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English Pages [522] Year 2020
Contents 1 Zoology 2 Virus and Bacteria 3 Respiration 4 Plant Kingdom 5 Nervous System 6 Genetic And Mendel’s Law of Heredity 7 Ecology 8 Circulatory System 9 Skeletal System 10 Botany 11 Endocrine Glands 12 Cell Biology 13 Units, Abbreviations, Inventions & Discoveries 14 Physics 15 Human Physiology & Anatomy 16 Environmental Sciences 17 Energy & Energy Resources 18 Earth Science 19 Computers, Electronics & Communication
20 Chemistry 21 Biological Sciences 22 Branches & Fields of Science 23 Nature of Science 24 Physical Sciences
PREFACE TO THE SECOND EDITION It contains more than 1720+ questions from the core area of everyday science. The questions are grouped chapter wise. Keep visiting our website for 99999 more MCQ https://www.gatecseit.in/.
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Chapter 1 Zoology
1. Fishes respire with the help of. A. Lungs B. Book lungs C. * Gills D. None of the above
2. Which one of the following is different from others? A. * Kiwi B. Hen C. Pigeon D. Crow
3. What is metamerism? A. * Identical arrangement of organs in all the segments B. Arrangement of various segments differently C. Two kinds of morphology D. New segments are produced from the base
4. What is the fat of the whale called? A. Fat B. Kelps C. Gelatin D. * Blubber
5. Pliny evolved a system of classification called. A. * Arbitrary B. Natural C. Phylogenetic D. None of the above
6. Sepia or cuttle fish belongs to the phylum. A. Cnidaria B. Acnidaria C. * Mollusca D. Annelida
7. Fledgling is a term used to denote the young one of a. A. * Bird
B. Fox C. Dog D. Man
8. Which one of the following branches of biology deals with the study of birds? A. Paleontology B. Herpetology C. Entomology D. * Ornithology
9. The bird without cloaca is the. A. Duck B. Pigeon C. Parrot D. * None of the above
10. Between 60 and 180 million years ago, there lived on this Earth. The species of life now named dinosaurs. The dinosaurs were. A. Marsupials B. * Cold-blooded reptiles C. Huge mammals
D. Earliest amphibians
11. Parapodia are found in. A. Protozoa B. * Annelida C. Mollusca D. Echinodermata
12. Agents that cause birth defects are. A. Pathogens B. Mutagens C. * Teratogens D. Abortogens
13. Spot the animal which belongs to another phylum. A. Insects B. Spider C. * Sepia D. Prawn
14. Dermal scales are found in. A. * Fish
B. Reptile C. Mammal D. Star fish
15. Division amniota includes. A. Reptiles B. Birds C. Mammals D. * All of the above
16. In sponges food is caught by the cells called. A. Pinacocytes B. Archaeocytes C. * Choanocytes D. Thesocytes
17. One of the following is a parasite Which one is it? A. * Plasmodium B. Paramoecium C. Earthworm D. Fly
18. The bag like, fluid filled structure surrounding the human embryo is called. A. Allantois B. * Amnion C. Chorion D. Yolk sac
19. Most fishes do not sink in water because of the presence of. I. Swim bladders II. Air bladders III. Air sacs IV. Air in spongy bones A. * I and II are correct B. II and III are correct C. III and IV are correct D. I, II, III, and IV are correct
20. Alternation of generation is found in. A. Amoeba B. * Plasmodium C. Paramoecium D. Vorticella
21. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists. List (Characteristic) I. Wingless insect II. Flightless bird III. Limbless reptile IV. Limbless animal A. Kiwi B. * Silver fish C. Turtle D. Snake E. Fish codes
22. Which of the following animals have a unique method of bringing oxygen directly to the cells. A. Spiders B. Scorpions C. * Insects D. Flatworms
23. The classification of organisms by Linnaeus is termed as. A. Arbitrary B. * Artificial C. Natural
D. Phylogenetic
24. Other than spreading malaria, anopheles mosquitoes are also vector of. A. Dengue fever B. * Filariasis C. Encephalitis D. Yellow fever
