) ATP + O2 + Acetaldehyde 54. During a laboratory experiment, a student immerses epidermal leaf peel in a hypertonic solution. After some time, the student examined the cells under a microscope and observed that: (a) the cells swelled. (b) the cells were plasmolysed. (c) the cells built up turgor pressure. (d) the cells size was unaffected. 55. Which one of the following is not a characteristic feature of fungi ? (a) Cell wall is made of chitin (b) Filamentous mycelium is present (c) Can carry out photosynthesis (d) Asexual spores are produced 56. Which one of the following statements about bryophytes is not correct ? (a) The plant body is a gametophyte. (b) They are also called the amphibians of plant kingdom.

23 (c) The plant body is attached to the substratum by rhizoids. (d) Specialized water-conducting tissues are present. 57. What is the specific purpose of using potassium hydroxide during the saponification process ? (a) To obtain soaps which are hard on the skin (b) To obtain soaps which are soft on the skin (c) To obtain natural fragrance (d) To make the saponification very economical 58. Which one of the following is the correct arrangement of metals in the decreasing order of their reactivity ? (a) Iron, Sodium, Silver, Copper (b) Silver, Copper, Iron, Sodium (c) Sodium, Copper, Silver, Iron (d) Sodium, Iron, Copper, Silver 59. Which among the following statements is not correct with respect to allotropes of Carbon ? (a) Graphite is a good conductor of electricity. (b) Diamond is the hardest substance known. (c) Fullerene is one of the allotropes of carbon. (d) Next to diamond, graphite is the second hardest known substance. 60. Which among the following is the popular method for manufacture of ammonia ? (a) Ostwald’s process (b) Haber-Bosch process (c) Electric furnace process (d) Electrolysis process 61. For manufacturing of glass, which among the following is used as a source of silica ? (a) Fine clay soil (b) Wood powder (c) Coconut shell (d) Sand 62. Which among the following is the correct arrangement of halogens in the increasing order of their oxidizing nature ? (a) F, Cl, Br, I (b) Cl, Br, F, I (c) Br, I, Cl, F (d) I, Br, Cl, F 63. Copper sulphate crystals available in the market are blue coloured crystals. By careful heating, they turn to white colour. Which one of the following is responsible for the blue colour ? (a) Oxygen (b) Nitrogen (c) Water (d) Hydrogen 64. Equal volume of all gases, when measured at the same temperature and pressure, contain an equal number of particles. Who proposed the above law ? (a) Charles (b) Boyle (c) Avogadro (d) Gay Lussac

24 65. Airbags work on the principle of a chemical reaction triggered by the impact producing a gaseous product that causes a sudden volume change. Which one among the following chemical conversions is responsible for this ? (a) Sodium azide into nitrogen gas (b) Solid carbon dioxide into gaseous carbon dioxide (c) Carbon dioxide into carbon monoxide (d) Sudden conversion of gaseous carbon dioxide into carbon monoxide 66. Which one among the following districts of Eastern India held a referendum in 1947 to decide whether or not to join Pakistan ? (a) Sylhet (b) Goalpara (c) Cachar (d) Jalpaiguri 67. Which one of the following statements about Rabatak inscription is not correct ? (a) It throws important light on Kushana genealogy. (b) It refers to Kanishka as ‘a king of kings and a son of God’. (c) The 23-line inscription is written in Gandhari language. (d) It mentions names of States which were part of Kanishka’s empire. 68. Who among the following was the author of the famous Sanskrit work ‘Mrichchhakatika’ ? (a) Kalidasa (b) Bhasa (c) Valmiki (d) Shudraka 69. Yashovarman was ruler of which one of the following kingdoms ? (a) Kannauj (b) Mewar (c) Marwar (d) Kalinga 70. Which one among the following rulers established Pataliputra as the capital of the Magadhan Empire ? (a) Bimbisara (b) Bindusara (c) Ajatashatru (d) Ashoka 71. Which one of the following astronomers proved that the Earth and other planets revolve around the Sun ? (a) Copernicus (b) Kepler (c) Galileo (d) Newton 72. Sand falls vertically on a conveyor belt at a rate of 0.1 kg/s. In order to keep the belt moving at a uniform speed of 2 m/s, the force required to be applied on the belt is : (a) 0 N (b) 0.2 N (c) 1.0 N (d) 2.0 N 73. The power required to lift a mass of 8.0 kg up a vertical distance of 4 m in 2 s is (taking acceleration due to gravity as 10 m/s2): (a) 80 W (b) 160 W (c) 320 W (d) 640 W

Oswaal NDA/NA Year-wise Solved Papers

74. One block of 2.0 kg mass is placed on top of another block of 3.0 kg mass. The coefficient of static friction between the two blocks is 0.2. The bottom block is pulled with a horizontal force F such that both the blocks move together without slipping. Taking acceleration due to gravity as 10 m/s2, the maximum value of the frictional force is : (a) 50 N (b) 30 N (c) 4 N (d) 10 N 75. A mass is attached to a spring that hangs vertically. The extension produced in the spring is 6 cm on Earth. The acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the Moon is one-sixth of its value on the surface of the Earth. The extension of the spring on the Moon would be : (a) 6 cm (b) 1 cm (c) 0 cm (d) 36 cm 76. Which one of the following is an example of Second Class Lever ? (a) A pair of scissors (b) A bottle opener (c) A cricket bat (d) A bow and arrow 77. In an electric circuit, a wire of resistance 10 W is used. If this wire is stretched to a length double of its original value, the current in the circuit would become : (a) half of its original value. (b) double of its original value. (c) one-fourth of its original value. (d) four times of its original value. 78. What is the total resistance in the following circuit element ? R R R (a) R/2 (b) 3R (c) 3R/2 (d) 2R/3 79. Which of the following scheme(s) is/are included under Bharatmala Pariyojana ? 1. Develop the road connectivity to border areas 2. Development of coastal roads 3. Improvement in the efficiency of National Corridors Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) 1 only (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 80. Deendayal Port was earlier known as : (a) Paradip Port (b) Tuticorin Port (c) Kandla Port (d) Visakhapatnam Port

SOLVED PAPER – 2023 (I)

81. The Counter Insurgency and Jungle Warfare School of Indian Army is situated at: (a) Dehradun (b) Vairengte (c) Gulmarg (d) Mhow 82. In the soil-forming regime, which one of the following occurs in a region where evapotranspiration exceeds precipitation significantly ? (a) Calcification (b) Laterization (c) Podsolization (d) Gleization 83. Which one of the following is found in the innermost part of the Earth ? (a) Conrad discontinuity (b) Moho discontinuity (c) Guttenberg discontinuity (d) Lehmann discontinuity 84. Which of the following tree species is/are found on Himalayas ? 1. Oak 2. Rhododendron 3. Rosewood Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1 and 2 85. Which one of the following is the lowermost/ innermost intrusive igneous rock ? (a) Laccolith (b) Batholith (c) Lopolith (d) Phacolith 86. If it is 12 noon in New Delhi, what will be the time in London, UK ? (a) 7:30 A.M. (b) 6:30 P.M. (c) 5:30 A.M. (d) 5:30 P.M. 87. Which of the following positions of Sun, Earth and Moon is/are suitable for Spring Tide ? 1. SYZYGY Conjunction 2. SYZYGY Opposition 3. Quadrature Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 2 (d) 1 and 3 88. Which Renaissance artist painted ‘The Last Supper’ ? (a) Michelangelo (b) Donatello (c) Botticelli (d) Leonardo da Vinci 89. Which one of the following European explorer conquered Mexico ? (a) Vasco da Gama (b) Bartholomew Diaz (c) Magellan (d) Hernan Cortes 90. Near which one of the following cities in India have large statues of Kushana rulers been discovered ? (a) Kamal (b) Ropar (c) Hisar (d) Mathura

25 91. The Treaty of Yandabo was concluded as part of which one of the following wars ? (a) First Anglo-Burmese War (b) Second Anglo-Burmese War (c) Anglo-Kuki War (d) Anglo-Maratha War 92. Plan allocation in agriculture and irrigation as percentage of total plan outlay was highest in : (a) Seventh Five-Year Plan (b) Third Five-Year Plan (c) First Five-Year Plan (d) Second Five-Year Plan 93. The UN COP-27 Summit relates to : (a) Russia-Ukraine war (b) Terrorism and counter-terrorism (c) Climate change (d) Interpol 94. Which one of the following tribes from India’s North-East had the earliest known association with cultivation and production of tea ? (a) Khasis (b) Garos (c) Singphos (d) Jayantias 95. By which one of the following amendments, was Article 51A, relating to the Fundamental Duties, inserted into the Constitution of India ? (a) The Constitution (42nd Amendment) Act (b) The Constitution (44th Amendment) Act (c) The Constitution (85th Amendment) Act (d) The Constitution (92nd Amendment) Act 96. Which one of the following statements is true ? (a) The force of gravity of the Earth on the Moon is greater than the force of gravity of the Moon on the Earth. (b) The force of gravity of the Moon on the Earth is greater than the force of gravity of the Earth on the Moon. (c) The force of gravity of the Earth on the Moon and of the Moon on the Earth are equal in magnitude and are in the same direction. (d) The force of gravity of the Earth on the Moon and of the Moon on the Earth are equal in magnitude but are in opposite directions. 97. An electric bulb is rated as 220 V and 80 W. When it is operated on 110 V, the power rating would be : (a) 80 W (b) 60 W (c) 40 W (d) 20 W 98. In the dispersion of white light by a common glass prism, which one among the following is correct ? (a) Red light deviates the most because red light has highest speed in prism (b) Blue light deviates the most because blue light has highest speed in prism

26

Oswaal NDA/NA Year-wise Solved Papers

(c) Red light deviates the most because red light has lowest speed in prism (d) Blue light deviates the most because blue light has lowest speed in prism 99. Which one among the following is true for the speed of sound in a given medium ? (a) Speed of sound remains same at all frequencies (b) Speed of sound is faster at higher frequencies

(c) Speed of sound is slower at higher frequencies (d) Speed of sound is slower at higher wavelengths 100. Which one of the following telescopes contains only mirrors ? (a) Galilean telescope (b) Keplerian telescope (c) Newtonian telescope (d) Schmidt telescope

ANSWER KEY Q. No. Answer Key

Topic’s Name

Chapter’s Name

1

d

Spring

Laws of Motion

2

c

Projectile Motion

Motion in a Plane

3

a

Density

Properties of Bulk Matter

4

c

Pressure due to Fluid Column

Properties of Bulk Matter

5

c

Uniformly Accelerated Motion

Laws of Motion

6

a

Vectors

Motion in a Plane

7

b

Types of Rocks

Rocks and its Structure

8

b

Earthquake

Interior of Earth

9

b

Human Evolution: The Old Stone Age

Ancient History

10

c

Planets

Solar System

11

b

Warm and Cold Currents

Ocean Currents

12

c

Soil formation

Soil Science

13

c

Military Exercises

Defence

14

c

After Independence

Modern History

15

a

Military Exercises

Defence

16

b

ICC Tournaments

Sports

17

b

Nobel Prize

Awards and Prizes

18

c

Cell wall

Cell and its structure

19

c

Types of Cells in living beings

Cells and its structure

20

c

Plant Cell

Cells and its structure

21

d

Types of Reproduction

Reproduction

22

a

Cells

Cells and its structure

23

c

Chemistry in everyday life

Chemistry in everyday life

24

b

Boiling Points of Hydrocarbons

Hydrocarbons

25

d

Seeration of mixture

Azeotropic mixture

26

d

Displacement reaction

Chemical reaction

27

b

Reaction of Acids

Acids, Bases and Salts

28

a

Tooth Decay

Acids, Bases and Salts

29

b

Independence struggle

Modern History

30

c

Ranks in Mughal Dynasty

Mughal Dynasty

27

SOLVED PAPER – 2023 (I)

Q. No. Answer Key

Topic’s Name

Chapter’s Name

31

c

Governor Generals

Modern History

32

a

Inscriptions

Ancient History

33

b

Vijayanagar Empire

Ancient India

34

d

Arrival of Europeans

Modern India

35

c

Spherical Mirror

Ray Optics

36

c

Plane Mirror

Ray Optics

37

c

Momentum

Laws of Motion

38

d

Waves

Sound

39

d

Force on a Charged Particle in a Magnetic Field Moving Charges and Magnetism

40

b

Greenhouse gases

Atmosphere

41

c

X rays

Modern Physics

42

a

Geographical Location

India and its neighbours

43

d

Longitude

Longitude and Latitude

44

a

Minerals

Minerals in India

45

d

Mica

Application of Minerals

46

b

Kopper’s climatic classification

Climatology

47

a

Ahom Kingdom

Modern India

48

c

Military Exercises

Defence

49

d

ISRO Expeditions

Science and Technology

50

b

Solar Power

Current Affairs

51

a

Tabluex

Current Affairs

52

a

Autotrophic Nutrition

Autotrophs

53

a

Fermentation

Hydrocarbons

54

b

Cells

Cells and its structure

55

c

Fungi

Plant Kingdom

56

c

Bryophytes

Plant Kingdom

57

b

Saponification

Chemical reaction

58

d

Reactivity series

Reactivity of Metals

59

d

Properties of Carbon

Carbon and its compounds

60

b

Ammonia manufacture

Haber’s Process

61

d

Properties of Silica

p block elements

62

d

Halogens

p block elements

63

c

Displacement reaction

Chemical Reactivity

64

c

Gas Law

Gases

65

a

Application

Chemical reaction

66

a

India during partition

Post Independence

67

c

Inscriptions

Ancient India

68

d

Literary works

Ancient India

69

a

Chalukya Dynasty

Sangam Age

70

c

Magadh Empire

Ancient India

71

a

Earth

Astronomy

28

Oswaal NDA/NA Year-wise Solved Papers

Q. No. Answer Key

Topic’s Name

Chapter’s Name

72

b

Newton’s Law of Motion

Laws of Motion

73

b

Power

Work, Power, Energy

74

c

Friction

Laws of Motion

75

b

Weight

Gravitation

76

b

Types of levers

Laws of Motion

77

c

Resistance

Current Electricity

78

c

Equivalent Resistance

Current Electricity

79

d

Bharatmala Pariyojana

Current Affairs

80

c

Ports

Current Affairs

81

b

Defence

Current Affairs

82

a

Soil formation

Soil Science

83

d

Interior of Earth.

Gemorphology

84

d

Vegetation

Forest and its types

85

b

Interior of Earth.

Geomorphology

86

a

Time zone

Latitude, Longitude and Time

87

c

Spring Tide

Tides

88

d

Paintings

Art & Culture

89

d

Travellers

European Travellers

90

d

Kushana Dynasty

Ancient Dynasty

91

a

Anglo Burmese War

Modern India

92

c

Five year plan

Indian economy

93

c

Climate conferences

Current Affairs

94

c

Tribes

Tribes in India

95

a

Important ammendments

Polity

96

d

Gravitational force

Gravitation

97

d

Electric Power

Current Electricity

98

d

Dispersion

Ray Optics

99

a

Properties of Sound

Sound

100

c

Optical Instruments

Ray Optics

NDA / NA

GENERAL ABILITY TEST

National Defence Academy / Naval Academy

I

SOLVED PAPER

2023

ANSWERS WITH EXPLANATION 1.

2.

Option (d) is correct. Explanation: Since, both the springs are identical in nature. Thus, they will show similar readings. Hence, W1 = 10 kg and W2 = 10 kg.

6.

R = ( F12 + F22 + F1 F2 cos θ) R = ( 5 2 + 5 2 + 25 cos 60°)

Option (c) is correct. Explanation:

R = 8.66 N

12 m/s

20 m

7.

Option (b) is correct. Explanation: Shale metamorphoses into slate, a specific type of metamorphic rock. Typically, heat and pressure from beneath the earth’s surface cause igneous and sedimentary rock to change into metamorphic rocks.

8.

Option (b) is correct. Explanation: The location below the earth’s surface where the earthquake starts is called the hypocenter, and the location directly above it on the surface of the earth is called the epicenter. The speed at which earthquake waves propagate is greater when the rock is dense. As a result, P-waves are the first to arrive at the surface of the Earth, owing to their faster velocity.

9.

Option (b) is correct. Explanation: The Pleistocene (2.58 million years ago to 11.7 thousand years ago) and the Holocene (11.7 thousand years ago to the present) are the two epochs that make up the Quaternary Period. Pleistocene is referred as the Ice Age, while Holocene is post-ice age period.

R

From the above figure, we can say that ux = 12 m/s; uy = 0 m/s; h = 20 m and g = 10 m/s2 ⇒ t2 = 4 s ⇒ t = 2 s Now, R = ux t = 12 × 2 = 24 m 3.

Option (a) is correct. Explanation: When f1< f2 (the body will float) f1> f2 (the body will sink)

4.

Option (c) is correct. Explanation: At initial condition P1 = mg P2 = mg (height is 0) When the valve is open P2 increases because h increases. Height of P1 is less after valve opened So, P1 = 2 P2

5.

Option (c) is correct. Explanation: Over a half circle ∆p = mv – (–mv) = 2mv ∆t =

distance πr = speed v

According to 2nd law of motion, ⇒

Option (a) is correct. Explanation:

2mv 2v 2 = ma ⇒ a = πr / v πr

∆P = ma ∆t

10. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: The correct sequence of planets based on the given density in decreasing order is as follows: Earth > Venus > Jupiter > Saturn. Planets and their average densities (gm/cm3): Mercury : 5.4 Venus : 5.2 Earth : 5.5 Mars : 3.9 Jupiter : 1.3 Saturn : 0.7 Uranus : 1.3 Neptune : 1.6 11. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: Ocean currents are the continuous flow of huge amount of water in a definite direction. These may be warm or cold. The warm ocean currents originate near the equator and move towards the poles while the cold currents carry water from polar or higher latitudes to tropical or lower latitudes.

30

Oswaal NDA/NA Year-wise Solved Papers Cold currents: West Australian Current, Benguela Current, Peru Current. Warm current: Eastern Australian Current.

12. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: Taiga forest is where it is most frequently found. Podsolization, a type of severe leaching, results in the release of iron and aluminium sesquioxide. The mechanism is more common where precipitation exceeds evapotranspiration. 13. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: ‘Keen Sword 23’ is a bilateral exercise conducted between Japan and U.S.A. It has been held since 1986 once in two years to boost the preparedness and interoperability between the military personnel of Japan and the United States. 14. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: The Battle of Rezang La was fought by the Indian Army against the Chinese Army in 1962. Rezang La is a mountain pass on the LAC in Ladakh. 15. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: In 2022, the Indian Navy conducted Sea Vigil-22, the third iteration of its nationwide coastal defense exercise, in collaboration with the Coast Guard and other relevant government agencies involved in maritime operations. This exercise was conceptualised in 2018 to check various measures that have been instituted towards enhancing the maritime security since the 26/11 Mumbai attack. 16. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: The West Indies is the only country to have triumphed in the ICC T20 World Cup on two occasions, during the 2012 and 2016 tournaments. Similarly, Virat Kohli is the sole player to have been awarded the Player of the Series title twice in the ICC T20 World Cup. 17. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: Carolyn R. Bertozzi (U.S.A) Morten Meldal (Denmark) and K. Barry Sharpless (U.S.A) were awarded the Nobel Prize in Chemistry for the development of click chemistry and biorthogonal chemistry in the year 2022. 18. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: Bacterial cell wall is made of peptidoglycan or murein. Fungal cell wall is made of tough sugar complex called chitin. It is a large polysaccharide of N-acetyld-glucosamine (NAG) which is linked by betaglycosidic bond. Animals lack cell wall and have extracellular matrix made up of sugar and proteins. 19. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: The structures that are present in a prokaryotic cell are the cell wall, ribosomes, plasma membrane, etc. However, the nucleus is not present in a prokaryotic cell. Due to this, their genetic material is basically naked and not enveloped by a nuclear membrane. 20. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: In a plant cell, chloroplast and mitochondria are the two cell organelles that have

their own DNA and ribosomes. Mitochondria possesses single circular DNA molecule in its matrix. Whereas, chloroplast contains small, double stranded circular DNA molecules in its stroma. 21. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: Compared to asexual reproduction, the offspring of sexual reproduction have more variations. This is due to the involvement of both parents. Hence, offspring inherit the attributes of both. This benefit aids the sexually reproducing species’ long-term evolutionary survival. 22. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: The outermost layer of plant cells is called the cell wall. It is a non-living rigid structure. Only plants and a few types of fungi, bacteria, and algae have cell walls. It exists outside of the cell membrane and has a texture that is sometimes hard, sometimes flexible. It is primarily made of cellulose. On the other hand, plasma membrane, cytoplasm and genetic material are present in all the living cells. 23. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: Apple slices can be coated with lemon or pineapple juice, both of which naturally contain antioxidants, to prevent enzymatic browning. Additionally, both fruit juices are acidic, which results in a lower pH and reduced browning activity. 24. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: As the molecular mass of hydrocarbons rises, so does their boiling point. The intermolecular forces of attraction (Van der Waal’s force and London force) grow with molecular mass, making it more difficult to break the bond and requiring more energy. Therefore, the correct order will be: Propane, Butane, Pentane, Octane. 25. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: Dean and Stark apparatus is used to separate benzene and water mixture. 26. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: Because iron is more reactive than copper, it will take the place of copper in its salt and create a new salt called ferrous sulphate. The colour of copper sulphate, which is initially blue, will change during the reaction to become greenish-blue ferrous sulphate. 27. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: Acids are present in curd and other sour foods.As a result, when they are stored in brass and copper containers, the metal reacts with the acid to release hydrogen gas and other dangerous byproducts, ruining the food. 28. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: In the mouth, bacteria break down sugar and food particles and produce acids. The tooth enamel corrodes and dental decay begins as a result of the acids produced. The nature of toothpastes is base. They counteract the effects of acids and stop tooth decay as a result. 29. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: In 1924, Kanaklata Barua was born in

SOLVED PAPER – 2023 (I) Barangabari, Assam. She marched with a group of freedom fighters towards the Gohpur Police station on September 20, 1942, to raise the Tricolour in support of the Quit India Movement. The Police warned the procession of dire consequences if they proceeded further. Even after the warning, the procession continued marching ahead when the police fired upon the procession and Barua was shot dead. 30. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: Both the personal rank (referred to as zat) and the cavalry rank (referred to as sawar) were used to indicate the mansab or rank. Every mansabdar had both the zat and sawar rank, was paid rupees two per horse. 31. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: Warren Hastings was the Gover­norGeneral of Bengal from 1774 to 1785. He was the first governor-general to undergo impeachment proceedings in the British Parliament. In 1787, he was accused of corruption during his tenure in India and impeached, but after a long trial, he was acquitted in 1795. 32. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: Allahabad Pillar Inscription also known as ‘Prayag Prashasti’ was composed in Sanskrit by the court poet of Samudragupta, Harisena. 33. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: Harihar and Bukka founded the Vijaynagara empire in 1336. 34. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: The Danish East India Company was established in 1616. They founded a factory at Tranquebar near Tanjore in 1620 on the eastern coast of India. Their principal settlement was at Serampore near Calcutta. The Danish factories, which were not important at any time, were sold to the British government in 1845. The Danes are better known for their missionary activities than for commerce. 35. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: Line AD is at center of curvature (2f), So A’D’ = AD 1 1 1 For image of CB, = + f v u 1 2 3f ⇒ 1 = 1 + 1 ⇒ = ⇒ v= v 3 f 2 f v 3f 3f v 1 Now, m = − = − 2 = u 3f 2 B’C’ =

1 BC 2

1 BC B'C' 2 1 Hence = = A'D' AD 2 36. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: For same incident ray, if mirror is rotated by an angle of q, then reflected ray will be at an angle of 2q. Hence, a = 2q

31 37. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: According to conservation of momentum M1 v 1 = M 2 v 2 38. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: Sound produced is due to air column present inside a flute, outside it only propagates. Hence, option (d) is an incorrect statement. 39. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: As magnetic field and current are anti parallel (q = 180o and sin 180o = 0) Moving charge experience no force in any direction. F = IBL 180o = IBL × 0 = 0 40. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: The greenhouse effect is a naturally occurring phenomenon that is responsible for heating the Earth’s surface and atmosphere. It is due to the trace amounts of greenhouse gases are water vapor, carbon-dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide, chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs), and ozone. These gases allow solar radiation to reach the Earth’s surface, but they absorb infrared radiation emitted by the Earth, causing the planet’s surface to heat up. 41. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: In medicine, X-rays are employed as a diagnostic tool, whereas in aircraft navigation, radar systems employ microwaves. When high-energy electrons come to an abrupt halt on a metal surface with a high atomic number, X-rays are generated. 42. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: The following sequence will form when we arrange the given capitals from north to south. New Delhi, Kathmandu, Thimphu, Dhaka. Hence, the northernmost geographical location among the given options is New Delhi. 43. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: The longitude indicates how far a location is to the east or west of the Prime Meridian, a hypothetical line that connects the North and South Poles. On the North and South Poles, the distance between the longitudes equalises to zero. On the Equator, the distance between the longitudes is maximum. There are more longitudes than latitudes in the world. 44. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: Madhya Pradesh is the leading producing State of manganese ore accounting for 33% of total production during 2019-20 followed by Maharashtra 25% and Odisha 19%. If we talk about the reserves of manganese ore, Odisha tops the total reserves/ resources with 44% share followed by Karnataka (22%). 45. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: Primarily, mica finds its application in the electrical and electronic sectors, including its use in microwave ovens. Moreover, mica sheets serve as window sheets in various applications. 46. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: As per Koppen’s climate classification, the Great Northern Plains of India exhibit a Cwg type climate, commonly known as a “monsoon type with dry winters” climate.

32 47. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: An invasion attempted by Mughal forces led by Ramsingh I was thwarted by the Ahom general Lachit Borphukan in the Battle of Sarairghat. Since 1999, the National Defence Academy’s (NDA) top cadet has received the Lachit Borphukan Gold Medal. 48. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: The Indian Army and Uzbekistan Army conducted the fourth iteration of their joint military exercise, named ‘DUSTLIK,’ in the town of Pithoragarh in Uttarakhand. 49. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: Developed by Hyderabad-based space startup Skyroot Aerospace, the Vikram-S rocket is India’s first privately developed rocket. It was launched on 18 November 2022 from Sriharikota. 50. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: India’s Prime Minister, Narendra Modi, has declared Modhera, a village in the Mehsana district of Gujarat, as the country’s first village powered entirely by solar energy 24 hours a day, seven days a week. 51. Option (a) is correct Explanation: The wildlife and religious theme tableau of Uttarakhand was awarded the first prize at 2023 Republic Day Parade. 52. Option (a) is correct Explanation: An autotroph is an organism that can use CO2 as its primary carbon source. Autotrophs include chemosynthetic bacteria, photosynthetic bacteria, algae and plants. These organisms generate complex organic compounds (such as carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins) by obtaining carbon from simple substances such as carbon dioxide and utilizing energy either from light (photosynthesis) or inorganic chemical reactions (chemosynthesis). They transform an abiotic energy source (such as light) into energy stored in organic compounds (glucose), which can then be utilized by other organisms (e.g., heterotrophs). 53. Option (a) is correct Explanation: When yeast cells are oxygen-starved (an anaerobic condition), fermentation serves as a source of energy. In this process, the yeast partially breaks down glucose (a six-carbon molecule) under anaerobic conditions through sets of reactions into pyruvic acid (a three-carbon molecule), which is then converted into CO2 and ethanol. 54. Option (b) is correct Explanation: During a laboratory experiment, a student immerses an epidermal leaf peel in a hypertonic solution (greater in concentration of solutes compared with the inside of a cell). After some time, the student examined the cells under a microscope and observed that the cells were plasmolysed. It means the contraction or shrinkage of the protoplasm of a plant cell takes place, which results in severe water loss. Hence, plasmolysis takes place when the concentration of water inside the cell is higher than the concentration on the outside of the cell.

Oswaal NDA/NA Year-wise Solved Papers 55. Option (c) is correct Explanation: Fungi are a distinct kingdom of heterotrophic organisms. As a result, they do not engage in photosynthesis. The majority of fungus are saprophytes because they take up soluble organic matter from dead substrates. Parasites are those who rely on live organisms like plants and animals. They can also exist as symbionts, forming mycorrhizae at the roots of higher plants and lichens in association with algae. Fungi are filamentous, and their bodies are made up of hyphae, which are long, thin structures that resemble threads. The mycelium is the network of hyphae. Chitin and polysaccharides are the main components of the cell walls of fungi. Asexual reproduction in fungi can take place by spores called conidia or sporangiospores or zoospores. 56. Option (d) is correct Explanation: Bryophytes are also known as amphibians of the plant kingdom because they can survive in soil but require water for sexual reproduction. These are small, thallus-like, prostrate, or erect non-vascular plants with unicellular or multicellular rhizoids that attach to the substratum. They don’t have actual roots, stems, or leaves. They can have root, leaf, or stem-like structures. The bryophyte’s main plant body is haploid. It is called a gametophyte because it produces gametes. 57. Option (b) is correct Explanation: To neutralize the free fatty acids, and soften the esters. 58. Option (d) is correct Explanation: In the reactivity series Sodium is placed on the top then copper, silver and iron are placed. 59. Option (d) is correct Explanation: Next to the diamond, Born-nitride is the hardest substance. 60. Option (b) is correct Explanation: In the Haber-Bosch process, pure nitrogen and hydrogen gas reacts, and it is an exothermic reaction. 61. Option (d) is correct Explanation: Silica sand is used as a primary source of silicon- dioxide and its proportion is 95% in the composition of silica. 62. Option (d) is correct Explanation: From top to bottom metallic character is ­ increasing: Iodine < Bromine < Chlorine < ­Fluorine 63. Option (c) is correct Explanation: Water of crystallization molecules surround the central copper metal and which is responsible for blue colour CuSO4.5H2O. 64. Option (c) is correct Explanation: Avogadro’s law states “equal volume of all gaseous at same temperature and pressure have the same number of molecules”. 65. Option (a) is correct Explanation: Heat generation causes sodium azide to decompose into metal and nitrogen. 2NaN3 → 2Na + 3N2

33

SOLVED PAPER – 2023 (I) 66. Option (a) is correct Explanation: The Sylhet referendum was held on 6 July 1947 and the result went in favour of a merger with Pakistan. Assam thus lost a wealthy district causing serious loss of revenue. Today, Sylhet is a city in Bangladesh. 67. Option (c) is correct Explanation: The Rabatak Inscription is a stone inscribed with text written in the Bactrian language and Greek script. It was found in 1993 at Rabatak, near Surkh Kotal in Afghanistan. It is related to the rule of the Kushan emperor Kanishka, and gives remarkable clues on the genealogy of the Kushan dynasty. The lines 14–15, describes Kanishka as the king of kings, the son of god. 68. Option (d) is correct Explanation: The 5th century CE playwright, Shudraka, wrote the Sanskrit drama ‘Mrichchhakatika.’ The central story is that of a noble but impoverished young Brahmin, who falls in love with a wealthy courtesan. 69. Option (a) is correct Explanation: Yashovarman of the ‘Chandela dynasty’ was a ruler of the Kannauj kingdom. 70. Option (c) is correct Explanation: Ajatashatru was one of the most important kings of the Haryanka dynasty of Magadha. He forcefully took over the kingdom of Magadha from his father, King Bimbisara, and imprisoned him. Pataliputra was originally built by Ajatashatru in 490 BCE and was made capital of the Magadhan Empire. 71. Option (a) is correct Explanation: Nicolaus Copernicus was a Polish astronomer and mathematician known as the father of modern astronomy. He was the first European scientist to propose that Earth and other planets revolve around the sun, the heliocentric theory of the solar system. 72. Option (b) is correct Explanation: dp d dm F = = = ( mv ) v dt dt dt F = 2 × 0.1 = 0.2 N 73. Option (b) is correct Explanation: mgh Power = t = 8 × 4 × 10 / 2 = 160 W 74. Option (c) is correct Explanation: F = μr = μmg F = 0.2 × 2 × 10 = 4 N 75. Option (b) is correct Explanation: Acceleration due to gravity on moon, gm = 1/6 ge Extension of spring on earth = 6 cm

As extension in spring due to gravity of celestial objects, hence Extension of spring on the moon = 1/6 × 6 = 1 cm 76. Option (b) is correct Explanation: Second class lever means the fulcrum is at one end and the force applied is on another end. 77. Option (c) is correct Explanation: On stretching a wire to double to its length, resistance will become 4 times. As we know, I ∝ 1/R. So current would be 1/4th of its original value. 78. Option (c) is correct Explanation: In parallel circuit = Rnet =

1 1 2 + = R R R

R 3R +R= 2 2

79. Option (d) is correct Explanation: The Bharatmala Pariyojana was announced by Mr Nitin Gadkari, the Minister of Road Transport and Highways of India to improve the road network in the country. The scheme aims: • To build Economic Corridor. • To increase Border Road and International Connectivity. • To increase Port Connectivity with the Coastal Roads. 80. Option (c) is correct Explanation: Deendayal Port was earlier known as Kandla Port. It is located on the Gulf of Kutch in Gujarat and is one of India’s major ports on the west coast. 81. Option (b) is correct Explanation: The Counter-Insurgency and Jungle Warfare School (CIJWS) is a training and research establishment of the Indian Army. It is located in Vairengte, Mizoram and is specialised in unconventional warfare, especially counterinsurgency and guerrilla warfare. The school’s motto is to “fight the guerrilla like a guerrilla”. 82. Option (a) is correct Explanation: Calcification occurs when evapotranspiration exceeds precipitation causing the upward movement of dissolved alkaline salts from the groundwater. At the same time, the movement of rain water causes a downward movement of the salts. The net result is the deposition of the translocated cations in the B horizon. In some cases, these deposits can form a hard layer called Caliche. The most common substance involved in this process is calcium carbonate. 83. Option (d) is correct Explanation: The structure of the earth is divided into four major components: the crust, the mantle, the outer core, and the inner core. All these layers are separated from each other through a transition zone. These transition zones are called discontinuities. Lehmann Discontinuity is the transition zone between outer and inner core. It is an abrupt increase of P-wave and S-wave velocities at the depth of 220 km. It appears beneath continents, but not usually beneath oceans.

34 84. Option (d) is correct Explanation: Oak and Rhododendron are characteristic plants of the Temperate forest. Temperate forests are mainly found in the middle altitudes of the Himalayas. The trees like Mahogany and Rosewood are found in the tropical evergreen forest. They are found in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, and the Western Ghats. 85. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: Large body of igneous rock known as a batholith is formed by the intrusion and solidification of magma beneath the surface of the Earth. It often consists of coarse-grained rocks with a surface exposure of 100 square kilometres (40 square miles) or more, such as granite or granodiorite. They are the lowermost/innermost intrusive igneous rock. 86. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: The time difference between London, UK, and New Delhi, India, as measured by UTC, is 4 hours and 30 minutes. As a result, when it is 12 noon in Delhi it will be 7:30 a.m. morning in London. 87. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: When the sun, earth, and a celestial body are in a straight line, they are said to be in one of two positions (conjunction or opposition), which are referred to as SYZYGY. It is referred to as a full moon or a new moon if the celestial body is the moon. A spring tide happens during this time. Astronomers refer to a celestial object as being in quadrature when its direction, as observed from Earth, forms a 90-degree angle with the direction of the Sun. If this celestial body is the moon, it causes a neap tide. 88. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: Leonardo da Vinci, an Italian High Renaissance painter, created The Last Supper between 1495 and 1498. As described in the Gospel of John, the artwork depicts the Last Supper of Jesus with the Twelve Apostles, notably the moment when Jesus predicts that one of them will betray him. 89. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: Hernán Cortés was the European explorer who conquered Mexico. He overthrew the Aztec Empire and established Spanish sovereignty in Mexico by leading an expedition in 1519 on behalf of the Spanish Empire. This was accomplished through numerous wars and agreements with local tribes. 90. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: In a shrine at Mat, close to Mathura (Uttar Pradesh), colossal statues of Kushana kings have been discovered. In an Afghan shrine, similar statues have also been discovered. 91. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: The First Anglo-Burmese War came to its end with the signing of the Treaty of Yandabo on 24 February, 1826. 92. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: Out of the actual investments made in the First 5-Year Plan, which totaled Rs. 1960 crores, the development of agriculture and irrigation was given priority. 31%, or Rs. 601 crores, of the budget

Oswaal NDA/NA Year-wise Solved Papers

93.

94.

95.

96.

97.

went to agriculture. It was the highest investment among all the 5-Year Plans. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: In Sharm el-Sheikh, Egypt, the UN COP-27 Summit took place. The issue of climate change was the summit’s main focus. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: Although the British East India Company is credited with founding the Indian tea business, tea was produced, picked, steeped, and consumed in India long before they arrived. The Singpho people, who inhabit areas of Assam and Arunachal Pradesh, are regarded as India’s first tea cultivators and producers. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: The Sardar Swaran Singh Committee recommended the inclusion of a separate chapter on fundamental duties in the Constitution. The Congress Government at Centre accepted these recommendations and enacted the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act in 1976. This amendment added a new part, Part IVA, to the Constitution. This new part consists of only one article, i.e., Article 51-A which for the first time specified a code of ten fundamental duties of the citizens. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: According to the law of gravitation, the force of gravity of the Earth on the moon and of the Moon on the Earth are equal in magnitude but are in opposite directions. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: Since, the resistance (electric bulb) is same in both the cases. Therefore, P ∝ V2 or,

P1 V12 = P2 V22

2 or, 80W = (220V) P2 (110V)2

80 W 4 or, P2 = 20 W 98. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: Red light bends the least of all the colours since it travels at the fastest speed, whereas blue light travels at the slowest pace and bends the most. All other colours lie somewhere in between. 99. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: The speed of sound remains same at all frequencies. 100. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: Any telescope that just has mirrors and no lenses is referred to as a reflecting telescope, sometimes known as a reflector. The RitcheyChrétien telescope, the Cassegrain telescope, and the Newtonian telescope are the three most popular varieties of reflecting telescopes. or, P2 =

NDA / NA

GENERAL ABILITY TEST

National Defence Academy / Naval Academy

QUESTION PAPER

II

2023

Time : 1 hr 40 min

Total Marks: : 400

Instructions 1. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. 2. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet. 3. All items carry equal marks. 4. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to the various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions. 5. Penalty for wrong answers : THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS. (i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. (ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question. (iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.

1. The streaming of light beams coming from the Sun through trees is said to have suggested that light travels in straight line. The particles on the path of light beams are visible to us because (a) dust particles in the air reflect light into our eyes (b) dust particles in the air scatter light into our eyes (c) dust particles in the air refract light into our eyes (d) dust particles in the air polarize light into our eyes 2.  The flash of lightning is seen before the thunderstorm is heard. It verifies that (a) sound travels much faster than light (b) light travels much faster than sound (c) light and sound both travel with same speed (d) intensity of flash of lightning is very high during thunderstorm 3.  The potential difference between the two end terminals of an electric heater is 220 V and the current through it is 0.5 A. What would be the current through the heater if the potential difference across the terminals of the heater is reduced to 120 V ? (a) 1.0 A (b) 0.5 A (c) 0.27 A (d) 0.7 A 4. The heating element in an electric iron is usually made of (a) Constantan (b) Tungsten (c) Nichrome (d) Copper 5. Sita, 1·5 m high, stands before a plane mirror fixed on a wall to view her full image. What should be

the minimum height of the plane mirror so that Sita can view her image fully? (a) 0.50 m (b) 0.35 m (c) 0.75 m (d) 0.25 m 6. Galvanization is a method of protecting iron from rusting by coating with a thin layer of (a) Gallium (b) Aluminum (c) Zinc (d) Silver 7. Which one of the following alloys contains a nonmetal as one of its constituent? (a) Brass (b) Bronze (c) Amalgam (d) Steel 8. Buckminster fullerene, which looks like a football, is an allotropic form of (a) Phosphorus (b) Sulfur (c) Carbon (d) Tin 9. Which one of the following graphs correctly represents the current (I) voltage (V) variation for a rectangular piece of a semiconductor wafer? I

I (a)

0

V

I (c)

0

(b) 0

V

I V

(d) 0

V

36

Oswaal NDA/NA Year-wise Solved Papers

10. The green plants in a terrestrial ecosystem absorbs sunlight that falls on their leaves and convert it into food energy. The percentage of solar radiation absorbed by all green plants for the process of photosynthesis is about (a) 1% (b) 5% (c) 8% (d) 10% 11. Consider the following reaction: Fe2O3(s)+ 2Al(s) → 2Fe(s) + Al2O3(s) Which of the following statements about the given reaction is NOT correct? (a) It is an example of displacement reaction (b) It is highly endothermic reaction (c) Fe2O3 acts as oxidizing agent . (d) This reaction is applicable to joining of railway tracks . 12. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List I (Chemical process)

List II (Reaction)

A. Electrolysis of water

1. Double displacement reaction

B. Burning of coal

2. Combination reaction

C. Iron nail immersed in copper sulphate solution

3. Decomposition reaction

D. Addition of barium chloride solution to aluminium sulphate solution

4. Displacement reaction

Code: A B C D (a) 3 4 2 1 (b) 4 2 1 3 (c) 3 2 4 1 (d) 4 1 2 3 13. Which one of the following processes involves chemical reaction? (a) Evaporation of petrol (b) Dissolution of salt in water (c) Storing of oxygen gas under pressure in a gas cylinder (d) Burning of magnesium ribbon in aIr 14. Which one of the following metals does NOT react with cold water to liberate hydrogen gas ? (a) Potassium (b) Iron (c) Calcium (d) Sodium 15. Consider the following reaction: D 2HgO  →2Hg + O2

The respective state of HgO, Hg and O2 in the above reaction is

(a) Liquid, solid, gas (b) Solid, solid, gas (c) Liquid, solid, liquid (d) Solid, liquid, gas 16. The two important features of sexual reproduction in higher organisms that create genetic diversity in offspring are (a) Mitosis and fertilization (b) Meiosis and fertilization (c) Mitosis and binary fission (d) Meiosis and conjugation 17. Eukaryotic cells are much more complex as compared to prokaryotes. Which one of the following structures is exclusively present in a eukaryoticcell ? (a) Cell wall (b) Plasma membrane (c) Nucleic acid (d) Mitochondria 18. An important cause of tooth decay by the bacterium Streptococcus mutans is because of their ability to attach to teeth surface by producing slime layer from (a) Sugar (b) Alcohol (c) Saliva (d) Teichoic acid 19. In angiosperms, pollen grain germinates to produce two male gametes. Which one of the following functions is carried out by these gametes? (a) Both the gametes fuse with a single egg cell (b) Both the gametes fuse with two different egg cells (c) One gamete fuses with the egg cell and the other one eventually degenerate (d) One gamete fuses with the egg cell and the other one fuses with a diploid secondary nucleus 20. In a sexually reproducing organism, which one of the following statements is appropriate both for the parent and offspring? (a)  Chromosome number increases but DNA content remains constant (b) Both chromosome number and DNA content remains constant (c)  Chromosome number decreases but DNA content remains constant (d) Both chromosome number and DNA content decreases 21. Relationship between a flower and honey-bee will help the flower for/in (a) Faster development (b) Pollination (c) Quick germination of pollen (d) Increase in size 22. Which one of the following was NOT a way in which kings in ancient India attempted to claim a higher status? (a) Identifying with a variety of deities (b) Assuming pompous titles

SOLVED PAPER – 2023 (II) (c) Imposing high taxes (d) Conquests and annexation of territories 23. Which one of the following statements about the Bhakti movement is NOT correct? (a) The Bhakti movement avoided traditions that promoted diversity (b)  In northern India, the Bhakti movement revolved around the worship of Rama and Krishna (c) The Bhakti movement relied on the devotion of God, both with and without attributes (d)  While Tulsidas represented the tradition of devotion with attributes, Sant Kabir followed the path of devotion without attributes 24. The 'Reign of Terror' in revolutionary France referred to (a)  Bands of revolutionaries moving around to terrorize people who did not participate in the revolution (b)  The royal forces punishing people who participated in the revolution (c)  Trial and beheading persons considered enemies of the republic by the revolutionary tribunal (d) The general atmosphere of insecurity perceived by people after the beheading of the king 25. In which one of the following ways did the First World War Not impact Europe? (a) From a continent of creditors it turned into a continent of debtors (b)  Soldiers came to be placed higher in social status than civilians (c)  Popular support decreased for conservative dictatorship which had come into being recently (d) National honor occupied center stage in the public sphere 26. "...the immediate ending of British rule in India is an urgent necessity..." was a resolution of (a) Non Co-operation Movement (b) Quit India Movement (c) Individual Movement (d) Civil Disobedience Movement 27. Which one among the following pairs of mine and mineral is NOT correctly matched? (a) Bailadila : Iron Ore (b) Zawar : Zinc (c) Ghatsila : Copper (d) Kudremukh : Bauxite 28. Which one of the following is the usual unit of measurement for Air Pressure used in India ? (a) Centimeter (b) Millibar (c) Milligram (d) Milliliter 29. Which one of the following is the oldest era in Geological. Geological History determining the age of various rock types? (a) Precambrian (b) Mesozoic (c) Cenozoic (d) Paleozoic

37 30. A geographical grid has : 1. Lines that run east to west around the globe to mark latitude 2. Lines that run north to south from north pole to south pole indicate longitude Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 31. In which one of the following layers of the atmosphere all weather phenomena occur? (a) Mesosphere (b) Troposphere (c) Thermosphere (d) Stratosphere 32. In which one of the following states 'Roopkund' lake located? (a) Kerala (b) Manipur (c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Uttarakhand 33. Ram records the odometer readings of his car for the distance covered from 2000 km at the start of his journey and 2400 km at the end of the journey after 8 hours. What is the average speed of the car? (a) 50 km/h (b) 60 km/h (c) 70 km/h (d) 80 km/h 34. Ms. Rani decides to convert her AC generator into a DC generator. Which one of the following she would need to use? (a) A split-ring type commutator (b) Slip rings and brushes (c) A stronger magnetic field (d) A rectangular wire loop 35. Ramesh cannot see distinctly objects kept beyond 2 m. This defect can be corrected by using a lens of power (a) + 0.5 D (b) –0.5 D (c) + 0.2 D (d) –0.2 D 36. Which of the following statements are correct about the electrical resistance and resistivity of a wire? 1. Both quantities depend on the area of crosssection of the wire 2. Both depend on the temperature 3. Resistance of the wire is directly proportional to the resistivity of the wire 4. Resistivity of the wire is directly proportional to the length of the Wire Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4 37. A liquid is heated up to a certain temperature. Which one of the following situation would correspond to the boiling of the liquid? (a) When atmospheric pressure becomes equal to the vapor pressure (b) When atmospheric pressure becomes less than the vapor pressure (c) When atmospheric pressure becomes higher than the vapor pressure

38

Oswaal NDA/NA Year-wise Solved Papers

(d) When vapor pressure becomes equal to the air pressure 38. Which one of the following is NOT an example of an organic compound? (a) Ammonium cyanate (b) Marsh gas (c) Urea (d) Cane sugar 39. Which one of the following acid isused by goldsmith for cleaning of gold and silver articles ? (a) Sulphuric acid (b) Nitric acid (c) Hydrochloric acid (d) Phosphoric acid 40. What is the action of litmus on ethanol? (a) Litmus is neutral towards ethanol (b) Ethanol turns blue litmus to red; confirming acidic nature of ethanol (c) Ethanol turns red litmus to blue; confirming basic nature of ethanol (d) Ethanol decolorizes litmus through bleaching action 41. Which one of the following metal is NOT an essential component in stainless steel ? (a) Iron (b) Nickel (c) Chromium (d) Tin 42. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List I (Process)

List II (Separation method)

A. Separation of acetone and water from their mixture

1. Chromatography

B. Separation of water and kerosene oil from their mixture

2. Centrifugation

C. Separation of cream from milk

3. Distillation

D. Separation of 4. S  eparating Funnel pigments from plant extract Code: A B C D (a) 3 2 4 1 (b) 4 2 1 3 (c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 4 1 2 3 43. Which one of the following is NOT a requirement for photosynthesis ? (a) Chlorophyll (b) CO2 (c) Water (d) O2 44. In flowering plants, DNA content of the parent plant gets halved during (a) Seed germination (b) Fruit formation (c) Flower bud formation (d) Pollen formation

45. Which one of the following is the correct sequence during sexual reproduction in Angiosperms ? (a) Egg → zygote → embryo → seed (b) Embryo → egg → zygote → seed (c) Egg → embryo → zygote → seed (d) Egg → seed → zygote → embryo 46. Which one of the following combinations of events represents the correct sequence during reproduction in flowering plans ? (a) Ovule → fruit; egg → embryo; zygote → seed; ovary → egg (b) Embryo → egg; ovary → fruit; ovule → zygote; zygote → seed (c) Ovary → fruit; zygote → egg; embryo → ovule; seed → fruit (d) Egg → zygote; zygote → embryo; ovule → seed; ovary → fruit 47. The book 'Nation First: The Golden Saga of 82 Years' is the history of which one of the following organizations? (a) Indo-Tibetan Border Police (b) Border Security Force (c) Central Reserve Police Force (d) Central Industrial Security Force 48. Consider the following statements regarding Sanchi and its archaeological findings: 1. When Sanchi was discovered in 1818, three of its four gateways were still standing, the fourth was lying on the spot where it had fallen 2. Animals depicted at Sanchi include elephants, horses, monkeys and cattle. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 49. Which Five Year Plan of India focused on rapid industrialization based growth process? (a) First Five Year Plan (b) Second Five Year Plan (c) Fifth Five Year Plan (d) Seventh Five Year Plan 50. Chandimangala, a sixteenth century text, was composed by (a) Hema Saraswati (b) Madhav Kandali (c) Tukaram (d) Mukundaram Chakrabarti 51. Consider the following statements regarding the royal center in Vijayanagara Empire: 1.  The royal center was located in the southwestern part of the settlement 2. It included over 60 temples 3. About 30 building complexes at the site have been identified as palaces Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2 only

39

SOLVED PAPER – 2023 (II) 52. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct? (a) Area wise Madhya Pradesh is the fourth largest state in India (b) Hornbill festival is celebrated in Nagaland (c) Gujarat state contribute 7·9 percent share to the National GDP (d) Telangana is situated in the Deccan plateau in the central stretch of Indian peninsula 53. Which one of the following soils is ideal for growing cotton ? (a) Regur soil (b) Laterite soil (c) Desert soil (d) Mountainous soil 54. Where is the Central Institute of Buddhist Studies situated ? (a) Leh (b) Kullu (c) Ahnora (d) Gangtok 55. Consider the. following statements about physical features of India: 1. The southern point of the Peninsular Plateau is formed by the Nilgiri Hills where the Eastern and the Western Ghats meet 2. The Cardamom Hills may be regarded as a continuation of the Eastern Ghats Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 56. Which one of the following is the narrow belt parallel to the Shivalik foothills where streams and rivers coming from the mountains deposit heavy materials of rocks and boulders ? (a) Tarai (b) Bhangar (c) Bhabar (d) Khadar 57. Which of the following statements about the Suez Canal is/ are correct? 1. Suez is a man-made navigation canal 2. Suez links the Mediterranean Sea and the Red Sea 3. The economic significance of Suez 'Canal is less than that of Panama Canal Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 58. An iron nail sinks in water whereas an iron ship floats. Which of the following statements is correct in this regard? 1. Average density of ship is greater than that of the water 2. Average density of iron nail is greater than that of the water 3. Average density of the ship is less than that of the water 4. Average density of the ship is equal to that of the water Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 4 59. Which of the following arrangement of resistors offers minimum effective resistance between points X and Y ? 3W 3W Y

(a) X 3W

3W

(b) X

Y

3W 1W

1W Y

(c) X 1W (d) X

1W

1W Y

60. What will happen if a collection of positive and negative charges are passed at a high speed through a magnetic field which is perpendicular to the direction of motion of the charges? (Assume that both kind of charges are NOT going to recombine) (a) Both kind of charges will stop moving (b)  Positive charges and negative charges will separate out (c) Positive charges will stop but negative charges will continue moving uninterrupted (d)  Both kind of charges will keep moving uninterrupted 61. The motion of a particle of mass m is described by the relation, y = ut – 1/2 gt2, where u is the initial velocity of the particle. The force acting on the particle is (a) F = m (du/dt) (b) F = mg (c) F = m(dy/dt) (d) F = –mg 62. A block of wood (dimensions: 40 cm × 20 cm × 10 cm) is kept on a tabletop in three different positions: (a) with its side of dimensions 20 cm × 10 cm; (b) with its side of dimensions 10 cm × 40 cm; and (c) with its side of dimensions 40 cm × 20 cm. The pressure exerted by the wooden block on the tabletop in these positions is represented by PA, PB and PC respectively. The pressure follows the trend (a) PA > PB > PC (b) PA < PB < PC (c) PA = PB =PC (d) PA < PB =PC

40

Oswaal NDA/NA Year-wise Solved Papers

63. Which one of the following metals can be extracted using carbon as reducing agent? (a) Zinc (b) Silver (c) Gold (d) Aluminum 64. Which among the following is NOT true with respect to colloidal solution? (a) Particles are uniformly distributed throughout the solution (b) Colloidal solution is homogenous in nature (c) They show Tyndal effect (d)  They do not settle down when kept undisturbed 65. Kerosene and petrol mixture can be best separated by (a) Sublimation (b) Separating funnel (c) Fractional distillation (d) Compressing and cooling 66. As proposed by Dalton, which of the following symbol represents phosphorus? (a) (c)

P

(b) L (d)

67. Which among the following statements with respect to carbon is/are correct? 1. Carbon forms the basis for all living organisms and many things we use 2. Carbon shows tetra-valency and the property of catenation 3. Carbon forms covalent bonds with itself and other elements 4.  Carbon forms compounds containing triple and tetra bonds between carbon atoms Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4 68. Consider the following statements : 1.  Terracotta models of the plough have been found at sites in Cholistan and at Banawali (Haryana). 2.  There is evidence of a plowed field at Kalibangan associated with the mature phase of the Harappan civilization. 3. The plowed field at Kalibangan had two sets of furrows crossing at right angles to each other suggesting two different crops were grown together in it. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) None of the above 69. Which of the following statements about the technological innovations during the Industrial Revolutions are correct?

1. Mule was the nickname for a machine invented in 1779, that allowed the spinning of strong and fine yarn. 2.  Water Frame, invented in 1769 by Richard Arkwright, made it possible to weave pure cotton clothes. 3. Power loom, invented by Edmund Cartwright in 1787, could be used to weave any kind of materials. Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 only 70. Who among the following is known as the architect of Indian planning? (a) V.E.R.Y Rao (b) Sukhamoy Chakravarty (c) P. C. Mahalanobis (d) John Mathai 71. Which one of the following Ashokan Minor Rock Edicts, contains the personal name of the king Ashoka ? (a) Maski (b) Bahapur (c) Bairat (d) Sahasram 72. Arrange the following in correct chronological order 1. Charak Samhita 2. Bharata's Natyashastra 3. Sangam Literature 4. Ashtadhyayi Select .the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 - 3 - 4 - 2 (b) 2 - 4 - 1 - 3 (c) 4 - 3 - 1 - 2 (d) 3 - 1 - 2 - 4 73. Which one of the following is NOT an example of Fold Mountain? (a) Mt. Fuji (b) Alps (c) Andes (d) Rockies 74. Which one of the following is an organic soil? (a) Aridisols (b) Histosols (c) Oxisols (d) Vertisols 75. The North-south and East-west Road Corridors of India cross each other at which of the following cities? (a) Bhopal (b) Itarsi (c) Gwalior (d) Jhansi 76. Which one of the following climatic regions of the world have a typical characteristic of seasonal reversal of wind? (a) British type Climate (b) Mediterranean Climate (c) China type Climate (d) Monsoon Climate 77. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct? (a) Bokaro steel plant is located in Damodar river basin

41

SOLVED PAPER – 2023 (II)

distance(m)

distance(m)

(b)  Jamshedpur steel plant is located on the confluence of Damodar and Barakar (c)  Salem steel plant is located on the bank of Kaveri River (d) Bhilai steel plant obtains water from Tandula reservoir 78. How many of the following pairs of specialized agriculture and its products are correctly matched? 1. Apiculture : Honey 2. Sericulture : Silk 3. Silviculture : Forestry 4. Viticulture : Grapes Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1 79. Which one of the following crops is generally benefited by the rain caused by western disturbances in India? (a) Rice (b) Wheat (c) Bajra (d) Cotton 80. Which one of the following pairs of city and industry is NOT correctly matched? (a) Saharanpur : Paper industry (b) Chanderi : Cotton textile industry (c) Bhadohi : Carpet industry (d) Raniganj : Iron and steel industry 81. Which one of the following graphs represents the equation of motion v =u + at; where all quantities are non-zero and symbols carry their usual meanings?

(a)

(c)

0

0

time(s)

distance(m)

time(s)

distance(m)

0

(b)

(d) time(s)

0

time(s)

82. Which one of the following statements is true for sound waves propagating in air? (a)  Sound is an electromagnetic wave and transverse in nature (b) Sound is a mechanical wave and longitudinal in nature (c) Sound is a mechanical wave and transverse in nature (d)  Sound is an electromagnetic wave and longitudinal in nature

83. A 100 g sphere is moving at a speed of 20 m/s and collides with another sphere of mass 50 g. If the second sphere was at rest prior to the collision and the first sphere comes at rest immediately after the collision, considering the collision to be elastic, the speed of the second sphere would be (a) 10 m/s (b) 20 m/s (c) 30 m/s (d) 40 m/s 84. Which one of the following optical phenomena supports that the light is a transverse wave? (a) Refraction (b) Diffraction (c) Interference (d) Polarization 85. How many of the following materials can be attracted by a magnet? 1. Plastic 2. Carbon 3. Aluminium 4. Stainless Steel Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) None 86. Consider the following statements with reference to the Bhoodan Movement: 1.  Vinoba Bhave organized 'The Sarvodaya Samaj' to take up the work of non-violent transformation in India 2.  Jayaprakash Narayan withdrew from active politics to join the Bhoodan Movement in 1953 3. In the wake of the Bhoodan Movement the first donation of land was made in the village of Pochampalli in Telangana How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) None 87. Which among the following statements regarding the election of non permanent members to the United Nations Security Council is/are correct? 1. Five members corning from Africa and Asia, one from Eastern Europe, two from Latin America and two from Western Europe and other states 2.  Six members are elected each year by the General Assembly for two year term Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 88. Which one of the following provisions of the Constitution of India deals with District Planning Committee? (a) 243ZD (b) 243ZB (c) 243ZE (d) 243ZC 89. Consider the following statements about AttorneyGeneral in India: 1. She/he is the first law officer of the Government of India 2. She/he has a right to speak in any House of Parliament without any right to vote

42

Oswaal NDA/NA Year-wise Solved Papers

3. She/he is appointed by the President of India 4.  She/he is a whole-time counsel for the Government in the court of law How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 90. Which one among the following states was NOT impacted by the Land Boundary Agreement Treaty between India and Bangladesh (2015) ? (a) West Bengal (b) Assam (c) Tripura (d) Arunachal Pradesh 91. The 480 MW Phukot Karnali Hydro Electric Project is situated in (a) Thailand (b) Indonesia (c) Nepal (d) Bhutan 92. Consider the following statements about a river: This river originates in the Hindu Kush mountain range and flows into Hamoun wetlands after covering a long stretch of about 1,100 km. There have been serious conflicts between two neighboring nations regarding the sharing of water from this river. Identify the river from the following: (a) Mekong (b) Tarim (c) Indus (d) Helmand 93. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List I (Bilateral Exercise)

List II (Participating Country)

A.  Garuda Shakti

1. India and Japan

B.  Nomadic Elephant

2. India and Sri Lanka

C.  Mitra Shakti

3. India and Mongolia

D.  Dharma Guardian 4. India and Indonesia Code: A B C D (a) 4 2 3 1 (b) 4 3 2 1 (c) 1 3 2 4 (d) 1 2 3 4 94. Consider the following statements about gallantry awards in India: 1. Post-independence, first three gallantry awards were instituted on 26th January, 1950 2. The first three gallantry awards were Ashoka Chakra Class-I, Ashoka Chakra Class-II and Ashoka Chakra Class-III

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 95. Consider the following statement about Centralized Laboratory Network (CLN): 1. CLN works to test vaccines which can be used during pandemic 2. India is a member of CLN 3. CLN is a part of the Coalition for Epidemic Preparedness Innovations (CEPI) Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 96. Consider the following statements about Kavach, the automatic train protection system: 1.  It is designed and developed by Research Design and Standard Organisation (RDSO) in collaboration with Railway Technical Research Institute (RTRI), Japan 2.  The trials of Kavach were facilitated by the Southern Railway 3. Kavach is a state-of-the-art electronic system with Safety Integrity Level-4 (SIL-4) Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 97. The Nova Kakhovka dam, which was in news recently, is situated in (a) Belarus (b) Turkey (c) Ukraine (d) Poland 98. Aaron Finch, who recently retired from international cricket, was captain of the men's cricket team of which one of the following countries? (a) South Africa (b) Australia (c) England (d) New Zealand 99. Which one of the following is the name of the dashboard launched recently by the Reserve Bank of India to assess and monitor the progress of financial inclusion by capturing relevant parameters? (a) Pragya (b) Antardrishti (c) Divyachakshu (d) Antargyan 100. 'Sengol', installed in the new Parliament building of India, was seen as a symbol of the path of service, duty and nation in which Empire of the past? (a) Gupta Empire (b) Shunga Empire (c) Pandyan Empire (d) Chola Empire

43

SOLVED PAPER – 2023 (II) Answers Q No

Answer Key

Topic Name

Chapter Name

1

(b)

Scattering of Light

Light

2

(b)

Speed of Light

Light

3

(a)

Power

Electric Current

4

(c)

Heating Effect of Current

Electric Current

5

(c)

Plane Mirror

Ray Optics

6

(c)

Methods to Protect Comoi

Metal and Non Metal

7

(d)

Alloys

Metal and Non Metal

8

(c)

Allopope

Organic Compound

9

(c)

V I Characteristics

Semiconductors

10

(a)

Photosynthesis

Photosynthesis in Plants

11

(b)

Types of Chemical Reaction

Chemical Reaction

12

(c)

Types of Chemical Reaction

Chemical Reaction

13

(d)

Physical and Chemical Change

Chemical Reaction

14

(b)

Reactivity Series

Metal and Non Metal

15

(d)

Physical State

Chemical Reaction

16

(b)

Sexual Reproduction

Reproduction in Organisms

17

(d)

Cell and its Organelles

Cell and its Organelles

18

(a)

Microphone

Human Health and Diseases

19

(d)

Male Reproductive Cell

Reproduction in Plants

20

(b)

Genetic Variation

Reproduction in Organisms

21

(b)

Pollination

Reproduction in Organisms

22

(c)

Ancient Indian History

The Ancient Indian King and their High Status

23

(a)

Medieval Indian History

Bhakti Movement

24

(c)

The French Revolution

Reign of Terror

25

(c)

The First World War

Nationalism in India

26

(b)

Modern Indian History

The Quit India Movement

27

(d)

Ore and Minirals

Metal and Non Metal

28

(b)

Pressure

Fluid Mechanics

29

(a)

Geological History 

Precambrian Era

30

(c)

Latitude, Longitude and Time

Geographical Grid

31

(b)

Earth's Atmosphere

Troposphere Layer

32

(d)

Lakes and Rivers

Lakes and Rivers

33

(a)

Speed

Kinematics

34

(a)

Generator

Electromagnetic Induction

35

(b)

Power of Lens

Optics

36

(b)

Resistance

Electric Current

37

(a)

Bioling Point

Solution

38

(a)

Organic Compound

Carbon and its Compound

44

Oswaal NDA/NA Year-wise Solved Papers 39

(b)

Unra of Acid

Acid, Base and Salt

40

(a)

Litmus Test

Acid, Base and Salt

41

(d)

Alloys

Metals and Non-Matals

42

(c)

Techniques of Sepration

Organic Compound

43

(d)

Photosynthesis

Photosynthesis in Plants

44

(d)

Pollern Grains

Reproduction in Plants

45

(a)

Reproduction in Plants

Reproduction in Plants

46

(d)

Reproduction in Flowering Plants

Reproduction in Plants

47

(c)

Defence

Paramilitary Force Related Books

48

(c)

Indian Art and Culture

Cultural Developments of India- Stupas and Sculptures

49

(c)

Five Year Plan

Planning in India

50

(d)

History of Medieval India

Important Poets Related to Bengali Language

51

(c)

An Imperial Capital: Vijayanagara

The Vijayanagara Empire

52

(a)

Population of India and Different States

 Population of India and Different States

53

(a)

Classification of Soils

Classification of Soils- Regur Soil

54

(a)

What, Where and How

Central Institute of Buddhist Studies

55

(a)

Physical Feature of India

Physical Feature of India

56

(c)

Physical Feature of India

Mountain Ranges of India- Shivalik Foothills

57

(b)

International Water ways

Important Waterway -The Suez Canal

58

(b)

Density of water

Density of Water

59

(a)

Combination of Resistors

Electric Current

60

(d)

Force on Charge in Magnetic Field

Moving Charge and Magnetism

61

(d)

Newton's Second Law

Newton's Law of Motion

62

(a)

Pressure

Fluid

63

(a)

Reactivity Series

Metal and Non Metals

64

(b)

Colloidal Solution

Surface Chemistry

65

(c)

Fractional Distillation

Refining

66

(d)

Symbols of Atoms

Basic Concept of Chemistry

67

(c)

Science and Technology

Carbon Dating System

68

(a)

Ancient Indian History

The Indus Valley Civilisation

69

(a)

World History- 19th Century Europe

The Industrial Revolution in Britain

70

(c)

Indian Economy-Five Year Plan

Five year Plan- P.C. Mahalanobis 

71

(a)

Maurya Dynasty

Important Inscription Rock Edicts Related to the King Ashoka

72

(c)

Ancient Indian History

73

(a)

Earth's Crust- Types of Mountains

Some Ancient History Book and their Author Names Fold Mountains

74

(b)

pH of Soil

Organic Chemistry

75

(d)

Some Important Corridors in India for Tansportation

North-South and East-West Road Corridors of India

76

(d)

Climate Region of the World

Monsoon

45

SOLVED PAPER – 2023 (II) 77

(b)

Steel Plant and their Location

Steel Plant and their Location

78

(a)

Agriculture

Different Branch of Agriculture for Specialization

79

(b)

Indian Climate

Monsoon Rain- Western Disturbance

80

(d)

Iron and Steel Industry of India

Iron and Steel Industry of India with their Location in the Map

81

(d)

Graph

Kinematics

82

(b)

Types of Wave

Sound Wave

83

(d)

Linear Mometum

Work, Energy & Power

84

(d)

Polarisation

Light

85

(d)

Magnetic Material

Magnetism

86

(c)

After Independence- Some Movement

The Bhoodan Movement

87

(a)

International Organisation-The United Nations

The United Nations -Security Council

88

(a)

Indian Constitution

Indian Constitution Part-IX Municipal Cooperation

89

(c)

Indian Constitution

Indian Constitution Part-V the Attorney General of India

90

(d)

India and its Neighbor Country Relations

Land Boundary Agreement Treaty – 2015

91

(c)

India and its Neighbor Country Relations

Hydroelectric Project in Nepal

92

(d)

World Important Rivers

Asia continent - Hindu Kush Mountain Range River System

93

(b)

India Bilateral Exercise

List of Bilateral Exercise India with Some Countries

94

(a)

Government of India-Awards

List of Gallantry Awards

95

(d)

Centralized Laboratory Network

India and other Members of this Network

96

(b)

Science and Technology

Automatic Train Protection (ATP) System.

97

(c)

World Important Dams Name Lists

The Nova Kakhovka Dam

98

(b)

Sports

International Cricket

99

(b)

Economy-Indian Monetry System

Role of Reserve Bank of India

100

(d)

South -India Empire

Chola Dynasty

NDA / NA

GENERAL ABILITY TEST

National Defence Academy / Naval Academy

II

SOLVED PAPER

2023

ANSWERS WITH EXPLANATION 1. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: The dust particle on the path of light is visible because of scattering of light. 2. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: Speed of sound in air = 340 m/s Speed of light in air = 3 × 108 m/s Thus the lightening is seen first and then the sound is heard. 3. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: P = VI  = 220 V × 0.5 A = 110 W Now, ⇒ 110 = 120 × I 110 ⇒ I= = 0.9 A ≈ 1A 120 4. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: The heating element in an electric iron is usually made up of Nichrome. Nichrome is an alloy which is made up of 80% of Nickel and 20% Chromium. 5. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: In order to see the full image, the size of mirror required is just half of the height of object. Therefore the minimum height of the plane mirror 1.5 required is h = = 0.75 m 2 6. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: During Galvanization more reactive metal like zinc is coated on the surfaced iron. So this more reactive metal undergoes corrosion in comparison to iron. 7. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: Steel contain carbon non-metal. Steel = Fe = 72 %, Cr = 17-19%, Ni = 7-9 % with carbon. Brass = Cu = 66%, Zn = 34% Bronze = Cu = 88%, Sn = 12%

Amalgam = Ag = 67 – 74%, Sn = 25 – 28%, Cu = 6%, Zn = 2%, Hg = 3%. 8. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: Allotropy is the property of element due to which element exist is different form but have same chemical properties and different physical properties. Carbon has three allotrops Graphite, Diamond and Fullerene. 9. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: The current flowing through the semiconductor is not linearly proportional to the voltage. In forward bias the current increases by increasing the voltage in parabolic way. 10. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: Green plants utilize approximately 1% of the solar radiation they absorb through their leaves for the process of photosynthesis. This critical reaction relies on the absorption of sunlight. Carbon dioxide is taken in by the plant through stomata, commonly found on the underside of the leaves, while water is absorbed through its roots. The fraction of solar radiation utilized for photosynthesis is approximately 1%. 11. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: Fe2O3(s) + 2Al(S) → 2Fe(s) + Al2(O3), ∆H = –ve • This reaction is highly exothermic reaction . • Aluminium displace Fe, so in an example of displacement reaction. • Fe2O3 undergoes reduction, so it acts an Oxidizing Agent. • Due to Highly exothermic nature it is applicable to joining of railways tracks. 12. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: Burning of coal C + O2 → CO2 Combination reaction B → 2 Electrolysis of water 1 Electrolysis → H 2 (g) + O2 (g) H 2O  2  Decomposition reaction

SOLVED PAPER – 2023 (II) A → 3 Iron nail Immersed in Copper Sulphate Solution Fe + CuSO4 (al) → FeSO4(al) + Cu(s)  Displacement reaction C → 4 3BaCl2(al) + Al2SO4 → 3BaSO4(al) + 2AlCl3  Double displacement reaction D → 1 A →3, B → 2, C → 4, D → 1 13. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: Chemical reaction represents chemical change taking place during reaction Burning of Magnesium Ribbon 1 Mg + O2 → MgO 2 Evaporation of petrol, dissolution of salt in water storing of oxygen gas under pressure in a gas cylinder represents physical changes. 14. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: Iron does not react with cold water to produce H2. However it reacts with hot water to produce H2. Ca, K, Na being strong reducing agents reacts with water to produce H2. 15. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: ∆ → 2Hg (l) + O2 (g) 2HgO (s)  HgO → Solid State Hg → Liquid State O2 → Gas State 16. Option (b) is the correct. Explanation: Meiosis contributes to genetic diversity by rearranging and recombining genetic material within an organism, while fertilization combines genetic material from two separate parents. These fundamental biological processes, along with the potential occurrence of mutations, collectively generate the genetic variation observed in sexually reproducing organisms. This genetic diversity plays a vital role in enabling organisms to adapt to shifting environments and drive the evolutionary processes that occur over extended periods. 17. Option (d) is the correct. Explanation: Mitochondria are exclusive to eukaryotic cells, just like other membrane-bound structures such as the nucleus and the Golgi apparatus (which will be discussed further later on). One prevalent theory explaining the evolution of eukaryotic cells suggests that mitochondria may have originally been independent prokaryotic cells that established a symbiotic relationship by residing within other cells.

