Glider Pilots Ground School (303-908-3147)

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GLIDER PILOTS GROUND SCHOOL SINCE 1975 - OVER 4000 PILOTS TRAINED

PRIVATE PILOT -GLIDER WRITTEN EXAM GUIDE

/

BY DAVID E. SEYMOUR

EVERYTHING YOU NEED TO PASS THE FAA GLIDER (PGL) WRITTEN EXAM!

INCLUDES THE 462 FAA GLIDER QUESTIONS WITH CLEAR EXPLANATIONS AND ANSWERS. GREAT PREPARATION FOR THE ORAL EXAM

303-908-3147 2023

Glider Pilots Ground School

Private Glider

GLIDER PILOTS GROUND SCHOOL®

PRIVATE PILOT - GLIDER WRITTEN EXAM GUIDE - TABLE OF CONTENTS INTRODUCTION Chapter 1

FEDERAL AVIATION REGULATIONS pg. 1

Chapter 2

AERODYNAMICS and GLIDER OPERATIONS pg. 7

Chapter 3

AERONAUTICAL INFORMATION MANUAL (AIM) pg. 12

Chapter 4

AIRCRAFT INSTRUMENTS pg. 15

Chapter 5

SOARING WEATHER pg. 19

Chapter 6

AVIATION WEATHER SERVICES pg. 25

Chapter 7

GLIDER PERFORMANCE pg. 26

Chapter 8

AIRSPACE pg. 28

Chapter 9

RISK MANAGEMENT, AERONAUTICAL DECISION-MAKING pg. 33

Chapter 10

CROSS COUNTRY FLIGHT PLANNING pg. 35

Chapter 11

SECTIONAL CHARTS pg. 37

Chapter 15*

PRACTICE EXAMS pg. 39

Chapter 16

PRIVATE QUESTION BANK pg. 43

Chapter 17

COMPUTER TESTING SUPPLEMENT (Graphs and Charts) pg. 72 -See page 72 to find out how to download the entire Computer Testing Supplement.

Chapter 18

ANSWER KEY pg. 86

ORDER FORM pg. 88

* Note: Chapters 12 to 14 have been intentionally omitted.

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Introduction This book contains everything you need to pass the Private Glider (PGL) written. GPGS has been preparing pilots for the glider written exams and producing study guides since 1972. We have assisted well over 3500 pilots in passing their exams.

TAKING the FAA WRITTEN - There are no flight time requirements to take the exam, however, an instructor signoff is required. You must be 14 years of age. If you are taking one of our on-site courses, the FAA testing location will be specified in class. All Glider examinations are given by computer, and you will obtain your Airman Written Test Report immediately. Reservations at the testing center are recommended. The following company is authorized to administer FAA written examinations: Check the websites for examination locations and time. PSI https://faa.psiexams.com/FAA/login 844-704-1487

There are 60 questions on the Private Glider exam. Each question is independent of the others. All questions are multiple choice. You will be allowed 2 hours to complete the examination. Check with your examination center to find the latest starting time. Plan to arrive a few minutes early so that you will not be disappointed. The code for your exam is PGL.

BRING to the TEST - You must bring the following: 1. Your Social Security number. 2. Government photo identification (driver’s license, etc., or a student picture ID with your birth certificate) 3. Certificate of Completion from GPGS (if you take our on-site course), or a signoff from your Flight Instructor.

AIRMAN TEST REPORT - Upon completion of your written exam, you will receive an Airman Test Report with the testing center’s embossed seal, which reflects your score. Keep this report - your examiner will ask for it when you take the flight test. 70% is the minimum passing grade; the subject areas that you missed will be listed. It remains valid for 24 calendar months. If you fail the test, you must wait 30 days before retesting. In case of your first failure, you may retest before 30 days if an instructor certifies that you have been given further instruction and are competent to pass. STUDY TIPS - Before beginning your studies, be sure to check the GPGS website at www.gliderpilotsgroundschool.com for the latest information and updates. When revisions occur, they will be posted to the website under the Corrections and Update tab. When going through the book, the most important thing you can do is to answer all the questions at the end of each chapter. Go over a second or third time those questions you miss so that you will be familiar with the correct answers. Remember to focus only on the correct answer. When you feel confident, try one of the practice exams in chapter 15. It will give you a good idea of how well prepared you are. You must know the correct information - memorizing numbers and letters will not work as the computer randomizes A, B and C responses. We hope that you find our books and our courses interesting and informative. There is much more to learn about soaring after you have passed your exam. We expect that you will continue your studies with the recommended books in the GPGS Store listed at the back of this study guide and many other sources. Fly Safely, Good Luck and Great Soaring! Copyright © GLIDER PILOTS GROUND SCHOOL - 2023

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Chapter 1 FEDERAL AVIATION REGULATIONS Part 1 - DEFINITIONS and ABBREVIATIONS Category - (1) As used with respect to the certification, ratings, privileges, and limitations of airmen, means a broad classification of aircraft. Examples include airplane, rotorcraft, glider, and lighter-than-air. (2) As used with respect to the certification of aircraft, means a grouping of aircraft based upon intended use or operating limitations. Examples include transport, normal, utility, acrobatic, limited, restricted, and provisional. Ceiling - means the height above the earth’s surface of the lowest layer of clouds or obscuring phenomena that is reported as broken, overcast, or obscuration, and not classified as thin or partial. Class - (1) As used with respect to certification, ratings, privileges, and limitations of airmen, means a classification of aircraft within a category having similar operating characteristics. Examples include single-engine, multiengine, land, sea, gyroplane, helicopter, airship, and free balloon. (2) As used with respect to the certification of aircraft, means a broad grouping of aircraft having similar characteristics of propulsion, flight, or landing. Examples include airplane, rotorcraft, glider, balloon, landplane, and seaplane. Night - means the time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning twilight. V speeds Vne = never exceed speed. (“Red Line”) Va = design maneuvering speed. (Not displayed on A/S indicator) Vfe = maximum flap extended speed Vle = maximum landing gear extension speed Vno = maximum structural cruising speed Vso = stalling speed (or the minimum steady flight speed) in the landing configuration

Part 39 - AIRWORTHINESS DIRECTIVES (ADs) ADs are used to notify aircraft owners of unsafe conditions and to prescribe the conditions under which the product may continue to be operated. The maintenance record (Logbook) must show the current status of applicable Airworthiness Directives. ADs are mandatory. Noncompliance with ADs renders the aircraft unairworthy. Example AD: the Tost release on Schleicher sailplanes requires replacement every 1000 launches.

Part 43.7 - MAINTENANCE, ALTERATION

PREVENTIVE

MAINTENANCE,

REBUILDING

and

A licensed private or commercial pilot may perform preventive maintenance on any aircraft owned or operated by him. Work of the following type is preventive maintenance: servicing landing gear wheel bearings, replenishing hydraulic fluid, removing and installing glider wing and tail surfaces that are specifically designed for quick removal and installation and when such removal and installation can be accomplished by the pilot. After preventive maintenance is accomplished by the pilot, the signature, certificate number, and kind of certificate held by the person approving the work and a description of the work must be entered in the aircraft maintenance records.

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Glider Pilots Ground School Private Glider Part 61 - CERTIFICATION of PILOTS

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61.3 - CERTIFICATES REQUIRED Whenever you act as pilot in command or required flight crewmember you must have your pilot license and a current medical certificate on your person, except a glider pilot flying a glider may certify that he has no physical defects that will prevent him from flying a glider in lieu of the medical certificate. The minimum age for a person to be issued a private glider certificate is 16 years. Each person who holds a pilot certificate or a medical certificate shall present it for inspection upon the request of the Administrator, the National Transportation Safety Board, or any federal, state, or local law enforcement officer. 61.23 - DURATION of CERTIFICATES, MEDICAL CERTIFICATES.

Pilot certificates are issued without a specific expiration date. Glider pilots are only required to self-certify that they do not have any physical defects that will prevent them from flying a glider. A medical certificate is not required. The pilot is responsible for determining whether he or she is fit to fly for a particular flight, even though he or she may hold a current medical certificate or self-certification. 61.51 - LOGGING of FLIGHT TIME

You are not required to carry your logbook with you when flying. 61.56 - FLIGHT REVIEW

A pilot must have accomplished a flight review to act as pilot in command. A flight review is good for 24 calendar months (the last day of the month, 24 months later). 61.57 - RECENT FLIGHT EXPERIENCE To carry passengers - you need 3 takeoffs and 3 landings within the last 90 days in any glider, which by the FAA definition is in the same category and class of aircraft 61.60 - CHANGE of ADDRESS

The holder of a pilot certificate who has made a change in his permanent mailing address may not after 30 days exercise the privileges of his certificate unless he has notified in writing the FAA Airman Certification Branch of his new address. 61.69 - GLIDER TOWING: EXPERIENCE and TRAINING REQUIREMENTS To act as pilot in command, you must have at least a private certificate with a category rating for powered aircraft, an endorsement in your logbook from an instructor, 100 hours of pilot-in-command time in the category, class, and type of towplane (ASEL). Within the preceding 24 months you must have had at least 3 actual or simulated tows while accompanied by a qualified tow pilot, or 3 flights as pilot in command of a glider being towed.

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Glider Pilots Ground School Private Glider 61.118 - FLYING for COMPENSATION

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A person with a private pilot certificate may not act as pilot in command for compensation or hire. In regard to privileges and limitations, a private pilot may not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees. If a donation is made to a charitable organization for the flight an exception permits a private pilot to act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers who pay for the flight. This also requires coordination with the local FAA in advance.

Part 91 - GENERAL OPERATING and FLIGHT RULES 91.3 - RESPONSIBILITY and AUTHORITY of the PILOT IN COMMAND

The pilot in command of an aircraft is directly responsible for, and is the final authority as to, the operation of that aircraft. He is responsible for briefing the passengers on the use of the safety belts. In an emergency, you may deviate from any Part 91 rule to the extent required to meet the emergency. If you deviate from a flight rule you must submit a report upon request. 91.7 - AIRCRAFT AIRWORTHINESS

The pilot in command is responsible for determining the airworthiness of an aircraft. This means preflight inspection, checking limitations, weight and balance, etc. An aircraft preflight inspection for the first flight of the day should be by a thorough and systematic means recommended by the manufacturer. 91.9 - OPERATING LIMITATIONS

The operating limitations will be found in the aircraft manual, approved manual materials, markings, and placards, or any combination thereof. 91.15 - DROPPING OBJECTS Do not drop any object that will create a hazard to persons or property. Objects may be dropped provided reasonable precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property.

91.17 - LIQUOR and DRUGS: FLYING A person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if that person has consumed alcoholic beverages within the preceding 8 hours. Except in an emergency, you may not carry a person who is obviously under the influence of intoxicating liquors or drugs (except a medical patient under proper care). A crewmember must have less than .04% by weight of alcohol in his blood. 91.103 - PREFLIGHT ACTION As pilot in command, you must familiarize yourself with all available information concerning the flight. This specifically includes a determination of runway lengths at airports of intended use and for all flights away from the vicinity of the airport a plan of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned.

91.105 - FLIGHT CREWMEMBERS at STATIONS, 91.107 - SAFETY BELTS

The pilot in command must brief the passengers on the use of seatbelts and notify them to fasten their seatbelts during takeoff and landing. An adult who is securely fastened may hold a person who has not reached his/her second birthday. Required crewmembers are required to fasten their safety belts while “at their stations” and fasten shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing. ©gpgs 100323

Glider Pilots Ground School Private Glider 91.111 - OPERATING NEAR OTHER AIRCRAFT

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No formation flying except by prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft. 91.113 -RIGHT of WAY

Different categories - balloon, glider, airship, and airplane. The balloon has the right of way over the glider, etc. When two aircraft are converging, the least maneuverable category has the right of way. If they are the same category (both gliders), the aircraft to the right has the right of way. Regardless of category, when two aircraft are approaching head-on - each alters course to the right. Neither has the right of way. An aircraft towing has the right of way over all other engine-driven aircraft. The lower aircraft while on final approach to land has the right of way, but the pilot shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or overtake the other aircraft. An aircraft in distress has the right of way over all other aircraft, regardless of category.

91.119 - MINIMUM SAFE ALTITUDES Anywhere- maintain an altitude that will permit a safe landing without undue hazards to persons or property on the surface. In Congested Areas - maintain an altitude 1000 ft. above the highest obstacle within 2000 ft. of the aircraft. In Other Than Congested Areas - stay 500 feet above the surface but not closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle or structure.

91.121 - ALTIMETER SETTINGS Below 1 8,000 feet, set your altimeter to either (1) current reported altimeter setting, or (2) the elevation of the departure airport. At or above 18,000 feet MSL, set 29.92” Hg in the Kollsman Window and refer to the elevations as flight levels. 91.123 - ATC CLEARANCE

When an ATC clearance has been obtained, no pilot in command may deviate from that clearance, unless that pilot obtains an amended clearance. The one exception to this regulation is an emergency. A pilot would be required to submit a detailed report of an emergency, which caused the pilot to deviate from an ATC clearance if requested, within 48 hours to the chief of the appropriate ATC facility. 91.125 - ATC LIGHT SIGNALS

A steady green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal that the pilot is cleared to land. An alternating red and green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal to exercise extreme caution. 91.203 - AIRWORTHINESS CERTIFICATE

The Airworthiness Certificate must be visible. It remains in effect as long as the aircraft is maintained and operated as required by Federal Aviation Regulations. The Operating Limitations (usually the answer the FAA is looking for is a current, approved Airplane Flight Manual) and the Registration Certificate must also be on board.

91.209 - AIRCRAFT LIGHTS When operating at night, an aircraft must display lighted position lights from sunset to sunrise. Since gliders don’t have lights, land by official sunset. It’s often still light at altitude and “ less than light” by the time you land, if you -watch the sunset in flight. ©gpgs 100323

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91.211 - SUPPLEMENTAL OXYGEN (AVIATORS BREATHING OXYGEN)

When your altitude is: 12,500’ to 14,000’ MSL. - Pilot must use supplemental oxygen after 30 minutes. Above 14,000’ MSL - pilot must use supplemental oxygen all the time. Above 15,000’ MSL - the passengers must have oxygen available all the time. 91.307 - PARACHUTES

If passengers are on board, both the pilot and passengers must wear parachutes during any maneuver exceeding 60 degrees of bank or 30 degrees of pitch. A certificated and appropriately rated parachute rigger must have packed a parachute within the preceding 180 days. 91.309 - TOWING GLIDERS

The towline used must have a certified breaking strength between 80% and 200% of the maximum certificated operating weight of the glider. Greater strength towlines require the installation of safety links at both ends.

91.313 - RESTRICTED AIRCRAFT, 91.319 - EXPERIMENTAL AIRCRAFT Carriage of passengers for hire is not authorized. Do not operate a restricted or an experimental aircraft over a densely populated area or in a congested airway.

91.403 - MAINTENANCE: GENERAL

The owner or operator of an aircraft is primarily responsible for maintaining the aircraft in an airworthy condition, for compliance with inspections and maintenance, and ensuring the proper notations are in the logbook. The airworthiness can be determined by a review of the maintenance records and a preflight inspection. 91.405 - MAINTENANCE REQUIRED

After maintenance, inspection, or the completion of Airworthiness Directives, make sure appropriate entries have been made in the aircraft maintenance records (logbook) indicating the aircraft is released to service. After major repairs have been made, the glider must be test flown by at least a private pilot before passengers may be carried. Aircraft logbooks do not have to be carried in the aircraft.

91.409 - INSPECTIONS Every aircraft needs an annual inspection every 12 calendar months. If passengers are carried for hire or instruction is given for hire, it must have had a 100-hour inspection. An annual inspection may be substituted for a 1 00-hour inspection.

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Glider Pilots Ground School Private Glider NATIONAL TRANSPORTATION SAFETY BOARD (NTSB) Part 830

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Rules for the notification and reporting of aircraft accidents. You must immediately notify (verbally) the NTSB, not the FAA, if you have an aircraft accident, and if requested file a written report within 10 days. The operator of an aircraft is responsible for preserving the wreckage, cargo, mail and all records until the NTSB takes custody. An aircraft accident includes a fatality or serious injury; or any substantial damage, which affects the structural strength, performance, or flight characteristics of the aircraft. NTSB defines a serious injury as one which requires hospitalization for at least 48 hours; commencing within 7 days after the date of injury. Some things that require a report - aircraft overdue or believed to be in an accident, in-flight fire, collision in flight, flight control system malfunction or failure and the incapacitation of a crew member due to illness or injury. NOTE: Some things that are not classified as accidents - damage to the landing gear, wheels, tires, flaps, brakes, wing tips or small punctures in the skin or fabric.

FAA ADVISORY CIRCULARS

FAA advisory circulars (some free, others at cost) are available to all pilots and are obtained by ordering those desired from the Government Printing Office. The FAA will issue an Advisory Circular (AC) to inform the aviation public in a systematic way concerning non-regulatory material of interest. Advisory Circulars are issued in a numbered-subject system corresponding to the subject areas in the Federal Aviation Regulations. Don’t confuse ACs with ADs. ADs are Airworthiness Directives you must comply with ADs. See FAR Part 39. AC Series 60 - Airmen. AC Series 70 - Airspace. AC Series 90 - Air Traffic and General Operating Rules.

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Below is a list of the applicable FAA exam questions for Chapter 1. Refer to Chapter 16 for the multiple-choice questions, to Chapter 17 for any figures, and finally to Chapter 18 for the correct answers. You may use the empty box to the right of the number to record your answer. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13

14 15 16

17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32

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52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67

68 69 70 71 72 73 74 97 98 99 100

107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122

123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 270 319 320 321

322 375 376 377 412 416 428 429 460

Glider Pilots Ground School

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Private Glider

2. AERODYNAMICS and GLIDER OPERATION A. FUNCTIONS of the FLIGHT CONTROLS

l.The rudder will YAW the glider about the VERTICAL axis to counteract the adverse yaw that the ailerons create when deflected. The glider is not turned by using the rudder. It turns when in a bank because of the horizontal component of lift created by the wing. The purpose of the rudder is to control yaw. B. GLIDEPATH CONTROL 1. SPOILERS - “spoil” the airflow across the wing, reducing lift and increasing drag and stall speed. The lower value of glide ratio results in a steeper glide path. 2. DIVE BRAKES (or air brakes) - create drag; most also reduce Lift and increase stall speed. 3. FLAPS - their deflection decreases stall speed and increases drag and lift. The increased drag allows a steeper angle of descent without increasing airspeed.

C. ANGLE of ATTACK, LIFT, DRAG, LOAD FACTOR, FROST, and GROUND EFFECT. 1. ANGLE of ATTACK Angle A in the diagram is the angle between the longest line you can draw through the chord and the airflow. The FAA calls this airflow the “relative wind”. 2. LIFT - is defined as the force at right angles to the airflow and is proportional to the square of the velocity. The amount of excess load that can be imposed on the wing of an airplane depends upon the speed of the airplane. Remember - it is the horizontal component of lift that provides the turning force. 3. DRAG - is defined as the force parallel

to the airflow. 4. STALL - a wing always stalls at the same angle of attack. This is called the critical angle of attack. The wing design determines the critical angle of attack. As altitude increases, the indicated airspeed at which a given airplane stalls in a particular configuration will remain the same as at low altitude. 5. A wing can be stalled at any airspeed and any flight attitude. 6. LOAD FACTOR -G LOAD- is the ratio of the lift the wings are generating divided by the maximum gross weight of the glider. In straight and level flight, the load factor is 1, but increases in turns, pullouts from dives, and in rough or turbulent air. As airspeed increases, load factor increases in gusts or turbulent air. An increase in load factor increases stall speed. Stall speed and “G” load increase with the angle of bank. In a 60° bank the G load is 2 Gs and the stall speed is increased 41%. 7. FROST - on the glider disrupts the smooth flow of air over the airfoil, decreasing lift and increasing drag. The glider will stall at a higher airspeed with even a slight accumulation of frost on the wings. Bugs, mud, snow, ice or raindrops have a similar effect. 8. GROUND EFFECT - is the result of interference between the surface of the earth and the airflow patterns about an aircraft. “Floating” caused by ground effect will be most evident during an approach to landing when at less than the length of the wingspan above the surface. Induced drag decreases; therefore, any excess speed at the point of flare may cause considerable floating. Ground effect is also most likely to result in becoming airborne before reaching the recommended takeoff speed.

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Glider Pilots Ground School Private Glider D. FORCES ACTING ON A GLIDER 1. Weight or Gravity. 2. Lift (at right angles to airflow). 3. Drag (parallel to airflow). Gravity provides the energy that gives forward motion to a glider.

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E. STABILITY flight condition, and to 1. Stability defines a sailplane's tendency to maintain a uniform return to that condition when disturbed. 2. An aircraft said to be inherently stable will require less effort to control. 3. The location of the CG with respect to the center of lift determines the longitudinal stability of an aircraft. 4. If an aircraft has been loaded in such a manner that the CG is located aft of the aft CG limit, one undesirable flight characteristic a pilot might experience with this aircraft would be difficult in recovering from a stalled condition. 5. Loading an aircraft to the most aft CG will cause the aircraft to be less stable at all speeds.

F. SLIPS vs. SKIDS 1. Normally, forward slips are performed with the dive brakes or spoilers fully open. 2. Illustrations 2 and 6 indicate a slipping right turn.

3. Illustrations 3 and 4 depict the excessive use of right rudder during the entry of a right turn. A skid. Figure 11. Glider Yaw String.

G. GLIDE RATIO or L/D 1. Minimum sink speed is the speed which results in the least altitude lost per unit of time. The minimum upward current to maintain altitude a glider must encounter is the same as the glider’s sink rate.