25. Kangaroo is one of the animals popularly called as. A. Egg laying B. * Pouched C. Placental D. Volant
26. The antennules are present in. A. Cockroach B. * Crab C. Scorpion D. Spider
27. Which one of the following combinations is not correct? A. Cephalochordat-Amphioxus
B. Uro Chordata-Ascidina C. Hemichordata-Balanoglossus D. * Agnatha-Branchiostoma
28. A fish that helps in controlling population of mosquito is. A. Shark B. Cod C. Mackerel D. * Gambusia
29. Which one of the following reptiles is toothless? A. Crocodile B. Chameleon C. Alligator D. * Turtle
30. Egg laying animals are referred to as. A. Viviparous B. * Oviparous C. Ovoviviparous D. Vegetative
31. Which one of the following belongs to a different phylum? A. Crab B. Millipede C. Insect D. * Earthworm
32. The vertebrate skulls bearing on teeth belongs to. 1. 2. 3. 4.
Bird Salamander Turtle Lamprey
A. 1 and 2 B. * 1 and 3 C. 2 and 4 D. 3 and 4
33. The gap between incisors and canine is called. A. * Diastema B. Premolar C. Interphase D. Stoma
34. Scorpion can take. A. Solid food B. * Liquid food C. No food at all D. Dead flesh
35. Two nuclei are found inside the cell in. A. Amoeba B. * Paramoecium C. Plasmodium D. Monocystis
36. Open circulatory system is found in. A. Rat B. Earthworm C. Frog D. * Cockroach
37. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists. (A) Diastema (1) Dog (B) Camassial teeth (2) Bat
(C) Patagium (D) Blubber
(3) Dolphin (4) Squirrel
A. A − 1,B − 3,C − 4,D − 2 B. A − 3,B − 1,C − 2,D − 4 C. A − 4,B − 3,C − 1,D − 2 D. * A − 4,B − 1,C − 2,D − 3
38. Enamel covers the. A. * Crown of the tooth B. Dentine on all the sides C. Cementum D. Cementum and partly dentine
39. Which one is out of place in the aquatic protozoans mentioned below? A. Paramoecium B. Amoeba C. * Plasmodium D. Euglena
40. Adaptation for flying is termed. A. Aquatic
B. Volant C. Fossorial D. * Cursorial
41. Heterodont dentition means having. A. Same type of teeth B. Different types of teeth C. * Two sets of teeth D. Only one set of teeth
42. Which one of the following has a true coelom? A. Amoeba B. Ascaris C. Jelly fish D. * Earthworm
43. Which phylum of the following is an acoelomate group? A. Protozoa B. Annelida C. Mollusca D. * Platyhelminthes
44. Centipedes and millipedes belong to which class of the phylum arthropoda? A. Insects B. Crustacea C. * Scorpion D. Spider
45. The symmetry of one of the following is different from that of others. Which one is it? A. Insect B. Frog C. Earthworm D. * Star fish
46. The teeth are placed in sockets of jaw bone in mammals. So the dentition is said to be. A. * Thecodont B. Acrodont C. Pleurodont D. Diphyodont
47. The lower jaw of the frog has.
A. Teeth in sockets B. * No teeth C. Uniform set of teeth D. Different types of teeth
48. Which phylum has animals that show a remarkable phenomenon of regeneration? A. Echinodermata B. * Porifera C. Arthropoda D. Chordata
49. Which one of the following coelenterate is a fresh water organism? A. Obeli B. * Hydra C. Physalia D. Aurelia
50. Which one among the following is a bird? A. * Penguin B. Seal C. Otter
D. Walrus
51. The locomotory organ of a snail is. A. Cilia B. Flagella C. Pseudopodia D. * Foot
52. Which of the following moves the fastest? A. Bath sponge B. Sea anemone C. * Amoeba D. All of above
53. One of the fishes below is viviparous. Which one is it? A. Cod B. * Shark C. Mackerel D. Flying fish
54. Migratory birds go back to their earlier habitat in spring because of. A. Scarcity of food in the regions to which they have migrated
B. Hunting season commencing C. * Breeding instnet with change in climate, and they breed only in their original habitat D. Weather becoming too hot in the regions
55. Binomial Nomenclature means giving. A. Two names B. Real names C. Artificial names D. * One, a generic and another specific name
56. The edible oyster in an animal belonging to the phylum. A. Protozoa B. Nemathelminthes C. * Mollusca D. Echinodermata
57. The only reptiles that have specially adapted jaws to be able to swallow eggs or prey much larger in diameter than themselves are. A. Dragon lizards B. Monitor lizards C. Tortoises
D. * Snakes
58. Epidermal scales are found in. A. Fish B. * Reptile C. Amphibian D. Mammal
59. Having a set of permanent teeth after the fall of infant teeth is called. A. Same type of teeth B. Homodont C. * Diphyodont D. Thecodont
60. Of the following sanguivorous (Blood sucking)is. A. Earthworm B. * Leech C. Nereis D. Ascaris
61. Which of the following is diplomatic animal? A. * Hydra
B. Ascaris C. Rat D. Earthworm
62. A rare and dying species, the Great Indian Bustard is a. A. Carnivorous animal B. Herbivorous animal C. * Bird D. Reptile
63. Which of the following statement/statements is/are true? A. In amphibians and reptiles, bone marrow forms all kinds of blood corpuscles B. In birds the bone marrow forms all kinds of blood corpuscles C. In mammals, bone marrow forms RBCs, blood platelets and granular leucocytes only D. * All of the above
64. Bones are full of air spaces in. A. Amphibia B. Reptiles C. * Aves
D. Pisces
65. Which one of the following is acoelomate? A. Earthworm B. Leech C. * Liver-fluke D. Threadworm
66. The group radiata includes. A. Annelida and Arthropoda B. Protozoa and Porifera C. * Coelenterata and Echinodermata D. Porifera and Annelida
67. The coelenterates show the symmetry called. A. Bilateral B. * Radial C. Biradial D. None of the above
68. Malarial parasite belongs to the phylum. A. Mollusca
B. Annelida C. * Protozoa D. Coelenterata
69. The foetus gets nourishment and oxygen through. A. Implantation B. Uterus C. * Placenta D. Ovary
70. Jet propulsion is illustrated by the animal. A. Flying fish B. * Sepia or cuttlle fish C. Pigeon D. Whale