47 18. Option (a) is the correct. Explanation: Streptococcus mutans, the bacterium responsible for tooth decay, forms a slimy layer primarily from dietary sugars, especially sucrose. This sticky biofilm adheres to teeth, providing a breeding ground for harmful bacteria. As these bacteria metabolize sugar, they produce acids that erode tooth enamel, leading to cavities. Managing sugar intake and maintaining good oral hygiene are crucial in preventing this dental issue. 19. Option (d) is the correct. Explanation: In the process of plant reproduction, one of the male gametes combines with the female gamete, giving rise to the formation of an embryo. This embryo then undergoes further development, ultimately maturing into a new plant. Simultaneously, another male gamete fuses with polar nuclei, eventually leading to the formation of endosperm. The endosperm plays a vital role in nourishing the developing embryo by providing it with essential nutrients and sustenance. 20. Option (b) is the correct. Explanation: In the context of sexual reproduction in organisms, the statement suitable for both parent and offspring is: “Both the parent and the offspring maintain a consistent chromosome number and DNA content.” This statement accurately portrays the essence of sexual reproduction, where both parent and offspring possess an unchanging chromosome number and DNA content as they inherit complete sets of chromosomes from each parent, preserving the species’ genetic stability. 21. Option (b) is the correct. Explanation: Bees and flowering plants engage in a mutualistic relationship that proves advantageous to both species. Within this symbiotic partnership, flowers offer bees a source of nectar and pollen, which diligent worker bees collect to sustain their entire colonies. In return, bees play a vital role for flowers in their reproductive process by facilitating the transfer of pollen from one flower to another, a crucial step known as pollination. This mutual dependency ensures the continued survival and propagation of both bees and flowering plants. 22. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: Many kings have ruled in ancient India. Most of the kings wanted to make their kingdom more powerful. The king would become an all-powerful monarch in the Ancient Society and attempt to claim a higher status. So they adopted the following methods:-

48

• They made ample use of the booming long distance trade to higher their status. • The ancient Indian king adopted a grandiose title. • They were appointed poets and others to write Prashastis about them. • Kings sought to expand their territories through military conquests. • Optimizing taxes or reducing them in special circumstances in order to increase popularity among people and show kindness to the king. 23. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: Bhakti Movement • It was a religious movement in medieval Hinduism that sought to bring religious reforms to all strata of society. • In the 14th and 15th centuries, Ramananda, Kabir and Nanak remained great apostles of the Bhakti cult. • It promoted diversity of religious ideas in religion. • The Alvars were Tamil poet-saints of South India who espoused bhakti (devotion) to the Hindu Supreme god Vishnu or his avatar Krishna in their songs of longing, ecstasy and service. • The Nayanars were a group of 63 saints (also saint poets) in the 6th to 8th century who were devoted to the Hindu god Shiva in Tamil Nadu. • The Bhakti movement in north India developed around the worship of Rama and Krishna. • The bhakti movement relied on the devotion of god, with and without attributes. • Tulsidas was a devotee of Lord Rama while saint Kabir followed the path of devotion without attributes and emphasized the unity of all religions. 24. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: The “Reign of Terror” in revolutionary France referred to trial and beheading persons considered enemies of the republic by the revolutionary tribunal from 1793 to 1794 CE. Approximately 17000 people were arrested, imprisoned and then killed in the Reign of Terror during this period. 25. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: The First World War took place from 28th July 1914 to 11th November 1918 in which Army, Navy and Air forces of about 30 countries participated. The international conflict principally between Central Powers (mainly Germany, Austria-Hungary, and Turkey) against the Allies (mainly France, Great Britain, Russia, Italy, Japan resulted in the deaths of millions of soldiers and massacres around the world. Europe was badly affected by this war.

Oswaal NDA/NA Year-wise Solved Papers

• The European economy had collapsed and it transformed from world’s largest creditors to the world’s debtors. • National honor occupied center stage in the public sphere in Europe after First World War. • Popular support for conservative dictatorships in Europe increased after the First World War because people demanded self-protection and security. • Soldiers come to be placed higher in social status than civilians. They are regarded as “Heroes of the War”. 26. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: The Quit India Movement was known as the Bharat Chhodo Andolan because it passed a resolution calling for an immediate end to British rule in India. Under the leadership of M.G. Gandhi Quit India Resolution was passed on 8th August 1942 in Bombay by the working committee of Indian National Congress with the mantra ‘Do or Die’. 27. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: Kudremukh is famous for iron ore Mine – Ore Bailadila – Iron Zawar – Zinc Ghatsila – Copper Kudremukh – Iron ore 28. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: F P = A N Unit of pressure = 2 or Pa, bar m 1 bar = 105 Pa 10 5 1 milibar = Pa = 100 Pa 10 3 29. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: The Precambrian era is one of the oldest eras of geological history determining the age of various rock types. Symbolically the Precambrian Era can be presented as PC, X, Y, or Z in the GRI GIS data. 30. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: A geographical grid is used to determine position on the earth’s surface through latitude and longitude lines. The equator divides the Earth into two hemispheres. A geographical grid has 180 lines that run east to west around the globe to mark latitude. The imaginary lines that run north to south from North Pole to South Pole indicated longitude are known as meridians of longitude, or simply meridians. Thus, it is concluded that both 1 and 2 statements are true regarding geographical grid.

49

SOLVED PAPER – 2023 (II) 31. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: All weather and related phenomena occur in the Troposphere layer of the atmosphere such as formation of clouds. Some important fact regarding Troposphere is following: • It is the lowest layer of the atmosphere • The temperature in this layer generally decreases with height. • It is 10 miles away from the equator. • Convection, turbulence, and clouds occur in the Troposphere. 32. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: Roopkund Lake is located in Chamoli district of Uttarakhand, India. It is situated approximately 16,500 feet above sea level. Roopkund Lake is also known as Skeleton Lake. 33. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: Total distance Average speed = Total time

=

2400 − 2000 8



=

400 = 50 km/h 8

34. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: In AC generator slip ring is used as to change the direction of current and DC generator split ring is used to allow the current to flow in a fixed direction. 35. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: The defect is known as nearsightedness or myopia and can be correct by using concave lens. 1 1 P = = = –0.5 D f −2 36. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: l R   = ρ A ρ = resistivity, depends upon temperature and nature of material. ρ = ρ0 ( 1 + α ∆T ) So R = R0 (1 + α ∆T ) 37. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: At boiling point vapour pressure become equal to atmospheric pressure.

38. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: Organic compound is defined as compound of Carbon Hydrogen and their derivative. NH4CNO – Inorganic Compound Massh Gas, Urea, Cane Sugar – Organic Compound. 39. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: HNO3 is used for cleaning of Gold and Silver Ornaments. 40. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: Ethanol is weak acid so it does not converts blue litmus to red, which indicate weak acidic nature of ethanol. So, ethanol is neutral towards litmus. 41. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: Steel does not contain Sn. Steel = Fe = 72%, Cr = 17-19%, Ni = 7-9%, with carbon. 42. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: Separation of acetone and water from their mixture

–

Distillation technique

Separation of water and kerosene oil from their mixture

–

Separating funnel

Separation of cream from milk

–

Centrifugation

Separation of Pigment from plant extract

–

Chromatography

A → 3, B → 4, C → 2, D → 1 43. Option (d) is the correct. Explanation: Photosynthesis requires light, carbon dioxide, water, and pigments like chlorophyll. Oxygen is produced as a byproduct but not needed for the process itself. 44. Option (d) is the correct. Explanation: The pollen grain is a product of the meiotic division and carries only half the chromosome number and DNA content compared to its microspore mother cell. During meiosis, the microspore mother cell undergoes two successive divisions, reducing its chromosome count by half, resulting in the formation of haploid microspores. These microspores then develop into pollen grains, each harboring a single set of chromosomes and a reduced amount of genetic material. This

50 genetic reduction ensures that when pollen grains unite with the female ovule, the resulting zygote possesses the correct diploid chromosome number, thus maintaining the stability of the species’ genetic makeup during sexual reproduction. 45. Option (a) is the correct. Explanation: In the process of sexual reproduction in angiosperms (flowering plants), the sequence unfolds as follows: Egg: Within the female reproductive structure of a flower, the ovule contains the egg cell. Zygote: Fertilization takes place when a pollen grain (male gamete) merges with the egg cell (female gamete), forming a zygote. This zygote is diploid, as it inherits a complete set of chromosomes from both parent plants. Embryo: Subsequent to fertilization, the zygote undergoes multiple rounds of cell division and differentiation, eventually developing into an embryo inside the ovule. This stage marks the early growth of the future plant. Seed: As the embryo matures, it becomes enveloped by the ovule, which matures into a seed. This seed comprises the developing plant embryo, stored nutrients, and a protective seed coat. This sequence represents the natural progression of sexual reproduction in angiosperms, encompassing the stages from egg formation to seed development. 46. Option (d) is the correct. Explanation: In the reproductive cycle of flowering plants (angiosperms), the sequence unfolds as follows: Egg to Zygote: Fertilization takes place when a pollen grain, carrying male gametes, combines with the egg cell within the female reproductive structure of the flower, resulting in the formation of a diploid zygote. Zygote to Embryo: Subsequent to fertilization, the zygote undergoes multiple rounds of cell division and differentiation, eventually giving rise to an embryo. Ovule to Seed: As the embryo matures, the ovule in which it resides also matures into a seed. The seed encompasses the developing plant embryo, along with stored nutrients and a protective seed coat. Ovary to Fruit: Following fertilization, the ovary of the flower undergoes transformation into a fruit. The fruit serves various purposes, including safeguarding and promoting the dispersal of seeds, often attracting seed-dispersing animals. This sequence illustrates the natural progression of sexual reproduction in angiosperms, commencing with egg formation and culminating in fruit development.

Oswaal NDA/NA Year-wise Solved Papers 47. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: The book ‘Nation First – The Golden Saga of 82 Years’ is the history of the CRPF paramilitary force. This book was released by The Union Home Minister, Amit Shah on 19th February 2021. In this book, the glorious history, establishment, journey, challenges, successes, and sacrifices of the Central Security force has been publicized in sequence. 48. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: Both the statements are true regarding Sanchi Stupa. Some important facts are given below. • Sanchi Stupa was “discovered” in 1818 by General Taylor. • When it was discovered, three of its four gateways were still standing, the fourth was lying on the spot. • Where it had fallen and the mound was in good condition. • These gateways were named as northern, southern, eastern and western Gateways by its discoverer. 49. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: After independence, the Government of India adopted the path of planning for growth and development of the nation. The first five year planning was started on 9 July 1951 with the aim of the development of the agriculture sector. The second five year plan was introduced in April 1956 to accelerate the GDP growth through “rapid Industrialisation”. Since 1951, a total of 12 five year plans have been successfully completed with different objectives and results. Planning commission was replaced with NITI Aayog in 2014. 50. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: Mukundarama Chakravarti composed the Chandimangala epic in the late 16th century. He was originally a Bengali poet who became very popular after writing the epic poem Chandimangal. The Chandimangala/Mangalkavya, considered one of the most prominent works of the 16th century which is a sub-genre of medieval Bengali literature. 51. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: The Vijayanagara Empire (1336–1646) • The Vijayanagara Empire was a powerful empire in medieval India. • This kingdom existed from 1336 to 1646 in the region around present-day Karnataka state. • The kings of this empire ruled this region for 310 years. • It was founded by two brothers named Harihara and Bukka Raya.

51

SOLVED PAPER – 2023 (II)

• Vijayanagar Empire was ruled by four important dynasties – Sangama,Saluva, Tuluva, Aravidu. • The royal Centre was located in the southwestern part of the settlement in the Vijayanagara Empire. • Religion had enough respect in the empire. So about 60 temples were located in this empire and near about 30 building complexes have been identified as palaces. 52. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: Area wise Madhya Pradesh is the second largest state in India. S. No.

State

Area (sq. km)

1.

Rajasthan

342,239

2.

Madhya Pradesh

308,245

3.

Maharashtra

307,713

4.

Uttar Pradesh

240,928

53. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: Regur Soil is ideal for growing cotton. Features of Regur Soil • Regur soil is also known as Black soil and black cotton soil. • Normally Regur soil contains pH between 5.8 to 8.0. • Black soil has high clay content and a good capacity to retain water. • Cultivation of cotton requires high moisture retention. • Black soils are very fine grained and dark, contain a high proportion of calcium and magnesium carbonates 54. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: The Central Institute of Buddhist Studies is located in Leh town of Ladakh. It is a Deemed university under the Ministry of Culture established in 1959. Previously it was known as the “School of Buddhist Philosophy”. This institute was funded and approved by the Ministry of culture in 1962 and it was registered as an educational institute in the year 1964 under Jammu and Kashmir. 55. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: Only statement (1) is true regarding physical features of India. Physical features refer to the natural structure or the landforms of India. Some important facts regarding the physical features of India are following: • The physical features of India include Himalayan Mountains, Northern plains, Indian Desert, Peninsular plateau & Coastal Plains.



• The Peninsular Plateau is one of the oldest landforms of earth. • The Southern point of the plateau is formed by the Nilgiri Hills where the Eastern and the Western Ghats meet. • A part of land is covered in three sides of water and one side with land called peninsular. • The Cardamom Hills lying beyond may be regarded as a continuation of the Western Ghats. • The eastern coastal plains come in between the Eastern Ghats and the Bay of Bengal. 56. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: Bhabar is a narrow belt stretching about 10 km, almost parallel to the Shivalik foothills at the break-up of the slope. As a result of this, streams and rivers flowing out of mountain ranges deposit heavy material of large rock rocks and boulders and at times, disappear in this zone. 57. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: The Suez Canal is an important waterway in Egypt which provides an important sea-level trade route between Europe and Asia. Some of important fact related to Suez Canal is following: • It is an artificial sea-level waterway or manmade navigation canal. • It links the Mediterranean Sea and the Red Sea. • The economic significance of the Suez Canal is more than that of the Panama Canal because it provides the shortest route from London to Shanghai and Rotterdam to Mumbai. 58. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: An iron nail sinks in water because the average density of the nail is higher than that of the water displaced by the nail. Whereas the density of a water ship is less than the water displaced by it, hence it floats. 59. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: 1 1 1 1 3 (a) = + + = =1 Re 3 3 3 3 Re = 1 Ω

3×3 9 3 = = = 1.5 Ω 3+3 6 2 (c) Re = 1 + 1 = 2 Ω (d) Re = 1 + 1 + 1 = 3 Ω 60. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: Force acting a charged particle moving in uniform magnetic field is given by   F = qv × B = (q ⇒ +ve)   F= − qv × B (q ⇒ –ve) (b) Re =

52 Therefore both charges experience fore in opposite direction. And both will move in a circular track. 61. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: Comparing the given equation with equation of motion. 1 y = ut − gt 2 (i) 2 1 s = ut + at 2 (ii) 2 Therefore, acceleration = –g F = ma = –mg 62. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: Let the weight is w Newton. w w w N = (a) PA= = A 20 × 10 200 cm 2 w w w N = (b) PB= = A 20 × 40 400 cm 2 w w N = (c) PC = 40 × 20 800 cm 2 Thence, PA > PB > PC 63. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: Metal which are present in the middle of reactivity series can be reduced with the help of carbon. e.g., Fe, Zn and Pb 64. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: Colloideal solution are heterogeneous in nature. They shown tyndal effect. They do not settle down under the effect of gravity. Colloidal solution contain particle which are uniformaly distrubuted. 65. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: Kerosene and petrol mixture is separated by fractional distillation as kerosene and petrol has different boiling point. 66. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: Dalton gives symbol for phosphorus. 67. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: Carbon is present in living organisms. Carbon shows tetravalency and property of catenation and carbon forms covalent bonds with itself and other atoms. Carbon does not form tetra bond. 68. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: The Indus Valley Civilisation (3300-1300 BCE) • Indus Valley Civilisation was a Bronze Age civilization.

Oswaal NDA/NA Year-wise Solved Papers

• It is famous for its great cities like Harappa, Ganeriwala, Dholavira, Kalibangan, Rakhigarhi and Mohenjo-daro. • Archaeologists have confirmed the facts related to this civilization on the basis of the remains excavated here. • Terracotta models made of plough have been found at many sites in Cholistan and at Banawali (Haryana). • Evidence of a plowed field has been found at Kalibangan (Rajasthan) which is associated with the early Harappan Civilisation. • Historians have found plow marks in the fields of Kalibangan. These were two sets of lines drawn by the plough, intersecting each other at right angles, which shows that two different crops were grown simultaneously in them. 69. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: The Industrial Revolution began in Great Britain in the mid-18th century. Many technical and technological innovations emerged in this revolution. Some important things related to this revolution are as follows– • A Machine invented in 1779 by Samuel Crompton which is popularly known as “spinning mule”. The thread spun from this was very strong and fine yarn. • Weaving of pure cotton clothes became possible with the water frame invented by Richard Arkwright in 1769. • The Power Loom was invented by Edmund Cartwright in 1784 and the first power loom was designed and patented in 1785. • It was an automatic device designed to automate the weaving process. 70. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: P.C. Mahalanobis was a great scientist and statistician who laid the foundation of planned development strategy in India. Mahalanobis was also known as the architect of planning in India. Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis has established the following organization/institution in India. • The Indian Statistical Institute in Calcutta – 1931 • The Indian Econometric Society • National Sample Survey Office - 1950 • Documentation Research And Training Centre – 1962 71. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: Devanam Priyadasi was the personal name of King Asoka. Maski inscriptions rock edicts personal name of King Asoka at Raichur doab in Karnataka. Emperor Ashoka was a powerful King of the Indian Maurya Dynasty who was a follower of Buddhism. Ashoka ruled from 269 to 232 BC. He

53

SOLVED PAPER – 2023 (II) tried to convey his message to the people through inscriptions. 72. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: – 4 – 3 – 1 - 2 chronological Book Order

Written by

Year

1

Charak Samhita

Maharshi Charak

1st century ce.

2

Bharat’s Natyashastra

Bharata Muni

500 BCE

3

Sangam Literature

Tholkappiyar

Between 4th and 5th century CE.

4

Ashtadhyayi

Panini

During the 6th to 5th century BCE.

73. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: Fold Mountains are referred to the mountains which formed from the folding of the earth’s crust when two or more tectonic plates collide with one another. Mount Fuji is not a fold mountain, it is a huge mountain in Japan Few examples of Fold Mounts are • The Alps Mountains in Europe • The Andes in South America • The Rockies Mountains in North America. • The Himalayan Mountains in Asia. 74. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: Histosols contain large amounts of organic matter. They are composed of organic matter. They contain 20-30% organic matter. 75. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: Jhansi is a historic city of Uttar Pradesh where the North-South and East-West road corridors of India cross each other. Jhansi is the junction of the largest ongoing highway project in India that covers 7300 kilometers between Srinagar, Kanyakumari, Kochi, Porbandar and Silchar. 76. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: Monsoon is the climate region of the world that has a typical characteristic of seasonal reversal of wind, especially in the Indian subcontinent, Myanmar, Thailand, Laos and Cambodia. 77. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: Statement (b) is incorrect regarding Jamshedpur Steel Plant.

Steel Plant

Estd. Year

State

Geographical Location

Bokaro steel 1964 plant

Jharkhand

Located on the southern bank of River Damodar

Jamshedpur 1907 steel plant

Jharkhand

located near the confluence of the rivers Subarnarekha and Kharkai

Salem steel 1981 plant

Tamil Nadu

Located on the bank of Cauvery (Kavari) River

Bhilai Steel 1955 Plant

Chhattisgarh. It is not located on a river side, Water is supplied from Tandula Canal.

78. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: Branch of Agriculture Product/Outcome Apiculture

Beekeeping Production

and

Honey

Sericulture

Process of cultivating silkworms and extracting silk from them.

Silviculture

Forest, Tree and timber

Viticulture

harvesting of grapes

79. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: Western Disturbance is an extratropical storm. This storm is responsible for winter rainfall in the northwestern part of the Indian subcontinent. Rains in this season have benefited rabi crops – mainly wheat. 80. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: Raniganj is not famous for the Iron and steel industry. City

State

Industry

(a) Saharanpur

Uttar Pradesh

The city of Saharanpur is known for the Paper Industry.

(b) Chanderi

Madhya Pradesh

This city is famous for Sarees, Wooden work, Bidi industry & Diamond industry

(c) Bhadohi

Uttar Pradesh

Bhadohi is one of largest centers of Carpet Industries in India and is worldwide known as ‘Carpet City of India’.

(d) Raniganj

West Bengal

It is famous for the most reliable quality of cooking coal

54 81. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: The slope of displacement time graph gives velocity. If slope changes then velocity changes. In graph a, b and c the slope is constant and hence the velocity is constant. Therefore acceleration is zero. In graph (d) the acceleration has non zero value. 82. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: Sound is a mechanical wave it means it require medium to propagate. Sound waves are longitudinal in nature as the motion of particle is along the same direction of wave. 83. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: Applying conservation of linear momentum 50 × v = 100 × 20 ⇒ v = 40 m/s 84. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: The phenomena of polarization gives the idea that the the electric field and magnetic field oscillates perpendicular to the direction of propagation of light. 85. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: Plastic, carbon and aluminium is non-magnetic material. Stainless steel is an alloy made up of Iron which get attracted by magnet. 86. Option (c) is correct Explanation: The Bhoodan movement was a non-violent movement which started from Pochampally village (Telangana) in 1951 under the leadership of Vinoba Bhave. Following are some important facts related to this movement. • This movement aimed at reducing the gap between the rich and the poor. • Vinova Bhave organized the Sarvodaya Samaj to take up the work of non-violent transformation in India • Jaiprakesh Narayan withdrew from active politics to join the Bhoodan movement in 1953. • In the wake of Bhoodan movement, the first donation of land by Vedire Ramachandra Reddy was made in the village of Pochampalli in Telangana. He donated a total of 900 acres of land in this movement. • It is also known as the Bloodless Revolution of India. 87. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: The United Nations Security Council is the premier global body of the United Nations, which has responsibility to ensure international peace

Oswaal NDA/NA Year-wise Solved Papers and security. It is one of the six principal organs of the UN. The UN Charter, Article 23, deliberates the regulation regarding the election of nonpermanent member to the United Nations Security Council. • The Security Council has 15 members in which 5 permanent members with veto power • 10 non-permanent members, five of which are elected each year by the General Assembly for a two-year term.  5 from African and Asian States  1 from Eastern European States  2 from Latin American States  2 from Western European and other States 88. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: • Article 243 ZD of the Indian constitution deals with the provision of district planning committee. • Article 243ZB of the Indian constitution provides for the application of Part IX-A to the Union territories. • Article 243ZE of the Indian constitution deals with the Committee for Metropolitan planning. • Article 243ZC of the Indian constitution states about the Part not to apply to certain areas in Municipalities. 89. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: The Attorney General is the chief legal advisor to the government of India who is responsible for giving legal advice to the central government. The role/power and responsibilities of the Attorney General is following – • R. Venkataramani is the incumbent AttorneyGeneral for India. • “Article 76” of the Indian Constitution under its Part-V deals with the position of Attorney General of India. • The first law officer of the Government of India. • He is appointed by the president of India • He is parallel to any minister in Parliament • He is not a full-time counsel for the government. • He has right to speak in any house of the parliament without any right to vote • He is not debarred from private legal practice. 90. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: With the aim of ending the land dispute on the border of India and Bangladesh, there was an agreement made with both countries, known as “Land Boundary Agreement Treaty – 2015.” This treaty facilitated Bangladesh up to 17,160.63 acres of land from India. The Indian state Arunachal Pradesh does not touch the border of Bangladesh; so, this treaty had no effect on this state.

55

SOLVED PAPER – 2023 (II) 91. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: The 480 MW Phukot Hydroelectric Project is situated in Kalikot district of Nepal. 92. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: The Hirmand River (Helmand River) originates in the Hindu Kush mountain range near Kabul and flows into Hamoun wetland after covering a long stretch of about 1,100 km. It covers southwestern Afghanistan and eastern part of Iran. There has been serious conflict between two neighboring nations, Iran and Afghanistan regarding the sharing of water from the Helmand River. dates back to as early as the 1870s. 93. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: 4 – 3 – 2 – 1 List – I (Bilateral Exercise)

List – II (Participating Country)

A

Garuda Shakti

4

India and Indonesia

B

Nomadic Elephant

3

India and Mongolia

C

Mitra Shakti

2

India and Sri Lanka

D

Dharms Guardian

1

India and Japan

94. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: Gallantry Awards Gallantry Awards have been instituted by the Government of India. Post-independence, the first three gallantry awards were instituted on 26th January 1950. First three Gallantry Award (Peacetime awards) in India is – • Ashoka Chakra: It is one of the highest peacetime military decorations awarded for valor, courageous action or sacrifice. • Kirti Chakra: It is the second highest peacetime gallantry award and is awarded for valor, courageous action and for self-sacrifice away from the field of battle. • Shaurya Chakra: It is awarded to the personnel of the armed forces for instances of extraordinary gallantry. 95. Option (d) is correct Explanation: Centralized laboratory network • It is a laboratory where all the samples from the clinical sites involved in a trial are sent. • It has 15 partner facilities in 13 countries. • It works to test vaccines which can be used during pandemic.



• India is a member of the Centralized Laboratory Network. • The Centralized laboratory network is part of the Coalition for Epidemic Preparedness Innovations. • It aims to identify vaccine candidates with the highest potential for combating emerging infectious diseases. 96. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: Kavach is an automatic train protection system that helps to prevent accidents on rail tracks. Some important facts regarding Kavach is following – • It is an indigenously developed Automatic Train Protection (ATP) system. • It specified speed limits by automatic application. • It it is designed and developed by the Research Design and Standards Organisation (RDSO) under the Ministry of Railways, Government of India. • There is no contribution given by the railway technical research institute, Japan in Kavach system. • The trials were facilitated by the South Central Railway to achieve safety in train operations • It is a state-of-the-art electronic system with Safety Integrity Level-4 (SIL-4) standards. 97. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: The nova kakhovka dam is situated in Kherson Oblast, Ukraine. This huge Soviet-era dam on the Dnipro River broke a few days ago due to the war between Russian and Ukrainian armies in Ukraine. 98. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: Aaron James Finch is a retired Australian cricketer. He served as the captain of the Australian men’s cricket team T20I. He retired on 7th February 2023. 99. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: Reserve Bank of India launched a financial inclusion dashboard called ‘Antardrishti’ on 05th Jun 2023. RBI launched ‘Antardrishti’ to assess and monitor the progress of financial inclusion in India. 100. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: The symbol of Sengol is associated with the great Chola Empire. Sengol was installed in the new parliament building of India as a symbol of the path of service duty and nation as well as an icon of India’s democratic spirit.

WRITING YOUR NOTES

What are Associations?

To Make clearer and better notes To Concentrate and save time To Plan with ease and ace exams

To Unlock the imagination and come up with ideas To Remember facts and

Associations are one powerful memory aid connecting seemingly unrelated concepts, hence strengthening memory.

move to the subsequent levels of association. This is exactly how the brain functions, therefore these Mind Maps.

level and the chronology continues. The thickest line is the First Level of Association and the lines keep getting thinner as we

from the core concept are the First Level of Association. Then we have a Second Level of Association emitting from the first

It’s a technique connecting the core concept at the Centre to related concepts or ideas. Associations spreading out straight

Learning made simple ‘a winning combination’

Why?

with a blank sheet of paper coloured pens and your creative imagination!

How?

MIND MAP

When?

AN INTERACTIVE MAGICAL TOOL

Result

What?

presenting words and concepts as pictures!!

anytime, as frequency as you like till it becomes a habit!

Learning MaDE SimpLE

MIND MAPS

Gangas Pallavas The Cholas Rashtrakutas

Age of Harshavardhana

(Chandragupta I, Samudragupta, Ramagupta, Chandragupta II, Kumaragupta, Skandhagupta, Purugupta, Buddhagupta)

The Gupta Period

Prehistoric Period (Four Ages)

First Level

Second Level

Trace the Mind Map

Jainism and Buddhism

Sama veda

Third Level



Atharva veda

Vedic Period (Four Vedas) Later Vedic Period

Yajur veda

Rig veda

Iron Age

Metal or Chalcolithic Age

Neolithic Age

Magada Empire (16 Mahajanapadas)

The Mauryan Empire (Chandragupta Maurya)

The Sangam Period

Ancient History

The Harappan Civilisation (The Indus Civilisation)

Mesolithic or Middle Stone Age

2 Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

The Mughal Empire

Later Mughals

Marathas

Peshwas

Sikh Gurus

Vijayanagar and Bahmani Kingdom

Second Level

Third Level



Delhi Sultanate

Medieval India

Trace the Mind Map First Level

Bhakti Movement

Medieval History

Early Medieval Indian Period

MIND MAPS

3

•

•

•

•

•

•

•

•

•

•

•

•

•

•

•

•

•

•

•

•

•

•

•

•

•

•

•

•

INC Partition of Bengal Swadeshi Movement Muslim League Demand for Swaraj Surat Session Morley Minto Reforms Ghadar Party Home Rule Movement Lucknow Pact August Declaration Rowlatt Act Jallianwala Bagh Massacre Khilafat Movement Non-Cooperation Movement Chauri-Chaura Movement Dandi March Swaraj Party Simon Commission First Round Table Conf. Second Round Table Conf. Third Round Table Conf. The Nehru Report Lahore Session Poona Pact Formation of Constituent Assembly INA Partition and Independence

Chief National Activities

Lord Canning • Lord Elgin • Lord John Lawrence • Lord Mayo • Lord Northbrook • Lord Lytton • Lord Ripon • Lord Dufferin • Lord Lansdowne • Lord Elgin II • Lord Curzon • Lord Minto II • Lord Hardinge II • Lord Chelmsford • Lord Reading • Lord Irwin • Lord Willingdon • Lord Linlithgow • Lord Wavell • Lord Mountbatten •

English

Dutch

•

•

•

•

•

•

•

First Level

Second Level

Third Level



Warren Hastings Lord Cornwallis Sir John Shore George Barlow Lord Minto I Lord Hastings Lord Amherst

Trace the Mind Map

Lord William Bentinck Lord Metcalfe Lord Auckland Lord Ellenborough Lord Hardinge Lord Dalhousie Lord Canning

•

•

•

•

•

•

•

Governor-Generals of Bengal

French

Danes

Governor-Generals of India

Viceroys of India

Modern History

Advent of Europeans

The Revolt of 1857

Portuguese

4 Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

Civilisation Civilisation Iranian, Greek, Roman Civilisation Various Revolutions of the world Chinese

Mesopotamian

World’s Civilisations and Revolutions

Second Level

Third Level



Important Wars of 20th Century (Various International Wars of the World e.g. WWI, WWII etc.)

Trace the Mind Map First Level

World History

MIND MAPS

5

Deforms

Rocks

Atmosphere

Jetstreams

Oceans

Solar System Sun

Theories of Plates of Earth

Earthquakes

Earth

Earth at Glance

Longitude

Latitude

First Level

Second Level

Trace the Mind Map

Third Level



Classification of Planets

Meteors

Structure of Earth’s InteriorLayers of Earth

Asteroids

World Geography

Volcanism

Continents

Universe-facts about universe

6 Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

Railways Soils in India

Agriculture

Climate

Physical Features

Indian Geography

Mineral Resources

Air Transportation

Water Transport

Transport

Road Transport

India at a Glance Imp.facts

Himalayan River System

Second Level

Trace the Mind Map

Peninsular River System

First Level

Drainage

Islands

Coastal Plains

Great Plains

Peninsular Plateau

Himalaya

Third Level



MIND MAPS

7

How was the Indian Constitution Made ?

Constitution : Why and How ?

Provision borrowed from constitutions of different countries

1. Mode of promulgation 2. The substantive provisions of a constitution 3. Balanced arrangement of the institutions of government.

• To provide a set of basic rules that allow for minimal coordination amongst members of a society. • To specify who has the power to make decisions in a society. It decides how the government will be constituted. • Sets limits on what a government can impose on its citizens. • To enable the government to fulfill the aspirations of a society and create conditions for a just society. • To express the fundamental identity of the people.

• The constitution was made by the Constituent Assembly which had been elected for undivided India. • It held its first sitting on 9th Dec 1946 and re-assembled as Constituent Assembly for divided India on 14 Aug 1947. • Each Province and each Princely state were allotted seats proportional to their respective population roughly in the ratio 1 : 10,00,000. • The seats in each province were distributed among the three main communities (Muslims, Sikhs and General) in proportion to their respective populations. • Members of each community in the Provisional Legislative Assembly elected their own representatives by the method of proportional representation with single transferable vote.

A quasi-federal form of government The idea of residual powers

Charter of fundamental rights Power of judicial review and independence of the judiciary

Principles of liberty equality & fraternity

Directive Principles of State Policy

Parliamentary form of government Law-making procedure Institution of the Speaker & his/her role

8 Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

Agriculture

Flagship Programmes of Government of India

Indian Money Market

Indian Capital Market

Indian Financial System

Indian Currency System

Economic Growth Economy

Poverty

Macro Economic Problems in India

First Level

Second Level

Trace the Mind Map

Third Level



India’s new Economic Policies

Planning in India

National Income Aggregates

National Income of India

Unemployment

Indian Economy

Indian Economy

MIND MAPS

9

10

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

MIND MAPS

11

12

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

MIND MAPS

13

14

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS





,

odd and even.



Second Level

Trace the Mind Map First Level

an

d Third Level 

Fundamental frequency or I harmonic



l = 2 pn

V

and

MIND MAPS

15

16

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

MIND MAPS

17

18

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

MIND MAPS

19

20

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

MIND MAPS

21

22

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

MIND MAPS

23

24

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

NDA / NA

GENERAL ABILITY TEST

National Defence Academy / Naval Academy

Time : 1 hr 40 mins

I

question Paper

2022 Total Marks : 400

Important Instructions : 1. This Test contains 100 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case, you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. 2. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. 3. All items carry equal marks. 4. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions. 5. Penalty for wrong answers : THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS. (i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one–third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. (ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question. (iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.

1. What is the mass of a material, whose specific heat capacity is 400 J/(kg°C) for a rise in temperature from 15°C to 25°C, when heat received is 20 kJ? (a) 0.1 kg (b) 1 kg (c) 10 kg (d) 5 kg 2. The specific latent heat of vaporization of a substance is the quantity of heat needed to change unit mass from (a) liquid to vapour with a change of temperature. (b) liquid to vapour without a change of temperature. (c) vapour to liquid without a change of temperature. (d) vapour to liquid with a change of temperature. 3. Evaporation from the surface of a given liquid takes place more rapidly when (a) the temperature is high and the surface area of the liquid is large. (b) the temperature is low and the surface area of the liquid is large. (c) the temperature is low and the surface area of the liquid is small. (d) the temperature is high and the surface area of the liquid is small. 4. Which of the following statements correctly explains/explain the existence of a positive force between two electric charges? 1. Both the charges are positive. 2. Both the charges are negative.

3. Both the charges are oppositely charged. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 5. An electric wire of resistance 50 ohm is cut into five equal wires. These wires are then connected in parallel. What is the equivalent resistance of this combination? (a) 2 ohm (b) 10 ohm (c) 0.5 ohm (d) 5 ohm 6. The electric field lines form an isolated positively charged conducting sphere are (a) tangential to the conducting surface. (b) at right angles to the conducting surface and towards the centre of the sphere. (c) at any angle to the conducting surface. (d) at right angles to the conducting surface and outwards from the centre of the sphere. 7. Which one of the following is not a solution? (a) Alloy (b) Milk (c) Air (d) Sugar 8. Refining of petroleum is carried out using which one of the following techniques? (a) Evaporation (b) Fractional distillation (c) Separating funnel (d) Sublimation 9. Which one of the following is a chemical change? (a) Dissolving sugar in water (b) Melting of ice

26 (c) Crystallization (d) Milk turning sour 10. Which one of the following is the correct molecular formula of ammonium carbonate if the valency of ammonium ion is (+1) and carbonate anion is (–2)? (a) (NH4)2CO3 (b) NH4(CO3)2 (c) (NH3)2CO2 (d) NH4CO3 11. Which one of the following is a covalent compound? (a) Calcium oxide (b) Sodium nitride (c) Silicon carbide (d) Zinc sulphide 12. The mass number of argon is 40. Which one of the following statements is correct? (a) The number of protons is argon is 22. (b) The number of neutrons in argon is 18. (c) The number of electrons in argon is 18. (d) The sum of numbers of protons and electrons in argon is 40. 13. Which one of the following is the correct order of the valencies of elements Ne, Si, N and Mg? (a) Ne < Mg < N < Si (b) Si < N < Mg < Ne (c) Ne< N < Si < Mg (d) Mg < Ne < N < Si 14. The frequency of an alternating current is 3 Hz. It Implies that (a) there are 6 cycles/s (b) there are 3 cycles/s (c) there are 2 cycles/s (d) there is only 1 cycle/s 15. Which one of the following correctly represents the SI unit of resistivity? (a) Ω (b) Ω/m (c) Ω cm (d) Ω m 16. What is the current required to light a 60 W incandescent bulb in a domestic supply of 240 V? (a) 0.5 A (b) 0.25 A (c) 1.0 A (d) 5.0 A 17. The magnetic field produced by a current– carrying straight wire at a point outside the wire depends (a) inversely on the distance from it (b) directly on the distance from it (c) inversely at short distances and directly at large distance from it (d) directly on the distance (at short distances) and inversely on the distance (at long distances) from it 18. What is the dimension of gravitational constant? (a) [ML3T–2] (b) [M–1L3T–2] (c) [M2L–2T–2] (d) [M2L–1T–2]

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS 19. A ball is thrown vertically upward with a speed of 40 m/s. The time taken by the ball to reach the maximum height would be approximately (a) 2 s (b) 3 s (c) 4 s (d) 5 s 20. The time period of a 1 m long pendulum approximates to (a) 6 s (b) 4 s (c) 2 s (d) 1 s 21. Which of the following statements about living and non–living being is/are correct? 1. While living being can demonstrate growth and repair, non–living being cannot. 2. While living being demonstrates metabolic processes, non–living being does not. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 22. Which one of the following plant plastids stores starch, oil and protein granules? (a) Chloroplast (b) Leucoplast (c) Chromoplast (d) Xanthoplast 23. Which one of the following statements about ‘vacuoles’ is not correct? (a) In plants, there is a large central vacuole that may occupy 90% of total cell volume. (b) In plants cells, vacuoles provide turgidity and rigidity. (c) In Amoeba, vacuoles have role in nutrition. (d) Vacuoles are absent in animal cells. 24. In aquatic plants, large air sacs give them buoyancy effects. These sacs are surrounded by which one of the following types of tissues? (a) Parenchyma (b) Collenchyma (c) Sclerenchyma (d) Complex tissue 25. Which one of the following belongs to ‘Pisces’? (a) Dogfish (b) Jellyfish (c) Silverfish (d) Starfish 26. Which one of the following groups is called ‘amphibians of plant kingdom’? (a) Bryophytes (b) Thalophytes (c) Pteridophytes (d) Gymnosperms 27. Which one of the following is caused by a bacterial pathogen? (a) AIDS (b) Dengue fever (c) COVID–19 (d) Typhoid fever

27

SOLVED PAPERS - 2022 (I) 28. The twinkling of a star is due to the atmospheric (a) diffraction of starlight (b) reflection of starlight (c) refraction of starlight (d) dispersion of starlight 29. A mass M is dragged by a pulley on a horizontal plane by a force anti–parallel to its displacement. The work done in pulling the mass M is (a) zero (b) positive (c) infinite (d) negative 30. A 5 N force is defined when a mass of 10 kg is accelerated with (a) 5.0 cm/s2 (b) 0.5 m/s2 2 (c) 0.5 cm/s (d) 5.0 m/s2 31. A boy of mass 52 kg jumps with a horizontal velocity of 2m/s onto a stationary cart of mass 3 kg. The cart is fixed with frictionless wheels. Which one of the following would be the speed of the cart? (a) 2.15 m/s (b) 1.89 m/s (c) 1.51 m/s (d) 2.51 m/s 32. The energy possessed by a body due to its change in position of shape is called (a) thermal energy (b) potential energy (c) kinetic energy (d) electric energy 33. A sound wave has a frequency of 1 kHz and wavelength 50 cm. How long will it take to travel 1 km? (a) 5 s (b) 4 s (c) 3 s (d) 2 s 34. For an element with atomic number 35, which one of the following will be the correct number of electrons in its valence shell based on Bohr’s model of an atom? (a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 7 35. Which one of the following is not an example of a redox reaction? (a) AlCl3 + 3H2O → Al(OH)3 + 3HCl (b) 2NaH → 2Na + H2 (c) 4Fe + 3O2 → 2Fe2O3 (d) CuSO4 + Zn → Cu + ZnSO4 36. Which one of the following allotropes of carbon is isomorphous with crystalline silicon? (a) Coke (b) Diamond (c) Graphite (d) Coal 37. Which one of the following is the colour of hydrogen gas? (a) Light yellow (b) Orange (c) Black (d) Colourless 38. Which one of the following is not a pigment (a) Zinc oxide (b) Chalk (c) White lead (d) Silica

39. Which one of the following statements about fertilizers is not correct? (a) Urea is phosphorus containing fertilizer. (b) Application of fertilizer to the soil increases fertility of the soil. (c) Urea can be prepared by action of ammonia and carbon dioxide under high pressure and at high temperature. (d) Urea contains more nitrogen than other fertilizers. 40. Which one of the following statements is not correct? (a) Most carbon compounds are good conductors of electricity. (b) Bonding in organic compounds is covalent. (c) Graphite is used as a lubricant. (d) Diamond is an allotrope of carbon. 41. Which one of the following reactions is an example of decomposition reactions? CH 4 ( g ) + 2O2( g ) → CO2( g ) + 2H 2 O( g ) (a) sunlight (b) 2AgCl( s )  → 2Ag ( s ) + Cl 2( g ) Heat (c) CuO + H 2  → Cu + H 2 O

Fe( s ) + CuSO4( aq ) → FeSO4( aq ) + Cu( s ) (d) 42. Which one of the following is the mechanism of action of oral contraceptive pills? (a) They kill the egg. (b) They kill the sperm. (c) They kill the zygote. (d) They inhibit the release of egg. 43. Which of the following plants has unisexual flowers? (a) Papaya (b) Hibiscus (c) Mustard (d) Sunflower 44. A cell is unable to synthesize lipids. Which of its cell organelles might be defective? (a) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum (b) Golgi bodies (c) Lysosomes (d) Mitochondria 45. All objects experience a buoyancy when they are immersed in a fluid. Buoyancy is (a) a downward force (b) a downward pressure (c) an upward force (d) an upward pressure 46. According to Fleming’s right–hand rule, if the forefinger indicated the direction of magnetic field and thumb shows the direction of motion of conductor, then the stretched middle finger will predict the direction of (a) force acting on the conductor (b) electric field

28 (c) induced current (d) current 47. Two resistors R1 and R2 arranged in parallel combination in an electrical closed circuit are made of the same material and of same thickness. If the length of R2 is twice the length of R1, then the total resistance R satisfies (a) 3R = 2R1 (b) 3R = 2R2 (c) 2R = 2R1 (d) 2R = 3R2 48. What is the magnification produced by a concave lens of focal length 10 cm, when an image is formed at a distance of 5 cm from the lens? (a) 2.0 (b) 1.0 (c) 0.5 (d) 0.33 49. A wooden box of mass 2 kg and dimensions (30 cm × 5 cm × 10 cm) is placed on a table with sides 30 cm and 10 cm touching the tabletop. Which one of the following is the approximate pressure exerted on the table? (a) 111.1 N/m2 (b) 222.2 N/m2 2 (c) 333.3 N/m (d) 666.6 N/m2 50. Why are the tyres of aircrafts made of conducting rubber? 1. So that the charge accumulated on the aircraft in flight, by rubbing the air, can easily be transferred to ground on landing. 2. So that the charge accumulated due to the operation of various electronic equipments in the aircraft in flight can easily be transferred to ground on landing. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 51. Arthashastra, the classical work of Indian political thought, focuses primarily on (a) economy (b) culture (c) statecraft (d) monarchy 52. When did Charaka Samhita originate? (a) 6th Century BCE (b) 3rd to 2nd Century BCE (c) 4th Century BCE (d) 5th Century BCE 53. Early Buddhist sculptors did not show Buddha in human from. Through which of the following symbols was Buddha’s presence shows by the early sculptors? (a) Empty Seat and Stupa only (b) Wheel and Tree only (c) Wheel, Tree and Stupa only (d) Empty Seat, Wheel, Tree and Stupa 54. The Parliament of India is primarily based on the model of (a) Germen Parliament (b) British Parliament

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS (c) American Congress (d) French Parliament 55. Who among the following had the shortest span in office as the Prime Minister of India? (a) Lal Bahadur Shastri (b) Chaudhary Charan Singh (c) Chandra Shekhar (d) H.D. Deve Gowda 56. Which one of the following does not fall under the jurisdiction of the apex court of India? (a) Original Jurisdiction (b) Appellate Jurisdiction (c) Collegiate Jurisdiction (d) Advisory Jurisdiction 57. According to the Indian Meteorological Department, which of the following is/are the feature/features of cloudburst? 1. Heavy precipitation in short period of time in a limited geographical area 2. It occurs generally during monsoon period and triggers flash flood and landslides Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 58. In a group discussion on shape and size of the Earth, three students stated the following points: 1. Student 1: The shape of the Earth is basically an oblate spheroid. 2. Student 2: The polar diameter of the Earth is more than the equatorial diameter. 3. Student 3: Bulge along the equatorial region is due to revolution of the Earth. Who among the above students is/are correct? (a) Student 1 only (b) Student 1 and Student 2 only (c) Student 2 and Student 3 only (d) Student 1, Student 2 and Student 3 59. While watching news, your hear about a place, of which you had never heard earlier. You want to know more about the place and you want to locate it on the map. Which of the following is/are required for you to be able to locate the place on the map? (a) Only latitude of the place (b) Only longitude of the place (c) Both longitude and latitude of the place (d) Latitude, longitude and altitude of the place 60. Which one of the following statements with respect to Global Positioning System (GPS) is not correct? (a) It is based on network of satellites orbiting above the Earth. (b) It is based on the system of triangulation. (c) GPS receivers provide location in terms of latitude, longitude and altitude.

SOLVED PAPERS - 2022 (I) (d) It provides information exclusively for military operations. 61. Which one of the following is not a Constitutional Commission of India? (a) The National Commission for Scheduled Castes (b) The National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (c) The National Commission for Backward Classes (d) The National Commission for Women 62. Which Chinese traveller in ancient India wrote the diary called ‘Records of the Travels to Middle India’? (a) Wang Xuance (b) Xuanzang (c) Yijing (d) Li Yibiao 63. The election to the lower House of the Parliament of India, held in 2019, constituted the (a) 14th Lok Sabha (b) 15th Lok Sabha (c) 16th Lok Sabha (d) 17th Lok Sabha 64. Panchayati Raj Institutions are primarily the institutions of (a) Popular Government (b) Self–Government (c) Federal Government (d) Quasi–Government 65. Which of the following is/are the right/rights mentioned in the 'American Declaration of Independence'? 1. Life 2. Liberty 3. Pursuit of Happiness 4. Fraternity Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4 66. Who among the following American .Presidents described democracy as "Government of the People, for the People and by the People"? (a) Abraham Lincoln (b) Thomas Jefferson (c) George Washington (d) John F. Kennedy 67. Inhabitants are unaware of the speed of rotation of the planet Earth because 1. the angular velocity is constant for each place on the Earth's surface 2. the atmosphere rotates with the Earth 3. there are no nearby objects, either stationary or moving at a rate different from that of the Earth Which of the above is/are the correct explanation(s)?

29 (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 68. While travelling to a hilly region, you notice a massive boulder, whi ch was loosened by heavy rains and moved downhill. This has resulted due to which of the following processes? 1. Mass wasting 2. Erosion 3. Weathering Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 69. Which of the following statements in respect of landslides are correct? 1. These occur only on gentle slopes during rain. 2. They generally occur in clay–rich soil. 3. Earthquakes trigger landslides. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 70. Consider the following features about a geographical phenomenon : 1. Torrents of snow and ice roaring down a steep mountain side 2. It is hazardous to skiers and mountaineers 3. It involves a mix of falling, rolling, sliding and flowing of materials' Which of the following phenomena can be identified with the above features? (a) Slump and earthflow (b) Avalanche (c) Landslide (d) Rockslide 71. The real beginning of western education in India can be dated from (a) the Charter Act of 1813 (b) the Charter Act of 1793 (c) the Sarda Act of 1929 (d) the Macaulay's Minute on Indian Education, 1835 72. The term 'Industrial Revolution' was first used by (a) J. A. Blanqui (b) T. S. Ashton (c) Arnold Toynbee (d) R. H. Tawney 73. The Khudai Khidmatgar (Servants of the God) was organized by (a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan (c) M. A. Jinnah (d) M. M. Malaviya

30 74. The Mahad Satyagraha of 1927 was organized by (a) B. R. Ambedkar (b) Mahatma Gandhi (c) S. C. Bose (d) Lokmanya Tilak 75. The Satyashodhak Samaj (Truth–Seeking Society) was set up by (a) Vinoba Bhave (b) Jyotiba Phule (c) B. R. Ambedkar (d) C. Rajagopalachari 76. The 13th Century text Lekhapaddhati gives us information on which one of the following topics? (a) Art of writing (b) Essay writing (c) Legal document (d) Epigraphic style 77. Nkrumah was one of the five leaders, who comprised the core of the Non–Aligned Movement (NAM). He was the leader of which country in Africa? (a) Nigeria (b) Kenya (c) Uganda (d) Ghana 78. The idea of Planning in Independent India was drawn from (a) the Bombay Plan (b) the demand made by peasants (c) the demand made by workers' unions (d) the Gandhian vision of India's future 79. Nisarga, Gati, Nivar, Tauktae and Yaas are names of (a) new fighter aircrafts (b) tourist places (c) weather stations (d) cyclones 80. Which one of the following States/U'I's was connected with the Indian Railways network in the year 2021? (a) Mizoram (b) Ladakh (c) Manipur (d) Sikkim 81. The forests of Uttarakhand, Kullu Valley in Himachal Pradesh and Dzukou Valley in Nagaland and Manipur were in the news on account of which one of the following reasons? (a) Deforestation (b) Forest fire (c) Poaching of wild animals (d) lllegal mining 82. Which one of the following is correct in respect of total number of States and Union Territories in India? (a) 28 States and 8 Union Territories (b) 27 States and 9 Union Territories (c) 30 States and 6 Union Territories (d) 29 States and 7 Union Territories 83. Snow, sleet and hail are the forms of (a) precipitation (b) condensation

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS (c) transpiration (d) evaporation 84. Which one of the following is likely to be the most prevalent form of weathering in hot– tropical desert areas? (a) Mechanical (b) Chemical (c) Biological (d) Leaching 85. Which one of the following cities was the first to attain the status of a 'megacity' ? (a) London (b) Paris (c) New York (d) Washington 86. In India, rigid and stable elevated lands, denuded rocks and series of scarps are the features of which of the following? (a) Northern mountains (b) Peninsular plateau (c) Northern plains (d) Coastal plains 87. A person had visited a region in India and found trees, such as Khair, Neem, Khejri and Palas. Which one of the following regions is she/ he expected to have visited? (a) Malabar Coast (b) Garo Hills (c) Sunderban Delta (d) Desert Region 88. Consider the following statements 1. Rocks do not remain in their original form for long and undergo transformation. 2. Transformation of rocks is caused by weathering, erosion and metamorphic action. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 89. Weathering, mass wasting, erosion and transportation are indicators of which one of the following processes? (a) Denudation (b) Endogenetic process (c) Diastrophism (d) Mountain building 90. If you want to observe moraines, eskers and outwash plains, which one of the following Union Territories you may have to visit? (a) Andaman and Nicobar Islands (b) Lakshadweep (c) Puducherry (d) Ladakh 91. Legendary Kathak dancer Pandit Birju Maharaj died recently. He was the doyen of which one of the following Gharanas of Ka thak? (a) Jaipur (b) Raigarh (c) Lucknow (d) Banaras 92. In a first, India is to export BrahMos missile to (a) Bhutan (b) Philippines (c) Maldives (d) Nepal 93. Who among the following is the Head of the Committee appointed by the Supreme Court of

SOLVED PAPERS - 2022 (I) India to enquire into the circumstances that led to the Prime Minister of India's convoy being stuck for several minutes on a flyover in Punjab recently? (a) Justice Indu Malhotra (b) Justice Ashok Bhushan (c) Justice Navin Sinha (d) Justice Rohinton Fali Nariman 94. Who among the following retired from test cricket by bagging a wicket on the last ball of his career? (a) AB de Villiers (b) Michael Hussey (c) Quinton de Kock (d) Ross Taylor 95. Who among the following is appointed as the tenth Chairman of the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) recently? (a) A.S. Kiran Kumar (b) K. Sivan (c) K. Radhakrishnan (d) S. Somanath 96. According to the Forest Survey Report, 2021, area–wise which one of the following States has the largest forest cover in India? (a) Odisha (b) Madhya Pradesh (c) Arunachal Pradesh

31 (d) Chhattisgarh 97. Who among the following is the Chairperson of the Goods and Services Tax Council? (a) The Prime Minister of India (b) The Union Finance Minister (c) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha (d) The President of India 98. The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) has recently categorized the Red Sanders (Red Sandalwood) into (a) deficient category (b) endangered category (c) near–threatened category (d) critically endangered category 99. The Government of India has decided to observe 'Veer Baal Diwas' on (a) 6th October (b) 26th November (c) 26th December (d) 6th December 100. On 14th January, 2022, which one of the following ministries has organized a global Surya Namaskar Demonstration programme? (a) The Ministry of Culture (b) The Ministry of AYUSH (c) The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (d) The Ministry of Tourism

32

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

Answers Q No

Answer Key

Topic's Name

Chapter's Name

1

(d)

Specific Heat

Thermal Properties of Matter

2

(b)

Latent Heat

Thermal Properties of Matter

3

(a)

Evaporation

Thermal Properties of Matter

4

(c)

Coulomb's Law

Electrostatics

5

(a)

Resistance

Current Electricity

6

(d)

Electric Field Lines

Electrostatics

7

(d)

Classification of Solution

Some Basic Concept

8

(b)

Separation Technique

Is Matter Around Us Pure

9

(d)

Physical and Chemical Change

Matter in Our Surroundings

10

(a)

Molecular Formula

Some Basic Concept

11

(c)

Example of Covalent Compounds

Carbon and its Compounds

12

(a)

Calculation of Number of Neutron

Structure of Atom

13

(a)

Comparison of Valencies

Periodic Classification of Element

14

(b)

Properties of Ac

Alternating Current

15

(d)

Resistivity

Current Electricity

16

(b)

Electric Power

Current Electricity

17

(a)

Magnetic Field Due To A Current Carrying Wire

Magnetic Effect of Electric Current

18

(b)

Dimensions

Unit and Dimensions

19

(c)

Equations of Motion

Motion

20

(c)

Simple Pendulum

Oscillation

21

(c)

What Is 'Living'?

The Living World

22

(b)

Plastids

Cell:the Unit of Life

23

(d)

Vacuoles

Cell:the Unit of Life

24

(a)

Permanent Tissues

Anatomy of Flowering Plants

25

(a)

Phylum Chordata

Animal Kingdom

26

(a)

Bryophytes

Plant Kingdom

27

(d)

Common Infectious Disease

Common Epidemics, Their Causes and Prevention

28

(c)

Atmospheric Refraction

Ray Optics

29

(d)

Work

Work, Energy and Power

30

(b)

Work

Work, Energy and Power

31

(b)

Linear Momentum

Work, Energy and Power

32

(b)

Energy

Work, Energy and Power

33

(d)

Sound Wave

Waves

34

(d)

Bohr Model

Structure of Atom

35

(a)

Redox Reaction

Redox Reaction and Stoichiometric Calculation

36

(b)

Carbon Compounds

Different Forms of Carbon

33

SOLVED PAPERS - 2022 (I)

Q No

Answer Key

Topic's Name

Chapter's Name

37

(d)

Physical Properties of Gas

Metal and Non Metal

38

(d)

Pigments

Some Important Chemical Compounds

39

(a)

Urea

Chemical Compound Formulas

40

(a)

General Properties of Carbon Compounds

Carbon and its Compounds

41

(b)

Example of Decomposition Reaction

Chemical Reaction and Equation

42

(d)

Population Stabilization and Birth Control

Reproductive Health

43

(a)

Outbreeding Devices

Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plant

44

(a)

The Endoplasmic Reticulum

Cell:the Unit of Life

45

(c)

Buoyancy

Fluid Mechanics

46

(c)

Fleming's Right Hand Rule

Magnetic Effect of Electric Current

47

(a)

Equivalent Resistance

Current Electricty

48

(c)

Magnification

Ray Optics

49

(d)

Pressure

Work, Energy and Power

50

(a)

Electrostatic Shielding

Electrostatics

51

(c)

Arthashastra

Ancient History

52

(b)

Charak Samhita

Art & Culture

53

(d)

Buddha

Art & Culture

54

(b)

Parliament

Polity

55

(b)

Static GK

Prime Minister

56

(c)

Judiciary

Supreme Court

57

(c)

Cloud Burst

Weather Phenomenon

58

(a)

Earth

Geography

59

(c)

Latitude & Longitude

Geography

60

(d)

GPS

GPS

61

(d)

Constitutional Bodies

Constitutional Bodies

62

(a)

Chinese Travellers in India

Ancient History

63

(d)

General Elections 2019

Current Affairs

64

(b)

Panchayati Raj

Panchayati Raj System

65

(c)

Declaration of Independence

World History

66

(a)

Democracy

World History

67

(d)

Rotation of Earth

Geography

68

(d)

Geomorphic Processes

Geomorphic Processes

69

(c)

Landslides

Geography

70

(b)

Avalanche

Geography

71

(a)

Charter Act of 1813

Modern History

72

(c)

Industrial Revolution

World History

73

(b)

The Making of National Movement

Modern History

34

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

Q No

Answer Key

Topic's Name

74

(a)

75

(b)

Jyotiba Phule

Modern History

76

(c)

A General Survey of Socio-Cultural Reform Movements

Art & Culture

77

(d)

Non-Alignment Movement

Modern History

78

(a)

Bombay Plan

Modern History

Socio-Religious Reform Movements

Chapter's Name Modern History

79

(d)

Cyclones

Current Affairs

80

(c)

Indian Railways Network

Current Affairs

81

(b)

Forests Fires

Current Affairs

82

(a)

States & Uts

Current Affairs

83

(a)

Water in The Atmosphere

Geography

84

(a)

Mechanical Weathering

Geography

85

(c)

Megacities

Static GK

86

(b)

Landforms

Geography

87

(d)

Landforms

Geography

88

(c)

Rocks

Geography

89

(a)

Denudation

Geography

90

(d)

Depositional Landforms

Geography

91

(c)

Famous Personalities

Current Affairs

92

(b)

Missiles

Current Affairs

93

(a)

Committee

Current Affairs

94

(d)

Famous Personalities

Current Affairs

95

(d)

Appointments

Current Affairs

96

(b)

Forest Survey

Current Affairs

97

(b)

GST

ECONOMICS

98

(b)

IUCN List

Current Affairs

99

(c)

Important Days

Current Affairs

100

(b)

Government Programmes

Current Affairs

NDA / NA

GENERAL ABILITY TEST

I

National Defence Academy / Naval Academy

SOLVED Paper

2022

Answers with Explanation 1. Option (d) is correct.

5. Option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

Explanation:

Formula used q = msDT = S 400 J /kg °C  



= q 20kJ = 20 × 10 3 J   ∆T = 25°C − 15°C = 10°C By putting all the values 400 J 20 × 10 3 J = m × × 10°C kg °C m=

20 × 10 3 J = 5 kg J × 10°C 400 kg °C

2. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: The specific latent heat of vaporization of a substance is the quantity of heat needed to change unit mass from liquid to vapour without change of temperature.

Resistance of wire, R = 50 Ω

Since, R ∝ l , on cutting resistance into 5 equal parts, resistance of each part will be 10 Ω. Now all parts are connected in parallel. ′ So, Req= R= 10= 2 Ω 5 5

6. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: Electric field lines always start from positive charge and end at negative charge. In electrostatics, field lines are always at right angle to the conducting surface because if they are at any other angle then horizontal component of field will make charges move. If charges are not static, condition of electrostatic breaches and it becomes electrodynamics. Hence, option (d) is correct. 7. Option (d) is correct.

3. Option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

Explanation:

Alloy, milk and sugar are the mixture of two or more substance. So it is considered as solution while sugar is a compound formed by the combination of elements in a fixed ratio. It is formed by the combination of C, H and O atom in fixed ratio.

Evaporation is the process in which the conversion of liquid into vapour takes place at all temperatures. It increases with increase in temperature. Similarly it is a surface phenomenon in which on increasing the surface area, rate of evaporation increases. 4. Option (c) is correct.

8. Option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

Explanation:

kq q Fe = 12 2 r When both charges are of same sign then only, force will be positive. When both charges are of opposite sign (one is positive and another one is negative), magnitude of force will be negative.

Crude petroleum contain mixture of liquids which have different boiling points. Due to the difference in the boiling point one liquid get separated from other liquid through temperature difference. Here fractional distillation is used to separate crude petroleum.

36

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

9. Option (d) is correct.

14. Option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

Explanation:

Chemical change is the change in which chemical properties of both reactant and product are different. Here milk turning sour is a chemical change as milk is lactose while sour milk is curd.

3 Hz means in one second there are 3 cycles of a.c.

10. Option (a) is correct. Explanation:

⊕

The formula of ammonium ion = NH4 2–

The formula of carbonate ion = Co3 ⊕

NH4

CO32–

=

(NH4)2CO3



(∵ 1 Hz = 1 cycle/s )

15. Option (d) is correct. A m2 ρ = R = Ω⋅ =Ω m l m

16. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: Electric power, P = VI 60 = 0.25 A 240 17. Option (a) is correct. ⇒ = I



2

1

11. Option (c) is correct.

Explanation:

Explanation:

Magnetic field at a point outside of a current carrying wire is given, B = µ 0 I 2 πr

Covalent compound is a compound in which covalent bond is present between two atoms. Here silicon carbide is a covalent compound where silicon attaches with four other carbon atom. Si

C

Si

C

Si

C

C

Si

C

Si

C

Si

Si

C

Si

C

Si

C

C

Si

C

Si

C

Si

1 Since B ∝ , magnetic field will decrease with r increase in distance, so option (a) is correct. 18. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: We know Fg =

Or

G=

12. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: Atomic number of Argon = 18 Mass number of Argon = 40 Number of proton = number of electron = 18 Number of neutron = mass number – atomic number

= 40 – 18 = 22

13. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: valency of Ne atom = 0 valency of Mg atom = 2 Ne < Mg < N < Si valency of N atom = 3 valency of Si atom = 4

Gm1 m2 r2

Fg r 2 m1 m2

[M1 L1 T −2 ][L2 ] [M 2 ]



=



= [M −1 L3 T −2 ]

19. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: Here, u = 40 m/s, At maximum height velocity = v = 0 m/s, a = –10 m/s2 Applying v = u + at

⇒ 0 = 40 + (–10) t



⇒

t=4s

In 4 s ball will reach at the maximum height. 20. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: Time period of pendulum T = 2 π

l g

37

SOLVED PAPERS - 2022 (I) 1 10



⇒



⇒ T ≅ 2 seconds

T= 2π

21. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: Living organisms are those that can grow, move, reproduce, perceive their surroundings or environment, breathe, and perform other cellular functions. All living beings have cells which act as the basic building blocks and also the structural and functional unit of life. Gain in mass and an increase in the number of individuals is a feature that represents growth. Cell division is the process through which living organisms grow. Plants’ cell divisionbased growth occurs continually throughout their lives, but in animals’ growth is visible only up to a particular age. Cell division also occurs in some tissues to replace lost cells. If increase in mass is considered as the only criterion for growth, non-living objects, also demonstrate this type of growth by accumulating material on the surface. However, in living organisms’ growth occurs from within and even new progenies are formed. Through the process of reproduction, they are capable of developing a new life that is unique to them. Non-living beings do not represent growth from within and do not exhibit reproduction, they also cannot repair the damage parts. Different types of chemical compounds are found in all living beings that are constantly created and transformed into new biomolecules. All living creatures have millions of metabolic events going on at the same time. Metabolism is the sum of all chemical events that take place in the bodies of living organisms. Anabolism represents the synthesis of complex molecules for storage, while catabolism represents breaking down of complex molecules to simpler ones to obtain energy. Metabolism does not exist in nonliving beings. In cell-free systems, metabolic events can be demonstrated outside of the body and the isolated metabolic processes in vitro are unquestionably life reactions. 22. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: Plastids can be of three types based on the pigment they store. These are chloroplasts that contain chlorophyll and carotenoid pigments that are essential for photosynthesis. Another one is chromoplasts contain fat soluble carotenoid pigments that impart different colors to the plant. Xanthoplast is one of the chromoplasts that contain yellow

pigment. The last type of plastid is leucoplasts which is found in different sizes, contain colorless plastids and store different nutrients. Leucoplasts can be of different types such as amyloplasts that store starch, elaioplasts that stores fat and oils, and aleuroplasts that store proteins. 23. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: Animal cells have vacuoles but they are smaller than plant cells. They are used for storage, excretion, osmoregulation, and digestion in animal cells. Plant cells have vacuoles that can take up to 90% of the cell’s volume. Because the vacuole is the largest organelle in plant cells, when water enters it, it expands in size and shape, becoming rigid, and the plant as a whole becomes turgid and rigid. Amoeba possesses holozoic mode of nutrition. With the help of pseudopodia, the entire process is carried out through the body surface. The pseudopodia are pushed out to envelop and engulf the food, forming a food vacuole in the process called phagocytosis. 24. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: The most prevalent type of simple and living permanent tissue is parenchyma. It is made up of cells that are largely unspecialized and have thin cell walls. These tissues are frequently loosely structured and contains wide voids between cells. Generally, this tissue is used to store food. In aquatic plants, large air holes in the parenchyma of aquatic plants let them float that are referred to as aerenchyma. 25. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: Dogfish also known as Scoliodon. It is a cartilaginous shark belonging to the class chondrichthyes in the super class Pisces. Echinodermata is a phylum of marine invertebrates that includes starfish. Cnidaria is an invertebrate phylum that includes jellyfish. Silver fish are members of the Arthropoda phylum and class Insecta. 26. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: Bryophytes are often known as plant amphibians as these plants can live in soil but require water for sexual reproduction. They prefer moist, humid, and shady environments. The plant body is thallus–like, prostrate or upright, and has unicellular or multicellular rhizoids that connect to the substratum. They are devoid of genuine roots, stems, and leaves. The bryophyte’s primary plant body is haploid. It is called a gametophyte because it generates gametes. Bryophytes have

38

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

multicellular sex organs. The antheridium is the male sex organ that produces biflagellate antherozoids. Archegonium, the female sex organ, is flask–shaped and produces a single egg. The antherozoids are discharged into the water, where they encounter archegonium. The zygote is formed when an antherozoid unites with the egg. 27. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: Typhoid also called enteric fever is a bacterial infection caused by Salmonella typhi. It can lead to high fever which is accompanied by diarrhea and vomiting. It is generally disseminated through the consumption of contaminated food and water. 28. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: Twinkling of star occurs due to atmospheric refraction. Composition of our atmosphere varies from place to place and with the height also. Stars are situated very far so they acts as point object. When a ray of light coming from the star enters into our atmosphere it undergoes refraction continuously. Due to various phenomena like level of particle in atmosphere, pollution, wind, changes the refractive index and we get image at slightly different place which is seen as twinkling. 29. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: ∵ Force and displacement are in opposite direction. So, θ = 180° Work done is given by, W = FS cos θ W = FS cos 180° = FS × – 1 = – FS 30. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: Here, F = 5 N, m = 10 kg, a = ? F 5 = a = = 0.5 ms−2 m 10

33. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: Given, f = 1 kHz or 1000 Hz d = 1 km or 1000 m l = 50 cm or 0.5 m Speed of wave, v = f × l = 1000 × 0.5 = 500 ms–1 Time taken by sound wave Distance 1000 = = = 2s speed 500 34. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: Atomic number = 35 According to Bohr ’s atomic model the distribution of electron in a shell is represented by = 2n2 Shell No of electron n = 1 2 × (1)2 = 2 n = 2 2 × (2)2 = 8 n = 3 2 × (3)2 = 18 n = 4 2 × (4)2 = 32 The distribution of 35 electron are as follows– 2, 8, 18, 17 35. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: Redox reactions are those reaction in which both reduction and oxidation takes place and it can be identified with the help of change in oxidation state. Here (a) is not a redox reaction, because the oxidation state of element do not changes. AICI3 + 3H2O → AI(OH)3 +3HCI

31. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: As boy jumps on cart, so both cart and boy will move together. Applying law of conservation of linear momentum, ⇒ 52 × 2 + 3 × 0 = (52 + 3) × v 52 × 2 ⇒ = v = 1.89 m/s 55 32. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: Energy held by an object due to change in its shape or position is called potential energy.

↑ ↑        ↑       +3 -1        +3      

36. Option (b) is correct. Di a m on d a n d cr ys t a l li ne

↑ -1

s il ic on a re isomorphous because they both have three dimensional tetrahedral structure. 37. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: Hydrogen is colourless gas. 38. Option (d) is correct. Silica is not a pigment while Zinc oxide, Chalk and White lead are used as white pigments. 39. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: Urea has the chemical formula CO(NH2)2. It does not contain phosphorous. It is nitrogenous fertilizer. 40. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: By sharing of electrons, carbon forms large number of covalent compounds and covalent compounds generally do not conduct electricity.

39

SOLVED PAPERS - 2022 (I) All Carbon compounds are not good conductor of electricity. 41. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: Decomposition reaction is the reaction in which more than one products are formed on breaking of one reactant. Here (b) is an example of decomposition reaction sunlight

2AgCl (s)  → 2Ag (s) + Cl 2( g ) 42. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: Females employ oral administration of tiny dosages of progestogens or progestogenestrogen combos as a means of contraception. They are commonly referred to as oral pills because they are taken as tablets. The pills must be taken every day for 21 days, particularly started within the first five days of the menstrual cycle. It must be continued in the same pattern after a 7-day break till the female desires to avoid conception. They block or delay sperm entry and also inhibits ovulation and implantation, as well as altering the quality of cervical mucus. Pills are highly effective, have less adverse effects, and are well accepted by women. 43. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: Papaya flowers are known as unisexual or dioecious because they only contain one of the plant’s two reproductive components, never both. The flowers contain either the male reproductive part, stamens, or the female reproductive part, carpels. 44. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: T h e e n d o p l a s m i c r e t i c u l u m ( E R ) i s a continuous membrane system in the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells that produces a series of flattened sacs. Rough ER gets its name from the ribosomes adhering to its outer (cytoplasmic) surface, which give it a rough look. Rough ER is located next to the cell nucleus, and its membrane is connected to the nuclear envelope’s outer membrane. Rough ER ribosomes specialize in the synthesis of proteins. Smooth ER, on the other hand, is not connected with ribosomes and has distinct roles. The smooth ER is involved in the synthesis of lipids such as cholesterol and phospholipids, which are needed to make new cellular membranes. 45. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: Buoyance is an upward force, responsible for floating of all the objects immersed in fluids. 46. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: Fleming’s right hand rule is used to determine the direction of induced current.