2. To cover the most ground in still air, fly at the speed for best glide ratio, the best lift/drag speed. 3. A good approximation for the flattest glide with respect to the ground against a headwind is the best L/D speed increased by one half the estimated wind velocity at the glider’s altitude. 4. Glide Ratio - in still air is the horizontal distance covered divided by the altitude lost. A 30/1 glide angle indicates that a horizontal distance of 30 feet for each foot of altitude lost. Glide ratio is the same numerical value as L/D (the ratio of Lift over Drag). The FAA will ask you at least one or two questions that require you to calculate glide ratio. For private pilots no wind effect will be asked with these questions. There are 5 calculation questions in the private pilot question bank. To make these questions more interesting the FAA uses altitude lost per nautical mile. 1 nautical mile = 6000 feet. An online calculator is provided on the question computer, or you may bring your own. 5. Frequently glide ratio is expressed in feet of altitude lost per mile. This can be calculated: feet lost/NM = 6000/glide ratio. Example: at 30/1 the feet lost/nm = 6000/30 = 200 feet in still air. ©gpgs 100323

Glider Pilots Ground School 9 Private Glider 6. If a sailplane has a glide ratio of 23:1 it will lose about 2100 feet in 8 nautical miles. 6000/23 =261 feet lost per mile x 8 = 2188 feet. The closest FAA answer is 2100 ft. 7. A sailplane with a glide ratio of 30:1 will travel 10 nautical miles while losing 2000 ft. 6000 ft/30 = 200 ft per mile. 2000/200 = 10 nm traveled. 8. If a sailplane lost 2,000 feet in 9 nautical miles the best glide ratio for this sailplane is approximately 27:1. This question is technically bogus. It assumes you must be flying at a constant speed that is the best L/D. Furthermore, the answers are stated correctly in chapter 12, but on some of the exams the best computer answer is 27:01 instead of 27:1. The calculation remains: 9 x 6000/2000 = 27. 9. A sailplane will sink 4100 feet in 15 nautical miles if its lift/drag ratio is 22:1. 6000/22 = 273 ft per mile. 273 x 15 = 4095 ft. lost in 15 NM. 10. A glider will sink 2600 ft in 10 nautical miles if its lift/drag ratio is 23:1. 6000/23 = 261 ft per mile. 261 x 10 = 2610 ft. lost in 10 NM. H. PERFORMANCE CURVES 1. Performance calculations -you will be asked to calculate glider performance questions based on figure 55. A mile for these calculations is 5280 ft. Look at figure 55: - Airspeed in MPH is indicated on the bottom scale. The left-hand scale indicates the L/D associated with the L/D polar curve. -The right-hand scale indicates sink rate associated with the lower sink rate curve in feet per second (FPS). Minimum sink speed is the airspeed which results in the least loss of altitude in a given time. Figure 55 Performance Curves V-MPH

2. To calculate many feet the glider would sink in 1 statute mile in still air at 53 MPH: A. Find the point of the L/D curve above 53 MPH. B. Follow the horizontal line left to read the L/D scale of 30.9. It is also stated as Max L/D of 30.9:1 above the curve. -Glide ratio is the same as L/D. L/D = Distance traveled 30.9= 5280 height lost Vertical height lost

The same formula is: distance traveled = height lost 5280 = 171 feet. L/D 30.9 3. The glider will gain the most distance while descending 1,000 feet in still air at 53 MPH. 4. The glider will attain an L/D of approximately 28.5:1 at 68 MPH. 5. The glider will descend 180 feet in one mile at minimum sink speed. 5280/29.3 = 180 ft. 6. The speed at which the glider sink rate of 5 feet per second is attained is 79 MPH. I. GROUND LAUNCH - WINCH or AUTO TOW 1. Which is an advantage of using a CG hook for a winch tow rather than the nose hook? A greater percent of the line length can be used to reach altitude. The FAA took this out of context for the exam; if you get this question just go with this statement. 2. To stop pitch oscillation (porpoising) during a winch launch, the pilot should relax the back pressure on the control stick and shallow the angle of climb.

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Glider Pilots Ground School J. AERO TOW

Private Glider

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1. You will be asked about the following illustrations from figure 56: 2 -Hold 3 -Release towline 5 - Sailplane wants towplane to turn right.

6 - Sailplane wants towplane to turn Left

5 & 6 -These 2 signals are labeled incorrectly in many Glider Flying Handbook prints). 7 - Stop operation 9 - The towplane cannot release. 10 -The glider is unable to release. 12 - The glider wants the towplane to reduce airspeed.

Figure 56. Standard soaring signals.

Figure 56. - Standard Soaring Signals. 2. An indication that the glider has begun a turn too soon on aero tow is that the towplane’s nose is pulled to the outside of the turn. 3. What corrective action should the sailplane take during takeoff if the towplane is still on the ground and the sailplane is airborne and drifting to the left? Crab into the wind to maintain a position directly behind the towplane. 4. If the towline breaks below 200 ft. AGL, the glider pilot should land straight ahead or make slight turns to reach a suitable landing area. 5. If the sailplane has become airborne and the towplane loses power before leaving the ground? The sailplane should release immediately and maneuver to the right of the towplane. K. THERMALLING 1. Fly at maximum L/D speed adjusted for wind between thermals, or when searching for lift. 2. Fly at minimum sink speed for the angle of bank in thermals. 3. What corrective action should be taken, if while thermaling at minimum sink speed in turbulent air, the left wing drops while turning to the left? Answer: lower the nose before applying opposite (right) aileron pressure. ©gpgs 100323

Glider Pilots Ground School O. FIELD SELECTION

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Private Glider

1. Always keep at least one field within gliding distance. 2. Have a suitable landing area selected upon reaching 2,000 ft. AGL, and a specific field chosen upon reaching 1,500 ft. AGL. 3. Always fly a pattern. 4. Your first choice should be an airport. 5. Considering the terrain, the characteristics of the sailplane being flown, the wind conditions, etc., check for obstructions, slope, crops, surface conditions, and wind direction. Uphill, upwind is the best selection if available. 6. Good fields: airports, smooth fields that have cut crops or low inexpensive crops, dry lakes. Important: consult local pilots; an example: dry lakes are not always what they appear to be. 7. Poor fields: water, swamps, tall crops, expensive crops (i.e. tobacco), vineyards, rocks, most roads, pastures. If it’s too stony to plow, you do not want to land on it! Besides, those cows may be bulls. 8. Wires are very difficult to see and dangerously unforgiving if contacted. 10. When making a downwind landing expect the likelihood of overshooting the intended landing spot and a faster groundspeed at touchdown.

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P. SPINS, SPIRAL DIVES and MANEUVERING SPEED

1. Spinning - occurs when the aircraft is stalled and one wing stalls more than the other. (The FAA’s definition). Note: the FAA expects an answer that both wings are stalled. Based upon NAVWEPS 00SOT-BC , page 309, “the upgoing wing becomes less stalled... .the downgoing wing becomes more stalled. ” 2. A Spiral dive vs. a spin - sailplane pilots can differentiate between a spin and a spiral dive because in a spiral dive the G loads increase. 3. If a pilot unintentionally enters a steep diving spiral to the left the proper way to recover from this attitude without overstressing the glider is to relax the back pressure and shallow the bank; then apply upelevator pressure until the nose has been raised to the desired position. 4. Maneuvering speed is the maximum airspeed at which abrupt and full deflection of the controls would not cause structural damage to a glider. It is not indicated on the airspeed indicator but is contained in the operating handbook or placard. FAA exam questions for Chapter 2. Refer to Chapter 16 for the multiple-choice questions, to Chapter 17 for any figures, and finally to Chapter 18 for the correct answers. Use the empty box to the right of the number to record your answer.

135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 171 172

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174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183

184 185 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193

194

379 385 386 387 388 389 390 391

392 393 394 395 396 397 398 399 400 401

402 403 404 405 420 421 422 423

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3.AERONAUTICAL INFORMATION MANUAL (AIM) A. AIRPORT LIGHTING and MARKING AIDS 1. Beacons - an airport’s rotating beacon operated during daylight hours indicates that the weather in class D airspace is below basic VFR weather minimums. 2. Closed Runway Marking - a large “X” indicates a closed runway. 3. Traffic Patterns - the AIM suggests the terminology for the components of traffic patterns is as indicated in the diagram adjacent. - Left hand traffic is standard. The Traffic Pattern Indicators around the segmented circle on the airport may indicate Left- or Righthand traffic patterns. Figure 50 shows landing strip indicators parallel to the runways, and traffic pattern indicators which show the direction of the last turn to final for each runway end. 4. Runways are numbered - to correspond to the nearest 10 degrees of their magnetic bearing. For example, the numbers 9 and 27 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately east to west 090 and 270 degrees magnetic. 5. Wind direction issued by the tower is magnetic direction, velocity is in knots.

-

-

-

Figure 50 - Airport Diagram

6. With the indications shown in figure 50 the proper traffic pattern and runway for landing would be right-hand traffic to Runway 18. You should expect a crosswind from the right. Figure 51 - Airport Diagram 7. The segmented circle in figure 51 indicates that the airport traffic is left-hand for Runway 36 and right¬ hand for runway 18. 8. The wind cone (windsock) indicates that left-hand traffic to Runway 36 should be used. 9. Landing on Runway 26 will be with a right-quartering headwind. 10. The traffic patterns have been arranged to avoid flights over the area southeast of the airport.

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Glider Pilots Ground School B. RADIOFREQUENCIES

13

Private Glider

UNICOM - is a non-govemment communication facility used by private aircraft. Flight Watch - is on 122.0 MHz and is used to obtain enroute weather during flight below FL180 from FSS (Flight Service Station). ATIS Automatic Terminal Information Service - is the continuous broadcast of recorded airport information concerning non-control information (weather, runway in use, etc.) in selected high-activity terminal areas. Emergency frequency - is 121.5 MHz. Common glider frequencies - 123.3 MHz is used for communication between gliders. Also, 123.5 MHz is used as the glider-to-crew frequency. TRANSPONDER CODE 1202 FOR GLIDERS - Transponder equipped gliders should use 1202 if not in contact with ATC. When making code changes, pilots should avoid selecting emergency codes 7500, 7600 or 7700, thereby preventing false alarms at automated ground facilities.

-

C. WAKE TURBULENCE

Wingtip vortices are created only when an aircraft is lift. The greatest vortex strength occurs when the generating heavy, clean, and slow.

I

'/I

— .,

developing aircraft is 50OIO800

T

Wake levels oft in approximately 5nm.

- The wind condition that requires maximum caution when avoiding

wake turbulence on landing is a light, quartering tailwind. - When landing behind a large aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by staying above the large aircraft’s final approach path and landing beyond the large aircraft’s touchdown point. - When departing behind a heavy aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by maneuvering the aircraft above and upwind from the heavy aircraft. D. MEDICAL FACTS for PILOTS

1. HYPOXIA Hypoxia is a state of oxygen deficiency in the body.

2. HYPERVENTILATION A. Caused by fast and deep breathing, this flushes carbon dioxide from the lungs and blood. Rapid or extra deep breathing while using oxygen can cause hyperventilation. Emotional tension, anxiety, or fear increases the chance of hyperventilation. B. A pilot should be able to overcome the symptoms or avoid future occurrences of hyperventilation by slowing the breathing rate, breathing into a bag, talking aloud. 3. SPATIAL DISORIENTATION A. A state of temporary confusion resulting from misleading information being sent to the brain by various sensory organs is defined as spatial disorientation. Spatial disorientation may result if these body signals are used to interpret flight attitude. The best way to overcome spatial disorientation is by relying on the flight instruments rather than taking a chance on the sensory organs. This is assuming that you have gyroscopic instruments on board (turn and bank or gyro horizon). B. The danger of spatial disorientation during flight in poor visual conditions may be reduced by having faith in the instruments rather than taking a chance on the sensory organs. ©gpgs 100323

Glider Pilots Ground School Private Glider E. SCANNING TECHNIQUES and COLLISION AVOIDANCE

14

A. Prior to starting each maneuver, a pilot should visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance. B. Haze has the effect that traffic or terrain features appear to be farther away than their actual distance. C. The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during daylight hours is to use a series of short regularly spaced eye movements to search each 1 0-degree sector. D. A technique a pilot should use to scan for traffic to the right and left during straight-and-level flight is to systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals. E. If another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft, there will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft.

F. RUNWAY SIGNS AND MARKINGS

TERM-* A. The inbound destination sign defines directions for arriving aircraft.

B

B. The taxiway location sign indicates the taxiway on which the aircraft is located.

D. No entry sign: found at the entrance vehicles.

C. The taxiway direction sign indicates the direction of an upcoming taxiway.

Do not enter this area. Aircraft are prohibited This sign would be to a one-way taxiway or at the intersection of a road intended for

E. Vehicle Lane. Refer to Figure 65, Chapter 17. Markings for C indicate a vehicle lane. F. Demarcation Bar. A demarcation bar delineates a runway with a displaced threshold from a blast pad, stopway or taxiway that precedes the runway. A demarcation bar is 3 feet (Im) wide and yellow, since it is not located on the runway. FAA exam questions for Chapter 3. Refer to Chapter 16 for the multiple-choice questions, to Chapter 17 for figures, and finally to Chapter 18 for the correct answers. Use the empty box to the right of the number to record your answer. 323 333 334 335 347 348 349 350 456

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351 352 354 355 356 357 358 457

359 360 362 363 364 365 367 368

369 370

371 372 373 374 424 425

430 434 442 443 444 447 448 449

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4. AIRCRAFT INSTRUMENTS A. MAGNETIC COMPASS

1. VARIATION - True north on your Sectional chart is parallel to the Longitudinal lines (vertical ticked lines). Because of map distortion these lines are not exactly parallel, so when plotting a course, choose the midpoint to measure the true course. Your magnetic compass will align itself with the horizontal component of the magnetic lines of force of the earth. Since the magnetic North Pole is displaced from the geographic North Pole, a correction called variation must be made at most places on the earth in order to follow a true course with a magnetic compass. Magnetic variation is the angle between true and magnetic north. Look on your Sectional chart for the dashed magenta line, called an isogonic line that is nearest your course line. To find the true course, measure the angle between your course line and one of the north-south longitudinal Lines. To find the magnetic course, SUBTRACT easterly variation from the true course and ADD westerly variation. Memory aid: “EAST IS LEAST AND WEST IS BEST”. True Course - Easterly Variation = Magnetic Course. True Course + Westerly Variation = Magnetic Course. 2. DEVIATION - is caused by the magnetic fields within the aircraft distorting the lines of magnetic force. Deviation varies for different headings of the same aircraft and is posted on a correction card in a holder on the magnetic compass. 3. ACCELERATION ERROR - an acceleration error question is always asked on the FAA knowledge exam.

In the Northern Hemisphere on an easterly or westerly heading, if you: ACCELERATE, the compass will turn NORTH. DECELERATE, the compass will turn SOUTH. On a NORTH or SOUTH magnetic heading the compass will NOT change if you accelerate or decelerate. Memory aid: “ANDS”. 4. TURNING ERROR

- the memory aid for this is: “SOUTH LEADS, NORTH LAGS “.

On a Southerly heading, the compass will lead your turn i.e. in a right turn, as your heading passes through 180°, your compass may indicate 210°, but in a left, turn as your heading passes through 180°, your compass may indicate 150°. On a Northerly heading, the compass will lag your turn i.e. in a right turn, as your heading passes through 360°, your compass may indicate 330°, but in a Left turn, as your heading passes through 360°, your compass may indicate 30°.

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Glider Pilots Ground School Private Glider Another expression, “GENERAL LEE LEAD THE SOUTH.” may help you remember this. The maximum error occurs on North or South headings decreasing until there are no turning errors on a magnetic heading of east or west!

16

The question you will have: In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the west if a right turn is entered from a north heading. 5. DIP is the direction of the earth’s magnetic field in a vertical plane, just as magnetic north is its direction in a horizontal plane. Dip varies from 90° at the magnetic poles to 0° at the magnetic equator. The acceleration error and the turning error are caused by tilting the compass, which then aligns itself with some of the vertical component of the lines of force (dip).

6. During flight the indications of a magnetic compass are accurate only during straight and level unaccelerated flight. B. ALTIMETER

Altitudes:

Pressure True Absolute

Indicated

1. INDICATED ALTITUDE - is the direct reading from the altimeter with the correct pressure setting in the Kollsman window. 2. PRESSURE ALTITUDE - is the altimeter reading when 29.92”Hg is set in the Kollsman window. 3. TRUE ALTITUDE - is the true elevation of the aircraft above sea level (ASL). This can also be expressed as, for example - 1,000’ MSL - 1,000’ above mean sea level. Airport, terrain and obstacle elevations found on charts are true altitudes. Pressure altitude equals true altitude when standard atmospheric conditions exist. True altitude will be lower than indicated altitude in colder than standard air temperature. The altimeter will indicate a lower altitude than true altitude when the air temperature is warmer than standard. Indicated altitude is the same as true altitude when at sea level under standard conditions.

4. DENSITY ALTITUDE - is the pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature variations (it is used to determine aircraft performance, not altitude clearance). High temperature and high humidity increase density altitude and decrease performance. Density altitude equals pressure altitude at standard temperature. An increase in ambient temperature would tend to increase the density altitude at a given airport . 5. ABSOLUTE ALTITUDE - is your clearance above the surface or objects on the surface.

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17 Glider Pilots Ground School Private Glider 6. ALTIMETER SETTING - is the barometric pressure reduced to sea level pressure in inches of mercury. With the proper altimeter setting the altimeter indicates true altitude at field elevation. The ISA standard atmospheric sea level pressure is 29.92” of mercury (Hg). When you are below 18,000 ft., there are two recommended ways to set the altimeter: (A.) Place the current altimeter setting in the Kollsman window, and your altimeter will indicate field elevation while on the airport. (B.) If you do not know the altimeter setting, adjust the altimeter to field elevation while on the ground at your departure airport and the altimeter setting will show in the Kollsman window. 7. FLIGHT LEVEL- is a level of constant atmospheric pressure related to the ISA reference datum of 29.92 inches of mercury. A flight level is stated in three digits that represent hundreds of feet. Example, flight level 250 represents a barometric altimeter indication of 25,000 feet, when 29.92 has been set in the Kollsman window. At or above 18,000 feet MSL set 29.92 in the Kollsman window and refer to your altitude as a Flight Level (i.e. - “six-six November is now passing flight level 214”). Your altimeter will be reading pressure altitude. 8. Your indicated altitude depends upon air temperature below the aircraft. Since pressure is equal at the bases and equal at the tops of each column, indicated altitude is the same at the top of each column. Right column when air is cooler than average (standard), the altimeter reads higher than true altitude. Left column when air is warmer than average (standard), the altimeter reads lower than true altitude. Warning: -when taking your FAA written, read the question very carefully. For example: The altimeter at A indicates higher than true altitude, or true altitude is lower than indicated altitude. The altimeter at B indicates lower than true altitude, or true altitude is higher than indicated altitude. 9. If you fly from “high to low, or from hot to cold, look out below” (i.e. - if you do this without resetting the altimeter). Colder than standard temperatures will always put you lower than your indicated altitude when airborne. 10. Near sea level, the pressure changes at a rate of about of 1 inch of mercury per 1000 feet. As you increase the setting, your indicated altitude increases. If a pilot changes the altimeter setting from 30.11 to 29.96 the approximate change in indication would be (30.11-29.96) 1000ft/l”Hg = 150 ft. Decrease. The setting will decrease the altitude indication and the altimeter will indicate 150 ft. lower.

11. MSL and ASL are used interchangeably in aircraft literature. They both indicate elevation above sea ASL = Above Sea Level. level. MSL = Mean Sea Level. 12. AGL = height Above Ground Level 13. When climbing to cruising flight level 180 (18,000ft MSL) the altimeter shall be set to 29.92.

14. Unequal heating of the Earth’s surface causes variation of altimeter settings between weather reporting points.

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Private Glider Glider Pilots Ground School C. PITOT¬ STATIC SYSTEM. The pitot system provides impact pressure for the airspeed indicator. The airspeed uses both pitot and static inputs. The variometer and Altimeter use only static air pressure. Some high-performance gliders/systems use other inputs, but the FAA is only interested in the above basic hookups for these questions.

18

D. AIRSPEED INDICATOR

1. Flight speeds above Vne (never-exceed speed) should be avoided because design limit load factors may be exceeded if gusts are encountered. The red line indicates the never-exceed speed. 2. Maneuvering speed - Va is an important airspeed that a pilot cannot identify by looking at the color¬ coding of an airspeed indicator. Find it in the Operating Limitations, commonly on a placard or in the aircraft Flight Manual. 3. At higher altitudes indicated airspeed will be unchanged, but groundspeed will be faster. The indicated airspeed at which an aircraft stalls in a particular configuration will remain the same regardless of altitude.

-

E. VARIOMETER

Variometers are so sensitive that they indicate climbs and descents as a result of changes in airspeed. Total energy compensators reduce climb and dive errors on variometer indications caused by airspeed changes (dives and pull-ups). Electric variometer sensitivity can be adjusted in flight to suit existing air conditions. FAA exam questions for Chapter 4. Refer to Chapter 16 for the multiple-choice questions, to Chapter 17 for any figures, and finally to Chapter 18 for the correct answers. Use the empty box to the right of the number to record the correct answer.

143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150

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151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158

159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166

167 168 169 170 173 196 201 202

203 204 205 206 207 208 426 427 436

19

5. SOARING WEATHER A. THE STANDARD ATMOSPHERE

1. Standard Sea level temperature is 59°F (15°C). Temperature decreases an average of 3.5 degrees F (2 degrees C) per 1000 feet. 2. The standard sea level pressure is 29.92”Hg (29.92 inches of mercury, or, expressed in metric units, 1013.2 hPa (hectopascals). B. PRESSURE SYSTEMS 1. Near the surface, because of friction, the wind is deflected toward the low (converging) or away from the high-pressure area (diverging). If the winds at 5,000 ft. AGL are southwesterly, while surface winds are southerly, the difference in direction is primarily due to friction between the wind and the surface. 2. Every physical process of weather is accompanied by or is the result of a heat exchange. 3. If a flight is made from an area of high pressure into an area of lower pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate higher than the actual altitude above sea level . Memory jog: High to low - look out below (you will he lower than indicated). 4. If a flight is made from an area of low pressure into an area of high pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate lower than the actual altitude above sea level. Memory jog: Low to High -Clear the sky.

C. MOISTURE = POWER! 1. Moisture is power in any weather system. The more moisture available, the more power there is to make significant weather. Warm air can hold more moisture than cold air. The amount of water vapor which air can hold depends on air temperature. 2. Dewpoint is the temperature to which air must be cooled to become saturated. 3. The temperature spread decreases as the relative humidity increases. 4. Clouds, fog, or dew will always form when water vapor condenses. 5. The presence of ice pellets at the surface is evidence that there is a temperature inversion with freezing rain at a higher altitude.

D. FRONTS 1. The boundary between two different air masses is referred to as a front. The air mass property changes can be one or all of the following: temperature, dew point, wind and/or pressure. One weather phenomenon, which will always occur when flying across a front, is a change in the wind direction. 2. When neither air mass is replacing the other, the front is said to be stationary. 3. Frequently, good soaring will be found for several days after the passage of a cold front.

E. CLOUD BASE CALCULATION 1. In convective currents, the temperature and dew point converge at about 4.4°F (2.5°C) per 1,000 feet. Estimate the cloud base as follows: For the Private pilot exam °F is used. Temperature / Dewpoint spread multiplied by 1000, then divided by 4.4 will give the cloud base in feet (AGL) or above the point of measurement, provided the thermals go that high. 2. An example: the approximate base of the cumulus clouds if the temperature at the surface at 1, 000 feet is 70°F and the Dewpoint is 48°F would be 6, 000 feet MSL. 70°F - 48°F =22°F. 22 = 5. (5000-foot difference). 1000 ft (surface) + 5000 ft = 6000 ft. MSL. 4.4 3. If the surface temperature is 82°F and the Dewpoint is 38°F expect cloud base at 10, 000 ft.

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Glider Pilots Ground School Private Glider F. STABILITY and TEMPERATURE INVERSIONS

1. STABLE AIR UNSTABLE AIR

TURBULENCE Smooth air Turbulent air

CLOUDS Fog, Stratiform clouds Cumulus clouds with vertical development

PRECIPITATION Continuous

Showers, Thunderstorms

20

VISIBILITY Poor, with haze and smoke Good, except in heavy rain or precipitation

2. The stability of the air before lifting occurs determines the structure or type of clouds, which will form as a result of air being forced to ascend. 3. If unstable air with high moisture content and very warm temperatures are forecast you should expect strong updrafts and cumulonimbus clouds. 4. Clouds form as a result of very stable, moist air being forced to ascend a mountain slope; the clouds will be stratus type with little vertical development and little or no turbulence. 5. The conditions necessary for the formation of stratiform clouds are a lifting action and stable, moist air. 6. Unstable, moist air and orthographic lifting (air forced upward by a natural barrier, such as a mountain) would likely result in cumuliform-type clouds, good visibility, and showery rain. 7. Clear, cool nights with calm or light winds are favorable for the formation of temperature inversions, due to terrestrial radiation. 8. Cooling from below would increase the stability of an air mass. 9. Warming from below would decrease the stability of an air mass. 10. An increase in temperature as altitude is increased would most likely result in a temperature inversion. 11. Positive K factors indicate stable air, Negative K factors indicate unstable air. A Soaring Forecast indicating a K35 factor indicates very stable air and thermal activity is unlikely.