71. Bilateral symmetry is exhibited by. A. Star fish B. Jelly fish C. Hydra D. * Cockroach
72. What substance does an ant inject into the body when it bites a person? A. Acetic acid B. Lactic acid C. * Formic acid D. Hydrochloric acid
73. Tape worms are intestinal parasites of. A. Amoeba B. Plants C. * Man D. All of the above
74. Precious corals are formed by animals belonging to the phylum. A. * Coelenterata B. Mollusca C. Echinodermata D. Annelida
75. Four pairs of legs are found in. 1. Scorpion 2. Shrimp 3. Spider
4. Bristle tail A. 1, 2 and 3 are correct B. * 1 and 3 are correct C. 3 and 4 are correct D. 2 and 4 are correct
76. Prognathous chin is characteristic of. A. Man B. * Apes C. Tiger D. Cat
77. What is paedogenesis? A. * Larval multiplication B. Asexual reproduction C. Ovum production D. Sperm production
78. The animal which has developed organs for internal fertilization is. A. Fish B. Frog
C. Bird D. * Reptile
79. Palate refers to. A. Floor of the mouth B. * Roof of the mouth C. Sides of the mouth D. Part of the mouth
80. When fishes are kept in an aquarium containing water but no aquatic plants they frequently come to the surface and float in a semivertical position for want of. A. Air B. Oxygen C. * Dissolved oxygen D. Fresh supply of oxygen
81. In mammals, fertilization occurs in. A. Ovary B. * Fallopian tube C. Uterus D. Vagina
82. Corals belong to the phylum. A. Protozoa B. * Coelenterata C. Porifera D. Platyhelminthes
83. Which one of the following has warm blooded animals? A. Pisces B. Reptiles C. Amphibians D. * Mammals
84. Temporary projections of amoeba by which it moves is called. A. Cilia B. Flagella C. * Pseudopodia D. Tentacles
85. The body cavity is a haemocoel in. A. Sponges B. Star fishes
C. * Insects D. Worms
86. What are cold-blooded animals? A. Animals whose body is cold Animals whose body B. Animals who are ferocious C. * temperature varies according to the temperature of atmosphere D. Animals whose body temperature remains constant
87. Which of the following aquatic organisms are totally marine? A. Sponge B. Hydras C. Gastropods D. * Echinoderms
88. Organisms that are similar and can interbreed are said to belong to one. A. Class B. Phylum C. Genus D. * Species
89. The beaks of birds are modified.
A. Skull B. * Jaws C. Teeth D. Nose
90. The floor of the buccal cavity of the frog is supported by. A. Glottis B. Maxilla C. Mandible D. * Hyoid apparatus
91. The mammal that lays eggs is. A. Kangaroo B. * Duck-billed platypus C. Opossum D. Otter
92. Ants are social insects because. A. * They live in colonies B. They live in forests C. They have a language
D. They share food
93. Exoskeleton is found in the phylum. A. * Arthropoda B. Annelida C. Porifera D. Platyhelminthes
94. Pearl is created by animal belonging to phylum. A. Echinodermata B. Annelide C. Arthropoda D. * Mollusca
95. Only one of the following is a real fish. Which one is it? A. * Flying fish B. Star fish C. Cray fish D. Shell fish
96. Which one of the following is a marsupial? A. Camel
B. * Kangaroo C. Rabbit D. Platypus
97. A biologist kept Euglenas in Various experimental conditions. In one of these, the Euglenas lost their stigmas. This situation was. A. pH 7. 5 ∘
B. Constant temperature of 30 c C. Magnesium -free pond water D. * Total darkness
98. Foal is the young one of the. A. Cat B. Lion C. Tiger D. * Horse
99. The phenomenon of natural death is rare in. A. * Protozoa B. Annelida C. Mollusce D. Arthropoda
100. The flat worms belong to the phylum. A. Protozoa B. Porifera C. Coelenterata D. * Platyhelminthes
101. The Binomial Nomenclature was introduced by. A. Robert Hooke B. Robert Brown C. * Linnaeus D. Mendel
102. Which one of the following is a mammal? A. Calotes B. Cobra C. Ostrich D. * Mouse
103. The animal that feed young ones with milk are. A. Fishes
B. Amphibians C. * Mammals D. Birds
104. Bath sponge is obtained from animals of the phylum. A. * Porifera B. Protozoa C. Mollusca D. Echinodermata
105. Setae serve as organs of locomotion in. A. Star fish B. Snail C. * Earthworm D. Sponge
106. The phylum arthropoda is so named because of the presence of. A. Exoskeleton B. Metameric segments C. Many appendages D. * Jointed appendages
107. The largest of the living birds is. A. Cassowary B. Albatross C. Elephants bird D. * Ostrich
108. Which of the following period is called the age of fishes? A. Permian B. * Devonian C. Silurian D. Carboniferous
109. In termites, the cellulose of wood is digested by. A. * Protozoa B. Bacteria C. Protozoans and bacteria D. Cellulose breaking enzyme
110. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists. List I
List II
(A) Gill book (B) Gill basket (C)Lung book (D)Lung-fish
(1) king-crab (2) Diponi (3) Fish and cyclostomes (4) Spider and scorpion (5) Crab
A. A − 1,B − 5,C − 4,D − 2 B. A − 1,B − 3,C − 5,D − 2 C. A − 5,B − 3,C − 4,D − 2 D. * A − 1,B − 3,C − 4,D − 2
111. The number of days the human embryo takes for full development is. A. 180 days B. 220 days C. * 284 days D. 400 days
112. A fish that is devoid of any scales is. A. Carp B. Dog fish C. * Cat fish D. Mullet
113. The terrestrial species of echinodermata are. A. Brittle-star B. Star fish C. Sea-lily D. * None of the above
114. Find the odd one out. A. Guinea worm B. Hookworm C. * Ringworm D. Tapeworm
115. Baldness is seen only in the males because. A. It is male disorder B. It is linked with male Y chromosome C. * It is influenced by male hormone D. Females cover it up with wigs
116. The nutritive substances reach the human embryo by. A. Yolk B. Albumen
C. * Placenta D. Allantois
117. which is the correct order of hierarchy? A. * Phylum, class order, family B. Class, phylum, order, family C. Phylum, order, family, class D. Family, order, phylum, calls