According to this rule, if thumb represent force, middle finger represent magnetic field, then the direction of induced current is given by middle finger, provided all are mutually perpendicular. 47. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: ∵ Resistance of a conductor ∝ l ∴ R2 = 2 R1 Both resistors are connected in parallel. So, 1 1 1 = + R R1 R 2 1 1 1 + ⇒ = R R1 2R1 ⇒

1 2+1 = R 2R1

⇒ 3R = 2R1 48. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: Given, f = –10 cm, v = –5 cm, u = ? 1 1 1 − Using lens formula, = f v u 1 1 1 ⇒ = − −10 −5 u ⇒

1 1 1 −1 = + = u −5 10 10

⇒ u = –10 cm Now, magnification m= Alternative: m =

v −5 = = 0.5 u −10

f −v f

−10 − ( −5) 5 = = − = 0.5 − 10 − 10 49. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: Here, A = 30 × 10 × 10–4 = 3 × 10–2 m2 F = mg = 2 × 10 = 20 N F A

= = Pressure, P

20 = 666.6 N m 2 3 × 10 −2

50. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: Tires of aircrafts are made conducting, so that excess charge can be passed to the ground and safeguarding the aircraft and passengers. 51. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: Arthashastra was composed by Chanakya. It is a work on statecraft, political science, economic policy and military strategy.

40

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

The focus of attention in his text was the king and his political and administrative ideas. The text focuses on the economic and social conditions of the Mauryan empire. Due focus was also given to the military strategy which should be adopted by the state. 52. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: The Charak Samhita, mainly deals with Ayurveda, is written by Charak. The text is based on the Agnivesha Samhita which is a medical compilation by Agnivesa. Charaka revised it between 100 BCE and 200 CE, and renamed it Charaka Samhita. Dates of composition of the Charaka Samhita are though uncertain. Some dates it to be between fourth century BC to the second century CE. 53. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: Early sculptors did not depict the Buddha in human form but instead showed his presence through symbols. The empty seat – Meditation of the Buddha. The Stupa – Mahaparinirvana The wheel – Stood for the First Sermon of the Buddha delivered at Sarnath. The tree – Symbolizes an event (Tree of awakening) in the life of the Buddha. 54. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: The parliamentary system of India is largely based on the British parliamentary system. However, it is not a complete replica of the British system. 55. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: • Chaudhary Charan Singh was the 5 th Prime Minister of India. He had the shortest tenure. (28 July 1979 – 14 January 1980) • Lal Bahadur Shastri was the second Prime Minister. (Tenure – 9 June 1964 – 11 January 1966) • Chandra Shekhar Singh was the 8th Prime Minister. (Tenure – 10 November 1990 – 21 June 1991) • H. D. Deve Gowda was the 11th Prime Minister. (Tenure – 1 June 1996 – 21 April 1997) 56. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: The Supreme Court of India has Original, Appellate and Advisory Jurisdiction Original – When a matter is originally filed with the Supreme Court. Appellate Jurisdiction refers to the Supreme Court’s power to hear cases in which a lower court has already rendered a decision, but an

appeal has been made to the Supreme Court to overturn or revise it Advisory Jurisdiction applies when a lower court or constitutional body seeks the advice of the Supreme Court on a legal issue. 57. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: Cloudbursts are the events of short–duration and intense rainfall over a small area. It is a weather phenomenon characterized by unexpected rainfall exceeding 100mm/h over an area of about 20–30 square kilometres. In the Indian Subcontinent, it usually occurs when a monsoon cloud drifts northwards from the Bay of Bengal to across the plains and then on to the Himalayas that sometimes brings 75 millimetres of rain per hour. 58. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: • Geodesy represents the figure of the Earth as an oblate spheroid because the Earth is flattened at the poles and bulges at the equator. • The Earth’s diameter at the equator and pole is 12,756 kilometers and 12,714 kilometers respectively. Therefore, the diameter of the Earth at the equator is about 42 kilometers larger than the pole–to–pole diameter. • An equatorial bulge is due to the centrifugal force exerted by the rotation of earth on its axis. It is a difference between the equatorial and polar diameters of a planet 59. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: Latitude and longitude are geographic coordinates used to locate points on Earth’s surface. So, in order to find an exact location, we should enter the latitude and longitude GPS coordinates on Google Maps. 60. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: • The GPS is a satellite–based navigation system made up of a network of satellites placed in earth’s orbit. It is owned by the United States government and operated by the United States Space Force. • It is based on the system of Triangulation. It is a method for determining a position based on the distance from other points that have known locations. • GPS receivers provide location in longitude, latitude and altitude and also provide the accurate time. 61. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: Any organization or body which is established by the Constitution of India is called constitutional body.

SOLVED PAPERS - 2022 (I) The following are the constitutional bodies in India: • Election Commission • Union Public Service Commission • State Public Service Commission • National Commission for Scheduled Castes • National Commission for Scheduled Tribes • National Commission for Backward Classes The bodies or organizations which are established by acts of the Parliament are called as statutory bodies or non–constitutional bodies. These are: • National Commission for Women (1992) • National Commission for Minorities (1993) • National Human Rights Commission (1993) • National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (2007) 62. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: The book Zhong Tianzhu Guo Xingji (Travel Notes of Central India) was written by Wang Xuance. Wang Xuance was a guard officer and diplomat of Tang Dynasty. This book contains a wealth of geographical information. 63. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: General elections in 2019 were held in seven phases from 11 April to 19 May. It was held to elect the members of the 17th Lok Sabha. 64. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: Panchayati Raj is entrusted with rural development. In India, the panchayati raj signifies the system of rural local self– government. The 73 rd Amendment Act of 1992 gave a constitutional status to the panchayati raj institutions. 65. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: Life, Liberty and the pursuit of Happiness are the rights mentioned in United States Declaration of Independence. This declaration was adopted by the Second Continental Congress meeting which was held in Philadelphia, Pennsylvania, on July 4, 1776. 66. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: Abraham Lincoln • He was an American lawyer and the 16th President of the United States • It was Abraham Lincoln who said that ‘Democracy is a government of the people, by the people and for the people’.

41 67. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: The inhabitants don’t feel the speed of rotation of Earth because of the following reasons: • The orbital and spinning speeds of Earth remain the same so we do not feel any acceleration or deceleration. • People are held close to the Earth’s surface by gravity and the constant speed of rotation (Angular Velocity). • Another reason for not feeling the speed is because Earth’s atmosphere and oceans are spinning along with the Earth at the same constant speed. • Therefore, All the objects whether moving or stationary are moving at a same rate of speed as that of Earth. • Example – If we are in a car which is moving at a constant speed on a smooth surface, we will not feel much motion. But when we apply brakes, we feel the sudden motion. 68. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: Mass wasting – It is the downhill movement of soil and rocks due to gravity. The wearing away of landscape by various agents like water, wind and ice is called as erosion. Weathering – It is the action of elements of weather and climate over earth materials. 69. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: • Landslides are the mass movement of rock, debris or earth down a slope • Clay minerals present between soil particle particles can cause a mutual repulsion force and friction particles that trigger the movement of particles at a small scale when soil becomes saturated with water resulting in soil movement (landslides). • Earthquakes are also responsible for landslides. 70. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: • An avalanche is a rapid flow of snow, rock, ice, and soil down a slope, such as a hill or mountain. • The movement can occur by sliding, falling, and rolling of pieces within the avalanche mass • Avalanches pose a threat to anyone on snowy mountainsides, like mountaineers and skiers. 71. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: The following are the features of the Charter Act of 1813:

42

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

• It scrapped the trade monopoly of the company in India. The Indian trade was made open to all British merchants. • It declared the sovereignty of the British Crown over the company’s territories in India. • It allowed for the spread of western education among the people of the British territories in India. 72. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: It was Arnold Toynbee (1852–83), the English economic historian, who first popularized the term Industrial Revolution. He used this term to describe Britain’s economic development from 1760 to 1840. 73. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: Khudai Khidmatgar (Servants of the God) • It was started by Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan who is also known as Badshah Khan and Frontier Gandhi. • He had organised a volunteer brigade ‘Khudai Khidmatgars’ (popularly known as the ‘Red–Shirts’). It was a Pashtun movement dedicated to nonviolence and the fight for freedom. 74. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: • Mahad Satyagraha in March 1927 was started by Dr Bhimrao Ambedkar. • He started this movement to challenge the regressive customs of the upper caste. • He led a procession of around 2,500 ‘untouchables’ through the town of Mahad to the Chawdar tank which was a public source of water tank. The untouchables were not allowed to draw water from this tank. Dr Ambedkar draw the water from the tank and drank it. 75. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: Jyotiba Phule was born in Satara, Maharashtra. He belonged to the mali (gardener) community and organised a movement against upper caste dominance and brahminical supremacy. He founded the Satyashodhak Samaj (Truth Seekers’ Society) in 1873. The main aims of the movement were • social service • spread of education among women and lower caste people. 76. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: L e k h a p a d d h a t i ( M o d e l s o f W r i t t e n Documents)

• Collection of Sanskrit documents written between the 8th and 15th centuries. • Written during the Chaulukya rule in Gujarat • It was a legal document containing rules for drafting various type of documents. These documents were related to land grants, treaties between the rulers and rule of administration. 77. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: Five Pioneering Leaders of the Non– Alignment Movement (NAM) 1. President Kwame Nkrumah of Ghana 2. President Sukarno of Indonesia 3. Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru of India 4. President Tito, original name Josip Broz, of Yugoslavia 5. President Gamal Abdel Nasser of Egypt 78. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: Bombay Plan • A section of the big industrialists in 1944 seat together in 1944 and drafted a joint proposal for setting up a planned economy in the country. • It was called the Bombay Plan. • The Bombay Plan called for the government to invest majorly in industry and other areas of the economy. • After independence, the planning for development was the most obvious choice for the country. • Soon after India became independent, the Planning Commission came into being with Prime Minister as its Chairperson. • It became India’s most powerful and central decision–making mechanism for determining the country’s growth course and strategy. 79. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: • Cyclone Nisarga – State of Maharashtra in June 2020. • Cyclone Gati – Somalia, Yemen (2020) • Cyclone Nivar – Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh (November 2020) • Cyclone Tauktae – Arabian Sea (affected many Indian cities and other countries too) • Cyclone Yaas – Odisha, West Bengal (May 2021) 80. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: The state of Manipur was connected with Indian Railways Network in 2021.

SOLVED PAPERS - 2022 (I) A passenger train, the Rajdhani Express, arrived at the Vaingaichunpao railway station in Manipur for a trial run from Assam’s Silchar railway station. 81. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: The forest fires occur frequently in the low and middle hills of the Himachal Pradesh in the summer season. A forest fire raged for several days near Kullu. The 2021–22 wildfire resulted in extensive environmental damage in the ecologically sensitive region of the Dzüko Valley which is located in the states of Nagaland and Manipur. It destroyed 200 acres of old–growth forest. 82. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: • As of 2022, India has– • States – 28 • Union Territories – 8 • Dadra and Nagar Haveli was merged with Daman and Diu on 26 January 2020 to form a new territory as “Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu”. 83. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: Precipitation: It is the process by which water falls from the atmosphere back on Earth, either in liquid or frozen form. Examples of precipitation – Rain, hail, sleet, and snow are all Sleet – Sleet is a frozen precipitation that melts as it descends from the atmosphere and often refreezes before hitting the ground. In other words, it is a combination of a snow and rain or ice pellets. Hail – Hails are the pellets of frozen rain falling down in form of showers from clouds 84. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: Mechanical weathering is dominant in areas of arid or hot desert. Its is also called physical weathering. It is a process that causes rocks to disintegrate or crumble. It is, caused by rainwater, temperature extremes and biological processes Biological processes, rainwater, temperature extremes, and other factors lead to the breaking down of rocks where they are located. 85. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: A megacity is a very large city with a population of more than 10 million people New York City, in 1950, was the first city to

43 attain the status of a mega city. 86. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: Peninsular plateau • It was formed due to the breaking and drifting of the Gondwana land and therefore is a part of the oldest landmass. • The peninsular plateau is composed of metamorphic and igneous rocks with rising hills and wide valleys. 87. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: Species of tree found in Tropical Thorn Forests – Babool, ber, and wild date palm, khair, neem, khejri, palas, These forests are found in the areas/regions, which receive rainfall less than 50 cm (example – deserts) States where Tropical Thorn Forests are found – South west Punjab, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Gujarat, and Uttar Pradesh. 88. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: Rocks do not remain in their original form for longer duration and undergo transformation. Old rocks are transformed into new ones and this is termed as Rock Cycles. Sedimentary, igneous, and metamorphic are the three main types of rocks. Each of these rocks are formed or transformed by physical changes—such as cooling, eroding, compacting, melting, or deforming. Metamorphic action changes pre–existing rocks into new forms because of increases in temperature, pressure, and chemically active fluids. 89. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: There is a general term called denudation under which all the exogenic geomorphic processes are covered. The word ‘denude’ means to uncover or to strip off. Mass wasting/movements, weathering, erosion and transportation are included in denudation. 90. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: Moraines, eskers, outwas plains, and drumlins are the depositional landforms commonly found in glaciated areas. Ladakh stretches from the Siachen Glacier in the Karakoram range (North) to the main Great Himalayas (South). Because of various glaciers in Ladakh, are these features are found here.

44

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

91. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: • Brij Mohan Nath Misra was popularly known as Pandit Birju Maharaj. • He was an internationally acclaimed Kathak dancer. • He belonged to the Lucknow Gharana and was responsible for making Kathak popular in Northern India. • He was recipient of the Padma Vibhushan. 92. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: In January 2022, Philippines became the first nation to buy BrahMos missile system from India. The deal is worth almost $375 million. BrahMos missile is jointly developed by Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) and Russia’s NPO Mashinostroyeniya. 93. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: The Supreme Court had appointed a five– member committee under the chairmanship of former judge Indu Malhotra The committee had to investigate Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s security lapse that took place in Punjab where PM Modi’s convoy was stuck on a flyover for 15–20 minutes. The convoy was on its way to the National Martyrs Memorial in Hussainiwala, a few kilometres away from the Pakistan border. 94. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: Ross Taylor (New Zealand) completed his Test cricket journey with a wicket from his last ball. After a total of 112 Tests, 7684 runs, and 19 centuries, he finally bid adieu to his test career. 95. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: Rocket scientist S Somanath has been appointed as the new chairperson of the Indian Space Research Organisation. He has become the 10th chairperson and has been appointed for a period of three years. 96. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: Forest Survey report 2021 • It was prepared by the Forest Survey of India (FSI).

• The total forest and tree cover of the country stand at 80.9 million hectares. It is 24.62% of the geographical area of the country. • Area–wise Madhya Pradesh has the largest forest cover in the country. It is followed by Arunachal Pradesh, Chhattisgarh and Odisha 97. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: The 101st Amendment Act of 2016 introduced a new tax regime i.e., Goods and Services Tax – GST in the country The amendment also had a provision of establishing the Goods and Services Tax Council or the GST Council. Article 279–A – This article empowers the President to constitute a GST Council by an order. The Union Finance Minister acts as the Chairperson of Goods and Services Tax Council 98. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: Red Sanders or Red Sandalwood whose scientific name is Pterocarpus santalinus has been put back into the endangered category in the International Union for Conservation of Nature’s (IUCN) Red List. It is an Indian endemic tree species and has a restricted geographical range in the Eastern Ghats. It was classified as ‘near threatened’ in 2018. 99. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: Every year on December 26 Veer Bal Diwas will be observed in the country. It will be celebrated in the memory of Guru Gobind Singh’s four sons (four Sahibzadas) who were executed by the Mughals. 100. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: The Ministry of AYUSH on 14 January 2022 organized a global Surya Namaskar demonstration programme for 75 lakh people globally. It was organised on the day of Makar Sakranti in order to commemorate the journey of the Sun to the Northern Hemisphere.

NDA / NA

GENERAL ABILITY TEST

National Defence Academy / Naval Academy

II

question Paper

2022

Time : 1 hr. 40 mins.

Total Marks : 400

Important Instructions : 1. This Test contains 100 items ·(questions) Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case, you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. 2. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. 3. All items carry equal marks. 4. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions. 5. Penalty for wrong answers : THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS. (i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one·third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. (ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question. (iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.

1. Which one of the following was composed by Harishena? (a) Nashik Inscription of Gautami Balashri (b) Prayaga Prashasti of Samudragupta (c) Deopara Prashasti of Vijayasena (d) Hathigumpha Inscription of Kharavela 2. Consider the following events : 1. Establishment of the Planning Commission 2. Formation of the National Development Council (NDC) 3. Approval of the First Five–Year Plan by the NDC 4. Constitution of the National Planning Committee Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the above events? (a) 1–2–3–4 (b) 2–1–3–4 (d) 1–4–2–3 (c) 4–1–2–3 3. Which one of the following battles could be seen as laying the formal foundation of the British Raj in India? (a) Third Battle of Panipat (b) Battle of Plassey (c) Battle of Buxar (d) Revolt of 1857 4. Where in South India did the British East India Company construct a trading post in 1639? (b) Madraspatam (a) Cuddalore (c) Kalahasti (d) Karwar

5. Which of the following statements is/ are correct? 1. The Dutch East India Company was formed after the formation of the British East India Company. 2. Vasco da Gama reached Calicut in 1498. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2

(b) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2

6. In India, a cultivable land which is left uncultivated for more than a year but less than five years is labelled as (a) cultivable wasteland (b) current fallow (c) fallow other than current fallow (d) barren and wasteland 7. The major portion of the Great Artesian Basin in Australia is located in (a) Western Australia (b) Victoria (c) Queensland (d) Northern Territory 8. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. India has one of the longest navigable inland water networks in the world.

46

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS 2. Inland waterways presently help in transporting about 25 percent of the total cargo movement. 3. About 111 inland waterways have been declared as National Waterways under the National Waterways Act, 2016.



Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only

9. Match List–I with List–II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List–I (Railway Zone)

List–II (Headquarters)

A. East Central

1.

Gorakhpur

B. North Eastern

2.

Jaipur

C. Northeast Frontier

3.

Hajipur

D. North Western

4.

Maligaon



Code : (a) A B C D 3 4 1 2 (b) A B C D 3 1 4 2 (c) A B C D 2 1 4 3 (d) A B C D 2 4 1 3 10. Which one of the following statements about earthquake waves is not correct? (a) P waves move faster and are the first to arrive at the surface. (b) P waves can travel through gaseous, liquid and solid materials. (c) Seismographs located beyond 145° from epicentre can record the arrival of P waves. (d) P waves have maximum area covered under its shadow zone. 11. The commercial unit of electrical energy is kilowatt–hour (kWh), which is equal to (b) 3.6 × l03 J (a) 3.6 × l06 J 3 (c) 10 J (d) 1 J 12. Which one of the following statements regarding a current–carrying solenoid is not correct? (a) The magnetic field inside the solenoid is uniform. (b) The current–carrying solenoid behaves like a bar magnet. (c) The magnetic field inside the solenoid increases with increase in current.

(d) If a soft iron bar is inserted inside the solenoid, the magnetic field remains the same. 13. An object is made of two equal parts by volume; one part has density ρ0 and the other part has density 2ρ0. What is the average density of the object? (a) 3ρ0

(b)

3 ρ0 2

(c) ρ0

(d)

1 ρ0 2

14. A pressure cooker cooks food faster by (a) increasing the boiling point of water (b) decreasing the boiling point of water (c) increasing the melting point of water (d) decreasing the melting point of water 15. Which one of the following wavelengths corresponds to the wavelength of X–rays? (a) 500 nm (b) 5000 nm (c) 100 nm (d) 1 nm 16. An electric bulb is connected to 220 V generator. The current drawn is 600 mA. What is the power of the bulb? (a) 132 W (b) 13.2 W (c) 1320 W (d) 13200 W 17. When the pitch of sound increases, which one of the following increases? (a) Intensity (b) Loudness (c) Wavelength (d) Frequency 18. Which one of the following is the correct reactivity series with water? (a) Zinc > Iron > Lead > Copper (b) Copper > Lead > Zinc > Iron (c) Copper > Zinc > Iron > Lead (d) Zinc > Copper > Iron > Lead 19. Which one of the following metals floats in cold water? (a) Magnesium (b) Calcium (c) Potassium (d) Copper 20. Which one of the following solutions is not capable of conducting electricity? (a) Copper sulphate (b) Sodium chloride (c) Sugar (d) Sodium hydroxide 21. To help deep–sea divers breathe, they carry cylinders of oxygen mixed with (a) chlorine (b) helium (c) nitrogen (d) ozone 22. Which of the following compounds undergoes/ undergo thermal decomposition?

47

SOLVED PAPERS - 2022 (II) (a) Zinc oxide (b) Silver oxide and zinc oxide (c) Silver oxide (d) Magnesium oxide 23. The transfer of electrical signals by nerve cells in human body is enabled by (a) sodium (b) potassium (c) iron (d) sodium and potassium 24. Silver artefacts get tarnished in air due to the formation of (a) silver chloride (b) silver oxide (c) silver sulphide (d) silver sulphate 25. Human eye can see objects at different distances with contrasting illuminations. This is due to (a) far–sightedness (b) near–sightedness (c) far–sightedness and near sightedness (d) accommodation of eye

31. Rafael Nadal defeated whom among the following to win the French Open Tennis Tournament, 2022? (a) Austin Krajicek (b) Ivan Dodig (c) Casper Ruud (d) Joran Vliegen 32. eSanjeevani, the free telemedicine service of the Government of India, was recently integrated with the (a) Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (b) Aam Aadmi Bima Yojana (c) Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (d) Universal Health Insurance Scheme 33. Which of the following statements about ‘SHRESHTA’ scheme, launched recently by the Government of India, is/are correct? 1. This scheme is for residential education for students in high school in targeted areas. 2. It provides for high quality education for meritorious but poor Scheduled Caste students.

26. Which one of the following hormone increases the heartbeat in mammals? (a) Insulin (b) Melatonin (c) Thyroxine (d) Adrenaline



27. The digestion of fat in human intestine is performed by (a) trypsin (b) bile and lipase (c) bile and amylase (d) bile and pepsin

34. In a recent judgement, the Supreme Court of India directed that every protected forest, national park and wildlife sanctuary across the country should have a mandatory eco– sensitive zone (ESZ) of a minimum of (a) 1 km starting from their demarcated boundaries (b) 2 km starting from their demarcated boundaries (c) 3 km starting from their demarcated boundaries (d) 5 km starting from their demarcated boundaries

28. Which one of the following statement about animal cells and plant cells is correct? (a) Animal cells have only cell membrane not cell wall, whereas plant cells have only cell wall not cell membrane. (b) Animal cells have only cell membrane not cell wall, but plant cells have both. (c) Both animal and plant cells have cell membrane and cell wall. (d) Only some cells of animals have cell wall and all plant cells have cell membrane. 29. Lymph is a tissue fluid present in intercellular spaces. It resembles to (a) digestive juice (b) cytoplasmic fluid (c) urine (d) plasma 30. The breakdown of glucose in cytoplasm results in the formation of (a) pyruvate and energy (b) pyruvate and carbon dioxide (c) pyruvate and oxygen (d) pyruvate and nitrogen

Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

35. Who among the following is the author of the book, Tomb of Sand ? (a) Arundhati Roy (b) Geetanjali Shree (c) Chetan Bhagat (d) Jhumpa Lahiri 36. Who among the following invented the flying shuttle? (a) James Hargreaves (b) John Kay (c) Richard Arkwright (d) Humphry Davy 37. Where did Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose announce the formation of the Government of Free India in 1943? (a) Singapore (b) Shanghai (c) Berlin (d) Mandalay

48

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

38. Who among the following introduced the ‘Objective Resolution’ in the Constituent Assembly on 13th December, 1946? (a) Jawaharlal Nehru (b) Rajendra Prasad (c) B. R. Ambedkar (d) Alladi Krishnaswami Aiyar

44. What will happen if you are flying east across the International Date Line? (a) You will lose 12 hours (b) You will gain 12 hours (c) You will gain 24 hours (d) You will lose 24 hours

39. Consider the following historical events : 1. Gandhi–Irwin Pact 2. Second Round Table Conference 3. Peasant Movement in Bardoli 4. Peasant Movement in Kheda

Which one of the following is the correct chronological order (starting from the earliest) of the above events? (a) 4–1–3–2 (b) 4–3–1–2 (c) 3–1–2–4 (d) 1–2–4–3

40. Which of the following statements about the Unionist Party is/are correct? 1. It was a political party representing the interests of landholders in Punjab. 2. It was opposed to the idea of the partition of India as India and Pakistan.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

41. Which one of the following statements about metamorphic rocks is not correct? (a) Due to segregation of minerals into wavy bands or platy surfaces, some metamorphic rocks develop foliations. (b) Where the foliations develop into broad mineral bands, the metamorphic rock is extremely hard. (c) Where the foliations are moderately thin, the metamorphic rock tends to flake apart. (d) Rocks that originally were composed of one dominant mineral are often foliated by metamorphism. 42. Which one of the following ‘discontinuities’ separates the Earth’s crust from the mantle? (a) Gutenberg (b) Mohorovicic (c) Conrad (d) Repetti 43. Which one of the following cities of the world would represent the greatest linear velocity of rotation of the Earth? (a) Kampala, Uganda (b) St. Petersburg, Russia (c) Madrid, Spain (d) Stockholm, Sweden

45. The Prime Meridian does not pass through which one of the following African countries? (a) Morocco (b) Algeria (c) Mali (d) Ghana 46. Piecing together the puzzle of geologic time to create and analyze historical maps of the Earth is known as (a) paleoclimatology (b) paleogeomorphology (c) paleolithology (d) paleogeography 47. What is the nature of velocity–time graph for a car moving with uniform acceleration? (a) Parabola (b) Logarithmic (c) Straight line (d) Exponential 48. The amplitude of sound waves is measured in the units of (a) pressure (b) distance (c) time (d) speed 49. A current of 0.6 A is drawn by an electric bulb for 10 minutes. Which one of the following is the amount of electric charge that flows through the circuit? (a) 6 C (b) 0.6 C (c) 360 C (d) 36 C 50. A DC generator works on the principle of (a) Ohm's law (b) Joule's law of heating (c) Faraday's laws of electromagnetic induction (d) None of the above 51. The presence of magnetic field can be determined using which one of the following instruments? (a) Ammeter (b) Voltmeter (c) Magnetic needle (d) Motor 52. Which one of the following statements about speed and velocity is correct? (a) Speed and velocity both are vector quantities. (b) Speed and velocity both are scalar quantities. (c) Speed is vector quantity and velocity is scalar quantity. (d) Speed is scalar quantity and velocity is vector quantity.

SOLVED PAPERS - 2022 (II) 53. Bronze is an alloy of (a) Cu and Zn (c) Zn and Mg

(b) Cu and Sn (d) Fe and Cu

54. Which one of the following salts does not possess water of crystallisation? (a) Potassium permanganate (b) Blue vitriol (c) Washing soda (d) Mohr's salt 55. Bee sting leaves an acid which causes pain and irritation. The acid released is (a) tartaric acid (b) citric acid (c) ethanoic acid (d) methanoic acid 56. Liquid vegetable oils are converted to solid margarine by the use of (a) hydrogen gas (b) chlorine gas (c) carbon dioxide gas (d) oxygen gas 57. The number of structural isomers of pentane is (a) 5 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d) 3 58. Vapours of sulphur escaping from a volcano often form a crust on the rocks. The process involved is an example of (a) condensation (b) precipitation (c) deposition (d) evaporation 59. Dry ice is used on a performing stage to produce mist in air. The process involved is an example of (a) sublimation (b) evaporation (c) condensation (d) precipitation 60. C4H8 belongs to the homologous series of (a) alkanes (b) alkenes (c) alkynes (d) cycloalkanes 61. The protein–digesting enzyme secreted by the stomach wall in case of mammals is called (a) chitinase (b) amylase (c) pepsin (d) trypsin 62. Which one of the following will be resulted when an animal cell is surrounded by a medium with lower concentration of water? (a) Cell will lose water (b) No change in movement of water (c) Cell will gain water (d) Cell will swell up 63. The digestive enzymes are present in (a) mitochondria (b) vacuoles (c) lysosomes (d) ribosomes

49 64. After fertilization, the fruit and the seed are produced by (a) ovule and ovary, respectively (b) ovary and ovule, respectively (c) ovary, no ovule required (d) ovule, no ovary required 65. Which among the following has initiated a nationwide flagship campaign ‘Puneet Sagar Abhiyan’ to clean seashores/ beaches and other water bodies of plastic and other waste materials? (a) Indian Coast Guard (b) National Cadet Corps (NCC) (c) Indian Navy (d) Swachh Bharat Mission 66. Which among the following was the host country of the United Nations World Environment Day, 2022? (a) Canada (b) Sweden (c) South Africa (d) Brazil 67. Which of the following Indian Naval Ships were decommissioned in June 2022? (a) INS Ganga and INS Nipat (b) INS Nishank and INS Akshay (c) INS Khukri and INS Sandhayak (d) INS Gomati and INS Ranjit 68. India signed a deal with which one of the following countries to supply MH–60R helicopters to the Indian Navy? (a) Israel (b) France (c) Russia (d) USA 69. With reference to India’s defence, the terms ‘Surat’ and IJdaygiri’ refer to (a) coast guard patrol boats (b) cargo helicopters (c) maritime patrol aircrafts (d) warships 70. Who among the following laid the foundation of the Vijayanagara Empire? (a) Harihara and Bukka (b) Krishnadeva Raya (c) Rama Raya (d) Virupaksha Raya 71. The book, Kalila wa Dimna is an Arabic translation of the (a) Hitopadesha (b) Panchatantra (c) Suryasiddhanta (d) Kathasaritsagar

50

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

72. Who among the following initiated the Bhoodan Movement? (a) Ram Prasad Bismil (b) Vinoba Bhave (c) Mahatma Gandhi (d) Kanhu Murmu

79. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The Earth’s crust is brittle in nature. 2. The mean thickness of the oceanic crust is 15 km, whereas that of the continental crust is around 30 km. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

73. Which one of the following rivers in India was not crossed by Alexander and his army? (a) Hyphasis (b) Acesines (c) Hydraotes (d) Hydaspes 74. Who among the following has described the medieval Indian postal system as of two kinds—the horse–post called 'Uluq' and the foot–post called ‘Dawa? (a) Al–Biruni (b) Duarte Barbosa (c) Ibn Battuta (d) Seydi Ali Reis 75. At which among the following Harappan sites are fire altars found? (a) Kalibangan (b) Harappa (c) Mohenjo–daro (d) Rakhi Garhi 76. Consider the following statements on computation of density : 1. Physiological density can be computed by dividing the total population by the net cultivable area. 2. Agricultural density can be computed by dividing the total agricultural population by the net cultivable area. 3. Population density can be computed by dividing the total population by the total area.

How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) None

77. The formation of 'tors' on small rocky hills is associated with which among the following? (a) Granite (b) Limestone (c) Alluvial (d) Dolomite 78. Consider the following statements about anticyclones : 1. Anticyclones are high pressure systems. 2. Air in the centre of the system must be subsiding. 3. Anticyclones are characterized by converging winds.

How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) None

80. In January 2020, the administration of which of the following Union Territories has been merged together? (a) Daman and Diu and Puducherry (b) Puducherry and Dadra and Nagar Haveli (c) Puducherry and Andaman and Nicobar Islands (d) Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu 81. Two convex lenses have focal lengths of 50 cm and 25 cm, respectively. If these two lenses are placed in contact, then the net power of this combination will be equal to (a) + 2 dioptre (b) + 6 dioptre (c) – 6 dioptre (d) + 3 dioptre 82. Which one of the following terms cannot represent electrical power in a circuit? (a) VI (b) I2/R 2 (c) I R (d) V2/R 83. The refractive index of crown glass is close to 3/2. If the speed of light in air is c, then the speed of light in the crown glass will be close to (a) (3/2)c (b) (4/9)c (c) (2/3)c (d) (9/4)c 84. The volume of a sealed packet is 1 litre and its mass is 800 g. The packet is first put inside water with density 1 g cm-3 and then in another liquid B with density 1.5 g cm-3 . Then which one of the following statements holds true? (a) The packet will float in both water and liquid B. (b) The packet will sink in both water and liquid B. (c) The packet will sink in water but will float in liquid B. (d) The packet will float in water and sink in liquid B. 85. A simple pendulum having bob of mass m and length of string l has time period of T. If the mass of the bob is doubled and the length of

51

SOLVED PAPERS - 2022 (II)

2. The nature of terrain and the level of economic development is one of the reasons for the maximum share of national highways in Maharashtra.

the string is halved, then the time period of this pendulum will be (a) T

(b) T/ 2

(c) 2T

(d) 2 T

86. In which one of the following devices, the light energy is converted into the electrical energy? (a) Light–emitting diode (b) Laser diode (c) Solar cell (d) Transistor 87. Which one of the following is not a power of Panchayats under Article 243G? (a) Land improvement (b) Implementation of land reforms (c) Land consolidation and soil conservation (d) Regulation of land revenue 88. Match List–I with List–II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List–I (Mahamatta)

List–II (Function)

A.

Anta–mahamatta

1. Women’s welfare

B.

Ithijhakha–mahamatta

2. Spread of Dhamma

C.

Dhamma–mahamatta

3. Associated with city administration

Nagalaviyohalaka mahamatta

4. In–charge of frontier areas

D.

Code : (a) A B C D 3 2 1 4 (b) A B C D 3 1 2 4 (c) A B C D 4 1 2 3 (d) A B C D 4 2 1 3 89. Who among the following is the author of the Hastyayurveda ? (a) Palakapya (b) Vagbhata (c) Sushruta (d) Charaka 90. Which one of the following areas was acquired by the British under the Treaty of Deogaon, 1803? (a) Cuttack (b) Murshidabad (c) Surat (d) Calicut 91. Consider the following statements : 1. Maharashtra State has the maximum share of national highways (length in kilometres).



Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

92. The activities or services focussed on creation, rearrangement and interpretation of new and existing ideas are referred to as (a) quaternary activities (b) quinary activities (c) tertiary activities (d) secondary activities 93. Consider the following statements about ‘Ude Desh ka Aam Nagrik (UDAN)’ scheme : 1. It is an innovative scheme to develop the regional aviation market. 2. It creates affordability yet economically viable and profitable flight on regional routes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

94. Consider the following statements : 1. The Sharavati river creates Jog Falls. 2. The Brahmani river is formed by the confluence of the Kosi and Sankh rivers. 3. The Tamraparni is a river of Tirunelveli district of Tamil Nadu.

How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) None

95. SONAR is a device that is used to measure the distance of underwater objects by a ship. Which of the following types of waves does it use for this purpose? (a) Infrasonic waves (b) Sound waves in audible range for human beings (c) Ultrasonic waves (d) All of the above 96. Which one of the following statements about the speed of sound waves is not correct? (a) The speed of sound waves in steel is higher than that in water. (b) The speed of sound waves in air decreases with increase in temperature.

52

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS (c) The speed of sound waves in air increases with increase in temperature. (d) The speed of sound waves in water is higher than that in air.

97. The part of the human ear that converts the pressure variations associated with audible sound waves to electrical signals is (a) auditory nerve (b) cochlea (c) eardrum (d) eustachian tube 98. Which one of the following metals is most commonly used for making filament of incandescent electric bulbs?

(a) Aluminium (c) Copper

(b) Silver (d) Tungsten

99. A bullet of mass 10 g is horizontally fired with velocity 300 m s-1 from a pistol of mass 1 kg. What is the recoil velocity of the pistol? (a) 0.3 m s–1 (b) 3 m s–1 (c) – 3 m s–1 (d) – 0.3 m s–1 100. A microphone converts (a) electrical signals to sound waves (b) sound waves to electrical signals (c) microwaves to sound waves (d) sound waves to microwaves

53

SOLVED PAPERS - 2022 (II)

Answers GENERAL ABILITY TEST Q No

Answer Key

1

(b)

Gupta Empire

Topic Name

Ancient History

Chapter Name

2

(c)

Planning Commission of India

Economics

3

(b)

The battle of Plassey

Medieval History

4

(b)

Establishment of British factory

Medieval History

5

(c)

Miscellaneous Topic

Medieval History

6

(c)

Type of Land

Geography

7

(c)

The Great Artesian Basin

Geography

8

(c)

Inland Waterways

Geography

9

(b)

General knowledge

Current Affairs

10

(d)

The shadow zone

Geography

11

(a)

Electric Power

Electricity & Magnetism

12

(d)

Moving Charges and Magnetism

Electricity & Magnetism

13

(b)

Density

Units and Dimensions

14

(a)

Colligative Properties

Solutions

15

(d)

Electromagnetic Spectrum

Electricity & Magnetism

16

(a)

Electric Power

Electricity & Magnetism

17

(d)

Properties of Sound Wave

Sound

18

(a)

Classification of elements periodicity in properties

19

(b)

Properties of metals and non metals

Metals and Non metals

20

(c)

Electrolytes and Non-electrolytes

Acids, Bases and Salts

21

(b)

p-block elements

Elements Classifications & Chemical Bonding

22

(b)

Chemical reactions and equations

Elements Classifications & Chemical Bonding

23

(a)

s-block Elements

Elements Classifications & Chemical Bonding

24

(c)

Redox Reactions

Elements Classifications & Chemical Bonding

25

(d)

Human Eye

Ray Optics

26

(d)

Hormones

Physiology of Plants and Animals

27

(b)

Animal System

28

(b)

Types of Cells

Cells & its Division

29

(d)

Lymph

Tissue

30

(a)

Respiration:Need & Types

Health & Diseases

31

(c)

French Open 2022

Current Affairs

32

(a)

Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission

Current Affairs

Nutrition

and

and Elements Classifications & Chemical Bonding

Digestive Physiology of Plants and Animals

54

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

Q No

Answer Key

Topic Name

Chapter Name

33

(c)

'SHRESHTA' scheme

Current Affairs

34

(a)

Wildlife Sanctuary

Current Affairs

35

(b)

Book & Author

Current Affairs

36

(b)

Flying Shuttle Machine

Static GK

37

(a)

Azad Hind Government

Modern History

38

(a)

Objective Resolution

Modern History

39

(b)

Chronological order of Historical Modern History events

40

(c)

National Unionist Party

Modern History

41

(a)

Metamorphic rocks

Geography

42

(b)

Earth's crust and the mantle

Geography

43

(a)

Linear velocity of rotation of the Earth Geography

44

(d)

International Date Line

Geography

45

(a)

Prime Meridian

Geography

46

(b)

Concept of paleogeomorphology

Geography

47

(c)

Motion in a Straight Line

Laws of Motion

48

(b)

Properties of Waves

Waves

49

(c)

Charges

Electricity & Magnetism

50

(c)

Electric Motor

Electricity & Magnetism

51

(c)

Magnetic Field Lines

Electricity & Magnetism

52

(d)

Physical Quantities

Units and Dimensions

53

(b)

Alloys

Metals and Non metals

54

(a)

Properties of d and f-block elements

Elements Classification & Chemical Bonding

55

(d)

Carbon & It's compounds

Organic Chemistry

56

(a)

Hydrocarbon

Organic Chemistry

57

(d)

Isomers

Organic chemistry

58

(a)

Vapours of Sulphur

Physical and Chemical Changes

59

(a)

Matter in our surroundings

Physical and Chemical Changes

60

(b)

Homologous series

Physical and Chemical Changes

61

(c)

Hormones

Physiology of Plants and Animals

62

(a)

Animal Cell

Cells

63

(c)

Digestive Enzymes

Physiology of Plants and Animals

64

(b)

Reproduction in plants

Physiology of Plants and Animals

65

(b)

National Cadet Corps

Current Affairs

66

(b)

Important Days

Current Affairs

67

(b)

Indian Naval Ships

Current Affairs

68

(d)

Defence Deal

Current Affairs

69

(d)

Warships of the Indian Navy

Current Affairs

70

(a)

Vijayanagara Empire

Medieval History

71

(b)

Book and Author

Static GK

55

SOLVED PAPERS - 2022 (II)

Q No

Answer Key

72

(b)

Topic Name The Bhoodan movement

Chapter Name Static GK

73

(d)

Alexander

Ancient History

74

(c)

Achievements of Ibn Battuta

Medieval History

75

(a)

Indus Valley Sites

Ancient History

76

(c)

computation of Density

Economics

77

(a)

Rock and mountains

Geography

78

(b)

Wind, Storms, Cyclones.

Geography

79

(a)

Earth's crust

Geography

80

(d)

the merger of the Union Territories Indian Constitution (UTs)

81

(b)

Power of Lens

Ray Optics

82

(b)

Electric Power

Electricity & Magnetism

83

(c)

Refractive Index

Ray Optics

84

(a)

Density

Fluid Mechanics

85

(b)

Time Period of a Simple Pendulum

Oscillations

86

(c)

Solar Cell

Semiconductor devices

87

(d)

Panchayati Raj

Indian Constitution

88

(c)

Maurya Period

Ancient History

89

(a)

Book and Author

Static GK

90

(a)

Treaty of Deogaon

Modern History

91

(c)

National Highways

Current Affairs

92

(b)

Quinary activities

Economics

93

(c)

UDAN)

Current Affairs

94

(b)

Rivers in India

Geography

95

(c)

Properties of Sound Wave

Waves

96

(c)

Properties of Sound Wave

Waves

97

(b)

Properties of Sound

Waves

98

(d)

Uses of Metals

Metals and Non-Metals

99

(c)

Momentum

Laws of Motion

100

(b)

Sonic Devices

Waves

NDA / NA

GENERAL ABILITY TEST

National Defence Academy / Naval Academy



iI

question Paper

2022

AnSWERS wITH eXPLANATION

1. Option (b) is correct.

4. Option (b) is correct.

Explanation : 



Explanation :





Madras was established on 22 August 1639. Here the British East India Company had built a trading Post. The British East India Company first settled in southern India in 1611, but moved to the area of Madras in 1639 in order to be near the established textile weavers' communities. Present day Chennai was then known as Madraspatnam.

Harishena was the court poet of king Samudragupta in the Gupta Empire. He was considered a high-ranking Gupta poet. He composed Prashati in praise of Samudragupta. It is the famous Allahabad Prashasti which describes Samudragupta as a great warrior and a great king.

2. Option (c) is correct.

5. Option (c) is correct.

Explanation : 4

Constitution of the National Planning Committee

1938

1

Establishment of Planning Commission

15 March, 1950

2

Formation of National Development Council

6 August, 1952

3

Approval of first five- 8–9 November year plan by NDC 1952



Explanation :



Both the above statements are true.



The Dutch East India Company was a chartered company established in 1602, after the formation of the British East India Company. The English founded the East India Company in 1600.



Vasco da Gama, was a Portuguese explorer and the first European to reach India by sea. Vasco da Gama reached Calicut in May 1498.

6. Option (c) is correct.

Explanation :



When the cultivable land is left uncultivated for more than a year but less than five years, it is categorized as fallow other than current fallow but if the land is left uncultivated for more than five years, it would be categorized as culturable wasteland.

3. Option (b) is correct.

Explanation :



The battle of Plassey laid the formal foundation of the British Raj in India. This was a decisive battle between the Indian rulers and the British. The Battle of Plassey took place on 23 June 1757 between the East India Company headed by Robert Clive and the Nawab of Bengal (SirajUd-Daulah) and his French Troop, in which the British East India Company won a decisive victory.

7. Option (c) is correct.

Explanation :



The Great Artesian Basin is located in Australia. The GAB is Australia’s most important hydrogeological system covering an area of 1.7 million square kilometers. The major part of this basin lies beneath parts of Queensland.

57

SOLVED PAPERS - 2022 (Ii) 8. Option (c) is correct.



Explanation :



Explanation :



Given, V2=V1=V



Instead of India, China has more than 125,000 km of navigable inland waterways. It is the most extensive system of any country in the world. India's cargo movement through inland waterways is only 0.5 percent. About 111 inland waterways have been declared as National Waterways under the National Waterways Act, 2016.



ρ1=ρ0, ρ2=2ρ0



Average density=

hus, only statement 3 from the above is T correct.

14. Option (a) is correct.



9. Option (b) is correct.

Explanation : (Railway Zone)

Total mass Total volume





m1  m2 1 V1   2 V2  V1  V2 V1  V2





ρ0 V  2ρ0 V 3ρ0  VV 2





Explanation :



Inside a pressure cooker, as pressure increases, boiling point of the solution/liquid inside the cooker increases.

(Headquarters)

A

East Central

3

Hajipur

15. Option (d) is correct.

B

North Eastern

1

Gorakhpur



Explanation :

C

Northeast Frontier

4

Maligaon



2

Jaipur

Wavelengths of x-ray lie in the range of 0.1 nm10 nm.

D North Western 10. Option (d) is correct.

Explanation :



Only statement (d) is not true regarding earthquake waves. The shadow zone of S-waves is larger than P-waves. P-waves shadow zones are formed due to refraction, which causes the waves to deviate away. Apart from (d) rest all the statements are correct.

16. Option (a) is correct.

Explanation :



Power of bulb, P = VI



        = 220 × 600 ×10-3=132 watt

17. Option (d) is correct.

Explanation :



Pitch of a sound is directly proportional to its frequency. If pitch is increasing, this means frequency of sound, wave velocity will increase while wavelength will decrease.

11. Option (a) is correct.

Explanation :



1 kWh=1000 W×60×60 sec = 3.6×106 J

18. Option (a) is correct.

12. Option (d) is correct.



Explanation :



Explanation :



Order of reactivity of metal:



Magnetic field inside a current carrying solenoid is uniform, hence it will act like a bar magnet. So, statement (a) and (b) both are correct.



Na > Ca > Mg > Al > Zn > Fe > Sn > Pb > Cu > Ag.



The reactivity of elements (metals) with water decreases towards the right in a period. It also increases down the group. But, zinc is more reactive towards water than iron.



Inside a solenoid magnetic field B=μ0 nI,



This means, B ∝I and B ∝n.



If a soft iron core is placed inside a magnetic field, it will change the magnetization of solenoid. Hence its magnetization will decrease. So, statement (d) is incorrect.

13. Option (b) is correct.

19. Option (b) is correct.

Explanation :



Metals float on water because of two reasons: they are very light weight metals and they react

58



Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS Ag + H2S → Ag2S + H2

very aggressively with water to form hydrogen gas which helps them to float in water.



Metals react with water to give hydroxides and hydrogen gas. Calcium reacts less vigorously with water to form hydrogen gas. The metal starts floating because the bubbles of hydrogen gas formed stick to the surface of the metal.



Explanation :



Accommodation of eye helps in seeing objects placed at different places.

25. Option (d) is correct.

26. Option (d) is correct.

20. Option (c) is correct.



Explanation :



Explanation :





A substance can only conduct electricity if it contains charged particles (electrons or ions) that are free to move around. Sugar solution does not form ion, hence it does not conduct electricity in aqueous solution.

Adrenaline is a hormone secreted by the adrenal glands, which are located on top of both the kidneys. Adrenaline hormone is secreted in response to stress that results in an increased heart rate. It increases the systolic blood pressure and makes the heart beat faster so as to increase the blood flow to the brain and muscles.

21. Option (b) is correct.

Explanation :



Helium is used as a diluent for oxygen in modern diving apparatus because of its very low solubility in blood. The main reason for adding helium to the breathing mixture is to reduce the proportions of nitrogen and oxygen below than those of air, to allow the gas mixture to be breathed safely on deep dives.

27. Option (b) is correct.

Explanation :



Bile is produced by the liver and stored in the gall bladder. Lipase is an enzyme, primarily produced by the pancreas. Both bile and lipase enzyme are required for the breakdown of fat into fatty acids for absorption in the intestine. Bile helps in the emulsification of fats which helps the enzyme lipase to breakdown fat more easily.

22. Option (b) is correct.

Explanation :

2 Ag2O

4Ag+O2

2

Zn+O2



ZnO

Thermal decomposition reactions usually occur at very high temperatures. It is a process in which a compound breaks into two or more products when the heat is supplied.

28. Option (b) is correct.

Explanation :



Cell wall is a structure found only in the plant cells. It is primarily made up of cellulose fibers. Both animal and plant cells have cell membrane, which is primarily composed of phospholipids and proteins but small quantity of carbohydrates are also present.

23. Option (a) is correct.

Explanation :



The brain and spinal cord contain nerve cells that are responsible for sending and receiving information to and from the body. In order to transmit electrical signals by nerve cells, sodium is needed by the body. An electrical impulse is set off by the sodium-potassium pump and passes from one nerve cell to the next, transmitting messages between the brain, spinal cord, and the rest of the body.

24. Option (c) is correct.

Explanation :



The phenomenon is known as corrosion. It is called silver tarnishing, particularly for silver. The black substance obtained is known as silver sulphide.

29. Option (d) is correct.

Explanation :



Lymph is a clear watery fluid very similar to the composition of blood plasma. It is derived from the plasma as fluids flowing through the capillary walls at the end of arteries. Lymph is rich in white blood cells.

30. Option (a) is correct.

Explanation :



The breakdown of glucose in the cytoplasm is the first stage of cellular respiration, which

59

SOLVED PAPERS - 2022 (Ii) is known as glycolysis. The end products of glycolysis are pyruvate and energy.

into English by Daisy Rockwell. ‘Tomb of Sand’ is the first Hindi novel to win International Booker Prize.

31. Option (c) is correct.

Explanation :

36. Option (b) is correct.



Spanish tennis player, Rafael Nadal has won the French Open 2022, defeating Casper Ruud (Norwegian) in the final. The 2022 French Open concluded on 5th June at the Stade Roland Garros in Paris, France. It is one of the four Grand Slams of Tennis.



Explanation :



John Kay invented the flying shuttle machine in 1733, which was an important step towards automatic weaving. Prior to this invention, thread was applied by hand in previous looms. But the invention of this automatic machine made the work of weavers easier.

32. Option (a) is correct.

Explanation :

37. Option (a) is correct.



Government of India's free telemedicine service, e-Sanjeevani has recently been integrated with the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission. This integration allows existing users of e-Sanjeevani, the telemedicine service of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, to easily create their Ayushman Bharat Health Account (ABHA) and use it to manage their existing health records.



Explanation :



On 21 October 1943, Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose announced the formation of the Provisional Government in Singapore. Subhas Chandra Bose himself, as the state's prime minister and war minister, established the Azad Hind government. With the formation of the Provisional Government of Azad Hind, Indian communities were mobilized for armed struggle.

33. Option (c) is correct.

Explanation :



Both the above statements are correct regarding 'SHRESHTA' scheme, launched recently by the Government of India. The objective of SHRESHTA is to provide residential education facilities to the students in the targeted areas. SHRESHTA has been designed with an aim to provide quality education and opportunities for even the poorest scheduled caste students.

38. Option (a) is correct.

Explanation :



Objectives resolution was passed by Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru on 13th December 1946. This resolution was passed in the first session of the Constituent Assembly. This proposal contained the basic ideology and philosophy of the Constitution. The resolution contains the ideals of an independent sovereign republic with autonomous units, adequate minority safeguards and social, political and economic democracy.

34. Option (a) is correct.

Explanation :



The Supreme Court gave an important direction on 3rd June 2022, to make the country's parks and wildlife sanctuary more sustainable and safe than ever before. The Court directed that there shall be a mandatory eco-sensitive zone of at least one kilometer from the demarcated boundaries of every national park and wildlife sanctuary in the country. Earlier, this limit was 10 kms.

39. Option (b) is correct.

Explanation : Chronological order

Explanation :



Tomb of Sand (Reet Ka Maqbara) is a Hindilanguage novel written by Geetanjali Shree. This novel is the story of a sad and depressed 80 year old woman. This Novel was also translated

Year of events

4

Peasant Movement in Kheda

1918

3

Peasant Movement in Bardoli

1928

35. Option (b) is correct.

Historical events

60

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS 1

Gandhi-Irwin Pact

March 5, 1931

44. Option (d) is correct.

Explanation :

2

Second Round Table Conference

7 Sept 1931 – 1 Dec 1931



Crossing the International Date Line is one of the rare thrills of travel. The international date line (IDL) is an imaginary line that runs along the Earth's surface from the North Pole to the South Pole in the middle of the Pacific Ocean.



When we cross it, we either gain or lose a day depending on which way we are traveling.



If we are traveling westward, we gain a day, and if we are traveling eastward, we lose a day.

40. Option (c) is correct.

Explanation :



Both the above statements are correct regarding the Unionist Party. The National Unionist Party was a political party operating in the Punjab region during the period of British rule in India. The Unionist Party mainly represented the interests of the zamindars and zamindars of Punjab, which included Muslims, Hindus and Sikhs. This party has always been opposed to the partition of India into India and Pakistan.

45. Option (a) is correct.

Explanation :



Among the above options, Morocco is the only country through which the Prime Meridian does not pass. In Africa the Prime Meridian passes through Algeria, Mali, Burkina Faso, Tongo and Ghana.

41. Option (a) is correct.

Explanation :



From the above, only first statement is incorrect regarding metamorphic rock. In metamorphic rocks, foliation is not caused by segregation of minerals into wavy bands or platy surfaces, but foliation occurs when pressure squeezes flat or elongate minerals within a rock, causing them to align. These rocks develop a platy or sheet-like structure indicating the direction in which the pressure was applied. Rest all the statements are correct.

42. Option (b) is correct.

Explanation :



The Mohorovicic discontinuity is also known as the Moho discontinuity. It is the boundary between the Earth's crust and the mantle. It means, it separates the crust from the mantle.

43. Option (a) is correct.

46. Option (b) is correct.

Explanation :



Paleogeomorphology is a branch of geomorphology concerned with the study of ancient topographic features. Paleogeomorphic is used to prepare and analyze historical maps of the Earth. Paleogeomorphic traps form a third and distinct group that are used by geoscientists as a major mechanism for the localization of hydrocarbon events.

47. Option (c) is correct.

Explanation :



Uniform or constant acceleration means rate of change of velocity is constant. This is possible only when graph of velocity – time graph is a straight line.



Explanation :

48. Option (b) is correct.



From the above options, Kampala, the capital of Uganda, represent the greatest linear velocity of rotation of the Earth. The linear velocity is approximately 20.944 inches per second. For these problems, we will assume that the Earth is a sphere with a radius of 3959 miles. As the Earth rotates on its axis, a person standing on the Earth will travel in a circle that is perpendicular to the axis.



Explanation :



Amplitude of any wave means how far medium particles are getting displaced, which is equivalent to distance travelled by particle. Hence, it is measured in meter (SI unit).

49. Option (c) is correct.

Explanation :



q=It=0.6 × 10 × 60=360 C

61

SOLVED PAPERS - 2022 (Ii) 50. Option (c) is correct.

55. Option (d) is correct.



Explanation :



Explanation :



DC generator converts mechanical energy into electrical energy. It applies concept of electromagnetic induction, according to which,” when a conductor is placed in changing magnetic field, current gets induced in it”.



Bee sting release methanoic acid or formic acid. The chemical formula of methanoic acid is HCOOH. When a bee stings, it injects methanoic acid into the skin which causes immense pain and irritation. We can get relief from this acid by rubbing baking soda on the affected area.

51. Option (c) is correct.

Explanation :



Magnetic needle has a small magnet. Its magnetic field in the presence of other magnetic field reacts and needle shows deflection. So magnetic needle or compass can be used to measure presence or direction of magnetic field. Ammeter and voltmeter are used to measure current and voltages respectively.

56. Option (a) is correct.

Explanation :



Vegetable oils may be converted from liquids to solids by the hydrogenation reaction. Margarines and shortenings are "hardened" in this way to make them solid. Margarine has traditionally been manufactured by hydrogenation of vegetable oils (olive, palm, sunflower seed, etc.) by an industrial process for converting these oils into a solid, stable, and spreadable substance.

52. Option (d) is correct.

Explanation :



Speed is a scalar quantity. Velocity of an object is its speed in a particular direction, so it is a vector quantity.

57. Option (d) is correct.

Isomers have same molecular formula but different structure.



Pentane → C5H12



Therefore, three structural isomers can be drawn from pentane.

53. Option (b) is correct.

Explanation :



Bronze, an alloy is traditionally composed of copper and tin. Bronze was one of the earliest metals to be discovered, around 3500 BC (the Bronze Age), and before chemical parameters had been put in place for the alloying of this metal.

H | H–C–H

54. Option (a) is correct.

Explanation :



The number of water molecules present in one formula unit of salt is known as the water of crystallisation. Water being the common solvent to be found in crystals because of its polarity and smaller size hence, may sometimes incorporate within the crystal lattice.



Blue vitriol is copper sulphate pentahydrate CuSO4⋅5H2O. It has 5 moles of water.



Washing soda is sodium carbonate decahydrate Na2CO3.10H2O



Mohar’s salt (NH4)2Fe(SO4)2·6H2O



Potassium permanganate KMnO4

Explanation :

H | H–C–H H– –H | | H–C–C–C–H | | H– H

H–H–H–H–H H–H– –H | | | | | | | | | H–C–C–C–C–C–H H–C–C–C–C–H H–C–H | | | | | | | | | | H–H–H–H–H H–H–H–H H n-pentane iso-pentane neo-pentane 58. Option (a) is correct.

Explanation :



Once the molten rock emerges from a volcano at the surface and most of the gases have escaped, it is called lava. Lava is largely degassed magma. Although some lava flows are very fast flowing and look very fluid, one must not forget that they are much denser than water.

62

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

59. Option (a) is correct.

Explanation :



Sublimation, which means it changes from a solid directly into a gas, without melting into a liquid first. Dry ice is made by liquefying carbon dioxide and injecting it into a holding tank, where it is frozen at a temperature of -109° F and compressed into solid ice.

present inside the seed which will give rise to a new plant after seed germination. 65. Option (b) is correct.

60. Option (b) is correct.

Explanation : C3H6, C4H8 and C5H10 belong to the same homologous series. Butene is third member of alkene family have general formula Cn H2n.

61. Option (c) is correct.

Explanation : Puneet Sagar Abhiyan was launched by NCC to clean up beaches and other water bodies including rivers and lakes, plastic and other waste. It aims to raise awareness among the local population about the importance of keeping beaches and river banks clean. National Cadet Corps (NCC) launched the campaign on 30 May 2022 and it continued till 5th June 2022, the World Environment Day.

66. Option (b) is correct.



Explanation :



Explanation :



The gastric chief cells produce the precursor of pepsin known as pepsinogen. The hydrochloric acid secreted by the parietal cells of the stomach reduces the pH, which in turn activates the enzyme pepsin that is required for digesting proteins.



World Environment Day is the biggest international day for the environment. It is led by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), and held annually since 1973.



It is observed every year on 5th June. World Environment Day 2022 was hosted by Sweden. “Only One Earth" was the campaign slogan.

62. Option (a) is correct.

Explanation :



When an animal cell is placed in a medium with lower water concentration, that is hypertonic to the cell, the cell will lose water due to exosmosis. A solution will be hypertonic to a cell if its solute concentration is higher than the cell.

67. Option (b) is correct.

Explanation :



Generally, the Indian Navy assesses the age and capability of its ships and retires the obsolete ships with great respect. INS Nishank and INS Akshay were decommissioned on 3rd June 2022 by the Indian Navy at the Naval Dockyard, Mumbai. The ships were in active naval service for more than 32 years and participated in several naval operations including Op Talwar during the Kargil War and Op Parakram in 2001.

63. Option (c) is correct.

Explanation :



Lysosomes are membrane-bound cell organelles in the eukaryotic cells that are responsible for containing digestive enzymes. They contain around 50 different digestive enzymes, which can hydrolyze proteins, lipids, nucleic acids, and so on. Lysosomes are known as suicidal bags of the cells.

64. Option (b) is correct.

Explanation :



Fertilisation is the fusion of male sperm and female egg. After fertilisation, ovary and ovule become fruit and seed respectively. Embryo is

68. Option (d) is correct.

Explanation :



India has signed a contract with the USA for the supply of MH-60R helicopters. In the first tranche of this agreement, the Indian Navy received two MH-60R multi-role helicopters in Kochi port on July 2022. India has signed a 24-helicopter supply agreement with the

63

SOLVED PAPERS - 2022 (Ii) United States of America to modernize the aging naval helicopter fleet in the country. 69. Option (d) is correct.

74. Option (c) is correct.

Explanation :



Ibn Battuta was a medieval Muslim traveler, who has described the medieval Indian postal system as of two kinds: The horse post, known as uluks, is manned by royal horses stationed every four miles. The foot-post has three stations per mile; one third of a mile is named Dawa.

Explanation : Surat and Udayagiri are the warships of the Indian Navy which have recently been inducted into the Navy. 'Surat' is the fourth guided missile destroyer of the P15B class, while 'Udayagiri' is the second stealth frigate of the P17A class. They joined the Indian Navy on 17th May 2022, which are warships of state-ofthe-art technology.

70. Option (a) is correct.

Explanation :



The Vijayanagara Empire was established in 1336 by the brothers Harihara I and Bukka Raya I of the Sangama dynasty. Virupaksha Raya II was the last ruler of the Sangama Dynasty of Vijayanagara.

75. Option (a) is correct.

Explanation :



The Indus Valley Civilization is one of the oldest civilizations in the world. Kalibangan in Rajasthan was a major provincial capital of the Indus Valley Civilization. During the excavation in this Harappan site, archaeologists have found Yagvedi (Fire Altar). Kalibanga is known for its unique fire altars and modern farming system.

71. Option (b) is correct.

76. Option (c) is correct.



Explanation :



Explanation :



The book, Kalila wa Dimna is the Urdu translation of the book Panchatantra. 'Abdullah Ibn al-Muqaffa' translates Panchatantra into Urdu.



All of the above statements are true regarding the computation of density. We can calculate the density of all the three types of population as follows.



For the purpose of the computation of the physical population density, we divide the total population by the area of agricultural land. Agricultural density can be calculated by dividing the area of agricultural land by the population of farmers in that area. To calculate population density, you would divide the population by the size of the area. Thus, population density = number of people / land area. The computation of physical population density helps determine how many people depend on an area of land for food while computation of agricultural density giving you the average land worked by each farmer.

72. Option (b) is correct.

Explanation :



The Bhoodan movement was a major step in the field of economic and social reforms during the decades of 1950s. The Bhoodan Movement, also known as the Bloodless Revolution. It was a voluntary land reform movement. It was started by Gandhian Vinoba Bhave in 1951 in Pochampally village, Pochampally.

73. Option (d) is correct.

Explanation :



Hydaspes river in India was not crossed by Alexander and his army. Alexander's army was at war for a long time, apart from this, he did not even know much about the military power of the Indian kings. Fearing the prospect of encountering other powerful Indian armies, Alexander’s army revolted on the banks of the Hydaspes River and refused to go further.

77. Option (a) is correct.

Explanation :



Tors are conspicuous rock masses that rise above the surrounding ground surfaces.Tors are landforms created by the erosion and weathering of rock; most commonly granites.

64

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

78. Option (b) is correct.

83. Option (c) is correct.





First two statements from the above is correct regarding anticyclones and third statement is incorrect. Anticyclones are characterized by 'Blocking Highs'. Anticyclones are much larger than depressions and produce periods of settled and calm weather lasting many days or weeks. Anticyclones often block the path of depressions, either slowing down the bad weather, or forcing it round the outside of the high pressure system.

79. Option (a) is correct.

Explanation :



Only one statement from the above is true. It is true that the nature of the earth's crust is brittle. From clay to diamonds and coal, the Earth's crust is made up of igneous, metamorphic and sedimentary rocks. Oceanic crust is thinner than continental crust. The average thickness of the oceanic crust is 5 km while that of the continental one is about 30 km. Thus statement (2) is incorrect.

80. Option (d) is correct.

Explanation :



Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu were separate union territories before 2020. The Home Minister of the Government of India introduced the bill related to their merger in the Lok Sabha on 26 November 2019. The Bill provides for the merger of the Union Territories (UTs). The territories (UT) of Dadra and Nagar Haveli, and Daman and Diu were merged into a single Union Territory in January 2020.

Explanation :

=

Speedof lightinvacuum c  Speedof lightinmedium v

3 c 2   v  c 2 v 3



84. Option (a) is correct.

Explanation : mass

800



= = 0.8 Density of object, ρ = volume 1000 -3 gcm



Since density of object is less than both water and liquid B. So it will float on them.

85. Option (b) is correct.

Explanation :



Time period of a pendulum is given by, T  2π T=2



l g

Since time period is independent upon mass, so changing mass of bob won’t change T.



Also, T ∝ l . So if length becomes half, time T period will be . 2 86. Option (c) is correct.

Explanation :

Solar cell converts solar energy into electrical energy, all other given device consumes electrical energy.

87. Option (d) is correct.

81. Option (b) is correct.



Explanation :



Explanation :





Given lenses are convex, so focal length will be positive.

The powers, duties and rights of Panchayati Raj have been discussed in Article 243G of the Indian Constitution. The regulation of land revenue is not the subject matter of the Panchayats. The Every village panchayat may levy in its area a property tax, a profession tax, an advertisement tax and an entertainment tax.



P1 =

100 v 100 = = +2 D 50 f1

P2 =

100 100 = = +4D −25 f2

P = P1 + P2=2+4 = +6D

82. Option (b) is correct.

Explanation :



. So option (b) is a wrong P = VI= I2 R= R formula of power.

V2

88. Option (c) is correct.

Explanation : Mahamatta A

Anta-mahamatta

Function 4

In-charge of frontier areas

65

SOLVED PAPERS - 2022 (Ii) B

Ithijhakhamahamatta C Dhammamahamatta D Nagalauiyohalaka mahamatta

1 2 3

Women's welfare Spread of Dhamma Associated with city administration

89. Option (a) is correct.

Explanation :



Hesteryurveda is a treatise on the lifestyle of elephants. This book classifies elephants as wild and domesticated. It is a complete science of elephants considering all the facts about wild and domesticated elephants. This Samhita was composed by Palakapya.

2016. Its goal is to make air travel affordable and improve economic development in India. It is an innovative scheme to develop the regional aviation market. 94. Option (b) is correct.

Explanation :



From the above, two statement, (1) and (3) are correct but statement (2) is incorrect. Jog Falls is second-highest plunge waterfall in India formed by the Sharavati River. The Brahmani is formed by the confluence of the Shankh and Dakshin Koel rivers, and flows through the districts of Sundergarh, Deogarh, Angul, Dhenkanal, Cuttack, Jajapur and Kendrapara. Tamirabharani is the only perennial river in Tamil Nadu. Thus, only second statement is incorrect.

90. Option (a) is correct.

Explanation : Cuttack was acquired by the British under the Treaty of Deogaon, 1803. The Treaty of Deogaon was signed on 17th December 1803 between Sir Arthur Wellesley and Raghuji Bhonsle. With this agreement, the English acquired Cuttack, Balasore and area west of Wardha River.

95. Option (c) is correct.

Explanation :



SONAR technology uses ultrasonic waves, whose frequency is greater than 20,000 Hz. Many animals use this techniques for navigation purpose. These waves don’t lies in audible range.

91. Option (c) is correct.

Explanation :

96. Option (b) is correct.



Both the above statements are correct regarding Maharashtra state. Maharashtra has the largest network of National Highways with 17,757 km. It is true; the level of economic development is one of the reasons for the maximum share of national highways in Maharashtra.



Explanation :



Speed of sound order: solid > liquid > Gas. This means speed of sound will be higher in steel, than in water, than in air. So, option (a) and (d) are correct.



Speed of sound increases with increase in temperature. Hence, option (b) is incorrect.

92. Option (b) is correct.

Explanation : Quinary activities are services that focus on the creation, rearrangement and interpretation of new and existing ideas; data interpretation and the use and evaluation of new technologies. People involved are referred to as gold collar workers.

93. Option (c) is correct.

Explanation :



Both the statements are correct regarding 'Ude Desh ka Aam Nagrik (UDAN)' scheme. Regional Connectivity Scheme of Ministry of Civil Aviation Scheme (UDAN) was initiated in

97. Option (b) is correct.

Explanation :



Cochlea changes the sound vibration in electrical signal form and send to brain for further processing.

98. Option (d) is correct.

Explanation :



Tungsten (W) has high resistivity and high melting point. It doesn’t not react with oxygen easily even at high temperature. Inside bulb temperature is very high to cater it. That’s why Tungsten is used in bulb filament.

66

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

99. Option (c) is correct.

100. Option (b) is correct.



Explanation :



Explanation :



Applying law of conservation on momentum, Pi=Pf



A microphone intercepts sound and converts it into electrical signal form. This signal then transferred for further processing.



0 = 1× v +

10 × 300 1000

NDA / NA

GENERAL ABILITY TEST

National Defence Academy / Naval Academy

I

Time : 1hr 40min

question Paper

2021 Total Marks : 400

Important Instructions : 1. This Test contains 100 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case, you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. 2. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. 3. All items carry equal marks. 4. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions. 5. Penalty for wrong answers : THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS. (i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one·third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. (ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question. (iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.

1. Consider the following statements about Light year : (1) Light year is a unit for measurement of very large distances. (2) Light year is a unit for measurement of very large time intervals. (3) Light year is a unit for measurement of intensity of light. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1 only 2. Which one of the following regarding density of water at atmospheric pressure is correct ? (a) Density of water at 4°C is 1000 kg/m3. (b) Density of water at 0°C is 1000 kg/m3. (c) Density of water at 0°C is 100 kg/m3. (d) Density of water at 4°C is 10 kg/m3. 3. Which of the following pairs of physical phenomenon and the discoverer is/are correctly matched ? (1) James Chadwick  : Photoelectric effect (2) Albert Einstein  : Neutron (3) Marie Curie  : Radium



Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 only 4. LED (a semi-conductor device) is an abbreviation that stands for (a) Licence for Energy Detector. (b) Light Energy Device. (c) Light Emitting Diode. (d) Lost Energy Detector. 5. The statement “friction force is a contact force while magnetic force is a non-contact force” is (a) always true. (b) true only at 0°C. (c) a false statement. (d) either true or false depending upon the temperature of the surroundings. 6. Which one of the following is the chemical formula of Hypobromous acid ? (a) HBrO4 (b) HOBr (c) HBr (d) HBrO3 7. The composition of gases in exosphere is (a) Helium and Hydrogen. (b) Neon and Oxygen. (c) Neon and Hydrogen. (d) Helium and Neon.

68

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

8. Which one of the following is not used raw material in the manufacture of glass (a) Soda (b) Alumina (c) Borax (d) Gypsum

(c) Violet, Red and Yellow (d) Indigo, Violet and Green

9. In electrolytic refining of copper, the electrolyte is a solution of (a) acidified copper chloride. (b) acidified copper sulphate. (c) potassium chloride. (d) sodium sulphate. 10. Solder is an alloy of (a) Cu and Sn. (c) Pb and Sn.