G. WIND SHEAR

1. Wind shear can be present at any level and can exist in both a horizontal and vertical direction. 2. During departure a sudden decrease in headwind will cause a loss in airspeed equal to the decrease in wind velocity. 3. Hazardous wind shear is commonly encountered in areas of temperature inversion and near thunderstorms. 4. Low-level wind shear may occur when there is a low-level temperature inversion with strong winds above the inversion. 5. If a temperature inversion is encountered immediately after takeoff or during an approach to a landing, a potential hazard exists due to wind shear. 6. Wind shear and turbulence is considered to be the most hazardous condition when soaring in the vicinity of thunderstorms 7. If there is thunderstorm activity in the vicinity of an airport at which you plan to land wind-shear turbulence might be expected on the landing approach. 8. A pilot can expect a wind-shear zone in a temperature inversion whenever the wind speed at 2,000 to 4,000 feet above the surface is at least 25 knots. 9. Hazardous wind shear may be expected in areas of low-level temperature inversion, frontal zones, and clear air turbulence.

H. CLOUD HEIGHT RANGES Clouds are divided into four "families" according to their height range. These are: high, middle, low, and clouds with extensive vertical development. ©gpgs 100323

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1. High Clouds - are cirriform (wispy), and are composed almost entirely of ice crystals, due to the extremely cold temperatures at high altitudes. Cirrus, cirrocumulus, and cirrostratus range in altitude from 16,500 to 45,000 feet. 2. Middle Clouds - altostratus, altocumulus, and nimbostratus bases range in altitude from 6,500 to 23,000 feet. They are primarily water, much of which may be supercooled. 3. Low Clouds - stratus, stratocumulus, and fair-weather cumulus clouds ranging in altitude from the surface to 6,500 feet. They are composed almost entirely of water, which at times may be supercooled. 4. Clouds with extensive vertical development - towering cumulus and cumulonimbus. Water will be supercooled above the freezing level. They have the greatest convective turbulence.

I. CLOUD TYPES 1. Cumulus Clouds - are formed by vertical currents in unstable air. They begin as a mere hazy wisp and grow only with active thermals. Look for a thermal under a cumulus with a concave base and sharp outline. A cumulus with a convex base or fragmentary outline is dissipating. The thermal under it has subsided. Cumulus clouds are associated with cold fronts. A cumulus cloud is the first stage of a thunderstorm. 2. Stratus Clouds - occasionally called “layer clouds”, are formed by the cooling or lifting of a stable layer of moist air over a wide area. Stratus clouds are associated with warm fronts.

3. Nimbus Clouds - from the Latin word for “rain cloud”, are clouds with precipitation coming from them. There are two types: - Cumulonimbus - abbreviated CB - is cumulus with rain, snow, or sleet coming from them. They are the familiar thunderhead and may have heavy rain, snow, hail, lightning, high winds, and extreme turbulence associated with them. The conditions necessary for the formation of cumulonimbus clouds are a lifting action and unstable, moist air. - Nimbostratus Clouds - are the true rain or snow clouds. Expect steady rain or drizzle. 4. Cirrus Clouds - are associated with, but well out in front of, warm fronts. 5. Lenticular Clouds - mark the crests of standing waves. They are recognized by their lens-shaped, or almond shaped appearance and, while they may change shape and size with time, they usually remain fixed with respect to the ground with a wind of 50 knots or more blowing through them. The Weather Bureau symbol - ACSL - Alto Cumulus Standing Lenticular. 6. Virga - an acronym for “Vertically Integrated Rain Gradient Aloft”, is best described as streamers of precipitation trailing beneath clouds, which evaporate before reaching the ground. J. FOG Fog is actually a surface-based cloud. There are five types: 1. Radiation Fog - the most favorable conditions for radiation fog are clear sky, little or no wind, and small temperature-dew point spread. Radiation fog forms over flat land, almost exclusively at night or near daybreak. A situation most conducive to the formation of radiation fog is warm, moist air over low, flatland areas on clear, calm nights. 2. Rain-induced Fog - occurs with precipitation and other hazards such as icing, turbulence, and thunderstorms, 3. Steam Fog - forms in winter when cold dry air passes over warm ocean waters. Low-level turbulence can occur, and icing can become hazardous 4. Advection Fog - forms when moist air moves over colder ground or water. It is most common along coastal areas in the winter. It depends on wind and wind much stronger than 15 knots lifts the fog into a layer of low stratus or stratocumulus clouds. 5. Upslope Fog - forms as a result of moist, stable air being cooled adiabatically as it moves up sloping terrain and depends on wind. Once the upslope wind ceases, the fog dissipates. ©gpgs 100323

Glider Pilots Ground School K. THUNDERSTORMS

22

Private Glider

Three Ingredients are needed to form a thunderstorm - High moisture content, - Unstable air, and - Lifting action (from a thermal, upslope, front, etc.)

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rJL-IfHk Xk ' 3?11/ 1 > XV r/U L kT

J4

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V

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J 3

Three Stages - the thunderstorm life cycle has three stages: dissipating - Cumulus (Building) - continuous updrafts • cumulus majure extending from the earth to several thousand feet above the cloud tops. Winds blow in toward the storm. - Mature - updrafts end, downdrafts are present. This stage is first recognized by the beginning of rainfall at the surface. The clouds associated with rain in a thunderstorm are cumulonimbus (CB). Thunderstorms reach their greatest intensity during the mature stage. - Dissipating - this stage is comprised mostly of downdrafts. An anvil head is a sure sign of the dissipating stage. The winds aloft are blowing the top off the storm. The anvil head points in the direction in which the storm is moving. Other Phenomena associated with thunderstorms are squall lines, hail, and lightning. - Squall Lines - are a non-frontal, narrow band of active thunderstorms that often develop ahead of a cold front. They may exist several hundred miles in advance of a cold front and contain the most intense weather, such as tornadoes, hail, and severe turbulence. - Hail and Lightning - may be encountered in the clear air as much as 5 miles from the storm. Severe turbulence may be encountered up to 25 miles from a severe thunderstorm. Outside the clouds, wind shear turbulence can be encountered 20 miles laterally from a severe storm. Visible signs that indicate extreme turbulence in thunderstorms include cumulonimbus clouds, very frequent lightning, and roll clouds. All thunderstorms are accompanied by lightning. If there is thunderstorm activity in the vicinity of an airport at which you plan to land expect wind shear and turbulence.

L. HAZARDOUS WEATHER 1. Reduced visibility may be caused by fog, rain, snow, hail, haze, etc. 2. High Winds - Expect high winds near tornadoes, thunderstorms, rotor zones, and squall lines. Strong winds imply turbulence with high windshear near the ground. 3. Frost, Snow or Ice on the lifting or control surfaces reduces lift and increases drag, perhaps preventing the aircraft from safely taking off. The conditions, which result in the formation of frost, are the temperature of the collecting surface is at or below the dewpoint of the adjacent air and the dewpoint is below freezing. 4. One in-flight condition necessary for structural icing to form is visible moisture.

M. RIDGE SOARING 1. Ridge, or “hill” lift is produced when wind strikes the side of a hill and is deflected upwards. The amount of lift generated depends on the speed and direction of the wind and the steepness and height of the hill. Enough lift may be found for soaring when the weather is generally stable on the upwind side of hills or ridges with moderate winds present. 2. If the glider drifts downwind from the ridge and sinks slightly lower than the crest of the ridge, the glider should be turned away from the ridge and a high speed attained. ©gpgs 100323

Glider Pilots Ground School N. THERMAL SOARING

Private Glider

23

1. Most thermal activity or convective circulation is caused by uneven solar heating at the surface. Cool air must sink to force the warm air upwards. Thermal activity will occur when the air becomes super adiabatic or unstable. The development of thermals depends upon solar heating. You will be asked to look at the areas represented on the chart to the right and choose the best area for lift. Although all are poor for thermal, choose area 6, over land. 2. Thermals drift with the wind. If a thermal column is rising from an asphalt parking lot and the wind is from the south at 12 knots, as altitude is gained, the center of the thermal will be found farther north of the parking lot. 3. Strong thermals have proportionately increased sink in the air between them. 4. Downdrafts have a slower rate of vertical motion than do updrafts. 5. A pilot should find the best thermals on the side facing the Sun of a rocky knoll, which is surrounded by vegetation. 6. One recommended method for locating thermals is to look for converging streamers of dust or smoke. 7. A recommended procedure for entering a dust devil for soaring is to enter at or above 500 feet and circle the edge opposite the direction of rotation. An important precaution when soaring in a dust devil is to avoid the eye of the vortex. 8. The best visual indication of a thermal is smooth cumulus clouds with concave bases. 9. A pilot can locate bubble thermals by looking for birds that are soaring in areas of intermittent heating. lO.The most favorable type thermals for cross-country soaring may be found along thermal streets.

O. WAVE SOARING 1. The conditions most favorable to wave formation over mountainous areas are a layer of stable air at mountain-top altitude, and a wind of at least 20 knots blowing across the ridge. 2. When soaring in the vicinity of mountain ranges, the greatest potential danger from vertical and rotor¬ type currents will usually be encountered on the leeward side when flying into the wind. 3. One of the most dangerous features of mountain waves is the turbulent area in and below rotor clouds. 4. The presence of standing lenticular altocumulus clouds (ACSL on the weather reports) is a good indication of very strong turbulence. The air in the lenticular cloud is actually very smooth, but it implies rotor air below. 5. Possible mountain wave turbulence could be anticipated when winds of 40 knots or greater blow across a mountain ridge, and the air is stable. P. SEA BREEZE

Convective circulation patterns associated with sea breezes are caused by cool, dense air moving inland from over the water. A sea breeze front most suitable for soaring flight occurs during the afternoon. Q. ADIABATIC CHART

From the ambient lapse rate of the atmosphere stability can be determined.

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Glider Pilots Ground School Private Glider 24 FAA exam questions for Chapter 5. Refer to Chapter 16 for the multiple-choice questions, to Chapter 17 for any figures, and finally to Chapter 18 for the correct answers. Use the empty box to the right of the number to record the correct answer. 195 197 198 199 200 209 210 211 212 213

214 215 216 217 218 219 220 221 222 223

224 225 226 227 228 229 230 231 232 233

234 235 236 237 238 239 240 241 242 243

244 245 246 247 248 249 250 251 252 253

254 255 256 257 258 259 260 315 324 325

326 327 328 329 330 331 332 349

GLIDER FLYING HANDBOOK -The first official book released by the FAA for the sole purpose of glider and sailplane instruction and knowledge. Originally designed as a technical manual for glider pilots and students, this handbook also contains chapters of beneficial reference information for glider and powered-flight pilots of all skill levels and experience. The Glider Flying Handbook is filled with in-depth coverage throughout on decision making, weather theory and services, aerodynamics, aircraft performance, medical factors, communications, the certification process, and regulations, soaring maneuvers and techniques, and launch and recovery procedures. Through superb, full¬ color graphics and detailed descriptions, many theories and techniques are explained so that readers are better able to comprehend and visualize the maneuvers and practices most commonly used. Based on thorough research from within the glider flying community, this wellorganized guide also has excellent coverage of "soaring weather" meteorology and thermal and fluid dynamics and more, making this an excellent glider and soaring resource for all aviators. Includes a glossary of glider flying terminology. Softcover, illustrated throughout in full color, indexed, 230 pages.

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Glider Pilots Ground School

25

Private Glider

6. AVIATION WEATHER SERVICES 1. Weather Briefing- It's easy to get one. Just call 1-800-WX-BRIEF and you will be connected to an FAA Flight Service station. When telephoning a weather briefing facility for preflight weather information, pilots should identify themselves as pilots give the aircraft identification or the pilot's name, state whether they intend to fly VFR only, and give the intended route of flight and destination. To get a complete weather briefing for the planned flight, or if no preliminary weather information has been received, the pilot should request a standard briefing. Request an abbreviated briefing to update a weather briefing. An outlook briefing is provided when the information requested is 6 or more ours in advance of the proposed departure time. In addition to the standard briefing, the upper soundings used to determine the thermal index at all soaring levels should be asked of the weather briefer to evaluate soaring conditions.

Erevious

2. Telephone Weather Briefing. Refer to Figure 13. Telephone Weather Briefing on page 74.

The scattered clouds indicate thermals at least to the tops of the lower clouds. Thermals will begin to form by 1500Z. 3. Convective Sigmet Convective SIGMETs are issued for the conterminous U.S. (CONUS) instead of SIGMETs for thunderstorms. Any Convective SIGMET implies severe or greater turbulence, severe icing, and low-level wind shear.

4. GFA The Graphical Forecasts for Aviation (GFA) are intended to provide the necessary aviation weather information to give users a complete picture of the weather that may impact flight in the continental U.S. (CONUS). FAA exam questions for Chapter 6. Refer to Chapter 16 for the multiple-choice questions, to Chapter 17 for any figures, and finally to Chapter 18 for the correct answers. Use the empty box to the right of the number to record the correct answer. 261 262

264 265

267 268

271 272

274

277 278

417

263

266

269

273

276

279

441

445

AVIATION WEATHER -Earth's atmosphere, soaring weather, common IFR procedures, high-altitude weather and special area weather considerations are thoroughly discussed. Many of the FAA Knowledge Exam weather questions are pulled from this text. This book is a must have, very well written. Great illustrations. There is a section on soaring weather. 232 pages -color.

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Glider Pilots Ground School

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26

7. GLIDER PERFORMANCE 8.

WEIGHT and BALANCE CALCULATIONS

When preparing for any particular flight the pilot must answer two questions: 1. Are my weight and my passenger’s weight within the maximum limits of the gross weight? 2. Is the sailplane properly balanced for this flight? There are 5 weight and Balance questions possible on the Private Pilot Glider exam. Figure 54. - Glider Weight and Balance Question: A pilot plans to fly solo in the front seat of a two-place glider which displays the following placards on the instrument panel: MINIMUM PILOT WEIGHT: 135 LB|MAXIMUM PILOT WEIGHT: 220 LB|NOTE: Seat ballast should be used as necessary. What action should be taken if the pilot's weight is 115 pounds? Answer Add 20 pounds of seat ballast. Question- What action should be taken if the pilot's weight is 125 pounds? Answer- Add 10 pounds of seat ballast. Okay, those were the easy questions. The others require calculations.

-

(Refer to Figure 54.) Calculate the weight and balance of the glider and determine if the CG is within limits. |Pilot (fwd seat) 160 lb. Passenger (aft seat) 185 lb. A: CG 71.65 inches aft of datum - out of limits forward. B: CG 79.67 inches aft of datum - within limits. C: CG 83.43 inches aft of datum - within limits. Make a table where you can calculate the weight and balance. Weight x arm = moment. Total weight/total arm = CG of your glider. ITEM WEIGHT ARM MOMENT Empty Weight 610 96.47 58,846.7 inch-pounds Pilot (fwd seat) 160 43.80 7,008.0 inlbs Passenger (aft seat) 185 74.70 13,819.5 inlbs TOTALS 955 79,674.2 Cg + Total Moment = 79,674.2 = 83.43 inches aft of datum. Total Weight 955 So answer C is the correct answer. ©gpgs 100323

Glider Pilots Ground School

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27

The other 2 calculation questions may be solved, with the same mathematical logic however:

Here is a secret Gouge (formula) for always getting the correct answer on the Private Pilot PGL exam questions for weight and Balance

calculations.

ALWAYS CHOOSE THE LARGEST ANSWER, WITHIN LIMITS! It turns out that all the exam questions happen to be worded that way. Keep it a close secret, or it may change in the future.

For your Private pilot checkride you should be able to use the weight and balance diagram for your glider. This graph is in the POH (pilot operating handbook) which should be onboard the aircraft. FAA exam questions for Chapter 7. Refer to Chapter 16 for the multiple-choice questions, to Chapter 17 for any figures, and finally to Chapter 18 for the correct answers. Use the empty box to the right of the number to record your answer. 380 381 382 383 384

PRACTICAL TEST STANDARDS •

PRIVATE GLIDER

PTS PRIVATE GLIDER

You should already have this book. It has all the maneuvers and the exact standards needed to pass the flight check. Order it now if you don’t have it.

GPGSf

Chdern/oh

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GLIDER PILOTS GROUND SCHOOL COMMERC IAI. PILOT - GLJRty Written Exam Guide

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This is what you will need next. An order form is at the back of this book.

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8. AIRSPACE

AGL - above gro und leve I FL - flight level

MSL - m ea n sea level

September 1 6, 1S93

A. 91.135 - OPERATIONS in CLASS A AIRSPACE

Class A airspace - above 18,000 feet - is filled with airliners and commercial jets on cross-country flights. VFR flight is prohibited. Pilots must be instrument rated, the aircraft must be instrument equipped, including having a transponder with encoding altimeter, and be on an instrument flight plan. Gliders sometimes operate here with a "wave window” exception from ATC. Do not answer any FAA exam question with this exception in mind. Just use the normal rules, i.e. no VFR flight.

-

B. 91.131 - OPERATIONS in CLASS B AIRSPACE Class B airspace is the “upside-down wedding cake” which surrounds large airports in big cities such as San Francisco, Denver and New York. Regardless of weather conditions, a pilot must receive permission to enter Class B airspace prior to entry. Class B airspace requires VOR or TACAN, two-way radio, and a 4096code transponder with altitude encoder. Class B airspace is controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface and other specified altitudes, to (usually) 10,000ft MSL, in which all aircraft are controlled. Class B starts at the surface at a major airport and the floor altitude increases farther from the hub airport. You must have two-way radio, and a transponder with altitude encoding. In order to land or takeoff in Class B airspace the pilot must hold at least a private pilot certificate. (Student pilot may operate in some Class B with logbook endorsements.) An operable 4096 code transponder and Mode C encoding altimeter are required in Class A, Class B airspace and within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport, and Class C airspace. Aircraft without generators (gliders) are not required to have transponders within the 30-mile veil outside of class B. Gliders also are allowed to 18,000 feet without transponders in other airspace. Powered aircraft need them above 10,000 feet.

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Glider Pilots Ground School 29 Private Glider C. 91.130 - OPERATIONS in CLASS C AIRSPACE Class C airspace encloses the airport traffic patterns and approach areas of medium size airports. The vertical limit of Class C airspace above the primary • Ward airport is normally 4,000 feet AGL (above ground \8os ? level). The normal radius of the outer area of Class airspace is 20 nautical miles. All operations within 38C 125 - 15 10STWs’M15 J '/Awotim-i; iES Class C airspace must be in compliance with ATC i ficp W# clearances and instructions. An ATC clearance provides authorization to proceed under specified IS \ LOPEZ 18 traffic conditions in controlled airspace. Contact Q.BE^miPvi) approach control on the appropriate frequency prior .31 to entering Class C. The pilot must contact ATC as IAIUJUAN NATIONAL» 4|L.io £ I20 WjCOLIFt IhIDBEY ISLAND?; % T^fConi soon as practicable after takeoff if operating from a K)W) CT - 127.8 satellite airport within Class C airspace. The 134.15 2*0.3/ AUATi ' 13 minimum radio equipment required for operation IIDBEY Fl Un ' .AND within Class C airspace is two-way radio CAMANOj Arfjfait communications equipment, a 4096-code LUPIEI '68/7 transponder, and an encoding altimeter. ATIS will haiXsilol AUS 134.11 1.3 broadcast the weather and runway in use. 13

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D. 91.129 - OPERATIONS in CLASS D AIRSPACE

The purpose of Class D airspace is to provide for the control of aircraft landing and taking off from a smaller airport with an operating control tower. The lateral dimensions of Class D airspace, shown by blue-segmented lines, are based on the instrument procedures for which the controlled airspace is established. Shapes are as necessary for IFR arrival and departure paths, usually at least 8 NM wide, but may be shaped as necessary. Ceiling height of :5uj\ Class D is provided at each location as two numbers in a box of blue-segmented lines, normally 2500 feet AGL (above ground level). You may not enter Class D airspace without permission from the control tower whether landing or just flying through. Airports having control towers are shown on Sectional charts in blue and have CT-in the airport data box. All other airports are printed in magenta. The number following the CT is the radio frequency in Megahertz (MHz) to communicate with the tower. Airspace at an airport with a part-time control tower is classified as Class D airspace only when the associated control tower is in operation. A part time tower means part time class D airspace. Contact the tower before entering Class D airspace. A non-tower satellite airport, within the same Class D airspace as that designated for the primary airport requires radio communications be established and maintained with the primary airport’s control tower. Normal VFR operations in Class D airspace with an operating control tower require the ceiling and visibility to be at least 1,000 feet and 3 miles (basic VFR weather). Unless otherwise authorized, two-way radio communications with Air Traffic Control are required for landings or takeoffs at all tower controlled airports regardless of weather conditions. An ATC clearance provides authorization to proceed under specified traffic conditions in controlled airspace.

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Private Glider Glider Pilots Ground School E. 91.127 - OPERATIONS in CLASS E AIRSPACE

30

Class E airspace includes non-tower airports and controlled airspace: Federal airways, transition areas, and control areas. The width of a Federal airway from either side of the centerline is 4 nautical miles, making them 8 NM wide. Unless otherwise specified, Federal airways include that Class E airspace extending from 1,200 ft. above the surface of the earth upward to 17,999 feet MSL. Inside magenta shading on a sectional chart Class E begins at 700 feet AGL. — An airport surrounded by a magenta segmented circle has Class E beginning at the surface. The Sandpoint Airport Class E airspace starts at 700 feet AGL. Below 700 feet it is Class G. In class G (below 700 feet AGL the visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate VFR during daylight hours is 1 mile visibility and clear of clouds. At 700 feet and above the requirements are 3 SM, 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds. G. 91.126 - OPERATIONS in CLASS G AIRSPACE Class G airspace is uncontrolled airspace, but still requires VFR minimums of 1 mile visibility and clear of clouds in the daytime when below 1,200 feet AGL.

H. AIRPORT ADVISORY AREA is the area within 1 0 statute miles of an airport where a control tower is not operating but where a FSS is located. Prior to entering an Airport Advisory Area, a pilot should contact the local FSS (122.0) for airport and traffic advisories. I. PROHIBITED and RESTRICTED AREAS Each Sectional chart has a legend that lists these areas for that chart. No person shall operate an aircraft within a Prohibited area, or within a Restricted area between the designated altitudes during the time of designation unless the appropriate authority has issued prior permission defined as either the controlling agency or the using agency listed on that chart. Hazards to aircraft

that may exist in Restricted areas are unusual, often invisible, hazards such as aerial gunnery or guided missiles. J. WARNING AREAS are areas of international airspace, which may contain hazards to nonparticipating aircraft.

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WARNING W-1O5A

31 Glider Pilots Ground School Private Glider ^RT A REARS K. ALERT AREAS are not restricted to flight, but pilots are advised to exercise extreme caution. Responsibility for collision avoidance in an alert area rests with all pilots. Often there is a high volume of pilot training CJCW'jqden'tVIS activities or an unusual type of aerial activity, neither of which is hazardous, to aircraft.