118. Match the following. List (I) (A)Cercaria (B) Sporozoites (C) Bladderworm (D) Threadworm
A. A − 4,B − 5,C − 1,D − 2 B. * A − 3,B − 5,C − 4,D − 1 C. A − 3,B − 5,C − 2,D − 4 D. A − 1,B − 5,C − 4,D − 2
119. Whale reproduces by.
List(II) (1) Nematode (2) Whipworm (3) Trematode (4) Tapeworm (5) Plasmodium
A. Ovipary B. * Vivipary C. Ovovivipary D. Vegetative
120. One of the fishes is out of place. Which one is it? A. Shark B. Mackerel C. Cod D. * Tilapia
121. Chitinous body wall is found in the phylum. A. Protozoa B. Coelenterata C. Chordata D. * Arthropoda
122. The number of legs are more in. A. Cockroach B. Spider C. Centipede
D. * Millipede
123. The bird that lays the largest egg is. A. Albatross B. * Ostrich C. Cuckoo D. Eagle
124. Spicules are found in the animals of the phylum. A. Protozoa B. * Porifera C. Coelenterata D. Annelida
125. The compound eye is found in. A. Echinoderms B. * Insects C. Scorpions D. Spiders
126. What do you mean by the term fauna? A. Plant kingdom
B. * Animal kingdom C. Both plant and animal kingdoms D. A part of plant kingdom
127. One of the sequences give below represents a complete metamorphosis, Which one is it? A. * Egg-adult B. Egg-nymph-adult C. Egg-larva-pupa-adult D. Young one adult
128. The tapeworm has. A. Simple eyes B. Compound eyes C. * No eyes D. Numerous eyes
129. Which of the following shows a taxonomically closely related group? A. Earthworm, ringworm B. Silver fish, cuttlle fish, star C. * Housefly, dragonfly, butterfly D. Sea horse, sea anemone, sea urchin
130. The respiratory tubes in an insect are called. A. * Trachea B. Bronchi C. Siphon D. Tentacle
131. One of the following is an echinoderm, which one is it? A. Jelly fish B. Flying fish C. * Star fish D. Shell fish
Chapter 2 Virus and Bacteria
1. Jaundice is caused by a/an. A. * Virus B. Bacteria C. Fungus D. Animal
2. Smallpox is caused by. A. Bacteria B. Fungus C. * Virus D. Algae
3. Match the following. List (I) (I)Tuberculosis (II)Typhoid (III)Cholera
List(II) (A) Mycobacterium (B) Yersinia pestis (C) Streptococcus
(IV)Plague
(D) Salmonella type (E) Vibrio cholerae
A. I − B,II − D,III − E,IV − C B. * I − A,II − D,III − D,III − E,IV − B C. I − A,II − C,III − E,IV − D D. I − C,II − B,III − E,IV − D
4. The necrotic ring spot disease of stone fruits (cherry, peach, plum, etc. )is caused by. A. A bacterium B. Fungal infection C. Molybdenum deficiency D. * Virus
5. The disease that is caused by viral infection is. A. Typhoid B. Cholera C. * Common cold D. Tetanus
6. The dreaded human disease, Syphilis, is caused by. A. * A bacterium
B. Fungus C. An animal parasite D. Virus
7. What is the role played by non-pathogenic bacteria? A. They cause diseases B. * They do not cause diseases C. They are of no use D. They attack only plants
8. Measles is caused by. A. Bacteria B. Fungus C. * Virus D. Protozoa
9. Which of the following plant diseases is caused by a virus? A. Aster yellows B. Barley yellow dwarf C. Curly top of sugar beets D. * All of the above
10. Pneumonia is a bacterial disease caused by the type of bacteria called. A. Bacilli B. * Cocci C. Sprilli D. Vibriona
11. The virus that infects bacterium is. A. Arbovirus B. Viraemia C. * Bacteriophage D. Baclofen
12. An anaerobic species of the bacterium Clostridium causes a very serious disease in human population. Which of the following diseases is it? A. * Botulism B. Pneumonia C. Tuberculosis D. Typhoid
13. Which of the following diseases is not caused by virus? A. Ranikhet (New Castle )
B. Blue tongue C. * Babesiosis D. Marek, disease
14. Which is regarded as a link between the living and the non-living? A. Amoeba B. * Virus C. Bacteria D. RNA
15. All of the following diseases are caused by virus except. A. Jaundice B. Influenza C. * Typhoid D. Mumps
16. Which of the following plant diseases is caused by bacteria? A. Citrus dieback B. karnal bunt of wheat C. Potato witches, broom D. * Tundu disease of wheat
17. Much of our present-day knowledge in Molecular Genetics has been obtained by using the bacterium E. coli If we were to collect samples of this bacterium where should we look for it? A. * Human intestine B. Refuse dumps C. Soil D. Stagnant water
18. Which of the following is a bacterial disease? A. Early blight of potatoes B. Loose smut of wheat C. Red rot of sugarcane D. * Red stripe of sugarcane
19. Bacterial action changes dead leaves into. A. Algae B. Fungi C. * Humus D. None of the above
20. The nucleus is absent in. A. Algae
B. Fungi C. * Escherichia coli D. Angiosperm
21. Whooping cough is caused by. A. Salmonella B. * Bacillus pertussis C. Variola D. Vibriona