(b) Fe and Zn. (d) Ag and Zn.

11. Which one of the following statements about dihydrogen (H2) is not correct ? (a) H2 is lighter than air and insoluble in water. (b) H2 is inert at room temperature due to high H - H bond dissociation enthalpy. (c) H2 reacts with alkali metals at high temperature to yield metal hydrides. (d) A mixture of NO2 and H2 is known as Syngas. 12. Which of the following sets of elements has the same valency ? (a) Na, Mg, Ca (b) Na, Mg, Al (c) Mg, Ca, K (d) Mg, Ca, Ba 13. Which one of the following is the lowest possible temperature ? (a) 0° Celsius (b) - 073° Celsius (c) - 173° Celsius (d) - 273° Celsius 14. Numerically two thermometers, one in Fahrenheit scale and another in Celsius scale shall read same at (a) - 40° (b) 0° (c) - 273° (d) 100° 15. The image we see in plane mirror is (a) real and thus can be photographed. (b) virtual and nearer than the object. (c) virtual and is laterally inverted. (d) real but cannot be photographed. 16. Which one of the following colours may be obtained by combining green and red colours ? (a) Blue (b) Magenta (c) Pink (d) Yellow 17. Which of the following are the primary colours of light ? (a) Yellow, Red and Green (b) Blue, Red and Green

18. According to the New Cartesian Sign Convention, which one of the following is 1 1 1 = + , correct in respect of the formula f v u where symbols have their usual meanings ? (a) It applies only to spherical mirrors. (b) It applies only to spherical lenses. (c) It applies to spherical mirrors as well as spherical lenses. (d) It is an invalid formula. 19. Movement of materials to different parts of cytoplasm and nucleus is generally carried out by (a) Ribosomes (b) Mitochondria (c) Lysosomes (d) Endoplasmic reticulum 20. In mitochondria, ATP synthesizing chemical reactions take place in the (a) Outer membrane (b) Matrix (c) Inner membrane (d) DNA of mitochondria 21. Squamous epithelial cells are found in the inner lining of (a) Oesophagus (b) Small intestine (c) Ducts of salivary gland (d) Kidney 22. Transformation of meristematic cells into specific permanent tissues occurs by the process of (a) Cell differentiation (b) Cell division (c) Cell multiplication (d) Cell regeneration 23. The gaseous product of a process in plants is a requirement for another vital process that releases energy. Given below are four combinations of the process and product. Identify the correct answer. (a) Respiration and Nitric oxide (b) Transpiration and Water vapour (c) Photosynthesis and Oxygen (d) Germination and Carbon dioxide

69

SOLVED PAPERS - 2021 (I) 24. In a dicot pot herb, vaseline/vegetable oil was applied on the upper surface of one leaf (Experimental leaf 1) and on the lower surface of another leaf (Experimental leaf 2). Vaseline/ Vegetable oil was not applied on the control leaf. The plant was deliberately not watered for several days. Which leaf will dry up last ? (a) Experimental leaf 1 (b) Experimental leaf 2 (c) Control leaf (d) All the leaves will dry up simultaneously. 25. Which one of the following statements is not correct for light rays ? (a) Light travels at different speeds in different media. (b) Light travels at almost 300 million metres per second in air. (c) Light speeds down as it leaves a water surface and enters the air. (d) Light speeds up as it leaves a glass surface and enters the air. 26. A glass prism splits white light into different colours. This phenomenon is called dispersion of light by prism. Which one of the following statements is correct ? (a) Red light will deviate the most and it is because of the reflection of light. (b) Violet light will deviate the most and it is because of the refraction of light. (c) Red light will deviate the most and it is because of the refraction of light. (d) Violet light will deviate the most and it is because of the reflection of light. 27. A current of 1.0 A is drawn by a filament of an electric bulb for 10 minutes. The amount of electric charge that flows through the circuit is (a) 0.1 C (b) 10 C (c) 600 C (d) 800 C 28. Which one of the following formulas does not represent electrical power ? (a) I2 R (b) IR2 (c) VI (d) V2/ R 29. The sound created in a big hall persists because of the repeated reflections. The phenomenon is called (a) Reverberation. (b) Dispersion. (c) Refraction. (d) Diffraction.

30. When light is scattered by a molecule and the frequency of the scattered light is changed, this phenomenon is called (a) Rayleigh scattering. (b) Raman effect. (c) Photoelectric effect. (d) Rutherford scattering. 31. Which one of the following statements about the cleansing action of soap is not true ? (a) The oil and dirt gets collected in the centre of the micelle. (b) Soap micelles scatter light. (c) Soaps are ammonium salts of long chain carboxylic acids. (d) Soap forms insoluble precipitates with the calcium and magnesium ions in hard water. 32. Hydrogenation of vegetable oils using nickel catalyst is an example of (a) Substitution reaction. (b) Elimination reaction. (c) Addition reaction. (d) Free-radical polymerization. 33. Which one of the following materials is not an allotrope of carbon ? (a) Diamond (b) Graphite (c) Fly ash (d) Fullerene 34. Which one of the following reactions does not result in the evolution of hydrogen gas ? (a) Reaction of zinc metal with dilute sulphuric acid solution (b) Mixing water to Plaster of Paris (c) Heating zinc metal with sodium hydroxide solution (d) Reaction of potassium metal with water 35. Which one of the following acids predominantly found in tomatoes ? (a) Acetic acid (b) Tartaric acid (c) Oxalic acid (d) Lactic acid

is

36. Which one of the following conclusions could not be derived from Rutherford’s α-particle scattering experiment ? (a) Most of the space in the atom is empty. (b) The radius of the atom is about 105 times the radius of the nucleus. (c) Electrons move in a circular path of fixed energy called orbits. (d) Nearly all the mass of the atom resides in the nucleus.

70

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

37. Reaction of quick lime (CaO) with water to produce slaked lime (Ca(OH)2) is an example of (a) Displacement reaction. (b) Endothermic reaction. (c) Decomposition reaction. (d) Exothermic reaction. 38. Which one of the following is not a bio-mass energy source ? (a) Wood (b) Nuclear reactor (c) Gobar gas (d) Coal

45. In a typical flower, germinating pollen grains pass through several parts of the gynoecium before they reach the ovule. A list of the parts of gynoecium is given below in different combinations. Choose the combination that represents the correct sequence of pollen tube pathway/journey : (a) Style, Stigma, Ovary (b) Stigma, Style, Ovary (c) Pistil, Stigma, Ovary (d) Ovary, Pistil, Style

39. Twinkling of stars is due to (a) particular frequencies of the starlight. (b) reflection of starlight from the oceanic surface. (c) atmospheric refraction of starlight. (d) magnetic field of Earth.

46. If human blood is placed in a 2% detergent solution, what will happen to the RBCs ? (a) The RBCs will shrink. (b) The RBCs will swell and become turgid. (c) The RBCs will swell and burst. (d) The RBCs will lyse.

40. Which one of the following cannot be the unit of frequency of a sound wave ? (a) dB (b) s-1 (c) Hz (d) min-1

47. The major source of vitamins and minerals for vegetarians is (a) black gram and wheat. (b) rice and mustard. (c) vegetables and fruits. (d) soya bean and milk.

41. ‘Beats’ is a phenomenon that occurs when frequencies of two harmonic waves are (a) equal. (b) far apart. (c) multiples of each other. (d) nearly same. 42. Light waves are incident on an air-glass boundary. Some of the light waves are reflected and some are refracted in the glass. Which one of the following properties is the same for the incident wave and the refracted wave ? (a) Speed (b) Direction (c) Brightness (d) Frequency 43. Which one of the following statements is true for a simple harmonic oscillator ? (a) Force acting is directly proportional to the displacement from the mean position and is in same direction. (b) Force acting is directly proportional to the displacement from the mean position and is in opposite direction. (c) Acceleration of the oscillator is constant. (d) The velocity of the oscillator is not periodic. 44. During seed germination, the part of the embryo which grows into root is (a) Radicle (b) Plumule (c) Cotyledon (d) Epicotyl

48. If a ray of light enters from a rarer medium to a denser medium at zero angle of incidence, it would (a) reflect back. (b) go straight. (c) turn towards right. (d) bend at 45°. 49. Mirage is an illustration of (a) only dispersion of light. (b) only reflection of light. (c) only total internal reflection of light. (d) both refraction and total internal reflection of light. 50. Common salt (NaCl) is not used as a raw material for preparation of which one of the following compounds ? (a) Bleaching powder (b) Baking soda (c) Plaster of Paris (d) Washing soda 51. Which one of the following Harappan sites was a specialised centre for making shell objects ? (a) Lothal (b) Balakot (c) Amri (d) Kot Diji

71

SOLVED PAPERS - 2021 (I) 52. Which one of the following was not a part of the dhamma of King Ashoka ? (a) Honouring the king (b) Tolerance of religions other than one’s own (c) Respecting Brahmanas (d) Promoting the welfare of his subjects 53. Which of the following statements about Saguna bhakti traditions is/are correct ? (1) Saguna bhakti traditions focus on the worship of specific deities such as Vishnu or his avatars. (2) In Saguna bhakti traditions, Gods and Goddesses are conceptualised in anthropomorphic forms.

Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 54. At which one of the following places was a Shiva temple not constructed under the patronage of the Chola rulers ? (a) Chidambaram (b) Thanjavur (c) Gangaikonda Cholapuram (d) Naneghat 55. Which of the following statements about the Deccan Riots Commission is/are correct ? (1) The Commission did not hold enquiries in the districts which were not affected. (2) The Commission did record the statements of ryots, sahukars and eye-witnesses.

Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 56. Which one of the following is the correct meaning of ziyarat ? (a) Pilgrimage to the tombs of sufi saints (b) The practice of revenue farming (c) The death anniversary of a sufi shaikh (d) A form of Islamic divorce 57. Keppel Island is completely bleached mainly due to the expansion of (a) Starfish. (b) Blue whale. (c) Octopus. (d) Sea horse.

58. Which one of the following rivers is not a tributary of river Brahmaputra ? (a) River Manas (b) River Kameng (c) River Mahananda (d) River Subansiri 59. Which one of the following is not a minor plate ? (a) Cocos Plate (b) Nazca Plate (c) Caroline Plate (d) Antarctic Plate 60. Advantage(s) of tectonic activity in Iceland include(s) : (1) Source of natural geothermal energy (2) Creation of new land (3) Attraction of tourists

Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 61. The process whereby certain minerals absorb water, expand and change is called as (a) Hydration. (b) Oxidation. (c) Hydrolysis. (d) Carbonation. 62. Which one of the following is the longest Latitude ? (a) 90 degree Latitude (b) 23.5 degree Latitude (c) 0.0 degree Latitude (d) 66.5 degree Latitude 63. If it is 12.00 Noon in India, on which meridian will it be 7.00 am of the same day ? (a) 7.5 degree E. Longitude (b) 7.5 degree W. Longitude (c) 75 degree E. Longitude (d) 75 degree W. Longitude 64. Who among the following was considered to be the preceptor of Mirabai ? (a) Dadu (b) Raidas (c) Ramanand (d) Surdas 65. Consider the following statements about the Mahanavami Dibba : (1) It was the name of a giant box of sweets distributed at the Mahanavami festival. (2) It was the name of a massive platform with a base covered with relief carvings.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

72

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

66. Which one of the following statements about the Ain-i-Akbari is not correct ? (a) It was written by Abu’l Fazl. (b) It is a part of a larger work called Akbar Nama. (c) It describes the Mughal Empire as having a diverse population and a composite culture. (d) It was later revised by Sadullah Khan on the orders of Shah Jahan.

73. A large body of magmatic material that cools in the deeper depth of the Earth’s crust and develops in the form of large domes is known as (a) Batholiths. (b) Lacoliths. (c) Lopoliths. (d) Phacoliths.

67. Swami Dayanand Saraswati (1) was opposed to the worship of idols of Gods and Goddesses. (2) regarded the Vedas as infallible. (3) had met and had discussions with Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar.

Which of the statements given above are correct ? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1 and 2 only 68. Consider the following statements : (1) Muhammadan Anglo-Oriental College was founded at Aligarh by Sayyid Ahmad Khan. (2) Sayyid Ahmad Khan was a great believer in religious toleration, and Hindus, Parsis and Christians had contributed to the funds of his college.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 69. Basket-of-eggs topography is related to (a) Drumlins. (b) Eskers. (c) Cirques. (d) Moraines. 70. Which one of the following planets has the highest density ? (a) Mercury (b) Venus (c) Jupiter (d) Earth 71. Point of Origin of Earthquake Wave is known as (a) Epicentre. (b) Focus. (c) Photosphere. (d) Seismic Zone. 72. The maximum depth of Lithosphere is found in the (a) Pacific Ocean. (b) Siberian Plain. (c) Patagonian Desert. (d) Himalayan Mountains.

74. Which one of the following Oil Refineries is not located in Assam ? (a) Tatipaka (b) Numaligarh (c) Bongaigaon (d) Digboi 75. Where and when did Mahatma Gandhi make his first public appearance in India on coming back from South Africa after two decades ? (a) Champaran in 1917 (b) Lucknow in 1916 (c) Banaras Hindu University in 1916 (d) Ahmedabad in 1918 76. When and where was the demand for “Purna Swaraj” or complete independence made by the Indian National Congress ? (a) Bombay, 1885 (b) Lahore, 1929 (c) Kheda, 1917 (d) Bombay, 1942 77. Which one of the following provides for the complete equality of men and women in India  ? (a) Articles 14 and 15 of the Constitution of India (b) Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India (c) The Indian Independence Act (d) Article 20 of the Constitution of India 78. Which of the following statements about the non-permanent members of the Security Council of the United Nations is/are correct ? (1) Their total number is now 10, but was originally only 6. (2) They are elected for a term of two years only.

Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 79. At which of the following was the American Declaration of Independence adopted on 4 July, 1776 ? (a) Washington Conference (b) San Francisco Conference (c) Second Continental Congress (d) First Continental Congress

SOLVED PAPERS - 2021 (I) 80. Who among the following was the head of the Government that was overthrown by the Bolsheviks in the 1917 Revolution ? (a) Alexander Kerensky (b) Prince Lvov (c) Grand Duke Sergei (d) Tsar Nicholas II 81. Which one of the following is not a form of condensation ? (a) Dew (b) Fog (c) Frost (d) Sleet 82. Which one of the following clouds is a rainbearing cloud ? (a) Cumulus cloud (b) Stratus cloud (c) Nimbus cloud (d) Cirrus cloud 83. In which one of the following countries is intensive subsistence agriculture not predominantly practised ? (a) India (b) Japan (c) Canada (d) Indonesia 84. The Headquarters of South-Eastern Railway is located at (a) Bilaspur. (b) Secunderabad. (c) Kolkata. (d) Bhubaneswar. 85. Bharatmala Pariyojana is related to (a) interlinking of Northern and Southern Indian rivers in a garland shape. (b) networks of National Highways in India. (c) interlinking of all cities of India through Railways. (d) interlinking of all industrial regions of India through pipelines. 86. The natural vegetation which covers the maximum geographical areas of India is (a) Tropical deciduous forests. (b) Tropical thorn forests. (c) Montane forests. (d) Tropical evergreen forests. 87. River Beas, flowing from Himachal and Punjab, joins the river (a) Indus. (b) Satluj. (c) Chenab. (d) Ravi. 88. With regard to the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements is not correct ? (a) The words - Socialist and Secular, were not originally part of the Constitution. (b) The Preamble states the objects of the Constitution of India.

73 (c) The Preamble is enforceable in a Court of Law. (d) A Republic refers to the people as the source of all authority under the Constitution. 89. Which one of the following is not a power of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha ? (a) Speaker shall preside over the House of the People. (b) Speaker will cast vote in the first instance in the House. (c) Speaker will have power to maintain order within the House of the People. (d) Speaker can adjourn the House or suspend the meeting till there is a quorum. 90. Which one of the following is included in Article 51A (Part IV A) of the Constitution of India ? (a) Fundamental Duties (b) Suspension of Fundamental Rights (c) Special Powers of Governors (d) Writs 91. As per the data up to November, 2020, released by the Union Finance Ministry, which one of the following countries ranks 1 in terms of ODI (Outward Direct Investment) for the year 2020 - 21 ? (a) USA (b) Singapore (c) Mauritius (d) United Kingdom 92. ‘Exercise Desert Knight - 21’ is a bilateral air exercise between the Indian Air Force and the Air Force of which one of the following countries ? (a) USA (b) France (c) Britain (d) Israel 93. Tableau of which one of the following States/ Union Territory was adjudged best in the Republic Day Parade, 2021 ? (a) Ladakh (b) Uttar Pradesh (c) Tripura (d) Uttarakhand 94. In the recently concluded elections in December 2020, Faustin-Archange Touadera has won a second term in office as President of one of the following countries. Identify the country. (a) Central African Republic (b) Republic of South Africa (c) Republic of Ghana (d) Republic of Mozambique

74

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

95. Which one of the following statements is not correct in respect of the ‘Legion of Merit’ award ? (a) This award is conferred by the President of the United States of America. (b) This award was conferred to the Prime Minister of India in December, 2020. (c) This was also awarded to the Prime Minister of Australia, Scott Morrison. (d) It is the highest civilian award of the United States of America.

97. Recently a state of emergency has been declared in which one of the following countries ? (a) Maldives (b) Bhutan (c) Nepal (d) Myanmar

96. Which one of the following statements is most appropriate about ‘Exercise Kavach’ ? (a) It is a military exercise of the Indian Army only. (b) It is a joint military exercise involving the Indian Army and the Indian Navy only. (c) It is a joint military exercise involving the Indian Army, the Indian Navy and the Indian Air Force only. (d) It is a joint military exercise involving the Indian Army, the Indian Navy, the Indian Air Force and also the Indian Coast Guard.

98. Which one of the following teams is the winner of the Syed Mushtaq Ali Trophy, 2021 ? (a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Punjab (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Baroda 99. Which country has replaced Maldives to host the 2023 Indian Ocean Island Games ? (a) Madagascar (b) Sri Lanka (c) India (d) Mauritius 100. Identify the correct reason, out of the following, about Claire Polosak for being in the news : (a) She has been honoured with the Pulitzer Prize. (b) She recently won a Grand Slam championship. (c) She became the first female match official to conduct a men’s cricket test match. (d) She has been conferred with the Gandhi Peace Prize.

75

SOLVED PAPERS - 2021 (I)

Answers Q No

Answer Key

Topic Name

Chapter Name

1

(d)

Units

Units and Measurements

2

(a)

Density

Mechanical Properties of Fluids

3

(d)

Discovery of Particles

Atoms

4

(c)

Optoelectronic Devices

Semiconductors Electronics

5

(a)

Friction

Laws of Motion

6

(b)

Hypo Acids

Acids, Bases and Salts

7

(a)

Composition of Air in Atmosphere

States of Matter

8

(b)

Glass

Elements, Compounds and Mixtures

9

(b)

Metallurgy

Extraction of Metals

10

(a)

Alloys

Elements, Compound and Mixtures

11

(d)

Gaseous State

State of Matter

12

(d)

Valency

Periodic Classification of Elements

13

(d)

Temperature

Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry

14

(a)

Temperature

Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry

15

(c)

Mirrors

Ray Optics

16

(d)

Color Spectrum

Ray Optics

17

(b)

Color Spectrum

Ray Optics

18

(a)

Lens Formula

Ray Optics

19

(d)

Endoplasmic Reticulum

Cell

20

(c)

Cellular Respiration

Respiration in Plants

21

(a)

Oesophagus

Digestive System

22

(a)

Meristematic Tissues

Plant Anatomy

23

(c)

Photosynthesis

Growth and Reproduction in Plants and Animals

24

(b)

Transpiration

Transportation in Plants

25

(c)

Refraction

Ray Optics

26

(b)

Dispersion

Ray Optics

27

(c)

Electric Current

Current Electricity

28

(b)

Electrical Power

Current Electricity

29

(a)

Reverberation

Waves

30

(b)

Scattering

Ray Optics

31

(c)

Soap and Detergents

Some Important Chemical Compounds

32

(c)

Reactions of Alkenes

Hydrocarbons

33

(c)

Allotropes of Carbons

Carbon and Compounds of Carbon

34

(b)

Reactivity of Metals

Metals and Non-Metals

35

(c)

Organic Acids and Their Sources

Acid, bases and Salts

36

(c)

Electrons

Physical Properties and States of Matter

76

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

Q No

Answer Key

Topic Name

Chapter Name

37

(d)

Quicklime and Slaked Lime

Some Important Chemical Compounds

38

(b)

Biomass Energy

Growth and Reproduction in Plants and Animals

39

(c)

Atmospheric Refraction

Ray Optics

40

(a)

Units

Units and Measurements

41

(d)

Sound

Waves

42

(d)

Refraction

Ray Optics

43

(b)

Simple Harmonic Motion

Oscillations

44

(a)

Seed

Sexual Reproduction

45

(b)

Parts of Flower

Sexual Reproduction

46

(a)

Blood

Elementary knowledge of Human Body and its important organs

47

(c)

Vitamins

Food—Source of Energy for man

48

(b)

Refraction

Ray Optics

49

(d)

Total Internal Reflection

Ray Optics

50

(c)

Common Salt

Physical and Chemical Changes

51

(b)

Harrapan Culture

Ancient History

52

(a)

Ashoka Dhamma

Ancient History

53

(c)

Saguna bhakti

Bhakti Movement

54

(d)

Chola Dynasty

Ancient History

55

(b)

Deccan riots commison

Concept of one World

56

(a)

Ziyarat

Mediuval History

57

(a)

Keppel Island

Important Sea ports and main sea, land and air routes of India

58

(c)

Rivers

Regional Geography of India

59

(d)

Plates

Origin of Earth

60

(d)

Techtonic Activites

Origin of Earth

61

(c)

Minerals Resources

Regional Geography of India

62

(c)

Latitudes

Latitudes and Longitudes

63

(d)

Concept of time

Latitudes and Longitudes

64

(b)

Mirabai

Bhakti Movement

65

(c)

Mahanavami Dibba

A broad survey of Indian History, with emphasis on Culture and Civilisation

66

(d)

Akbar

Mughal Dynasty

67

(b)

Swami Dayanand Saraswati

Forces shaping the modern world

68

(c)

Educational reforms

Forces shaping the modern world

69

(a)

Eggs

Constituents of food

70

(d)

Planets

The Universe

71

(a)

Earthquake

Earthquakes and Volcanoes

72

(a)

Lithosphere

The Earth, its shape and size

73

(a)

Earth Crust

The Earth, its shape and size

77

SOLVED PAPERS - 2021 (I)

Q No

Answer Key

Topic Name

Chapter Name

74

(a)

Important Refinaries

Current Affairs

75

(c)

Banaras Hindu University

Basic Teachings of Mahatma Gandhi

76

(b)

Purna Swaraj

Indian National Congress

77

(a)

Fundamental Rights

Elementary study of Indian Constitution and Administration

78

(c)

International Organisations

Current Affairs

79

(a)

American Independence

War of American Independence

80

(a)

Russian Revolution

Concept of one World

81

(d)

Condensation

Condensation and Precipitation

82

(c)

Clouds

Types of Climates

83

(c)

Agriculture

Major Natural regions of the World

84

(c)

Indian Railway

Current Affairs

85

(b)

Government Schemes

Current Affairs

86

(a)

Natural vegetation

Major Natural regions of the World

87

(b)

Rivers

Current Affairs

88

(c)

Preamble

Elementary study of Indian Constitution and Administration

89

(b)

Lok Sabha

Parliament

90

(a)

Fundamental Duties

Elementary study of Indian Constitution and Administration

91

(b)

Foreign Direct Investment

Current Affairs

92

(b)

Joint Military Exercise

Current Affairs

93

(b)

Republic day event

Current Affairs

94

(a)

International Politics

Current Affairs

95

(d)

Awards

Current Affairs

96

(c)

Joint Military Exercise

Current Affairs

97

(d)

International Politics

Current Affairs

98

(c)

Sports

Current Affairs

99

(a)

Sports

Current Affairs

100

(c)

Awards

Current Affairs

NDA / NA

GENERAL ABILITY TEST

QUESTION PAPER

I

National Defence Academy / Naval Academy

2021

Answers with Explanation 1. Option (d) is correct.

8. Option (d) is correct.

Explanation:

Explanation:

Light year is a unit of measurement of distance. It is used in astronomy for measuring large distances.

Gypsum is mainly used to form cement, mortar, keere cement etc. It is not used to form glass. Glass are mainly silicates.

(1 ly = 9.461 × 1015 m)

9. Option (b) is correct.

2. Option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

Explanation:

Electrolytic refining is mainly used to purify impure metal. Here anode is made up of impure metal while cathode is made of pure metal. Here acidified CuSO4 is mainly used as an electrolyte.

We know density of water is maximum at 4 °C, having value, 1gm/cm3 or 1000 kg/m3 3. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: Marie Curie = Radium is the correct option. James Chadwick discovered neutrons.

10. Option (c) is correct. Explanation:

4. Option (c) is correct.

Pb and Sn are mainly used to form solder which is an alloy and it melts at lower temperature.

Explanation:

11. Option (d) is correct.

LED stands for light emitting diode, is a special pn junction diode which when connected in forwards bias emits light due to recombination of holes and electrons.

Explanation:

Albert Einstein discovered photoelectric effect

5. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: Friction is a contact surface phenomenon. It works only when surfaces are in contact with each other. Magnetic force does not depend upon surface in contact, it works till an object is in the influence of a magnetic field.

CO + H2 mixture is called syngas not NO2 and H 2. 12. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: Mg 12

2

Ca 20

2

Ba 56

2

All of them have same valency. i.e. 2 and being to Group II A element

13. Option (d) is correct. Explanation:

Hypobromous acid: HOBr

The lowest possible temperature is assigned a value of 0 K. It is called absolute zero, where theoretically all motions are ceased. So, the correct answer is

Here oxidation state of Br = +1

0 K = –273 °C

7. Option (a) is correct.

14. Option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

Explanation:

Exosphere, the outermost layer of the atmosphere maily contains He & H2.

At –40° both Celsius and Fahrenheit scales give the same reading.

6. Option (b) is correct. Explanation:

79

SOLVED PAPERS - 2021 (I) °



F=

   ° F -

 

°

9° C + 32 5

9° F = 32    (let °F = °C ) 5

4° F = 32 5 F = -40°

15. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: Plane mirrors always form virtual, erect and laterally inverted images with magnification of +1. Since the image produced by a plane mirror is virtual in nature, it cannot be obtained on a screen. 16. Option (d) is correct. Yellow is a secondary colour, obtained by mixing primary colours, red and green.

in the production of ATP during the cellular aerobic respiration. Mitochondria carries out complete oxidation of glucose. During this the electron transport system (ETS) occurs in the inner membrane of mitochondria leading to development of electro proton gradient, which when breaks leads to the formation of ATP. All the carriers of ETS are present on inner membrane of mitochondria. 21. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: Oesophagus is the muscular tube of digestive system that connects the pharynx (throat) to the stomach. It moves food from mouth to the stomach. It’s inner lining is made up of squamous epithelium which allows the movement of food through it by a mechanism called peristalsis. 22. Option (a) is correct.

17. Option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

Explanation:

Differentiation is the process by which a meristematic cell acquires a proper function by changing its morphology and physiology. Due to physiological and morphological changes, a meristematic cell form a permanent tissue taking up a permanent shape, size and also becomes specialised for performing a specific function.

Red, Blue and Green are the three primary colours. 18. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: Mirror formula is:

1 1 1 = + , it is applicable f v u

only for spherical mirrors. Lens Formula is:

1 1 1 = - , it is applicable f v u

only for spherical lenses. 19. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: Endoplasmic reticulum is a network of tiny tubular structures scattered in the cytoplasm. It is composed of cisternae, tubules & vesicles. Cisternae is long flattened sac like structure containing ribosome so actively involved in the synthesis of proteins. Tubules are also tube like interconnected structures involved in lipid & sterol synthesis. Both of these, i.e. cisternae and tubules along with vesicles carry out movements of materials throughout the cell. 20. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: ATP i.e Adenosine triphosphate is the energy currency of cell. ATP is formed from ADP. Mitochondria is the main organelle involved

23. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: Photosynthesis is a biochemical process in which carbohydrate is synthesized by using raw materials like CO2 & H2O in the presence of sunlight and with the help of chlorophyll. During photosynthesis, water is split on the thylakoid lumen side of the thylakoid membrane, so the protons are released inside the thylakoid and O 2 is released as a by product. Oxygen is essential for respiration which is necessary for the release of energy during aerobic cellular respiration. 24. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: Loss of water through leaf surface in the form of water vapour is called transpiration. Major site of transpiration on leaf is stomata. Dicot leaves are hypostomatic i.e. they contain large number of stomata on their lower surface. So when vaseline or vegetable oil is applied on

80

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS it’s lower surface, it prevents the transpiration. Thus, experimental leaf 2 will dry up at last.

25. Option (c) is correct.

Equations (1), (3) and (5) represent the electric power, whereas IR2 does not represent the electric power.

Explanation:

29. Option (a) is correct.

Speed of light depends upon the medium in which it is traveling. Its speed decreases with the increase in optical density of the medium. As water is denser than air, the speed of light will increase when light moves from water to air.

Explanation:

26. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: When white light strikes at the surface of a prism, it gets split into seven colours due to refraction. Red color has the longest wavelength and it deviates least from its path while violet being the shortest in wavelength deviates maximum. 27. Option (c) is correct. Explanation:

Q = 1.0 × 600



Q = 600 C

Charge flowing in a circuit is given by Q = It. 28. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: The formula for electric power is • P = VI

…(1)

Where

Explanation: Soap are the sodium or potassium salt of long chain carboxylic acid or fatty acid which contain both polar and non polar part.

33. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: The main allotrope of carbon are crystalline and amorphous. The crystalline allotrope contain Diamond, Fullerene, Graphite here fly ash is not allotrope Explanation:

• V = Potential difference in the circuit

Mixing of water into Plaster of Paris does not give H2 gas. In fact it gives gypsum.

• I = Electric current. From Ohm’s law …(2)

Substitute equation (2) in (1) we get

CaSO4∙ (POP)

1 H O → CaSO4∙2H2O 2 2 (Gypsum)

35. Option (c) is correct.

• P = (IR)I • P = I2R 

31. Option (c) is correct.

34. Option (b) is correct.

• P = Electric power

• V = IR

When light enters a molecule and interacts with the electron density, it creates vibration in it and deformation of incident frequency takes place, this effect is known as Raman Effect.

Vegetable oil is unsaturated hydrocarbon which contain multiple bond. Here vegetable oil reacts with H2 in presence of Ni/Pd catalyst to give vegetable ghee & the reaction is addition reaction.

Time (t) = 10 × 60 = 600 s

Explanation:

Explanation:

Time = 10 minutes Q = I × t

30. Option (b) is correct.

32. Option (c) is correct.

Current (I) = 1.0 A



When sound undergoes multiple reflections and it is heard multiple times simultaneously, it is knows as reverberation.

…(3)

From Ohm’s law V • I = …(4) R Substituting equation (4) in equation (1), we get V2 • P = …(5) R

Explanation: Oxalic acid is a chemical compound which occurs naturally in many plants. here it is present in Tomatoes, spinach, nuts, seeds etc, 36. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: Rutherford did not give the concept of stationary orbit. the concept of fixed energy of an orbit is given by Bohr’s.

81

SOLVED PAPERS - 2021 (I) 37. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: CaO+H2O → Ca (OH)2 The formation of slaked lime is an exothermic reaction where large amount of heat is released when CaO reacts with water. 38. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: • Bio-mass is a source of energy that is derived from organic material which is renewable and sustainable source of energy such as plant and animal waste. So, generally the fuel obtained from organic material is called biomass. • Nuclear energy which is obtained by fusion and fission of atoms resulting in the tremendous release of energy. In this, both nuclear fusion and fission can be carried out in the absence of sunlight. • So, the nuclear energy is not a bio-mass source of energy. 39. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: Twinkling of stars is an atmospheric phenomenon. Due to varying refractive index of layers of atmosphere, a light ray coming from a star undergoes multiple refractions (bending of light). Hence, stars appear to twinkle. 40. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: Frequency = 1/Time period Hz is the SI unit of frequency. Also s(-1) and min(-1) can be units of frequency of sound. Loudness of sound is measured in decibels (dB), therefore it cannot be the unit of frequency of sound. 41. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: When two harmonic waves of slightly different frequencies overlap in space and time, beats are produced. Number of beats produced per second is called beat frequency.

in partial reflection. Speed and wavelength of light changes during refraction, but its frequency remains same. 43. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: For a SHM, Force acting on an object is directly proportional to its displacement from the mean position.   {F} ∝ {X} Negative sign indicates that the displacement and the force both are in the opposite direction. 44. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: Seed is the product of fertilization. After the process of fertilization, each ovule develops into a seed. A seed generally contain seed coat, embryo and endosperm. Seed coat protects the embryo against various factors. Embryo is the future plant contain an embryonal axis with the embryonic bud (plumule) and the embryonic root (radicle). Endosperm is the reserve food for the development of embryo. When seed germinate, radicle is the first structure which appears. Radicle further develops into root and then after plumule arises which further develops into shoot. • Under favourable conditions, the seed absorbs water from the surroundings and swells up, the seed coat ruptures and the embryo emerges out. • The radical grows downwards into the soil and forms root. 45. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: Gynoecium is the female reproductive organ of a flower. It is made up of carpel or pistil, which can be single or multiple in number. A pistil is made up of three parts i.e. stigma, style and ovary. Stigma is the landing platform of pollen grain, style connects the stigma & ovary. Ovary bear the ovule. So, when the pollen grain germinates on stigma. The pollen tube travels through style and reach to the ovary.

42. Option (d) is correct.

46. Option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

Explanation:

Refracted light has less intensity than the incident light as some of the intensity is lost

2% detergent solution is hypertonic & water will flow into it & as a result RBC will shrink.

82

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

47. Option (c) is correct.

he tries to teach his children, he had a duty to instruct his subjects.

Explanation: Vegetarian is the practice of eating food which is plant based. So, vegetables and fruits serve as the major source of nutrients for vegetarian people. They contain all the essential nutrients required for proper growth & development of the body.

Ashok’s Dhamma (Dharma) • Respect for the Brahmans and Sarmanas is an integral part of his Dhamma. • Being kind with slaves and servants. • Respecting one’s elders. • Treating all creatures with compassion

48. Option (b) is correct.

• Giving gifts to brahmins and monks

Explanation: Zero angle of incidence means, the incident ray and the normal to the surface coincide. In this case, light will go straight (without any deviation) through the denser medium. Some of the light will reflect back and trace the same path as the incident light.

• Major Rock Edict II of Ashoka dhamma is related to measures of social welfare. 53. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: • The Saguna bhakti believed in having a definite form of God.

49. Option (d) is correct.

• They believed in anthropomorphic form of God (which means God or Goddess have human form or have the human qualities)

Explanation: In mirage, light coming from the Sun undergoes refraction and when it strikes the layer of atmosphere closer to the Earth’s surface, which is rarer in density as compared to the layers above, at an angle greater than the critical angle it undergoes total internal reflection and we see optical illusion in the form of water. This happens mostly in hot climate area.

• This school of thought believed that the god manifests himself in incarnations such as Rama and Krishna. The spirit of God is to be found in the idols and images worshipped at home and in temples. 54. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: • The Chola Dynasty was established in the southern state of Tamil Nadu which was one of the longest-ruling dynasties in the world’s history

50. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: Plaster of Paris obtained by heating gypsum at 393 k.

1 3 393K CaSO4 × 2H 2 O ¾¾¾ ® CaSO4 × H 2 O + H 2 O. 2 2

51. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: Nageshwar and Balakot are the two settlements which are near the Coast and thus were specialised centres for making shell objects – including bangles, ladles and Inlay. From these two sites these objects were taken to other settlements. Nageshwar is found in Kutch district of Gujrat and Balakot (also known as Kot Bala) is located at Lasbela District, Balochistan, Pakistan. 52. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: Ashoka’s dhamma did not involve worship of a god, or performance of a sacrifice. As a father



• (The three great Chola temples constructed between 11th and 12th century are listed into UNESCO’s World Heritage Sites). These are: 1. The Brihadisvara temples of Thanjavur, 2. Gangaikonda cholisvaram, and 3. The Airatesvara temple at Darasuram. • (These three temples are built in Dravidian style of temple architecture)

55. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: In the nineteenth century, farmers in various parts of India rose in revolt against grain dealers and moneylenders. One such revolt occurred in 1875 in the Deccan. Deccan Riots Commission The government of India pressurised the Government of Bombay to set up a commission of enquiry to look into the causes of the riots.

83

SOLVED PAPERS - 2021 (I) A report was produced by the commission and was presented to the British Parliament in 1878. This report came to known as the Deccan Riots Report. The commission conducted investigations in the districts affected by the riots, recording testimony from r yots, sahukars, and eyewitnesses. Also compiled statistical data on revenue rates, prices, and interest rates in various locations, and collating district collectors’ reports. 56. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: • Ziyarat is an Arabic word which literally means to ‘visit’. • It is used to refer to a form of pilgrimage to sites associated with Muhammad, his family members and descendants, his companions and other venerated figures in Islam such as the prophets, Sufi Saints and Islamic scholars. 57. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: Coral bleaching occurs when corals lose their vibrant colors and turn white. It happens due to changes in temperature, light, or nutrients Great Keppel Island is located in Queensland, Australia. Generally, a starfish contributes to the reef ’s biodiversity by eating faster-growing coral species, which in turn allows slower-growing species to thrive. At outbreak levels, the starfish can consume coral faster than it can reproduce; coral is a type of polyp which builds the limestone reefs on which they live communally. 58. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: Brahmaputra is a trans boundary river which flows through Tibet (China), India, and Bangladesh. It is known by various names: • Yarlung Tsangpo in Tibet • Siang/Dihang River in Arunachal Pradesh • Luit in Assamese; and • Jamuna in Bangladesh Tributaries of Brahmaputra: Kameng/ Jia Bhoroli, Manas, Beki, Teesta, Subansiri are the tributaries.

The Mahananda River is an important tributary of the Ganges. 59. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: Antarctic Plate is a major plate including the continent of Antarctica and extending outward under the surrounding oceans. List of Minor Plates • Arabian Plate • Caribbean Plate • Cocos Plate • Juan de Fuca Plate • Nazca Plate • Philippine Sea Plate • Scotia Plate List of Major Plates • African Plate • Antarctic Plate • Eurasian Plate • Indo- Australian Plate • North American Plate • Pacific Plate • South American Plate 60. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: Benefits of Tectonic activities in Iceland: • It brings benefits such as geothermal energy and beautiful landscapes (attracts tourists) • The hot springs are prevalent in Iceland. These springs are created by ground water flowing near magma (underground lava), because of the geological activity. • People use these warm pools as baths 61. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: • The process whereby certain minerals absorb water, expand and change is called hydration. For example, anhydrite is changed to gypsum. • It is often classified as a type of chemical weathering; mechanical stresses occur as well. 62. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: • Lines of latitude are imaginary lines that measure degrees north and south of the equator from the centre of the Earth.

84

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS • The longest latitude is 0°latitude which is known as the Equator. It divides the earth into two equal halves, the northern hemisphere and the southern hemisphere. • The equator is the longest latitude which is also called the largest circle because all other latitudes become smaller as they move north and south from the equator towards the poles. All other circles are small circles. • The Earth is widest at the equator so it is the longest line of latitude at 24,901.55 miles.

63. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: • International date line (IDL) which is an imaginary irregular line that passes through Pacific Ocean and it is 180°east of Prime Meridian. • So, it refers that IDL and Prime meridian are not the same. • The rotation of Earth is from west to east. So based on this we assume the day starts (i.e. 12 am) from IDL. 64. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: Mirabai (1498-1546) • The most famous woman of Bhakti cult was Mirabai • She was born into a royal family of Pali, Rajasthan. • She was an ardent devotee of Lord Krishna and considered her as to be her lover. • She composed her bhajans in Braj bhasa and Rajasthani language. • It is believed that Mirabai was a disciple of Saint Ravidas (Raidas), however, there is no corroborating historical evidence for this. 65. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: Mahanavami Dibba is a beautiful stone platform located within the Royal Enclosure of Hampi which was built during the Vijayanagara period by King Krishnadevaraya to commemorate his victory over Udaygiri. 66. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: Ain-i-Akbari (Administration of Akbar) • This document is written by Akbar ’s court historian, Abu’l Fazl, in the Persian language.

• The document gives the detailed view of Mughal administration during Akbar ’s reign. • It was the final part (Volume III) of the much larger document, the Akbarnama (Account of Akbar). • The Ain-i-Akbari document is divided into five books. The fourth book of Ain-i-Akbari contains information on Hindu philosophy, science, social customs and literature. 67. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: • Dayananda Saraswati (also known as Mulshankar) was born in the old Morvi state in Gujarat. • He was the founder of Arya Samaj. He considered Vedas to be ‘India’s Rocz of Ages’ and took inspiration from them. • According to him, the Vedas were the infallible/flawless and the true original seed of Hinduism. • The slogan “Back to the Vedas” was given by him. • He had also met other reformers of the time, like, Keshab Chandra Sen, Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar, Ranade, Deshmukh, etc. 68. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: • Sir Syed Ahmad Khan was an Islamic reformer, philosopher, Islamic pragmatist and educationist in nineteenth-century British India • In 1875, the Muhammadan Anglo Oriental College Sir was founded by Syed Ahmed Khan in Aligarh which later in 1920 became Aligarh Muslim University. • Sayyid Ahmad Khan was a firm believer of religious toleration and was the first Muslim scholar who had attempted an Urdu commentary on the Bible. • The doors of his college were open for all the Indians. Hindus, Parsis, and Christians had contributed freely to the funds of his college. 69. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: • The term ‘basket of eggs’ topography refers to Drumlins which is a depositional landform formed by glaciers.

85

SOLVED PAPERS - 2021 (I) • These baskets of eggs are basically forms of rounded hummocks resulting from the deposition of glacial till which look like inverted boat or spoon. • They vary in size from a few metres to 60-100 metres in height and from a few hundred metres to one-two kilometres in length. • When they occur in a cluster, they look like a basket of eggs. 70. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: • Earth which is the fourth smallest among all the planets has the highest density than any planet in the Solar System. • There are eight planets exists in our Solar System which are not only in terms of size but also in terms of mass and density • Among Planets there are 4 inner planets such as – Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars 4 outer planets – Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune 71. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: (Focus- It is the place or point inside Earth’s crust from where an earthquake originates) • The focus is also known as hypocentre of an earthquake and it generates a series of elastic waves. • At this point of focus the ground ruptures. (The epicenter is the point directly above the focus on Earth’s surface) • As the ground breaks down, the vibrating waves travel away from the focus of the earthquake outwards in all directions. 72. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: • The maximum depth of Lithosphere is found in Pacific Ocean. • The deepest point on the surface of the Earth is in the Marianas Trench which is over 11.5 km below the sea level • The concept of the lithosphere which is Earth’s strong outer layer was described by A.E.H. Love in his 1911 monograph. • Earth’s lithosphere comprises the crust and the uppermost mantle which contains the hard and rigid outer layer of the Earth.

73. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: Batholiths are type of igneous rock that are formed when magma rises into the earth’s crust, but do not erupt onto its surface Half Dome, in Yosemite National Park is an example of batholith 74. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: Tatipaka Oil Refinery which was set up on 3rd September 2001. It is located in the East Godavari district in Andhra Pradesh. • A refinery is generally referred which is located near the source of crude oil i.e. either the producing field, a pipeline or a seaport. • Presently there are 23 refineries. Out of which 18 Government, 2 Joint Ventures and 3 Private Sectors refineries in India. • Barauni refinery in Bihar is one of the oldest refineries in India • Basically, through refineries the usable crude oil products are – petrol, diesel, LPG, Kerosene etc 75. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: • (Gandhi ji had returned to India on January 9, 1915 with his wife Kasturba Gandhi after his stay of over 21 years in South Africa) • On 6 th Feb 1916, Gandhiji lectured at Banaras Hindu University and makes his first appearance in India on coming back from South Africa after two decades. • On 26 th December 1916, Gandhiji met Jawaharlal Nehru for the first time at Lucknow Congress 76. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: • The Indian National Congress met in Lahore on 31st December 1929 where the flag of India was hoisted by Jawaharlal Nehru. • The Congress asked the people of India to observe 26 January as Independence Day. For this the flag of India was hoisted publicly across India by Congress volunteers, nationalists and the public

86

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS • On the banks of Ravi in Lahore, under the presidentship of the Nehru, the Congress adopted the resolution on Complete Independence or Purna Swaraj on January 1, 1930, where the pledge was taken by the public on January 26, 1930.

July 4, 1776 by the Second Continental Congress meeting in Philadelphia, Pennsylvania 80. Option (a) is correct.

• Fundamental Rights have been described in Article 12 to 25

Explanation: The October Revolution (officially known as the Great October Socialist Revolution) is also known as the Bolshevik Revolution. It was a revolution in Russia led by the Bolshevik Party of Vladimir Lenin. The revolution was instrumental in the larger Russian Revolution of 1917–1923. The February Revolution overthrew Tsar Nicholas II (last emperor of Russia) and replaced his government with the Russian Provisional Government. The October Revolution (25 October 1917) took action against the Provisional Government whose head was Alexander Kerensky. The Provisional government was overthrown by the Military Revolutionary Committee (military organs created by the Bolsheviks)

• Under this there are 6 types of Fundamental Rights

81. Option (d) is correct. Explanation:

• The Concept of Fundamental Rights have been adopted from USA Constitution

Condensation is defined as the process of conversion of a vapour or gas liquid.

• In Keshwananda Bharti case, the Supreme Court said that Parliament has the right to attend Fundamental Rights but basic features cannot be destroyed.

The following are the forms of Condensation:

• One option before the Congress was to demand Dominion Status, under which India would have still remained at least nominally under British rule. • But the Congress rejected this option and instead asked for Purna Swaraj, which means Full Independence 77. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: • Article 14 – Equality before law • Article 15 – Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth

78. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: UN Security Council The UN Security Council is primary responsible for maintaining International Peace and Security. Prior to 1966, there were six elected members (non-permanent members). Now there are 10 non-permanent members. While the limit of permanent members has not changed since the creation of the United Nations in 1945 It Consists of 15 members, out of which, 5 Permanent members with Veto power – US, Uk Russia, China and France 10 non-permanent members are elected for two-year terms by the General Assembly. 79. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: The United States Declaration of Independence is the pronouncement which was adopted on

Dew, Fog, Frost, Mist. On the other hand, Sleet is frozen raindrops and refrozen melted snow-water. 82. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: • Clouds is a collection of very tiny droplets of water or ice crystals that are so small and light. • Nimbus which is in Latin referred as rain storm. It designates two prominent kinds of rain clouds as it pre fix by the word ‘Nim’ and followed by ‘bus’. • These clouds tend to appear dark grey because their depth or density of large water droplets obscures sunlight. • Nimbus clouds may precipitate hail or snow instead of liquid rain that depending on temperature, 83. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: Intensive subsistence farming • Practised in areas of high population pressure on land.

87

SOLVED PAPERS - 2021 (I) • It is a labour-intensive agricultural method in which high doses of biochemical inputs and irrigation are employed to boost yields. • This type of farming is prevalent in the regions of south, southwest, and southeast Asia. • India, China, Vietnam, Indonesia, Cambodia, Mexico and Peru etc. are some of the countries where Intensive subsistence farming is practiced. 84. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: The South Eastern Railway (SER) is one of the 18 railway zones in India. It is headquartered at Garden Reach in Kolkata, West Bengal, 85. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: • On 31 July 2015, Bharatmala Pariyojana was launched which is a centrally sponsored project for road and highways. • Bharatmala Pariyojana is an umbrella program for the highways sector envisaged by the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways. • It aims to Improve the quality of roads with Total Road construction in the tenure within a span of five years. • Its target to connect 550 districts in the country through national highway linkages 86. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: Tropical Deciduous Forests are also known as Monsoon forests and covers about cover about 65.6% of the total forest area in India. In India these forests are found in the states of Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Odisha, Some parts of Maharashtra and Chhattisgarh. 87. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: • The Beas river which is a north India river originates from the Himalayas in central Himachal Pradesh and flows for some 470 kilometres to the Sutlej River in Punjab. • Its total length is 470 kilometres and its drainage basin is 20,303 square kilometres large.

88. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: • American Constitution was the first to introduce the Preamble. This practice was followed by many countries, including India. • The ter m ‘Preamble’ refers to the introduction or prelude to the Constitution. It comprises the essence or summary of the Constitution. • The words Socialist, Secular and Integrity were not the part of the original constitution, they were added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act (1976). • The Supreme Court held that Preamble is a part of the Constitution (Kesavananda Bharati case (1973)). • However, preamble is non-justiciable. Its provisions are not enforceable in courts of law. • The term Republic in our constitution means vesting of political sovereignty in the people and not in a single individual. 89. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: Each House of Parliament has its own presiding officer. Lok Sabha – There is a Speaker and a Deputy Speaker Rajya Sabha – Chairman and a Deputy Chairman for The Speaker is considered as the head of the Lok Sabha and its representative. The following are the powers and duties of Lok Sabha • He keeps the House in order and regulates the proceedings by maintaining order and decorum. • In the lack of a quorum, he adjourns or suspends the meeting. • He does not vote in the first instance. However, can exercise a casting vote in the case of a tie. 90. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: The concept of Fundamental duties is been added under Article 51 A and is been adopted from the Constitution of Russia.

88

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

Fundamental duties are those duties shall be abide by every citizen of India. Such as • To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the national Flag and the National Anthem • To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom • To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India • To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so • To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India and to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women • To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture • To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wild life, and to have compassion for living creatures • To develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform • To safeguard public property and to abjure violence • To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity.

93. Option (b) is correct.

91. Option (b) is correct.

Explanation: • Exercise Kavach is a Joint Military Exercise between Indian Army, Indian Navy, Indian Air Force and Indian Coast Guard. • It was conducted in January 2021 in the Andaman Sea and Bay of Bengal. • It formed a part of the AMPHEX-21 triservice joint amphibious exercise in the Andaman and Nicobar group of islands. • The need of Such Exercise has come to combat the attacks such as 1993 Bombay Bombings and the 2008 Mumbai Attacks which were happened due to the poorly guarded maritime border.

Explanation: Outward Direct Investment is also known as Overseas Direct Investment. As on November 2020, Singapore stood at the top with 1295.48$ million in Outward Direct Investment 92. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: • Exercise Desert Knight-21 is a Joint Miliatary Exercise between Indian Air Force and French Air Force • The bilateral air exercise was held between 20 to 24 January at Jodhpur Air Force station in Rajasthan, India • This exercise aims to improve interoperability between the forces while exchanging ‘ideas and best practices’ gained from operational experience.

Explanation: Uttar Pradesh won the best tableau award at the Republic Day Parade 2021. The theme of the tableau of Uttar Pradesh was based on “Ayodhya: Cultural Heritage of Uttar Pradesh”. 94. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: President Faustin-Archange Touadera won the second term in office by winning the Presidential elections of Central African Republic. 95. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: Legion of Merit • It is a military award of the United States Armed Forces. • It is also the first U.S. medal to be awarded to citizens of other countries. • It is given for exceptional service, fidelity, and loyalty in combat or noncombat roles. • Prime Minister Narendra Modi was awarded the ‘Legion of Merit’ by U.S. President Donald Trump in 2020 for his role in encouraging the India-U.S. relationship 96. Option (c) is correct.

97. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: State of Emergency was declared in Myanmar for a period of one year after State Counsellor

89

SOLVED PAPERS - 2021 (I) Aung San Suu Kyi and President U Win Myint were detained in early-morning Raid. The emergency was declared by Myanmar military. 98. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: 2021–22 Syed Mushtaq Ali Trophy • It was the thirteenth edition of Syed Mushtaq Ali Trophy which took place in India. • It was started on 4 November 2021. The final match was played between Tamil Nadu and Karnataka on 22 November 2021. • Tamil Nadu won the match by 4 wickets 99. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: • Madagascar will host the 11th edition of the Indian Ocean Islands Games in 2023 after

replacing Maldives due to the concerns over the ongoing pandemic • It was been announced by the President of International Games Council, Seychellois Antonio Gopal. • The Indian Ocean Island Games is a multisport event held every four years among athletes from Indian Ocean Island nations, namely Mauritius, Seychelles, Comoros, Madagascar, Mayotte, Reunion and the Maldives. 100. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: • Australia Claire Polosak becomes the first female umpire at a men’s ODI for BorderGavaskar Trophy

NDA / NA

GENERAL ABILITY TEST

National Defence Academy / Naval Academy

II

Time: 1hr 40min

QUESTION PAPER

2021 Total Marks: 400

Important Instructions: 1. This Test contains 100 items ·(questions) Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case, you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. 2. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. 3. All items carry equal marks. 4. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions. 5. Penalty for wrong answers : THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS. (i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one·third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. (ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question. (iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.

1.

Which one from among the following planets is largest in size? (a) Earth (b) Venus (c) Mars (d) Mercury 2.

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List I (Place) List II (Feature) A. Mumbai 1. Queen of the Arabian Sea B. Visakhapatnam 2. Biggest port of India C. Chennai 3. Land-locked harbour D. Kochi 4.  Oldest port on the Eastern Coast Code: A B C D (a) 2 4 3 1 (b) 2 3 4 1 (c) 1 3 4 2 (d) 1 4 3 2 3.

Which one of the following is a crater lake in India? (a) LonarLake (b) Sambhar Lake (c) Chilika Lake (d) Vembanad Lake 4.

Fine-grained bed of ephemeral lake in a desert is also known as (a) Playa (b) Oasis (c) Drumlin (d) Natural levee

5. Which one of the following factors does not affect the distribution of groundwater? (a) Amount of precipitation (b) Rate of evaporation (c) Ability of the ground surface to allow water to infiltrate into the groundwater system (d) Distance from the sea The Constitution (35th Amendment) Act of 1974 is related to which one of the following States? (a) Mizoram (b) Sikkim (c) Nagaland (d) Arunachal Pradesh 6.

7. Which one of the following best describes the electoral system of India? (a) First-Past-the-Post System (b) Proportional Representation (c) Mixed System (d) General Ticket 8. Which one of the following is a non-justiciable right? (a) Right to adequate livelihood (b) Right against exploitation (c) Right of accused (d) Right to life and personal liberty

91

SOLVED PAPERS - 2021 (II) 9. Which one of the following is not a writ? (a) Mandamus (b) Habeas Corpus (c) Certiorari (d) Severability 10. Which one of the following is not a part of Fundamental Rights? (a) Right to education (b) Right to establish educational institutions by minorities (c) Right to be conferred with titles (d) Right against untouchability 11. Which one of the following is not a function of the Constitution of India? (a) To ensure participation of good people in politics. (b) To guarantee a set of rights to citizens. (c) To define the power of the different organs of government. (d) To create conditions for a just society. 12. Which one of the following statements about biodiversity is not correct? (a) The term ‘biodiversity’ was coined by Walter G. Rosen in 1986. (b) The term ‘biodiversity hotspots’ was coined by Norman Myers in 1988. (c) The regions having richest biodiversity are called ‘biodiversity hotspots’. (d) More than 100 hotspots of biodiversity are identified in the world. 13. The Earth’s atmosphere is mainly heated by which one of the following? (a) Short wave solar radiation (b) Reflected solar radiation (c) Long wave terrestrial radiation (d) Scattered solar radiation 14. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of layers as we move from the Earth’s surface upwards? (a) Troposphere, Stratosphere, Thermosphere, Mesosphere (b) Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Thermosphere (c) Thermosphere, Mesosphere, Stratosphere, Troposphere (d) Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Troposphere, Thermosphere 15. Which one of the following is not a soil forming factor?

(a) Parent material (b) Topography (c) Climate (d) Human habitation 16. Which one of the following best describes the Lithosphere? (a) Upper and lower mantle (b) Crust and core (c) Crust and upper mantle (d) Lower mantle and core 17. Which one of the following countries has the maximum time difference from Greenwich Mean Time (GMT)? (a) India (b) Nepal (c) Sri Lanka (d) Bhutan 18. Which one of the following is not a feature of the Constitution of India? (a) It provides a set of basic rules. (b) It specifies the power of the Government. (c) It is the supreme law of the land. (d) It specifies the supremacy of the judiciary. 19. Which one of the following statements about the Attorney General of India is not correct? (a) He has the right of audience only in the Supreme Court of India. (b) He shall receive such remuneration as the President may determine. (c) He shall be qualified to be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court. (d) He shall give advice to the Government of India on all legal matters. 20. Who among the following described the Directive Principles of State Policy as the novel feature of the Constitution of India? (a) Jawaharlal Nehru (b) Rajendra Prasad (c) S.N. Mukherjee (d) B.R. Ambedkar 21. Which of the following statements about the Indian Councils Act of 1861 is/are correct? 1. It enlarged the Governor General’s Council for the purpose of making laws. 2. The Governor General was not authorised to increase the number of members. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

92 22. Which one of the following statements about Tattvabodhini Patrika is correct? (a) It promoted a systematic study of India’s past in the Bengali language. (b) It promoted a systematic study of India’s past through Sanskrit sources. (c) It promoted a systematic study of India’s past through Persian sources. (d) It promoted a systematic study of India’s past through Western sources. 23. In which one of the following years did the British demarcate a large area of land as Damini-koh for settling the Santhals? (a) 1810 (b) 1793 (c) 1885 (d) 1832 24. The Tropic of Cancer does not pass through which one of the following States? (a) Manipur (b) West Bengal (c) Gujarat (d) Jharkhand 25. Which of the following pairs of crop and product is/are correctly matched? 1. Food crop : Ragi 2. Cash crop : Jute 3. Plantation crop : Coconut Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 3 only 26. Which one of the following coalfields is not located in Jharkhand? (a) Jharia (b) Ramgarh (c) Deogarh (d) Umaria 27. Which one of the following is the longest parallel of latitude? (a) Tropic of Cancer (b) Tropic of Capricorn (c) Arctic Circle (d) Equator 28. The periodic rise and fall of ocean water in response to gravitational forces is called (a) Current (b) Waves (c) Tides (d) Tsunami 29. Which of the following statements about the first Indian Factory Act passed in 1881 is/are correct? 1. The Act dealt primarily with the problem of child labour.

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

2. The Act laid down that children between 7 years and 12 years of age would not work for more than 9 hours a day. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 30. Which of the following statements about Mahatma Gandhi’s anti-untouchability campaign is/are correct? 1.  The All India Harijan Sevak Sangh was founded for this purpose. 2.  The campaign was to root out untouchability, since it did not enjoy the sanction of the Hindu shastras. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 31. The founders of the Paramhansa Mandali founded in Maharashtra believed in which one of the following? (a) Social distancing along caste lines (b) Glorification of caste system (c) Forbidding widow remarriage (d) One God and in breaking caste rules 32. Which one of the following statements about the ishtahars issued during the Revolt of 1857 is correct? (a) They glorified the Muslim rule in India. (b) They glorified the co-existence of different communities under the Mughal Empire. (c) They glorified the message of lslam. (d) They glorified the role of Queen Victoria. 33. During the Industrial Revolution, who among the following designed the ‘flying shuttle loom’? (a) Samuel Crompton (b) Edmund Cartwright (c) John Kay (d) Richard Arkwright 34. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List I (Dam) List II (State) A. Hirakud 1. Gujarat B. Panchet 2. Bihar C. Kosi 3. Odisha D. Ukai 4. Jharkhand

93

SOLVED PAPERS - 2021 (II) Code: A (a) 3 (b) 3 (c) 1 (d) 1

B 4 2 2 4

C 2 4 4 2

D 1 1 3 3

Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

35. Which one of the following features is the result of erosion and deposition work of a river? (a) Pothole (b) Oxbow lake (c) Levee (d) Rapid

41. Dingko Singh, an Asian Games gold medallist, who died recently, was associated with which one of the following games? (a) Swimming (b) Boxing (c) Archery (d) Gymnastics

36. Which one of the following is not a feature of agriculture in India? (a) Subsistence agriculture (b) Pressure of population on agriculture (c) Dependence upon Monsoon (d) Predominance of cash crops

42. Who among the following is the lone Indian Cricketer included in the ICC Hall of Fame special inductions to mark the inaugural ICC World Test Championship Final? (a) Dilip Vengsarkar (b) Ravi Shastri (c) Mohinder Amarnath (d) Vinoo Mankad

37. Which one of the following is not a specified Sub-Mission of the’ National Livestock Mission? (a) Livestock development (b) Pig development in north-western region (c) Fodder and feed development (d) Skill development, technology transfer and extension 38. Who among the following wrote the famous text ‘A Discourse on Political Economy’? (a) Montesquieu (b) Voltaire (c) Rousseau (d) Adam Smith 39. Which of the following statements about the resolution adopted in the Karachi session of the Indian National Congress with regard to fundamental rights and economic policy is/are correct? 1. It was opposed by Ambalal Sarabhai. 2.  Its 20 points included demands for civil liberties and adult suffrage. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 40. Which of the following statements about the Law Commission headed by Lord Macaulay is/ are correct? 1. It attempted to codify the laws. 2.  It was opposed to uniform system of Courts.

43. Which one of the following nations is not a permanent member of G7? (a) India (b) Canada (c) France (d) Italy 44. Operation Olivia, an initiative to protect Olive Ridley turtles, is undertaken by (a) Indian Navy (b) Indian Coast Guard (c) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (d) Ministry of Earth Sciences 45. Who among the following is the winner of the French Open 2021 Men’s Singles Final? (a) Novak Djokovic (b) Rafael Nadal (c) Stefanos Tsitsipas (d) Daniil Medvedev 46. Economist Rebeca Grynspan, who recently became the first woman to be appointed as the head of the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD), hails from (a) Germany (b) Poland (c) Costa Rica (d) Mexico 47. ‘Belt and Road Initiative’ is a foreign policy initiative of (a) China (b) United States of America (c) Canada (d) Japan

94

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

48. Which one of the following is the theme of the International Day of Yoga 2021? (a) Yoga at home and yoga with family (b) Yoga for climate action (c) Yoga for well-being (d) Yoga for peace

57. Shoots of plant show upward movement and it can be designated to be (a) Negatively phototropic (b) Positively chemotropic (c) Positively hydrotropic (d) Negatively geotropic

49. Kenneth Kaunda, who died recently at the age of 97, was the former president of (a) Brazil (b) Mexico (c) Zambia (d) South Sudan

58. Which one of the following statements about the process of photosynthesis is correct? (a) Chemical energy is converted into light energy. (b) Carbon dioxide is oxidised to form carbohydrate. (c) Water molecule splits into hydrogen and oxygen. (d) Light energy is directly used to split water.

50. The maiden Indian Navy - European Union Naval Force (IN-EUNAVFOR) Exercise (2021) was conducted in (a) Gulf of Mannar (b) Gulf of Aden (c) Gulf of Khambhat (d) Gulf of Aqaba 51. The pH value of Milk of Magnesia is approximately (a) Zero (b) 7 (c) 10 (d) 14 52. Which one of the following compounds is used in ‘black and white’ photography? (a) AgF (b) AgBr (c) AgCl (d) Ag2SO4 53. What is the number of water molecules present in a Ferrous Sulphate crystal? (a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 7 54. What is the colour of the precipitate obtained by passing CO2 gas through lime water? (a) Green (b) Blue (c) White (d) Brown 55. Which one of the following pairs of elements is liquid at room temperature and at normal pressure? (a) Gallium and Bromine (b) Mercury and Bromine (c) Gallium and Mercury (d) Gallium and Caesium 56. Which one of the following methods can be used to separate anthracene from a mixture of salt and anthracene? (a) Distillation (b) Sublimation (c) Evaporation (d) Chromatography

59. How are evergreen plants with woody stems having naked seed classified? (a) Angiosperms (b) Monocotyledons (c) Pteridophytes (d) Gymnosperms 60. Which one of the following tissues is known as basic packing tissue and found in xylem and phloem? (a) Collenchyma (b) Parenchyma (c) Sclerenchyma (d) Vessels 61. Girth of stem of a plant increases due to division of cells in (a) apical meristem only. (b) lateral meristem only. (c) apical and intercalary meristem. (d) both apical and lateral meristem. 62. Different varieties of the same gene are called (a) Genotypes (b) Sib pairs (c) Alleles (d) Isomers 63. Which one of the following viruses used to be responsible for highly infectious disease Smallpox? (a) Adenovirus (b) Variola virus (c) Aichi virus (d) Coxsackie virus 64. Buoyancy is a/an (a) upward pressure (b) downward pressure (c) downward force (d) upward force 65. Weight and mass of an object are defined with Newton’s laws of motion. Which among the following is true? (a) Weight is a constant of proportionality. (b) Mass is a constant of proportionality.

95

SOLVED PAPERS - 2021 (II) (c) Mass is not a constant of proportionality. (d) Weight is a universal constant. 66. Fundamental laws of physics require (a) conservation of energy and non-conservation of charge. (b) conservation of charge and non-conservation of linear momentum. (c) conservation of charge and non-conservation of energy. (d) conservation of energy, momentum and charge. 67. Work is said to be one Joule when a force of (a) 4 N moves an object by 25 cm. (b) 2 N moves an object by 1 m. (c) 1 N moves an object by 1 cm. (d) 1 N moves an object by 50 cm. 68. A uniform motion of a car along a circular path experiences (a) a change in speed due to a change in its direction of motion. (b) a change in velocity due to a change in its direction of motion. (c) a change in momentum due to no change in its direction of motion. (d) a constant momentum due to a change in its direction of motion. 69. Three equal resistors are connected in parallel configuration in a closed electrical circuit. Then the total resistance in the circuit becomes (a) one-third of the individual resistance. (b) two-third of the individual resistance. (c) equal to the individual resistance. (d) three times of the individual resistance. 70. Rutherford’s alpha-particle (α) scattering experiment was responsible for the discovery of which one of the following? (a) Electron (b) Proton (c) Atomic Nucleus (d) Neutron 71. What is the maximum number of electrons in the M-Shell? (a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 18 (d) 32 72. Chlorine occurs in nature in two isotopic forms of masses 35 u and 37 u in the ratio of 3: 1 respectively. What is the average atomic mass of the Chlorine atom? (a) 36.1 u (b) 35.5 u (c) 36.5 u (d) 35.1 u

73. Which one of the following elements’ isotopes is used in the treatment of cancer? (a) Iodine (b) Sodium (c) Cobalt (d) Uranium 74. To protect steel and iron from rusting, a thin layer of which one of the following metals is applied? (a) Magnesium (b) Zinc (c) Aluminium (d) Lead 75. Cinnabar is an ore of which one of the following? (a) Copper (b) Zinc (c) Mercury (d) Manganese 76. Imagine a current-carrying straight conductor with magnetic field of lines in anti-clockwise direction. Then the direction of current is determined by (a) the Right-Hand Thumb rule and it would be in the downward direction. (b) the Left-Hand Thumb rule and it would be in the downward direction. (c) the Right-Hand Thumb rule and it would be in the upward direction. (d) the Left-Hand Thumb rule and it would be in the upward direction. 77. The device used to produce electric current is known as (a) motor (b) generator (c) ammeter (d) galvanometer 78. Myopia is a defect in human vision where an image of a (a) nearby object is focused beyond the retina. (b) nearby object is focused before the retina. (c) distant object is focused before the retina. (d) distant object is focused beyond the retina. 79. Tyndall effect is a phenomenon of (a) scattering of light by the colloidal particles. (b) refraction of light by the colloidal particles. (c) dispersion of light by dust particles. (d) refraction of light by dust particles. 80. Twinkling of stars is primarily due to the atmospheric (a) refraction (b) reflection (c) polarization (d) despersion 81. Cornea in human eye (a) is a light sensitive screen. (b) is a muscular diaphragm.

96

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

(c) contains blood vessels. (d) is composed of proteins and cells.

(b) Sound cannot travel in vacuum and it is a longitudinal wave in air. (c) Sound can travel in vacuum and it is a longitudinal wave in air. (d) Sound cannot travel in vacuum and it is a transverse wave in air.

82. Power of a lens of focal length 25 cm is (a) +2.5 Dioptre (b) +3 Dioptre (c) +4 Dioptre (d) +5 Dioptre 83. What is the total number of chambers in the stomach of domestic animals like cattle, buffalo, goat and sheep? (a) Four (b) Two (c) One (d) Three 84. Intestinal bacteria are main source of which one of the following vitamins? (a) Vitamin E (b) Vitamin C (c) Vitamin B12 (d) Vitamin A 85. Which one of the following hormones is responsible for the development of female sexual characters? (a) Prolactin (b) Estrogen (c) Oxytocin (d) Progesterone 86. Spherical mirror formula relating an object distance ‘u’, image distance ‘v’ and focal length of mirror ‘f ’ may be applied to a plane mirror when (a) focal length goes to infinity. (b) focal length goes to zero. (c) image distance goes to zero. (d) image distance goes to infinity. 87. Nuclear energy is generated by (a) nuclear fission and its expression was proposed by Einstein. (b) nuclear fission and its expression was proposed by Rutherford. (c) nuclear fusion and its expression was proposed by Bohr. (d) nuclear fusion and its expression was proposed by Heisenberg. 88. Reverberation is a phenomenon associated with a (a) multiple refraction of sound. (b) multiple reflection of sound. (c) single refraction of sound. (d) single reflection of sound. 89. Which among the following is true for propagation of sound waves? (a) Sound can travel in vacuum and it is a transverse wave in air.

90. A tennis ball is thrown in the vertically upward direction and the ball attains a maximum height of 20 m. The ball was thrown approximately with an upward velocity of (a) 8 m/s (b) 12 m/s (c) 16 m/s (d) 20 m/s 91. An object of mass 2000 g possesses 100 J kinetic energy. The object must be moving with a speed of (a) 10·0 m/s (b) 11.1 m/s (c) 11.2 m/s (d) 12.1 m/s 92. Which one of the following ions is not isoelectronic with F–? (a) O2– (b) Na+ (c) Ne (d) N– 93. What is the total number of covalent bonds in methanol? (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6 94. Which one of the following is the chemical formula of Plaster of Paris? 1 (a) CaSO4 ·  H2O 2 (b) CaSO4 · 2H2O (c) CaSO4 · 5H2O (d) CaSO4 · 4H2O 95. The unit of the ratio between thrust and impulse is same as that of (a) frequency (b) speed (c) wavelength (d) acceleration 96. Which one of the following figures correctly shows the path of a ray of light through a glass prism? (a)

(c)

(b)





(d)

97

SOLVED PAPERS - 2021 (II) 97. When a light beam falls on a triangular glass prism, a band of colours is obtained. Which one of the following statements is correct in this regard? (a) Red light bends the most, as the refractive index of glass for red light is greatest. (b) Red light bends the most, as the refractive index of glass for red light is lowest. (c) Violet light bends the most, as the refractive index of glass for violet light is greatest. (d) Violet light bends the most, as the refractive index of glass for violet light is lowest. 98. The image of an object formed by a plane mirror is (a) erect, real and larger. (b) erect, virtual and same size.

(c) inverted, virtual and same size-. (d) inverted, real and smaller. 99. Which one of the following is not a conservative force? (a) Frictional force (b) Electric force (c) Gravitational force (d) Spring force 100. A negative work is done when an applied force F and the corresponding displacement S are (a) perpendicular to each other. (b) parallel to each other. (c) anti-parallel to each other. (d) equal in magnitude.