.

L. MILITARY OPERATING AREAS (MOA) limits are shown on the Sectional Charts. Exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted when operating under VFR in a Military Operating Area (MOA). You may enter without permission. Military training activities include flights that necessitate acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers. M. MILITARY TRAINING ROUTES (MTR) are shown by a thin black shaded line on sectional charts. Civilian aircraft are not prohibited from flying within an MTR; however extreme vigilance should be exercised when conducting flights through or near these routes. Contact FSS to obtain information on route usage. "Military flight operations along IR 644 include IFR training flights above 1,500 feet AGL at speeds in excess of 250 knots." MTR numbering is complex, just memorize this one answer. N. NATIONAL PARKS, FORESTS, FISH and WILDLIFE REFUGES The regulations for these areas are listed on every Sectional chart legend that has such an area. Maintain at least 2000 feet AGL. Do not drop anything. Landing of aircraft is prohibited. CLEARANCE and VISIBILITY REQUIREMENTS O. FAR 91.155 - CLOUD CLEARANCE and VISIBILITY REQUIRED for VFR FLIGHT We have not included Class A and Class B Airspace - you’re probably not going there. To do so, you would need a transponder, encoder, VOR navigation and clearance for Class B, and in addition - an instrument rating for class A.

AIRSPACE VISIBILITY DISTANCE FROM CLOUDS CLASS C* *500 FT. BELOW, *1000 FEET ABOVE, 3 SM* CLASS D* *2000 FEET HORIZONTALLY CLASS E* 3 SM 500 FT. BELOW, 1000 FEET ABOVE, LESS THAN 10,000 MSL 2000 FEET HORIZONTALLY CLASS E 5 SM* 1000 FT BELOW, 1000 FT. ABOVE, ABOVE 10,000* *1 SM HORIZONTALLY *CLEAR OF CLOUDS CLASS G *1 SM BELOW 1200’AGL CLASS G 500 BELOW, 1000 ABOVE, 2000 HORIZ. 1 SM ABOVE 1200’AGL CLASS G ABOVE 10,000 *5 SM 1000 BELOW, 1000 ABOVE, 1 SM HORIZ. FT MSL The usual answers for the questions in the written are shown with an asterisk (*). Basic VFR requires a cloud ceiling of 1000 ft and visibility of 3 miles. You will need to know all the cloud clearance and visibility requirements for your oral exam, especially for your local area. ©gpgs 100323

Glider Pilots Ground School

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32

FAA exam questions for Chapter 8. Refer to Chapter 16 for the multiple-choice questions, to Chapter 17 for any figures, and finally to Chapter 18 for the correct answers. Use the empty box to the right of the number to record your answer. 35 36 37 285 286 287 288

289 292 293 295 296

298 299 300 301 302 336 337

338 339 340 341 342 343 344

345 346

439 440

361 366

419 437 438 Fixed Plotter Constructed of sturdy clear plastic with easy-to-read numbers and scales. It includes WAC, Sectional, and Terminal Area scales, and is checked and approved by the Weights and Measures Department. Quick scale reference is provided for both statute and nautical miles.

PREPARE FOR THE FAA WRITTEN EXAMINATION in just one day with Glider Pilots Ground School! Glider Pilots Ground School is an accelerated seminar with airline quality up-to-date instruction and using the most effective ground training available. You practice answering actual FAA questions with other glider pilots and hear clear explanations from our professional instructors. You'll enjoy learning with our presentations on aerodynamics, regulations, instruments, weather, cross-country, glider operations, more... Our low price and Guarantee that you will pass make this seminar your best instructional investment. We teach in 12 cities nationwide. Check our schedule at: www.gliderpilotsgroundschool.com. Register for class online or by phone. Unable to attend our seminar? Our GPGS FAA Exam Preparation books are the best preparation available for the glider pilot knowledge and oral exams. Everything needed to pass the FAA written exam. Every glider question with explanations and correct answers. Our practice exams are famous for their accuracy; they will correctly prepare you for the real thing. Get your copy today. Private Pilot GPGS, Commercial Pilot, CFI and CFI Add-on Fundamentals of Instruction (FOI) exam ©gpgs 100323

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9. RISK MANAGEMENT and AERONAUTICAL DECISION MAKING Most accidents are caused by pilot error. To help pilots deal with and make better flight decisions, the FAA has developed a risk management program. The full FAA program is excellent and available as an advisory circular AC-60-22. A small portion of the Advisory Circular is reproduced here for the purpose of the FAA commercial glider pilot exam. RISK MANAGEMENT is the part of the decision-making process which relies on situational awareness, problem recognition, and good judgment to reduce risks associated with each flight. There are several classic behavioral traps into which pilots have been known to fall. Pilots, particularly those with considerable experience, as a rule always try to complete a flight as planned, please passengers, meet schedules, and generally demonstrate that they have the "right stuff." These tendencies ultimately may lead to practices that are dangerous and often illegal and may lead to a mishap. All experienced pilots have fallen prey to, or have been tempted by, one or more of these tendencies in their flying careers. These dangerous tendencies or behavior patterns, which must be identified and eliminated, include:

Peer Pressure. Poor decision making based upon emotional response to peers rather than evaluating a situation objectively. Mind Set. The inability to recognize and cope with changes in the situation different from those anticipated or planned. Get-There-Itis. This tendency, common among pilots, clouds the vision and impairs judgment by causing a fixation on the original goal or destination combined with a total disregard for any alternative course of action. Scud Running. When a pilot pushes his or her capabilities and the aircraft's limits by trying to maintain visual contact with the terrain in low visibility and ceiling. Continuing Visual Flight Rules (VFR) into instrument conditions often leads to spatial disorientation or collision with ground/obstacles. It is even more dangerous if the pilot is not instrument qualified or current. Getting Behind the Aircraft. Allowing events or the situation to control your actions rather than the other way around. Characterized by a constant state of surprise at what happens next. Loss of Positional or Situation Awareness. Another case of getting behind the aircraft which results in not knowing where you are, an inability to recognize deteriorating circumstances, and/or the misjudgment of the rate of deterioration. Flying Outside the Envelope. Unjustified reliance on the (usually mistaken) belief that the aircraft's high-performance capability meets the demands imposed by the pilot's (usually overestimated) flying skills. Neglect of Flight Planning, Preflight Inspections, Checklists, Etc. Unjustified reliance on the pilots short- and long-term memory, regular flying skills, repetitive and familiar routes, etc.

Hazardous attitudes, which contribute to poor pilot judgment, can be effectively counteracted by redirecting that hazardous attitude so that appropriate action can be taken. Recognition of hazardous thoughts is the first step in neutralizing them in the ADM process. Pilots should become familiar with a means of counteracting hazardous attitudes with an appropriate antidote thought. When a pilot recognizes a thought as hazardous, the pilot should label that thought as hazardous, then correct that thought by stating the corresponding antidotal phrase. You must condition yourself to relax and think rationally when stress appears.

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Glider Pilots Ground School Private Glider FIVE HAZARDOUS ATTITUDES are addressed in the FAA program:

34

1. Antiauthority (don't tell me!). This attitude is found in people who do not like anyone telling them what to do. In a sense they are saying, "no one can tell me what to do." They may be resentful of having someone tell them what to do or may regard rules, regulations, and procedures as silly or unnecessary. However, it is always your prerogative to question authority if you feel it is in error. The antidotal phrase for this attitude is: Follow the rules. They are usually right. 2. Impulsivity (do something quickly!) is the attitude of people who frequently feel the need to do something anything - immediately. They do not stop to think about what they are about to do, they do not select the best alternative, and they do the first thing that comes to mind. The antidotal phrase for this attitude is: Not so fast. Think first. 3. Invulnerability (it won't happen to me). Many people feel that accidents happen to others, but never to them. They know accidents can happen, and they know that anyone can be affected. They never really feel or believe that they will be personally involved. Pilots who think this way are more likely to take chances and increase risk. The antidotal phrase for this attitude is: It could happen to me. 4. Macho (I can do it). Pilots who are always trying to prove that they are better than anyone else are thinking "I can do it I'll show them." Pilots with this type of attitude will try to prove themselves by taking risks to impress others. While this pattern is thought to be a male characteristic, women are equally susceptible. The antidotal phrase for this attitude is: taking chances is foolish. 5. Resignation (what's the use?). Pilots who think, "what's the use?" do not see themselves as being able to make a great deal of difference in what happens to them. When things go well, the pilot is apt to think that's good luck. When things go badly, the pilot may feel that "someone is out to get me," or attribute it to bad luck. The pilot will leave the action to others, for better or worse. Sometimes, such pilots will even go along with unreasonable requests just to be a "nice guy." The antidotal phrase for this attitude is: I'm not helpless. I can make a difference.

—

-

FAA exam questions for Chapter 9. Refer to Chapter 16 for the multiple-choice questions, and to Chapter 18 for the correct answers. Use the empty box to the right of the number to record your answer. 406 407

408 409

PRACTICAL TEST STANDARDS PRIVATE GLIDER

410 411

PRACTICAL TEST

STANDARDS ।

FLIGHT INSTRUCTOR GLIDER

PTS PRIVATE GLIDER

CPGS

Glider Pilots j Ground School ? 1-877 FLY-GPGS

©gpgs 100323

413 414

415 431

Glider Pilots Ground School PTS Practical Test Standards The most current FAA flight test standards for glider pilots. These guides show each maneuver on the check ride, and to the standard you are expected to maintain. They are used by FAA Examiners to conduct the oral and flight check ride.

PTS CFI GLIDER

GPCSi

Glider Pilota

Ground School

1-877-FLYGPGS

432 433

GPGS Private PTS GPGS Commercial PTS GPGS CFI PTS

Glider Pilots Ground School

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35

10. CROSS COUNTRY FLIGHT PLANNING Private glider pilots should be familiar with the plotter and be able to lay out a course line, obtain its distances in statute miles and determine the true course direction. You should then be able to find the variation from the chart and calculate the magnetic course. There are two ways to describe a place on earth: 1. Give its LATITUDE in degrees north or south of the equator and its LONGITUDE in degrees east or west of the Prime Meridian, which passes through Greenwich, England, 2. Give its distance and direction from some known object. The 48 contiguous states of the USA are located between 25°N and 49°N Latitude and 67° and 125°W Longitude. Each sectional chart has the latitude and longitude marked on the margins and at some intersections within the chart. From figure 26 find the intersection marked 47°N, 99°W. Find the tick marks on the latitude and longitude lines and note that each tick mark on the longitude line represents 1 nautical mile, but the tick marks on the latitude line, which are 1 NM at the equator get closer as you get closer to the north pole. Also note that the latitude and longitude lines are 30' apart. Each degree is divided into 60 minutes (60'). LATITUDE AND LONGITUDE - Use figure 26, below and find what is located at 47°25'N - 98°06'W. Remember to count the minutes north in a northern direction (up) and the minutes west in a western direction (left). At this position, you should find an airport called Cooperstown (S32). Note that around a VOR station, such as the Jamestown VOR, there is a compass rose, and that zero of the compass rose is offset from the true north by the variation in this area, and therefore points to magnetic north. The isogonic line in the area shows that the variation is 7E. The zero of all VOR compass rose point to the magnetic north pole, located northwest of Hudson Bay, Canada.

280. The approximate Latitude and Longitude of Currituck County Airport (Fig 20, area 3):

36°24’N-76°01’W.

283. Shoshone County Airport (Figure 22, area 3) is located at: 47°33'N - 116°U'W. DISTANCE AND DIRECTION Note that Jamestown VOR (Omni Range) is collocated with Jamestown airport. Use the compass rose and your plotter to find what is located at 27 statute miles on the 030° radial. Radials are always directions from the omni station. Bearings can be to or from the omni station. At this position you should find Cooperstown airport. The excerpt for this page is not the correct sectional scale; it has been adjusted to meet the needs of your plotter. Note: Did you get 24.5 Miles? Well look at your plotter- you probably used the edge of the plotter as zero. Zero starts about V4 inch from the edge. Figure 26 excerpt

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36 Private Glider Glider Pilots Ground School COUNTRY CROSS FLIGHT YOUR WITH DIRECTION OF TO FIND THE DISTANCE AND YOUR PLOTTER 1. Measure the distance from the center of airport X to the center of airport Y using the sectional side of your plotter. Use the statute mile scale. Notice that the zero on the scale is not at the end of the plotter. 2. Using the plotter protractor, as indicated in the diagram, measure the angle between your course line (between airports) and any longitude line. This is the True Course (TC). 3. Find the isogonic line in the area of the course line. Round off to the nearest degree. Remember that there are two parts to the variation, a number that tells how much and a direction that tells which direction to apply the variation. 4. If the isogonic line is E (East is least), subtract the variation from your true course to obtain the magnetic course. If the variation is W (West is best), add the variation to the TC to get MC.

PLOTTER ERRORS - The common errors when using the plotter are: 1 . Using the wrong side of the plotter. Note that there is a sectional side with a scale of 1 to 500,000 and a WAC (World Aeronautical Chart) side with a scale of 1 to 1,000,000. 2. Measuring from the edge of the plotter and not from the zero of the scale. 3. Using the wrong units, nautical miles instead of statute miles. 4. NOTE THAT THE FAA COMPUTER TERSTING SUPPLEMENT FIGURES ARE NOT TO SCALE! You will have to measure by the provided scale on each page. CALCULATIONS

What minimum altitude should be used for a go-ahead point at Eckelson in order to arrive at Barnes County Airport at 1,000 feet AGL if the glide ratio is 22:1 in no wind conditions? Use the recommended safety factor. (Refer to Figure 26, areas 5.) A: 5,959 feet MSL. B: 7,960 feet MSL. C: 9,359 feet MSL. They don't tell you what the "recommended safety factor" is: It means divide the L/D by half. There are 5280 ft per mile. At 11/1 glide ratio you will sink 5280/11 = 480 feet lost per mile. 480 ft. x 14.5 mi = 6960 feet lost. Barnes elevation = 1400 ft +1000 feet AGL +6960 = 9360 ft. This is your "go-ahead altitude" A terrible question left over from an old soaring manual. ©gpgs 100323

Glider Pilots Ground School 37 Private Glider PRIVATE PILOT GLIDER QUESTIONS The following questions require the measurement of True Course, with your plotter, the determination of variation from the chart, and calculation of Magnetic Course.

It is unlikely that you will see any of these questions on your exam. A. Airpark East to Winnsboro Apt. (Fig 24 area 1, area 2).TC = 81.5°-6.5°E = 75°MC B. Breckheimer Airport to Jamestown Airport (Fig 27, area 1, area 4).TC = 188° - 8°E = 180°MC C. Find the MC from First Flight Airport to Hampton Roads Apt.(Fig 20 area 5, area 2) C. TC = 321° + 9°W = 330° MC. FAA exam questions for Chapter 10. Refer to Chapter 16 for the multiple-choice questions, to Chapter 17 for any figures, and finally to Chapter 18 for the correct answers. Use the empty box to the right of the number to record the correct answer.

280

435

284

318

283

11. SECTIONAL CHARTS Refer to Legend 1 in Chapter 17. You will be provided this legend on the private pilot exam in the computer testing supplement. There are 21 questions in the question bank where all you have to do is look up the answer in the legend. You will have 8- 10 of these questions on your exam.

^126.0^0^51334, y.BAa *173 ®

frequency.

jT

UNMARKED BALLOON

The elevation of Addison airport is 644 feet MSL. CT -126.0 Control Tower (CT) -primary frequency. * Indicates part time operation, when the tower shuts down for the night pilots use 126.0 at Addison as the common traffic advisory

Caution boxes denote hazards to aircraft.

ON CABLE TO 3000 MSL

Bko, or aioctj SAME Vwol Cheek Pcxrt

OBSTRUCTIONS 1000 H cM M**' AGl 1000 h AGL

A-a A

1

Obstruction with

bigh-'mfcmity fights Aw /Aoy operate parMww© 2049 * fleoiion of th© lop abovo mean so© level 0 obo»e ground w

©gpgs 100323

The flag symbol at Lake Drummond represents a visual checkpoint used to identify position for initial call up to approach control. The new legend does not show all this wording, Visual Check Point is missing.

When asked questions regarding obstructions you will be asked to identify lighted obstructions and heights of the obstructions. The top of the obstruction has two numbers. The bold number is the elevation in MSL, the altitude your altimeter would indicate if you hit it. The bottom number in parentheses is the height of the obstruction above ground (AGL,. Note the symbol for group obstructions. If asked what altitude is necessary to vertically clear the obstacle on the northeast side of Airpark East airport by 500 feet answer 1,273 feet MSL. (773 +500).

Glider Pilots Ground School

Private Glider

The navigation facility at Dallas-Ft, Worth (DFW) airport (RANGER) is a VOR/DME.

Chis fl A>i«pcuc

Class D Airspace

Ceiling of Class D Airspace

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Borders of airspace are indicated with blue or magenta shading. Where class E begins at the surface it is usually surrounding the airport by 5 miles with extensions as necessary to accommodate IFR traffic. Where the floor of Class E Gosno airspace begins at 700 feet AGL - ^207) uc expect magenta shading with the 'Jisaha (vi soft edge pointing toward the a AWQS 3 1 10 02 airport. Blue shading indicates that |J 'Directory 593 4OT. Class E airspace begins at 1,200 feet AGL. The sharp edge of both I .t separate class E from G. a

.

Gass G Airspace

CONTOUR INTERVAL 500 leet The terrain elevation of the light tan area between Minot (area ! 1) and Audubon Lake (area 2) varies from 2,000 feet to 2,500 feet MSL. The contour line, which borders the tan area, is labeled 2000 feet. Note that the contour interval on the chart is 500 feet. That would be represented by a thin grey contour line. Since there are none in the tan area, elevations vary from 2000 to something less than 2500 feet. Terrain counters do not include obstructions.

There is a maximum elevation figure (MEF) of 27 shown in the same area. One of the answers offers this altitude as a response, however the question only asks about contour elevations, 2700 ft. incorrect.

_

f UM

wo

i.

ATTEntion THIS CHART CONTAINS MAXIMUM ELEVATION FIGURES (MEF) The Maximum Elevation Figures shown in quadrangles bounded by Ikked lines of lotefudo and longitude ate repre¬ sented in THOUSANDS ond HUNDREDS of feet above mean seo level. The A.5EF is based on information available con¬ cerning the highest known feature in each quadrangle, including terrain and obstructions (trees, lowers, antennas, deJ.

E«omp!c: 12,500 feet

Parachute Jumping Area (See Chart Supplement.)

For information about parachute jumping areas refer to Chart Supplements. FAA exam questions for Chapter 11. Refer to Chapter 16 for the multiple-choice questions, to Chapter 17 for any figures, and finally to Chapter 18 for the correct answers. Use the empty box to the right of the number to record the correct answer.

304

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305 306

307 308

309 310

311 312

313 314

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15. PRIVATE GLIDER PRACTICE EXAMS Find and read the listed questions from Chapter 16. Fill in your answer A, B, or C in the space provided. PGL Exam A. 133 52 203 263 386 21 300 339 22 134 62 209 267 304 350 391 25 67 136 273 356 416 312 214 33 143 219 280 75 442 313 363 36 82 180 232 54 458 372 38 90 186 257 288 318 375 187 42 95 259 292 460 445 45 456 199 261 293 327 380 Compare your options with the answers on page 40. You need to answer 42 questions correctly (70%) to pass the exam. Each question is worth 1.67 points. x 1.67 = Your SCORE Your correct answers . Find and read the listed questions from Chapter 16. Fill in your answer A, B, or C in the space provided. PGL Exam B 23 114 24 128 32 140 46 144 55 145 57 156 68 163 79 166

175 176 184 185 190 192 195 198

204 208 210 216 457 229 260

266

277 283 285 287 295 298 310 315

77 319 324 326 328 329 332 351

357 373 379 381 387 393 394 396

400 408 420 443

Compare your options with the answers on page 40. You need to answer 42 questions correctly (70%) to pass the exam. Each question is worth 1.67 points. Your correct answers x 1.67 = Your SCORE . PGL Exam C 87 2 26 89

37 58 59 62 64 78

113 135 146 154 164 167

170 174 178 179 188 189 191 193

201 202 205 211 218 220 224 260

264 265 268 270 271 272 273 278

284 458 301 309 325 331 333 336

344 348 355 358 361 364 365 368

379 382 447 448

Compare your options with the answers on page 40. You need to answer 42 questions correctly (70%) to pass the exam. Each question is worth 1.67 points. Your correct answers . x 1.67 = Your SCORE

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Answers for the Private Glider practice exams PGL Exam A 52 21 C 62 22 C 67 25 A C 75 33 82 36 B 38 B 90 95 42 B 456 45 A

PGL Exam B 114 23 A 128 24 C 140 32 A 46 A 144 55 B 145 156 57 B 68 A 163 166 79 C

C C B C B

A C A

B A A C C B C C

133 134 136 143 180 186 187 199

C C A B B B B A

203 209 214 219 232 257 259 261

C B B A C C C A

263 267 273 280 54 288 292 293

A A A A A C A C

300 304 312 313 458 318 460 327

175 176 184 185

C A C B A C C A

204 208 210 216 457 229 260 266

C B C B A C A

277 283 285 287 295 298 310 315

C B C B C C C A

77 319 324 326 328 329 332 351

A A B C A

A A A A C B B B

201 202 205 211 218 220

264 265 268 270 271

C C

284 458 301 309 325 331 333 336

A C B C A B B C

190 192 195 198

C

C

A C B C C B C

B A A

339 350 356 363 372 375 445 380

C A B A A B

357 373 379 381 387 393 394 396

C B C B C A B C

400 C 408 c 420 B 443 B

344 348 355 358 361

C A C

379 C 382 c 447 c 448 c

C

386 391 416 442

B B A A

C

PGL Exam C 2 26 37 58 59 62 64 78

B B B B C C C A

B B B B C 154 B 164 B 167 C 87 89 113 135 146

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170 174 178 179 188 189 191 193

C B B B A C 224 A 260 A

A B C 272 B 273 A 278 B

B B

364 A

365 C 368 A

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MORE PRIVATE GLIDER PRACTICE EXAMS

Find and read the listed questions from Chapter 16. Fill in your answer A, B, or C in the space provided. PGL Exam D. 195 393 2 95 169 271 293 352 23 113 179 199 273 304 363 395 128 185 205 274 368 400 25 315 36 133 186 210 278 64 420 58 45 134 216 188 280 329 379 55 143 190 257 283 333 381 60 153 192 264 449 343 388 269 376 64 163 194 292 347

Compare your options with the answers on page 42. You need to answer 42 questions correctly (70%) to pass the exam. Each question is worth 1.67 points. Your correct answers x 1 .67 = Your SCORE .