22. The polio virus enters the body through. A. Mosquito bites B. Tick bites C. * Contaminated food and water D. Saliva and secretion from the nose
23. A bacterium divides every minute and takes an hour to fill a cup, How much time will it take to fill half the cup? A. * 15 minutes B. 30 minutes C. 59 minutes D. 60 minutes
24. Which of the following plant diseases is not a bacterial disease? A. Brown rot of potatoes B. Citrus canker C. * Heart rot of beets D. Red stripe of sugarcane
25. The two diseases that most often kill AIDS victims are. 1. 2. 3. 4.
Kaposi’s sarcoma Lymphangioma Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia Systemic Lupus erythromatosus
A. 1 and 2 B. 2 and 3 C. * 1 and 3 D. 3 and 4
26. The leaf blight of paddy is caused by. A. * Bacteria B. Virus C. Nematodes D. Fungus
27. Which one of the following is a viral disease transmitted to man by the bite rabid animals particularly dogs? A. Cholera B. Plague C. Malaria D. * Rabies
28. Consider the following statements and select your answer from the choice s that follow. I. The patient’s nerves are damaged by polio II. Tetanus is caused by virus A. Both are correct B. II alone is correct C. * I alone is correct D. Both are wrong
29. To which group of organisms do viruses belong? A. Actinomycetes B. Cyanobacteria C. Protozoa D. * None of these
30. AIDS is caused by the organisms which are. A. Bacteria B. Fungi C. * Viruses (HTLV III) D. Protozoa
31. The scientists in list I were awarded Nobel Prize for their outstanding discoveries given in list II. Match the discoveries with the scientists and select the correct answer given below the list. List (I) (A) H. Krebs (B) M. Mitchell (C) W. M Stanley (D) M. Calvin
List (II) (1) Chemiosmotic hypotheses (2) Crystallization hypotheses (3) Citric Acid Cycle (4) C3 Cycle
A. A − 2,B − 3,C − 1,D − 4 B. * A − 3,B − 1,C − 2,D − 4 C. A − 4,B − 3,C − 2,D − 1 D. A − 1,B − 3,C − 4,D − 2
32. What is the bacterial disease in lime fruits? A. Phytophthora B. White rust
C. * Citrus canker D. Smut disease
33. What is responsible for diphtheria and influenza? A. Virus and bacteria respectively B. * Bacteria and virus respectively C. Bacteria D. Water pollution
Chapter 3 Respiration
1. The CO2 from the tissues is brought back to the lungs by. A. Plasma B. Erythrocytes C. * Both plasma and erythrocytes D. Thrombocytes
2. In man, the lungs are absorbed by the blood pigment. A. Haemoerythrin B. Haemocyanin C. * Haemoglobin D. Chlorocruorin
3. The outer surface of the lung is invested by. A. * Parietal pleura B. Visceral pleura C. Sero-mucous pleura D. Pulmonary pleura
4. The total capacity of lungs for accommodation is called. A. Tidal B. Complementary C. Supplementary D. * Vital capacity
5. The muscles that are responsible for the breathing are. A. Voluntary B. * Involuntary C. Cardiac D. Skeletal
6. O2 is required in. A. * Aerobic respiration B. Anaerobic respiration C. Not required in respiration D. None of these
7. In the snails, the aquatic respiration is effected by. A. Gills
B. Lungs C. * Ctenidium D. Air-tubes
8. The chest and abdominal cavities are separated by. A. Bone B. Membrane C. Cartilage D. * Diaphragm
9. In Earthworms and leeches, gaseous exchange takes place through. A. Nostrils B. * Skin C. Gills D. Lungs
10. The membranes that surround the lungs are called. A. Pericardium B. * Pieura C. Mucous membrane D. Mediastinum
11. When there is a decrease in the concentration of oxygen in the blood, the rate of breathing. A. Decreases B. * Increases C. Does not change D. Increases or decreases depending on the density of blood
12. The diaphragm assists respiration in. A. Fishes B. Frog C. * Man D. Birds
13. The respiratory center of the cell is. A. Mitochondria B. Chromosomes C. * Plastids D. Golgi complex
14. Exposure to carbon monoxide (from coal gas) is extremely dangerous and can kill a patient because. A. The compound carboxy-haemoglobin (COHb) it forms with haemoglobin
can gradually clot the blood resulting in circulatory failure B. COHb reduces the ability of blood to transport oxygen by rupturing a vast majority of erythrocytes C. * COHb is stable compound and thus deprives blood of its ability to transport oxygen D. COHb greatly modifies the structure of haemoglobin thus making it lose its affinity for oxygen
15. The inflammation of the respiratory path causes. A. Thrombosis B. * Bronchitis C. Cataract D. Sneezing
16. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists. List I (A) Food poisoning (B) Stuff of life (C) Oxyhaemoglobin (D) Glycolysis A. A − 4,B − 2,C − 5,D − 1 B. * A − 2,B − 3,C − 4,D − 1