98

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

Answers Q No

Answer Key

Topic Name

Chapter Name

1

(a)

Planets

Solar System

2

(b)

Ports

Static GK

3

(a)

Lakes

Important Lakes of India

4

(a)

Landforms

Landforms and their Evolution

5

(a)

Ground Water

Water

6

(b)

Amendments

Amendments in Indian Constitution

7

(a)

Election

Election and Representation

8

(a)

Fundamental Rights

Justiciable Rights

9

(d)

Writs

Writs Issued by Supreme Court

10

(c)

Fundamental Rights

Fundamental Rights

11

(a)

Functions of Constitution

Constitution

12

(d)

Biodiversity

Biodiversity and Conservation

13

(c)

Radiation

Solar Radiation, Heat Balance and Temperature

14

(b)

Air

Layers of Atmosphere

15

(d)

Types of Soils

Soils

16

(c)

Major Domains of Earth

Lithosphere

17

(d)

GMT

Time Zones

18

(d)

Features of Indian Constitution

Constitution

19

(a)

Attorney General of India

Attorney General of India

20

(d)

Directive Principles of State Policy

Directive Principles of State Policy

21

(a)

Indian Council Act

Acts

22

(a)

Journal

A General Survey of Socio-Cultural Reform Movement

23

(d)

Santhals

Colonialism and the Countryside

24

(a)

Tropic of Cancer

Tropic of Cancer

25

(c)

Types of Crops

Crops

26

(d)

Coalfields

Static GK

27

(d)

Circles of latitude

Latitudes and longitudes

28

(c)

Tide

Water

29

(c)

Labour Legislations

Survey of British Policies in India

30

(c)

Socio-Religious Reform Movement

Reforms

31

(d)

Survey of Socio-Cultural Reform Movements

Reforms

32

(b)

Revolt of 1857

The Revolt of 1857 And Its Representations

33

(c)

Industrial Revolution

Towards Modernisation

34

(a)

Dams

Static Gk

35

(b)

Features of River

Our Changing Earth

99

SOLVED PAPERS - 2021 (II)

Q No

Answer Key

36

(d)

Topic Name Agriculture

Chapter Name Agriculture

37

(b)

Government Scheme

Current Affairs

38

(c)

Books and Author

Current Affairs

39

(b)

Karachi Session

Sessions of Congress

40

(a)

Law Commission

Development of Judiciary in British India

41

(b)

Sports

Current Affairs

42

(d)

Sports

Current Affairs

43

(a)

G7

Current Affairs

44

(b)

Project Olivia

Current Affairs

45

(a)

French Open

Current Affairs

46

(c)

Famous Personalities

Current Affairs

47

(a)

Project

Current Affairs

48

(c)

Important day

Current Affairs

49

(c)

Famous Personalities

Current Affairs

50

(b)

Navel Exercise

Current Affairs

51

(c)

pH Scale

Acids, Bases and Salts

52

(b)

Applications of Redox Reactions

Redox Reactions

53

(d)

Water of Crystallization

Coordination Compounds

54

(c)

Reaction of CO2

Compounds of Carbon

55

(b)

Classifications of Elements

Periodic Table

56

(b)

Separation of Mixtures

Analytical Techniques

57

(d)

Plant Movements

Plant growth & Development

58

(d)

Photosynthesis

Photosynthesis

59

(d)

Gymnosperms

Plant kingdom

60

(b)

Permanent tissues

Plant Anatomy

61

(d)

Meristem

Plant Anatomy

62

(c)

Genotype

Genetics

63

(b)

Communicable Disease

Human Diseases

64

(d)

Buoyancy

Mechanical Properties of Fluids

65

(c)

Mass

Gravitation

66

(b)

Fundametal Laws

Physical World

67

(a)

Force

Laws of Motion

68

(b)

Circular Motion

Laws of Motion

69

(a)

Equivalent Resistance

Current Electricity

70

(c)

Rutherford's Atomic Model

Structure of Atom

71

(c)

Concept of Shell and Subshells

Structure of Atom

72

(b)

Atomic and Molecular Mass

Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry

73

(c)

Uses of Radioisotopes

Nuclear Reactions and Radioactivity

74

(b)

Rusting

Redox Reactions

75

(c)

Ores and Minerals

Metallurgy

100

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

Q No

Answer Key

76

(c)

Topic Name Direction of Magnetic Field

Chapter Name Magnetic Effect of Electric Current

77

(b)

Generator

Alternating Current

78

(c)

Eye

Neural Control

79

(a)

Tyndall Effect

Ray Optics

80

(a)

Atmospheric Refraction

Ray Optics

81

(d)

Eye

Neural Control

82

(c)

Power of Lens

Ray Optics

83

(a)

Stomach

Digestive System

84

(c)

Intestine

Digestive System

85

(b)

Female Sex Hormones

Human Reproduction

86

(a)

Plane Mirror

Ray Optics

87

(a)

Nuclear Fission

Nuclei

88

(b)

Sound

Waves

89

(b)

Sound

Waves

90

(d)

Motion in a Straight Line

Motion

91

(a)

Kinetic Energy

Work, Energy and Power

92

(d)

Isoelectric Species

Structure of Atom

93

(c)

Types of Bonds

Chemical Bonding

94

(a)

Plaster of Paris

Some Important Chemical Compounds

95

(a)

Units

Units ans Measurements

96

(a)

Refraction through Glass Prism

Ray Optics

97

(c)

Refraction through Glass Prism

Ray Optics

98

(b)

Plane Mirror

Ray Optics

99

(a)

Friction

Laws of Motion

100

(c)

Work

Work, Energy and Power

NDA / NA

GENERAL ABILITY TEST

II

National Defence Academy / Naval Academy

question Paper

2021

Answers with Explanation 1. Option (a) is correct.

• The water in playas is retained only for short duration due to evaporation and quite often the playas contain good deposition of fine-grained sediment and salts. The playa plain which is covered up by salts is called alkali flats.

Explanation: • Earth – 3,959mi (6,371km) radius. • Venus – 3,760mi (6,052km) radius • Mars – 2,106mi (3,390km) radius • Mercury – 1,516mi (2,440km) radius

• O  ther names for playas – pan, flat and dry lake, ephemeral ponds or lakes

2. Option (b) is correct. Mumbai Port – It is India’s second oldest port (1873), Kolkata being the oldest (1870). It is also the largest port of India by size. It is spread over 400 square kilometres.

5. Option (a) is correct.

Visakhapatnam Port – It is the only major port of Andhra Pradesh. It is an all-weather and a landlocked port. It was established in 1933.

1. Precipitation

Chennai Port – It was formerly known as Madras Port. It is the third oldest port of India. It was established in year 1881. It is the oldest port on Eastern Coast. Kochi – It is called as the “Queen of the Arabian Sea”. It is a major port city located on the Malabar Coast bordering the Laccadive Sea, which is a part of the Arabian Sea. 3. Option (a) is correct. Explanation:

Explanation : Following are the factors affecting the distribution of groundwater: The most important factor controlling infiltration is the amount and characteristics of precipitation that falls as rain or snow. Precipitation infiltrates into the ground often seeps into streambeds over an extended period, thus a stream will often continues to flow when it has not rained for a long time and where there is no direct runoff from recent precipitation. 2. Infiltration

Lonar Lake • It located at Lonar in Buldhana district of Maharashtra. • It is also known as Lonar crater. • It is a notified National Geo-heritage Monument. A geographical area of national importance and heritage, as notified by the Geological Survey of India (GSI). • It is also known as saline and soda lake. • The crater is considered to be the result of a meteorite impact. It contains water which is both saline and alkaline. 4. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: Playas • Playas are shallow basins in deserts that periodically fill with rainwater.

It is defined as the flow of water from ground into the subsurface. It is meters per unit time of water entering into the soil regardless of the types or values of forces or gradients.

3. Baseflow The water in streams has a sustained flow, even during periods of lack of rain. 4. Soil characteristic Soils, such as clays, absorb less water at a slower rate than sandy soils. 5. Soil saturation Like a wet sponge, soil already saturated from previous rainfall cannot absorb much more so more rainfall will become surface runoff. 6. Land cover land covers have a crucial impact on infiltration and rainfall runoff.

Vegetation can slow the movement of runoff. It allow more time for rain water to seep into the ground.

102

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

7. The slope of the land

Under the FPTP System

​ Water falling on steeply-sloped land runs off more quickly and infiltrates less with respect to water falling on flat land. 8. Evapotranspiration Plants need this shallow groundwater to grow, and, by the process of evapotranspiration, water is returned back into the atmosphere.

• Every member of the legislature represents a geographical/territorial area known as a constituency. The whole country is divided into 543 constituencies. • Each constituency elects one representative and the candidate who secures the maximum number of votes in that constituency is declared elected.

Thus, Distance from the sea is not a direct factor affecting the distribution of groundwater.

8. Option (a) is correct.

6. Option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

Explanation: 35th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1974 • After the lapse of British paramountcy in 1974, Sikkim became a ‘protectorate’ of India. As a result of this, the Indian Government assumed responsibility for the external affairs, defence and communications of Sikkim. • Sikkim expressed its desire for greater association with India in 1975. Thus, the 35th Constitutional Amendment Act (1974) was enacted by parliament. • 35th Amendment laid down a set of conditions that made Sikkim an “Associate State”, a special designation not used by any other state. A month later, the 36th Amendment repealed the 35th Amendment, and made Sikkim a full state, adding its name to the First Schedule of the Constitution. • However, Sikkim became the full-fledged state (22nd state) of India only after the enactment of the 36 th Constitutional Amendment Act (1975). 7. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: The First Past the Post (FPTP) system • It is the system in which the candidate who is ahead of others, who crosses the winning post first of all, is considered as the winner. This method is also called the Plurality System and the territorial representation system. • The constitution of India has adopted the system of territorial representation (Firstpast-the-post system) for the election of members to the Lok Sabha. • However, in the case of Rajya Sabha, the Constitution has adopted the system of proportional representation.

• The Fundamental Rights are justiciable in nature. They are enforceable by the courts for their violation. • On the other hand, the Directive Principles are non-justiciable in nature. They are not enforceable by the courts for their violation. • The purpose of Directive Principles is to promote the notion of social and economic democracy. They seek to develop “welfare state” in India. • The Directive Principles of State Policy are categorised into three broad categories, viz, socialistic, Gandhian and liberal-principles. • Right to Adequate Livelihood is a Directive Principle and falls under the category of socialistic principles. • Article 39 of DPSP states about the right to adequate means of livelihood for all citizen. 9. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: The Supreme Court is empowered by Constitution of India to issue writs. The following are the writs issued by Supreme Court for the enforcement of the fundamental rights of an aggrieved person: 1. Habeas Corpus 2. Mandamus 3. Prohibition 4. Quo Warranto 5. Certiorari 10. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: List of Fundamental Rights Article 21A: Right to elementary education. Article 30: Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions.

103

SOLVED PAPERS - 2021 (II) Article 17: Abolition of untouchability and prohibition of its practice

14. Option (b) is correct.

Article 18: Abolition of titles except military and academic.

Layers of earth’s atmosphere 1. Troposphere (lowest part of the atmosphere) 2. Stratosphere (above the troposphere lies the stratosphere) 3. Mesosphere (third layer of the atmosphere) 4. Thermosphere (fourth layer of atmosphere, helps in radio transmission) 5. Exosphere (upper most layer of the atmosphere)

11. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: Functions of Constitution of India • To Provide a set of basic rules • To specify/mention who has the power to make decisions in a society. It determines how the government will be constituted.

Explanation:

• To put some limits on what a government can impose on its citizens.

15. Option (d) is correct.

• To allow the government to fulfil the aspirations of a society and create conditions for a just society

Soil is the mixture of organic materials and debris of rock which develop on the surface of Earth.

• To specify certain fundamental rights for citizens in order to limit the power of government.

The major factors affecting the formation of soil are • Relief or topography • Parent material • Climate • Vegetation and other life-forms. • Time

12. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: Biodiversity is the occurrence of wide variety of organisms on earth. Biodiversity term was coined by Walter G. Rosen in 1986. Biodiversity is nowadays conserved in biodiversity hotspots. Hotspot term was coined by Norman Myers in 1988. Biodiversity Hotspots are the areas having richest biodiversity along with high degree of endemism. Worldwide there are total 36 Hotspots are identified. In India, there are total 4 Hotspots are present. 13. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: Terrestrial Radiation The insolation (amount of solar radiation) received by the Earth is in the form of short waves and heats up its surface. The Earth becomes a radiating body after being heated itself and it radiates energy to the atmosphere in long wave form. This energy heats up the atmosphere from below and this process is known as terrestrial radiation. The long wave radiation is then absorbed by the atmospheric gases particularly by carbon dioxide and the other green house gases and this is how the atmosphere of Earth gets heated up.

Explanation:

16. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: The rigid/solid outer part of the Earth which consist of the crust and upper mantle is called lithosphere. Lithosphere is divided into• Oceanic lithosphere: huge water bodies • Continental lithosphere: large landmasses 17. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: • Bhutan has the maximum difference of 6 hours and 0 minutes from Greenwich Mean Time. • India is 5 hours 30 minutes ahead of Greenwich Mean Time. 18. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: Features of India Constitution • Constitution of India is considered as supreme law of the land. Any laws made by the state or union government which is violating any of the provisions of the Constitution will be considered void.

104

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS • It provides for basic set of rules in order to allow minimal coordination amongst the members of a society. • The constitution has specified the powers of government. It checks the arbitrary power of government and has set some limits on what a government can impose on its citizens by introducing fundamental rights.

additional members were to be between 6 and 12 (nominated by the GovernorGeneral). They were authorised to increase the members. • Out of these, at least half of the additional members were to be non-official either British or Indian. They were to be appointed for a period of 2 years.

• Indian constitution provides for judicial review. Judicial review does not mean supremacy of the judiciary, but of the Constitution. 19. Option (a) is correct.

22. Option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

It get published in Bengali and was devoted to the systematic study of India’s past with a rational outlook and to the propagation of Raja Ram Mohan’s ideas.

Attorney General of India • The Attorney General of India is the highest law officer in the country.

Explanation: Tattvabodhini (truth-searching) Patrika was established by Debendranath Tagore on 16 August 1843.

• Article 76 has provided for the office of the Attorney General.

23. Option (d) is correct.

• The Attorney General has the right of audience in all courts established in the territory of India.

The Santhals were given land and persuaded to settle in the foothills of Rajmahal Hills (Jharkhand)

• He has the right to speak and take part in the proceedings of either House or any joint sitting of both the Houses.

By 1832 a large area of Rajmahal Hills was demarcated as Damin-i-Koh (or simply Damin) by British. This area was declared to be the land of the Santhals.

• He is appointed by the president.

Explanation:

• He must be a person who is qualified to be appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court.

24. Option (a) is correct.

• The remuneration of the AG is not fixed by the Constitution.

The Tropic of Cancer passes through eight states in India.

• The President of India determines the remuneration of the Attorney General.

1. Gujarat

• He can give advice to the Government of India only on such legal matters which are referred to him by the president.

3. Madhya Pradesh

20. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: Directive Principles of State Policy are included in the Part IV of the Constitution from Articles 36 to 51. The Directive Principles of State Policy is a ‘novel feature’ of the Indian Constitution, according to Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.

Explanation:

2. Rajasthan 4. Chhattisgarh 5. Jharkhand 6. West Bengal 7. Tripura 8. Mizoram 25. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: Food crops – Wheat, Rice, Ragi, Corn, millets Plantation crops - tea, coffee, rubber, coconut

21. Option (a) is correct.

Cash crop - jute, oilseeds, and tobacco

Explanation:

26. Option (d) is correct.

Provisions of the Indian Councils Act 1861

Explanation:

• The Governor-General’s Council was enlarged for legislative purposes. The

List of coalfields in Jharkhand: • Jharia coalfield

105

SOLVED PAPERS - 2021 (II) • Ramgarh Coalfield • Deogarh Coalfield Umaria Coalfield: It is located in Umaria district in Madhya Pradesh. 27. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: The Equator • It is an imaginary line that divides the Earth into two hemispheres, i.e., the Northern Hemisphere and the Southern Hemisphere. • It is also the circle that is equidistant from the North Pole and South Pole. • All the parallel circles from the equator up to the poles are called parallels or circles of latitudes. Latitudes are measured in degrees. • The Equator is the longest of all the parallels or circles of latitude. 28. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: • The rhythmic/periodic rise and fall of ocean water twice in a day is called a tide. • Tides are caused by the strong gravitational pull exerted by the sun and the moon on the surface of earth. • The water of the Earth which is closer to the moon gets pulled due to the moon’s gravitational force and results in high tide. • The Sun, the Moon and the Earth are in the same line during the full moon and new moon days, during these days the tides are highest. These tides are called spring tides. 29. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: The Indian Factory Act, 1881 • It dealt mainly with the problem of child labour (between 7 and 12 years of age). • It prohibited employment of children under 7 years of age. • It restricted working hours to 9 hours per day for children. • It made a provision of granting children a holiday of four days in a month. 30. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: • Gandhi always had in mind the goal of eradicating untouchability completely. • His ideas were based on the grounds of reasons and humanism.

• He argued that the Shastras did not endorse untouchability and, even if they did, they should be disregarded because truth cannot be contained inside the pages of a book. • In 1932, he founded the All-India Harijan Sangh for this purpose. 31. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: Paramahansa Mandali • It was a secret socio-religious group which was founded in 1840 in Bombay. • The Mandali was started by Durgaram Mehtaji, Dadoba Pandurang and a group of his friends. • The founders of this Mandali believed in one God and they were primarily interested in breaking caste rules. • The members used to eat food cooked by people of lower caste and they also advocated women’s education and widow remarriage. 32. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: The vision of unity during Sepoy Mutiny or revolt of 1857 • The rebel proclamations in 1857 repeatedly requested to all sections of the population, irrespective of their caste and creed to unite, rise and exterminate the firangis • The ishtahars (notification) remembered the pre-British Hindu-Muslim past and glorified the coexistence of different communities under the Mughal Empire. • The proclamation issued in Bahadur Shah’s name urged people to fight under the standards of both of Muhammad and Mahavir. 33. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: The flying shuttle loom was designed by John Kay in 1733. This loom made it possible to weave broader fabrics in less time and consequently called for more yarn than could be supplied at the current rate of spinning. 34. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: Hirakud Dam: It is located in Sambalpur, Odisha. It is built across the Mahanadi River and is the longest earthen dam in the world.

106

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

Panchet Dam: It is located in Dhanbad District, Jharkhand and is built across the Damodar River. Kosi Dam: It is also known as Saptakosi High Dam. It is constructed on the Saptakoshi River of Nepal. Its objective was to control floods in south-east Nepal and northern Bihar. Ukai Dam: It is the largest reservoir of Gujarat. It is constructed across the Tapi River and is also known as Vallabh Sagar. 35. Option (b) is correct.

• The contains the permanent classic of political theory and is a key source of democratic belief. 39. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: A special session of the Congress was held at Karachi in March 1931 to endorse the GandhiIrwin Pact. Six days prior the session Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev and Rajguru were executed. Two resolutions were adopted in the Karachi Session

Explanation:

• One on Fundamental Rights

The river twists and turns as it enters the plain, forming huge bends known as meanders. The ends of meander loop come closer and closer due to constant erosion and deposition along the sides of meander.

• Other on National Economic Programme

Consequently in due course of time, the meander loop cuts off from the river and forms a cut-off lake which is known as ox-bow lake.

The resolution had 20 points agenda which included: • Elections on the basis of Universal Adult Franchise • Basic civil rights of freedom of speech • Right to form associations, among others

36. Option (d) is correct.

40. Option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

Explanation:

The following are the important features of agriculture in India:

A Law Commission was set up in 1833 under the chairmanship of Lord Macaulay for codification of Indian laws.

• Subsistence agriculture • Pressure of population on agriculture • Dependence on Monsoon • Predominance of food crops • Seasonal pattern • Importance of animals 37. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: The National Livestock Mission (NLM) scheme • It is being implemented in the country since 2014. The scheme aims towards the, entrepreneurship development, employment generation and increase in per animal productivity Sub-missions of NLM are:

As a result of this commission, following codes were prepared • Civil Procedure Code (1859) • Indian Penal Code (1860) • Criminal Procedure Code (1861) 41. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: • Ngangom Dingko Singh was an Indian Boxer from Manipur. • He had won the gold medal at 1998 Asian Games held in Bangkok. • He was awarded the Padma Shri in 2013 by Government of India. • He died after a long battle with liver cancer. 42. Option (d) is correct.

• Breed Development of Livestock and Poultry

Explanation:

• Feed and Fodder Development

Vinoo Mankad

• Innovation and Extension. 38. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: • The book “Discourse on Political Economy” was written by Jean-Jacques Rousseau

• He was an Indian cricketer. • He had appeared in 44 Test matches for India between 1946 and 1959. • Mankading (run-out) in cricket is named after him.

107

SOLVED PAPERS - 2021 (II) • In June 2021, he was inducted into the ICC Cricket Hall of Fame ahead of the 2021 ICC World Test Championship final. 43. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: Group of Seven (G7) • It comprises seven countries - Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, the United Kingdom, and the United States. • It is not based on any treaty and does not have permanent secretariat or office. • Its presidency rotates annually among the member states and for 2022 Germany is holding the presidency. • Several democratic countries – India, Spain, Indonesia and Poland participate as observers. 44. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: • The Indian Coast Guard’s Operation Olivia aims to conserve the Olive Ridley turtle population during its breeding season, which runs from December to May. • It takes place off the coast of Odisha which is the primary habitat range of the turtles. 45. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: 2021 French Open • Novak Djokovic defeated Stefanos Tsitsipas in the final to win the men’s singles tennis title at the 2021 French Open. It was his second French Open title. 46. Option (c) is correct.

• It is a global infrastructure development strategy adopted in 2013 by the Chinese government. • It aims to invest in nearly 70 countries and international organizations. 48. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: International Yoga Day 2021 • It is celebrated every year on June 21. It has been celebrated since 2015. • Theme for 2021 - Yoga for well-being 49. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: Kenneth David Kaunda served as the first President of Zambia from 1964 to 1991. He passed away on 14 June 2021. 50. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: • The 2021 maiden IN – EUNAVFOR Joint Naval Exercise was held in the Gulf of Aden. • Along with India Navy, other naval forces from Italy, Spain and France also participated. 51. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: Milk of magnesia is an aqueous solution of Mg(OH)2. Mg(OH) 2 is a weak base which does not dissociate 100% into the solution, due to which aqueous solution contains less number of –OH ions. Mg(OH)2 being base having pH greater than 7.0.

Explanation:

As number of –OH ions in the solution are less in number

Rebeca Grynspan

\ pH is less. Hence the correct option will be 10

• She is a Costa Rican economist.

52. Option (b) is correct.

• Since 13 September 2021, she is serving as Secretary General of the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD).

Explanation:

• She was also the Vice President of Costa Rica from 1994 to 1998. 47. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: Belt and Road Initiative • It was formerly known as One Belt One Road

In photographic plate, AgBr is used which is a photo sensitive compound. On exposure to sunlight AgBr get dissociated to form greyish black Ag and Br2 hv 2AgBr → 2Ag + Br2

53. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: Ferrous sulphate crystal contains seven number of water molecule which are known as water of crystallization. It is also known

108

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS as Ferrous sulphate heptahydrate or green vitriol. The colour of ferrous sulphate is green in colour and the green colour is due to the presence of water of crystallisation.

54. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: Lime water is an aqueous solution of calcium hydroxide [Ca(OH)2]. On passing CO2 gas through lime water, milkiness appear due to the formation of calcium carbonate [CaCO3]. Ca(OH)2 +CO2 → CaCO3 ↓ + H2O

Milkiness appear (white)

55. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: Both mercury and Bromine are liquid in state at normal temperature and pressure. Mercury is a denser liquid and Bromine is reddish brown coloured liquid. 56. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: A mixture of salt and anthracene can be easily separated by sublimation. Sublimation is a process in which a volatile substance can be easily separated in the form of vapours via heating. Among salt and anthracene is a sublimable substance which directly converted form solid to gas on heating. 57. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: Phototropism is the movement of plant parts towards or against light source. Chemotropism is movement towards or against chemical source. Hydrotropism is movement towards or against water source. Geotropism is movement towards or against gravity. Positive tropism is the movement towards the source and negative tropism is the movement against the source. So the movement of shoots of plant in upward direction is negatively geotropic as it is against the gravity movement. 58. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: Photosynthesis is the biochemical process of synthesis of carbohydrates using the raw

materials like CO2 and H2O in the presence of sunlight with the help of chlorophyll. In photosynthesis, CO2 is reduced to carbohydrates and water molecule is splitted in the presence of sunlight. In the water splitting complex, H+ ions are obtained and it is used for the reduction purpose and simultaneously O2 is released as a by - product. 59. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: Gymnosperms are the woody plants having vascular tissues like xylem and phloem for the conduction of water and food, respectively and also they bear seeds without flowers i.e. naked seeds. So in the gymnosperms, ovules are not enclosed by any ovary wall and remain exposed, both before and after fertilization. Angiosperms are vascular plants with xylem and phloem. These are seed bearing flowering plants. Angiosperm are further classified into monocots and dicots. 60. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: Parenchyma is type of simple permanent tissue found in plants. Parenchyma cells are variable in shape with intercellular spaces. It is a major packing tissue present in plants which supports the organs of plants and fills the gaps between other tissues. Parenchyma is also present in xylem as xylem parenchyma and also present in phloem as phloem parenchyma. It also helps in radial conduction of water, storage of food and other plant metabolites. 61. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: Plant growth is indefinite as it keeps on growing through meristems. The primary growth results in the increase in length due to the activity of apical and intercalary meristems. The secondary growth results in the increase of girth due to the activity of lateral meristems. Lateral meristem includes vascular cambium and cork cambium. The vascular cambium is present in between the vascular bundles and divide to add new layers of secondary tissues like secondary xylem and secondary phloem. Due to the addition of these new layers, the girth of plant increases.

109

SOLVED PAPERS - 2021 (II) 62. Option (c) is correct. Explanation:

⇒       

F =m

dv dt

Different varieties of same gene are called alleles.

       Or F ∝

The Genotype is the genetic constituition of an organism.

66. Option (d) is correct.

Sib pairs is a technique used in genetics to discover the diseases with an unclear mode of inheritance and has been used successfully in studies of other complex disorders.

Fundamental laws of physics require conservation of energy, momentum and charge.

dv dt

Explanation:

63. Option (b) is correct.

Kirchhoff ’s law requires conservation of energy and charge. Newton’s 2nd law can be expressed using conservation of momentum while all the thermodynamic principles are based on conservation of energy (mass+ energy).

Explanation:

67. Option (a) is correct.

Variola virus causes small pox. Small pox is a contagious and deadly disease. It shows symptoms like fever, and appearance of flat, red spots on whole upper body which turns into small blisters filled with clear fluid and after sometime it gets filled with pus.

Explanation:

There is currently no cure, but only a vaccine could have prevented it.

(d) F = 1 N, s = 0.50 m; W = 1 × 0.5 = 0.5 N

64. Option (d) is correct.

Explanation:

Isomers are the chemical compounds which have same empirical formula but differ in arrangement of their atoms.

Explanation: When an object is immersed in a fluid, fluid exerts pressure on all the surface of the object. As fluid pressure increase with depth, the pressure exerted by the fluid is more at the bottom surface of object than that at top surface. This extra upward force is the reason behind buoyancy. 65. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: Mass of an object is the amount of matter present in it. Mass does not depend upon geography, time or any external force and can be treated as a constant. While weight is the result of action of gravity on object, it changes with change in gravity. According to Newton’s second law, dp d( mv ) or dt dt dv dm F =m +v dt dt F =

As discussed above mass for non relativistic dv motion is constant = 0. dt

Work done, W = F.s (a) F = 4 N, s = 0.25 m; W = 4 × 0.25 = 1 N (b) F = 2 N, s = 1 m;

W=2×1=2N

(c) F = 1 N, s = 0.01 m; W = 1 × 0.01 = 0.01 N 68. Option (b) is correct. When an object undergoes circular motion, speed remains same but its direction changes continuously. Due to change in direction of speed its velocity changes at every point. Since, momentum depends upon velocity, so it also changes. 69. Option (a) is correct. Explanation:

For parallel connection,





1 1 1 1 = + + R eq R1 R 2 R 3 1 1 1 1 3 = + + = R eq R R R R



R R eq = 3 70. Option (c) is correct.



(∵ R=1

R= R= R) 2 3

Explanation:

Rutherford’s a–scattering experiment is mainly responsible for the discovery of nucleus. The experiment concluded that, in an atom positive charge remains concentrated at the center which is called atomic nucleus and the volume occupied by the nucleus is very

110

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS small compared to the volume occupied by an atom.

71. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: According to Bohr’s atomic model, electrons revolve around the nucleus in a circular orbit whose energy is fixed. The number of orbit are assigned as Name of shell = K

L

M

N

Number

2

3

4

= 1

76. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: To find the direction of magnetic field or current, we use right hand thumb rule. So options (b) and (d) are incorrect. If we curl our fingers in the direction of magnetic field lines, direction of thumb will represent the direction of current, which is upward as shown in figure.

According to principal Quantum number (n), the manimum number of electrons in an orbit = 2n2 Here for M – shell, the value of n = 3 So maximum no. of electrons in M – shell = 2 × (3)2

= 18

72. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: Formula used Average atomic mass

=

∑ %abundance × atomic man ∑ %abudance

Here atomic mass of Cl = 35 and 37 % abundance of Cl = 3 and 1 So Average atomic mass of chlorine atom

3 × 35 + 37 × 1 105 + 37 = = 3+1 4 = 35.5

77. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: Generator converts mechanical energy into electrical energy (current), while motor consumes electrical energy and produces mechanical energy. Ammeter and galvanometer are the current measuring instruments. 78. Option (c) is correct. Explanation:

73. Option (c) is correct.

Myopia or near-sightedness occurs when light rays coming from a distant object, converge before the retina. Hence, we get blurred image of distant objects.

Explanation:

79. Option (a) is correct.

Cobalt – 60 is mainly used in the treatment of cancer.

Explanation:



74. Option (b) is correct. Explanation:

Tyndall effect takes place when light is scattered by the colloidal particles. Due to this scattering, path of light becomes visible.

To protect iron from rusting, electroplating of iron takes place. The electroplating of that metal takes place on iron which is more reactive than it. For electroplating electrolytic cell is formed in which zinc is made as anode while iron act as cathode. On passing electricity, from anode Zn moves towards cathode and layer of Zn is deposited at iron.

80. Option (a) is correct.

75. Option (c) is correct.

Explanation:

Explanation: Cinnabar is sulphide ore of mercury whose molecular formula is HgS.

Explanation: Twinkling of stars is an atmospheric phenomenon. Due to varying refractive index of layers of atmosphere a light ray coming from a star undergoes multiple refractions. Hence, stars appear to twinkle. 81. Option (d) is correct. Cornea is a transparent layer covering the front part of an eye. It covers pupil, iris and anterior chamber.

111

SOLVED PAPERS - 2021 (II) Light enters an eye through cornea. Cornea is composed of protein and cells. It does not contain blood vessels.

Hence, we can say, a plane mirror is a spherical mirror with infinite focal length. 87. Option (a) is correct.

82. Option (c) is correct.

Explanation:

Explanation:

In nuclear fission reaction, a heavy nucleus splits into two or more than two smaller and stable nuclei, releasing very high amount of energy. Its expression (E = Δmc2) was proposed by the Albert Einstein. The expression also holds true for nuclear energy released in nuclear fusion reaction.

Power of lens, P =



P=

1 f

1 = + 4D 0.25 m

83. Option (a) is correct.

88. Option (b) is correct.

Explanation: Ruminant animals generally contains four chambers stomach which is called as compound stomach. Animals like cattles, sheep, deer, doat, has four chambered stomach while, camel has 3 chambered stomach. Four chambers of stomach are rumen, reticulum, omasum and abomasum.

Explanation: Reverberation is the persistence of sound even after original sound has lapsed. It occurs due to multiple reflection of sound wave and as a result the brain treats the reflected waves as a continuous wave.

Out of these four chambers, abomasum is the true stomach.

89. Option (b) is correct.

84. Option (c) is correct.

Sound wave is a mechanical wave, which needs medium to travel. Hence, it cannot travel through vacuum.

Explanation: Intestine harbours numerous friendly bacteria which produces Vit -B12 and Vit - K. These are symbiotic bacteria. 85. Option (b) is correct.

In sound wave disturbance in the medium occurs in the direction of propagation of wave, hence sound is longitudinal in nature. 90. Option (d) is correct.

Explanation: Estrogen is a female sex hormone which helps in the development of female sexual characters. Estrogen makes the female body more feminine by making their hips and pelvis wider, development of breast and uterus. Estrogen is also responsible for the production of hairs in armpits and groin areas. 86. Option (a) is correct.

Explanation: 2 Maximum height attained, H = u 2g u2 20 = 2 × 10   

⇒   u2 = 400 ⇒   u = ± 20 m/s 91. Option (a) is correct.

Explanation: 1 1 1 From mirror formula, = + f u v

When f = ∞ ,

1 1 1 = + ∞ u v

⇒

0=

⇒

Explanation:

1 1 + u v v = −u

We can clearly see, object and image are equidistant. Here, –ve sign indicates both object and image are at opposite side, which is the case for a plane mirror.

Explanation: = m 2 kg, = KE 100 = J, v ? Here,    

KE =

1 m v2 2

⇒    100 = 1 × 2 × v 2 2 2 ⇒    v = 100

⇒    v = 10 m / s 92. Option (d) is correct. Explanation: Isoelectronic species are those species in which number of electrons are same.

112

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

Here, in F – number of electrons are 10.

96. Option (a) is correct.

Elenents

Atomic No

Species

Number of e–

8

O2–

8 + 2 = 10

Na

11

Na+

11 – 1 = 10

Ne

10

Ne

10

7

N–

7+1=8

O

N

Here, N- do not have similar electrons than F-. It is not an isoelectronic species. 93. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: The molecular formula of methanol is CH3OH The structural formula of methanol is as follows– H H

C



H

O

H

From the structure, it is clear that the number of covalent bond in methanol = 5 Short cut ⇒ number of covalent bond = (Total number of atom) – 1 In methanol, total number of atoms = 6 So number of covalent bond = 6 – 1 = 5 94. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: The chemical formula of plaster of Paris = 1 CaSO4 ⋅ H 2 O 2 It is also known as calcium sulphate semihydrate. Plaster of Paris can be obtained by heating gypsum.

Explanation: A ray of light does not travel straight after it strikes on a prism surface, unless it strikes perpendicularly. In options (b) and (c) light is traveling straight inside a prism and in option (d), it is coming out from prism without deviation. So options (b), (c) and (d) are wrong. As light enters into denser medium, it moves closer to normal, while it moves away from the normal when it enters into rare medium. This is happening in option (a), hence it is correct. 97. Option (c) is correct. Explanation: Refractive index of prism for a particular light 1 ∝ wavelength Since wavelength of violet light is least, refractive index for violet light is maximum. Hence, it will deviate most while red color will deviate the least. 98. Option (b) is correct. Explanation: A plane mirror always forms a virtual and erect image of same size, and at the same distance as object. 99. Option (a) is correct. Explanation: Work done under the action of a conservative force depends only upon initial and final position of an object, and is independent of the path. Friction is a surface phenomenon, so it is not a conservative force.

1 3 heat CaSO4 ⋅ 2H 2 O  → CaSO4 ⋅ H 2 O + H 2 O 2 2 (Gypsum) (Plaster of Paris)

100. Option (c) is correct.

95. Option (a) is correct.

If 90° < θ < 270°, then cos θ < 0, which means W is negative.

Explanation: Thrust F 1 = = , this is the unit of frequency. Impulse F × t t



Hence option (a) is correct.

Explanation: = W FS cos θ Work done by an object,

When both F and S are antiparallel, angle between them is 180° (cos 180° = –1) which means work done is negative in this case.

NDA / NA

GENERAL ABILITY TEST

National Defence Academy / Naval Academy

I

Time : 1hr 40min

question Paper

2020 Total Marks : 400

Important Instructions : 1. This Test contains 100 items ·(questions) Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case, you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. 2. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. 3. All items carry equal marks. 4. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions. 5. Penalty for wrong answers : THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS. (i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one·third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. (ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question. (iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.

1. New Zealand is considered part of which one of the following island groups ? (a) Micronesia (b) Melanesia (c) Polynesia (d) Hawaii Island chain 2. Which of the following statements with regard to Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY) is/are correct ? (1) PMKSY was launched during 2015-16 (2) The basic aim of PMKSY is to enhance physical access of water on farm (3) One of the main objectives of PMKSY is to achieve convergence of investments in irrigation at the field level

Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 3. According to Article 79 of the Constitution of India, which of the following is/are described as a part of Parliament of India ? (1) The House of the People (2) The Council of States (3) The President of India

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only (c) 2 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only (d) 1 , 2 and 3

4. The Five Year Plan was first launched in (a) China (b) USSR (c) India (d) Bhutan 5. The call for Garibi Hatao was incorporated in (a) Fourth Five Year Plan (b) Fifth Five Year Plan (c) Sixth Five Year Plan (d) Seventh Five Year Plan 6. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List I List II (Major Objective) (Five YearPlan) (A) Faster and more (1) First inclusive growth (B) Faster, more (2) Fifth inclusive and sustainable growth (C) Correction of (3) Eleventh disequilibrium caused by Second World War (D) Attaining (4) Twelfth self-reliance

114

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

Code : A B C D (a) 3 1 4 2 (b) 3 4 1 2 (c) 2 4 1 3 (d) 2 1 4 3

13. Which one of the following countries has hosted the Army Exercise TSENTR, 2019 ? (a) Russia (b) China (c) Kazakhstan (d) Kyrgyzstan

7. Which one of the following Directive Principles was inserted by the Constitution (42th Amendment) Act, 1976 ? (a) The State shall minimise inequalities in income (b) Equal justice and free legal aid (c) Promotion of co-operative societies (d) Provision for early childhood care

14. Which one of the following countries is called the ‘country of winds’ ? (a) India (b) China (c) Denmark (d) Germany 15. Which one of the following is the oldest scientific department of Government of India ? (a) Department of Biotechnology (b) Survey of India (c) India Meteorological Department (d) DRDO

8. A common High Court for two or more states can be established by (a) a law passed by the Parliament (b) an order of the Supreme Court of India (c) an order of the President of India (d) an amendment to the Constitution of India

16. ‘Naseem-Al-Bahr’ is a bilateral naval exercise between India and (a) United Arab Emirates (b) Iran (c) Saudi Arabia (d) Oman

9. In the year 1928, a committee of Congress leaders drafted a Constitution for India. The Committee was headed by (a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) T. B. Sapru (c) Motilal Nehru (d) Jawaharlal Nehru

17. Koneru Humpy excels in which one of the following sports ? (a) Boxing (b) Table Tennis (c) Chess (d) Billiards

10. Which one of the following statements about Jaipal Singh is NOT correct ?­ (a) He was a member of the Constituent Assembly. (b) He founded the Adivasi Maha Sabha. (c) He was the captain of the first Indian national hockey team. (d) He campaigned for a separate state of Chhattisgarh. 11. What is ‘Tikki Mausi’ in the context of Malnutrition ? (a) A specially packaged food item (b) A mascot (c) Name of a scheme (d) Name given to the healthcare providers 12. Which one of the following was the theme of the World Tourism Day, 2019 ? (a) Sustainable tourism (b) Tourism and the digital transformation (c) Tourism : responding to the challenge of climate change (d) Tourism and jobs : a better future for all

18. Which one of the following was the official mascot of Khelo India Youth Games, 2020 ? (a) Vijaya (b) Yaya (c) Rongmon (d) Ammu 19. In January 2020, a passenger aircraft crashed in Iran soon after taking off from Tehran’s Imam Khomeini airport killing about 170 people onboard. The airplane belongs to (a) Qatar Airways (b) Ukraine International Airlines (c) Singapore Airlines (d) Cathay Pacific 20. MILAN, a multilateral naval exercise, 2020 was hosted by which one of the following cities ? (a) Port Blair (b) Kochi (c) Visakhapatnam (d) Panaji 21. Chalk and marble are different forms of (a) Calcium hydrogen carbonate (b) Calcium carbonate (c) Calcium acetate (d) Sodium carbonate

115

SOLVED PAPERS - 2020 (I) 22. The number of maximum electrons in N Shell is (a) 2 (b) 8 (c) 18 (d) 32 23. Vinegar is also known as (a) ethanoic acid (b) nitric acid (c) sulphuric acid (d) tartaric acid 24. A liquid is kept in a glass beaker. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding the pressure exerted by the liquid column at the base of the beaker ? (a) The pressure depends on the area of the base of the beaker. (b) The pressure depends on the height of liquid column. (c) The pressure does not depend on the density of the liquid. (d) The pressure neither depends on the area of the base of the beaker nor on the height of liquid column. 25. Which of the following statements is NOT correct regarding the travel of sound waves ? (a) Sound waves can travel through water. (b) Sound waves can travel through air. (c) Sound waves can travel through steel. (d) Sound waves can travel through vacuum. 26. Deendayal Port is located at (a) Kerala (b) Gujarat (c) Maharashtra (d) Goa 27. Which one of the following cities is associated with Biosafety Protocol to the Convention on Biological Diversity (2000) ? (a) Geneva (b) Nairobi (c) Cartagena (d) Rio de Janeiro 28. Krishna Raja Sagara Dam/Reservoir is developed on (a) river Krishna (b) river Tungabhadra (c) river Godavari (d) river Kavery 29. Which one of the following Indian state does NOT share international border with two or more countries ? (a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Assam (c) Mizoram (d) Tripura 30. According to Census of India, 2011, which one among the following is the least populated state in India ? (a) Maharashtra (b) Madhya Pradesh (c) Odisha (d) Punjab

31. The speakers of major Indian languages belongs to how many languages families ? (a) Two (b) Three (c) Four (d) Six 32. Where did Gandhiji initially forge techniques of Satyagraha ? (a) England (b) South Africa (c) North Africa (d) India

the

33. Who was the Viceroy of India at the time of Gandhiji’s Dandi march ? (a) Lord Irwin (b) Lord Linlithgow (c) Lord Reading (d) Lord Willingdon 34. Which one among the following American newsmagazines was highly sceptical of Gandhiji’s Dandi march initially but within a week completely changed its opinion and saluted him as a Saint and Statesman ? (a) Saturday Evening Post (b) Reader Digest (c) Time (d) Life 35. In which of the following years were passenger trains introduced in England ? (a) 1823 (b) 1825 (c) 1848 (d) 1861 36. The correct relation between the radius of curvature R and focal length f of a spherical mirror is (a) R = f (b) R = 2f (c) R = 3f (d) R = 4f 37. A lemon kept in water in a glass tumbler appears to be larger than its actual size. It is because of (a) reflection of light (b) scattering of light (c) refraction of light (d) polarization of light 38. Light enters the eye through a thin membrane called (a) retina (b) cornea (c) pupil (d) iris 39. Name the scientist who first used a glass prism to obtain the spectrum of sunlight. (a) C. V. Raman (b) Lord Rayleigh (c) Isaac Newton (d) S. Chandrasekhar 40. The cost of energy to operate an industrial refrigerator that consumes 5kW power working 10 hours per day for 30 days will be (Given that the charge per kWh of energy = ` 4)

116 (a) ` 600 (c) ` 1,200

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS (b) ` 6,000 (d) ` 1,500

41. Which one of the following statements regarding magnetic field is NOT correct ? (a) Magnetic field is a quantity that has direction and magnitude. (b) Magnetic field lines are closed curves. (c) Magnetic field lines are open curves. (d) No two magnetic field lines are found to cross each other. 42. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct ? (a) Buckminster fullerene is an allotrope of carbon. (b) Diamond is a good conductor of electricity. (c) Graphite is a good conductor of electricity. (d) In graphite, each carbon atom is linked to three other carbon atoms. 43. How many covalent bonds are present in a Chloropropane molecule having molecular formula, C3H7Cl ? (a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 9 (d) 10 44. Which one of the following is the most fundamental characteristic of an element ? (a) Melting point (b) Atomic number (c) Colour (d) Atomic weight 45. Neutrons were discovered by (a) James Chadwick (b) Ernest Rutherford (c) J. J. Thomson (d) John Dalton 46. Atomic mass of an element is equal to the sum of number of (a) electrons and protons only (b) protons and neutrons only (c) electrons and neutrons only (d) electrons, protons and neutrons 47. Which one of the following element’s isotope is used in the treatment of cancer ? (a) Uranium (b) Cobalt (c) Sodium (d) Iodine 48. Which one of the following cell organelles may play a role in expelling excess water and wastes in case of unicellular organisms ? (a) Lysosome (b) Vacuole (c) Golgi body (d) Endoplasmic reticulum

49. Which one of the following terms describes the practice of growing two or more crops simultaneously on the same piece of land ? (a) Crop rotation (b) Mixed cropping (c) Intercropping (d) Mixed farming 50. Which one of the following statements is correct about effect of antibiotics on viruses ? (a) Viruses are “non-living” entities but it can interact with antibiotics. (b) Taking antibiotics cures viral infections. (c) Viruses do not possess metabolic pathways on which antibiotics can function, whereas bacteria have such pathways. (d) Viruses are resistant to antibiotics. 51. The Panama Canal opened in 1914, links (a) Red Sea and Mediterranean Sea (b) Atlantic Ocean and Pacific Ocean (c) Indian Ocean and Pacific Ocean (d) Adriatic Sea and Black Sea 52. The United Nations Charter was signed by 51 original members of the United Nations in 1945 at the (a) Hague Conference (b) London Conference (c) San Francisco Conference (d) Berlin Conference 53. Land Revenue Records maintained in India have categorized land-use into (a) 6 categories (b) 9 categories (c) 15 categories (d) 21 categories 54. Dry land farming in India is largely confined to areas with rainfall less than (a) 100 cm (b) 85 cm (c) 80 cm (d) 75 cm 55. For an area to be excluded from the droughtprone category, what percentage of its gross cropped area should be under irrigation ? (a) 10 per cent or more (b) 20 per cent or more (c) 25 per cent or more (d) 30 per cent or more 56. Which one of the following is NOT a current of Pacific Ocean ? (a) Oyashio current (b) Alaska current (c) Agulhas current (d) California current

SOLVED PAPERS - 2020 (I) 57. The duration of monsoon in India extends for an average period of (a) 80 - 140 days (b) 100 - 120 days (c) 90 - 130 days (d) 100 - 140 days 58. Which one of the following is the natural vegetation of South east China ? (a) Subtropical broadleaf evergreen forest (b) Tropical broadleaf evergreen forest (c) Tropical deciduous forest (d) Temperate evergreen forest 59. Which one of the following is a cold local wind ? (a) Santa Ana (b) Chinook (c) Mistral (d) Loo 60. What was the consequence of Permanent Settlement on rural society in Bengal ? (a) The zamindars invested capital and enterprise to improve agriculture along lines of British yeoman farmer. (b) A group of rich peasants known as jotedars succeeded in consolidating their position in the villages. (c) The ryots prospered as a result of fixed revenue levy imposed on them. (d) The system of Collectorate introduced by the Company for exercising supervisory control on zamindars failed to take off. 61. What was Damin-i Koh in Rajmahal area ? (a) A larger area of land demarcated and declared to be the land of Santhals. (b) The land of the Paharias cultivated exclusively for paddy. (c) The British territory marked for their military camp. (d) The land earmarked for locating settled agriculturists. 62. Which one of the following statements about the Revolt of 1857 is correct ? (a) It was a Revolt carefully organised and planned by the Rajas, Nawabs and Taluqdars. (b) Rumours and prophecies did not play any role in its outbreak and spread. (c) The rebel proclamations in 1857 repeatedly appealed to all sections of the population irrespective of their caste and creed. (d) The British succeeded in quickly and easily controlling the rebels.

117 63. Which one among the following was NOT a Panch Sheel principle ? (a) Peaceful Co-existence (b) Mutual respect for territorial integrity (c) Nuclear deterrence (d) Non-interference in internal affairs 64. Who among the following had organised, in 1904, a secret society of revolutionaries named Abhinav Bharat ? (a) Khudiram Bose (b) Shyamji Krishna Verma (c) Har Dayal (d) V D Savarkar 65. The principle that the farming of the new Constitution for independent India should be primarily (though not solely) the responsibility of Indians themselves, was for the first time conceded in the (a) Government of India Act, 1935 (b) August Offer of Viceroy Linlithgow (c) Cripps Proposals (d) Cabinet Mission 66. Which one of the following is a major environmental issue in eastern Canada ? (a) Acid precipitation (b) Groundwater depletion (c) Land degradation (d) Desertification 67. Which one of the following mountains lies in between Caspian Sea and Black Sea ? (a) Caucasus (b) Carpathians (c) Apennine (d) Elburz 68. Bagalihar, Dulhasti and Salal hydro power projects have been developed on which of the following rivers ? (a) Chenab and Jhelum (b) Chenab and Indus (c) Ravi (d) Chenab only 69. Which of the following statements with regard to Biosphere Reserve is/are correct ? (1) The idea of Biosphere Reserve was initiated by UNESCO in 1973-74. (2) There are 18 designated Biosphere Reserves in India. (3) All Biosphere Reserves in India have been included in world network of Biosphere Reserves of UNESCO.

118

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS



Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

76. Which one of the following plant tissues has dead cells ? (a) Epidermis (b) Parenchyma (c) Collenchyma (d) Sclerenchyma

70. Which one of the following countries does NOT have direct access to the sea/ocean ? (a) Syria (b) Jordan (c) Azerbaijan (d) Armenia

77. Cartilage is NOT found in (a) larynx (b) nose (c) ear (d) urinary bladder

71. In an incandescent electric bulb, the filament of the bulb is made up of which metal ? (a) Aluminium (b) Copper (c) Tungsten (d) Silver 72. Two equal resistors R are connected in parallel, and a battery of 12 V is connected across this combination. A dc current of 100 mA flows through the circuit as shown below : R

100 mA

The value of R is (a) 120 W (c) 60 W

R

12V (b) 240 W (d) 100 W

73. Which one of the following is NOT the unit of energy ? (a) Joule (b) Watt-hr (c) Newton-metre (d) kg-metre/sec2 74. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct ? (a) Biomass is a renewable source of energy. (b) Gobar gas is produced when cow-dung, crop residues, vegetable waste and sewage are allowed to decompose in the absence of oxygen. (c) Biogas generation reduces soil and water pollution. (d) Heating capacity of biogas is very low. 75. In prokaryotic organisms, nuclear region is not surrounded by a membrane. This undefined nuclear region is known as (a) Nucleic acid (b) Nucleoid (c) Nucleolus (d) Nucleosome

78. Two planets orbit the Sun in circular orbits, of radii, R1 = R and R2 = 4 R, Ratio of their  T1  periods   around the Sun will be  T2  1 (a) 16

(b)

1 8

1 1 (c) (d) 4 2 79. A metallic wire having resistance of 20 W is cut into two equal parts in length. These parts are than connected in parallel. The resistance of this parallel combination is equal to (a) 20 W (b) 10 W (c) 5 W (d) 15 W 80. Light of uniform intensity impinges perpendicularly on a totally reflecting surface. If the area of the surface is halved, the radiation force on it will become (a) double (b) half (c) four times (d) one fourth 81. The part of the human eye on which the image is formed is (a) pupil (b) cornea (c) retina (d) iris 82. Consider the following image : Proton Magnetic field

A proton enters a magnetic field at right angles to it, as shown above. The direction of force acting on the proton will be (a) to the right (b) to the left (c) out of the page (d) into the page

SOLVED PAPERS - 2020 (I) 83. Which one of the following statements about sound is NOT correct ? (a) Sound travels at a speed slower than the speed of light. (b) Sound waves are transverse waves. (c) Sound waves are longitudinal waves. (d) Sound travels faster in moist air than in dry air. 84. When the short circuit condition occurs, the current in the circuit (a) becomes zero (b) remains constant (c) increases substantially (d) keeps on changing randomly 85. Which one of the following is NOT a component of human male reproductive system ? (a) Cervix (b) Urethra (c) Seminal vesicle (d) Vas deferens 86. Which one of the following is NOT a reason of decrease in biodiversity ? (a) Large scale deforestation (b) Exploitation of forest produce (c) Maintaining sacred groves (d) Encroachment in forest areas 87. Which one of the following is NOT a cause of depletion in groundwater ? (a) Afforestation (b) Loss of forests (c) Excessive pumping of groundwater (d) Construction of large scale concrete buildings 88. Which one of the following types of radiations has the smallest wavelength ? (a) Microwaves (b) Infra-red (c) Visible light (d) X-rays 89. The instrument used for detecting the presence of electric current in a circuit is (a) Refractometer (b) Galvanometer (c) Viscometer (d) Diffractometer 90. Which one of the following is the largest composition in biogas ? (a) Carbon dioxide (b) Methane (c) Hydrogen (d) Hydrogen sulphide

119 91. The Sun appears reddish during sunrise and sunset. The phenomenon in optics which is responsible for this appearance of the Sun is (a) Reflection (b) Total internal reflection (c) Scattering (d) Interference 92. A lens has a power of +2.0 Dioptre. Which one of the following statements about the lens is true ? (a) The lens is concave and has a focal length of 0.5 metre. (b) The lens is convex and has a focal length of 2.0 metre. (c) The lens is convex and has a focal length of 0.5 metre. (d) The lens is concave and has a focal length of 2.0 metre. 93. At nearly 70° C, sodium bicarbonate shows the property of gradually decomposing, which makes it usable in bakery products. The product of decomposition responsible for this use of sodium bicarbonate is (a) Carbon dioxide (b) Hydrogen (c) Water vapour (d) Oxygen 94. Number of molecules of water of crystallization in copper sulphate, sodium carbonate and Gypsum are (a) 5, 10 and 2 respectively (b) 10, 2 and 5 respectively (c) 5, 2 and 10 respectively (d) 2, 5 and 10 respectively 95. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of change in colours when a turmeric stain on white clothes is scrubbed by soap and then washed with water / (a) Yellow – pink – blue (b) Yellow – reddish brown – yellow (c) Yellow – reddish brown – blue (d) Yellow – blue – pink 96. Which one of the following statements regarding Bleaching powder and D.D.T. is correct ? (a) Both are inorganic compounds (b) Both are organic compounds (c) Both contain chlorine (d) Both contain calcium

120

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

97. Which one of the following is the best example of desiccant ? (a) Silica gel (b) Polystyrene (c) Sodium chloride (d) Sodium carbonate

of light in quartz and vs is the speed of light in sapphire, then which one of the following relations is correct ? (a) vq > vs (b) vs > vq

98. Which one of the following was the first mineral acid discovered ? (a) Sulphuric acid (b) Hydrochloric acid (c) Nitric acid (d) Phosphoric acid 99. The refractive index of fused quartz is 1.46 and that of sapphire is 1.77. If vq is the speed

For elaborated Solutions

(d) vs =

SCAN

vq

2 100. In case of a concave mirror, if an object is kept between principal focus F and pole P of the mirror, then which one of the following statements about the image is NOT correct ? (a) The image will be virtual. (b) The image will be enlarged or magnified. (c) The image will be formed at infinity. (d) The image will be erect.

 

Finished Solving the Paper ? Time to evaluate yourself !

SCAN THE CODE

(c) vs = vq

121

SOLVED PAPERS - 2020 (I)

Answers Q No

Answer Key

Topic Name

Chapter Name

1

(c)

Islands

Major Natural regions of the World

2

(d)

Government Schemes

Current Affairs

3

(d)

Constitution of India

Elementary study of Indian Constitution and Administration

4

(b)

Elementary knowledge of Five Year Plans of India

Economics

5

(b)

Elementary knowledge of Five Year Plans of India

Economics

6

(b)

Elementary knowledge of Five Year Plans of India

Economics

7

(b)

Elementary study of Indian Constitution and Administration

Economics

8

(a)

Elementary study of Indian Constitution and Administration

Economics

9

(c)

Indian National Congress Committee

Modern History

10

(d)

Constituent Assembly

Elementary study of Indian Constitution and Administration

11

(b)

Schemes

Current Affairs

12

(d)

Important Days

Current Affairs

13

(a)

Joint Military Exercise

Current Affairs

14

(c)

Countries

Current Affairs

15

(b)

Important Departments

Current Affairs

16

(d)

Joint Military Exercise

Current Affairs

17

(c)

Sports

Current Affairs

18

(a)

Sports

Current Affairs

19

(b)

Important Incidents

Current Affairs

20

(c)

Joint Military Exercise

Current Affairs

21

(b)

Compounds

Elements, Compounds and Mixtures

22

(d)

Electronic Configuration

Structure of Atom

23

(a)

Strong and Weak Acids

Acids, Bases and Salts

24

(b)

Fluid Pressure

Mechanical Properties of Fluid of substances

25

(d)

Sound waves

Sound waves and their properties

26

(b)

Port

Current Affairs

27

(c)

Bio Diversity

Current Affairs

28

(d)

Important Dams

Current Affairs

29

(d)

International Boundries

Current Affairs

30

(d)

Census

Current Affairs

31

(c)

Languages

Current Affairs

122

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

Q No

Answer Key

Topic Name

Chapter Name

32

(b)

Satyagraha

Basic Teachings of Mahatma Gandhi

33

(a)

Dandi March

Basic Teachings of Mahatma Gandhi

34

(c)

Dandi March

Basic Teachings of Mahatma Gandhi

35

(b)

Indian Railway

Current Affairs

36

(b)

Mirrors

Ray Optics

37

(c)

Refraction

Ray Optics

38

(b)

Human Eye Structure

Ray Optics

39

(c)

Dispersion

Ray Optics

40

(b)

Electric Power

Current Electricity

41

(c)

Magnetic Field Lines

Magnetic Effect of Electric Current

42

(b)

Allotropes of Carbon

Carbon and its Compound

43

(d)

Types of Bond

Symbols, Formula and simple Chemical Equation

44

(b)

Atomic Number and Mass Number

Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry

45

(a)

Fundamental Particles and Their Discovery

Structure of Atom

46

(b)

Atomic Number and Mass Number

Structure of Atom

47

(b)

Uses of Radioisotopes

Nuclear Reactions and Radioactivity

48

(b)

Water

Properties of Air and Water

49

(b)

Agriculture

Regional Geography of India

50

(c)

Viruses

Common Epidemics, their causes and prevention

51

(b)

Canals

Current Affairs

52

(c)

International Organisations

Current Affairs

53

(b)

Important Sea ports and main Land Revenue sea, land and air routes of India

54

(d)

Dry Lands

Types of Climates

55

(d)

Agriculture

Regional Geography of India

56

(c)

Important Sea ports and main Oceans sea, land and air routes of India

57

(b)

Types of Climates

Monsoon

58

(a)

Natural vegetation

Major Natural regions of the World

59

(c)

Winds

Planetary Winds

60

(b)

Permanent Settlement

A broad survey of Indian History, with emphasis on Culture and Civilisation

61

(a)

Damin-i koh

A broad survey of Indian History, with emphasis on Culture and Civilisation

62

(c)

Revolt of 1857

Freedom Movement in India

63

(c)

Government Schemes

Current Affairs

64

(d)

Freedom Fighters

Current Affairs

123

SOLVED PAPERS - 2020 (I)

Q No

Answer Key

Topic Name

Chapter Name

65

(b)

Indian Constitution

Elementary study of Indian Constitution and Administration

66

(a)

Major Natural regions of the World

Climate

67

(a)

Oceans

Important Sea ports and main sea, land and air routes of India

68

(d)

Government Projects, dams

Current Affairs

69

(b)

Biosphere Reserve

Current Affairs

70

(d)

Oceans

Current Affairs

71

(c)

Bulb

Measurement of Electrical Power

72

(b)

Electric Circuit

Current Electricty

73

(d)

Units

Units and Measurements

74

(d)

Biomass

Power and Energy

75

(b)

Nuclear Region

Physical Properties and States of Matter

76

(d)

Cells

Growth and Reproduction in Plants and Animals

77

(d)

Cartilage

Elementary knowledge of Human Body and its important organs

78

(b)

Kepler's Law of Planetary Motion

Gravitation

79

(c)

Resistance

Current Electricity

80

(b)

Intensity

Electromagnetic Waves

81

(c)

Human Eyes

Ray Optics

82

(d)

Magnetic Field

Magnetic Effect of Electric Current

83

(d)

Sound

Waves

84

(c)

Current

Static and Current Electricity

85

(a)

Reproductive System

Elementary knowledge of Human Body and its important organs

86

(c)

Bio Diversity

Major Natural regions of the World

87

(a)

Afforestation

Regional Geography of India

88

(d)

Wave length

Use of X-Rays

89

(b)

Electric Current

Current Electricity

90

(b)

Alkanes

Hydrocarbons

91

(c)

Scattering

Ray Optics

92

(c)

Lenses

Ray Optics

93

(a)

Sodium Bicarbonate

Carbon and Compounds of Carbon

94

(a)

Crystallizations of Water

Some Important Chemical Compounds

95

(b)

Soaps and Detergents

Some Important Chemical Compounds

96

(c)

Bleaching Powder and DDT

Some Important Chemical Compounds

97

(a)

Properties of Compounds

Elements, Compounds and Mixtures

98

(a)

Discovery of Acids

Acids, Bases and Salts

99

(a)

Refractive Index

Ray Optics

100

(c)

Concave Mirror

Ray Optics

NDA / NA

GENERAL ABILITY TEST

National Defence Academy / Naval Academy

Time : 1hr 40mins

I

QUESTION PAPER

2019 Total Marks : 400

Important Instructions : 1. This Test contains 100 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case, you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. 2. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. 3. All items carry equal marks. 4. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions. 5. Penalty for wrong answers : THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS. (i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one·third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. (ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question. (iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.

1. Which one of the following cell organelles does NOT possess nucleic acid ? (a) Nucleolus (b) Chloroplast (c) Ribosome (d) Plasma Membrane 2. Which one of the following cell organelles does NOT possess its own genetic material encoding proteins ? (a) Ribosome (b) Nucleus (c) Mitochondria (d) Chloroplast 3. Which one of the following is NOT a component of conducting tissue in plants ? (a) Fibres (b) Tracheids (c) Pericycle (d) Sieve tubes 4. Which one of the following organisms has vascular tissues ? (a) Cladophora (b) Penicillium (c) Marsilea (d) Anabaena 5. Which one of the following organisms represents the primary consumer category in an ecosystem ? (a) Caterpillar (b) Crabapple tree (c) Frog (d) Sparrowhawk 6. Spring tides refer to (a) greatest difference in the sea level al high and low tides

(b) lowest difference in the sea level at high and low tides (c) no difference in the sea level at high and low tides (d) counteraction of gravitational pull of the Sun to that of Moon 7. Which one of the following energy is stored in the links between the atoms ? (a) Nuclear energy (b) Chemical energy (c) Potential energy (d) Thermal energy 8. The light energy escaping from the Sun can be spread by (a) a shower of rain drops (b) a plane mirror (c) a convex lens (d) a combination of a convex lens and a concave lens 9. The correct sequence of energy transfer that occurs when an apple falls to the ground is (a) Gravitational potential energy → heat energy to air → kinetic energy → heat energy to ground and apple → sound energy (b) Gravitational potential energy → sound energy → kinetic energy → heat energy to air → heat energy to ground and apple

125

SOLVED PAPERS - 2019 (I) (c) Gravitational potential energy → kinetic energy → heat energy to air → heat energy to ground and apple → sound energy (d) Gravitational potential energy → kinetic energy → sound energy → heat energy to air → heat energy to ground and apple

(a) Australia (b) Central Africa (c) South America (d) East Asia

10. Which one of the following minerals is used as a fuel in nuclear power stations ? (a) Bauxite (b) Quartz (c) Feldspar (d) Pitchblende

20. "Shamal" warm and dry wind is a "Local" wind found in (a) East Asia (b) West Coast of Africa (c) Sahara of Africa (d) Mesopotamia

11. Which one of the following is NOT a synthetic detergent ? (a) CH3(CH2)10CH2O SO3- Na+ (b) [CH3(CH2)15 - N - (CH3)3]+Br (c) CH3(CH2)16COO- Na+ (d) CH3(CH2)16COO(CH2CH2O)nCH2CH2OH

21. "Inversion of Rainfall" is associated with (a) Orographic rainfall (b) Convectional rainfall (c) Cyclonic rainfall (Tropical) (d) Cyclonic rainfall (Temperate)

12. Which one of the following is an example of a clean fuel ? (a) Coke (b) Propane (c) Petrol (d) Wax 13. Which one of the following metals does NOT react with cold water ? (a) Calcium (Ca) (b) Potassium (K) (c) Magnesium (Mg) (d) Sodium (Na) 14. In which of the following pairs are the ions isoelectronic ? (a) Mg2+, Ar (b) Na+, O2 (c) Al3+, Cl- (d) K+, Ne 15. Which one of the following is used as a binder in paints ? (a) Titanium dioxide (b) Novolac (c) Phthalocyanine (d) Silicones 16. Which one of the following is NOT true in reference to Air mass ? (a) Air mass forms either in tropical or in polar region (b) Air mass develops on continents as well as over ocean (c) Air mass develops in a cyclonic condition (d) Air mass changes the weather conditions 17. National Water Academy, a centre of excellence in training and capacity building in water resource, is located at (a) New Delhi (b) Kolkata (c) Pune (d) Chennai 18. "Campos" and "Llanos", Tropical Savanna grasslands are generally found in

19. "Viticulture" is a common feature of which one of the following Australian cities ? (a) Adelaide (b) Darwin (c) Hobart (d) Brisbane

22. Who was the author of the book 'History of British India' ? (a) Charles Grant (b) John Stuart Mill (c) James Mill (d) William Jones 23. The Azamgarh Proclamation of August 25, 1857 stressed on which one of the following issues ? (a) Hindu-Muslim divide (b) Support to the English Government (c) The return of the Badshahi (d) The imposition of heavy Jumas (revenue demand) 24. Which Viceroy had made the observation, "It's a beautiful world if it wasn't for Gandhi ..... " ? (a) Lord Irwin (b) Lord Wavell (c) Lord Mountbatten (d) Lord Willingdon 25. Which Indian businessman favoured 'healthy capitalism' in helping Gandhiji to work towards a 'common object' ? (a) Ghanshyam Das Birla (b) Ambalal Sarabhai (c) Sir Biren Mookerjee (d) T. T. K. Krishnamachari 26. The art piece "ln Memoriam" was a creation of which one of the following European painters ? (a) Thomas Jones Barker (b) Joseph Noel Paton (c) Thomas Daniell (d) Charles D'Oyly 27. Which one of the following can charge an insulator ? (a) Current electricity (b) Static electricity (c) Magnetic field (d) Gravitational field

126

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

28. At 20° C, the speed of sound in water is approximately (a) 330 m/s (b) 800 m/s (c) 1500 m/s (d) 5000 m/s

36. The equivalent weight of oxalic acid in C2H2O4·2H2O is (a) 45 (b) 63 (c) 90 (d) 126

29. Which one of the following could be the melting point of iron ? (a) 25°C (b) 37°C (c) 500°C (d) 1500°C

37. Which one of the following is NOT a west flowing river ? (a) Periyar (b) Bharatpuzha (c) Pamba (d) Tamraparni

30. Let us consider a copper wire having radius r and length l. Let its resistance be R. If the radius of another copper wire is 2r and the length is l/2 then the resistance of this wire will be (a) R (b) 2R (c) R/4 (d) R/8

38. Which one of the following rivers was earlier known as "Vitasta" ? (a) Tista (b) Jhelum (c) Tungabhadra (d) Bharatpuzha

31. Basic scientific principle behind a nuclear reactor is (a) Nuclear fusion (b) Controlled nuclear fusion (c) Uncontrolled nuclear fission (d) Controlled nuclear fission

39. River Sarda drains in the Northern Plains of Uttar Pradesh. Before entering in the Plains, Sarda is known as (a) Saraswati (b) Bhagirathi (c) Kali (d) Pindar

32. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct for the given reaction ? Fe(s) + CuSO4(aq) → FeSO4(aq) + Cu(s) (a) Iron is the reducing agent (b) The solution turns green in colour after the reaction (c) Copper is a more reactive metal than iron (d) The reaction is an example of a redox reaction 33. Which one of the following is an organic acid ? (a) Hydrochloric acid (b) Nitric acid (c) Acetic acid (d) Sulphuric acid 34. Dinitrogen (N2) and dioxygen (O2) are the main constituents of air but they do not react with each other to form oxides of nitrogen because (a) the reaction requires initiation by a catalyst (b) oxides of nitrogen are unstable (c) the reaction is endothermic and requires very high temperature (d) the stoichiometry of N2 and O2 in air is not ideal for the reaction to take place 35. Who among the following has explained the phenomenon of photoelectric effect ? (a) Max Planck (b) Albert Einstein (c) Neils Bohr (d) Ernest Rutherford

40. "Mission Indradhanush" is related to (a) Bullet train project (b) Agriculture development (c) Women empowerment (d) Full immunization 41. Which of the following is/are environmental effects of Rotation of the Earth ? (1) Daily or diurnal rhythm in daylight and air temperature (2) Flow path of both air and water are turned consistently in a sideward direction (3) The movement of the tides

Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 3 only 42. Who among the following historians have described the Quit India movement as a 'spontaneous revolution' ? (a) Gordon Johnson (b) David Arnold (c) F G Hutchins (d) Peter Robb

The following 3 (three) items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below :

127

SOLVED PAPERS - 2019 (I) Code : (a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I (b) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is NOT the correct explanation of Statement I (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true 43. Statement I :  Abul Fazl shaped, represented and articulated the ideas associated with the reign of Akbar Statement II :  The qualities of Abul Fazl impressed Akbar who found the former suitable as an adviser and spokesperson for his policies 44. Statement I : The Kisan manifesto adopted by the All India Kisan Sabha in August 1936 contained radical demands Statement II : The All India Kisan Sabha was a part of the Congress and maintained close relationship with the Provincial Congress Committees 45. Statement I : The British ruled India through a modern bureaucracy headed by the Indian Civil Service, whose members were recruited through merit based on open competition Statement II :  The Indian Civil Service was based on the whole hearted participation of Indians 46. Two metallic wires A and B are made using copper. The radius of wire A is r while its length is l. A dc voltage V is applied across the wire A, causing power dissipation, P. The radius of wire B is 2r and its length is 2l and the same dc voltage V is applied across it causing power dissipation P1. Which one of the following is the correct relationship between P and P1 ? (a) P = 2P1 (b) P = P1/2 (c) P = 4P1 (d) P = P1

47. Consider the following statements about a solenoid : (1) The magnetic field strength in a solenoid depends upon the number of turns per unit length in the solenoid. (2) The magnetic field strength in a solenoid depends upon the current flowing in the wire of the solenoid. (3) The magnetic field strength in a solenoid depends upon the diameter of the solenoid.