Find and read the listed questions from Chapter 16. Fill in your answer A, B, or C in the space provided. PGL Exam E 450 22 150 36 38 157 45 167 53 170 58 184 62 185 68 186

188 190 192 194 199 204 209 214

220 268 270 271 274 278 287 292

293 301 304 313 375 318 324 326

328 331 333 336 339 343 347 350

351 358 365 368 373 380 382 388

392 395 397 459

Compare your options with the answers on page 42. You need to answer 42 questions correctly (70%) to pass the exam. Each question is worth 1.67 points. Your correct answers . x 1.67 = Your SCORE PGL Exam F 4 55 23 59 24 70 25 75 36 78 45 79 46 86 53 95

113 128 135 140 143 144 145

156 163

166 170 179 181 183 184

185 188 190 192 193 194 195 205

210 216 218 263 264 266 274 423

283 292 307 311 312 403 318 326

356 363 365 368 459

Compare your options with the answers on page 42. You need to answer 42 questions correctly (70%) to pass the exam. Each question is worth 1.67 points. Your correct answers . x 1.67 = Your SCORE

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Answers for the Private Glider practice exams PGL Exam D 95 2 B 23 A 113 25 A 128 133 36 B 45 A 134 143 55 B 60 A 153 64 C 163

PGL Exam E 450 22 C 150 36 B 38 B 157 167 45 A 170 53 B 184 58 B 62 C 185 186 68 A

PGL Exam F 4 55 A 23 A 59 70 24 C 25 A 75 78 36 B 45 A 79 46 A 86 53 B 95

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C B A C C B B C

169 179 185 186 188 190 192 194

B A B B C A C A

195 199 205 210 216 257 264 269

C C

C A C A

220 C 268 A 270 B

B B

188 190 192 194 199 204 209 214

A C B B

271 274 278 287 292

C A B B A

B C B C A C A C

113 128 135 140 143 144 145

B A B A B C C

156 163 166 170 179 181 183 184

B C C A A B A

c c A

c

C A B C B C

c

A

C

271 273 274 278 280 283 449 292

C A A B A B C A

293 304 315 58 329 333 343 347

293 301 304 313 375 318 324 326

A B A C B C

328 331 333 336 339 343 347 350

185 188 190 192 193 194 195 205

B C A C B A C B

210 216 218 263 264 266 274 423

C B

A C C B

A B B B C B

352 363 368 64 379 381 388 376

C B A C C B B B

393 395 400 420

A B B C C C B C

351 358 365 368 373 380 382 388

A B C A B C C B

392 C 395 C 397 B

C B A A C

283 292 307 311 312 403 318 326

B A B B C B C

356 363 365 368 459

C A

C

A C

C

459 B

A B C A B

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16. PRIVATE PILOT GLIDER QUESTION BANK See Chapter 17 - Computer Testing Supplement for figures. 1: With respect to the certification of airmen, which is a category of aircraft? A: Gyroplane, helicopter, airship, free balloon. B: Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air. C: Single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea.

11: What should an owner or operator know about Airworthiness Directives (AD's)? A: For Informational purposes only. B: They are mandatory. C: They are voluntary.

2: With respect to the certification of airmen, which is a class of aircraft? A: Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air. B: Single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea. C: Lighter-than-air, airship, hot air balloon, gas balloon.

12: May a pilot operate an aircraft that is not in compliance with an Airworthiness Directive (AD)? A: Yes, under VFR conditions only. B: Yes, AD's are only voluntary. C: Yes, if allowed by the AD.

3: With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a category of aircraft? A: Normal, utility, acrobatic. B: Airplane, rotorcraft, glider. C: Landplane, seaplane.

4: With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a class of aircraft? A: Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, balloon. B: Normal, utility, acrobatic, limited. C: Transport, restricted, provisional.

13: Preventive maintenance has been performed on an aircraft. What paperwork is required? A: A full, detailed description of the work done must be entered in the airframe logbook. B: The date the work was completed, and the name of the person who did the work must be entered in the airframe and engine logbook. C: The signature, certificate number, and kind of certificate held by the person approving the work and a description of the work must be entered in the aircraft maintenance records.

5: The definition of nighttime is A: sunset to sunrise. B: 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise. C: the time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight.

14: What regulation allows a private pilot to perform preventive maintenance? A: 14 CFR Part 91.403. B: 14 CFR Part 43.7. C: 14 CFR Part 61.113.

6: Which V-speed represents maneuvering speed? A: V(A). B: V(LO). C: V(NE).

15: Who may perform preventive maintenance on an aircraft and approve it for return to service?|l. Student or Recreational pilot.|2. Private or Commercial pilot.|3. None of the above. A: 1. B:2. C: Neither 1 or 2.

7: Which V-speed represents maximum flap extended speed? A: V(FE). B: V(LOF). C: V(FC). 8: Which V-speed represents maximum landing gear extended speed? A: V(LE). B: V(LO). C: V(FE). 9: V(NO) is defined as the A: normal operating range. B: never-exceed speed.C: maximum structural cruising speed. 10: V(SO) is defined as the A: stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration. B: stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in a specified configuration. C: stalling speed or minimum takeoff safety speed.

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16: Which operation would be described as preventive maintenance? A: Replenishing hydraulic fluid. B: Repair portions of skin sheets by making additional

seams. C: Repair of landing gear brace struts. 17: Which operation would be described as preventive maintenance? A: Repair of landing gear brace struts. B: Replenishing hydraulic fluid. C: Repair portions of skin sheets by making additional

seams.

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18: What document(s) must be in your personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft while operating as pilot in command of an aircraft? A: Certificates showing accomplishment of a checkout in the aircraft and a current flight review. B: A pilot certificate with an endorsement showing accomplishment of an annual flight review and a pilot logbook showing recency of experience. C: An appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate current medical certificate if required.

19: When must a current pilot certificate be in the pilot’s personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft? A: When acting as a crew chief during launch and recovery. B: Only when passengers are carried. C: Anytime when acting as pilot in command or as a required crewmember. 20: A recreational or private pilot acting as pilot in command, or in any other capacity as a required pilot flight crewmember, must have in their personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft a current A: logbook endorsement to show that a flight review has been satisfactorily accomplished. B: medical certificate if required and an appropriate pilot certificate. C: endorsement on the pilot certificate to show that a flight review has been satisfactorily accomplished.

21: Each person who holds a pilot certificate or a medical certificate shall present it for inspection upon the request of the Administrator, the National Transportation Safety Board, or any A: authorized representative of the Department of Transportation. B: person in a position of authority. C: federal, state, or local law enforcement officer. 22: To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, a pilot must show by logbook endorsement the satisfactory completion of a flight review or completion of a pilot proficiency check within the preceding A: 6 calendar months. B: 12 calendar months. C: 24 calendar months.

23: To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, the pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings in an aircraft of the same category, class, and if a type rating is required, of the same type, within the preceding A: 90 days. B: 12 calendar months. C: 24 calendar months. 24: To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, the pilot must have made three takeoffs and three landings within the preceding 90 days in an aircraft of the same A: make and model. B: category and class, but not type. C: category, class, and type, if a type rating is required.

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44 25: If a certificated pilot changes permanent mailing address and fails to notify the FAA Airmen Certification Branch of the new address, the pilot is entitled to exercise the privileges of the pilot certificate for a period of only A: 30 days after the date of the move. B: 60 days after the date of the move. C: 90 days after the date of the move.

26: A certificated private pilot may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider unless there is entered in the pilot’s logbook a minimum of A: 100 hours of pilot flight time in any aircraft that the pilot is using to tow a glider. B: 100 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft category, class, and type, if required, that the pilot is using to tow a glider. C: 200 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft category, class, and type, if required, that the pilot is using to tow a glider. 27: To act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider, a pilot is required to have made within the preceding 24 months A: at least three flights as observer in a glider being towed by an aircraft. B: at least three flights in a powered glider. C: at least three actual or simulated glider tows while accompanied by a qualified pilot. 28: If a recreational or private pilot had a flight review on August 8, this year, when is the next flight review required? A: August 8, 2 years later. B: August 31, next year. C: August 31,2 years later. 29: Each recreational or private pilot is required to have A: a flight review within 24 months. B: an annual flight review. C: a semiannual flight review. 30: If a recreational or private pilot had a flight review on August 8, this year, when is the next flight review required? A: August 8, next year. B: August 31, 1 year later. C: August 31,2 years later.

31: Prior to becoming certified as a private pilot with a glider rating, the pilot must have in his or her possession what type of medical? A: A statement from a designated medical examiner. B: A third-class medical certificate. C: A medical certificate is not required. 32: In regard to privileges and limitations, a private pilot may A: not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees. B: act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying a passenger for compensation if the flight is in connection with a business or employment. C: not be paid in any manner for the operating expenses of a flight.

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33: According to regulations pertaining to privileges and limitations, a private pilot may A: be paid for the operating expenses of a flight if at least three takeoffs and three landings were made by the pilot within the preceding 90 days. B: not be paid in any manner for the operating expenses of a flight. C: not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees. 34: What exception, if any, permits a private pilot to act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers who pay for the flight? A: If the passengers pay all the operating expenses. B: If a donation is made to a charitable organization for the flight. C: There is no exception. 35: The width of a Federal Airway from either side of the centerline is A: 4 nautical miles. B: 6 nautical miles. C: 8 nautical miles. 36: Unless otherwise specified, Federal Airways include that Class E airspace extending upward from A: 700 feet above the surface up to and including 17,999 feet MSL. B: 1,200 feet above the surface up to and including 17,999 feet MSL. C: the surface up to and including 18,000 feet MSL. 37: Normal VFR operations in Class D airspace with an operating control tower require the ceiling and visibility to be at least A: 1,000 feet and 1 mile. B: 1,000 feet and 3 miles. C: 2,500 feet and 3 miles. 38: The final authority as to the operation of an aircraft is the A: Federal Aviation Administration. B: pilot in command. C: aircraft manufacturer. 39: The person directly responsible for the pre-launch briefing of passengers for a flight is the A: safety officer. B: pilot in command. C: ground crewmember. 40: If an in-flight emergency requires immediate action, the pilot in command may A: deviate from the FAR’s to the extent required to meet the emergency but must submit a written report to the Administrator within 24 hours. B: deviate from the FAR’s to the extent required to meet that emergency. C: not deviate from the FAR’s unless prior to the deviation approval is granted by the Administrator.

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45 41: When must a pilot who deviates from a regulation during an emergency send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator? A: Within 7 days. B: Within 10 days. C: Upon request. 42: Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in condition for safe flight? A: A certificated aircraft mechanic. B: The pilot in command. C: The owner or operator.

43: Where may an aircraft’s operating limitations be found? A: On the Airworthiness Certificate. B: In the current, FAA-approved flight manual, approved manual material, markings, and placards, or any combination thereof. C: In the aircraft airframe and engine logbooks. 44: Under what conditions may objects be dropped from an aircraft? A: Only in an emergency. B: If precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property on the surface. C: If prior permission is received from the Federal Aviation Administration. 45: A person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding A: 8 hours. B: 12 hours. C: 24 hours. 46: Under what condition, if any, may a pilot allow a person who is obviously under the influence of drugs to be carried aboard an aircraft? A: In an emergency or if the person is a medical patient under proper care. B: Only if the person does not have access to the cockpit or pilot’s compartment. C: Under no condition. 47: No person may attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft with A: .008 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood. B: .004 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood. C: .04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood. 48: Which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight? A: Check the aircraft logbooks for appropriate entries. B: Become familiar with all available information concerning the flight. C: Review wake turbulence avoidance procedures.

49: Preflight action, as required for all flights away from the vicinity of an airport, shall include A: the designation of an alternate airport. B: a study of arrival procedures at airports/ heliports of intended use. C: an alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned.

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50: In addition to other preflight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport, regulations specifically require the pilot in command to A: review traffic control light signal procedures. B: check the accuracy of the navigation equipment and the emergency locator transmitter (ELT). C: determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft’s takeoff and landing distance data.

51: Flight crewmembers are required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened during A: takeoffs and landings. B: all flight conditions. C: flight in turbulent air. 52: Which best describes the flight conditions under which flight crewmembers are specifically required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened? A: Safety belts during takeoff and landing; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing. B: Safety belts during takeoff and landing; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing and while en route. C: Safety belts during takeoff and landing and while en route; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing.

53: With respect to passengers, what obligation, if any, does a pilot in command have concerning the use of safety belts? A: The pilot in command must instruct the passengers to keep their safety belts fastened for the entire flight. B: The pilot in command must brief the passengers on the use of safety belts and notify them to fasten their safety belts during taxi, takeoff, and landing. C: The pilot in command has no obligation in regard to passengers’ use of safety belts. 54: With certain exceptions, safety belts are required to be secured about passengers during A: taxi, takeoffs, and landings. B: all flight conditions. C: flight in turbulent air.

55: Safety belts are required to be properly secured about which persons in an aircraft and when? A: Pilots only, during takeoffs and landings. B: Passengers, during taxi, takeoffs, and landings only. C: Each person on board the aircraft during the entire flight.

56: No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight A: over a densely populated area. B: in Class D airspace under special VFR. C: except by prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft. 57: Which aircraft has the right-of-way over all other air traffic? A: A balloon. B: An aircraft in distress. C: An aircraft on final approach to land.

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46 58: What action is required when two aircraft of the same category converge, but not head-on? A: The faster aircraft shall give way. B: The aircraft on the left shall give way. C: Each aircraft shall give way to the right.

59: Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed? A: Gyroplane. B: Airship. C: Aircraft towing other aircraft. 60: Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed? A: Glider. B: Airship. C: Aircraft refueling other aircraft.

61: What action should the pilots of a glider and an airplane take if on a head-on collision course? A: The airplane pilot should give way to the left. B: The glider pilot should give way to the right. C: Both pilots should give way to the right. 62: When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the right-of-way belongs to the aircraft A: that has the other to its right. B: that is the least maneuverable. C: at the lower altitude, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake another.

63: Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere? A: An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface. B: An altitude of 500 feet above the surface and no closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure. C: An altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet.

64: Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over congested areas? A: An altitude of 1,000 feet above any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure. B: An altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet of the aircraft. C: An altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft. 65: Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over other than a congested area? A: An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface. B: An altitude of 500 feet AGL, except over open water or a sparsely populated area, which requires 500 feet from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure. C: An altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet.

Glider Pilots Ground School

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66: Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, an aircraft may not be operated closer than what distance from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure? A: 500 feet. B: 700 feet. C: 1,000 feet.

67: If an altimeter setting is not available before flight, to which altitude should the pilot adjust the altimeter? A: The elevation of the nearest airport corrected to mean sea level. B: The elevation of the departure area. C: Pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature. 68: Prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to which altitude or altimeter setting? A: The current local altimeter setting, if available, or the departure airport elevation. B: The corrected density altitude of the departure airport. C: The corrected pressure altitude for the departure airport.

69: At what altitude shall the altimeter be set to 29.92, when climbing to cruising flight level? A: 14,500 feet MSL. B: 18,000 feet MSL. C: 24,000 feet MSL. 70: When an ATC clearance has been obtained, no pilot in command may deviate from that clearance, unless that pilot obtains an amended clearance. The one exception to this regulation is A: when the clearance states “at pilot’s discretion.” B: an emergency. C: if the clearance contains a restriction. 71: When would a pilot be required to submit a detailed report of an emergency which caused the pilot to deviate from an ATC clearance? A: When requested by ATC. B: Immediately. C: Within 7 days. 72: What action, if any, is appropriate if the pilot deviates from an ATC instruction during an emergency and is given priority? A: Take no special action since you are pilot in command. B: File a detailed report within 48 hours to the chief of the appropriate ATC facility, if requested. C: File a report to the FAA Administrator, as soon as possible. 73: A steady green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal that the pilot A: is cleared to land. B: should give way to other aircraft and continue circling. C: should return for landing. 74: An alternating red and green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal to A: hold position. B: exercise extreme caution. C: not land; the airport is unsafe.

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47 75: A blue segmented circle on a Sectional Chart depicts which class airspace? A: Class B. B: Class C. C: Class D. 76: Airspace at an airport with a part-time control tower is classified as Class D airspace only A: when the weather minimums are below basic VFR. B: when the associated control tower is in operation. C: when the associated Flight Service Station is in operation.

77: Unless otheiwise authorized, two-way radio communications with Air Traffic Control are required for landings or takeoffs A: at all tower controlled airports regardless of weather conditions. B: at all tower-controlled airports only when weather conditions are less than VFR. C: at all tower-controlled airports within Class D airspace only when weather conditions are less than VFR. 78: Two-way radio communication must be established with the Air Traffic Control facility having jurisdiction over the area prior to entering which class airspace? A: Class C. B: Class E. C: Class G. 79: What minimum radio equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace? A: Two-way radio communications equipment and a 4096code transponder. B: Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096code transponder, and DME. C: Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096code transponder, and an encoding altimeter. 80: What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace? A: Commercial Pilot Certificate. B: Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements. C: Private Pilot Certificate with an instrument rating. 81: What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace? A: Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements. B: Recreational Pilot Certificate. C: Private Pilot Certificate with an instrument rating. 82: What minimum radio equipment is required for VFR operation within Class B airspace? A: Two-way radio communications equipment and a 4096code transponder. B: Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096code transponder, and an encoding altimeter. C: Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096code transponder, an encoding altimeter, and a VOR or TACAN receiver.

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83: An operable 4096-code transponder and Mode C encoding altimeter are required in A: Class B airspace and within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport. B: Class D airspace. C: Class E airspace below 10,000 feet MSL.

91: Outside controlled airspace, the minimum flight visibility requirement for VFR flight above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL during daylight hours is A: 1 mile. B: 3 miles. C: 5 miles.

84: In which type of airspace are VFR flights prohibited? A: Class A. B: Class B. C: Class C.

92: The minimum flight visibility required for VFR flights above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL in controlled airspace is A: 1 mile. B: 3 miles. C: 5 miles.

85: During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of less than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds requirement for VFR flight is A: 1,000 feet. B: 1,500 feet. C: 2,000 feet. 86: What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for VFR operations in Class G airspace at 700 feet AGL or below during daylight hours? A: 1 mile visibility and clear of clouds. B: 1 mile visibility, 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontal clearance from clouds. C: 3 miles visibility and clear of clouds. 87: What minimum flight visibility is required for VFR flight operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL? A: 1 mile. B: 3 miles. C: 4 miles. 88: The minimum distance from clouds required for VFR operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL is A: remain clear of clouds. B: 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontally. C: 500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally.

89: During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is A: 500 feet. B: 1,000 feet. C: 1,500 feet. 90: VFR flight in controlled airspace above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL requires a minimum visibility and vertical cloud clearance of A: 3 miles, and 500 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds in controlled airspace. B: 5 miles, and 1,000 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds at all altitudes. C: 5 miles, and 1,000 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds only in Class A airspace.

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93: For VFR flight operations above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds required is A: 1,000 feet. B: 2,000 feet. C: 1 mile. 94: During operations at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL and at or above 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is A: 500 feet. B: 1,000 feet. C: 1,500 feet. 95: No person may take off or land an aircraft under basic VFR at an airport that lies within Class D airspace unless the A: flight visibility at that airport is at least 1 mile. B: ground visibility at that airport is at least 1 mile. C: ground visibility at that airport is at least 3 miles. 96: The basic VFR weather minimums for operating an aircraft within Class D airspace are A: 500-foot ceiling and 1 mile visibility. B: 1,000-foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility. C: clear of clouds and 2 miles visibility. 97: In addition to a valid Airworthiness Certificate, what documents or records must be aboard an aircraft during flight? A: Aircraft engine and airframe logbooks, and owner’s manual. B: Radio operator’s permit, and repair and alteration forms. C: Operating limitations and Registration Certificate. 98: Except in Alaska, during what time period should lighted position lights be displayed on an aircraft? A: End of evening civil twilight to the beginning of morning civil twilight. B: 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise. C: Sunset to sunrise.

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99: When operating an aircraft at cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL, supplemental oxygen shall be used during A: the entire flight time at those altitudes. B: that flight time in excess of 10 minutes at those altitudes. C: that flight time in excess of 30 minutes at those altitudes. 100: Unless each occupant is provided with supplemental oxygen, no person may operate a civil aircraft of U.S. registry above a maximum cabin pressure altitude of A: 12,500 feet MSL. B: 14,000 feet MSL. C: 15,000 feet MSL.

101: An operable 4096-code transponder with an encoding altimeter is required in which airspace? A: Class A, Class B (and within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport), and Class C. B: Class D and Class E (below 10,000 feet MSL). C: Class D and Class G (below 10,000 feet MSL). 102-105. deleted 107: An approved chair-type parachute may be carried in an aircraft for emergency use if it has been packed by an appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding A: 120 days. B: 180 days. C: 365 days. 108: With certain exceptions, when must each occupant of an aircraft wear an approved parachute? A: When a door is removed from the aircraft to facilitate parachute jumpers. B: When intentionally pitching the nose of the aircraft up or down 30° or more. C: When intentionally banking in excess of 30°. 109: The minimum allowable strength of a towline used for an aerotow of a glider having a certificated gross weight of 700 pounds is A: 560 pounds. B: 700 pounds. C: 1,000 pounds.

1 10: The minimum allowable strength of a towline used for an aerotow of a glider having a certificated gross weight of 1,040 pounds is A: 502 pounds. B: 832 pounds. C: 1,040 pounds. Ill: For the aerotow of a glider that weighs 700 pounds, which towrope tensile strength would require the use of safety links at each end of the rope? A: 850 pounds. B: 1,040 pounds. C: 1,450 pounds.

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49 112: When using a towline having a breaking strength more than twice the maximum certificated operating weight of the glider, an approved safety link must be installed at what point(s)? A: Only the point where the towline is attached to the glider. B: The point where the towline is attached to the glider and the point of attachment of the towline to the towplane. C: Only the point where the towline is attached to the towplane. 113: Which is normally prohibited when operating a restricted category civil aircraft? A: Flight under instrument flight rules. B: Flight over a densely populated area. C: Flight within Class D airspace. 1 14: Unless otherwise specifically authorized, no person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental certificate A: beneath the floor of Class B airspace. B: over a densely populated area or in a congested airway. C: from the primary airport within Class D airspace. 115: The responsibility for ensuring that an aircraft is maintained in an airworthy condition is primarily that of the A: pilot in command. B: owner or operator. C: mechanic who performs the work.

1 16: The airworthiness of an aircraft can be determined by a preflight inspection and a A: statement from the owner or operator that the aircraft is airworthy. B: logbook endorsement from a flight instructor. C: review of the maintenance records.

117: The responsibility for ensuring that maintenance personnel make the appropriate entries in the aircraft maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service lies with the A: owner or operator. B: pilot in command. C: mechanic who performed the work. 118: Who is responsible for ensuring appropriate entries are made in maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service? A: Owner or operator. B: Certified mechanic. C: Repair station.

119: Who is responsible for ensuring Airworthiness Directives (AD's) are complied with? A: Owner or operator. B: Repair station. C: Mechanic with inspection authorization (IA). 120: Completion of an annual inspection and the return of the aircraft to service should always be indicated by A: the relicensing date on the Registration Certificate. B: an appropriate notation in the aircraft maintenance records. C: an inspection sticker placed on the instrument panel that lists the annual inspection completion date.

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121: If an alteration or repair substantially affects an aircraft’s operation in flight, that aircraft must be test flown by an appropriately rated pilot and approved for return to service prior to being operated A: by any private pilot. B: with passengers aboard. C: for compensation or hire.