List II (1) Anaerobic breakdown of glucose (2) Botulinism (3) Proteins (4) Scarlet-red compound
C. A − 4,B − 2,C − 3,D − 2 D. A − 3,B − 4,C − 2,D − 1
17. Breathing through the nose is better because. A. Breathing through the mouth is difficult B. * Nasal passage is longer and the air gets warmed up till it reaches the lungs C. Nose has been made for the purpose of breathing D. None of these
18. Diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract to help. A. * Inspiration B. Expiration C. Digestion D. Absorption
19. The voulum of air moving in and out of lungs during normal breathing is called. A. Residual B. * Tidal air C. Vital copacity D. Supplemental air
20. The final product of anaerobic respiration is. A. Methanol B. Pyruvate C. * Ethanol D. Starch
21. Aquatic mammals breathe through their. A. Gills B. Skin C. * Nostrils D. Tail
22. The rate of breathing is affected by the content of which gas? A. O2 B. * CO2 C. N2 D. A mixture of all these
23. The cellular energy is made available in the form of. A. Calories B. * ATP
C. Meat D. Light
24. What are the respiratory organs for scorpions? A. Gills B. Trachea C. Lungs D. * Book lungs
25. The function of larynx which is placed above the trachea is to. A. * Produce sound B. Absorb O2 C. Sent out CO2 D. Prevent dust
Chapter 4 Plant Kingdom
1. The pollen grains in plants are produced in plants are produced in the. A. * Anther B. Carpel C. Ovary D. Ovule
2. A spore is. A. A commonly used medicine for cultivating bacteria B. A common seaweed found in tropical regions C. * A reproductive unit of plants, protozoa and bacterias D. A pore in the human skin
3. The materialistic tissues are composed of. A. * Mature cells B. Immature cells C. Permanent cells D. None of these
4. The horizontal underground stem of the Curcuma plant is called. A. * Rhizome B. Corm C. Bulb D. Runner
5. Radish is a. A. Bulb B. Corm C. * Modified root D. Tuber
6. The germination of bean seed is said to be epigeal germination because. A. The leaves are born outside the soil B. The roots do not come out of the soil C. * With cotyledons are brought out of the soil D. The roots come out of the soil
7. Double fertilization is a special feature of. A. * Angiosperms
B. Ferns C. Gymnosperms D. Mosses
8. A true fruit develops from the. A. Anther B. Carpel C. * Ovary D. Ovule
9. A grain of wheat is. A. Embryo B. Seed C. Fruit D. * Seed and fruit
10. Hypogeal germination is found in. A. Castor B. Onion C. Bean D. * Bengal gram
11. Dichotomous branching refers to the branching of a plant into. A. Four B. Three C. * Two D. Many branches
12. Pollination means. A. Development of pollen grains in flowering plants B. Germination of pollen grains on the stigma C. Transfer of pollen grains from the stigma of one flower to another flower by wind water insects or some other agency D. * Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of the same/different plant
13. Plantain is. A. A tree B. An annual herb C. * A perennial herb D. A shrub
14. Which one of the following is not a fruit? A. Coconut
B. * Chilgoza C. Mango D. Wheat grain
15. The red rust of tea is caused by. A. A bacterium B. Fungus C. * Green alga D. Virus
16. Litmus is obtained from. A. An alga B. A bacterium C. A fungus D. * Lichen
17. Some plants flower only once in their lifetime. They are called. A. * Monocarpic B. Monogamous C. Monogenic D. Monomorphic
18. Smallest flowering plant is. A. Raffesia B. Polyalthia C. * Wolffia D. Chlaymydomonas
19. What are the sites of bacteria in leguminous plants for fixing nitrogen? A. Leaves B. * Root nodules C. Root hairs D. Stem
20. Tomato brinjal, potato, tobacco, petunia and night jasmine belong to. A. * The same plant family B. Two plant families C. Three plant families D. Five plant families
21. It has been demonstrated that even mature plant cells, when freed from others, are able to develop into new plants. This phenomenon is called. A. Apogamy
B. Parthenogenesis C. Somatogenesis D. * Totipotency
22. The male part of a flower is called. A. * Androecium B. Calyx C. Thalamus D. Gynoecium
23. Most higher plants are incapable of making use of free atmospheric nitrogen and therefore have to be supplied with costly nitrogenous groups of plants is capable of fixing atmospheric nitrogen thus enriching the soil. Identify this group. A. Grasses B. * Legumes C. Sedges D. Orchids
24. Which one of the following bears the smallest seeds? A. Grasses B. Legumes C. * Orchids
D. Sedges
25. All higher plants and animals are diploids i. e they have two sets of chromosomes in their body cells. The such plants can develop even from mature pollen grains (haploids) was first demonstrated by. A. * Guha and Maheshwari B. Johri and Maheshwari C. Skoog and Miller D. F. C Steward