Which of the statements given above are correct ? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 2 only 48. Light year is a unit of measurement of (a) very large distances (b) time interval in years (c) amount of light received on earth in a year (d) mass of atoms 49. The focal length of the objective lens of a telescope is 50 cm. If the magnification of the telescope is 25, then the focal length of the eyepiece is (a) 12·5 cm (b) 5 cm (c) 2 cm (d) 10 cm 50. Which one of the following forces is noncentral and non-conservative ? (a) Frictional force (b) Electric force (c) Gravitational force (d) Mechanical force 51. On exposure to moist air, copper gains a green coat on its surface due to formation of which one of the following compounds ? (a) Copper carbonate (b) Copper oxide (c) Copper sulphate (d) Copper nitrate 52. Which one of the following will NOT produce carbon dioxide on reacting with an aqueous solution of hydrochloric acid ? (a) Limestone (b) Quick Lime (c) Chalk (d) Marble 53. Which one of the following substances is NOT a mixture ? (a) Ice (b) Ice-cream (c) Air (d) Honey

128

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

54. Which one of the following is an example of Salt-Crystal growth ? (a) Chemical weathering (b) Physical weathering (c) Biological weathering (d) Bio-chemical weathering

due to gravity on the surfaces of these planets are related as (a) g1 > g 2 (b) g1 < g 2 (c) g1 = g 2 (d) Can't say anything

55. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of proved coal reserves in the Indian States in decreasing order ? (a) Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, West Bengal (b) Jharkhand, Odisha, Chhaltisgarh, West Bengal (c) Odisha, West Bengal, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh (d) Odisha, Chhattisgarh, West Bengal, Jharkhand

61. The Sun is seen little before it rises and for a short while after it sets. This is because of (a) total intemal reflection (b) atmospheric refraction (c) apparent shift in the direction of Sun (d) dispersion

56. Consider the following statements relating to Richter scale : (1) It was devised in 1935 by Charles F. Richter (2) It describes the quantity of energy released by a single earthquake (3) Richter Scale has no upper limit

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) l only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 57. Which one of the following ocean currents is NOT a cold ocean current ? (a) Canary current (b) California current (c) Kuroshio current (d) Oyashio current 58. What is the time gap in occurrence of two successive tides at a given place on the ocean surface ? (a) 12 hours (b) 12 hours 26 minutes (c) 24 hours (d) 24 hours 52 minutes 59. Tooth enamel is made up of which one of the following calcium compounds ? (a) Calcium carbonate (b) Calcium sulphate (c) Calcium hydroxide (d) Calcium phosphate 60. Suppose there are two planets, 1 and 2, having the same density but their radii are R1 and R2 respectively, where R1 > R2. The accelerations

62.

t

C B A

O

x The figure shown above gives the time (t) versus position (x) graphs of three objects A, B and C. Which one of the following is the correct relation between their speeds. VA, VB and VC, respectively at any instant (t > 0) ? (a) VA < VB < VC (b) VA > VB > VC (c) VA = VB = VC ≠ 0 (d) VA = VB = VC = 0 63. 1 dyne (a unit of force in CGS system) equals to (a) 103 g cm/s2 (b) 10-3 g cm/s2 (c) 105 kg m/s2 (d) 10-5 kg m/s2 64. V (Velocity)

D

A

B

C t (time)



In the given velocity (V)versus time (t) graph, accelerated and decelerated motions are respectively represented by line segments (a) CD and BC (b) BC and AB (c) CD and AB (d) AB and CD

SOLVED PAPERS - 2019 (I) 65. Which one of the following statements regarding a thermos flask is NOT correct ? (a) The walls of flask are separated by vacuum and made of glass which is a poor conductor of heat. (b) The glass walls themselves have shiny surfaces. (c) The surface of inner wall radiates good amount of heat and the surface of outer wall absorbs some of the heat that is radiated from the inner wall. (d) The cork supports are poor conductors of heat. 66. 'Black hole' is a (a) huge black star which has zero acceleration due to gravity on its surface (b) star which has moderate acceleration due to gravity on its surface (c) star which has collapsed into itself and has large acceleration due to gravity on its surface (d) star which has collapsed into itself and has zero acceleration due to gravity on its surface 67. The formula for conversion between Fahrenheit and Celsius is °F = X + (1·8 × °C) 'What is factor X ? (a) 32 (b) 22 (c) 98 (d) 42 68. When a beam of white light passes through a glass prism, the colour of light beam that deviates the least is (a) Blue (b) Red (c) Green (d) Violet 69. LIGO stands for (a) Laser Interferometer Gravitational wave Observatory (b) Light Interferometer Gravitational wave Observatory (c) Light Induced Gravity Observatory (d) Laser Induced Gaseous Optics 70. A fuse wire must be (a) conducting and of low melting point (b) conducting and of high melting point (c) insulator and of high melting point (d) insulator and of low melting point

129 71. Karnarajar Port was commissioned in 200l to handle thermal coal requirements. It is situated along the coast of which Indian State ? (a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Odisha (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Karnataka 72. Which one of the following Union Territories of India is the smallest in terms of geographical area ? (a) Daman and Diu (b) Chandigarh (c) Dadra and Nagar Haveli (d) Lakshadwecp 73. Which one of the following can be said to be essentially related to 'Polar Front Theory' ? (a) Anticyclone (b) Tropical Cyclone (c) Temperate Cyclone (d) Inter Tropical Convergence 74. Brahmaputra and Indus rivers are antecedent rivers. Which one of the following may be the true definition of an antecedent drainage ? (a) Which follows the initial slope of the Himalaya (b) Which existed before the Himalayan range came into existence (c) Which followed the dip or rock beds of the Himalaya (d) Which followed the strikes of rock beds of the Himalaya 75. The Karachi resolution of Congress in 1931 advocated which one of the following issues ? (a) State shall not own or control key industries and services (b) State shall handover the key industries and services to the Indian business groups (c) State should allow the Indian business group , to invest fifty per cent of the caipital (d) State shall own or control key industries and services 76. The treaty of Schonbrunn (1809) was signed after which one of the following battles ? (a) Battle of Austerlitz (b) Battle of Tilsit (c) Battle of Wagram (d) Battle of Lisbon

130

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

77. Which of the following statements about The New Model Unions is/are correct ? (1) The New Model Unions were formed in the 1850s (2) The New Model Unions were formed in the 1880s (3) The New Model Unions comprised a Labour Party idea (4) The New Model Unions excluded women in the 1920s

(b) The election follows the system of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote (c) 1/3rd of its members retire after every two years (d) It is a permanent body, but can be dissolved earlier by the President

(c) Bukharin (d) Lenin

87. IMBEX is a joint exercise conducted regularly between Armies of India and (a) Malaysia (b) Maldives (c) Mauritius (d) Myanmar

83. Fundamental right guaranteed under which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India is available only to the citizens of India ? Select the correct answer using the code given (a) Article l 9 (b) Article 20 below : (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) Article 21 (d) Article 22 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 3 only 84. The treaty of Yandabo was signed in (a) 1826 (b) 1825 78. The Truman Doctrine of 1947 was announced to achieve which one of the following ? (c) 1824 (d) 1823 (a) Containment of the USSR 85. In the Manusmriti which form of marriage (b) Increasing agricultural production in the results from the "Voluntary union of a maiden USA and her lover" ? (c) Offering friendship to Europe (a) Eighth form (b) Fifth form (d) Strengthening the UNO (c) Seventh form (d) Sixth form 79. Which of the following statements is/are 86. Consider the following description of the correct ? Samadhi of a former Prime Minister of India : (1) In 1948, Burma was admitted to the United Central Samadhi platform comprises nine Nations and immediately supported the square black polished granite solid stone blocks, USA in the Cold War capped with a 'Diya' in the centre. The number (2) In 1948, Burma joined the United Nations nine holds significance and represents the but refused to denounce China as the navarasas, navaratras and navagrahas. Then aggressor in the Korean War placement of the nine-square Samadhi is in a circular lotus shaped pattern. The nine-square Select the correct answer using the code geven platform is accessed in four cardinal directions below : by pathways made in white composite tiles so (a) 1 only (b) 2 only that the floor does not gt heated. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Identify the Samadhi : 80. Who among the following presented 'The (a) Shakti Sthal (b) Shantivan April Theses' to the Russian people in 1917 ? (c) Sadaiv Atal (d) Veer Bhumi (a) Stalin (b) Trotsky 81. An Election Commissioner can be removed from office on the recommendation of (a) The Chief Justice of India (b) The Chief Election Commissioner (c) The President of India (d) The Parliament 82. Which one of the following statements regarding the Rajya Sabha is NOT correct ? (a) Its members are elected by the elected members of the Legislative Assembly of a State

88. Who among the following was awarded. The Hindu Prize in Fiction category for the year 2018 ? (a) Neelum Saran Gour (b) N Kalyan Raman (c) Manoranjan Byapari (d) Arunav Sinha 89. Who among ihe following was appointed as head of the seven member committee to look into revenue shortfall being faced by the states

131

SOLVED PAPERS - 2019 (I) after the GST roll-out in India and suggest steps for augmenting collections ? (a) Himanta Biswa Sharma (b) Thomas Isaac (c) Sushil Modi (d) Capt Abhimanyu 90. The 15th Pravasi Bharatiya Divas, 2019 was held in (a) New Delhi (b) Gandhi Nagar (c) Prayagraj (d) Varanasi 91. Which one of the following cities was named by UNESCO as World Capital of Architecture for 2020 ? (a) Tokyo (b) Johannesburg (c) Rio de Janerio (d) New Delhi 92. Who among the following was named ICC's emerging player of the year 2018 ? (a) Rishabh Pant (b) Josh Hazlewood (c) Hasan Ali (d) Mustafizur Rahman 93. India's first private sector Howitzer gunmaking unit is located at (a) Jamshedpur (b) Kolkata (c) Hazira (d) Gwalior 94. Which of the following pairs of old names and new names of islands in India is/are correctly matched ? (1) Ross Island  : Shaheed Dweep (2) Neil Island  : Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose Dweep (3) Havelock Island  : Swaraj Dweep Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 3 only 95. Who among the following was posthumously conferred with the Ashoka Chakra, India's highest peacetime gallantry award, in 2019 ? (a) Jyoti Prakash Nirala (b) Nazir Ahmad Wani

 

Finished Solving the Paper ? Time to evaluate yourself !

SCAN THE CODE

For elaborated Solutions

(c) Hangpan Dada (d) Mohan Nath Goswami 96. As per the code of the nomenclature, which one of the following is the correct way of writing a biological name ? (a) Amoeba Proteus (b) Amoeba proteus (c) amoeba proteus (d) amoeba Proteus 97. Which one of the following statements regarding Electrocardiogram is correct' ? (a) Electrocardiogram is graphical representation of electrical activity of cornea. (b) Electrocardiogram is graphical representation of activity of kidney. (c) Electrocardiogram is graphical representation of activity of brain. (d) Electrocardiogram is graphical representation of electrical activity of heart. 98. Which one of the following statements regarding Penicillin is correct ? (a) Penicillin resistant bacteria can store this antibiotic in vacuole. (b) Penicillin resistant bacteria can degrade this antibiotic by an enzyme called b-lactamase. (c) Penicillin resistant bacteria can degrade this antibiotic by an enzyme called lactic acid dehydrogenase. (d) Penicillin is not absorbed by bacteria; so most bacteria are resistant. 99. Which one of the following organelles of mammalian cell is rich in hydrolytic enzymes ? (a) Mitochondria (b) Ribosomes (c) Lysosome (d) Nucleus 100. Which one of the following statements regarding Cholera is correct ? (a) Cholera is a disease that causes loss of memory. (b) Cholera is a disease of muscles due to consumption of alcohol. (c) Cholera is a disease due to consumption of contaminated food or water. (d) Cholera is a genetic disease.

SCAN

132

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

Answers Q No

Answer Key

Topic Name

Chapter Name

1

(d)

Plasma Membrane

Cell

2

(a)

Ribosomes

Cell

3

(c)

Vascular Tissues

Plant Anatomy

4

(c)

Algae & Fungi

Plant Kingdom

5

(a)

Ecological Pyramid

Ecosystem

6

(a)

Tides

Ocean Currents and Tides Atmosphere and its composition

7

(b)

Atoms

Elementary ideas about the structure of Atom

8

(a)

Scattering

Ray Optics

9

(c)

Energy

Work, Energy and Power

10

(d)

Nuclear Reactor

Nuclear Reactions and Radioactivity

11

(c)

Soaps and Detergents

Some Important Chemical Compounds

12

(b)

Chemical Properties of Alkanes

Hydrocarbons

13

(c)

Reactivity of Metals with Water

Metals and Non-Metals

14

(b)

Isoelectronic Species

Structure of Atom

15

(d)

Paints

Some Important Chemical Compounds

16

(c)

Air

Properties of Air and Water

17

(c)

Headquarters

Current Affairs

18

(c)

Natural vegetation.

Major Natural regions of the World

19

(a)

distribution of agriculture

Major Natural regions of the World

20

(d)

Local Winds

Winds

21

(a)

Rainfall

Types of Climates

22

(c)

Books and Author

Current Affairs

23

(a)

Azamgarh Proclamation

Freedom Movement in India

24

(d)

Viceroy

Viceroy and Governor Generals

25

(a)

Capitalism

Basic Teachings of Mahatma Gandhi

26

(b)

Art and Culture

Current Affairs

27

(b)

Charge

Electrostatics

28

(c)

Sound

Waves

29

(d)

Latent Heat

Thermal Properties of Matter

30

(d)

Resistance

Current Electricity

31

(d)

Nuclear Reaction

Nuclei

32

(c)

Reactivity of Metals

Redox Reactions

33

(c)

Organic Acid

Acids

34

(c)

Composition of Air

Environmental Chemistry

35

(b)

Photoelectric Effect

Structure of Atom

36

(b)

Basicity of Acids

Atomic Mass and Equivalent Mass

37

(d)

Rivers

Current Affairs

38

(b)

Rivers

Current Affairs

133

SOLVED PAPERS - 2019 (I)

Q No

Answer Key

Topic Name

Chapter Name

39

(c)

Rivers

Current Affairs

30

(d)

Government Schemes

Current Affairs

41

(c)

Rotation of Earth

The Earth, its shape and size

42

(c)

Quit India Movement

Basic Teachings of Mahatma Gandhi

43

(a)

Abul Fazal

Mughal Dynasty

44

(b)

All India Kisan Sabha

Indian National Congress

45

(c)

Indian Civil Service

Indian National Congress

46

(b)

Electric Power

Current Electricity

47

(d)

Solenoid

Magnetic Effect of Electric Current

48

(a)

Units

Units and Measurements

49

(c)

Optical Instruments

Ray Optics

50

(a)

Force

Laws of Motion

51

(a)

Rusting of Metals

Redox Reactions

52

(b)

Quicklime

Some Important Chemical Compounds

53

(a)

Mixture

Elements, Compounds and Mixtures

54

(b)

Weathering

Temperature and Atmospheric Pressure

55

(b)

Coal

Current Affairs

56

(d)

Earthquakes

Earthquakes and Volcanoes

57

(c)

Ocean Currents and Tides Atmosphere and its composition

Geography

58

(b)

Ocean Currents and Tides Atmosphere and its composition

Geography

59

(d)

Compounds

Elements, Compounds and Mixtures

60

(a)

Gravity

Gravitation

61

(b)

Atmospheric Refraction

Ray Optics

62

(b)

Graphical Representation of Motion

Motion

63

(d)

Units

Units and Measurements

64

(c)

Graphical Representation of Motion

Motion

65

(c)

Thermo Flask

Thermodynamics

66

(c)

Black Body

Thermal Properties of Matter

67

(a)

Fundamental Units Temperature

Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry

68

(b)

Dispersion

Ray Optics

69

(a)

Gravitational Force

Gravitation

70

(a)

Fuse

Current Electricity

71

(c)

Port

Current Affairs

72

(d)

Union Territories

Current Affairs

73

(c)

Polar Front Theory

Physical Properties and States of Matter

134

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

Q No

Answer Key

Topic Name

Chapter Name

74

(b)

Rivers

Regional Geography of India

75

(d)

Karachi Resolution

Indian National Congress

76

(c)

Wars

Forces shaping the modern world

77

(a)

Labour Party

Forces shaping the modern world

78

(a)

Truman Doctrine

Forces shaping the modern world

79

(b)

Burma

Forces shbping the modern world

80

(d)

Industrial Revolution and Russian Revolution

Russian Revolution

81

(b)

Election Commissioner

Election Commission

82

(d)

Rajya Sabha

Indian Parliament

83

(a)

Fundamantal Rights

Elementary study of Indian Constitution and Administration

84

(a)

Treaty of Yandabo

Forces shaping the modern world

85

(d)

Manusmriti

A broad survey of Indian History

86

(c)

Prime Minister

Elementary study of Indian Constitution and Administration

87

(d)

Joint Military Exercise

Current Affairs

88

(a)

Awards

Current Affairs

89

(c)

Appointments

Current Affairs

90

(d)

Important Days

Current Affairs

91

(c)

Important Cities

Current Affairs

92

(a)

Sports

Current Affairs

93

(c)

Important Cities

Current Affairs

94

(d)

Islands

Current Affairs

95

(b)

Awards

Current Affairs

96

(b)

Biological Names

Biological Classification

97

(d)

Electrocardiogram

Blood Circulation

98

(b)

Antibodies

Microbes

99

(c)

Lysosomes

Cell

100

(c)

Communicable Disease

Human Disease

NDA / NA

GENERAL ABILITY TEST

National Defence Academy / Naval Academy

Time : 1hr 40mins

iI

question Paper

2019 Total Marks : 400

Important Instructions : 1. This Test contains 100 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case, you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. 2. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. 3. All items carry equal marks. 4. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions. 5. Penalty for wrong answers : THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS. (i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one·third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. (ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question. (iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.

1. A thin disc and a thin ring, both have mass M and radius R. Both rotate about axes through their center of mass and perpendicular to their surfaces at the same angular velocity. Which of the following is true? (a) The ring has higher kinetic energy. (b) The disc has higher kinetic energy. (c) The ring and the disc have the same kinetic energy. (d) Kinetic energies of both the bodies are zero since they are not in linear motion. 2. Let there be an object having some chemicals in it. It starts moving with a uniform velocity v and a chemical reaction starts happening. In this case, which of the following statement/s is/ are correct? (1) Chemical reactions happening in the system cannot change the velocity v of the center of mass of the object. (2) Chemical reactions happening in the system cannot change kinetic energy of the particles inside with respect to the center of mass of object.

Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

3. In which of the following phenomena do heat waves travel along a straight line with the speed of light? (a) Thermal conduction (b) Thermal convection (c) Thermal radiation (d) Both, thermal conduction and radiation 4. Which one of the following statements regarding Ohm’s law is not correct? (a) Ohm’s law is an assumption that current through a conductor is always directly proportional to the potential difference applied to it. (b) A conducting device obeys Ohm’s law when the resistance of a device is independent of magnitude and polarity of applied potential difference. (c) A conducting material obeys Ohm’s law when the resistance of material is independent of the magnitude and direction of applied electric field. (d) All homogeneous materials obey Ohm’s law irrespective of whether the field is within range or strong. 5. When a ball bounces off the ground, which of the following changes suddenly? (Assume no loss of energy to the floor)

136

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

(a) Its speed (b) Its momentum (c) Its kinetic energy (d) Its potential energy

12. A sample of ‘soft soap’ contains (a) Caesium (b) Potassium (c) Calcium (d) Magnesium

6. Which one of the following compounds does not exhibit a different oxidtaion number of the same element? (a) Pb3O4 (b) Fe3O4 (c) Fe2O3 (d) Mn3O4 7. Which one of the following statements about glass is not correct? (a) Glass is often said to be a supercooled liquid. (b) Glass has no definite melting point. (c) Soda glass is harder than pyrex glass. (d) Boron is present in pyrex glass. 8. Which one of the following statements is correct? (a) Both boiling and evaporation are surface phenomena. (b) Boiling is a surface phenomenon, but evaporation is a bulk phenomenon. (c) Both boiling and evaporation are bulk phenomena. (d) Boiling is a bulk phenomenon, but evaporation is surface phenomenon. 9. Which one of the following statements about diamond and graphite is not correct? (a) Diamond has a tetrahedral structure, whereas graphite has a hexagonal planar structure. (b) Both physical and chemical properties of diamond and graphite are different. (c) Graphite is soft but diamond is hard. (d) Graphite is a good conductor of electricity while diamond is not. 10. The raw materials used for the manufacture of Portland cement are (a) Lime, silica and sulphur dioxide (b) Lime, silica and carbon dioxide (c) Lime, silica and alumina (d) Lime, silica and boric acid 11. Which one of the following statements about water is not true? (a) Hydrogen bonds are present in liquid water. (b) Water has a high boiling point. (c) Water has a high heat of fusion. (d) Water is a non-polar molecule.

13. If an object moves at a non-zero constant acceleration for a certain interval of time, then the distance it covers in that time (a) depends on its initial velocity. (b) is independent of its initial velocity. (c) increases linearly with time. (d) depends on its initial displacement. 14. A solid disc and a solid sphere have the same mass and same radius. Which one has the higher moment of inertia about its centre of mass? (a) The disc (b) The sphere (c) Both have the same moment of inertia (d) The information provided is not sufficient to answer the question 15. Two substances of densities ρ1 and ρ2 are mixed in equal volume and their relative density is 4. When they are mixed in equal masses, relative density is 3. The values of ρ1 and ρ2 respectively are (a) 6, 2 (b) 3, 5 (c) 12, 4 (d) 9, 3 16. A car starts from Bengaluru, goes 50 km in a straight line towards south, immediately turns around and returns to Bengaluru. The time taken for this round trip is 2 hours. The magnitude of the average velocity of the car for this round trip (a) is 0 (b) is 50 km/hr (c) is 25 km/hr (d) cannot be calculated without knowing acceleration 17. “The sum of emf ’s and potential differences around a closed loop equals zero” is a consequence of (a) Ohm’s law (b) Conservation of charge (c) Conservation of momentum (d) Conservation of energy. 18. A student measures certain lengths using a meter scale having least count equal to 1 mm.

137

SOLVED PAPERS - 2019 (Ii) Which one of the following measurements is more precise? (a) 0.50 mm (b) 29.07 cm (c) 0.925 m (d) 910 mm 19. If the work done on the system or by the system is zero, which one of the following statements for a gas kept at a certain temperature is correct? (a) Change in internal energy of the system is equal to flow of heat in or out of the system. (b) Change in internal energy of the system is less than heat transferred. (c) Change in internal energy of the system is more than the heat flow. (d) Cannot be determined. 20. Consider the following part of an electric circuit : 2 ohm 1 ohm

4 ohm 8 ohm

The total electrical resistance in the given part of the electric circuit is

15 (a) ohm 8

(b)

15 ohm 7

17 ohm 3 21. Which one of the following statements regarding lenses is not correct? (a) A convex lens produces both real and virtual images. (b) A concave lens produces both real and virtual images. (c) A convex lens can produce images equal, greater and smaller than the size of the object. (d) A concave lens always produces images smaller than the size of the object.

(c) 15 ohm

(d)

22. 10 g of ice at -10 °C is is mixed with 10 g of water at 0 °C. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of mixture to 10 °C is (a) 400 cal (b) 550 cal (c) 1050 cal (d) 1200 cal 23. Which one of the following does not represent the salt, Calcium carbonate? (a) Lime water (b) Limestone (c) Chalk (d) Marble

24. Soaps clean surfaces on the principle based on (a) Viscosity (b) Floatation (c) Elasticity (d) Surface tension 25. Which one of the following substances is not a mixture? (a) Tin (b) Sea water (c) Soil (d) Air 26. Which one of the following is termed as ‘Dry ice’? (a) Ice present in ice-cream (b) Solid water at Antarctica (c) Solid state of carbon dioxide (d) Solid water of ionosphere 27. Net movement of water from a dilute to a concentrated solution through a selectively permeable membrane is called (a) Diffusion (b) Dispersion (c) Osmosis (d) Absorption 28. Blood is a type of (a) Epithelial tissue (c) Nervous tissue

(b) Muscular tissue (d) Connective tissue

29. Mitochondria are able to produce their own (a) Nucleus (b) Proteins (c) Chloroplasts (d) Digestive enzymes 30. Which one of the following statements is correct? (a) Xylem consists of tracheids, vessels, xylem parenchyma and xylem fibres. (b) Flexibility in plants is due to sclerenchyma. (c) Parenchyma have no intercellular spaces. (d) Xylem consists of sieve plate, sieve tube and companion cells. 31. Who among the following popularized the use of embryological characters in taxonomy? (a) Carl Linnaeus (b) Panchanan Maheshwari (c) Bribal Sahni (d) Bentham and Hooker 32. Water is heated with a coil of resistance R connected to domestic supply. The rise of temperature of water will depend on (1) Supply voltage. (2) Current passing through the coil. (3) Time for which voltage is supplied.

Select the correct answer from among the following :

138 (a) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1 only

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS (b) 1 and 2 only (d) 2 and 3 only

33. A pendulum clock is lifted to a height where the gravitational acceleration has a certain value g. Another pendulum clock of same length but of double the mass of the bob is lifted to another height where the gravitational acceleration is g . The time period of the second pendulum 2 would be : (in terms of period T of the first pendulum) (a) 2T

(b)

(c) 2 2T

(d) T

1 2

T

34. The loudness of sound depends upon the (a) velocity of sound waves in the medium. (b) amplitude of the sound waves. (c) frequency of the sound waves. (d) frequency and velocity of the sound waves. 35. Two bodies of mass M each are placed R distance apart. In another system, two bodies R distance apart. If 2 F be the gravitational force between the bodies in the first system, then the gravitational force between the bodies in the second system will be (a) 16 F (b) 1 F (c) 4 F (d) None of these of mass 2M each are placed

36. Light rays move in straight lines. But through an optical fibre, they can move in any type of zigzag path because : (a) the holes through the fibre are extremely fine. (b) light rays are absorbed at the entry end and relieved at the exit end of the fibre. (c) scattering of lights occurs inside the fibre. (d) successive total internal reflections occur as a ray moves through the fibre. 37. Which one of the following statements regarding cathode rays is not correct ? (a) Cathode ray particles are electrons. (b) Cathode ray particles start from anode and move towards cathode. (c) In the absence of electrical and magnetic fields, cathode rays travel in straight lines.

(d) Television picture tubes are cathode ray tubes. 38. A very large volume of hydrogen can be accommodated by making (a) non-metallic hydrides (b) hydrogen peroxide (c) non-stoichiometric hydrides (d) alkali metal hydrides 39. Which one of the following is not a monatomic element? (a) Copper (b) Helium (c) Iodine (d) Barium 40. Which one of the following represents the correct order of electron releasing tendency of metals ? (a) Zn > Cu > Ag (b) Ag > Cu > Zn (c) Cu > Zn > Ag (d) Cu > Ag > Zn 41. Which one of the following is the major constituent of biogas? (a) Carbon dioxide (b) Nitrous oxide (c) Methane (d) Oxygen 42. Thyroid gland produces a hormone called ‘Thyroxine’ which (a) controls blood glucose levels (b) controls ovulation (c) controls metabolic rate (d) maintains pregnancy 43. Which one of the following is a bacterium that causes disease in the human body ? (a) Varicella zoster (b) Trypanosoma gambiense (c) Salmonella typhi (d) Plasmodium falciparum 44. Which one of the following statements regarding viruses is not true ? (a) Viruses need living cells to reproduce. (b) All viruses are parasites. (c) Viruses can synthesize their food through photosynthesis. (d) Viruses are similar to chemical substances outside the host. 45. Which one of the following diseases may be caused by the deficiency of vitamin C ? (a) Rickets (b) Rabies (c) Hepatitis (d) Scurvy

139

SOLVED PAPERS - 2019 (Ii) 46. Compared to audible sound waves, ultrasound waves have (a) higher speed. (b) higher frequency. (c) longer wavelength. (d) both higher speed and frequency.

53. The rivers of North-West Europe are good examples of (a) parallel pattern of drainage. (b) radial pattern of drainage. (c) barbed pattern of drainage. (d) trellis pattern of drainage.

47. A rigid body of mass 2 kg is dropped from a stationary balloon kept at a height of 50 m from the ground. The speed of the body when it just touches the ground and the total energy when it is dropped from the balloon are respectively. (acceleration due to gravity = 9.8 m/s2) (a) 980 m.s-1 and 980 J

54. Which one of the following ocean currents is a cold current ? (a) south Atlantic Drift (b) Mozambique Current (c) East Australian Current (d) Caribbean Current

(b) 980 m.s-1 and 980 J 980 m.s-1 and 980 J (c) -1 (d) 980 m.s and 980 J

48. The temperature of a place on one sunny day is 113 in Fahrenheit scale. The Kelvin scale reading of this temperature will be (a) 318 K (b) 45 K (c) 62.8 K (d) 335.8 K 49. Radiations coming from the Sun are mostly in the form of (a) light only. (b) light and long wavelength infrared. (c) light and short wavelength infrared. (d) both short and long wavelength infrared.

55. Paradeep Port is located on the delta of river (a) Rihand (b) Ganga (c) Mahanadi (d) Baitarani 56. Which one of the following hypothesis theory explains the origin of the universe ? (a) Nebular hypothesis (b) Binary theory (c) Big Bang theory (d) Planetesimal hypothesis 57. Which among the following struggles, based on Gandhi’s philosophy of Satyagraha, involved the industrial working class ? (a) Champaran (b) Kheda (c) Ahmedabad (d) Bardoli

50. Which of the following are the characteristics of electromagnetic waves ? (1) They are elastic waves. (2) They can also move in vacuum. (3) They have electric and magnetic components which are mutually perpendicular. (4) They move with a speed equal to 3 lakh metres per second.

58. Consider the following statements related to the Virashaiva tradition in Karnataka : (1) The Virashaiva movement was led by a Brahmana named Basavanna, a minister in the court of the Kalachuri ruler in the twelfth century. (2) The Virashaivas encouraged practices, approved by the Dharmashastras, like post-puberty marriages and remarriage of widows.



Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 and 4 only



51. Which one of the following is a non-metallic mineral ? (a) Iron (b) Mica (c) Copper (d) Bauxite

59. Consider the following statements related to Wellesley’s administration : (1) In the six years of Wellesley’s administration, the army accounted for 42.5 percent of the Company’s total expenditure. (2) Wellesley’s administrative measures were restricted to the affairs of the Company and had nothing to do with the commercial and military affairs of the Indian ruling families.

52. Which one of the following is a Rabi crop in the Northern States of India ? (a) Rice (b) Bajra (c) Barley (d) Ragi

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

140

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS



Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

66. How many Ramsar conservation sites have been enlisted from India so far ? (a) 12 (b) 16 (c) 27 (d) 62

60. Consider the following statements concerning the Russian Revolution : (1) The Bolsheviks believed that in a repressive society like Tsarist Russia, the party should be disciplined and should control the number of its members. (2) The Mensheviks believed that the party should be opened to all (as in Germany)

67. The munda language group belongs to which family ? (a) Austric (b) Dravidian (c) Sino-Tibetan (d) Indo-European



Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 61. Which of the following was/were among the decisions taken by the First Continental Congress held in Philadelphia in September 1774 ? (1) It rejected a plan for a colonial union under the British authority. (2) It drew up a statement of grievances. (3) It agreed upon a scheme to stop trade between the Colonies and England.

Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 62. Which one of the following land territories of Indonesia is not touched by the Equator ? (a) Sumatra (b) Sulawesi (c) Java (d) Kalimantan 63. Which one of the following sedimentary rocks is organically formed ? (a) Shale (b) Chert (c) Halite (d) Chalk 64. According to the Koppen climatic classification, the letter code Cfa denotes (a) Tropical wet climate (b) Humid subtropical climate (c) Tundra climate (d) Tropical wet and dry climate 65. In which one of the following folds is the axial plane found to be virtually horizontal? (a) Isoclinal (b) Anticlinal (c) Recumbent (d) Monoclinal

68. Which one of the following statements about the Suez Canal is not correct ? (a) The Suez Canal was constructed in 1869. (b) It links the Mediterranean Sea and the Red Sea. (c) It has a six lock system and ships cross the different levels through these locks. (d) It has given Europe a new gateway to the Indian Ocean. 69. Which among the following statements is not correct about the Reign of Terror ? (a) The Jacobins dashed out the Girondists with the help of sans-culottes. (b) The Jacobins were in league with the French clergy. (c) The arrest for anti-revolutionary activities was by law restricted to the political class. (d) The Reign of Terror came to an end with the execution of Robespierre by guillotine in July 1794. 70. Who among the following was the first Indian to qualify for the Indian Civil Service ? (a) Satyendranath Tagore (b) Surendranath Banerjee (c) R.C. Dutt (d) Subhas Chandra Bose 71. Which among the following was/were among the factors for England to experience the Industrial Revolution first ? (1) The scientific inventions had paved the way for Industrial Revolution. (2) It had favourable social and political structures in place. (3) Navigable rivers had made inland transport easier. (4) It had seen the ascendancy of capitalist practices.

141

SOLVED PAPERS - 2019 (Ii)

Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 72. Article 46 of the Constitution of India refers to the promotion of educational and economic interests of (a) religious minorities. (b) Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and other weaker sections. (c) displaced persons from large irrigation projects. (d) the economically deprived. 73. Who was the Education Minister in the first Cabinet of independent India ? (a) Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan (b) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel (c) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad (d) Acharya Narendra Dev 74. Who among the following died in exile ? (a) Rani Laxmibai (b) Bahadur Shah Zafar (c) Tantia Tope (d) Nana Saheb 75. The normal lapse rate of temperature of Earth's atmosphere drops to 0° C at the (a) upper part of ionosphere. (b) upper-boundary of the tropopause. (c) lower part of mesosphere. (d) upper boundary of stratopause. 76. The headquarters of National Research Laboratory for Conservation of Cultural Property (NRLC) is located at (a) New Delhi (b) Lucknow (c) Kolkata (d) Bhopal 77. Loktak lake is situated in the State of (a) Sikkim (b) Manipur (c) Odisha (d) Mizoram 78. Stalactite, stalagmite and pillars are the depositional landforms of (a) running water. (b) wind. (c) glacier. (d) underground water. 79. A deep valley characterized by steep step-like slope is known as (a) U-shaped valley. (b) Blind valley. (c) Gorge. (d) Canyon.

80. Which one of the following is a major plate ? (a) Pacific Plate (b) Cocos Plate (c) Arabian Plate (d) Philippine Plate 81. Lithosphere consists of (a) upper and lower mantle. (b) crust and core. (c) crust and uppermost solid mantle. (d) mantle and core. 82. The principal component(s) of NehruMahalonobis strategy of economic development was/were (1) Restructuring economic dependency on metropolitan capitalism into independent economic development. (2) Transition from semi-feudal agriculture to capitalist farming.

Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 83. The provisions of the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India shall not apply to the administration and control of the Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in (1) Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand and Odisha (2) Assam and Tripura (3) Meghalaya and Mizoram

Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 84. Consider the following statements related to Dayanand’s idea of social reform : (1) Dayanand’s reform envisaged a social order, where different castes performed functions suitable to their status determined by merit. (2) Dayanand’s ‘robust Vedic counterpart’ challenged the masculine West that had enslaved the Aryavarta.

Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 85. Consider the following statements concerning the American War of Independence : (1) The Americans raised the slogan, ‘No taxation without representation’. (2) The American merchants resorted to the boycott of the British products.

142

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS



92. During the Swadeshi movement, a National College was started in Calcutta under the principalship of (a) Rabindranath Tagore (b) Aurobindo Ghosh (c) Rajani Kant Sen (d) Syed Abu Mohammad 93. The ruins of Vijayanagara (Hampi) were brought to public light in the year 1800 by the following British surveyor and engineer : (a) James Prinsep (b) Colin Mackenzie (c) James Rennell (d) Charles Metcalfe 94. Which country among the following was not a part of the Third Coalition against Napolean ? (a) Russia (b) Prussia (c) Sweden (d) France 95. Which one of the following pairs of travellers and their nationality is not correctly matched? (a) Ibn Battuta - Moroccan (b) Duarte Barbosa - Portuguese (c) Jean Baptiste Tavernier - Dutch (d) Niccolao Manucci - Venetian 96. World Humanitarian Day is celebrated on (a) 26th June (b) 17th July th (c) 19 August (d) 27th September 97. Which one of the following is the name given to the lander of Chandrayaan-2? (a) Vigyan (b) Anusandhan (c) Pragyan (d) Vikram 98. Along with Pranab Mukherjee, how many more persons were conferred the Bharat Ratna Award in the year 2019 ? (a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four 99. Aiswhwarya Pissay excels in which one of the following sports ? (a) Badminton (b) Boxing (c) Motorsports (d) Chess 100. Which one of the following films was adjudged as the Best Feature Film in the 66th National Film Awards ? (a) Bulbul Can Sing (b) Hellaro (c) Badhaai Ho (d) Uri

Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) 1 only (b) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Both 1 nor 2 86. The first UDAY (Utkrisht Double Decker AirConditioned Yatri) Express train runs between (a) Delhi and Kalka (b) Bengaluru and Coimbatore (c) Chennai and Visakhapatnam (d) Chennai and Bengaluru 87. Who among the following were selected for the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award 2019 ? (a) Vijay Kumar and Yogeshwar Dutt (b) Sakshi Malik and Jitu Rai (c) Virat Kohli and Mirabai Chanu (d) Bajrang Punia and Deepa Malik 88. Betel leaf of which one of the following States has been accorded a GI tag recently ? (a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Madhya Pradesh (c) Kerala (d) Mizoram 89. SAMARTH is a flagship skill development scheme of which one of the following Ministries ? (a) Ministry of Textiles (b) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare (c) Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (d) Ministry of Human Resources Development 90. CORAS is a separate Commando Unit of (a) National Security Guard (b) Central Industrial Security Force (c) Railway Protection Force (d) Central Reserve Police Force 91. Which one of the following statements is not true about Ijarah system ? (a) It was a system of revenue farming. (b) It encouraged the role of middlemen. (c) Under this system, land revenue was fixed for the peasant. (d) The ijaradar paid a fixed amount to the State treasury.

 

Finished Solving the Paper ? Time to evaluate yourself !

SCAN THE CODE

For elaborated Solutions

SCAN

143

SOLVED PAPERS - 2019 (Ii)

Answers Q No

Answer Key

Topic Name

Chapter Name

1

(a)

Moment of Inertia

System of Particles and Rotational Motion

2

(a)

Centre of Mass

System of Particles and Rotational Motion

3

(c)

Heat Transfer

Thermal Properties of Matter

4

(d)

Ohm's Law

Current Electricity

5

(b)

Momentum

Laws of Motion

6

(c)

Oxidation State

Redox Reactions

7

(c)

Glass

Elements, Compounds and Mixtures

8

(d)

Properties of Liquid

States of Matter

9

(b)

Allotropes of Carbon

Carbon and Compounds of Carbon

10

(c)

Cement

Some Important Chemical Compounds

11

(d)

Water

Properties of Air and Water

12

(b)

Soaps and Detergents

Some Important Chemical Compounds

13

(a)

Acceleration

Motion

14

(a)

Moment of Inertia

System of Particles and Rotational Motion

15

(a)

Density

Mechanical Properties of Fluid

16

(a)

Velocity

Motion

17

(d)

Electromagnetic Force

Current Electricity

18

(c)

Precision

Units and Measurement

19

(a)

First Law of Thermodynamics Thermodynamics

20

(b)

Resistance

Current Electricity

21

(b)

Lenses

Ray Optics

22

(c)

Latent Heat

Thermal Properties of Matter

23

(a)

Limestone

Some Important Chemical Compounds

24

(d)

Soap

Mixtures and Compounds

25

(a)

Elements

Elements, Compounds and Mixtures

26

(c)

Carbon dioxide

Carbon and Its Compound

27

(c)

Properties of Solutions

Solutions

28

(d)

Blood

Tissues and Tissues

29

(b)

Mitochondria

Cell

30

(a)

Xylem

Plant Anatomy

31

(b)

Tissue Culture

Strategies of Enhancement

32

(a)

Joule's Law

Current Electricity

33

(a)

Simple Pendulum

Oscillations

34

(b)

Sound

Waves

35

(a)

Gravitational Force

Gravitation

36

(d)

Total Internal Reflection

Ray Optics

37

(b)

Cathode rays

Physical Properties and States of Matter

38

(c)

Hydrogen

Preparation and Properties

39

(c)

Atomicity

Elements, Compounds and Mixtures

40

(a)

Reactivity of Metals

Metals and Non-Metals

144

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

Q No

Answer Key

Topic Name

Chapter Name

41

(c)

Alkanes

Hydrocarbons

42

(c)

Thyroid Gland

Chemical Coordination

43

(c)

Disease

Human Disease

44

(c)

Viruses

Biological Classification

45

(d)

Disease

Human Disease

46

(b)

Sound

Waves

47

(d)

Energy

Work, Energy and Power

48

(a)

Temperature

Thermal Properties of Matter

49

(c)

Properties of Electromagnetic Electromagnetic Waves Waves

50

(c)

Properties of Electromagnetic Electromagnetic Waves Waves

51

(b)

Metallurgy

Ores and Minerals

52

(c)

Agriculture

Regional Geography of India

53

(a)

Rivers

Major Natural regions of the World

54

(a)

Ocean Currents

Ocean Currents and Tides Atmosphere and its composition

55

(c)

Port

Current Affairs

56

(c)

Big Bang Theory

Origin of the Universe

57

(c)

Satyagraha

Basic Teachings of Mahatma Gandhi

58

(a)

Virashaiva Movement

Forces shaping the modern world

59

(d)

Viceroy

Viceroy and Governor Generals

60

(c)

Bolsheviks

Russian Revolution

61

(b)

First Contitnental Congress

Forces shaping the modern world

62

(c)

Equator

Latitudes and Longitudes

63

(d)

Rocks

Origin of Earth. Rocks and their classification

64

(b)

Climates

Types of Climates

65

(c)

Axial Plane

Physical Properties and States of Matter

66

(c)

Conservation Sites

Current Affairs

67

(a)

Languages

Current Affairs

68

(c)

Suez Canal

Major Natural regions of the World

69

(c)

Reign of Terror

Forces shaping the modern world;

70

(a)

Selections

Current Affairs

71

(d)

Factoe of England

Industrial Revolution

72

(b)

Indian Constitution

Elementary study of Indian Constitution and Administration

73

(c)

Cabinet Ministry

Current Affairs

74

(b)

Famous Personalities

Freedom Movement in India

75

(b)

Earth Atmosphere

Temperature and Atmospheric Pressure

76

(b)

Headquarters

Current Affairs

77

(b)

Lakes

Current Affairs

78

(d)

Depositional Landforms

Mineral and Power resources

145

SOLVED PAPERS - 2019 (Ii)

Q No

Answer Key

Topic Name

Chapter Name

79

(d)

Valleys

The Earth, its shape and size

80

(a)

Plates

The Earth, its shape and size

81

(c)

Lithosphere

The Earth, its shape and size

82

(d)

Nehru Mahalonobis Plan

Elementary knowledge of Five Year Plans of India

83

(c)

Schedules

Elementary study of Indian Constitution and Administration

84

(b)

Dayanand Saraswati

Role of India in the present world

85

(c)

War of Independence

86

(b)

UDAY Train

Current Affairs

87

(d)

Awards

Current Affairs

88

(c)

GI Tag

Current Affairs

89

(a)

Governmental Schemes

Current Affairs

90

(c)

Defence

Current Affairs

91

(c)

Ijarah System

A broad survey of Indian History, with emphasis on Culture and Civilisation

92

(b)

Swadeshi Movement

Freedom Movement in India

93

(b)

Vijayanagar

Forces shaping the modern world

94

(d)

Napolean

Exploration and Discovery

95

(c)

Foreign travellers

A broad survey of Indian History, with emphasis on Culture and Civilisation

96

(c)

Important days

Current Affairs

97

(d)

Satellites

Current Affairs

98

(b)

Awards

Current Affairs

99

(c)

Sports

Current Affairs

100

(b)

Awards

Current Affairs

American Forces shaping the modern world

NDA / NA

GENERAL ABILITY TEST

National Defence Academy / Naval Academy

Time : 1hr 40 mins

I

QUESTION PAPER

2018 Total Marks : 400

Important Instructions : 1. This Test contains 100 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case, you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. 2. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. 3. All items carry equal marks. 4. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions. 5. Penalty for wrong answers : THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS. (i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one·third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. (ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question. (iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.

1. Which one of the following statements is correct ? (a) Any energy transfer that does not involve temperature difference in some way is not heat. (b) Any energy transfer always requires a temperature difference. (c) On heating the length and volume of an object remain exactly the same. (d) Whenever there is a temperature difference, heat is the only way of energy transfer. 2. If T is the time period of an oscillating pendulum, which one of the following statements is NOT correct ? (a) The motion repeats after time T only once. (b) T is the least time after which motion repeats itself. (c) The motion repeats itself after nT, where n is a positive integer. (d) T remains the same only for small angular displacements. 3. If an object moves with constant velocity then which one of the following statements is NOT correct ? (a) Its motion is along a straight line. (b) Its speed changes with time.

(c) Its acceleration is zero. (d) Its displacement increases linearly with time. 4. An object is moving with uniform acceleration a. Its initial velocity is u and after time t its velocity is v. The equation of its motion is v = u + at. The velocity (along y-axis) time (along x-axis) graph shall be a straight line (a) passing through origin (b) with x-intercept u (c) with y-intercept u (d) with slope u 5. What is the net force experienced by a bar magnet placed in a uniform magnetic field ? (a) Zero (b) Depends upon length of the magnet (c) Never zero (d) Depends upon temperature 6. Which one of the following has maximum inertia ? (a) An atom (b) A molecule (c) A one-rupee coin (d) A cricket ball 7. Which one of the following is the value of 1 kWh of energy converted into joules ? (a) 1.8 × 106 J (b) 3.6 × 106 J (c) 6.0 × 106 J (d) 7.2 × 106 J

147

SOLVED PAPERS: 2018 (I) 8. Which one of the following statements about gravitational force is NOT correct ? (a) It is experienced by all bodies in the universe. (b) It is a dominant force between celestial bodies. (c) It is a negligible force for atoms. (d) It is same for all pairs of bodies in our universe. 9. Whether an object will float or sink in a liquid, depends on (a) mass of the object only. (b) mass of the object and density of liquid only. (c) difference in the densities of the object and liquid. (d) mass and shape of the object only. 10. Which one of the following devices is nonohmic ? (a) Conducting copper coil (b) Electric heating coil (c) Semi conductor diode (d) Rheostat 11. Which one of the following is the natural phenomenon based on which a simple periscope works ? (a) Reflection of light (b) Refraction of light (c) Dispersion of light (d) Total internal reflection of light

15. Which one of the following gives the highest amount of hydrogen ions (H+) ? (a) Sodium hydroxide solution (b) Milk of magnesia (c) Lemon juice (d) Gastric juice 16. Brine is an aqueous solution of (a) NaCl (b) NaOH (c) NaHCO3 (d) Na2CO3 17. Which one of the following is the chemical formula of Washing Soda ? (a) NaHCO3 (b) Na2CO3.10H2O (c) Na2CO3.5H2O (d) NaOH 18. Which one of the following is NOT true for bleaching powder? (a) It is used as a reducing agent in chemical industries. (b) It is used for bleaching wood pulp in paper factories. (c) It is used for disinfecting drinking water. (d) It is used for bleaching linen in textile industry. 19. AIDS is caused by a virus whose genetic material is (a) single stranded circular DNA (b) double stranded DNA (c) single stranded RNA (d) double stranded RNA

12. Which one of the following frequency ranges is sensitive to human ears ? (a) 0-200 Hz (b) 20-20,000 Hz (c) 200-20,000 Hz only (d) 2,000-20,000 Hz only

20. Which one of the following is an organelle that is NOT found in prokaryotic cells (a) Cell wall (b) Mitochondria (c) Plasma membrane (d) Ribosome

13. The accidental touch of Nettle leaves creates a burning sensation, which is due to inject of (a) Hydrochloric acid (b) Methanoic acid (c) Citric acid (d) Sulphuric acid

21. Which one of the following parts of body does NOT take part in the process of breathing? (a) Bronchi (b) Bowman’s capsule (c) Diaphragm (d) Trachea

14. Which of the following properties is true for a tooth paste ? (a) It is acidic. (b) It is neutral. (c) It is basic. (d) It is made up of Calcium phosphate, the material of tooth enamel.

22. Which one of the following statements about classification of plants is correct ? (a) Thallophytes have well differentiated body design. (b) Funaria is a fungus. (c) All Pteridophytes are Phanerogams. (d) Vascular system is not found among Bryophytes.

148

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

23. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of levels of hierarchy of classification of organisms from higher to lower ? (a) Phylum - Class - Order - Family - Genus (b) Phylum - Class - Family - Order - Genus (c) Family - Order - Class - Species - Genus (d) Class - Family - Order - Species - Genus

28. Which one of the following is the driest desert of the world ? (a) Atacama (b) Gobi (c) Sahara (d) Kalahari

24. Which one of the following statements about meristematic tissues in plants is correct ? (a) These are dead tissues and form wood. (b) They provide flexibility to plant due to their thickened walls. (c) These are present in the bark of a tree only. (d) Growth occurs in plants due to division of cells of these tissues. 25. Which one of the following Union Territories has the highest female literacy rate ? (a) Chandigarh (b) Lakshadweep (c) Andaman and Nicobar Islands (d) Puducherry 26. Consider the following statements about Roaring forties : (1) They are strong Westerly winds found in the oceans of Southern Hemisphere. (2) The strong east to west air currents are caused by the combination of air being displaced from the Equator towards the South Pole and the earth’s rotation and abundance of landmasses to serve as wind breaks.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 27. Consider the following statements : (1) The doldrums is a low pressure area around Equator where the prevailing winds are calm. (2) Chinook is a hot and dry wind that blows in winter and therefore raises the temperature in a short time.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

29. Which of the following statements about latent heat for a given substance is/are correct ? (1) It is fixed at a given temperature. (2) It depends upon the temperature and volume. (3) It is independent of temperature and volume. (4) It depends on the temperature but independent of volume.

Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 4 only (d) 1 and 4 30. Which one of the following statements about the mass of a body is correct ? (a) It changes from one place to another. (b) It is same everywhere. (c) It depends on its shape. (d) It does not depend on its temperature. 31. A ball balanced on a vertical rod is an example of (a) stable equilibrium (b) unstable equilibrium (c) neutral equilibrium (d) perfect equilibrium 32. Which of the following statements about a fluid at rest in a cup is/are correct ? (1) Pressure is same at all the points in the fluid. (2) Pressure is exerted on the walls. (3) Pressure exists everywhere in the fluid.

Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 33. Which one of the following devices is used to measure atmospheric pressure ? (a) Ammeter (b) Barometer (c) Potentiometer (d) Lactometer 34. Which one of the following is the number of water molecules that share with two formula unit CaSO4 in plaster of Paris ? (a) One (b) Two (c) Five (d) Ten

149

SOLVED PAPERS: 2018 (I) 35. How is carbon black obtained ? (a) By heating wood at high temperature in absence of air (b) By heating coal at high temperature in absence of air (c) By burning hydrocarbons in a limited supply of air (d) By heating coal at high temperature in presence of air 36. Which one of the following properties is NOT true for graphite ? (a) Hybridisation of each carbon atom is sp3. (b) Hybridisation of each carbon atom is sp2 (c) Electrons are delocalized over the whole sheet of atoms (d) Each layer is composed of hexagonal rings. 37. Which one of the following is the purest form of Carbon ? (a) Charcoal (b) Coke (c) Fullerene (d) Carbon black 38. The Poisonous nature of Carbon monoxide (CO) is due to its (a) insolubility in water (b) ability to form a complex with haemoglobin (c) ability to reduce some metal oxides (d) property of having one sigma bond 39. Which one of the following elements is needed in the human body to transfer electrical signals by nerve cells ? (a) Lithium (b) Sodium (c) Rubidium (d) Caesium 40. Who among the following first discovered cell ? (a) Robert Brown (b) Robert Hooke (c) Leeuwenhoek (d) Rudolf Virchow 41. Which one of the following group of organisms forms a food chain ? (a) Grass, human and fish (b) Grass, goat and human (c) Tree, tree cutter and tiger (d) Goat, cow and human 42. Which one of the following types of tissues will have contractile proteins ? (a) Nervous tissue (b) Muscle tissue (c) Bone tissue (d) Blood tissue 43. If by an unknown accident the acid secreting cells of the stomach wall of an individual are damaged, digestion of which one of the

following biomolecule will be affected to a greater extent ? (a) Protein only (b) Lipid (c) Carbohydrate only (d) Protein and Carbohydrate 44. In which one of the following places, Headquarters of a Railway Zone is located ? (a) Kanpur (b) Lucknow (c) Hajipur (d) New Jalpaiguri 45. Which of the following statements about Indian Academy of Highway Engineers is/are correct ? (1) It is registered society. (2) It is a collaborative body of both Central Government and State Governments.

Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 46. Which one of the following is NOT a tributary of Indus River? (a) Beas (b) Ravi (c) Chenab (d) Tawi 47. Which one among the following is the largest tiger reserve of India in terms of area of the core/critical tiger habitat? (a) Manas (b) Pakke (c) Nagarjunasagar Srisailam (d) Periyar 48. Which one of the following is NOT a coastal depositional feature? (a) Tombolo (b) Sand bar (c) Stack (d) Spit 49. Which of the following is/are coastal erosional feature(s) (1) Notch (2) Sea Arch (3) Cliff (4) Hook

Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 only 50. Chemical weathering of rocks is much greater in a place with (a) cold and dry climate (b) hot and humid climate (c) hot and dry climate (d) cold and humid climate

150

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

51. Which of the following statements about specific heat of a body is/are correct ? (1) It depends upon mass and shape of the body. (2) It is independent of mass and shape of the body. (3) It depends only upon the temperature of the body.

(a) Tungsten (b) Copper (c) Rubidium (d) Aluminium



Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 only 52. Which one of the following is an example of the force of gravity of the Earth acting on a vibrating pendulum bob ? (a) Applied force (b) Frictional force (c) Restoring force (d) Virtual force 53. Which one of the following statements about the refractive index of a material medium with respect to air is correct ? (a) It can be either positive or negative. (b) It can have zero value. (c) It is unity for all materials. (d) It is always greater than one. 54. Which one of the following statements about magnetic field lines is NOT correct ? (a) They can emanate from a point. (b) They do not cross each other. (c) Field lines between two poles cannot be precisely straight lines at the ends. (d) There are no field lines within a bar magnet. 55. Two convex lenses with power 2 dioptre are kept in contact with each other. The focal length of the combined lens system is (a) 0.10 m (b) 2m (c) 4 m (d) 0.25 m 56. Which one of the following alkali metals has lowest melting point ? (a) Sodium (b) Potassium (c) Rubidium (d) Caesium 57. Which one of the following metals is alloyed with sodium to transfer heat in a nuclear reactor ? (a) Potassium (b) Calcium (c) Magnesium (d) Strontium 58. Which one of the following metals is used in the filaments of photo-electric cells that convert light energy into electric energy ?

59. Which of the following statements about Ring of Fire is/are correct ? (1) It is zone of convergence plate boundaries. (2) It is an active seismic and volcanic zone. (3) It is associated with deep trench.

Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 60. Which one of the following Himalayan vegetation species is found between the altitudes of 1800 to 2600 metres ? (a) Saal (b) Chir (c) Spruce (d) Deodar 61. Which one of the following rivers is NOT a tributary of river Cauvery ? (a) Hemavati (b) Arkavati (c) Indravati (d) Amravati 62. Which of the following conditions is/are essential for tea cultivation ? (1) Tropical and sub-tropical climate (2) Heavy rainfall ranging from 150 cm to 250 cm (3) Soil should contain good amount of lime

Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 only 63. Bharatmala Project is related to (a) Improving road connectivity (b) Interlinking ports and railways (c) Interlinking of rivers (d) Interlinking major cities with gas pipelines 64. Which one of the following is a local wind that blows out from Siberia ? (a) Bora (b) Purga (c) Mistral (d) Blizzard 65. Which one of the following centres is NOT known for iron and steel industry ? (a) Bhadravati (b) Salem (c) Vishakhapatnam (d) Renukoot 66. Which of the following are essential prerequisites for establishment of a thermal power station ? (1) Availability of fossil fuels (2) Proximity to a river, lake or sea

SOLVED PAPERS: 2018 (I) (3) Good transport network (4) Proximity to an urban centre

Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4 (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only 67. Which of the following statements about ‘Aadi Mahotsav’ held recently in New Delhi is/are correct ? (1) The theme of the festival was ‘A Celebration of the Spirit of Tribal Culture, Cuisine and Commerce’ (2) The festival was organized by the Ministry of Tourism, Government of India

Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 68. Light year is a unit for measurement of (a) age of universe (b) very small time intervals (c) very high temperature (d) very large distance 69. Which of the following statements about electromagnetic waves, sound waves and water waves is/are correct ? (1) They exhibit reflection. (2) They carry energy. (3) They exert pressure. (4) They can travel in vacuum.

Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4 (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1 only 70. Thermal capacity of a body depends on the (a) mass of the body only (b) mass and shape of the body only (c) density of the body (d) mass, shape and temperature of the body 71. Who among the following first used the term ‘Industrial Revolution’ in English to describe the changes that occurred in British industrial development between 1760 and 1820 ? (a) Karl Marx (b) Georges Michelet (c) Arrnold Toynbee (d) Friedrich Engels

151 72. Which one of the following statements about the Olympe de Gouges (1748-1793) is correct ? (a) She declared that although citizens should have equal rights, they are not entitled to the same honours by the State (b) She was a supporter of the Jacobin government (c) She was jailed for treason by the National assembly (d) She declared that the nation is the union of woman and man 73. Who among the following built a model steam engine in 1698 called “Miner’s Friend” to drain mines ? (a) Thomas Savery (b) Thomas Newcomen (c) James Watt (d) Richard Arkwright 74. Which one of the following statements about Renaissance Humanist culture is NOT true ? (a) It slackened the control of religion over human life (b) It believed that human nature was manysided (c) It was concerned with good manners (d) It criticized material wealth, power and glory 75. Who gifted the Badshah Nama to King George in 1799 ? (a) Abul Fazl (b) Abdul Hamid Lahori (c) Nawab of Awadh (d) William Jones 76. What is the name of the award given to meritorious men in the Mughal Court in the form of a robe of honour that was once worn by the Emperor ? (a) Sarapa (b) Patka (c) Padma murassa (d) Khilat 77. Who among the following social reformer started a society for the encouragement of widow remarriage in 1866 in Maharashtra ? (a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (b) Jyotirao Phule (c) Vishnusashtri Pandit (d) Pandita Ramabai

152

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

78. Name the first major voluntary association representing primarily Indian landlord interests that was set up in Calcutta in 1851 ? (a) British Indian Association (b) Landholder’s Society (c) Madras Native Association (d) Bombay Association

84. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched ? Traveller Country from (1) Marco Polo Italy (2) Ibn Battuta Morocco (3) Nikitin Russia (4) Seydi Ali Reis Turkey

79. Who among the following introduced the Permanent Settlement of Bengal in 1793 ? (a) Lord Cornwallis (b) Lord Ripon (c) Robert Clive (d) John Adam



80. Name the rebel who fought against the British in the battle of Chinhat in the course of the 1857 Revolt ? (a) Ahmadullah Shah (b) Shah Mal (c) Mangal Pandey (d) Kunwar Singh

85. Which of the following clans are included in the Agnikula Rajputs ? (1) Pratiharas (2) Chaulukyas (3) Paramaras (4) Chahamanas

81. Who among the following are the two civil servants who assisted the Constituent Assembly in framing the Constitution of India ? (a) B. N. Rau and K. M. Munshi (b) S. N. Mukherjee and Alladi Krishnaswamy Aiyar (c) B. N. Rau and S. N Mukherjee (d) K. M. Munshi and Alladi Krishnaswamy Aiyar 82. Which member of the Constituent Assembly proposed the resolution that the National Flag of India be a “horizontal tricolour of saffron, white and dark green in equal proportion”, with a wheel in navy blue at the centre ? (a) Jawaharlal Nehru (b) B. R. Ambedkar (c) Rajendra Prasad (d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel 83. Which of the following is/are NOT historical biography/biographies ? (1) Dipavamsa (2) Harshacharita (3) Vikramankadevacharita (4) Prithvirajavijaya

Select the correct answer from the code given below : (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2, 3, and 4 (d) 1 and 4 only



Select the correct answer from the code given below : (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 4 only 86. Who among the following was the author of Humayun Nama ? (a) Roshanara Begum (b) Ruquaiya Sultan Begum (c) Gulbadan Begum (d) Gauhara Begum 87. Which one of the following about the Parliament of India is NOT correct ? (a) The Parliament consists of the President, the Lok Sabha and The Rajya Sabha. (b) There are no nominated members in the Lok Sabha. (c) The Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved. (d) Some members of The Rajya Sabha are nominated by the President. 88. Which one of the following statements with regard to the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India is NOT correct ? (a) He is appointed by the President of India. (b) He can be removed from office in the same way as the judge of the Supreme Court of India. (c) The CAG is eligible for further office under the Government of India after he has ceased to hold his office. (d) The salary of the CAG is charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India.

153

SOLVED PAPERS: 2018 (I) 89. The Superintendence, direction and control of elections in India is vested in (a) The Supreme Court of India (b) The Parliament of India (c) The Election Commission of India (d) The Chief Election Commissioner 90. Which of the following provision(s) of the Constitution of India became effective from 26th November 1949 ? (1) Electrons (2) Citizenship (3) Emergency provisions (4) Appointment of the Judges Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4 91. Which of the following statements regarding construction of Rohtang tunnel is NOT correct ? (a) It is located at an altitude of 5,000 feet. (b) It will provide all-year connectivity to Lahaul and Spiti Valley. (c) The tunnel is being built by the Border Roads Organization. (d) It will reduce the length of the Leh-Manali highway by approximately 50 km. 92. Who among the following recently became the first woman pilot in Indian Navy ? (a) Astha Segal (b) Roopa A (c) Sakthi Maya S (d) Shubhangi Swaroop 93. Who among the following Indians did NOT hold the title of Miss World ? (a) Reita Faria (b) Sushmita Sen (c) Diana Hayden (d) Yukta Mookhey 94. Which one of the following countries has failed to qualify for the first time in 60 years for the FIFA World Cup to be held in Russia in the year 2018 ? (a) Mexico (b) Iran (c) Saudi Arabia (d) Italy 95. The Defence Technology and Trade Initiative (DTTI) is a forum for dialogue on defence partnership between India and (a) Russia (b) United States of America

 

Finished Solving the Paper ? Time to evaluate yourself !

SCAN THE CODE

For elaborated Solutions

(c) Israel (d) France 96. As per the policy applicable in 2017, how much Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) is permitted in the defence sector in India ? (a) 49% through the automatic route (b) 26% through the government route (c) 26% through the automatic route and beyond that up to 49 percent through the government route (d) 75% through the automatic route 97. Which one of the following countries did NOT participate in the 21st edition of Exercise Malabar ? (a) United States of America (b) Japan (c) India (d) Australia 98. Justice Dalveer Bhandari of India was recently re-elected to the International Court of Justice after Christopher Greenwood pulled out before 12th round of voting. Christopher Greenwood was a nominee of (a) Canada (b) Russia (c) Britain (d) USA 99. In order to review the Income Tax Act, 1961 and to draft a new Direct Tax Law in consonance with economic needs of the country, the Government of India in November 2017 has constituted a Task Force. Who among the following is made the convenor of it? (a) Shri Arvind Subramanian (b) Shri Arbind Modi (c) Shri Amitabh Kant (d) Dr. Bibek Debroy 100. The 5th Global Conference on Cyber Space (GCCS) was held in New Delhi in November, 2017. Which of the following statements about GCCS is/are correct ? (1) The 4th version of GCCS was held in London. (2) The main theme of GCCS 2017 is ‘Cyber4All: A Secure and Inclusive Cyberspace for Sustainable Development’. (3) ‘Bindu’ is the logo of GCCS 2017. Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

SCAN

154

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

Answers Q No

Answer Key

Topic Name

Chapter Name

1

(a)

Heat

Thermal Properties of Matter

2

(a)

Simple Pendulum

Oscillation

3

(b)

Velocity

Motion

4

(c)

Graphical Representation of Motion

Motion

5

(a)

Magnetic Field

Magnetic Effect of Electric Current

6

(d)

Inertia

Laws of Motion

7

(b)

Units

Units and Measurements

8

(d)

Gravitational Force

Gravitation

9

(c)

Buoyancy

Mechanical Properties of Fluid

10

(c)

Ohm's Law

Current Electricity

11

(a)

Reflection

Ray Optics

12

(b)

Hertz

Sound Waves and their Properties

13

(b)

Strong and Weak Acids

Acids, Bases and Salts

14

(c)

Alkali and Base

Acids, Bases and Salts

15

(d)

pH Scale

Acids, Bases and Salts

16

(a)

Mixtures

Elements, Compounds and Mixtures

17

(b)

Washing Soda

Some Important Chemical Compounds

18

(a)

Oxidizing and Reducing Agents

Redox Reactions

19

(c)

AIDS

Human Disease

20

(b)

Prokaryotes

Biological Classification

21

(b)

Gaseous Exchange

Respiratory System

22

(d)

Thallophytes

Plant Kingdom

23

(a)

Taxonomy

The Living World

24

(d)

Meristems

Plant Anatomy

25

(b)

Census

Current Affairs

26

(a)

Winds

Regional Geography of India

27

(c)

Climate

Regional Geography of India

28

(a)

Desert

Current Affairs

29

(d)

Latent Heat

Thermal Properties of Matter

30

(b)

Mass

Gravitation

31

(b)

Equilibrium

Oscillations

32

(b)

Pressure

Mechanical Properties of Fluid

33

(b)

Fluid Pressure

Kinetic Theory of Gases

34

(a)

Plaster of Paris

Some Important Chemical Compounds

35

(c)

Carbon Black

Carbon— Different Forms

36

(a)

Graphite

Carbon and its Compound

37

(c)

Allotropes of carbon

Carbon and its Compound

155

SOLVED PAPERS: 2018 (I)

Q No

Answer Key

38

(b)

Topic Name Carbon Monoxide

Chapter Name Carbon and Its Compounds

39

(b)

Use of Alkali Metals

Metals

40

(b)

Discovery of Cell

Cell

41

(b)

Food Chain

Ecosystem

42

(b)

Nervous Tissues

Neural Control

43

(a)

Stomach

Digestive System

44

(c)

Railway

Current Affairs

45

(c)

Institutions

Current Affairs

46

(d)

Rivers

Regional Geography of India

47

(c)

Tiger Reserve

Current Affairs

48

(c)

Coastal Area

Regional Geography of India

49

(a)

Coastal Area

Regional Geography of India

50

(b)

Chemical Weathering

Weathering—Mechanical and Chemical

51

(b)

Heat

Thermal Properties of Matter

52

(c)

Simple Pendulum

Oscillations

53

(d)

Refractive Index

Ray Optics

54

(d)

Magnetic Field

Magnetic Effect of Electric Current

55

(d)

Power of Lens

Ray Optics

56

(d)

Physical Properties of Alkali Metals

Metals and Non-Metals

57

(a)

Nuclear Reactor

Nuclear Reactions and Radioactivity

58

(c)

Conversion of Energy

Power and Energy

59

(d)

Ring of Fire

The Earth, its Shape and Size

60

(a)

Natural Vegetation

Major Natural Regions of the World

61

(c)

Rivers

Regional Geography of India

62

(b)

Location and Distribution of Agricultural

Regional Geography of India

63

(a)

Government Project

Current Affairs

64

(b)

Local Winds

Planetary Winds

65

(d)

Industrial Activities

Regional Geography of India

66

(a)

thermal Power Station

Current Affairs

67

(a)

Important Festivals

Current Affairs

68

(d)

Units

Units and Measurements

69

(a)

Properties of EMW

Electromagnetic Waves

70

(a)

Thermal Capacity

Thermal Properties of Matter

71

(c)

Industrial Revolution

Industrial Revolution and Russian Revolution

72

(d)

Famous Personalities

Current Affairs

73

(a)

Inventions

Current Affairs

74

(d)

Renaissance

Forces Shaping the Modern World; Renaissance

75

(c)

Mughal Dynasty

A Broad Survey of Indian History

156

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

Q No

Answer Key

Topic Name

Chapter Name

76

(d)

Mughal Dynasty

A Broad Survey of Indian History

77

(c)

Social Reformer

Freedom Movement in India

78

(a)

Voluntary Associations

A Broad Survey of Indian History

79

(a)

Permanent Settlement

A Broad Survey of Indian History

80

(a)

Battle of Chinhat

Freedom Movement in India

81

(c)

Constituent Assembly

Elementary Study of Indian Constitution and Administration

82

(a)

Constituent Assembly

Elementary Study of Indian Constitution and Administration

83

(a)

Biographies

A Broad Survey of Indian History

84

(c)

Travellers

Role of India in the Present World

85

(c)

Agnikula Rajputs

A Broad Survey of Indian History

86

(c)

Humayunnama

Mughal Dynasty

87

(b)

Indian Parliament

Elementary Study of Indian Constitution and Administration

88

(c)

Cag

Elementary Study of Indian Constitution and Administration

89

(c)

Election Commission

Elementary Study of Indian Constitution and Administration

90

(b)

Constituent of India

Elementary Study of Indian Constitution and Administration

91

(a)

Government Project

Current Affairs

92

(d)

Famous Personalities

Current Affairs

93

(b)

Famous Personalities

Current Affairs

94

(d)

Sports

Current Affairs

95

(b)

Current Important World Events

Current Affairs

96

(a)

Foreign Direct Investment

Current Affairs

97

(d)

Joint Military Exercise

Current Affairs

98

(c)

Famous Personalities

Current Affairs

99

(b)

Appointments

Current Affairs

100

(c)

Current Important World Events

Current Affairs

NDA / NA

GENERAL ABILITY TEST

National Defence Academy / Naval Academy

II

Time : 1hr 40mins

question Paper

2018 Total Marks : 400

Important Instructions : 1. This Test contains 100 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case, you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. 2. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. 3. All items carry equal marks. 4. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions. 5. Penalty for wrong answers : THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS. (i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one·third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. (ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question. (iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.

Directions : (Q. 1–6) The following six (6) items consist of two statements, Stat ement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below. Code : (a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I. (b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I. (c) Statement I is true but Statements II is false. (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true. 1. Statement I :  The pitch of a sound wave depends upon its frequency. Statement II : The loudness of a sound wave depends upon its amplitude. 2. Statement I : Sound waves cannot propagate in vacuum. Statement II : Sound waves are elastic waves and require a medium to propagate. 3. Statement I : The Government of India Act, 1935 introduced Dyarchy at the Centre.