122: Before passengers can be carried in an aircraft that has been altered in a manner that may have appreciably changed its flight characteristics, it must be flight tested by an appropriately rated pilot who holds at least a A: Commercial Pilot Certificate with an instrument rating. B: Private Pilot Certificate. C: Commercial Pilot Certificate and a mechanic’s certificate. 123: An aircraft’s annual inspection was performed on July 12, this year. The next annual inspection will be due no later than A: July 1, next year. B: July 13, next year. C: July 31, next year. 124: To determine the expiration date of the last annual aircraft inspection, a person should refer to the A: Airworthiness Certificate. B: Registration Certificate. C: aircraft maintenance records. 125: How long does the Airworthiness Certificate of an aircraft remain valid? A: As long as the aircraft has a current Registration Certificate. B: Indefinitely unless the aircraft suffers major damage. C: As long as the aircraft is maintained and operated as required by Federal Aviation Regulations. 126: What aircraft inspections are required for rental aircraft that are also used for flight instruction? A: Annual and 100-hour inspections. B: Biannual and 100-hour inspections. C: Annual and 50-hour inspections. 127: Which records or documents shall the owner or operator of an aircraft keep to show compliance with an applicable Airworthiness Directive? A: Aircraft maintenance records. B: Airworthiness Certificate and Pilot’s Operating Handbook. C: Airworthiness and Registration Certificates. 128: If an aircraft is involved in an accident which results in substantial damage to the aircraft, the nearest NTSB field office should be notified A: immediately. B: within 48 hours. C: within 7 days.

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50 129: Which incident requires an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office? A: A forced landing due to engine failure. B: Landing gear damage, due to a hard landing. C: Flight control system malfunction or failure. 130: Which incident would necessitate an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office? A: An in-flight generator/altemator failure. B: An in-flight fire. C: An in-flight loss of VOR receiver capability.

131: Which incident requires an immediate notification be made to the nearest NTSB field office? A: An overdue aircraft that is believed to be involved in an accident. B: An in-flight radio communications failure. C: An in-flight generator or alternator failure. 132: May aircraft wreckage be moved prior to the time the NTSB takes custody? A: Yes, but only if moved by a federal, state, or local law enforcement officer. B: Yes, but only to protect the wreckage from further damage. C: No, it may not be moved under any circumstances. 133: The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an accident is required to file an accident report within how many days? A: 5 B: 7 C: 10

134: The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an incident is required to submit a report to the nearest field office of the NTSB A: within 7 days. B: within 10 days. C: when requested. 135: (Refer to Figure 1.) The acute angle A is the angle of A: incidence. B: attack. C: dihedral. 136: The term “angle of attack” is defined as the angle A: between the wing chord line and the relative wind. B: between the airplane’s climb angle and the horizon. C: formed by the longitudinal axis of the airplane and the chord line of the wing. 137: How will frost on the wings of an airplane affect takeoff performance? A: Frost will disrupt the smooth flow of air over the wing, adversely affecting its lifting capability. B: Frost will change the camber of the wing, increasing its lifting capability. C: Frost will cause the airplane to become airborne with a higher angle of attack, decreasing the stall speed.

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138: An airplane said to be inherently stable will A: be difficult to stall. B: require less effort to control. C: not spin. 139: What determines the longitudinal stability of an airplane? A: The location of the CG with respect to the center of lift. B: The effectiveness of the horizontal stabilizer, rudder, and rudder trim tab. C: The relationship of thrust and lift to weight and drag. 140: What is the purpose of the rudder on an airplane? A: To control yaw. B: To control overbanking tendency. C: To control roll. 141: One of the main functions of flaps during approach and landing is to A: decrease the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed. B: permit a touchdown at a higher indicated airspeed. C: increase the angle of descent without increasing the

airspeed.

51 151: How do variations in temperature affect the altimeter? A: Pressure levels are raised on warm days and the indicated altitude is lower than true altitude. B: Higher temperatures expand the pressure levels, and the indicated altitude is higher than true altitude. C: Lower temperatures lower the pressure levels, and the indicated altitude is lower than true altitude. 152: What is true altitude? A: The vertical distance of the aircraft above sea level. B: The vertical distance of the aircraft above the surface. C: The height above the standard datum plane. 153: What is absolute altitude? A: The altitude read directly from the altimeter. B: The vertical distance of the aircraft above the surface. C: The height above the standard datum plane. 154: What is density altitude? A: The height above the standard datum plane. B: The pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature. C: The altitude read directly from the altimeter.

142: What is one purpose of wing flaps? A: To enable the pilot to make steeper approaches to a landing without increasing the airspeed. B: To relieve the pilot of maintaining continuous pressure on the controls. C: To decrease wing area to vary the lift.

155: What is pressure altitude? A: The indicated altitude corrected for position and installation error. B: The altitude indicated when the barometric pressure scale is set to 29.92. C: The indicated altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature and pressure.

143: If the pitot tube and outside static vents become clogged, which instruments would be affected? A: The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and tum-and-slip indicator. B: The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator. C: The altimeter, attitude indicator, and tum-and-slip

156: Under what condition is indicated altitude the same as true altitude? A: If the altimeter has no mechanical error. B: When at sea level under standard conditions. C: When at 18,000 feet MSL with the altimeter set at 29.92.

indicator.

157: If it is necessary to set the altimeter from 29.15 to 29.85, what change occurs? A: 70-foot increase in indicated altitude. B: 70-foot increase in density altitude. C: 700-foot increase in indicated altitude.

144: Which instrument will become inoperative if the pitot tube becomes clogged? A: Altimeter. B: Vertical speed. C: Airspeed. 145: Which instmment(s) will become inoperative if the static vents become clogged? A: Airspeed only. B: Altimeter only. C: Airspeed, altimeter, and vertical speed. 150: Altimeter setting is the value to which the barometric pressure scale of the altimeter is set so the altimeter

indicates A: calibrated altitude at field elevation. B: absolute altitude at field elevation. C: true altitude at field elevation.

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158: The pitot system provides impact pressure for which instrument? A: Altimeter. B: Vertical-speed indicator. C: Airspeed indicator. 159: As altitude increases, the indicated airspeed at which a given airplane stalls in a particular configuration will A: decrease as the true airspeed decreases. B: decrease as the true airspeed increases. C: remain the same regardless of altitude.

160: What does the red line on an airspeed indicator represent? A: Maneuvering speed. B: Turbulent or rough-air speed. C: Never-exceed speed.

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161: Which color identifies the never-exceed speed? A: Lower limit of the yellow arc. B: Upper limit of the white arc. C: The red radial line. 162: What is an important airspeed limitation that is not color coded on airspeed indicators? A: Never-exceed speed. B: Maximum structural cruising speed. C: Maneuvering speed.

163: Deviation in a magnetic compass is caused by the A: presence of flaws in the permanent magnets of the compass. B: difference in the location between true north and magnetic north. C: magnetic fields within the aircraft distorting the lines of magnetic force. 164: In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate initially a turn toward the west if A: a left turn is entered from a north heading. B: a right turn is entered from a north heading. C: an aircraft is accelerated while on a north heading. 165: In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate initially a turn toward the east if A: an aircraft is decelerated while on a south heading. B: an aircraft is accelerated while on a north heading. C: a left turn is entered from a north heading.

166: In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the north if A: an aircraft is decelerated while on an east or west heading. B: a left turn is entered from a west heading. C: an aircraft is accelerated while on an east or west heading. 167: In the Northern Hemisphere, the magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the south when A: a left turn is entered from an east heading. B: a right turn is entered from a west heading. C: the aircraft is decelerated while on a west heading. 168: In the Northern Hemisphere, if an aircraft is accelerated or decelerated, the magnetic compass will normally indicate A: a turn momentarily. B: correctly when on a north or south heading. C: a turn toward the south.

169: In the Northern Hemisphere, if a glider is accelerated or decelerated, the magnetic compass will normally indicate A: a turn toward north while decelerating on an east heading. B: correctly only when on a north or south heading. C: a turn toward south while accelerating on a west heading.

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52 170: During flight, when are the indications of a magnetic compass accurate? A: Only in straight-and-level unaccelerated flight. B: As long as the airspeed is constant. C: During turns if the bank does not exceed 18°. 171: An airplane has been loaded in such a manner that the CG is located aft of the aft CG limit. One undesirable flight characteristic a pilot might experience with this airplane would be A: a longer takeoff run. B: difficulty in recovering from a stalled condition. C: stalling at higher-than-normal airspeed.

172: Loading an airplane to the most aft CG will cause the airplane to be A: less stable at all speeds. B: less stable at slow speeds, but more stable at high speeds. C: less stable at high speeds, but more stable at low speeds. 173: If the outside air temperature (OAT) at a given altitude is warmer than standard, the density altitude is A: equal to pressure altitude. B: lower than pressure altitude. C: higher than pressure altitude.

174: What force makes an airplane turn? A: The horizontal component of lift. B: The vertical component of lift. C: Centrifugal force. 175: In what flight condition must an aircraft be placed in order to spin? A: Partially stalled with one wing low. B: In a steep diving spiral. C: Stalled.

176: During a spin to the left, which wing(s) is/are stalled? A: Both wings are stalled. B: Neither wing is stalled. C: Only the left wing is stalled. 177: The angle of attack at which an airplane wing stalls will A: increase if the CG is moved forward. B: change with an increase in gross weight. C: remain the same regardless of gross weight. 178: What is ground effect? A: The result of the interference of the surface of the Earth with the airflow patterns about an airplane. B: The result of an alteration in airflow patterns increasing induced drag about the wings of an airplane. C: The result of the disruption of the airflow patterns about the wings of an airplane to the point where the wings will no longer support the airplane in flight. 179: Floating caused by the phenomenon of ground effect will be most realized during an approach to land when at A: less than the length of the wingspan above the surface. B: twice the length of the wingspan above the surface. C: a higher-than-normal angle of attack.

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180: What must a pilot be aware of as a result of ground effect? A: Wingtip vortices increase creating wake turbulence problems for arriving and departing aircraft. B: Induced drag decreases; therefore, any excess speed at the point of flare may cause considerable floating. C: A full stall landing will require less up elevator deflection than would a full stall when done free of ground effect.

181: Ground effect is most likely to result in which problem? A: Settling to the surface abruptly during landing. B: Becoming airborne before reaching recommended takeoff speed. C: Inability to get airborne even though airspeed is sufficient for normal takeoff needs. 182: During an approach to a stall, an increased load factor will cause the airplane to A: stall at a higher airspeed. B: have a tendency to spin. C: be more difficult to control. 183: Angle of attack is defined as the angle between the chord line of an airfoil and the A: direction of the relative wind. B: pitch angle of an airfoil. C: rotor plane of rotation.

1 84: What force provides the forward motion necessary to

move a glider through the air?

53 189: A sailplane has a best glide ratio of 23:1. How many feet will the glider lose in 8 nautical miles? A: 1,840 feet. B: 2,100 feet. C: 2,750 feet. 190: A sailplane has a best glide ratio of 30:1. How many nautical miles will the glider travel while losing 2,000 feet? A: 10 nautical miles. B: 15 nautical miles. C: 21 nautical miles.

191: A sailplane has lost 2,000 feet in 9 nautical miles. The best glide ratio for this sailplane is approximately A: 24:01. B: 27:01. C: 30:01. 192: How many feet will a sailplane sink in 15 nautical miles if its lift/drag ratio is 22:1? A: 2,700 feet. B: 3,600 feet. C: 4,100 feet.

193: How many feet will a glider sink in 10 nautical miles if its lift/drag ratio is 23:1? A: 2,400 feet. B: 2,600 feet. C: 4,300 feet.

1 85: To obtain maximum distance over the ground, the air speed to use is the A: minimum control speed. B: best lift/drag speed. C: minimum sink speed.

194: What is the proper airspeed to use when flying between thermals on a cross-country flight against a headwind? A: The best lift/drag speed increased by one-half the estimated wind velocity. B: The minimum sink speed increased by one-half the estimated wind velocity. C: The best lift/drag speed decreased by one-half the estimated wind velocity.

186: What effect would gusts and turbulence have on the load factor of a glider with changes in airspeed? A: Load factor decreases as airspeed increases. B: Load factor increases as airspeed increases. C: Load factor increases as airspeed decreases.

195: Every physical process of weather is accompanied by, or is the result of, a A: movement of air. B: pressure differential. C: heat exchange.

187: (Refer to Figure 11.) Which yaw string and inclinometer illustrations indicate a slipping right turn? A: 3 and 6. B: 2 and 6. C: 2 and 4.

196: What causes variations in altimeter settings between weather reporting points? A: Unequal heating of the Earth’s surface. B: Variation of terrain elevation. C: Coriolis force.

188: (Refer to Figure 11.) Which of the illustrations depicts the excessive use of right rudder during the entry of a right turn? A: 2 only. B: 2 and 4. C: 3 and 4.

197: A temperature inversion would most likely result in which weather condition? A: Clouds with extensive vertical development above an inversion aloft. B: Good visibility in the lower levels of the atmosphere and poor visibility above an inversion aloft. C: An increase in temperature as altitude is increased.

A: Lift. B: Centripetal force. C: Gravity.

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198: The most frequent type of ground or surface-based temperature inversion is that which is produced by A: terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively still night. B: warm air being lifted rapidly aloft in the vicinity of mountainous terrain. C: the movement of colder air under warm air, or the movement of warm air over cold air. 199: Which weather conditions should be expected beneath a low-level temperature inversion layer when the relative humidity is high? A: Smooth air, poor visibility, fog, haze, or low clouds. B: Light wind shear, poor visibility, haze, and light rain. C: Turbulent air, poor visibility, fog, low stratus type clouds, and showery precipitation. 200: What are the standard temperature and pressure values for sea level? A: 15°C and 29.92" Hg. B: 59°C and 1013.2 millibars. C: 59°F and 29.92 millibars.

201: If a pilot changes the altimeter setting from 30.1 1 to 29.96, what is the approximate change in indication? A: Altimeter will indicate .15" Hg higher. B: Altimeter will indicate 150 feet higher. C: Altimeter will indicate 150 feet lower. 202: Under which condition will pressure altitude be equal to true altitude? A: When the atmospheric pressure is 29.92" Hg. B: When standard atmospheric conditions exist. C: When indicated altitude is equal to the pressure altitude. 203: Under what condition is pressure altitude and density altitude the same value? A: At sea level, when the temperature is 0°F. B: When the altimeter has no installation error. C: At standard temperature.

204: If a flight is made from an area of low pressure into an area of high pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate A: the actual altitude above sea level. B: higher than the actual altitude above sea level. C: lower than the actual altitude above sea level. 205: If a flight is made from an area of high pressure into an area of lower pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate A: lower than the actual altitude above sea level. B: higher than the actual altitude above sea level. C: the actual altitude above sea level. 206: Under what condition will true altitude be lower than indicated altitude? A: In colder than standard air temperature. B: In warmer than standard air temperature. C: When density altitude is higher than indicated altitude. 207: Which condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than true altitude? A: Air temperature lower than standard. B: Atmospheric pressure lower than standard. C: Air temperature warmer than standard.

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54 208: Which factor would tend to increase the density altitude at a given airport? A: An increase in barometric pressure. B: An increase in ambient temperature. C: A decrease in relative humidity. 209: The wind at 5,000 feet AGL is southwesterly while the surface wind is southerly. This difference in direction is primarily due to A: stronger pressure gradient at higher altitudes. B: friction between the wind and the surface. C: stronger Coriolis force at the surface.

210: What is meant by the term “dewpoint”? A: The temperature at which condensation and evaporation are equal. B: The temperature at which dew will always form. C: The temperature to which air must be cooled to become saturated. 211: The amount of water vapor which air can hold depends on the A: dewpoint. B: air temperature. C: stability of the air.

212: Clouds, fog, or dew will always form when A: water vapor condenses. B: water vapor is present. C: relative humidity reaches 100 percent. 213: What are the processes by which moisture is added to unsaturated air? A: Evaporation and sublimation. B: Heating and condensation. C: Supersaturation and evaporation. 214: Which conditions result in the formation of frost? A: The temperature of the collecting surface is at or below freezing when small droplets of moisture fall on the surface. B: The temperature of the collecting surface is at or below the dewpoint of the adjacent air and the dewpoint is below freezing. C: The temperature of the surrounding air is at or below freezing when small drops of moisture fall on the collecting surface.

215: The presence of ice pellets at the surface is evidence that there A: are thunderstorms in the area. B: has been cold frontal passage. C: is a temperature inversion with freezing rain at a higher altitude. 216: What measurement can be used to determine the stability of the atmosphere? A: Atmospheric pressure. B: Actual lapse rate. C: Surface temperature.

217: What would decrease the stability of an air mass? A: Warming from below. B: Cooling from below. C: Decrease in water vapor.

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219: Moist, stable air flowing upslope can be expected to A: produce stratus type clouds. B: cause showers and thunderstorms. C: develop convective turbulence. 220: If an unstable air mass is forced upward, what type clouds can be expected? A: Stratus clouds with little vertical development. B: Stratus clouds with considerable associated turbulence. C: Clouds with considerable vertical development and associated turbulence. 22 1 : What feature is associated with a temperature

inversion? A: A stable layer of air. B: An unstable layer of air. C: Chinook winds on mountain slopes. 222: What is the approximate base of the cumulus clouds if the surface air temperature at 1,000 feet MSL is 70°F and the dewpoint is 48°F? A: 4,000 feet MSL. B: 5,000 feet MSL. C: 6,000 feet MSL. 223: At approximately what altitude above the surface would the pilot expect the base of cumuliform clouds if the surface air temperature is 82°F and the dewpoint is 38°F? A: 9,000 feet AGL. B: 10,000 feet AGL. C: 11,000 feet AGL.

224: What are characteristics of a moist, unstable air mass? A: Cumuliform clouds and showery precipitation. B: Poor visibility and smooth air. C: Stratiform clouds and showery precipitation. 225: What are characteristics of unstable air? A: Turbulence and good surface visibility. B: Turbulence and poor surface visibility. C: Nimbostratus clouds and good surface visibility.

226: A stable air mass is most likely to have which characteristic? A: Showery precipitation. B: Turbulent air. C: Smooth air. 227: The suffix “nimbus,” used in naming clouds, means A: a cloud with extensive vertical development, B: a rain cloud. C: a middle cloud containing ice pellets. 228: Clouds are divided into four families according to their A: outward shape. B: height range. C: composition.

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Private Glider

218: What is a characteristic of stable air? A: Stratiform clouds. B: Unlimited visibility. C: Cumulus clouds.

229: An almond or lens-shaped cloud which appears stationary, but which may contain winds of 50 knots or more, is referred to as A: an inactive frontal cloud. B: a funnel cloud. C: a lenticular cloud. 230: Crests of standing mountain waves may be marked by stationary, lens-shaped clouds known as A: mammatocumulus clouds. B: standing lenticular clouds. C: roll clouds.

231: What clouds have the greatest turbulence? A: Towering cumulus. B: Cumulonimbus. C: Nimbostratus. 232: What cloud types would indicate convective turbulence? A: Cirrus clouds. B: Nimbostratus clouds. C: Towering cumulus clouds. 233: The boundary between two different air masses is referred to as a A: frontolysis. B: frontogenesis. C: front. 234: One of the most easily recognized discontinuities across a front is A: a change in temperature. B: an increase in cloud coverage. C: an increase in relative humidity. 235: One weather phenomenon which will always occur when flying across a front is a change in the A: wind direction. B: type of precipitation. C: stability of the air mass.

236: Steady precipitation preceding a front is an indication of A: stratiform clouds with moderate turbulence. B: cumuliform clouds with little or no turbulence. C: stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence. 237: Possible mountain wave turbulence could be anticipated when winds of 40 knots or greater blow A: across a mountain ridge, and the air is stable. B: down a mountain valley, and the air is unstable. C: parallel to a mountain peak, and the air is stable. 238: Where does wind shear occur? A: Only at higher altitudes. B: Only at lower altitudes. C: At all altitudes, in all directions.

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239: When may hazardous wind shear be expected? A: When stable air crosses a mountain barrier where it tends to flow in layers forming lenticular clouds. B: In areas of low-level temperature inversion, frontal zones, and clear air turbulence. C: Following frontal passage when stratocumulus clouds form indicating mechanical mixing.

240: A pilot can expect a wind-shear zone in a temperature inversion whenever the windspeed at 2,000 to 4,000 feet above the surface is at least A: 10 knots. B: 15 knots. C: 25 knots. 241: One in-flight condition necessary for structural icing to form is A: small temperature/dewpoint spread. B: stratiform clouds. C: visible moisture. 242: Why is frost considered hazardous to flight? A: Frost changes the basic aerodynamic shape of the airfoils, thereby increasing lift. B: Frost slows the airflow over the airfoils, thereby increasing control effectiveness. C: Frost spoils the smooth flow of air over the wings, thereby decreasing lifting capability. 243: The conditions necessary for the formation of cumulonimbus clouds are a lifting action and A: unstable air containing an excess of condensation nuclei. B: unstable, moist air. C: either stable or unstable air. 244: What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm? A: Roll cloud. B: Continuous updraft. C: Frequent lightning.

245: Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm? A: The appearance of an anvil top. B: Precipitation beginning to fall. C: Maximum growth rate of the clouds. 246: What conditions are necessary for the formation of thunderstorms? A: High humidity, lifting force, and unstable conditions. B: High humidity, high temperature, and cumulus clouds. C: Lifting force, moist air, and extensive cloud cover. 247: During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts? A: Cumulus. B: Dissipating. C: Mature. 248: Thunderstorms reach their greatest intensity during the A: mature stage. B: downdraft stage. C: cumulus stage.

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56 249: Thunderstorms which generally produce the most intense hazard to aircraft are A: squall line thunderstorms. B: steady-state thunderstorms. C: warm front thunderstorms. 250: A nonfrontal, narrow band of active thunderstorms that often develop ahead of a cold front is known as a A: prefrontal system. B: squall line. C: dry line. 25 1: If there is thunderstorm activity in the vicinity of an airport at which you plan to land, which hazardous atmospheric phenomenon might be expected on the landing approach? A: Precipitation static. B: Wind-shear turbulence. C: Steady rain. 252: What situation is most conducive to the formation of radiation fog? A: Warm, moist air over low, flatland areas on clear, calm nights. B: Moist, tropical air moving over cold, offshore water. C: The movement of cold air over much warmer water.

253: If the temperature/dewpoint spread is small and decreasing, and the temperature is 62°F, what type of weather is most likely to develop? A: Freezing precipitation. B: Thunderstorms. C: Fog or low clouds. 254: In which situation is advection fog most likely to form? A: A warm, moist air mass on the windward side of mountains. B: An air mass moving inland from the coast in winter. C: A light breeze blowing colder air out to sea. 255: What types of fog depend upon wind in order to exist? A: Radiation fog and ice fog. B: Steam fog and ground fog. C: Advection fog and upslope fog. 256: The development of thermals depends upon A: a counterclockwise circulation of air. B: temperature inversions. C: solar heating. 257: Which is considered to be the most hazardous condition when soaring in the vicinity of thunderstorms? A: Static electricity. B: Lightning. C: Wind shear and turbulence. 258: Convective circulation patterns associated with sea breezes are caused by A: warm, dense air moving inland from over the water. B: water absorbing and radiating heat faster than the land. C: cool, dense air moving inland from over the water.

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259: During which period is a sea breeze front most suitable for soaring flight? A: Shortly after sunrise. B: During the early forenoon. C: During the afternoon.

269: When requesting weather information for the following morning, a pilot should request A: an outlook briefing. B: a standard briefing. C: an abbreviated briefing.

260: Which weather phenomenon is always associated with a thunderstorm? A: Lightning. B: Heavy rain. C: Hail.