26. Fruits infested with larvae of pests, imported from abroad are more dangerous in Pakistan than in the country of their origin since. A. They will cause afforestation B. They cannot be eliminated in Pakistan C. * Natural predators with prey on them are not available in Pakistan D. They are likely to transmit exotic diseases to the crops in Pakistan
27. The smallest living cell is that of a. A. Bacterium B. Bread mold C. * Mycoplasm D. Virus
28. Which of the following spices is obtained from flower buds? A. * Clove B. Cumin C. Nutmeg D. Coriander
29. Nori has been a favorite Japanese food centuries This is prepared/obtained from. A. A green alga B. * A red alga C. Sea weeds D. Rice starch
30. Seeds can best be preserved in. A. * Cool and dry conditions B. Cool and wet conditions C. Hot and dry conditions D. Hot and wet conditions
31. To which group of plants does the Banyan tree belong? A. * Angiosperms B. Gymnosperms
C. Pteridophytes D. Phaeophyta
32. The plants bearing both male and female flowers is called. A. Bisexual B. Dioecious C. * Monoecious D. Monoecious
33. Earliest classification of plants is attempted by. A. Carl Linnaeus B. * Oswald Tippo C. Theophrastus D. Jussein
34. A tissue primarily concerned with the formation of new cells is called. A. Collenchyma B. * Parenchyma C. Floral organ D. Meristem
35. The fusion of a male gamete with an egg is called.
A. Conjugation B. Copulation C. Syngamy D. * Triple fusion
36. Agar, commonly used as a synthetic growth medium and in bakery is obtained from. A. * Algae B. Mosses C. Cycas D. Pine
37. The food in albuminous seeds is stored in. A. Cotyledons B. * Endosperm C. Testa D. Plumule
38. Some plants develop fruits without fertilization This phenomenon is called. A. Apocarpy B. * Apogamy
C. Parthenocarpy D. Syncarpy
39. In some arctic and alpine regions, the snow appears red, This, red snow, phenomenon is caused by. A. Fluorescence B. Growth of a red -flowered plant C. * Growth of an alga D. Reflection of red light
40. There are twenty chromosomes in a somatic cell of maize. Compare the chromosome numbers given below with the organ of the maize plant. 1. 2. 3. 4.
Endosperm 30 Pollen grains 10 Root 30 Leaf 20
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched? A. 1, 2 and 3 B. * 1, 2 and 4 C. 2 and 4 D. Only 4
41. Vivipary is defined as germination. A. During storage
B. * Within the fruit C. With cotyledons coming out of the soil D. With cotyledons remaining inside the soil
42. if in a cell there are multiples of chromosomes than the normal specified number it is termed. A. Aneuploid B. * Polyploid C. Genome D. Diploid
43. Some flowering plants produce allergenic pollen grains. Which of the following is/are such plants? A. Congress grass B. Fat hen (bathu) C. Spiny Amaranth D. * All of the above
44. That potato is a modified stem is explained by the presence of. A. Branches B. Leaves C. Buds
D. * Scale leaves and axillary buds
45. To which of the following families do all pulses belong? A. Cruciferae B. * Leguminosae C. Malvaceae D. Ranunculaceae
46. Flame of the forest refers to. A. A lady with flame in her hands found in the forest B. * A forest full of trees which burst with red flowers during autumn C. A fire always found in some jungles D. The title of a book
47. Leather shoes are often covered by patches of a greenish fluffy mass during the rainy season, if unattended for sometime. This is due to the growth of a. A. Bacterium B. Blue green alga C. Green alga D. * Fungus
48. The unicellular algae which is used in space programme to regulate the
supply of oxygen is. A. Spirogyra B. * Chlorella C. Codium D. Chlamydomonas
49. A herbarium is. A. A collection of herbs dried form B. A garden with a varied collection of herbs C. A garden with a collection of medicinal herbs D. * A center for the preservation of dried specimen of plants
50. A mature living cell without a nucleus is. A. Sieve cell B. * Sieve tube C. Companion cell D. Vessel
51. The part that germinates and grows first in a seed is. A. Plumule B. * Radicle
C. Cotyledons D. Epicotyle
52. The largest sperms among plants are found in. A. Ferns B. * Gymnosperms C. Legumes D. Mosses
53. When xylem has phloem on its two sides the vascular bundle is known as. A. Collateral B. * Bicollateral C. Endarch D. Exarch
54. The stem of water plants usually have. A. * A water developed aerenchyma B. A well developed stomatal system C. A well developed vascular system D. A well developed root system