Statement II :  The provincial autonomy was granted to the Provinces. 4. Statement I :  Mughal Painting reached its climax during the reign of Jahangir. Statement II : Aurangzeb’s Court was adorned by some of the best known artists of the Mughal School of Painting. 5. Statement I : Phytoplankton produce most of the organic carbon in the ocean. Statement II : Algae are produced in the cold water biome. 6. Statement I : Geostrophic wind blows above a height of 600 metres, parallel to the isobars. Statement II : Geostrophic wind is the horizontal wind velocity, in which the Coriolis force balances the horizontal pressure force. 7. Which one of the following groups of cellular organelles contains DNA ? (a) Mitochondria, nucleus, chloroplast (b) Mitochondria, golgi bodies, nucleus (c) Mitochondria, plasma membrane, nucleus (d) Chloroplast, nucleus, ribosomes

158

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

8. One of the additional functions of Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (SER) is (a) protein synthesis (b) lipid synthesis (c) storage of biomolecules (d) detoxification of toxic substances

17. The frequency of ultrasound waves is (a) less than 20 Hz (b) between 20 Hz and 2 kHz (c) between 2 kHz and 20 kHz (d) greater than 20 kHz

9. Damage to the apical meristem of a growing young plant will affect the (a) length of the plant (b) colour of the flower (c) colour of the leaves (d) taste of the fruits 10. Which of the following kingdoms has/have only unicellular organisms ? (a) Monera only (b) Protista only (c) Monera and Protista both (d) Protista and Fungi both 11. Which one of the following is a waterborne disease ? (a) Jaundice (b) Tuberculosis (c) Rabies (d) Arthritis 12. The atomic number of an element is 8. How many electrons will it gain to form a compound with sodium ? (a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four 13. A sample of oxygen contains two isotopes of oxygen with masses 16 u and 18 u respectively. The proportion of these isotopes in the sample is 3 : 1. What will be the average atomic mass of oxygen in this sample ? (a) 17.5 u (b) 17 u (c) 16 u (d) 16.5 u 14. Which one of the following is a heterogeneous mixture ? (a) Hydrochloric acid (b) Vinegar (c) Milk (d) Soda water 15. What is the formula mass of anhydrous sodium carbonate ? (Given that the atomic masses of sodium, carbon and oxygen are 23 u, 12 u and 16 u respectively) (a) 286 u (b) 106 u (c) 83 u (d) 53 u 16. Which one of the following is called ‘syngas’ ? (a) C(s) + H2O(g) (b) CO(g) + H2O(g) (c) CO(g) + H2(g) (d) NO2(g) + H2(g)

18. The magnetic field strength of a currentcarrying wire at a particular distance from the axis of the wire (a) depends upon the current in the wire (b) depends upon the radius of the wire (c) depends upon the temperature of the surroundings (d) None of the above 19. A stainless steel chamber contains Ar gas at temperature T and pressure P. The total number of Ar atoms in the chamber is n. Now Ar gas in the chamber is replaced by CO2 gas and the n total number of CO2 atoms in the chamber is 2 at the same temperature T. The pressure in the chamber now is P’. Which one of the following relations holds true ? (Both the gases behave as ideal gases) (a) P′ = P (b) P′ = 2P P P (c) (d) P′ = P′ = 2 4 20. Which one of the following is the correct relation between A° and nm ? (a) 1 nm = 10-1 A° (b) 1 nm = 10 A° (c) 1 nm = 1 A° (d) 1 nm = 10-2 A° 21. The full form of LED is (a) Light Emitting Diode (b) Light Emitting Device (c) Light Enhancing Device (d) Light Enhancing Diode 22. If a free electron moves through a potential difference of 1 kV, then the energy gained by the electron is given by (a) 1.6 × 10-19 J (b) 1.6 × 10-16 J (c) 1 × 10-19 J (d) 1 × 10-16 J 23. Consider the following places of India : (1) Itanagar (2) Imphal (3) Agartala (4) Aizawl

SOLVED PAPERS - 2018 (II)

159



Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the above places in terms of sunrise time ? (a) 3-2-1-4 (b) 2-1-4-3 (c) 1-4-3-2 (d) 4-3-2-1

30. Which one of the following is a tribasic acid ? (a) Hydrochloric acid (b) Nitric acid (c) Sulphuric acid (d) Phosphoric acid

24. Which one of the following is known as uplands of delta region ? (a) Bef (b) Bils (c) Peh (d) Chars

31. Which one of the following statements is not correct ? (a) All carbons in diamond are linked by carbon-carbon single bond. (b) Graphite is layered structure in which layers are held together by weak van der Waals forces. (c) Graphite layers are formed by hexagonal rings of carbon atoms. (d) Graphite layers are held together by carboncarbon single bond.

25. Consider the following Wildlife Sanctuaries of India : (1) Shikari Devi (2) Bhadra (3) Simlipal (4) Pachmarhi

Which one of the following is the correct order of the above Wildlife Sanctuaries in terms of their location from south to north ? (a) 1-2-3-4 (b) 2-4-3-1 (c) 2-3-4-1 (d) 3-1-2-4 26. Which one of the following statements about temperature is correct ? (a) Temperature decreases with height in the stratosphere. (b) Temperature is constant at different height in the stratosphere. (c) Temperature increases with height in the troposphere at an average rate of 6.5°C per kilometre. (d) Temperature decreases with height in the troposphere at an average rate of 6.4°C per kilometre. 27. Which one of the following is known as a zone of sharp salinity change in the vertical section of ocean ? (a) Thermocline (b) Halocline (c) Photic zone (d) Pycnocline 28. Permanent hardness of water cannot be removed by which one of the following methods ? (a) Treatment with washing soda (b) Calgon’s method (c) Boiling (d) Ion exchange method 29. Which one of the following reactions will give NO (nitric oxide) gas as one of the products ? (a) 3Cu + 8HNO3 (dilute) → (b) Cu + 4HNO3 (conc.) → (c) 4Zn + 10HNO3 (dilute) → (d) Zn + 4HNO3 (conc.) →

32. Which one of the following is called dry ice ? (a) Solid carbon dioxide (b) Liquid carbon dioxide (c) Liquid nitrogen (d) Liquid ammonia 33. The acidic semi digested food coming out of the stomach is neutralized by (a) pancreatic juice (b) duodenal secretion (c) large intestine secretion (d) bile juice 34. The oxygenated blood from the lungs is received by the (a) left auricle (b) left ventricle (c) right auricle (d) right ventricle 35. The oxygen evolved during photosynthesis comes from splitting of (a) water (b) carbon dioxide (c) oxygen (d) light 36. Which one of the following depcits the correct circuit of a reflex arc ? (a) Effector-sensory neuron-spinal cord-motor neuron-receptor. (b) Receptor-sensory neuron-spinal cord-motor neuron-effector. (c) Receptor-sensory neuron-brain-motor neuron-effector. (d) Sensory neuron-receptor-brain-effectormotor neuron. 37. If one set of chromosomes for a given plant is represented as N; in case of double fertilization, the zygote and the endosperm nucleus of a

160

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

diploid plant would have how many sets of chromosomes respectively ? (a) N and 2N (b) 2N and 2N (c) N and 3N (d) 2N and 3N

different colours–red, green and black. Which one of the following is the correct colour code ? (a) Red–live wire, Green-neutral wire, Black– ground wire (b) Red–neutral wire, Green–ground wire, Black-live wire (c) Red–live wire, Green–ground wire, Black– neutral wire (d) Red–ground wire, Green-live wire, Black– neutral wire

38. Consider the following circuit : R R A

B R



R

Which one of the following is the value of the resistance between points A and B in the circuit given above ?

2 3 (a) R (b) R 5 5 3 (c) R (d) 4R 2 39. The absolute zero temperature is 0 Kelvin. In °C unit, which one of the following is the absolute zero temperature ? (a) 0 °C (b) -100 °C (c) -273.15 °C (d) -173.15 °C 40. Consider the following statements about visible light, UV light and X-rays : (1) The wavelength of visible light is more than that of X-rays. (2) The energy of X-ray photons is higher than that of UV light photons. (3) The energy of UV light photons is less than that of visible light photons.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 only 41. The time period of oscillation of a simple pendulum having length L and mass of the bob m is given as T. If the length of the pendulum is increased to 4L and the mass of the bob is increased to 2m, then which one of the following is the new time period of oscillation ? (a) T (b) 2T T 2 42. The connecting cable of electrical appliances like electric iron, water heater or room heater contains three insulated copper wires of three (c) 4T

(d)

43. The graphs between current (I) and voltage (V) for three linear resistors 1, 2 and 3 are given below : 1 3

I

2

V

If R1, R2 and R3 are resistors, then which correct ? (a) R 1 > R 2 > R 3 (c) R3 < R 1 < R 2

the resistances of these one of the following is (b) R1 < R3 < R2 (d) R3 > R2 > R1

44. Consider the following statements about a microscope and a telescope : (1) Both the eyepiece and the objective of microscope are convex lenses. (2) The focal length of the objective of a telescope is larger than the focal length of its eyepiece. (3) The magnification of a telescope increases with the increase in focal length of its objective. (4) The magnification of a microscope increases with the increase in focal length of its objective.

Which of the statements given above are correct ? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 4 (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3 45. A planet has a mass M1 and radius R1. The value of acceleration due to gravity on its surface is g1. There is another planet 2, whose mass and

161

SOLVED PAPERS - 2018 (II) radius both are two times that of the first planet. Which one of the following is the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of planet 2 ? (a) g1 (b) 2g1 g1 g (c) (d) 1 2 4 46. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List-I List-II (River Basin) A. Bhagirathi B. Alaknanda C. Nayar D. Ganga

(Town) (1) Lansdowne (2) Narendra Nagar (3) Uttarkashi (4) Pauri

Code : A B C D (a) 3 1 4 2 (b) 3 4 1 2 (c) 2 4 1 3 (d) 2 1 4 3 47. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List-I List-II (Local Wind) A. Yamo B. Black Roller C. Bise D. Haboob

(Place) (1) Sudan (2) France (3) Japan (4) North America

Code: A B C D (a) 1 4 2 3 (b) 1 2 4 3 (c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 3 2 4 1 48. ‘Majuli’, the river island, is located in which one of the following rivers ? (a) Jamuna (b) Padma (c) Ganga (c) Brahmaputra 49. Which one of the following Indian States has recorded negative growth of population as per Census 2011 ? (a) Manipur (b) Mizoram (c) Tripura (d) Nagaland 50. Which one of the following types of cloud is characterized by continuous precipitation ? (a) Cirrocumulus (b) Cumulus

(c) Nimbostratus (d) Cumulonimbus 51. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List-I List-II (Major Port) (Location) A. Kolkata (1) Landlocked area B. Mormugao (2) In the delta region C. Visakhapatnam (3) On the riverside D. Paradip (4)  On the entrance of the estuary Code : A B C D (a) 3 1 4 2 (b) 3 4 1 2 (c) 2 4 1 3 (d) 2 1 4 3 52. Which one of the following is not an agent of metamorphism ? (a) Heat (b) Compression (c) Decomposition (d) Solution 53. The solution of which one of the following will have pH less than 7 ? (a) NaOH (b) KCl (c) FeCl3 (d) NaCl 54. Which one of the following is an oxidationreduction reaction ? (a) NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H2O (b) CaO + H2O → Ca(OH)2 (c) 2Mg + O2 → 2MgO (d) Na2SO4 + BaCl2 →BaSO4 + 2NaCl 55. Which one of the following is not used as fertilizer ? (a) Ammonium nitrate (b) Ammonium sulphide (c) Ammonium phosphate (d) Ammonium sulphate 56. Which one of the following is the chemical formula of gypsum ? (a) CaSO4. 2H2O (b) Ca2SiO4 (c) 2CaSO4. H2O (d) CaSO4. 57. Which one of the following statements about the law of conservation of mass is correct ? (a) A given compound always contains exactly same proportion of elements.

162

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

(b) When gases combine in a reaction, they do so in a simple ratio by volume, provided all gases are at room temperature. (c) Matter can neither be created nor destroyed. (d) Equal volumes of all gases at same temperature and pressure contain equal number of molecules.

gives the value of coefficient of volume expansion of this material ? (b) 2.4 × 10-5 K-1 (a) 0.8 × 10-5 K-1 (c) 3.2 × 10-5 K-1 (d) 4.8 × 10-5 K-1

58. The wavelength of X-rays is of the order of (a) 1 A° (b) 1 µm (c) 1 mm (d) 1 cm 59. Consider the following velocity and time graph:

Velocity (m/s)

63. The refractive indices of two media are denoted by n1 and n2, and the velocities of light in these two media are respectively v1 and v2. If

n2 is n1

1.5, which one of the following statements is correct ? (a) v1 is 1.5 times v2. (b) v2 is 1.5 times v1. (c) v1 is equal to v2. (d) v1 is 3 times v2. 64. Which one of the following greenhouse gases is in largest concentration in the atmosphere ? (a) Chlorofluorocarbon (b) Nitrous oxide (c) Carbon dioxide (d) Methane

8 4 4



8

12

16 Time (s)

Which one of the following is the value of average acceleration from 8 s to 12 s ? (a) 8 m/s2 (b) 12 m/s2 (c) 2 m/s2 (d) -1 m/s2 60. If the focal length of a convex lens is 50 cm, which one of the following is its power ? (a) +2 dioptre (b) +0.25 dioptre (c) -0.5 dioptre (d) +0.5 dipotre 61. A ball is released from rest and rolls down an inclined plane, as shown in the following figure, requiring 4 s to cover a distance of 100 cm along the plane :

65. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List-I List-II (Koppen’s Climatic Type) (Letter Code) A. Tropical wet (1) Af B. Mid-latitude desert (2) Cs C. Mediterranean (3) Df D. Humid continental (4) BWk Code : A B C D (a) 1 4 2 3 (b) 1 2 4 3 (c) 3 2 4 1 (d) 3 4 2 1 66. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List-I List-II

θ

Which one of the following is the correct value of angle θ that the plane makes with the horizontal ? (g = 1000 cm/s2)

 1  θ = sin −1  (a)   9.8 

 1  (b) θ = sin −1    20 

 1  θ = sin −1   (c)  80 

 1  (d) θ = sin −1    100 

62. The coefficient of areal expansion of a material is 1.6 × 10-5 K-1. Which one of the following

(Railway Zone) (Headquarters) A. West Central (1) Jabalpur B. South East Central (2) Gorakhpur C. East Central (3) Bilaspur D. North Eastern (4) Hajipur Code : A B C D (a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 1 4 3 2 (c) 2 4 3 1 (d) 1 3 4 2

163

SOLVED PAPERS - 2018 (II) 67. Which one of the following is the correct descending order of Indian States in terms of sex ratio as per Census 2011 ? (a) Mizoram-Manipur-Tripura-Meghalaya (b) Tripura-Manipur-Meghalaya-Mizoram (c) Meghalaya-Manipur-Mizoram-Tripura (d) Manipur-Meghalaya-Tripura-Mizoram

73. Which one among the following is not a Fundamental Right under the Constitution of India ? (a) Right to equality (b) Right to freedom (c) Right to citizenship (d) Right against exploitation

68. Steppe (temperate continental) climate is not experienced in which one of the following places ? (a) Pretoria (b) Saskatchewan (c) Perth (d) Buenos Aires

74. Which one of the following crops was introduced by the Portuguese in India ? (a) Opium (b) Coffee (c) Betel leaf (d) Chili

69. Which one of the following is not a process of chemical weathering ? (a) Solution (b) Carbonation (c) Oxidation (d) Exfoliation 70. Which one of the following statements is correct for a plane mirror ? (a) Its focal length is zero. (b) The size of the image of an object placed in front of the mirror is slightly less than that of the object. (c) The image is virtual, erect and laterally inverted. (d) Its focal length is 200 cm. 71. An object is placed in front of a convex mirror. Which one of the following statements is correct ? (a) It will never form an inverted image. (b) The image moves towards the focus when the object moves towards the mirror. (c) Depending on the position of the object with respect to the mirror, the image can be inverted and real. (d) The size of the image becomes larger than that of the object when the object is placed at a distance equal to half the focal length. 72. A circular coil of radius R having N number of turns carries a steady current I. The magnetic induction at the centre of the coil is 0.1 tesla. If the number of turns is doubled and the radius is halved, which one of the following will be the correct value for the magnetic induction at the centre of the coil ? (a) 0.05 tesla (b) 0.2 tesla (c) 0.4 tesla (d) 0.8 tesla

75. Consider the following statements about merchant guilds of South India : (1) Ayyavole merchant guild was originally established in Aihole. (2) Manigraman merchant guild was subordinated to the Anjuvannam merchant guild in the 13th century.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 76. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ? Bhakti Saint Philosophy (a) Shankara : Avadhuta (b) Ramananda : Kevaladvaita (c) Ramanuja : Vishishtadvaita (d) Chaitanya : Advaita 77. When did the Stamp Act Congress consisting of delegates from 9 of the 13 colonies of America meet in New York City ? (a) 1763 (b) 1764 (c) 1765 (d) 1766 78. Who among the following travellers was from Italy and visited Vijayanagar Kingdom in the fifteenth century ? (a) Nikitin (b) Fa-Hien (c) Bernier (d) Nicolo Conti 79. Where did the French East India Company first establish its factory in India ? (a) Calicut (b) Surat (c) Pondicherry (d) Masulipatnam

164

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

80. The Central Vigilance Commission was established on the recommendation of which one of the following Committees ? (a) Santhanam Committee (b) Dinesh Goswami Committee (c) Tarkunde Committee (d) Narasimham Committee

86. Who among the following is not a member of G7 ? (a) France (b) Germany (c) Russia (d) Japan

81. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List-I List-II (Author) (Book) A. Bal Gangadhar Tilak (1) The Arctic Home in the Vedas B. Dadabhai Naoroji (2) Hind Swaraj C. Mahatma Gandhi (3) The Discovery of India D. Jawaharlal Nehru (4)  Poverty and UnBritish Rule in India Code : A B C D (a) 3 4 2 1 (b) 3 2 4 1 (c) 1 4 2 3 (d) 1 2 4 3 82. Which one of the following is the Official Mascot of the FIFA World Cup, 2018 ? (a) Fuleco (b) Zakumi (c) Pille (d) Zabivaka 83. The Headquarters of the proposed National Sports University (As per the National Sports University Ordinance, 2018) will be set up in (a) Chhattisgarh (b) Manipur (c) Kerala (d) West Bengal 84. Sentosa island, which was in news recently, is located in (a) Singapore (b) China (c) Australia (d) Sri Lanka 85. India, in June 2018, asserted that any mega connectivity project must respect sovereignty and territorial integrity of the countries. The project referred to above is (a) North-South Corridor Project (b) Belt and Road Initiative (c) Chabahar Port (d) Panama Canal Expansion

87. Who among the following leaders started the Indian Home Rule League ? (a) Gopal Krishna Gokhale (b) Mahatma Gandhi (c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (d) J. B. Kripalani 88. Every Judge of the Supreme Court of India is appointed by (a) the Supreme Court Collegium (b) the Cabinet (c) the President of India (d) the Lok Sabha 89. The Nehru-Mahalanobis Strategy of Development was implemented for the first time by which one of the following Five-Year Plans ? (a) First Five-Year Plan (b) Second Five-Year Plan (c) Third Five-Year Plan (d) Seventh Five-Year Plan 90. Which one of the following is not a part of the Directive Principles of State Policy as enshrined in the Constitution of India ? (a) Equal justice and free legal aid (b) Protection of monuments and places and objects of national importance (c) Protection of personal law (d) Separation of Judiciary from Executive 91. The word ‘socialist’ was inserted into the Preamble to the Constitution of India through which one of the following Amendment Acts ? (a) 41st Amendment Act (b) 42nd Amendment Act (c) 43rd Amendment Act (d) 44th Amendment Act 92. The place of English East India Company settlement in Madras was known as (a) Fort William (b) Fort St. George (b) Elphinstone Circle (d) Marble Palace

165

SOLVED PAPERS - 2018 (II) 93. Which one of the following Indian States (other than Himalayan or NE States) ranked first in the Composite Water Management Index as per the report issued by the NITI Aayog in June 2018 ? (a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Karnataka (c) Gujarat (d) Maharashtra 94. Who among the following is the ex officio Chairman of the North Eastern Council ? (a) The President of India (b) The Prime Minister of India (c) The Union Home Minister (d) The Union Minister of State (Independent Charge), Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region 95. Which one of the following is the theme of the World Blood Donor Day, 2018 ? (a) Blood connects us all (b) Be there for someone else. Give blood. Share life (c) Give blood. Give now. Give often (d) Thank you for saving my life 96. ‘Seva Bhoj Yojana’, a scheme of the Government of India that seeks to reimburse Central share of CGST and IGST on Food/ Prasad/Langar/Bhandara offered by religious institutions, is introduced recently by which one of the following Ministries ? (a) The Ministry of Culture

(c) The Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution (d) The Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment 97. Dr. Bindeshwar Pathak, who was awarded Nikkei Asia Prize, 2018 for Culture and Community, is the founder of (a) Bachpan Bachao Andolan (b) PRS Legislative Research (c) Sulabh Sanitation and Social Reform Movement (d) Smile Foundation 98. Article 352 of the Constitution of India contains provisions related to (a) financial emergency. (b) failure of constitutional machinery in States. (c) suspension of the enforcement of rights conferred in Part III of the Constitution. (d) general emergency. 99. The Theosophical Society was led by (a) A. O. Hume (b) Arthur Griffith (c) Annie Besant (d) Lord Dufferin 100. Which one of the following statements about Bipin Chandra Pal is correct ? (a) He was a member of the moderate group of Congress. (b) He was a member of the extremist group of Congress. (c) He was the Minister of Defence in the first Government of independent India. (d) He was the Chief Minister of West Bengal.

(b) The Ministry of Home Affairs

 

Finished Solving the Paper ? Time to evaluate yourself !

SCAN THE CODE

For elaborated Solutions

SCAN

166

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

Answers Q No

Answer Key

Topic Name

Chapter Name

1

(b)

Sound Wave

Sound Waves and their Properties

2

(a)

Sound Wave

Sound Waves and their Properties

3

(b)

Indian Constitution

Elementary Study of Indian Constitution and Administration

4

(c)

Mughal Architecture

Mughal Dynasty

5

(b)

Phytoplanktons

Ecosystem

6

(a)

Geostrophic wind

Velocity and Acceleration

7

(a)

Eukaryotic Cell

Cell

8

(b)

Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum

Cell

9

(a)

Meristems

Plant Anatomy

10

(c)

Monera

Biological Classification

11

(a)

Viral Disease

Human Diseases

12

(b)

Atomic Number

Elementary Ideas about the Structure of Atom

13

(d)

Atomic Number

Elementary Ideas About the Structure of Atom

14

(c)

Heterogenous Mixture

Elements, Compounds and Mixtures

15

(b)

Formula Mass

Atomic Mass and Molecular Mass

16

(c)

Carbon Monoxide

Carbon and Its Compound

17

(d)

Ultra Sound Wave

Sound Waves and their Properties

18

(a)

Magnetic Field

Magnetic Effect of Electric Current

19

(c)

Ideal Gases

Kinetic Theory of Gases

20

(b)

Units

Units and Measurement

21

(a)

LED

Semiconductor Electronics

22

(b)

Electric Potential

Electrostatics

23

(b)

Location

Regional Geography of India

24

(d)

Delta Region

Important Sea Ports and Main Sea, Land and Air Routes of India

25

(c)

Wild Life Sanctuaries

Current Affairs

26

(d)

Temperature

Temperature and Atmospheric Pressure

27

(b)

Salinity

Important Sea Ports and Main Sea, land and air Routes of India

28

(c)

Hard and Soft Water

Chemistry in Everyday Life

29

(a)

Stoichiometry

Chemical Reactions and Equations

30

(d)

Acidity and Basicity

Acids, Bases and Salts

31

(d)

Allotropes of Carbon

Carbon and its Compound

32

(a)

Carbon Dioxide

Carbon and its Compound

33

(d)

Stomach

Digestive System

34

(a)

Heart

Circulatory System

167

SOLVED PAPERS - 2018 (II)

Q No

Answer Key

Topic Name

Chapter Name

35

(a)

Photosynthesis

Growth and Reproduction in Plants and Animals

36

(b)

Reflex Arc

Neural Control

37

(d)

Plants

Growth and Reproduction in Plants and Animals

38

(b)

Resistance

Current Electricty

39

(c)

Temperature

Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry

40

(b)

Properties of EMW

Electromagnetic Waves

41

(b)

Simple Pendulum

Oscillations

42

(c)

Domestic Circuit

Current Electricity

43

(b)

Resistance

Current Electricty

44

(d)

Optical Instruments

Ray Optics

45

(c)

Gravity

Gravitation

46

(a)

Rivers

Current Affairs

47

(c)

Current Important World Events

Current Affairs

48

(d)

Majuli Island

Regional Geography of India

49

(d)

Census

Current Affairs

50

(c)

Condensation and Precipitation

Temperature and Atmospheric Pressure

51

(b)

Location

Regional Geography of India

52

(c)

Rocks

Origin of Earth. Rocks and their Classification

53

(c)

pH of Solutions

Acids, Bases and Salts

54

(c)

Oxidation and Reduction Reactions

Redox Reactions

55

(b)

Chemical Fertilizers

Some Important Chemical Compounds

56

(a)

Gypsum

Some Important Chemical Compounds

57

(c)

Mass

Physical Properties and States of Matter

58

(a)

Properties of EMW

Electromagnetic Waves

59

(d)

Acceleration

Motion

60

(a)

Power of lens

Ray Optics

61

(c)

Motion on Inclined Plane

Laws of Motion

62

(b)

Thermal Expansion

Thermal Properties of Matter

63

(a)

Refractive Index

Ray Optics

64

(c)

Green House Gases

Environmental Chemistry

65

(a)

Temperature and Atmospheric Pressure

Major Natural Regions of the World

66

(d)

Railway

Current Affairs

67

(c)

Census

Current Affairs

68

(a)

Climate

Major Natural Regions of the World

69

(d)

Climate Weathering

Weathering—Mechanical and Chemical

70

(c)

Mirror

Ray Optics

168

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

Q No

Answer Key

Topic Name

Chapter Name

71

(a)

Convex Lens

Ray Optics

72

(c)

Mutual Induction

Electromagnetic Induction

73

(c)

Fundamental Rights

Elementary Study of Indian Constitution and Administration

74

(d)

Portugese

Agricultural Crops

75

(a)

Chalukaya Dynasty

A Broad survey of Indian History with Emphasis on Culture and Civilisation

76

(c)

Sufi Saint

A broad Survey of Indian History with Emphasis on Culture and Civilisation

77

(c)

Vijaynagar Kingdom

A broad Survey of Indian History with Emphasis on Culture and Civilisation

78

(d)

Foreign Travellers

A broad survey of Indian History with Emphasis on Culture and Civilisation

79

(b)

French East India Company

Exploration and Discovery

80

(a)

Central Vigilance Commission

Current Affairs

81

(c)

Freedom Fighters

Freedom Movement in India

82

(d)

Sports

Current Affairs

83

(b)

National Sports University

Current Affairs

84

(a)

Sentosa Island

Current Affairs

85

(b)

Government Projects

Current Affairs

86

(c)

International Organisation

Current Affairs

87

(c)

Indian Home Rule League

Freedom Movement in India

88

(c)

Supreme Court

Elementary Study of Indian Constitution and Administration

89

(b)

Five Year Plans

Elementary knowledge of Five Year Plans of India

90

(c)

DPSP

Elementary study of Indian Constitution and Administration

91

(b)

Amendments

Elementary study of Indian Constitution and Administration

92

(b)

East India Company

Forces Shaping the Modern World

93

(c)

Indexes

Current Affairs

94

(c)

Appointments

Current Affairs

95

(b)

Important Days

Current Affairs

96

(a)

Government Schemes

Current Affairs

97

(c)

Prize

Current Affairs

98

(d)

Article 352

Elementary Study of Indian Constitution and Administration

99

(c)

The Theosophical Society

Forces Shaping the Modern World

100

(b)

Freedom Fighters

Freedom Movement in India

NDA / NA

GENERAL ABILITY TEST

National Defence Academy / Naval Academy

I

Time : 1hr 40 mins

question Paper

2017 Total Marks : 400

Important Instructions : 1. This Test contains 100 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case, you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. 2. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. 3. All items carry equal marks. 4. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions. 5. Penalty for wrong answers : THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS. (i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one·third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. (ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question. (iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.

1. Which one of the following devices changes low voltage alternating current to high voltage alternating current and vice versa ? (a) Generator (b) Motor (c) Transformer (d) Vibrator 2. An optical illusion which occurs mainly in deserts during hot summer is based on the principle of (a) Reflection (b) Interference (c) Dispersion (d) Total internal reflection 3. At which place Earth's magnetic field becomes horizontal ? (a) Magnetic meridian (b) Magnetic equator (c) Geographical pole (d) Tropic of Cancer 4. The speed of a car travelling on a straight road is listed below at successive intervals of 1 s : Time (s) 0 1 2 3 4 Speed (m/s) 0 2 4 6 8 Which of the following is/are correct ? The car travels (1) with a uniform acceleration of 2 m/s2. (2) 16 m in 4 s. (3) with an average speed of 4 m/s.



Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1 only 5. The speed of a body that has Mach number more than 1 is (a) supersonic (b) subsonic (c) 300 m/s (d) about 10 m/s 6. Molecules of which of the following has cage like structure ? (1) Diamond (2) Graphite (3) Fullerenes

Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 2 only (d) 3 only 7. Temporary hardness in water is due to which one of the following of Calcium and Magnesium ? (a) Hydrogencarbonates (b) Carbonates (c) Chlorides (d) Sulphates

170 8. Stung by hairs of nettle leaves causes burning pain. This is due to the injection of (a) Acetic acid (b) Methanoic acid (c) Sulphuric acid (d) Hydrochloric acid 9. Which one of the following elements is least reactive with water ? (a) Lithium (b) Sodium (c) Potassium (d) Cesium 10. Rutherford's alpha-particle scattering experiment was responsible for the discovery of (a) Electron (b) Proton (c) Nucleus (d) Helium 11. Glass is a (a) liquid (b) colloid (c) non-crystalline amorphous solid (d) crystalline solid 12. Cell wall of any fungus is different from plants in having (a) cellulose (b) chitin (c) cholesterol (d) glycogen 13. Sleeping sickness is a parasitic disease of humans and other animals. It is caused by (a) Histomonas (b) Trypanosoma (c) Angomonas (d) Naegleria 14. Which one of the following agencies enforces the laws on food security in India ? (a) FDA (b) WHO (c) FSSAI (d) FAQ 15. Dengue virus causes high fever, rashes and reduces the number of a particular type of blood cells. Those blood cells are (a) Monocytes (b) Platelets (c) Eosinophils (d) Neutrophils 16. Kidney secretes an enzyme, which changes plasma protein angiotensinogen into angiotensin. The enzyme is (a) Renin (b) Nitrogenase (c) Hydrolase (d) Mono-oxygenase 17. Red blood cells (RBCs) have (a) no nucleus, no mitochondria and no endoplasmic reticulum (b) nucleus, mitochondria and endoplasmic reticulum (c) nucleus, mitochondria but no endoplasmic reticulum (d) no mitochondria but endoplasmic reticulum is present

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS 18. According to the Census 2011, the density of population in which one among the following States is the lowest ? (a) Sikkim (b) Nagaland (c) Manipur (d) Mizoram 19. Headquarters of the World Meteorological Organization is located in (a) Washington (b) Geneva (c) Moscow (d) London 20. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List I List II (Industry) (Place) (A) Petrochemical (1) Coimbatore (B) Aircraft (2) Pinjore (C) Machine tools (3) Bengaluru (D) Cotton textiles (4) Bongaigaon Code : A (a) 4 (b) 4 (c) 1 (d) 1

B C D 3 2 1 2 3 1 2 3 4 3 2 4

21. Consider the following statements pertaining to Coffee plantation in India : (1) Need warm and moist climate with a spell of dry weather during the ripening period. (2) Rolling fields having good drainage. (3) Strong sunshine over hilly slopes exceeding temperature 35° C. (4) Karnataka is the leading producer in India.

Which of the statements given above are correct ? (a) 1 and 4 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4 22. Dr. Urjit Patel, who has been appointed recently as Governor of Reserve Bank of India, was holding which position immediately prior to this appointment ? (a) Chief Economist, IMF (b) Deputy Governor, Reserve Bank of India (c) Chief Economic Advisor to the Government of India (d) Professor of Economics at Harvard University

171

SOLVED PAPERS: 2017 (I) 23. Who among the following personalities is NOT a Governor of any Indian State ? (a) Najma Heptulla (b) Ram Nath Kovind (c) Acharya Dev Vrat (d) Arvind Subramaniam

having 543 members), and these members are elected from at least three different States. (3) The party in question has got recognition as a state party in at least two states. (4) It must have its headquarters in New Delhi.

24. Which of the following cricket teams was defeated by India to lift the Women's Twenty 20 Asia Cup 2016 ? (a) Bangladesh (b) Sri Lanka (c) Pakistan (d) Afghanistan



25. Which one of the following was the venue of 2nd BRICS Youth Summit of the Ministers, Officials and Youth Delegations ? (a) New Delhi (b) Mumbai (c) Shillong (d) Guwahati 26. Which one among the following states of India has recently proposed to frame the first Internal Security Act to deal with the challenges of terrorism, insurgency, communalism and caste violence ? (a) Maharashtra (b) Gujarat (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Chhattisgarh 27. The World Humanitarian Day is being observed every year on which date ? (a) 24 October (b) 19 August (c) 10 December (d) 8 March 28. Surge pricing takes place when a service provider (a) raises the price of its product or service as demand outstrips supply. (b) follows preset prices immune to demand and supply dynamics. (c) fixes a minimum price for its services. (d) fixes an average price on the basis of transactions carried over a day. 29. By fulfilling which of the following conditions can a political party claim the status of a national party ? (1) It secures at least six per cent (6%) of the valid votes polled in any four or more states, at a general election to the House of the People or, to the State Legislative Assembly. (2) It wins at least four seats in the House of the People from any State or States or wins at least two per cent (2%) seats in the House of the People (i.e., 11 seats in the existing House

Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4 (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 3 only 4 30. In its emphasis on enhancing human capabilities, which one among the following does NOT figure in the Twelfth Five-Year Plan ? (a) Life and longevity (b) Education (c) Delivery of Public Service (d) Skill development 31. Which one of the following is NOT a target of the 12th Five-Year Plan ? (a) Real GDP Growth Rate of 8 per cent (b) Agriculture Growth Rate of 5 per cent (c) Manufacturing Growth Rate of 10 per cent (d) Increase in green cover by 1 million hectare every year during the Plan period 32. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct ? (a) In the conduction mode of transference of heat, the molecules of solid pass heat from one molecule to another without moving from their positions. (b) The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of a substance is called its specific heat capacity. (c) The process of heat transfer in liquids and gases is through convection mode. (d) The process of heat transfer from a body at higher temperature to a body at lower temperature without heating the space between them is known as radiation. 33. The amount of heat required to change a liquid to gaseous state without any change in temperature is known as (a) specific heat capacity (b) mechanical equivalent of heat (c) latent heat of vaporization (d) quenching

172

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS



Displacement

34. The following figure shows displacement versus time curve for a particle executing simple harmonic motion :

0

2



4

6

8

10 Time (s)

Which one of the following statements correct ? (a) Phase of the oscillating particle is same t = l s and t = 3 s. (b) Phase of the oscillating particle is same t = 2 s and t = 8 s. (c) Phase of the oscillating particle is same t = 3 s and t = 7 s. (d) Phase of the oscillating particle is same t = 4 s and t = 10 s.

is at at

(a) B (b) 2B (c) B/2 (d) B/4 38. Which one of the following statements is correct about the magnification of an optical microscope ? (a) Magnification increases with the increase in focal length of eyepiece. (b) Magnification increases with the increase in focal length of objective. (c) Magnification does not depend upon the focal length of eyepiece. (d) Magnification decreases with the increase in focal length of eyepiece. 39. A homogeneous mixture contains two liquids. How are they separated ? (a) By filtration (b) By evaporation (c) By distillation (d) By condensation

at

40. Which one of the following elements forms highest number of compounds ? (a) Oxygen (b) Hydrogen (c) Chlorine (d) Carbon

35. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List I List II (Disease) (Remedy) (A) Hypermetropia (1) Concave lens (B) Presbyopia (2) Bifocal lens (C) Myopia (3) Surgery (D) Cataract (4) Convex lens

42. 20 g of common salt is dissolved in 180 g of water. What is the mass percentage of the salt in the solution ? (a) 5% (b) 9% (c) 10% (d) 15%

at

Code : A B C D (a) 4 2 1 3 (b) 4 1 2 3 (c) 3 1 2 4 (d) 3 2 1 4 36. A circular coil of single turn has a resistance of 20 W. Which one of the following is the correct value for the resistance between the ends of any diameter of the coil ? (a) 5 W (b) 10 W (c) 20 W (d) 40 W 37. In a solenoid, the current flowing through the wire is I and number of turns per unit length is n. This gives a magnetic field B inside the solenoid. If number of turns per unit length is increased to 2n, what will be the value of magnetic field in the solenoid ?

41. Which one of the following elements corrodes rapidly ? (a) Aluminium (b) Iron (c) Zinc (d) Silver

43. The valency of an element depends upon the (a) total number of protons in an atom (b) mass number of an atom (c) total number of neutrons in an atom (d) total number of electrons in the outer most shell of an atom 44. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List I List II (Noble gas) (Use) (A) Argon (1) In lights for advertising display (B) Neon (2)  Airport landing lights and in light houses (C) Krypton (3) Light in photographer's flash gun (D) Xenon (4) In tungsten filament to last longer

173

SOLVED PAPERS: 2017 (I) Code : A B C D (a) 3 1 2 4 (b) 3 2 1 4 (c) 4 2 1 3 (d) 4 1 2 3 45. Colour vision in human eyes is the function of photoreceptor cells named (a) Rods (b) Cones (c) Blind spot (d) Fovea 46. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct ? (a) All proteins are enzymes. (b) Mostly enzymes are proteins. (c) All fats are energy rich compounds. (d) Glucose is a common carbohydrate. 47. Sugarcane is one of the important cash crops in India. It is grown to obtain (a) Starch (b) Glucose (c) Fructose (d) Sucrose 48. The colourful part of the Sunflower or Marigold plant is (a) Flower (b) Inflorescence (c) Fruit (d) Seed 49. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List I List II (Mineral) (Leading State) (A) Manganese (1) Uttarakhand (B) Gypsum (2) Karnataka (C) Limestone (3) Rajasthan (D) Magnesite (4) Odisha Code : A B C D (a) 1 3 2 4 (b) 1 2 3 4 (c) 4 2 3 1 (d) 4 3 2 1 50. Which one among the following is the correct order of tiger reserves situated from North to South in India ? (a) Corbett – Simlipal – Sariska – Periyar (b) Periyar – Sariska – Simlipal – Corbett (c) Corbett – Sariska – Simlipal –Periyar (d) Periyar – Simlipal – Sariska – Corbett

51. Which of the following are correct with regard to Indian Monsoonal Rainfall ? (1) Largely governed by the topographical features (2) Regional and seasonal variation in the distribution of rainfall (3) Heavy downpour resulting in considerable runoff (4) Beginning and end of rain is regular and on time

Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 52. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List I List II (Type of climate) (State) (A) Monsoon with (1) Uttar Pradesh Short Dry and Bihar Season (Amw) (B) Cold Humid (2) Tamil Nadu Winter with Coast Short Summer (Dfc) (C) Monsoon with (3) Arunachal Dry Winter Pradesh (Cwg) (D) Monsoon with (4) Kerala and Dry summer Karnataka (As) Coast Code : A B C D (a) 4 3 1 2 (b) 4 1 3 2 (c) 2 1 3 4 (d) 2 3 1 4 53. Which one of the following Himalayan rivers does NOT originate from across the Himalayas ? (a) Indus (b) Satluj (c) Ganga (d) Brahmaputra 54. The Headquarters of Eastern Railway Zone of Indian Railway is located at (a) Bhubaneswar (b) Kolkata (c) Hajipur (d) Guwahati

174 55. Which one among the following countries is the largest trading partner of India in external trade for the year 2015-2016 ? (a) United States of America (b) United Kingdom (c) United Arab Emirates (d) China 56. The radii of curvature of the faces of a double convex lens are 10 cm and 20 cm. The refractive index of the glass is l.5. What is the power of this lens? (a) + 7.5 D (b) - 7.5 D (c) + 2.5 D (d) + 5.0 D 57. The time period of a simple pendulum made using a thin copper wire of length L is T. Suppose the temperature of the room in which this simple pendulum is placed increases by 30° C, what will be the effect on the time period of the pendulum ? (a) T will increase slightly (b) T will remain the same (c) T will decrease slightly (d) T will become more than 2 times 58. Which one of the following physical quantity has the same unit as that of pressure ? (a) Angular momentum (b) Stress (c) Strain (d) Work 59. Which one of the following statements is correct with regard to the material of electrical insulators ? (a) They contain no electrons. (b) Electrons do not flow easily through them. (c) They are crystals. (d) They have more number of electrons than the protons on their surface. 60. Which one of the following physical quantities does NOT affect the resistance of a cylindrical resistor ? (a) The current through it (b) Its length (c) The resistivity of the material used in the resistor (d) The area of cross-section of the cylinder 61. Which one of the following statements regarding King Krishnadevaraya is NOT correct ? (a) He was a great scholar of Telugu and Sanskrit.

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS (b) Foreign travellers Paes and Nuniz visited his court. (c) Barbosa praised him for the great justice and equity prevailing in his empire. (d) He wrote his magnum opus Amuktamalyada in Sanskrit. 62. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List I List II (Amendment to the (Subject) Constitution of India) (A) 52nd Amendment (1) Reduction of Act, 1985 voting age from 21 to 18 rd (B) 73 Amendment (2) Right to Act, 1992, Education st (C) 61 Amendment (3) Panchayati Act, 1988 Raj th (D) 86 Amendment (4) Disqualification Act, 2006 on grounds of defection Code : A B C D (a) 4 1 3 2 (b) 4 3 1 2 (c) 2 3 1 4 (d) 2 1 3 4 63. Which one of the following was NOT a cause of the Revolt of 1857 ? (a) The rumour that the British had mixed the bone dust of cows and pigs into the flour being sold in the market. (b) The prophecy that British rule would come to an end on the centenary of the Battle of Plassey on 2rd June, 1857. (c) Popular discontent with British rule. (d) The prophecy that the end of British rule would lead to the end of the Kali Yuga and the return of Ram Rajya. 64. Which one of the following was NOT a feature of the Subsidiary Alliance of Lord Wellesley ? (a) The British were responsible for protecting the ally from any external threats (b) All internal threats were to be handled by the ally alone, with no help from the British (c) The ally was to provide resources for maintaining a British armed contingent stationed in its territory

175

SOLVED PAPERS: 2017 (I) (d) The ally could not enter into any agreement with other rulers without the permission of the British 65. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List I List II (Place) (Mineral) (A) Lakwa (1) Copper (B) Malanjkhand (2) Petroleum (C) Kalakot (3) Zinc (D) Zawar (4) Coal Code : A B C D (a) 3 4 1 2 (b) 3 1 4 2 (c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 2 4 1 3 66. Which of the following are the major coral reef areas of India ? (1) Gulf of Kachchh (2) Gulf of Mannar (3) Lakshadweep (4) Andaman and Nicobar Islands

Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 67. Which of the following regions is/are NOT known for cotton-textile industry ? (1) Mumbai – Pune region (2) Madurai – Coimbatore-region (3) Dhanbad – Jamshedpur region (4) Indore – Ujjain region

Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 3 only 68. Which one of the following States does NOT have the Headquarters of any Railway Zone ? (a) Jharkhand (b) Chhattisgarh (c) Odisha (d) Bihar 69. Suppose a rod is given a negative charge by rubbing it with wool. Which one of the following statements is correct in this case ? (a) The positive charges are transferred from rod to wool. (b) The positive charges are transferred from wool to rod.

(c) The negative charges are transferred from rod to wool. (d) The negative charges are transferred from wool to rod. 70. Which one of the following is the correct relation between frequency f and angular frequency w ? (a) f = pw (b) w = 2pf (c) f= 2w/p (d) f = 2pw 71. A Kelvin thermometer and a Fahrenheit thermometer both give the same reading for a certain sample. What would be the corresponding reading in a Celsius thermometer ? (a) 574 (b) 301 (c) 273 (d) 232 72. If the potential difference applied to an X-ray tube is doubled while keeping the separation between the filament and the target as same, what will happen to the cutoff wavelength ? (a) Will remain same (b) Will be doubled (c) Will be halved (d) Will be four times of the original wavelength 73. Which one of the following statements is true Gm1m2 for the relation F = ? r2 (All symbols have their usual meanings) (a) The quantity G depends on the local value of g, acceleration due to gravity. (b) The quantity G is greatest at the surface of the Earth. (c) The quantity G is used only when earth is one of the two masses. (d) The quantity G is a universal constant. 74. Why is it difficult to measure the coefficient of expansion of a liquid than solid ? (a) Liquids tend to evaporate at all temperatures. (b) Liquids conduct more heat. (c) Liquids expand too much when heated. (d) Their containers also expand when heated. 75. Radon is (a) an inert gas (b) an artificial fibre (c) an explosive (d) a metal

176 76. The chemical name of baking soda is (a) Na2CO3 (b) NaHCO3 (c) CaCO3 (d) NaOH 77. Which one of the following elements is used in pencil-lead ? (a) Zinc (b) Lead (c) Carbon (Graphite) (d) Tin 78. Who among the following is one of the authors of the book "Philosophy of the Bomb ?" (a) Bhagat Singh (b) Jawaharlal Nehru (c) Surya Sen (d) Bhagwati Charan Vohra 79. Which of the following statements about the Chittagong group is NOT correct ? (a) Its membership included a large number of youth including Ganesh Ghosh, Lokenath Baul and Anant Singh (b) Its leader Surya Sen had been a lawyer in Dhaka before joining the group (c) Surya Sen and his group were closely associated with Congress work in Chittagong (d) This group had prepared an action plan to occupy the armouries in Chittagong 80. Which one of the following was a significant feature of the Quit India Movement ? (a) Women did not play an important role in the movement. (b) Nasik in Maharashtra was an important regional base during the movement. (c) It was marked by anti-zamindar violence. (d) It was marked by the emergence of parallel governments in different parts of India. 81. Which one of the following characteristics does NOT describe the Khilafat movement ? (a) Mahatma Gandhi sought to link it to the Non-Cooperation movement. (b) It was not supported by the Congress. (c) It demanded that the Turkish Sultan must retain control over Muslim sacred spaces in the erstwhile Ottoman empire. (d) It was led by Muhammad Ali and Shaukat Ali. 82. Which one of the following was NOT a feature of railways in colonial India ? (a) The main purpose of the setting up of railways in India was to serve the interest of the empire.

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS (b) British capital investments were invited with 15% guaranteed interest to be paid if necessary from Indian revenues. (c) The construction work disturbed ecology. (d) The construction of the railways was planned in such a way that it connected the internal markets with the ports, but provided no interconnection between internal market cities. 83. Which colonial administrator made the following declaration about the partition of Bengal in 1904 ? "Bengal united is a power. Bengal divided will pull in different ways. That is perfectly true and one of the merits of the scheme" (a) Lord Curzon (b) H. H. Risley (c) Lord Minto (d) Sir Lancelot Hare 84. Who launched the Bardoli Satyagraha on 4th February, 1928 ? (a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Vallabhbhai Patel (c) Rajendra Prasad (d) Kalyanji Mehta 85. Which one of the following Princely States did NOT support the Congress during the course of the Civil Disobedience Movement ? (a) Bhavnagar (b) Mysore (c) Junagadh (d) Kathiawar 86. Which one of the following is a feature of thought and philosophy of the Kandukuri Viresalingam ? (a) He believed that science and morality were unconnected to truth. (b) He believed in universal education. (c) He believed that language had no role in inculcating morality in students. (d) He did not attempt to build a national consciousness on a cultural base. 87. Name the calligrapher in Akbar's court who was honoured with the title "Zarrin Kalam" or Golden Pen (a) Abut Fazl (b) Tansen (c) Muhammad Husayn (d) Muhammad Kasim

177

SOLVED PAPERS: 2017 (I) 88. Which one o f the following sections of the Golden Quadrilateral Highway in India is the longest in terms of route distance ? (a) Delhi – Kolkata (b) Kolkata -– Chennai (c) Chennai – Mumbai (d) Mumbai – Delhi 89. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List I List II (Classification of) (Example) resources) (A) Basic (1) Hydel power inexhaustible resource (B) Conventional (2) Coal non-renewable resource (C) Non-conven- (3) Solar energy tional renewable resource (D) Non- (4) Natural gas conventional non-renewable resource Code : A B C D (a) 3 2 1 4 (b) 3 1 2 4 (c) 4 1 2 3 (d) 4 2 1 3 90. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List I List II (Mineral deposit) (State) (A) Gypsum (1) Odisha (B) Graphite (2) Gujarat (C) Fluorspar (3) Arunachal Pradesh (D) Nickel (4) Rajasthan Code : A B C D (a) 1 3 2 4 (b) 1 2 3 4 (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 4 2 3 1

91. Which one of the following pairs of Tribe and State is NOT correctly matched ? (a) Tharu : Madhya Pradesh (b) Adi : Arunachal Pradesh (c) Irula : Kerala (d) Shaharia : Rajasthan 92. If the absolute refractive indices of glass and water are 3/2 and 4/3 respectively, what will be the ratio of velocity of light in glass and water ? (a) 3 : 4 (b) 4:3 (c) 8 : 7 (d) 8:9 93. A positive charge +q is placed at the centre of a hollow metallic sphere of inner radius a and outer radius b. The electric field at a distance r from the centre is denoted by E. In this regard, which one of the following statements is correct ? (a) E = 0 for a < r < b (b) E=0 for r < a (c) E = q/4pe0r for a < r < b (d) E = q/4pe0a for r < a 94. Consider the following Indian States : (1) Bihar (2) Rajasthan (3) Jammu and Kashmir (4) Haryana

Which one of the following is the correct ascending order of the above States on the basis of percentage of State's population to total population of India (based on census 2011) ? (a) 3–4–1–2 (b) 4–2–1–3 (c) 3–4–2–1 (d) 2–3–4–1 95. Who among the following was the author of the Badshah Nama ? (a) Abdul Hamid Lahori (b) Abul Fazl (c) Shah Jahan (d) Sadullah Khan 96. Which one of the following statements about Fatehpur Sikri is NOT correct ? (a) It was located on the direct road to Ajmer. (b) Akbar commissioned the building of a marble tomb for Sheikh Salim Chisti next to the Friday mosque at Fatehpur Sikri.

178

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

(c) The arched gateway or Bulund Darwaza was meant to remind visitors of the Mughal victory in Gujarat. (d) In 1585, the capital of the Mughal emperor shifted from Fatehpur Sikri to Delhi. 97. Which one of the following cities hosted the 3rd World Trauma Congress recently ? (a) New Delhi (b) Dacca (c) Singapore (d) Bangkok 98. Which one of the following is NOT one of the objectives of Act East Policy ? (a) To promote economic cooperation, cultural ties and develop strategic relationship with countries in the Asia-Pacific region. (b) To promote peace and amity with the neighbouring countries of Asia. (c) To place emphasis on India-ASEAN cooperation in India's domestic agenda. (d) To provide enhanced connectivity to the North East of India.

For elaborated Solutions



Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 1, 3, 2, 4 (c) 4, 3, 2, 1 (d) 4, 3 1, 2 100. Which one of the following is NOT an objective of the National Civil Aviation Policy 2016 ? (a) Establish an integrated eco-system which will lead to significant growth of civil aviation sector. (b) To promote tourism, increase employment and lead to a balanced regional growth. (c) Ensure safety, security and sustainability of all sectors through the use of technology. (d) Enhance regional connectivity through fiscal support and infrastructure development.

 

Finished Solving the Paper ? Time to evaluate yourself !

SCAN THE CODE

99. Arrange the following countries in ascending order on the basis of the total medals earned by them in Rio Olympic 2016 : (1) United States (2) China (3) Great Britain (4) Russia

SCAN

179

SOLVED PAPERS: 2017 (I)

Answers Q No

Answer Key

Topic's Name

Chapter's Name

1

(c)

Transformer

Current Electricity

2

(d)

Total Internal Reflection

Ray Optics

3

(a)

Magnetic Field

Magnetism and Matter

4

(a)

Acceleration

Motion

5

(a)

Sound

Waves

6

(d)

Carbon and its compound

Some Important Chemical Compounds

7

(a)

Soaps-hardness of soap

Some Important Chemical Compounds

8

(b)

Acids

Acids, Bases & Salts

9

(a)

Alkali Metals-Chemical Properties

Metals and Non-Metals

10

(c)

Rutherford's Experiment

Structure of Atom

11

(c)

Glass

Elements. Compounds & Mixtures

12

(b)

Cell Wall

Biological Classification

13

(b)

Protozoan Diseases

Human Disease

14

(c)

Current Important World Events

Current Affairs

15

(b)

Communicable Disease

Human Disease

16

(a)

Renin

Excretory System

17

(a)

Red Blood Cells

Circulatory System

18

(d)

Census

Current Affairs

19

(b)

Current Important World Events

Current Affairs

20

(a)

Current Important World Events

Current Affairs

21

(d)

Natural Vegetation

Regional Geography of India

22

(b)

Current Important World Events

Current Affairs

23

(d)

Current Important World Events

Current Affairs

24

(c)

Current Important World Events

Current Affairs

25

(d)

Current Important World Events

Current Affairs

26

(a)

Current Important World Events

Current Affairs

27

(b)

Current Important World Events

Current Affairs

28

(a)

Current Important World Events

Current Affairs

29

(c)

Political Parties

Elementary Study of Indian Constitution and Administration

30

(c)

Elementary Knowledge of Five Year Plans of India

Concept of One World

31

(b)

Elementary Knowledge of Five Year Plans of India

Concept of One World

32

(b)

Modes of Heat Transfer

Thermal Properties of Matter

33

(c)

Latent Heat

Thermal Properties of Matter

34

(c)

Simple Harmonic Motion

Oscillation

180

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

Q No

Answer Key

Topic's Name

Chapter's Name

35

(a)

Eye Defects

Ray Optics

36

(a)

Diameter

General Principles in the Working

37

(b)

Velocity and Acceleration

Properties of a Magnet

38

(d)

Motion of Objects

Natural and Artificial Magnets

39

(c)

Separation of Mixtures

Elements, Compounds & Mixtures

40

(d)

Catenation Property

Carbon and its compounds

41

(b)

Rusting

Redox Reactions

42

(c)

Concentration of Solutions

Solutions

43

(d)

Valency

Atomic Mass and Equivalent Mass

44

(d)

Noble gases Uses

Metals and Non-metals

45

(b)

Spherical Mirrors and Lenses

Human Eye

46

(a)

Proteins

Biomolecules

47

(d)

Distribution of Agricultural and Industrial Activities

Regional Geography of India

48

(b)

Inflorescence

Plant Morphology

49

(d)

Mineral and Power Resources

Regional Geography of India

50

(c)

Tiger Reserve

Current Affairs

51

(b)

Monsoon

Types of Climates

52

(a)

Monsoon

Types of Climates

53

(c)

Rivers

Current Affairs

54

(b)

Railway

Current Affairs

55

(d)

Current Important World Events

Current Affairs

56

(a)

Power of Lens

Ray Optics

57

(a)

Simple Pendulum

Oscillations

58

(b)

Units

Units and Measurements

59

(b)

Conductors

Current Electricity

60

(a)

Resistance

Current Electricity

61

(d)

Vijaynagar Empire

A Broad Survey of Indian History

62

(b)

Amendments

Elementary Study of Indian Constitution and Administration

63

(d)

Revolt of 1857

Freedom Movement in India

64

(b)

Forces Shaping the Modern World

A Broad Survey of Indian History

65

(c)

Material Used in the Preparation of Substances

Regional Geography of India

66

(d)

Material Used in the Preparation of Substances

Regional Geography of India

67

(d)

Material Used in the Preparation of

Regional Geography of India

Substances 68

(a)

Railway

Current Affairs

69

(d)

Charge

Electrostatics

70

(b)

Simple Harmonic Motion

Oscillations

181

SOLVED PAPERS: 2017 (I)

Q No

Answer Key

71

(b)

Topic's Name Temperature

Chapter's Name Thermal Properties of Matter

72

(b)

X Rays

Atoms

73

(d)

Gravitational Force

Gravitation

74

(d)

Thermal Expansion

Thermal Properties of Matter

75

(a)

Noble Gases

Metals and Non-metals

76

(b)

Baking Soda

Some Important Chemical Compounds

77

(c)

Carbon Elements

Elements, Compounds & Mixtures

78

(d)

Books and Authors

Modern History

79

(b)

Freedom Fighters

Freedom Movement in India

80

(d)

Quit India Movement

Mahatama Gandhi

81

(b)

Khilafat Movement

Freedom Movement in India

82

(b)

Railway

Current Affairs

83

(b)

Partition of Bengal

Freedom Movement in India

84

(b)

Bardoli Satyagrah

Freedom Movement in India

85

(b)

Civil Disobedience Movement

Freedom Movement in India

86

(b)

K Viresalingam

Social Reformers

87

(c)

Authors

Mughal Empire

88

(b)

Land Route

Important Sea Ports and Main Sea, Land and Air Routes of India

89

(a)

Natural Resources

Mineral and Power Resources

90

(c)

Natural Resources

Mineral and Power Resources

91

(a)

Natural Vegetation

Regional Geography of India

92

(d)

Refraction

Ray Optics

93

(a)

Electric Field Intensity

Electrostatics

94

(c)

Census

Current Affairs

95

(a)

Authors

Mughal Empire

96

(d)

Akbar

Mughal Empire

97

(a)

Important Events

Current Affairs

98

(b)

Current Important World Events

Current Affairs

99

(c)

Sports Events

Current Affairs

100

(c)

Government Schemes

Current Affairs

NDA / NA

GENERAL ABILITY TEST

National Defence Academy / Naval Academy

II

QUESTION PAPER

2017

Time : 1hr 40min

Total Marks : 400

Important Instructions : 1. This Test contains 100 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case, you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. 2. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. 3. All items carry equal marks. 4. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions. 5. Penalty for wrong answers : THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS. (i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one·third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. (ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question. (iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.

1. Which one of the following was set as a target of average growth of GDP of India over the plan period 2012 – 2017 by the Approach Paper to the Twelfth Five Year Plan ? (a) 7 percent (b) 8 percent (c) 9 percent (d) 10 percent 2. Which one of the following is not a subject that has been devolved to the Panchayati Raj Institutions by the 11th Schedule of the Constitution of India ? (a) Non-conventional energy resources (b) Roads (c) Higher education (d) Libraries 3. Who among the following used the term Industrial Revolution for the first time in English to describe the changes that occurred in the British industrial development between 1760 and 1820 ? (a) Friedrich Engels (b) Eric Hobsbawm (c) Arnold Toynbee (d) Georges Michelet 4. Who among the following is the author of the book 'The Indian Struggle, 1920–1934' ? (a) Maulana Abul Kalam (b) Jayprakash Narayan

(c) Subhash Chandra Bose (d) Manabendra Nath Roy 5. Which one of the following about the Swadeshi Campaign in 1896 is not correct ? (a) Its centre was Maharashtra (b) Its main participants were students (c) It opposed the levy of tariff on imports (d) It publicly burnt foreign clothes 6. Which one of the following associations was founded in London by Dadabhai Naoroji in 1866 ? (a) The Bengal British India Society (b) The East India Association (c) The British Indian Association (d) The Madras Native Association 7. Mariana Trench is located in the ocean floor of (a) Southern Atlantic Ocean (b) Western Pacific Ocean (c) Eastern Pacific Ocean (d) Northern Atlantic Ocean 8. Taklamakan Desert is situated in (a) Western Asia (b) Southern fringe of Sahara in Africa (c) South America (d) Central Asia

183

SOLVED PAPERS - 2017 (II) 9. Rudraprayag is situated at the confluence of rivers Alaknanda and (a) Bhagirathi (b) Mandakini (c) Nandakini (d) Dhauliganga 10. Arrange the following Indian cities according to their locations from west to east : (1) Bilaspur (2) Jodhpur (3) Bhopal (4) Ranchi

Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) 3-2-1-4 (b) 2-3-1-4 (c) 4-1-2-3 (d) 2-1-3-4 11. The Kashmir region receives additional amount of precipitation during the winter brought by (a) South-west Monsoon (b) Western Disturbances (c) Retreating Monsoon (d) Temperate Cyclone 12. Which part of India has the Kalakot tertiary coal field ? (a) Brahmaputra river basin of Assam (b) Damodar river basin of Jharkhand and West Bengal (c) Himalayan mountain region (d) Cardamom hills in Kerala 13. Tendons through which muscles are connected to bones are tightly compacted bundles of which one of the following long fibrous protein ? (a) Fibrin (b) Collagen (c) Elastin (d) Cellulose 14. Which one of the following is the scientific name of the causal organism of elephantiasis ? (a) Ascaris lumbricoides (b) Culex pipiens (c) Wuchereria bancrofti (d) Fasciola hepatica 15. Melanin is the natural pigment that gives colour to human skin, hair and the iris. It provides protection against (a) Ultraviolet radiation (b) Infrared radiation (c) X-ray radiation (d) Short wave radio radiation

16. Intake of which one of the following food components should be minimized by patients having Gouty Arthritis due to elevated serum uric acid level ? (a) Food fibres (b) Nucleic acids (c) Lipids (d) Carbohydrates 17. Which one of the following statements about microbes is not correct ? (a) They are used in sewage treatment plants. (b) They are used in industrial fermenters for the production of beverages. (c) No antibiotic has been obtained from any microbe. (d) They are used to get many bioactive molecules for the treatment of diseases. 18. Golden rice is a genetically-modified crop plant where the incorporated gene is meant for biosynthesis of (a) Omega-3 fatty acids (b) Vitamin A (c) Vitamin B (d) Vitamin C 19. An object moves in a circular path with a constant speed. Which one of the following statements is correct ? (a) The centripetal acceleration of the object is smaller for a gentle curve (i.e., curve of larger radius) than that for a sharp curve (i.e., curve of smaller radius). (b) The centripetal acceleration is greater for a gentle curve than that for a sharp curve. (c) The centripetal acceleration is the same for both, the gentle and sharp curves. (d) The centripetal acceleration causes the object to slow down. 20. The force acting on a particle of mass m moving along the x-axis is given by F(x) = Ax2 - Bx. Which one of the following is the potential energy of the particle ? (a) 2Ax - B (c) Ax3 - Bx2

x2 ( 2 Ax − 3B ) 6 (d) Zero (b) −

21. The symbol of SI unit of inductance is H. It stands for (a) Holm (b) Halogen (c) Henry (d) Hertz

184

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

22. In vacuum, a five-rupee coin, a feather of sparrow and a mango are dropped simultaneously from the same height. The time taken by them to reach the bottom is t1, t2 and t3 respectively. In this situation, we will observe that (a) t1 > t2 > t3 (b) t1 > t 3 > t 2 (c) t3 > t1 > t2 (d) t1 = t 2 = t 3

31. Which compound, when dissolved in water, conducts electricity and forms a basic solution ? (a) HCl (b) CH3COOH (c) CH3O H (d) NaOH

23. Electron emission from a metallic surface by application of light is known as (a) Thermionic emission (b) Photoelectric emission (c) High field emission (d) Autoelectronic emission 24. How long does light take to reach the Earth from the Sun ? (a) About 4 minutes (b) About 8 minutes (c) About 24 minutes (d) About 24 hours 25. Radioactivity is measured by (a) GM Counter (b) Polarimeter (c) Calorimeter (d) Colorimeter 26. The mirrors used as rear-view mirrors in vehicles are (a) concave (b) convex (c) cylindrical (d) plane 27. Which one of the following waves is used for detecting forgery in currency notes ? (a) Ultraviolet waves (b) Infrared waves (c) Radio waves (d) Microwaves 28. The majority charge carriers in a p-type semiconductor are (a) free electrons (b) conduction electrons (c) ions (d) holes 29. The ionization energy of hydrogen atom in the ground state is (a) 13·6 MeV (b) 13·6 eV (c) 13·6 Joule (d) Zero 30. When pure water boils vigorously, the bubbles that rise to the surface are composed primarily of (a) air (b) hydrogen (c) hydrogen and oxygen (d) water vapour

32. The principal use of hydrofluoric acid is (a) in etching glass (b) as a bleaching agent (c) as an extremely strong oxidizing agent (d) in the preparation of strong organic fluorine compounds 33. The species that has the same number of 35 electrons as 17 Cl is 34 + 32 (a) 16 S 16 S (b) 40 + 35 2 − (c) 18 Ar (d) 16 S

34. The compound C6H12O4 contains (a) 22 atoms per mole (b) twice the mass percent of H as compared to the mass percent of C (c) six times the mass percent of C as compared to the mass percent of H (d) thrice the mass percent of H as compared to the mass percent of O 35. The proposition 'equal volumes of different gases contain equal numbers of molecules at the same temperature and pressure' is known as (a) Avogadro's hypothesis (b) Gay-Lussac's hypothesis (c) Planck's hypothesis (d) Kirchhoff's theory 36. Which one of the following statements about the Ilbert Bill is correct ? (a) It proposed that the Indian magistrates would try Europeans in criminal cases. (b) It allowed Indians to file criminal cases against Europeans. (c) It authorized Indian ICS officers to try Europeans in courts. (d) It was an agitation led by Ilbert in support of the nationalists. 37. Who among the following can attend the meetings of both Houses of Parliament while not being a member of either House ? (a) The Solicitor General of India (b) The Vice-President of India

185

SOLVED PAPERS - 2017 (II) (c) The Comptroller and Auditor General of India (d) The Attorney General of India 38. Who among the following was believed to be a leader of the Sanyasis and Fakirs conspiring against the British in 1857 ? (a) Mangal Pandey (b) Bahadur Shah II (c) Queen Zeenat Mahal (d) Nana Sahib 39. Who among the following was the founder of the Avadh Kingdom in the 18th century ? (a) Murshid Quli Khan (b) Saadat Khan (c) Alivardi Khan (d) Sarfaraz Khan 40. Who among the following was the founder of the Young Bengal Movement ? (a) Henry Vivian Derozio (b) David Hare (c) Dwarkanath Tagore (d) Prasanna Kumar Tagore 41. Which one of the following statements about the Quit India Movement is not correct ? (a) It broke out in August 1942. (b) Ahmedabad Textile Mills went on strike for more than three months. (c) Muslim League and Hindu Mahasabha actively participated in the movement. (d) Communist Party did not support the movement. 42. Who among the following is the winner of the Singapore Open Superseries Badminton Men's Singles title 2017 ? (a) Kidambi Srikanth (b) Lin Dan (c) B. Sai Praneeth (d) Kento Momota 43. Koradi Thermal Power Station is located in (a) Nagpur (b) Raipur (c) Mumbai (d) Secunderabad 44. Which among the following is the theme of the International Day for Monuments and Sites (World Heritage Day) 2017 ? (a) The Heritage of Sport (b) Cultural Heritage and Sustainable Tourism (c) Past and Present Heritage (d) Heritage and Science

45. In April 2017, USA dropped MOAB (Massive Ordnance Air Blast popularly known as the Mother of All Bombs) in the suspected hideouts of militants in which one of the following countries ? (a) Iran (b) Syria (c) Afghanistan (d) Somalia 46. Who among the following is the Chairman of the Interdisciplinary Committee constituted recently by the Government of India to examine framework for virtual currencies ? (a) Secretary, Department of Financial Services (b) Special Secretary, Department of Revenue (c) Special Secretary, Department of Economic Affairs (d) Deputy Governor, Reserve Bank of India 47. SAMPADA scheme is being implemented by the Ministry of (a) Finance (b) Housing and Urban Affairs (c) Food Processing Industries (d) Earth Sciences 48. The shortest day length that occurs in the Northern hemisphere is on (a) 21st March (b) 23rd September (c) 22nd November (d) 22nd December 49. The Indian Railways have gone in for qualitative improvements since independence. Which of the following have taken place in recent years ? (1) Gauge conversion (2) Track electrification (3) Automatic signals

Select the correct answer using the codes given below : (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 50. In India, maximum amount of rainfall is received from (a) Western Disturbances (b) North-east Monsoon (c) South-west Monsoon (d) Retreating Monsoon 51. Which set of the following biosphere reserves in India is included in the World Network of Biosphere Reserves ?

186

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

(a) Gulf of Mannar, Nokrek, Panchmarhi and Simlipal (b) Gulf of Mannar, Kanchanjunga, Nokrek and Seshachalam (c) Nilgiri, Nokrek, Panchmarhi and Panna (d) Nilgiri, Nokrek, Panchmarhi and Seshachalam

(a) focuses light from the bulb onto nearby vehicles (b) sends parallel rays (c) fits well into the shape of the headlight (d) is cheaper than other mirrors

52. Which of the following statements about magnetite ore of iron is/are correct ? (1) It is known as black ore. (2) It contains 60% to 70% of pure iron. (3) It possesses magnetic properties.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below : (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 53. Which one of the following vitamins has a role in blood clotting ? (a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin D (c) Vitamin E (d) Vitamin K 54. The term 'Probiotic' is applied to (a) Organic food (b) Antacid (c) Antibiotic (d) Live microbial food supplement 55. Which one of the following microbes causes acidification and curding of milk ? (a) Lactic Acid Bacillus (b) Clostridium botulinum (c) Vibrio cholerae (d) Saccharomyces cerevisiae 56. Who among the following shared the Nobel Prize in 1962 along with Francis Crick and James Watson for their discoveries concerning the molecular structure of nucleic acids ? (a) Erwin Chargaff (b) Maurice Hugh Frederick Wilkins (c) Rosalind Franklin (d) Phoebus Levene 57. Water boils at a lower temperature at high altitudes, because (a) the air pressure is less (b) outside temperature is less (c) latent heat is less (d) None of the above 58. Concave mirror is used in headlights of vehicles, because it

59. If some object is weighed when submerged in water, what will happen to its weight compared to its weight in air ? (a) Increase (b) Decrease (c) Remain exactly the same (d) Increase or decrease cannot be predicted 60. Light year is a measure of (a) time (b) distance (c) total amount of light falling on the Earth in a year (d) average intensity of light falling on the Earth in a year 61. Which one of the following statements about a satellite orbiting around the Earth is correct ? (a) Satellite is kept in orbit by remote control from ground station. (b) Satellite is kept in orbit by retro-rocket and solar energy keeps it moving around the Earth. (c) Satellite requires energy from solar panels and solid fuels for orbiting. (d) Satellite does not require any energy for orbiting. 62. Which one of the following statements about energy is correct ? (a) Energy can be created as well as destroyed. (b) Energy can be created but not destroyed. (c) Energy can neither be created nor destroyed. (d) Energy cannot be created but can be destroyed. 63. Step-up transformers are used for (a) increasing electrical power (b) decreasing electrical power (c) decreasing voltage (d) increasing voltage 64. Which one among the following waves carries the maximum energy per photon ? (a) X-rays (b) Radio waves (c) Light waves (d) Microwaves

SOLVED PAPERS - 2017 (II) 65. How much CO2 is produced on heating of 1 kg of carbon ? 11 3 (a) kg (b) kg 3 11 4 3 (c) kg (d) kg 3 4 66. Zinc is used to protect iron from corrosion because zinc is (a) more electropositive than iron (b) cheaper than iron (c) a bluish white metal (d) a good conductor of heat and electricity 67. Which one of the following gases is placed second in respect of abundance in the Earth's atmosphere ? (a) Oxygen (b) Hydrogen (c) Nitrogen (d) Carbon dioxide 68. Which one of the following is a chemical change ? (a) Cutting of hair (b) Graying of hair naturally (c) Swelling of resin in water (d) Cutting of fruit 69. Which one among the following chemicals is used as washing soda ? (a) Calcium carbonate (b) Calcium bicarbonate (c) Sodium carbonate (d) Sodium bicarbonate 70. Why is potassium permanganate used for purifying drinking water ? (a) It kills germs (b) It dissolves the impurities (c) It is a reducing agent (d) It is an oxidizing agent 71. Consider the following movements : (1) Moplah Rebellion (2) Bardoli Satyagraha (3) Champaran Satyagraha (4) Salt Satyagraha

Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the above in ascending order ? (a) 1-3-4-2 (b) 3-1-2-4 (c) 2-3-1-4 (d) 4-2-1-3

187 72. Which one of the following travelogues has given an insight on the reign of Muhammad Bin Tughlaq ? (a) Ibn Battuta's Rihla (b) Francois Bernier's Travels in the Mogul Empire (c) Niccolao Manucci's Storia do Mogor (d) Tavernier's Travels in India 73. Which one of the following was not a Chishti Sufi saint ? (a) Khwaja Moinuddin (b) Baba Fariduddin Ganj-i-Shakar (c) Nizamuddin Auliya (d) Shaikh Bahauddin Zakariya 74. In April 2017, India celebrated 100 years of Mahatma Gandhi's (a) Satyagraha in Kheda (b) Dandi March (c) Satyagraha in Champaran (d) Return from South Africa 75. A rainbow is produced due to which one of the following phenomena ? (a) Dispersion of light (b) Interference of light (c) Diffraction of light (d) Scattering of light by atmospheric dust 76. Bats detect obstacles in their path by receiving the reflected (a) Infrasonic waves (b) Ultrasonic waves (c) Radio waves (d) Microwaves 77. The statement that 'heat cannot flow by itself from a body at a lower temperature to a body at a higher temperature', is known as (a) Zeroth law of thermodynamics (b) First law of thermodynamics (c) Second law of thermodynamics (d) Third law of thermodynamics 78. Which one of the following waves does not belong to the category of the other three ? (a) X-rays (b) Microwaves (c) Radio waves (d) Sound waves 79. Which one of the following statements is not correct ? (a) Human eye is a refracting system containing a diverging lens.