270: For aviation purposes, ceiling is defined as the height above the Earth’s surface of the A: lowest reported obscuration and the highest layer of clouds reported as overcast. B: lowest broken or overcast layer or vertical visibility into an obscuration. C: lowest layer of clouds reported as scattered, broken, or thin.

261: Individual forecasts for specific routes of flight can be obtained from which weather source? A: Transcribed Weather Broadcasts (TWEB’s). B: Terminal Forecasts. C: Area Forecasts. 262: Transcribed Weather Broadcasts (TWEB’s) may be monitored by tuning the appropriate radio receiver to certain A: airport advisory frequencies. B: VOR and NDB frequencies. C: ATIS frequencies. 263: When telephoning a weather briefing facility for preflight weather information, pilots should state A: whether they intend to fly VFR only. B: that they possess a current pilot certificate. C: the full name and address of the formation commander. 264: To get a complete weather briefing for the planned flight, the pilot should request A: a general briefing. B: an abbreviated briefing. C: a standard briefing. 265: Which type weather briefing should a pilot request, when departing within the hour, if no preliminary weather information has been received? A: Outlook briefing. B: Abbreviated briefing. C: Standard briefing.

266: Which type of weather briefing should a pilot request to supplement mass disseminated data? A: An outlook briefing. B: A supplemental briefing. C: An abbreviated briefing.

267: To update a previous weather briefing, a pilot should request A: an abbreviated briefing. B: a standard briefing. C: an outlook briefing. 268: A weather briefing that is provided when the information requested is 6 or more hours in advance of the proposed departure time is A: an outlook briefing. B: a forecast briefing. C: a prognostic briefing.

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271: (Refer to Figure 13.) What effect do the clouds mentioned in the weather briefing have on soaring conditions? A: All thermals stop at the base of the clouds. B: Thermals persist to the tops of the clouds at 25,000 feet. C: The scattered clouds indicate thermals at least to the tops of the lower clouds. 272: (Refer to Figure 13.) At what time will thermals begin to form? A: Between 1300Z and 1500Z while the sky is clear. B: By 1500Z (midmoming) when scattered clouds begin to

form. C: About 2000Z (early afternoon) when the wind begins to increase.

273: To obtain a continuous transcribed weather briefing, including winds aloft and route forecasts for a cross¬ country flight, a pilot should monitor a A: Transcribed Weather Broadcast (TWEB) on an NDB or a VOR facility. B: VHF radio receiver tuned to an Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) frequency. C: regularly scheduled weather broadcast on a VOR frequency. 274: FAA advisory circulars (some free, others at cost) are available to all pilots and are obtained by A: ordering those desired from the Government Printing Office. B: subscribing to the Federal Register. C: distribution from the nearest FAA district office. 276: In addition to the standard briefing, what additional information should be asked of the weather briefer in order to evaluate soaring conditions? A: The upper soundings to determine the thermal index at all soaring levels. B: Dry adiabatic rate of cooling to determine the height of cloud bases. C: Moist adiabatic rate of cooling to determine the height of cloud tops. 277: What should pilots state initially when telephoning a weather briefing facility for preflight weather information? A: The intended route of flight radio frequencies. B: The address of the pilot in command. C: The intended route of flight and destination.

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278: What should pilots state initially when telephoning a weather briefing facility for preflight weather information? A: Tell the number of occupants on board. B: Identify themselves as pilots. C: State their total flight time. 279: When telephoning a weather briefing facility for preflight weather information, pilots should state A: the aircraft identification or the pilot's name. B: true airspeed. C: fuel on board.

280: (Refer to Figure 20, area 3.) Determine the approximate latitude and longitude of Currituck County Airport. A: 36°24rN - 76°01'W. B:36°48'N-76o0rW. C: 47°24'N - 75°58'W. 283: (Refer to Figure 22, area 3.) Determine the approximate latitude and longitude of Shoshone County Airport. A: 47°02'N 116°H'W. B: 47°33'N 116°H'W. C: 47°32'N - 116O41'W.

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284: (Refer to Figure 26, area 2.) What is the approximate latitude and longitude of Cooperstown Airport? A: 47°25'N - 98°06'W. B: 47°25rN - 99°54'W. C: 47°55'N - 98°06'W. 285: (Refer to Figure 25, area 4.) The floor of Class B airspace overlying Hicks Airport (T67) north-northwest of Fort Worth Meacham Field is A: at the surface. B: 3,200 feet MSL. C: 4,000 feet MSL. 286: (Refer to Figure 25, area 2.) The floor of Class B airspace at Addison Airport is A: at the surface. B: 3,000 feet MSL. C: 3,100 feet MSL.

287: (Refer to Figure 20 area 4.) What hazards to aircraft may exist in restricted areas such as R-5302B? A: Military training activities that necessitate acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers. B: Unusual, often invisible, hazards such as aerial gunnery or guided missiles. C: High volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity. 288: (Refer to Figure 26, area 2.) What hazards to aircraft may exist in areas such as Devils Lake East MOA? A: Unusual, often invisible, hazards to aircraft such as artillery firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles. B: High volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity. C: Military training activities that necessitate acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers.

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58 289: (Refer to Figure 21, area 3.) What type of military flight operations should a pilot expect along IR 644? A: IFR training flights above 1,500 feet AGL at speeds in excess of 250 knots. B: VFR training flights above 1,500 feet AGL at speeds less than 250 knots. C: Instrument training flights below 1,500 feet AGL at speeds in excess of 150 knots. 292: (Refer to Figure 26, area 3.) When flying over Arrowwood National Wildlife Refuge, a pilot should fly no lower than A: 2,000 feet AGL. B: 2,500 feet AGL. C: 3,000 feet AGL. 293: (Refer to Figure 22, area 1 .) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate VFR during daylight hours over Sandpoint Airport at 1,200 feet AGL are A: 1 mile and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud. B: 1 mile and clear of clouds. C: 3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud.

295: (Refer to Figure 26, area 2.) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate VFR during daylight hours over the town of Cooperstown between 1,200 feet AGL and 10,000 feet MSL are A: 1 mile and clear of clouds. B: 1 mile and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds. C: 3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds. 296: (Refer to Figure 26, area 2.) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate over the town of Cooperstown below 700 feet AGL are A: 3 miles and clear of clouds. B: 1 mile and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds. C: 1 mile and clear of clouds. 298: (Refer to Figure 26, area 5.) The airspace overlying and within 5 miles of Barnes County Airport is A: Class D airspace from the surface to the floor of the overlying Class E airspace. B: Class E airspace from the surface to 1,200 feet MSL. C: Class G airspace from the surface to 700 feet AGL.

299: (Refer to figure 25, area 7.) The airspace overlying McKinney (TKI) is controlled from the surface to A: 2,500 feet MSL. B: 2,900 feet MSL. C: 700 feet AGL. 300: (Refer to Figure 25, area 4.) The airspace directly overlying Fort Worth Meacham is A: Class B airspace to 10,000 feet MSL. B: Class C airspace to 5,000 feet MSL. C: Class D airspace to 3,200 feet MSL.

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301: (Refer to Figure 23, area 3.) What is the floor of the Savannah Class C airspace at the shelf area (outer circle)? A: 1,300 feet AGL. B: 1,300 feet MSL. C: 1,700 feet MSL. 302: (Refer to Figure 22, area 3.) The vertical limits of that portion of Class E airspace designated as a Federal Airway over Magee Airport are A: 700 feet MSL to 12,500 feet MSL. B: 7,500 feet MSL to 17,999 feet MSL. C: 1,200 feet AGL to 17,999 feet MSL. 304: (Refer to Figure 20, area 5.) The CAUTION box denotes what hazard to aircraft? A: Unmarked balloon on cable to 3,008 feet MSL. B: Unmarked balloon on cable to 3,008 feet AGL. C: Unmarked blimp hangars at 308 feet MSL. 305: (Refer to Figure 20, area 2.) The flag symbol at Lake Drummond represents a A: compulsory reporting point for Norfolk Class C airspace. B: compulsory reporting point for Hampton Roads Airport. C: visual checkpoint used to identify position for initial callup to Norfolk Approach Control. 306: (Refer to Figure 20, area 2.) The elevation of the Chesapeake Regional Airport is A: 19 feet. B: 55 feet. C: 230 feet. 307: (Refer to Figure 21.) The terrain elevation of the light tan area between Minot (area 1) and Audubon Lake (area 2) varies from A: sea level to 2,000 feet MSL. B: 2,000 feet to 2,500 feet MSL. C: 2,000 feet to 2,700 feet MSL.

308: (Refer to Figure 23.) The flag symbols at Statesboro Bullock County Airport, Claxton-Evans County Airport (area 2), and Ridgeland Airport are A: outer boundaries of Savannah Class C airspace. B: airports with special traffic patterns. C: visual checkpoints to identify position for initial callup prior to entering Savannah Class C airspace. 309: (Refer to Figure 23, area 3.) What is the height of the lighted obstacle approximately 6 nautical miles southwest of Savannah International? A: 1,500 feet MSL. B: 1,531 feet AGL. C: 1,548 feet MSL.

310: (Refer to Figure 23, area 3.) The top of the group obstruction approximately 11 nautical miles from the Savannah VORTAC on the 350° radial is A: 400 feet AGL. B: 455 feet MSL. C: 432 feet MSL.

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59 311: (Refer to Figure 24, area 1.) What minimum altitude is necessary to vertically clear the obstacle on the northeast side of Airpark East Airport by 500 feet? A: 1,010 feet MSL. B: 1,273 feet MSL. C: 1,283 feet MSL. 312: (Refer to Figure 24, area 2.) What minimum altitude is necessary to vertically clear the obstacle on the southeast side of Winnsboro Airport by 500 feet? A: 823 feet MSL. B: 1,013 feet MSL. C: 1,403 feet MSL. 313: (Refer to Figure 25, area 2.) The control tower frequency for Addison Airport is A: 122.95 MHz. B: 126.0 MHz. C: 133.4 MHz. 314: (Refer to Figure 25, area 5.) The navigation facility at Dallas-Ft. Worth International (DFW) is a A: VOR. B: VORTAC. C: VOR/DME. 315: (Refer to Figure 20.) Over which area should a glider pilot expect to find the best lift under normal conditions? A: 2 B: 7 C: 5. 318: (Refer to Figure 26, areas 5.) What minimum altitude should be used for a go-ahead point at Eckelson in order to arrive at Barnes County Airport at 1,000 feet AGL if the glide ratio is 22:1 in no wind conditions? Use the recommended safety factor. A: 5,959 feet MSL. B: 7,960 feet MSL. C: 9,359 feet MSL. 319: During the preflight inspection who is responsible for determining the aircraft is safe for flight? A: The pilot in command. B: The owner or operator. C: The certificated mechanic who performed the annual inspection.

320: How should an aircraft preflight inspection be accomplished for the first flight of the day? A: Quick walk around with a check of gas and oil. B: Thorough and systematic means recommended by the manufacturer. C: Any sequence as determined by the pilot-in-command. 321: Who is primarily responsible for maintaining an aircraft in airworthy condition?

A: Pilot-in-command. B: Owner or operator. C: Mechanic.

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322: FAA advisory circulars (some free, others at cost) are available to all pilots and are obtained by A: distribution from the nearest FAA district office. B. referring to the FAA internet home page and following the links to the ACs.

C: subscribing to the Federal Register. 323: Prior to starting each maneuver, pilots should A: check altitude, airspeed, and heading indications. B: visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance. C: announce their intentions on the nearest CTAF.

324: What minimum upward current must a glider encounter to maintain altitude? A: At least 2 feet per second. B: The same as the glider’s sink rate. C: The same as the adjacent down currents. 325: On which side of a rocky knoll, that is surrounded by vegetation, should a pilot find the best thermals? A: On the side facing the Sun. B: On the downwind side. C: Exactly over the center. 326: What is one recommended method for locating thermals? A: Fly an ever-increasing circular path. B: Maintain a straight track downwind. C: Look for converging streamers of dust or smoke. 327: What is a recommended procedure for entering a dust devil for soaring? A: Enter above 500 feet and circle the edge in the same direction as the rotation. B: Enter below 500 feet and circle the edge opposite the direction of rotation. C: Enter at or above 500 feet and circle the edge opposite the direction of rotation.

328: What is an important precaution when soaring in a dust devil? A: Avoid the eye of the vortex. B: Avoid the clear area at the outside edge of the dust. C: Maintain the same direction as the rotation of the vortex. 329: What is the best visual indication of a thermal? A: Fragmented cumulus clouds with concave bases. B: Smooth cumulus clouds with concave bases. C: Scattered to broken sky with cumulus clouds. 330: How can a pilot locate bubble thermals? A: Look for wet areas where recent showers have occurred. B: Look for birds that are soaring in areas of intermittent heating. C: Fly the area just above the boundary of a temperature inversion. 331: Where may the most favorable type thermals for cross-country soaring be found? A: Just ahead of a warm front. B: Along thermal streets. C: Under mountain waves.

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60 332: Where and under what condition can enough lift be found for soaring when the weather is generally stable? A: On the upwind side of hills or ridges with moderate winds present. B: In mountain waves that form on the upwind side of the mountains. C: Over isolated peaks when strong winds are present. 333: An airport’s rotating beacon operated during daylight hours indicates A: there are obstructions on the airport. B: that weather at the airport located in Class D airspace is below basic VFR weather minimums. C: the Air Traffic Control tower is not in operation.

334: (Refer to Figure 49.) Area C on the airport depicted is classified as a A: stabilized area. B: multiple heliport. C: closed runway. 335: The numbers 9 and 27 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately A: 009° and 027° true. B: 090° and 270° true. C: 090° and 270° magnetic.

336: The vertical limit of Class C airspace above the primary airport is normally A: 1,200 feet AGL. B: 3,000 feet AGL. C: 4,000 feet AGL. 337: The normal radius of the outer area of Class C airspace is A: 5 nautical miles. B: 15 nautical miles. C: 20 nautical miles.

338: All operations within Class C airspace must be in A: accordance with instrument flight rules. B: compliance with ATC clearances and instructions. C: an aircraft equipped with a 4096-code transponder with Mode C encoding capability. 339: Under what condition may an aircraft operate from a satellite airport within Class C airspace? A: The pilot must file a flight plan prior to departure. B: The pilot must monitor ATC until clear of the Class C airspace. C: The pilot must contact ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff.

340: Under what condition, if any, may pilots fly through a restricted area? A: When flying on airways with an ATC clearance. B: With the controlling agency’s authorization. C: Regulations do not allow this. 341: What action should a pilot take when operating under VFR in a Military Operations Area (MOA)? A: Obtain a clearance from the controlling agency prior to entering the MOA. B: Operate only on the airways that transverse the MOA. C: Exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted.

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342: Responsibility for collision avoidance in an alert area rests with A: the controlling agency. B: all pilots. C: Air Traffic Control.

351: (Refer to Figure 51.) The segmented circle indicates that a landing on Runway 26 will be with a A: right-quartering headwind. B: left-quartering headwind. C: right-quartering tailwind.

343: The lateral dimensions of Class D airspace are based

352: (Refer to Figure 51.) Which runway and traffic pattern should be used as indicated by the wind cone in the segmented circle? A: Right-hand traffic on Runway 9. B: Right-hand traffic on Runway 18. C: Left-hand traffic on Runway 36.

on A: the number of airports that lie within the Class D airspace. B: 5 statute miles from the geographical center of the primary airport. C: the instrument procedures for which the controlled airspace is established. 344: A non-tower satellite airport, within the same Class D airspace as that designated for the primary airport, requires radio communications be established and maintained with the A: satellite airport’s UNICOM. B: associated Flight Service Station. C: primary airport’s control tower. 345: Prior to entering an Airport Advisory Area, a pilot should A: monitor ATIS for weather and traffic advisories. B: contact approach control for vectors to the traffic pattern. C: contact the local FSS for airport and traffic advisories.

346: Which initial action should a pilot take prior to entering Class C airspace? A: Contact approach control on the appropriate frequency. B: Contact the tower and request permission to enter. C: Contact the FSS for traffic advisories. 347: (Refer to Figure 50.) Select the proper traffic pattern and runway for landing. A: Left-hand traffic and Runway 18. B: Right-hand traffic and Runway 18. C: Left-hand traffic and Runway 22. 348: (Refer to Figure 50.) If the wind is as shown by the landing direction indicator, the pilot should land on A: Runway 18 and expect a crosswind from the right. B: Runway 22 directly into the wind. C: Runway 36 and expect a crosswind from the right.

349: (Refer to Figure 51.) The segmented circle indicates that the airport traffic is A: left-hand for Runway 36 and right-hand for Runway 18. B: left-hand for Runway 18 and right-hand for Runway 36. C: right-hand for Runway 9 and left-hand for Runway 27. 350: (Refer to Figure 51.) The traffic patterns indicated in the segmented circle have been arranged to avoid flights over an area to the A: south of the airport. B: north of the airport. C: southeast of the airport.

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354: Wingtip vortices are created only when an aircraft is A: operating at high airspeeds. B: heavily loaded. C: developing lift. 355: The greatest vortex strength occurs when the generating aircraft is A: light, dirty, and fast. B: heavy, dirty, and fast. C: heavy, clean, and slow.

356: Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to A: sink below the aircraft generating turbulence. B: rise into the traffic pattern. C: rise into the takeoff or landing path of a crossing runway. 357: When taking off or landing at an airport where heavy aircraft are operating, one should be particularly alert to the hazards of wingtip vortices because this turbulence tends to A: rise from a crossing runway into the takeoff or landing path. B: rise into the traffic pattern area surrounding the airport. C: sink into the flightpath of aircraft operating below the aircraft generating the turbulence. 358: The wind condition that requires maximum caution when avoiding wake turbulence on landing is a A: light, quartering headwind. B: light, quartering tailwind. C: strong headwind.

359: When landing behind a large aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by staying A: above the large aircraft’s final approach path and landing beyond the large aircraft’s touchdown point. B: below the large aircraft’s final approach path and landing before the large aircraft’s touchdown point. C: above the large aircraft’s final approach path and landing before the large aircraft’s touchdown point.

360: When departing behind a heavy aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by maneuvering the aircraft A: below and downwind from the heavy aircraft. B: above and upwind from the heavy aircraft. C: below and upwind from the heavy aircraft.

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361: Pilots flying over a national wildlife refuge are requested to fly no lower than A: 1,000 feet AGL. B: 2,000 feet AGL. C: 3,000 feet AGL.

362: What effect does haze have on the ability to see tr affic or terrain features during flight? A: Haze causes the eyes to focus at infinity. B: The eyes tend to overwork in haze and do not detect relative movement easily. C: All traffic or terrain features appear to be farther away than their actual distance. 363: The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during daylight hours is to use A: regularly spaced concentration on the 3-, 9-, and 12o'clock positions. B: a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10-degree sector. C: peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing off-center viewing.

62 369: Which would most likely result in hyperventilation? A: Emotional tension, anxiety, or fear. B: The excessive consumption of alcohol. C: An extremely slow rate of breathing and insufficient oxygen. 370: A pilot experiencing the effects of hyperventilation should be able to restore the proper carbon dioxide level in the body by A: closely monitoring the flight instruments to control the airplane. B: slowing the breathing rate, breathing into a bag, or talking aloud. C: increasing the breathing rate in order to increase lung ventilation.

371: The danger of spatial disorientation during flight in poor visual conditions may be reduced by A: shifting the eyes quickly between the exterior visual field and the instrument panel. B: having faith in the instruments rather than taking a chance on the sensory organs. C: leaning the body in the opposite direction of the motion of the aircraft.

364: Which technique should a pilot use to scan for traffic to the right and left during straight-and-level flight? A: Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals. B: Concentrate on relative movement detected in the peripheral vision area. C: Continuous sweeping of the windshield from right to left.

372: A state of temporary confusion resulting from misleading information being sent to the brain by various sensory organs is defined as A: spatial disorientation. B: hyperventilation. C: hypoxia.

365: How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft? A: The other aircraft will always appear to get larger and closer at a rapid rate. B: The nose of each aircraft is pointed at the same point in

373: Pilots are more subject to spatial disorientation if A: they ignore the sensations of muscles and inner ear. B: body signals are used to interpret flight attitude. C: eyes are moved often in the process of cross-checking the flight instruments.

space. C: There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft. 366: An ATC clearance provides A: priority over all other traffic. B: adequate separation from all traffic. C: authorization to proceed under specified traffic conditions in controlled airspace. 367: Which statement best defines hypoxia? A: A state of oxygen deficiency in the body. B: An abnormal increase in the volume of air breathed. C: A condition of gas bubble formation around the joints or muscles.

368: Rapid or extra deep breathing while using oxygen can cause a condition known as A: hyperventilation. B: aerosinusitis. C: aerotitis.

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374: If a pilot experiences spatial disorientation during flight in a restricted visibility condition, the best way to overcome the effect is to A: rely upon the aircraft instrument indications. B: concentrate on yaw, pitch, and roll sensations. C: consciously slow the breathing rate until symptoms clear and then resume normal breathing rate. 375: FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airmen are issued under which subject number? A: 60 B: 70 C: 90 376: FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airspace are issued under which subject number? A: 60 B: 70 C: 90

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377: FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Air Traffic Control and General Operations are issued under which subject number? A: 60 B: 70 C: 90

379: To stop pitch oscillation (porpoising) during a winch launch, the pilot should A: release back pressure and then pull back against the cycle of pitching oscillation to get in phase with the undulations. B: signal the ground crew to increase the speed of the tow. C: relax the back pressure on the control stick and shallow the angle of climb. 380: A pilot plans to fly solo in the front seat of a twoplace glider which displays the following placards on the instrument panel:|MINIMUM PILOT WEIGHT: 135 LB|MAXIMUM PILOT WEIGHT: 220 LB|NOTE: Seat ballast should be used as necessary. The recommended towing speed for all tows is 55 65 knots. What action should be taken if the pilot’s weight is 11 5 pounds? A: Add 20 pounds of seat ballast to the rear seat. B: Add 55 pounds of seat ballast to obtain the average pilot weight of 170 pounds. C: Add 20 pounds of seat ballast.

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38 1: A pilot plans to fly solo in the front seat of a twoplace glider which displays the following placards on the instrument panel:|MINIMUM PILOT WEIGHT: 135 LB|MAXIMUM PILOT WEIGHT: 220 LB|NOTE: Seat ballast should be used as necessary. The recommended towing speed for all tows is 55 - 65 knots. What action should be taken if the pilot’s weight is 125 pounds? A: Add 10 pounds of seat ballast to the rear seat. B: Add 10 pounds of seat ballast. C: Add 45 pounds of seat ballast to obtain the average pilot weight of 170 pounds. 382: (Refer to Figure 54.) Calculate the weight and balance of the glider and determine if the CG is within limits. (Pilot (fwd. seat) 160 lb. |Passenger (aft seat) 185 lb. A: CG 71.65 inches aft of datum - out of limits forward. B: CG 79.67 inches aft of datum - within limits. C: CG 83.43 inches aft of datum - within limits. 383: (Refer to Figure 54.) How is the CG affected if radio and oxygen equipment weighing 35 pounds is added at station 43.8? The glider weighs 945 pounds with a moment of 78,000.2 pound-inches prior to adding the equipment. A: CG shifts forward 0.79 inch - out of limits forward. B: CG shifts forward 1.38 inches - within limits. C: CG shifts aft 1.38 inches - out of limits aft. 384: (Refer to Figure 54.) What is the CG of the glider if the pilot and passenger each weigh 215 pounds? A: 74.69 inches aft of datum - out of limits forward. B: 81.08 inches aft of datum - within limits. C: 81.08 inches aft of datum - over maximum gross weight.

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63 385: (Refer to Figure 55.) How many feet will the glider sink in 1 statute mile at 53 MPH in still air? A: 144 feet. B: 171 feet. C:211 feet. 386: (Refer to Figure 55.) At what speed will the glider attain a sink rate of 5 feet per second in still air? A: 75 MPH. B: 79 MPH. C: 84 MPH. 387: (Refer to Figure 55.) How many feet will the glider descend at minimum sink speed for 1 statute mile in still air? A: 132 feet. B: 170 feet. C: 180 feet. 388: (Refer to Figure 55.) At what speed will the glider gain the most distance while descending 1,000 feet in still air? A: 44 MPH. B: 53 MPH. C: 83 MPH. 389: (Refer to Figure 55.) What approximate lift/drag ratio will the glider attain at 68 MPH in still air? A: 10.5:1. B: 21.7:1. C: 28.5:1. 390: (Refer to Figure 56.) Illustration 2 means A: release towline. B: ready to tow. C: hold position. 391: (Refer to Figure 56.) Illustration 3 means A: stop operations. B: release towline. C: take up slack. 392: (Refer to Figure 56.) Which illustration is a signal to stop operation? A: 2 B: 3 C:7 393: (Refer to Figure 56.) Which illustration is a signal from the sailplane for the towplane to turn right? A: 5 B: 6 C: 11 394: (Refer to Figure 56.) Which illustration is a signal that the glider is unable to release? A: 8 B: 10 C: 11 395: (Refer to Figure 56.) Which illustration is a signal to the towplane to reduce airspeed? A: 7 B: 10 C: 12

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396: (Refer to Figure 56.) Which illustration means the towplane cannot release? A: 6 B: 8 C: 9

404: How are forward slips normally performed? A: With the direction of the slip away from any crosswind that exists. B: With dive brakes or spoilers fully open. C: With rudder and aileron deflection on the same side.

397: What corrective action should the sailplane pilot take during takeoff if the towplane is still on the ground and the sailplane is airborne and drifting to the left? A: Crab into the wind by holding upwind (right) rudder pressure. B: Crab into the wind so as to maintain a position directly behind the towplane. C: Establish a right-wing low drift correction to remain in the flightpath of the towplane.

405: What would be a proper action or procedure to use if the pilot is getting too low on a cross-country flight in a sailplane? A: Continue on course until descending to 1,000 feet above the ground and then plan the landing approach. B: Fly directly into the wind and make a straight-in approach at the end of the glide. C: Have a suitable landing area selected upon reaching 2,000 feet AGL, and a specific field chosen upon reaching 1,500 feet AGL.

398: An indication that the glider has begun a turn too soon on aerotow is that the A: glider’s nose is pulled to the outside of the turn. B: towplane’s nose is pulled to the outside of the turn. C: towplane will pitch up. 399: The sailplane has become airborne and the towplane loses power before leaving the ground. The sailplane should release immediately, A: and maneuver to the right of the towplane. B: extend the spoilers, and land straight ahead. C: and maneuver to the left of the towplane. 400: What should a glider pilot do if a towline breaks below 200 feet AGL? A: Turn into the wind, then back to the runway for a downwind landing. B: Turn away from the wind, then back to the runway for a downwind landing. C: Land straight ahead or make slight turns to reach a suitable landing area.

401: A pilot unintentionally enters a steep diving spiral to the left. What is the proper way to recover from this attitude without overstressing the glider? A: Apply up-elevator pressure to raise the nose. B: Apply more up-elevator pressure and then use right aileron pressure to control the overbanking tendency. C: Relax the back pressure and shallow the bank; then apply up-elevator pressure until the nose has been raised to the desired position. 402: What corrective action should be taken if, while thermalling at minimum sink speed in turbulent air, the left wing drops while turning to the left? A: Apply more opposite (right) aileron pressure than opposite (right) rudder pressure to counteract the overbanking tendency. B: Apply opposite (right) rudder pressure to slow the rate of turn. C: Lower the nose before applying opposite (right) aileron

pressure. 403: A sailplane pilot can differentiate between a spin and a spiral dive because in a spiral dive, A: the speed remains constant. B: the G loads increase. C: there is a small loss of altitude in each rotation.

©gpgs 100323

406: What is it often called when a pilot pushes his or her capabilities and the aircraft's limits by trying to maintain visual contact with the terrain in low visibility and ceiling? A: Scud running. B: Mind set. C: Peer pressure. 407: What antidotal phrase can help reverse the hazardous attitude of Antiauthority? A: Rules do not apply in this situation. B: I know what I am doing. C: Follow the rules. 408: What antidotal phrase can help reverse the hazardous attitude of Impulsivity? A: It could happen to me. B: Do it quickly to get it over with. C: Not so fast, think first. 409: What antidotal phrase can help reverse the hazardous attitude of Invulnerability"? A: It will not happen to me. B: It cannot be that bad. C: It could happen to me. 410: What antidotal phrase can help reverse the hazardous attitude of Macho? A: I can do it. B: Taking chances is foolish. C: Nothing will happen. 411: What antidotal phrase can help reverse the hazardous attitude of Resignation? A: What is the use. B: Someone else is responsible. C: I am not helpless. 412: Who is responsible for determining whether a pilot is fit to fly for a particular flight, even though he or she holds a current medical certificate? A: The FAA. B: The medical examiner. C: The pilot.

Glider Pilots Ground School

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65

413: What is the one common factor which affects most preventable accidents? A: Structural failure. B: Mechanical malfunction. C: Human error.

423. Changes in the center of pressure of a wing affect the aircraft’s A lift/drag ratio. B lifting capacity. C—aerodynamic balance and controllability.

414: What often leads to spatial disorientation or collision with ground/obstacles when flying under Visual Flight Rules (VFR)? A: Continual flight into instrument conditions. B: Getting behind the aircraft. C: Duck-under syndrome.

424. When landing behind a large aircraft, which procedure should be followed for vortex avoidance? A Stay above its final approach flightpath all the way to touchdown. B Stay below and to one side of its final approach flightpath. C Stay well below its final approach flightpath and land at least 2,000 feet behind.

415: What is one of the neglected items when a pilot relies on short- and long-term memory for repetitive tasks? A: Checklists. B: Situation awareness. C: Flying outside the envelope. 416: To meet the recency of experience requirements to act as pilot in command carrying passengers at night, a pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop within the preceding 90 days in A: the same category and class of aircraft to be used. B: the same type of aircraft to be used. C: any aircraft. 419: Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) is the continuous broadcast of recorded information concerning A: pilots of radar-identified aircraft whose aircraft is in dangerous proximity to terrain or to an obstruction. B: nonessential information to reduce frequency congestion. C: noncontrolled information in selected high-activity terminal areas. 420. The angle between the chord line of an airfoil and the relative wind is known as the angle of A—lift. B—attack. C incidence.

—

421 . Which statement relates to Bernoulli’s principle? A For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction. B An additional upward force is generated as the lower surface of the wing deflects air downward. C Air traveling faster over the curved upper surface of an airfoil causes lower pressure on the top surface.

— — —

422. If an emergency situation requires a downwind landing, pilots should expect a faster A —airspeed at touchdown, a longer ground roll, and better control throughout the landing roll. B groundspeed at touchdown, a longer ground roll, and the likelihood of overshooting the desired touchdown point. C groundspeed at touchdown, a shorter ground roll, and the likelihood of undershooting the desired touchdown point.

— —

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— — — — —

425. How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip? A —Inward, upward, and around each tip. B—Inward, upward, and counterclockwise. C Outward, upward, and around each tip.

—

426. The angular difference between true north and magnetic north is A magnetic deviation. B—magnetic variation. C—compass acceleration error.

—

427. What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from a south heading in the Northern Hemisphere? A The compass will initially indicate a turn to the left. B—The compass will indicate a turn to the right, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring. C The compass will remain on south for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of the airplane.

—

—

428. How soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to the FAA, Civil Aviation Security Division? A No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action. B— No later than 30 working days after the motor vehicle action. C Required to be reported upon renewal of medical certificate.

—

—

429. Where may an aircraft’s operating limitations be found if the aircraft has an Experimental or Special lightsport airworthiness certificate? A Attached to the Airworthiness Certificate. B—In the current, FAA-approved flight manual. C In the aircraft airframe and engine logbooks.

— —

430. The numbers 8 and 26 on the approach ends of the runway indicate that the runway is orientated approximately A—008° and 026° true. B—080° and 260° true. C—080° and 260° magnetic.

Glider Pilots Ground School

Private Glider

43 1 . Hazardous attitudes occur to every pilot to some degree at some time. What are some of these hazardous attitudes? A Poor risk management and lack of stress management. B Antiauthority, impulsivity, macho, resignation, and invulnerability. C Poor situational awareness, snap judgments, and lack of a decision making process.

— — —

432. In the aeronautical decision making (ADM) process, what is the fu st step in neutralizing a hazardous attitude? A Making a rational judgment. B Recognizing hazardous thoughts. C Recognizing the invulnerability of the situation.

— — —

433. Risk management, as part of the aeronautical decision making (ADM) process, relies on which features to reduce the risks associated with each flight? A Application of stress management and risk element procedures. B Situational awareness, problem recognition, and good judgment. C The mental process of analyzing all information in a particular situation and making a timely decision on what action to take.

— — —

434. Most midair collision accidents occur during A hazy days. B clear days. C—cloudy nights. 435. Which statement about longitude and latitude is true? A Lines of longitude are parallel to the Equator. B Lines of longitude cross the Equator at right angles. C The 0° line of latitude passes through Greenwich, England.

— —

— — —

436. When converting from true course to magnetic heading, a pilot should A —subtract easterly variation and right wind correction angle. B—add westerly variation and subtract left wind correction angle. C subtract westerly variation and add right wind correction angle.

—

437. When a control tower, located on an airport within Class D airspace, ceases operation for the day, what happens to the airspace designation? A The airspace designation normally will not change. B The airspace remains Class D airspace as long as a weather observer or automated weathersystem is available. C—The airspace reverts to Class E or a combination of Class E and G airspace during the hours the tower is not in operation.

— —

438. With certain exceptions, Class E airspace extends upward from either 700 feet or 1 ,200 feet AGL to, but does not include, A— 10,000 feet MSL. B— 14,500 feet MSL. C— 18,000 feet MSL.

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66 439. Flight through a restricted area should not be accomplished unless the pilot has A filed an IFR flight plan. B received prior authorization from the controlling

— — agency. C—received prior permission from the commanding officer of the nearest military base.

440. As standard operating practice, all inbound traffic to an airport without a control tower should continuously monitor the appropriate facility from a distance of A 25 miles. B—20 miles. C 10 miles.

— —

44 1 . deleted

442. What does an inbound destination sign indicate? A: Defines directions for arriving aircraft. B : Defines direction and designation of exit taxiway from runway. C : Identifies runway on which the aircraft is located. 443. Refer to Figure 66, page 17-4. The inbound destination sign is figure A: D B: I C:K 444. Refer to Figure 66, page 17-4. The taxiway direction sign is figure

A: F B: J C: K 445. What is indicated when a current CONVECTIVE SIGMET forecasts thunderstorms? A: Moderate thunderstorms covering 30 percent of the area. B: Moderate or severe turbulence. C: Thunderstorms obscured by massive cloud layers.

446. (Refer to Figure 20, area 1.) What minimum radio equipment is required to land and take off at Norfolk

International? A: Mode C transponder and omni receiver. B. Mode C transponder and two-way radio. C. Mode C transponder, omni receiver, and DME 447. (refer to Figure 66.) Which airport marking is a runway safety area/obstacle free zone boundary? A: H B: N C: G 448. What is the purpose of the No Entry sign? A: Identifies the exit boundary for the runway protected area B: Identifies area that does not continue beyond intersection. C: Identifies a paved area where aircraft are prohibited from entering.

449. When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, what is the purpose of the taxiway directional sign? A: Indicates direction to take-off runway. B: Indicates designation and direction of exit taxiway from runway. C: Indicates designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection

Glider Pilots Ground School

452. When making transponder code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which code? A: 7200. B: 7000. C: 7500.

453. Pre-takeoff briefing of passengers for a flight is the responsibility of A: all passengers. B: the pilot. C: a crewmember. 454. (Refer to figure 20, area 1.) The NALF Fentress (NFE) Airport is in what type of airspace? A: Class C. B: Class E. C: Class G. 455. Deviation error of the magnetic compass is caused by A: northerly turning error. B: certain metals and electrical systems within the aircraft. C: the difference in location of true north and magnetic north 456: Refer to figure 65. Which figure indicates a vehicle lane? A: C B: A C:E 457. The “yellow demarcation bar” marking indicates A: runway with a displaced threshold that precedes the runway. B: a hold line from a taxiway to a runway. C: the beginning of available runway for landing on the approach side.

458. When speaking to an AFSS weather briefer, you should state A. the pilot -in-command’s full name and address B. a summary of your qualifications C. whether the flight is VFR or IFR

459. To best determine general aviation forecast weather conditions covering a flight information region, the pilot should refer to A. Weather Depiction Charts. B. Graphical Forecasts for Aviation (GFA) C. Satellite maps. 460. Some Advisory Circulars (ACs) are available free of charge while the remaining ACs must be purchased. All aviation ACs may be obtained by following the procedures in the AC Checklist (AC 00-2) or by A. Contacting the local airport Fixed Base Operator and requesting the desired AC. B. referring to the FAA internet home page and following the links to the ACs. C. reading the ACs in the Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM).

461. What causes variations in altimeter settings between weather reporting points? A. Coriolis force. B. Variation of terrain elevation. C. Unequal heating of the Earth’s surface.

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67

Private Glider

45 1. If your glider is equipped with 4096 code radar beacon transponder, the code for normal operation is A: 1200. B: 1202. C: 7700.

462. (Refer to Figure 23, area 3 and Legend 1.) For information about parachute jumping operations at T ri-County Airport, refer to A. notes on the border of the chart. B. Chart Supplement. C. the Notice to Air Mission (NOTAM) publication.

Pages 68-71 omitted.

72

Glider Pilots Ground School Private Glider

17. PRIVATE GLIDER COMPUTER TESTING SUPPLEMENT Private pilots will be provided with a 60-page booklet (FAA-CT-8080-2E) containing 19 legends and 83 figures. The legends and figures necessary for the glider exam are contained here.

Figure X. Lift vector.

Figure 11. Glider yaw string.

© gpgsds 100323

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Glider

SECTIONAL AERONAUTICAL CHART LEGEND

SCALE 1:500,000 Airports having control towers are shown in blue, all others m magenta. Consult Chart Supplement fcr details involving airport Ighbng. navigation aids, and services For additional symbol inrcrmation refer to me Chart User s Guide

AIRPORTS

AIRPORT DATA

Other than hard-surfaced runways

OG

Box indicators FAR 93 Special Air Traffic Rules & Airport \ Traffic Patterns

Seaplane Bai

Hard-surfaced runways 1500 ft. to 8069 fL in length

1.

ACerhonaautrict.l

iNAMEl(NAMMPNAM)

UNICOM

(pubic usei

RP Special condrbons exist - see Chart Supplement

All recognizable hard-surfaced runways, including those dosed, are shown for visual identification. Arports may be public or private

Restncted or Private - (Soft surfaced nxrway. or hard surfaced nriway less than 150C in length ) Use only in

•

Unverified

ATIS 123 8 - Automatic Terminal Information Service ASOS/AWOS 135.42 Automated Surface Weather Observing Systems (shown where full-time ATIS 6 not avatabie). Some ASO SjAWOS facwties may not be located at arports. UNICOM - Aeronoutical advisory station VFR Advsy - VFR Advisory Service shown where fui-time ATIS not available and frequency is other tian pnmary CT frequency

285 - Ete vanon in feet L - Lighting tn operation sunset to sunnse •L - Lighting limitations exist refer to AirporVFaoMy Directory. 72 - Length of longest runway m hundrecs of feet;

o

usable length may be less

When iriformation is lacking, the respective character ts replaced by a dash. Lighting cedes refer to runway edge lights and may not represent the longest runway or Ml length lighting

Rotating airport beacon n operation Sunset to Sunrse

122.1R | CHICAGO CHI

OAKDALE VORTAC VOR-DME

U-derire rxlicates no voice on ths frequency.

Vf/Z/f///, Crossharch indicates f'ion-Directenal

^'"Shutdown Status

Radiobeacon iNDB)

o Fl

_

NDB-DME

©

Operates less than rontnuous or On-Request. ASOS AWOS MIWAS

_

L MIAMI

Other balities. i.e.. FSS Outlet.

O RCO. etc

Identificaiicn Zone Ltode C (See FAR 91.21SAM). National Security Area Terminal Radar Service Ansa (TRSA)

..

.

value).

Class E rsfcl Airspace Class E Airspaze with flocr 700ft above surface

IR211

Class E Airspace nwth floor 1200 ft or greater above surface that abuts Class G Airspace

2400 MSL 4500 MSL

Dftferentiates floors of Class E Arspace greater 5urface 700

MTR - M Unary Training Route

MISCELLANEOUS

—

FSS radc providing voce

communication

—

'

Heavy line box exicates Fight Service Station (FSS). Frequencies 121.5, 122.2. 243.0 and 255.4 ICanada 121.5. 126.7 and 243.0) are available at many FSSs and are not shown above boxes Ail other frequencies are shown

-

Y

(VPXYZ1

Group Obstruction

May operate pan-time

Otar. FSSs provide Arpor Advisory Service, see Chart Supplement

Elevation of the sop above mea- sea level

R - Recede Only

Frequences above thin line box are remoced to NAVAID Site Other FSS frequencies providing voice may be availa&e as determined by attiude and terrain. Consult Chan Supplement

;xri*nunx:a!ion

fc' complete r-formatic"

2049 (1149)

UC

—

'.'FR toyponts [See Chan Supplement far latitLiae 'langnude1

Obstruction wsn higmintensey agnts

Heigm above greure Under construaicn cr reported, position and e'evanicr

urvernec

NOT CE: Guy wres may extend outward from structures.

Lookout Tower

618 (Elevation Base cr Tower)

CG

Coast Guard Station

© Race Track

• Tank-water, oil or gas OdWell

•Water Well

11823 lElevaton of Pass)

Urrirrainned Aircraft Activity Parachute Jumping Area (See Ctart Supplement)

1000 ft and higher AGL

or

Outdoor Theater

Q

(Pass symbol does not indicate a recommended route or director of flight and pass elevation does ret nd cate a recommended clearance attitude. Hazardous flight conditions may exist within and near mountain passes).

Manne UgM

Detow 1000 ft AGL

Landmark Feature - stadium, factory, school, golf course, etx.

Mine or Quarry

OBSTRUCTIONS

A

Power Transmission Lines Aanal Cable

Mountain Pass

are indicated by center me.

RNAV waypoint

—

Isogcnc Une >2010 VALUE)

11691

TK313 (helicopter only)

l-

*-*—**.

between NAVAID. on direct Airways Ciass E Arspace low altitude RNAV routes

T319

Railroad

*----i

O

1°

Class E Arspace exists at 1200' AGL unless otherwise designated as shown above Class E Arspace low altrtude Federal Airways are indicated by center line, intersection - Arrows are directed towards fadities which establish intersection.

Total mileage

Roads & Road Markers

Danger, and Restricted Areas Alert Area and MOA Mi ftary Operabans

NAME

122.1R 122.6 123.6

VHF OMNI RANGE (VOR)

E

————

COMMUNICATION BOXES

RADIO AIDS TO NAVIGATION

®

Calmg of Class D Airspace of feet (A minus ceiling value indicates surface up to but not including that

in hundreds

-

Services-fuel available and field attended dunng normal working hours depicted by use of befcs around basic airport symber . (Normal working hours are Mon thru Fri 10O0A.M to 4.00 P.M. local time Consult Chart Supplement for service availability at asports with hard-surfaced runways greater than 8069 ft.

'Ar

-

——

TOPOGRAPHIC INFORMATION

Prohibited. Restncted. anc Warning Areas: Canaoan Advisory.

Speaai Arpcrt Traffic Area (See FAR Part 93 for details) ADLZ-Ar Defense

Class D Airspace

0 - Indicates Common Traffic Advisory Frequencies (CTAF)

Ultralight Flight Parte Selected

Abandoned-paved having landmark value. 3000 ft. or greater

consguous U.S.

Class C Airspace (mode C See FAR J1215MM.)

tabutataor fcr hours of operatxin)

Military - Other than hard-surfaced Al military arports are identified by abbreviations AFB, NAS. AAF. etc For complete airport information, consult DOD FLIP.

Heliport Selected

ICAO Location indicator shown outside

Airport of Entry

Illlllllllllllllllllll

MBMBi Class B Airspace

FSS - Right Service Staton NO SVFR - Fixed wing special VFR flight s prohibeed. CT- 118.3 Contra Tower (CT) pnmary frequency - Star indicates operation part-time Isee tower frequencies

ADDITIONAL AIRPORT INFORMATION

emergency, or by specific authorization.

Sectional

FAR 91

FSS

285 L 72 122.95 RP 23. 34 X 125-0

Right Traffic Patterns

Open do: within hard-surfaced runway configuration indicates approxmate VOR. VOR-DME. or VORTAC location.

CR)

Only the contra led and reserved airspace effective below 18,000 ft MSL are shown on this chart All times are local.

CT- 118.3* 0 ATIS 123.8

Hard- surfaced runways greater than 8069 ft. or same mtktipte runways less than 8069 ft

Leg nd

AIRPORT TRAFFIC SERVICE AND AIRSPACE INFORMATION

Perennial Lake

Pilots

Ground

Scho l Private Glider

Glider Pilots Ground School Private Glider

74

METAR KINK 121845Z 11012G18KT 15SM SKC 25/17 A3000

METAR KBOI 121854Z 13004KT 30SM SCT150 17/6 A3015 METAR KLAX 121852Z 25004KT 6SM BR SCT007 SCT250 16/15 A2991 SPECI KMDW 121856Z 32005KT 1 1/2SM RA OVC007 17/16 A2980 RMK RAB35

SPECI KJFK 121853Z 18004KT 1/2SM FG R04/2200 OVC005 20/18 A3006 »

Figure 12, Aviation Routine Weather Reports (METAR). This is a telephone weather briefing from the Dallas FSS for local operation of gliders and lighter than-air at Caddo Mills, Texas (about 30 miles east of Dallas). The briefing Is at 13Z. "There are no adverse conditions reported or forecast for today." "A weak low pressure over the Texas Panhandle and eastern New Mexico is causing a weak southerly flow over the area."

"Current weather here at Dallas Is wind south 5 knots, visibility 12 miles, clear, temperature 21, dewpoint 9, altimeter 29 point 78." "By 15Z, we should have a few scattered cumuliform clouds at 5 thousand AGL, with higher scattered cirrus at 25 thousand MSL. After 20Z, the wind should pick up to about 15 knots from the south.”

"The winds aloft are: 3 thousand 170 at 7, temperature 20; 6 thousand 200 at 18, temperature 14; 9 thousand 210 at 22, temperature 8; 12 thousand 225 at 27, temperature 0; 18 thousand 240 at 30, temperature -7.”

Figure 13. Telephone Weather Briefing.

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75

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