188

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

(b) The retina of the human eye contains millions of light sensitive cells, called rods and cones, which convert the light into electrical messages. (c) Every image that is focused on the retina is upside down. (d) We need both eyes to judge the relative positions of objects accurately.



80. Which one of the following statements is not correct ? (a) Ultrasonic waves cannot get reflected, refracted or absorbed. (b) Ultrasonic waves are used to detect the presence of defects like cracks, porosity, etc. in the internal structure of common structure materials. (c) Ultrasonic waves can be used for making holes in very hard materials like diamond. (d) Ultrasonic waves cannot travel through vacuum. 81. According to the Travel and Tourism Competitiveness Index (TTCI) 2017 released by the World Economic Forum, among the 136 economies across the world, India ranked (a) 50th (b) 40th (c) 30th (d) 20th 82. Which one of the following is the theme of the World Health Day, 2017 celebrated by the World Health Organization ? (a) Diabetes (b) Food Safety (c) Depression : Let's Talk (d) Ageing and Health 83. Which one of the following Ministries has launched a new programme on Interdisciplinary Cyber Physical Systems (ICPS) to foster and promote R&D ? (a) Ministry of Earth Sciences (b) Ministry of Science and Technology (c) Ministry of Information and Broadcasting (d) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy 84. Consider the following statements about the Nagara style of temple architecture : (1) This style of temples are commonly found in the areas between Himalayas and Vindhyas. (2) The most striking feature of this style is its pyramidal shikhara.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 85. Ashoka's connection with Buddhism is evident from which one of the following edicts ? (a) Major Rock Edict 13 (b) Rock Edict 6 (c) Minor Rock Edict 1 (d) Pillar Edict 4 86. The Cabinet Mission Plan for India envisaged a (a) Federation (b) Confederation (c) Unitary form of Government (d) Union of States 87. The creation of the institution of Lokpal was first recommended by (a) Law Commission (b) Santhanam Committee (c) Shah Commission (d) Administrative Reforms Commission 88. Which one of the following is a cause of acid rains ? (a) Ozone (b) Ammonia (c) Sulphur dioxide (d) Carbon monoxide 89. The desirable range of pH for drinking water is (a) 6·5 to 8·5 (b) 5·0 to 6·5 (c) 6·5 to 7·0 (d) 7·0 to 8·5 90. Consider the following reaction : → CO2 + 2H2O CH4 + 2O2  Which of the following about the reaction given above is/are correct ? (1) Carbon is oxidized. (2) Hydrogen is oxidized. (3) Hydrogen is reduced. (4) Carbon is reduced.

Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 2 and 4 only 91. Sunrise in eastern Arunachal Pradesh would be about how many hours before the sunrise in western Gujarat ? (a) One hour (b) Two hours (c) Three hours (d) Four hours

189

SOLVED PAPERS - 2017 (II) 92. Consider the following States of India in terms of percentage of forest area in relation to the total area of the State : (1) Karnataka (2) Odisha (3) Kerala (4) Andhra Pradesh

Which one of the following is the correct descending order ? (a) 1-2-4-3 (b) 3-1-2-4 (c) 3-2-1-4 (d) 2-3-1-4 93. Which one of the following States in India has the longest coastline ? (a) Odisha (b) Tamil Nadu (c) Karnataka (d) West Bengal 94. Which one of the following States in India has the largest area under forest cover ? (a) Maharashtra (b) Chhattisgarh (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Andhra Pradesh 95. Which one of the following is not an igneous rock ? (a) Gabbro (b) Granite (c) Dolomite (d) Basalt 96. The Coriolis effect is the result of (a) Pressure gradient (b) Earth's axis of inclination (c) Earth's rotation (d) Earth's revolution

For elaborated Solutions

98. Which one of the following pairs of rivers and tributaries is not correctly matched ? (a) Godavari : Indravati (b) Ganga : Penganga (c) Krishna : Bhima (d) Luni : Sukri 99. Consider the following characteristics of a tropical cyclone : (1) A warm sea temperature of > 26° C (2) High relative humidity of atmosphere at a height of > 700 m (3) Atmospheric instability

The above mentioned characteristics are associated with which one of the following cycles of its development ? (a) Formulation and initial stage (b) Modification stage (c) Full maturity (d) Decay 100. In the Mesopotamian records, which one of the following terms was used for the Indus Valley (Harappans) ? (a) Dilmun (b) Meluha (c) Magan (d) Failaka

 

Finished Solving the Paper ? Time to evaluate yourself !

SCAN THE CODE

97. Where is Mekong Delta located ? (a) Thailand (b) Cambodia (c) Myanmar (d) Vietnam

SCAN

190

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

Answers Q No

Answer Key

Topic's Name

Chapter's Name

1

(c)

Five Years Plan

Elementary knowledge of Five Year Plans of India

2

(c)

Schedules

Panchayati Raj

3

(c)

Industrial Revolution

British Industrial Development

4

(c)

Freedom Fighters

Freedom Movement in India

5

(c)

Swadeshi Movement

Freedom Movement in India

6

(b)

Dada Bhai Naroji

The East India Association

7

(b)

Oceans

Ocean Currents and Tides Atmosphere and its composition

8

(d)

Deserts

Origin of Earth

9

(b)

Location

Regional Geography of India

10

(b)

Location

Regional Geography of India

11

(b)

Monsoon

Regional Geography of India

12

(c)

Mineral and Power Resources

Regional Geography of India

13

(b)

Tendon

Locomotion and Movement

14

(c)

Filariasis

Human Disease

15

(a)

Skin

Tissue System

16

(b)

Arthritis

Circulatory System

17

(c)

Sewage Treatment

Microbes

18

(b)

Golden Rice

Strategies for Enhancement of Food Production

19

(a)

Circular Motion

Laws of Motion

20

(b)

Energy

Work, Energy and Power

21

(c)

Units

Units and Measurements

22

(d)

Free Fall

Motion

23

(b)

Photoelectric Effect

Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

24

(b)

Properties of Light

Ray optics

25

(a)

Properties of EMV

Electromagnetic Waves

26

(b)

Mirrors

Ray Optics

27

(a)

Properties of EMV

Electromagnetic Waves

28

(d)

Types of Semiconductors

Semiconductor Electronics

29

(b)

Bohr Model of Hydrogen Atom

Atoms

30

(a)

Liquid State

States of Matter

31

(d)

Alkali and Base

Acids, Bases and Salts

32

(a)

Strong and Weak Acids

Acids, Bases and Salts

33

(c)

Isoelectronic Species

Structure of Atom

34

(c)

Molar Mass and Atomicity

Mole Concept

35

(a)

Gas Laws

States of Matter

36

(a)

Ilbert Bill

Forces shaping the modern world

191

SOLVED PAPERS - 2017 (II)

Q No

Answer Key

Topic's Name

Chapter's Name

37

(d)

Indian Parliament

Elementary study of Indian Constitution and Administration

38

(d)

Revolt of 1857

Freedom Movement in India

39

(b)

Avadh Kingdom

A broad survey of Indian History

40

(a)

Youth Bengal Movement

Freedom Movement in India

41

(c)

Quit India Movement

Freedom Movement in India

42

(c)

Sports Event

Current Affairs

43

(a)

Power Stattions

Current Affairs

44

(b)

Important Days

Current Affairs

45

(c)

Current important world events

Current Affairs

46

(c)

Governmental Bodies

Current Affairs

47

(c)

Government Schemes

Current Affairs

48

(d)

Concept of Time

International Date Line

49

(d)

Railway

Current Affairs

50

(c)

Monsoon

Regional Geography of India

51

(a)

Biosphere Reserve

Current Affairs

52

(d)

Metallurgy

Ores and Minerals

53

(d)

Blood Clotting

Circulatory System

54

(d)

Probiotics

Microbes

55

(a)

Fermentation

Microbes

56

(b)

DNA

Biomolecules

57

(a)

Gas Laws

States of Matter

58

(b)

Optical Instruments

Ray Optics

59

(b)

Power of Lens

Ray Optics

60

(b)

Simple Pendulum

Oscillations

61

(d)

Satellite

Gravitation

62

(c)

Energy

Work, Energy and Power

63

(d)

Resistance

Current Electricity

64

(a)

Charge

Electrostatics

65

(a)

Stoichiometry

Chemical Reactions and Equations

66

(a)

Reactivity Series

Redox Reactions

67

(a)

Composition of Air

States of Matter

68

(b)

Chemical Change

Physical and Chemical Changes

69

(d)

Washing Soda

Some Important Chemical Compounds

70

(d)

Oxidizing and Reducing Agents

Redox Reactions

71

(b)

Movements

Freedom Movement in India

72

(a)

Tuglaq Dynasty

A broad survey of Indian History

73

(d)

Sufi Saint

A broad survey of Indian History

74

(c)

Famous Personalities

Current Affairs

75

(a)

Dispersion

Ray Optics

76

(b)

Sound

Waves

192

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

Q No

Answer Key

77

(c)

Topic's Name Law of Thermodynamics

Chapter's Name Thermodynamics

78

(d)

Properties of EMW

Electromagnetic Waves

79

(a)

Human Eye

Ray Optics

80

(a)

Sound

Waves

81

(b)

Indexes

Current Affairs

82

(c)

International Organisations

Current Affairs

83

(b)

Programmes

Current Affairs

84

(a)

Architect

Regional Geography of India

85

(a)

Maurya Empire

A broad survey of Indian History

86

(d)

Cabinet Mission Plan

Elementary study of Indian Constitution and Administration

87

(d)

Important Committees

Current Affairs

88

(c)

Acid Rain

Environmental Chemistry

89

(a)

pH Scale

Acids, Bases and Salts

90

(b)

Stoichiometry

Chemical Reactions and Equations

91

(b)

Climate

Regional Geography of India

92

(c)

Forest Areas

Regional Geography of India

93

(b)

Coastal Area

Important Sea ports and main sea, land and air routes of India

94

(c)

Forest Areas

Regional Geography of India

95

(c)

Rocks

Rocks and their classification

96

(c)

Earth

Origin of Earth

97

(d)

Delta

Regional Geography of India

98

(b)

Rivers

Regional Geography of India

99

(a)

Cyclones

Regional Geography of India

100

(b)

Indus Valley

A broad survey of Indian History

NDA / NA

National Defence Academy / Naval Academy

Sample Question Paper

Time : 1hr 40 mins

I Total Marks : 400

Important Instructions : 1. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose Only One response for each item. 2. You have to mark all your responses Only on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet. 3. All items carry equal marks. 4. Penalty for wrong answers : There will be penalty for wrong answers marked by a candidate in the objective type question papers. (i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (0.33) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. (ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question. (iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.

1. Which one among the following statements is not correct? (a) In progressive waves, the amplitude may be constant and neighboring points are out of phase with each other. (b) In air or other gases, a progressive antinode occurs at a displacement node and a progressive node occurs at a displacement antinode. (c) Transverse wave can be polarized while longitudinal wave can not be polarized. (d) Longitudinal wave can be polarized while transverse wave can not be polarized. 2. A body initially at rest is acted upon by a constant force. The rate of change of its kinetic energy varies: (a) Linearly with square root of time (b) Linearly with time (c) Linearly with square of time (d) Inversely with time. 3. A jet plane flies through air with a velocity of 2 Mach. While the velocity of sound is 332 m/s in the air, speed of the plane is: (a) 166 m/s (b) 66.4 km/s (c) 332 m/s (d) 664 m/s 4. Which one among the following statements is correct? (a) Convex mirrors are used by doctors to examine oral cavity. (b) Concave mirrors are used as reflectors. (c) Convex mirrors are used as reflectors. (d) Convex mirrors should be used for shaving.

5. Light travels in optical fiber irrespective of its shape because it is a device by which signals can be transferred from one location to another. It is based on phenomena of : (a) Diffraction of light (b) Refraction of light (c) Polarization of light (d) Total internal reflection of light 6. A man is at rest in the middle of a horizontal plane of perfectly smooth surface of ice. He can move himself to the shore by making use of Newton’s: (a) First law of motion (b) Second law of motion (c) Third law of motion (d) First, second and third laws of motion 7. Which one among the following is the major cause of blurring and unsharp images of objects observed through very large telescope at the extreme limit of magnification? (a) Air turbulence of Earth’s atmosphere. (b) Poor optical polish achievable on large mirrors. (c) Poor tracking capacities of telescope. (d) Varying density of air in the Earth’s atmosphere. 8. Bats can ascertain distances, directions, nature and size of the obstacles at night. This is possible by reflection of the emitted: (a) Ultrasonic waves from the bat. (b) Ultrasonic waves from the distant objects. (c) Supersonic waves from the bat. (d) Supersonic waves from the distance objects.

194

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

9. When a moving bus suddenly applies brakes, the passengers sitting in it fall in the forward direction. This can be explained by: (a) The theory of relativity (b) Newton’s first law (c) Newton’s second law (d) Newton’s third law 10. The material used for electric fuse is an alloy of tin and lead. This alloy should have: (a) High specific resistance and low melting point. (b) Low specific resistance and high melting point. (c) Low specific resistance and low melting point. (d) High specific resistance and high melting point. 11. Suppose you are standing 1 m in front of a plane mirror. What should be the minimum vertical size of the mirror so that you can see your full image in it? (a) 0.50 m (b) 2 m (c) Half of your height (d) Twice your height 12. Light travels slower in glass than in air because: (a) Refractive index of air is less than that of glass. (b) Refractive index of air is greater than that of glass. (c) Density of glass is greater than that of air. (d) Density of glass is less than that of air. 13. The lines of force of a uniform magnetic field: (a) Must be convergent (b) Must be divergent (c) Must be parallel to each other (d) Intersect 14. A Jet engine works on the principle of conservation of: (a) Linear momentum (b) Angular momentum (c) Energy (d) Mass 15. The surface temperature of the Sun is nearly : (a) 2000 K (b) 4000 K (c) 6000 K (d) 8000 K 16. If the electrical resistance of a typical substance suddenly drops to zero, then the substance is called: (a) Superconductor (b) Semiconductor (c) Conductor (d) Insulator 17. A spherical air bubble is embedded in a piece of glass. For a ray of light passing through the bubble, it behaves like a: (a) Converging lens (b) Diverging lens

(c) Plano-converging lens (d) Plano-diverging lens 18. “The stars seem to be higher on the sky than they actually are.” This can be explained by : (a) Atmospheric refraction (b) Dispersion of light (c) Total internal reflection (d) Diffraction of light 19. Which one among the following is not a source of renewable energy? (a) Hydroelectricity (b) Solar energy (c) Fuel cell (d) Wind energy 20. A liquid rises to a certain length in a capillary tube. The tube is inclined to an angle of 45°. The length of the liquid column will: (a) Increase (b) Decrease (c) Remain unchanged (d) First decrease and then increase 21. Mass of B is four times that of A. B moves with a velocity half than that of A. Then B has: (a) Kinetic energy equal to that of A (b) Half the kinetic energy of A (c) Twice the kinetic energy of A (d) Kinetic energy one-fourth of A 22. In a pressure cooker cooking is faster because the increase in vapour pressure: (a) Increases the specific heat (b) Decreases the specific heat (c) Decreases the boiling point (d) Increases the boiling point 23. Magnets attract magnetic substances such as iron, nickel, cobalt etc. They can also repel: (a) Paramagnetic substances (b) Ferromagnetic substances (c) Diamagnetic substances (d) Non magnetic substances 24. When a ray of light is going from one medium to another, its: (a) Wavelength remains same (b) Frequency remains same (c) Frequency increases (d) Wavelength increase 25. Which one among the following is the main ingredient in cement? (a) Gypsum (b) Lime stone (c) Clay (d) Ash 26. Glass is actually (a) A crystalline solid (b) An ionic solid (c) An elastic solid (d) A vitrified solid 27. Solutions in test tubes containing H2O and aqueous NaOH can be differentiated with the help of (a) Red litmus (b) Blue litmus (c) Na2CO3 (d) HCl (aqueous)

SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER-i 28. A student heated some sulphur in a spatula and collected the gas “X”. Which one among the following is correct about “X”? (a) X is SO2 and it turns moist litmus to blue (b) X is SO3 and it turns moist litmus to red (c) X is SO2 and it turns moist litmus to red (d) X is SO3 and it turns dry litmus to blue 29. Human stomach produces acid ‘X’ which helps in digestion of food. Acid ‘X’ is: (a) Acetic acid. (b) Methanoic acid. (c) Hydrochloric acid. (d) Citric acid. 30. When concentrated H2SO4 spilts on the surface, it should be immediately cleaned: (a) With a piece of cloth (b) By adding cold water (c) By adding solid Na2CO3 (d) By adding solid BaCl2 31. A bee-sting leaves an acid which causes pain and irritation. The injected acid is: (a) Acetic acid. (b) Sulphuric acid. (c) Citric acid. (d) Methanoic acid. 32. Iron nails are dipped into blue copper sulphate solution. After some time iron nails are (a) Dissolved and blue colour is discharged. (b) Dissolved but blue colour is not discharged. (c) Not dissolved and blue colour is not discharged. (d) Not dissolved but blue colour is discharged. 33. A student by chance mixed acetone with alcohol. This mixture of acetone and alcohol can be separated by: (a) Filtration (b) Separating funnel (c) Fractional crystallization (d) Fractional distillation 34. Silver ware turns black after a period of time due to formation of (a) Nitrate coating on silver (b) Sulphide coating on silver (c) Chloride coating on silver (d) Oxide coating on silver 35. Which of the statements given below is/are correct? Permanent hardness of water is due to the presence of soluble: 1. Chloride of calcium 2. Bicarbonate of calcium 3. Sulphate of magnesium 4. Bicarbonate of magnesium Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 4 (d) 1,2 and 3

195 36. Which of the following statements about diamond are correct? 1. It is used as a gem in jewellery because of its ability to reflect light. 2. It is a good conductor of electricity. 3. It is used for cutting glass, marble stones and other hard materials. 4. It is used for drilling of rocks Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4 only 37. Which one among the following methods is not effective in removing arsenic from contaminated ground water? (a) Boiling water (b) Reverse osmosis (c) Ion exchange (d) Coagulation-adsorption 38. Bronze is often used to make statues and medals whereas brass is used in making utensils, scientific apparatus and cartridges. Both brass and bronze are copper containing alloys, yet they differ in their chemical composition for additionally containing : (a) Zinc in brass and tin in bronze (b) Chromium in brass and nickel in bronze (c) Nickel in brass and tin in bronze (d) Iron in brass and nickel in bronze 39. Which of the statements about glass are correct? 1. Glass is a super cooled liquid having infinite viscosity. 2. Violet coloured glass is obtained by adding MnO2 3. Glass is a man made silicate 4. Glass is a crystalline substance Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 only 40. Sandalwood tree is considered a: (a) Total root parasite. (b) Total stem parasite. (c) Stem parasite. (d) Partial root parasite. 41. Which one among the following statements about stomach is not correct ? (a) Stomach acts as a temporary reservoir. (b) Stomach mixes food with gastric juice. (c) Stomach secretes lipase and amylase in gastric juice. (d) Rate of stomach emptying depends on the type of food.

196

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

42. Which one of the following organs breaks fat to produce cholesterol ? (a) Intestine (b) Liver (c) Lungs (d) Kidneys 43. Consider the following statements about comets: 1. Most comets have elongated elliptical orbits that take them close to the Sun for a part of their orbit, and then out into the further reaches of the Solar System for the remainder. 2. If a comet is travelling fast enough, it may leave the Solar System. Which of the following statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

49. To a perpendicular to the plane of ecliptic, Earth’s axis of rotation makes an angle of 23 1/2 degrees. Had this angle been zero degree, which one among the following would result? (a) There would have been no seasons (b) The lengths of day and night would have been the same throughout the year (c) The length of day and night would have been the same all over the Earth (d) All of the above 50. Jet streams are usually found in the _______. (a) Ozonosphere (b) Mesosphere (c) Troposphere (d) Ionosphere 51. The exceptionally high and low tides that occur at the time of the new moon or the full moon when the Sun, the Moon and the Earth are approximately aligned is called

44. An individual whose blood type is B may in an emergency donate blood to a person whose blood type is: (a) B or A (b) AB or A (c) A or O (d) AB or B 45. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. In comparison to the Jupiter, planet Earth displays eclipses more frequently 2. On Mars, only partial solar eclipses are possible Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 46. Venkataraman Ramakrishnan was jointly awarded Nobel Prize in Chemistry in the year 2009 for the: (a) Theory of electron transfer. (b) Studies of the structure and function of the ribosome. (c) Palladium catalyzed cross couplings in organic synthesis. (d) Work in the area of olefin metathesis. 47. Which one among the following statements regarding cell is not correct? (a) Shape and size of cells are related to specific function. (b) Some cells have changing shapes. (c) Each cell has its own capacity to perform. (d) Same type of cells are present in all body tissues. 48. Which one among the following Indian scientists proposed a theory for long distance transport of water in plants? (a) J.C. Bose (b) Birbal Sahni (c) P. Maheshwari (d) N.S. Parihar

(a) Spring (b) Fall (c) Neap (d) Diurnal 52. Which is the general direction of cyclones formed in the Bay of Bengal? (a) East to West (b) West to East (c) West to South (d) North to South 53. The Narmada River in the Peninsular plateau flows westward with a remarkably straight channel. It is because the: (a) Slope gradient in this part controls the river channel pattern. (b) River carries a huge amount of water which has created a straight channel course. (c) River forms the boundary between the Central Highlands and the Deccan Plateau. (d) River flows through the trough of a rift valley inclined westward. 54. No trees are found in Tundra biome near polar region of northern hemisphere. This is due to: (a) Snowfall inhibits plant respiration (b) Frozen ice beneath the surface soil (permafrost) restricts root growth (c) Less wind movement and inadequate sunlight (d) Low temperature which restricts development of reproductive organs 55. Why the summer monsoon winds blow from South Western direction in the Northern hemisphere? (a) The general direction of wind from the Indian Ocean is South Western. (b) The presence of the doldrums around the equator. (c) The low-pressure conditions in North-West India. (d) Due to the effect of Coriolis force. 56. If the Earth’s axis were perpendicular to the plane of its orbit, which one among the following would not have happened? (a) The North pole will always lie in dark.

SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER-i (b) Days and nights would be equal throughout the year. (c) No change of seasons will take place. (d) The Sun will be perpendicular to the equator. 57. Match the list I with list II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List I (Peak in the Eastern Himalaya) A. Makalu B. Kanchenjunga C. NamchaBarwa D. Mt. Everest List II (Location in the Map)

Code: A B C D (a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 2 4 3 1 (c) 1 4 3 2 (d) 1 3 4 2 58. Which one among the following is the best reason for the marked increase in the agricultural production in India in the past decades? (a) Increases in the area under cultivation. (b) Conversion of barren land into agricultural land. (c) Use of improved agricultural methods and technologies. (d) Priority status given by the successive governments to agricultural sector over the industry sector. 59. Which of the following statements regarding the Deccan Traps is/are correct? (a) Intense volcanic activity in the form of fissure eruption took place towards the end of Cretaceous period. (b) The volcanic lava spread out in horizontal sheets. (c) The regur soil found here is rich in nitrogen. Select the correct answer using the codes given

197 below: (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 3 only (d) 1 only 60. Consider the following statements: 1. The Himalayan vegetation varies according to both altitude and climatic conditions. 2. There are mainly two types of tropical forests that are found in the Himalayas— the tropical rainforests and the tropical deciduous forests. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 61. Which one among the following is not a reason for practising tank irrigation in the Peninsular India? (a) The undulating relief and hard rocks. (b) Little percolation of rain water due to impervious rock structure. (c) Most of the rivers of Peninsular India are perennial. (d) There are many streams which become torrential during rainy season. 62. Identify from the following states of India through which the Tropic of Cancer passes and arrange them from east to west: 1. Gujarat 2. West Bengal 3. Uttar Pradesh 4. Jharkhand 5. Madhya Pradesh 6. Bihar 7. Chhattisgarh Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 2-5-7-4-1 (b) 2-4-7-5-1 (c) 3-2-6-7-5 (d) 3-7-4-6-2 63. Hot deserts like Sahara, Arabia etc, receive very negligible amount of rainfall. This is because they _______. (a) Do not receive moisture-bearing wind from the oceans (b) Are the most rocky and barren areas of the Earth (c) Are located on the tropical high-pressure belt of the atmosphere (d) are not on the path of the monsoons 64. The latitude is the angular distance of a point on the Earth’s surface, north or South of the equator as measured from the ______.

198

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

(a) Centre of the Earth (b) Tropic of Cancer or of Capricorn (c) Equator (d) Poles 65. When an ordinary Bill is referred to a joint sitting of both the Houses of Indian Parliament. It has to be passed by a: (a) Simple majority of the total number of members of both the Houses present and voting. (b) Two-third majority of the total number of members of both the Houses. (c) Simple majority of the total number of members of both the Houses. (d) Two-third majority of the total number of members of both the Houses present and voting. 66. The Rowlatt Act was passed to _____________. (a) Bring about agrarian reforms (b) Curtail the nationalist and revolutionary activities (c) Have a favourable balance of trade (d) Put second World War criminals on trial 67. Which one among the following features of the Constitution of India is indicative of the fact that real executive power is vested in the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister? (a) Federalism (b) Representative legislature (c) Universal adult franchise (d) Parliamentary democracy 68. In which among the following cases, the joint session of both the Houses of Parliament can be summoned? 1. To amend the Constitution. 2. When Bill has been pending with one House for more than six months after it was passed by the other. 3. When both the Houses disagree on the amendments to be made in a Bill. 4. When a Bill is passed by one House and is rejected by the other. Codes: (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 4 69. The Bombay Plan drafted by GD Birla and JRD Tata emphasised on ________. (a) That the economy should be left to the dynamic investments by the private sector in heavy industries. (b) The public sector investments in infrastructure and heavy industries. (c) Annual planning.

(d) That the private sector should foot the bill of intensive and low return investments in the heavy industries. 70. Consider the following statements 1. The Buddhists in Deccan excavated rockcut Chaityas and the Vaishnavas, Shaivas and Jainas imitated these in later centuries. 2. The Vaishnavas, Shaivas and Jainas excavated temples at sites for distant from rock-cut chaityas. Which of the statement(s) given is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 71. Consider the following statements. 1. The Champaran Satyagraha marked Gandhiji’s second appearance in Indian politics as a leader of the masses. 2. The Champaran Satyagraha was launched to address the problems faced by Indigo plantation workers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 72. Consider the following statements 1. Charles Wood’s Despatch of 1854 laid exclusive emphasis on the development of higher education in India and neglected primary and secondary education. 2. The Carlyle Circular issued by FIW Carlyle sought to check the Spread of revolutionary activities in educational institutions. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 73. Consider the following statements about Gandhiji’s thinking on the environment. 1. His environmental thinking is rooted in his larger philosophical and moral thinking. 2. He preferred sustainable environmental practices to nourish the soil and the natural world. 3. He laid emphasis on the rigorous ethic of non-injury in our treatment of animals. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 74. Which one among the following is common to the Treaty of Yandaboo (1826), the Treaty of Salbai (1782) and the Treaty of Gandamak (1879)? (a) With these treaties, various Indian powers formed alliances to defeat the British (b) These treaties enabled the British to control the South Asian powers

SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER-i (c) These treaties expedited the spread of Indian culture abroad (d) These treaties gave an essential boost to enhanced trade in South Asia 75. Which one among the following was the major demand of the Bardoli Satyagraha (1928) organised under the leadership of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel? (a) Land to the Tiller (b) Increase in the rates of labour wage (c) Rollback of newly enhanced revenue rate. (d) Supply of agricultural inputs to the farmers at subsidised rate 76. Which one among the following statements is not correct? (a) Gandhara School of Art owed its origin to the Indo-Greek rulers but the real patrons of the school were the Kushans, especially Kanishka. (b) Rich carving, elaborate ornamentations and complex symbolism were not the main features of the Gandhara sculpture. (c) The Graeco-Roman architectural impact modified the structure of Buddhist Stupas. (d) The artists of the Amravati School of Arts mainly used white marble. 77. Which one among the following statements regarding the Eighth Five Year Plan in India is not correct? (a) The plan was postponed by two years because of the political upheavals at the centre. (b) It aimed at the high growth of both agriculture and manufacturing sectors. (c) Its emphasis was on growth in export and import, improvement in the trade and current account deficit. (d) It set before itself two principal objectives of growth with stability’ and growth with justice. 78. Which among the following statements is/are true with regard to WTO membership? 1. All WTO members automatically receive the most favourable nation status. 2. The 12th ministerial conference of the World Trade Organisation took place in Geneva. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) only 1 (b) only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 79. TRIPS (Trade Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights) agreement is administered by: (a) UNCTD (b) UNO (c) WTO (d) World Bank

199 80. Consider the following statements: 1. G-20 address issues related to the international financial stability, sustainable development and climate change mitigation. 2. India will host the G-20 summit in 2023. 3. The G20 was founded in response to several world economic crises. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 81. India by becoming a full-fledged member of the Financial Action Task Force: (a) Will be able to access information on suspect accounts in nations such as Switzerland and UK. (b) Will play an important role in law enforcement matters, investigations or prosecutions of terrorist activities at an international level. (c) Has also become a member of Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development. (d) All of these 82. Consider the following declaration and identify the person who made it using the codes given below? The time has come when badges of honour make our shame glaring in their incongruous context of humiliation and I, for my part, wish to stand shorn of all special distinction, by the side of my countrymen who, for their so-called insignificance are liable to suffer degradation not fit for human beings. (a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Jawaharlal Nehru (c) DadabhaiNaoroji (d) Rabindranath Tagore 83. Identify, using the code given below, the nationalist leader who was sentenced’ in the words outlined below: ‘The fact that in the eyes of millions of your countrymen you are a great patriot and great leader’ but ’as a man subject to the law, who has, by his own admission broken the law ’you are subject to six years imprisonment Code: (a) C.R. Das (b) Mahatma Gandhi (c) Subhash Bose (d) Jawaharlal Nehru 84. Consider the following statement: “We believe that it is the inalienable right of the Indian people as of any other people, to have freedom and to enjoy the fruits of their toil and have the necessities of life so that they may have full opportunities of growth.”

200

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS



(b) INS Vikrant

Identify the correct context of this statement from below. (a) Pledge of independence to be publicly taken all over India on 26 January, 1930. (b) Preamble of the Constitution of India adopted in 1950. (c) Congress Working Committee Resolution adopted at the special Calcutta Congress Session in 1920. (d) Part of speech delivered by Subhash Chandra Bose at the launch of ‘Azad Hind Fauj’. 85. Which one among the following led to the Greece economic crisis 2010? (a) Excessive borrowing from IMF (b) Sudden depreciation of Euro (c) Unrestricted spending and cheap loans (d) Outflow of foreign capital due to political unrest 86. The Clean Development Mechanism (CDM), a mechanism to reduce greenhouse gas emission as per Kyoto Protocol implies that (a) Industrial countries receive carbon credits by funding carbon saving projects in another relatively affluent nation. (b) Industrial countries reduce their carbon emission by using environment friendly technology in production. (c) Developed countries invest in carbon reduction in developing countries and receive carbon credit in return. (d) Developed nations purchase carbon credit from other nations. 87. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List-I (Joint exercise)

(a) Indra (b) Cope India (c) Ind-Indo Corpat

List-II (Type)

1. Joint anti-terrorism exercise 2.  Joint air force exercise 3. Coordinated maritime patrolling 4. Joint army exercise

(d) Yudhabhyas Code: A B C D (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 1 3 2 4 (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 4 2 3 1 88. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List-I (Ship)

(a) INS Arihant

List-II (Type) 1. Aircraft Carrier

2. Landing platform Dock 3. Nuclear Submarine 4. Stealth Frigate

(c) INS Shiwalik (d) INS Airavat Code: A B C D (a) 3 4 1 2 (b) 3 1 4 2 (c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 2 4 1 3 89. Exercise MILAN is: 1. The exercise is hosted by the Indian Navy. 2. MILAN 2022 was held in Chennai 3. It was first held in 1995. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 3 90. Consider the following pairs: 1. Pinaka: Multi Barrel Rocket Launcher System 2. Nag: Anti Tank Missile System 3. Lakshya: Unmanned Aerial Vehicle Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3 only 91. Which one among the following is the unit raised to protect the naval assets? (a) Sagar Rakshak Bal (b) Sagar Suraksha Bal (c) Sagar Prahari Bal (d) Sagar Nigrani Bal 92. Which among the following movies won the Nargis Dutt Award for Best Film on National Integration at 67th National Film Awards? (a) Village Rockstars (b) Dhappa (c) Taj Mahal (d) Ladakh 93. Consider the following statements with regard to amendments proposed for Renewable Energy Certificate (REC) mechanism in 2021: 1. Floor and forbearance prices are required to be specified. 2. REC will also be issued to the beneficiary of subsidies/concessions or waiver of any other charges. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

201

SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER-i 94. Consider the following statements with regard to Global Hunger Index (GHI) 2021 1. It is a tool to measure and track hunger at the global, regional, and national levels. 2. India was ranked 98th out of the 116 countries 3. India has a serious level of hunger. Which of the following statements is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below : Code: (a) Both the statements are individually true and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I. (b) Both the statements are individually true but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I. (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false. (d) Statement I is false but statement II is true. 95. Statement I : A myopic person is advised to use concave lens. Statement II : The eye lens of a myopic person

 

Finished Solving the Paper ? Time to evaluate yourself !

SCAN THE CODE

For elaborated Solutions

focuses the parallel rays coming from front of the retina. 96. Statement I : Oxidation in our body cells releases dangerous free radicals Statement II : Our body itself produces antioxidants to neutralise harmful free radicals 97. Statement I : Decay and disintegration of rock in situ is called weathering. Statement II : Mechanical weathering is mainly caused by temperature variation. 98. Statement I : The semi-arid tracts of India stretching from eastern Rajasthan in the north to south central Tamil Nadu are agriculturally less productive. Statement II : The semi-arid tracts are homeland to a large number of central Indian Scheduled Tribe population 99. Statement I : The Mediterranean climate is highly suitable for fruit production. Statement II : Cool and moist winters in Mediterranean regions enable ample production of fruits. 100. Statement I : In the Northern hemisphere, the ocean currents flowing from equator towards the North pole and from pole towards the equator are deflected to their right. Statement II : This happens due to rotation of the Earth on the axis from West to East

SCAN

202

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

Answers Q No

Answer Key

Topic Name

Chapter Name

1

(d)

Polarisation

Wave Optics

2

(b)

Kinetic Energy

Work, Energy and Power

3

(d)

The Speed of a travelling Wave

Waves

4

(c)

Reflection of Light by Spherical Mirrors

Ray Optics and Optical Instruments

5

(d)

Total Internal Reflection

Ray Optics and Optical Instruments

6

(c)

Newton’s Third Law of Motion

Laws of Motion

7

(a)

Optical Instruments

Ray Optics and Optical Instruments

8

(b)

Reflection of Waves

Waves

9

(b)

Newton’s First Law of Motion

Laws of Motion

10

(a)

Resistivity of Various Materials

Current Electricity

11

(c)

Reflection of Light by Spherical Mirrors

Ray Optics and Optical Instruments

12

(a)

Refraction

Ray Optics and Optical Instruments

13

(c)

Permanent Magnets and Electromagnets

Magnetism and Matter

14

(a)

Conservation of Momentum

Laws of Motion

15

(c)

Measurement of Temperature

Thermal Properties of Matter

16

(a)

Temperature Dependence of Resistivity

Current Electricity

17

(b)

Refraction at Spherical Surfaces and by Lenses

Ray Optics and Optical Instruments

18

(a)

Refraction

Ray Optics and Optical Instruments

19

(c)

Various forms of Energy : the Law of Conservation of Energy

Work, Energy and Power

20

(c)

Surface Tension

Mechanical Properties of Fluids

21

(a)

Kinetic Energy

Work, Energy and Power

22

(c)

Solutions and Collogative Properties

Elevation in Boiling Point

23

(c)

Solid State

Magnetic Properties

24

(b)

Refraction

Ray Optics and Optical Instruments

25

(a)

Some Important Chemical Compounds Cement

26

(d)

Staes of Matter

Solid State

27

(a)

Importance of pH in Everyday Life

Acid, Bases and Salt

28

(b)

Properties of Acids

Acid, Bases and Salt

29

(c)

Digestion of Food

Digestion & Absorption

30

(c)

Properties of Acids

Acids, Bases and Salts

31

(d)

Importance of pH in Everyday Life

Acid, Bases and Salt

32

(a)

Reactivity Series

Redox Reactions

33

(d)

Analytical Techniques

Separation of Mixtures

34

(b)

Rusting

Redox Reactions

203

SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER-i

Q No

Answer Key

35

(b)

Topic Name Chemistry in Everyday Life

Chapter Name Hard and Soft Water

36

(a)

Carbon and its Compounds

Properties of Diamond

37

(a)

Chemistry in Everyday Life

Hard and Soft Water

38

(a)

Alloys

Solid State

39

(c)

Glass

Some Important Chemical Compounds

40

(d)

Population Interactions

Organisms and Populations

41

(d)

Digestion of Food

Digestion & Absorption

42

(b)

Digestion of Food

Digestion & Absorption

43

(c)

Comets

Solar System

44

(d)

Blood Groups

Body Fluids and Circulation

45

(d)

Planets

Solar System

46

(b)

Personalities

Awards

47

(d)

What is a Cell?

Cell: The Unit of Life

48

(d)

Long Distance Transport of Water

Transport in Plants

49

(a)

Rotation & Revolution

Solar System

50

(c)

Jet Streams

Layers of Atmosphere

51

(a)

Tides

Types of Tides

52

(a)

Tropical Cyclones

Cyclones

53

(d)

Narmada River

Rivers

54

(b)

Biomes

Tundra

55

(d)

Monsoon Winds

Winds

56

(c)

Rotation & Revolution

Rotation & Revolution

57

(a)

Peaks and Locations

Map

58

(c)

Agriculture Production

Agriculture

59

(b)

Deccan Traps

Volcanoes

60

(c)

Himalayan Vegetation

Vegetation

61

(c)

Practising Tank Irrigation

Peninsular India

62

(b)

Tropic of Cancer

Map

63

(a)

Deserts

Rainfall

64

(a)

Latitude

Lalitude and Longituted

65

(a)

Ordinary Bills

Bills

66

(b)

Rowlatt Act

Modern History

67

(d)

Parliament System

Indian Constitution

68

(b)

Joint Session

Parliament

69

(b)

Bombay Plan

Industrial Development

70

(a)

Rock-Cut Art

Art & Culture

71

(b)

Champaran Satyagraha

Modern History

72

(c)

Charles Wood's Despatch

Education

73

(c)

Gandhi's Philosophy

Gandhi's Philosophy

74

(b)

Treaties

Modern History

75

(c)

Bardoli Satyagraha

Modern History

204

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

Q No

Answer Key

Topic Name

Chapter Name

76

(b)

Gandhara School

Art & Culture

77

(d)

Eight Five-Year Plan

Five-Year Plan

78

(b)

WTO

Static GK

79

(c)

TRIPS

International Organizations

80

(a)

G-20

Current Affairs

81

(a)

FATF

Current Affairs

82

(d)

Statements of Famous Personalities

Famous Personalities

83

(b)

Statements of Famous Personalities

Famous Personalities

84

(a)

Declaration of Independence Pledge

Modern History

85

(c)

Greece Economic Crisis

Static GK

86

(c)

Clean Development Mechanism

Static GK

87

(a)

Military Exercises

Current Affairs

88

(b)

Indian Naval Ships

Current Affairs

89

(b)

Military Exercises

Current Affairs

90

(d)

Missiles

Current Affairs

91

(c)

Indian Navy

Static GK

92

(c)

Awards

Current Affairs

93

(d)

Renewable Energy Certificate (REC) 

Current Affairs

94

(c)

Global Hunger Index

Current Affairs

95

(a)

Reflection of Light by Spherical Mirrors

Ray Optics and Optical Instruments

96

(b)

Chemicals in Food

Chemistry in Everday Life

97

(c)

Weathering of Rocks

Types of Weathering

98

(b)

Semi-arid Tracts

Vegetation

99

(c)

Mediterranean Climate

Climate

100

(a)

Reasons of Ocean Currents

Ocean Currents

NDA / NA

National Defence Academy / Naval Academy

Sample Question Paper

Time : 1hr 40 mins

II Total Marks : 400

Important Instructions : 1. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose Only One response for each item. 2. You have to mark all your responses Only on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet. 3. All items carry equal marks. 4. Penalty for wrong answers : There will be penalty for wrong answers marked by a candidate in the objective type question papers. (i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (0.33) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. (ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question. (iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.

Code : (a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I. (b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I. (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false. (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true. 1. Statement I : In the year 1946, the Council of the Muslim League accepted the Cabinet Mission Plan. Statement II : The Muslim League proposed to join the Interim Government. 2. Statement I : The blue colour of copper sulphate crystal disappears when it is heated strongly. Statement II  : Due to heating, water of crystallization of crystal is lost. 3. Statement I : After cutting an apple or a banana, the colour of the cut surface becomes brown. Statement II : Polyphenolic compounds present in fruits get oxidized in air and show colour. 4. Statement I : At high temperature, hydrogen can reduce PbO to elemental lead. Statement II : Hydrogen has great affinity to oxygen. 5. Statement I : Conversion of blue copper sulphate to black cupric oxide on heating is a physical change. Statement II : A change in which chemical

composition does not change is called physical change. 6. Statement I : Water is a high boiling point liquid. Statement II : Hydrogen bonding in water is responsible for high boiling point of water. 7. Statement I : Convex mirror is used as a driver mirror. Statement II : Images formed by convex mirror are diminished in size. 8. Statement I : A thermo flask is made of doublewalled glass bottles. Statement II : Metals are good conductors while gas and air are poor conductors of heat. 9. Statement I : Bats can catch their prey in the darkness of night. Statement II : Bats can produce and also detect ultrasound. 10. The Indian standard time is based on (a) 90° meridian (b) 82 1/2 ° meridian (c) 75° E meridian (d) 0° meridian 11. Collision -Coalescence process of precipitation is applicable to (a) those clouds which do not extend beyond the freezing level. (b) clouds which extend beyond freezing level (c) all types of clouds (d) cumulonimbus cloud 12. Match List-l with List-ll and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists

206

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS



19. Which of the following statements regarding oxidation and reduction are correct? 1. In oxidation, loss of electron takes place whereas in reduction, gain of electron takes place. 2. In oxidation, gain of electron takes place whereas in reduction, loss of electron takes place. 3. Oxidizing agent decreases the oxidation number but reducing agent increases the oxidation number. 4. Oxidizing agent increase the oxidation number but reducing agent reduces the oxidation number. Select the correct answer using the code given below: Code: (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 4 20. Which one among the following is correct regarding 20Ne, 23Na+, 19F –, 24Mg 2+ (a) They are isomers of each other. (b) They are isotopes of each other. (c) They are isoelectronic with each other. (d) All of the above. 21. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched? 1. Isotopes: Atoms with same atomic number but different atomic mass. 2. Isobars: Atoms with same number of neutrons but different atomic number. 3. Isotones: Atoms with same mass number but different atomic number. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 1 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 2 only 22. Sometimes indigestion is caused by the secretion of too much hydrochloric acid in the stomach. To ease the pain caused, a tablet can be taken that reacts to reduce the amount of acid present. Which one among the following would be inappropriate for a manufacturer to include as a major reactant in the tablet? (a) CaCO3 (b) MgCO3 (c) NaOH (d) Mg(OH)2 23. Mohammad-bin Tughlaq’s experiment of producing token currency failed on account of the: (a) rejection of token coins by foreign merchants. (b) shortage of copper for minting token coins. (c) large-scale minting of spurious coins. (d) poor quality of token currency. 24. The parliament can legislate on the subject in the state list if the

List I (Map showing ocean current)

List II (Name of ocean currents) 1. Kuroshio 2. Humboldt 3. Benguela 4. Oyashio Code: A B C D (a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 2 4 3 1 (c) 4 1 3 2 (d) 2 3 1 4 13. Which one among the following nutrients is a structural component of the cell wall of plants? (a) Manganese (b) Potassium (c) Phosphorus (d) Calcium 14. Balanced diet should have approximately (a) 1/5 protein, 3/5 fat and 1/5 carbohydrate (b) 3/5 protein, 1/5 fat and 1/5 carbohydrate (c) 1/5 protein, 1/5 fat and 3/5 carbohydrate (d) 1/2 protein, 1/4 fat and 1/4 carbohydrate 15. Which one among the following statements is correct? (a) All arteries carry oxygenated blood. (b) All veins carry oxygenated blood. (c) Except the pulmonary artery, all other arteries carry oxygenated blood. (d) Except the pulmonary vein, all other veins carry oxygenated blood. 16. What are cold-blooded animals? (a) Animals with blood without haemoglobin. (b) Animals who are not ferocious. (c) Animals whose body temperature remains constant. (d) Animals whose body temperature varies according to the temperature of atmosphere. 17. Sickle-cell anaemia is a disease caused due to the abnormality in (a) white blood cells (b) red blood cells (c) thrombocytes (d) blood plasma composition 18. Carbohydrates are stored in plants and animals in the form of (a) cellulose and glucose respectively (b) starch and glycogen respectively (c) starch and glucose respectively (d) cellulose and glycogen respectively

SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER-ii (a) President issues an order authorizing it to do so. (b) Supreme Court of India gives authority to the Parliament of India in this regard. (c) Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by twothird of its member present and voting declaring it expedient to legislate on a state matter in the national interest. (d) None of the above. 25. The Writ of Certiorari is issued by a superior court. (a) To an inferior court to stop further proceedings in a particular case. (b) To an inferior court to transfer the record of proceedings in a case for its review. (c) To an officer to show his right to hold a particular office. (d) To a public authority to produce a person detained by it before the court within 24 hours. 26. Schemes run under the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act are sponsored (a) By the Central Government alone. (b) Partly by the Central Government and partly by the State Government. (c) By Centre, State and Panchayat bodies together. (d) On public-private partnership basis. 27. The world bank was created immediately after the Second World War. Its activities are focused on the developing countries. Which among the following are the activities of world bank? A. Human Development B. Agriculture and rural development C. Environmental protection and governance D. Loans and grants to the member countries. Select the correct answer using the code given below: Code: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 28. A refracting telescope consists of : (a) one convex mirror and one convex lens. (b) two convex lenses of equal focal length. (c) two concave mirrors of different focal lengths. (d) two convex lenses of unequal focal lengths. 29. The nucleus of a singly ionized carbon atom contains (a) 6 protons and 6 neutrons (b) 5 protons and 6 neutrons

207 (c) 6 protons , 6 electrons and 6 neutrons (d) 12 protons , 6 electrons and 6 neutrons 30. Two similarly charged bodies are kept 5 cm apart in air. If the second body is shifted away from the first by another 5 cm, their force of repulsion will be (a) doubled (b) halved (c) quadrupled (d) reduced to one-fourth 31. A glass of water does not turn into ice as it reaches 0°C. It is because (a) water does not solidify at 0°C. (b) a certain amount of heat must be supplied to the glass of water so as to solidify. (c) a certain amount of heat must be taken out from the glass of water so as to solidify. (d) water solidifies at 0 K only. 32. The main power supply in India is at 220 V, whereas that in the US is at 110 V. Which one among the following statement in this regard is correct? (a) 110 V is safer but more expensive to maintain. (b) 110 V is safer and cheaper to maintain. (c) 110 V leads to lower power loss. (d) 110 V works better at higher latitudes. 33. The equatorial rain forests are also known as (a) Savanna (b) Campos (c) Selva (d) Lanose 34. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List I (Port) List II (Special Feature) A. Kandla 1. Deepest landlocked protected port B. Kochi 2. Located at mouth of lagoon C. Vishakhapatnam 3. Tidal port D. Kolkata 4. Inland riverine port Code: A B C D (a) 3 1 2 4 (b) 3 2 1 4 (c) 4 1 2 3 (d) 4 2 1 3 35. The Earth’s surface receives maximum energy at 12 noon but the maximum temperature never occurs at 12 noon. State which of the following reasons are correct: (i) Transformation of solar energy into heat requires some time. (ii) The loss of energy through long-wave

208

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

radiations from the Earth’s surface exceeds the energy received from the Sun at 4:00 p.m. (iii) Energy received by the Earth from solar radiations continues to exceed the energy lost by outgoing long – wave radiations from the Earth’s surface up to 4:00 p.m. Select the correct answer using the code given below: Code: (a) (i) and (ii) only (b) (ii) and (iii) only (c) (i) and (iii) only (d) (i), (ii) and (iii) 36. Certain parts of a plant can be bent easily without breaking. This flexibility in certain parts, like leaf and stem, can be attributed to the abundance of (a) parenchyma (b) collenchyma (c) sclerenchyma (d) xylem and phloem 37. Which of the following is not a micronutrient for a plant? (a) Iron (b) Magnesium (c) Molybdenum (d) Manganese 38. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Ligaments are highly flexible. 2. Ligaments connect muscles and bones. 3. Ligaments contain very little matrix. Select the correct answer using the code given below : Code: (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 only 39. Cell membrane is selectivelypermeable because (a) it is made up of selected organic molecules. (b) it does not allow transport of some substances from region of higher concentration to the region of lower concentration. (c) the movement of organic molecules occurs only at specific concentration. (d) it allows the movement of certain molecules in and out of the cell while the movement of other molecules is prevented.

40 The following equation is an example of a redox reaction, in which Cl2 is the oxidizing agent and FeBr3 is the reducing agent: 2FeBr3(aq) + 3Cl2(g) → 2FeCl3(aq) + 3Br2(l) Which one among the following statements is incorrect for this redox reaction (a) Oxidizing agents are themselves reduced. (b) Reducing agents gain or appear to gain electrons. (c) Reducing agents are themselves oxidized. (d) Oxidizing agents oxidize other substances. 41. Which one among the following nitrogen compounds has the least percentage of nitrogen by mass? (a) (NH4)3PO4 (b) NH3 (c) NH4OH (d) NH4NO3 42. Which one among the following is the correct order of amount of lime (CaO), silica (SiO2), alumina (Al2O3) and ferric oxide (Fe2O3) in Portland cement? (a) CaO > SiO2 > Al2O3 > Fe2O3 (b) SiO2 > CaO > Fe2O3 > Al2O3 (c) Al2O3 > SiO2 > CaO > Fe2O3 (d) Fe2O3 > Al2O3 SiO2 > CaO 43. Which one among the following transitions of electron of hydrogen atom emits radiation of the shortest wavelength (a) n=2 to n=1 (b) n=3 to n=2 (c) n=4 to n=3 (d) n=5 to n=4 44. Which one among the following is the most appropriate statement with respect to the atomic weight of an element? (a) The atomic weight of an element is the sum total of the number of protons and neutrons present in the atom of the element. (b) Unlike mass number, the atomic weight of an element can be a fraction. (c) The atomic weight of an element is a whole number (d) The atomic weight of all the atoms in an element is the same. 45. During the discussion on the Demands for Grants, motions can be moved to reduce the amount of a demand. Such a motion is called a cut-motion. Which of the following categories are classified as ‘cut-motion’? 1. Disapproval of policy cut 2. Economy cut 3. Token cut

209

SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER-ii Select the answer using the code below: Code: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1,2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only 46. Which of the statements given is/are correct? 1. The speaker immediately vacates his/ her office whenever the State Legislative Assembly is dissolved. 2. No member of a State Legislative Assembly shall be liable to any proceeding in any court in respect of anything said or any vote given by him/her in the legislature. Code: (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 47. Consider the following statements about Cripps Proposals of 1942. 1. Provision was to be made for the participation of Indian States in the Constitution making body. 2. British Government undertook the acceptance and implementation of the Constitution. 3. All provinces of British India were to give an undertaking about the acceptance of the Constitution. 4. In the ongoing World War, no resources of British India would be used. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 2 (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4 48. Which one among the following was not one of the causes of the Third Anglo-Maratha War? (a) The Maratha Chiefs, particularly the Peshwa described to throw off the restrictions imposed on them by the treaties with the English (b) The determination of the English to give a finishing blow to the Maratha power (c) The Pindari designs to seek support from the Marathas to drive the English away from India (d) The attack of Peshwa Baji Rao on the residency at Khirki. 49. William Bentinck attempted to reform Hindu society by suppressing/abolishing social evils. Which one among the following was not included in them? (a) Sati (b) Infanticide

(c) Thuggee (d) Slavery 50. Karam is a festival celebrated to worship Karam Devta, the God of power. Which one among the following tribal communities in India traditionally celebrates this festival? (a) Santhals (b) Karbi (c) Meenas (d) Bhils 51. The terra-cotta plough of the Harappan civilization was found at (a) Mohenjo-daro (b) Banawali (c) Kalibangan (d) Lothal 52. Which one among the following works of Mahatma Gandhi provides a critique of modern machine-oriented civilization? (a) The Story of My Experiments with Truth (b) Hind Swaraj (c) Constructive Programme (d) Anasakti Yoga (Commentary on ‘Gita’) 53. The object is in uniform circular motion on a plane. Suppose that you measure its displacement from the center along one direction, say, along x-axis. Which one among the following graphs could represent this displacement (x)? x (a) (b) (c)

t

x

t

x

t

x

(d) t 54. The penetrating power of X-rays can be increased by (a) Increasing the current in the filament. (b) Decreasing the potential difference between the cathode and the anode. (c) Decreasing the current in the filament. (d) Increasing the potential difference between the cathode and the anode. 55. E D q C B

A

Q

The graph given above indicates change in temperature (θ) when heat (Q) was given to a substance. Which among the following parts of the graph correctly depict the latent heat of the substance? (a) AB and BC (b) BC and DE (c) CD and DE (d) DE and AB

210

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

56. When a solid object is immersed in water, there is a loss in its weight. This loss is (a) equal to the weight of the water displaced. (b) less than the weight of the water displaced. (c) greater than the weight of the water displaced. (d) not related to the weight of the water displaced. 57. Body A of mass 2 kg and body B of mass 4 kg are of same material and are kept in sunshine for some interval of time. If the rise in temperature is equal for both the bodies, then which one among the following in this regard is correct? (a) Heat absorbed by B is double because its mass is double. (b) Heat absorbed by A is double because its mass is half. (c) Heat absorbed by both A and B is equal because the quantity of heat absorbed does not depends upon the mass. (d) Heat absorbed by B is four times than the heat absorbed by A because the quantity of heat absorbed is proportional to square of the mass. 58. For a steel boat floating on a lake, the weight of the water displaced by the boat is: (a) Less than the weight of the boat. (b) More than the weight of the boat. (c) Equal to the weight of the part of the boat which is below the water level of the lake. (d) Equal to the weight of the boat. 59. Consider the following coal mines of India. 1. Bokaro 2. Adilabad 3. Raniganj 4. Bishrampur Select the correct sequence of the above from east to west (a) 1-3-4-2 (b) 3-1-4-2 (c) 3-1-2-4 (d) 1-3-2-4 60. Which one among the following agricultural crops/groups of crops may be grown in abundant in lowlands and river deltas of fertile alluvial soil where there is high summer temperature and rainfall varies from 180 cm to 250 cm? (a) Wheat and sugarcane (b) Cotton (c) Maize and coarse crops (d) Rice, Jute and Tea 61. Arrange the following tropical forest groups in the correct order of sequence based on area covered in India beginning from the largest covered area:

1. Moist deciduous 2. Dry deciduous 3. Wet evergreen 4. Semi-evergreen Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1-2-3-4 (b) 3-4-2-1 (c) 1-3-2-4 (d) 4-3-2-1 62. Which one among the following is the major reason for low agricultural productivity in dry regions of India? (a) Constraints of financial resources (b) Rural indebtedness (c) Dependence on erratic monsoon (d) Small size of landholdings 63. Which one among the following groups is referred to as types of precipitation? (a) Fog, Dew and Rain (b) Air, Water and Soil (c) Fog, Water and Rain (d) Dew, Soil and Rain 64. Which one among the following is the most important source of fish catch in India? (a) Deep-sea fisheries (b) Coastal fisheries (c) Inland natural fisheries (d) Inland cultural fisheries 65. In which one among the following areas of South- East Asia, there is largest concentration of peasant population? (a) Areas of intensive subsistence farming (b) Highland areas where the climate is cooler and healthier (c) Cleared lowlands in forest areas (d) Areas of shifting cultivation 66. Consider the following statements with regard to temperate cyclones: 1. Occur in the mid-latitudes of both the hemisphere. 2. Extra-tropical cyclones 3. These cyclones are formed along the equator. Code: (a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only 67. Which one among the following statement is not correct? (a) More than 50% of species are found in tropical rain forest. (b) One third of land surface is arid or semi

SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER-ii arid (c) Floating Plants (phytoplankton) in the ocean produce over half the world’s oxygen. (d) World’s important deserts are located across the equator. 68. Which one among the following statements regarding Chinook winds is not correct? (a) They rise from the Pacific Ocean (b) After crossing the Rockies, they descend tothe east of the mountains (c) They bring rainfall in the Prairies (d) These winds are beneficial to wheat cultivation 69. Consider the following statements relating to planning in India: 1. In the year 1938, the National Planning Committee was set up in India under the Chairmanship of Jawaharlal Nehru. 2. The Bombay Plan was prepared by the Indian industrialists. 3. Acharya Kripalani prepared the Gandhian Plan. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) 1 and 2 (d) None of these 70. Which one among the following statements regarding the Government of India Act, 1935 is not correct? (a) Provincial autonomy came into existence (b) Bicameral legislatures were provided in six provinces (c) The principles of communal electorates and weightages were further extended (d) The states were compelled to enter the federation 71. Consider the following statements relating to Jain literature: 1. The sacred books of the Jainas are known as Siddhanta or Agama. 2. The language of the earliest Jain texts is eastern dialect of Pali known as ArdhaMagadhi. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

211 72. Which one among the following was a newspaper found and edited by Raja Ram Mohan Roy? (a) The Calcutta Gazette (b) Mirat-ul-Akhbar (c) Harijan (d) The Bharat Mihir 73. Which one among the following is not produced by sound wave in air? (a) Polarization (b) Diffraction (c) Reflection (d) Refraction 74. A body attached to a spring balance weighs 10 kg on the Earth. The body attached to the same spring balance is taken to a planet where gravity is half of that of the Earth. The balance will read (a) 20 kg (b) 10 kg (c) 5 kg (d) 2.5 kg 75. The resistance of a wire is 10 Ω. If it is stretched ten times, the resistance will be (a) 1 Ω (b) 10 Ω (c) 100 Ω (d) 1000 Ω 76. If the focal length of the biconvex lens is 25 cm, then the power of the lens will be: (a) + 4 dioptre (b) – 4 dioptre (c) + 0.04 dioptre (d) – 0.04 dioptre 77. The thermal conductivity of copper is 4 times that of brass. Two rods of copper and brass having same length and cross-section are joined end to end. The free end of copper is at 0°C and the free end of brass is at 100°C. The temperature of the junction is (a) 20°C (b) 40°C (c) 60°C (d) 10°C 78. The torque on a rectangular coil placed in a uniform magnetic field is large when the (a) number of turn is large. (b) number of turns is less. (c) plane of the coil is perpendicular to the magnetic field. (d) area of the coil is small. 79. Two metallic wires A and B are of same material and have equal length. If the cross-sectional area of B is double that of A, then which one among the following is the electrical resistance of B? (a) Twice that of A (b) Four times that of A (c) ¼ that of A (d) ½ that of A

212

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

80. Two thin convex lenses of focal lengths 4 cm and 8 cm are separated by a distance of 4 cm in air. The combination will have the focal length of (a) 4 cm (b) 8 cm (c) 12 cm (d) 32 cm 81. The Damuda series of Gondwana system has three stages, namely, Raniganj, Barren Rocks and Barakar. The middle stage is called Barren because (a) it consists of coal and not iron (b) it consists of iron and not coal (c) it consists of neither coal nor iron (d) it is a sedimentary layer consisting of shale and clay 82. The cyclonic storm occurring over the Caribbean Sea is known as (a) Typhoon (b) Willy-Willy (c) Hurricane (d) Cyclone 83. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List 1 List 2 A. Zoji La 1. Himachal Pradesh B. Lipulekh 2. Sikkim C. Shipki La 3. Uttarakhand D. Nathu La 4. Ladakh Code: (a) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4 (b) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4 (c) A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2 (d) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2 84. Where do you find the Isle of Youth? (a) Near Cuba (b) Near Bahamas (c) Near Jamaica (d) Near Saint Lucia 85. For which among the following house appliances, magnet is an essential part? (a) Calling bell (b) Fan (c) Washing machine (d) All of the above 86. Consider the following statements : Hypermetropia is a defect of vision in which (i) a person cannot see the distant objects clearly. (ii) a person cannot see the near objects clearly. (iii) the near point of the eye gets shifted away from the normal position. (iv) the far point of the eye gets shifted towards the eye. Which of the statement given above are correct? (a) (i) and (iii)

(b) (ii) and (iv) (c) (i) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iii) 87. To obtain the powerful parallel beams of light from a vehicle’s headlight, one must use (a) front surface silvered plane mirror (b) back surface silvered plane mirror (c) concave mirror (d) convex mirror 88. Which one among the following is the major constituent of soda lime glass? (a) Sodium oxide (b) Calcium oxide (c) Calcium carbonate (d) Silica 89. Which among the following about Mahatma Gandhi Non-Cooperation Movement are correct? 1. Refusal to attend Government Durbars and official functions. 2. Participation in elections. 3. Participation in rallies for the boycott of foreign goods. 4. Surrender of titles. Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4 (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4 90. Gandhiji’s response for breaking salt laws was in response to (a) Non-Cooperation Movement (b) Civil Disobedience Movement (c) Khilafat Movement (d) Quit India Movement 91. The Suez Canal, the Strait of Hormuz and the Strait of Gibraltar are important because they: (a) prevent attacks on bordering nations. (b) prohibit the movement of ships carrying nuclear weapons. (c) unite Russian access to warm water points. (d) control access to vital trade routes. 92. According to SIPRI’s International Arms Transfer, 2021 Report, India imported maximum arms from which country? (a) Russia (b) France (c) United States (d) South Korea

213

SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER-ii 93. Which among the following islands in the South China Sea are the source of conflict between several countries? (a) Marshall Islands (b) Solomon Islands (c) Kuril Islands (d) Spratly Islands 94. The government has decided to decommissioned which of the following Indian Naval ships in 2022? 1. Nishank 2. Akshay 3. Rana 4. Rajput Code: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 3 and 4 only 95. INS Kadamba which is an Indian Navy base is located in which of the following states? (a) Tamil Nadu (b) Odisha (c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Karnataka 96. Who among the following led India to their first overseas test victory in cricket? (a) C. K. Nayudu (b) M. A. K. Pataudi (c) Sunil Gavaskar (d) Bishen Singh Bedi 97. Who among the following was conferred the highest Bangladesh Award - Bangladesh SwadhinataSammanona in the year 2011? (a) Indira Gandhi

 

Finished Solving the Paper ? Time to evaluate yourself !

SCAN THE CODE

For elaborated Solutions

(b) Rajiv Gandhi (c) Jyoti Basu (d) Satyajit Ray 98. Consider the following statements with regard to Nirbhay Missile 1. It is a supersonic cruise missile 2. Can carry nuclear warheads 3. It can be launched from multiple platforms Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1,2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 only 99. Consider the following statements with regard to INS Surat 1. Is the last ship of the Visakhapatnam-class stealth guided-missile destroyers. 2. It is expected to be commissioned by 2025. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 100. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The Indian Army is organized into five regional commands. 2. The headquarters of Northern Command is located at Lucknow. Code: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

SCAN

214

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

Answers Q No

Answer Key

Topic Name

Chapter Name

1

(c)

Muslim League

Modern History

2

(a)

Physical Change

Physical and Chemical Changes

3

(a)

Chemical Change

Physical and Chemical Changes

4

(a)

Reactivity Series

Redox Reactions

5

(d)

Chemical Change

Physical and Chemical Changes

6

(a)

Physical Properties of Water

States of Matter

7

(b)

Reflection of Light by Spherical Mirrors

Ray Optics and Optical Instruments

8

(a)

Heat Transfer

Thermal Properties of Matter

9

(a)

Range of Hearing

Sound

10

(b)

Indian Standard Time

Latitude, Longitude and Time

11

(a)

Types of Clouds

Water in the Atmosphere

12

(d)

Ocean Currents

Map

13

(d)

Macronutrients

Mineral Nutrition

14

(c)

Balanced Diet

Diet for Healthy Living

15

(c)

Human Circulatory System

Body Fluids and Circulation

16

(d)

Vertebrata

Diversity in Living Organisms

17

(b)

Autosomal Recessive Disorder

Genetic Disorder

18

(b)

Carbohydrates

Biomolecules

19

(d)

Oxidant and Reductant

Redox Reactions

20

(c)

Isoelectronic Species

Structure of Atom

21

(b)

Ionic Species Species

Structure of Atom

22

(d)

Antacids

Acids, Bases and Salts

23

(c)

Mohammad-bin Tughlaq

Medieval History

24

(c)

Parliament

Centre-State Relations

25

(a)

Writs

Types of Writs

26

(a)

Government Schemes

Current Affairs

27

(d)

World Bank

Static GK

28

(d)

Optical Instruments

Ray Optics and Optical Instruments

29

(a)

Ionic Species Species

Structure of Atom

30

(d)

Coulomb’s Law

Electric Charges and Fields

31

(c)

Change of State

Thermal Properties of Matter

32

(a)

Power in AC Circuit: The Power Factor Alternating Current

33

(c)

Rain Forests

Natural Vegetation

34

(b)

Ports

Static GK

35

(c)

Temperature

Our Earth

36

(b)

Simple Permanent Tissue

Tissues

37

(b)

Macronutrients

Mineral Nutrition

38

(b)

Connective Tissue

Structural Organiszation in Animals

215

SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER-ii

Q No

Answer Key

Topic Name

Chapter Name

39

(d)

Cell Membrane

Cell:The Unit of Life

30

(b)

Redox Reactions

Oxidant and Reductant

41

(a)

% by mass

Concentration of Solutions

42

(a)

Some Important Chemical Compounds Cement

43

(a)

Bohr’s Atomic Model

Structure of Atom

44

(a)

Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry

Atomic Number and Atomic Mass

45

(c)

Nation

Parliament

46

(b)

Legislative Assembly

State Legislative Assembly

47

(a)

Cripps Mission

Modern History

48

(d)

Anglo Maratha War

Modern History

49

(d)

William Bentick

Modern History

50

(a)

Festivals

Static GK

51

(b)

Harappan Civilization

Indus Valley Civilization

52

(b)

Mahatma Gandhi

Books

53

(a)

Circular Motion

Laws of Motion

54

(d)

Einstein’s Photoelectric Equation: Energy Quantum of Radiation

Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

55

(b)

Specific Heat Capacity

Thermal Properties of Matter

56

(a)

Archimedes Principle

Mechanical Properties of Fluids

57

(c)

Heat Transfer

Thermal Properties of Matter

58

(c)

Archimedes Principle

Mechanical Properties of Fluids

59

(b)

Coal Mines

Static GK

60

(d)

Crops

Agriculture

61

(a)

Foresty Type

Forests in India

62

(c)

Monsoon

Agriculture

63

(a)

Precipitation

Type of Precipitation

64

(c)

Fisheries

Static GK

65

(a)

Peasant Population

Static GK

66

(d)

Temperate Cyclones

Types of Cyclones

67

(d)

Various Geographical Facts

Static GK

68

(c)

Chinook Winds

Winds

69

(c)

Plans and Committees

Static GK

70

(d)

Government of India Act, 1935

Polity

71

(a)

Jain literature

Art & Culture

72

(b)

Newspaper

Static GK

73

(a)

Transverse and Longitudinal Waves

WAVES

74

(c)

Acceleration Due to Gravity of the Earth

Gravitation

75

(d)

Drift of Electrons and the Origin of Current Electricity Resistivity

216

Oswaal NDA/NA YEAR-WISE SOLVED PAPERS

Q No

Answer Key

Topic Name

Chapter Name

76

(a)

Reflection of Light by Spherical Mirrors

Ray Optics and Optical Instruments

77

(a)

Heat transfer

Thermal Properties of Matter

78

(a)

Torque on Current Loop, Magnetic Dipole

Moving Charges and Magnetism

79

(d)

Drift of Electrons and the Origin of Current Electricity Resistivity

80

(a)

Reflection of Light by Spherical Mirrors

Ray Optics and Optical Instruments

81

(b)

Gondwana System

Physical Features of India

82

(c)

Cyclones

Static GK

83

(d)

Passes and States

Static GK

84

(a)

Isle of Youth

Static GK

85

(c)

Motional Electromotive Force

Electromagnetic Induction

86

(d)

Reflection of Light by Spherical Mirrors

Ray Optics and Optical Instruments

87

(c)

Reflection of Light by Spherical Mirrors

Ray Optics and Optical Instruments

88

(d)

Some Important Chemical Compounds Glass

89

(b)

Non-Cooperation Movement

Modern History

90

(b)

Movements of Gandhiji

Modern History

91

(d)

Straits

Static GK

92

(c)

SIPRI Report

Current Affairs

93

(d)

South China Sea

Current Affairs

94

(a)

Indian Naval Ships

Current Affairs

95

(d)

INS Kadamba

Current Affairs

96

(b)

Famous Personalities

Static GK

97

(a)

Highest Bangladesh Award

Awards

98

(b)

Missiles

Current Affairs

99

(c)

INS Surat

Current Affairs

100

(d)

Indian Army

Static GK