55. Tunica corpus theory explains the organization of.
A. Root apex B. * Shoot apex C. Floral organs D. None of these
56. Sclerenchymatous sheath is present in vascular bundles of. A. Dicot stem B. * Moncot stem C. Dicot root D. Monocot root
57. Grafting is not possible in monocots because. A. * Monocots lack cambium B. Monocots have scattered vascular bundles C. Monocots have parallel venation D. Monocots are herbaceous
58. The calyptrogen of root apex forms. A. Root hair B. Root nodule C. * Root cap
D. Rhizoids
59. Sulphur shower is. A. Discharge of large quantities of Crous (yellow kesar) pollen grains into the air B. * Discharge of large quantities of Pinus pollen grains into the air forming yellowish clouds. C. Release of a large amount of sulphur particles into the air from factories processing sulphur D. Release of a large amount of sulphur particles into the air near sulphur mines
60. Angiosperms are less adapted to. A. Desert condition B. Fresh water C. * Marine water D. Swamps
61. Which of the following spices is obtained from roots? A. Cinnamon B. Clove C. Turmeric D. * None of the above
62. Red tides have often visited West Coast of Florida resulting in the death of hundreds of million of fish Such tides are caused by. A. Red algae B. * Red dinoflagellates C. Red-coloured industrial effluents D. Red-coloured pigment of blue-green algae
63. When male and female flowers are borne on different plants, the plant is said to be. A. Bisexual B. * Dioecious C. Dichlamydeous D. Monoceious
64. From which part of the plant is turmeric, a commonly used colourant and antiseptic obtained? A. Root B. * Stem C. Fruit D. Flower
65. Polyploid wheat does not normally show an increase in.
A. Size B. Vigour C. * Length of life cycle D. Resistance to disease
66. A plant or plant organ/cell having half the number of chromosomes than a normal body cell is called. A. Aneuploid B. * Haploid C. Haplont D. Monosomic
67. Wheat, barley lemon, orange rye and pearl millet belong to. A. * Two plant families B. Three plant families C. Four plant families D. The same plant family
68. The branch of botany that deals with fungi is known as. A. * Mycology B. Phycology C. Embryology
D. Microbiology
69. Dead wood is obtained from. A. Pteridophytes B. * Gymnosperms C. Angiosperms D. Bryophytes
70. Give the chronological sequence in which the following plant groups originated? I. Angiosperms II. Gymnosperms III. Fungi IV. Fern A. I, II, III, IV B. I, II, IV, III C. * III, IV, II, I D. III, II, I, IV
71. Coleo is the covering of. A. Dicot plumule B. Monocot plumule C. Dicot radicle
D. * Monocot radicle
72. Consider the following statements about pollination. 1. The transfer of pollen grains from the anther to ovules in the same flower or different flowers is called pollination 2. The pollination by wind is called anemophil 3. Pollination by birds is known as omithophily 4. Pollination is a prerequisite for seed and fruit development in all flowering plats 5. Seeds may develop in some water ferns without pollination Which of the above statements are correct? A. 1, 2 and 5 B. 2, 3 and 5 C. * 2 and 3 D. 1, 2, 3 and 5
73. Taxonomy is a science dealing with the. A. Classification of all living organisms B. Classification of plants C. * Identification nomenclature and classification of all living organisms D. Structure and function of living organisms
74. In dicot root. A. Vascular bundles are scattered and are with cambium
B. Xylem is always enlarged C. * Xylem and phloem are radially arranged D. Vascular bundles are arranged in a ring and have cambium
75. A liverwort is. A. An animal parasite infecting the liver B. * A land plant without differentiating into root, stem, and leaves C. A kind of bacterium infecting the liver D. A plant with its flowers shaped like the human liver
76. Lichen is a symbiotic association between an alga and which one of the following? A. A bacterium B. * Fungus C. Liverwort D. Fern
77. The association between leguminous plants and bacteria is. A. Parasitic B. Saprophytic C. * Symbiotic D. None of the above
78. Which one of the following tissues in plants is responsible for forming various other types of calls? A. Fundamental B. Protective tissues C. * Meristematic tissues D. Conducting tissues
79. The first leaves of the castor seedling are different from other leaves because. A. * They are only the cotyledons B. They do not perform the activities of leaves C. They are not homologous with leaves D. They are differently shaped
80. Sugarcane, sugarbeet sweetpea, chickpea pigeonpea and french bean belong to. A. Two plant families B. * Three plant families C. Four plant families D. The same plant family
81. Which one of the following is a true fruit?
A. Apple B. Cashewnut C. Pineapple D. * Coconut
82. Seeds require for their germination. A. Air B. Water C. Viability D. * All of the above
83. The dry fruit Chilgoza is obtained from. A. Cycas B. Deodar C. Cyprus D. * Pine
84. Epigeal germination is met within the case of. A. Date B. Bengal gram C. Maize
D. * Bean
85. Fat is present in large quantities in the tissue of which of the following. A. Embryo of pea B. * Endosperm of coconut C. Fibres of cotton D. Tuber of potato
86. Insect pollination is known as. A. Hydrophily B. Ornithophily C. Anemophily D. * Entomphily
87. Which of the following cells helps in storing water and food material? A. Nematoblasts B. * Flame cell C. Parenchymatous cell D. None of these
88. Plants are killed in winter by frost. A. * Because of dessication and mechanical damage to the tissues
B. Because no photosynthesis takes place at such low temperature C. Because respiration ceases at such low temperature D. Because there is no transpiration
89. The corn is an underground stem that grows. A. Horizontally B. * Vertically C. Above the soil D. Obliquely
90. The plant that is dispersed with the help of water is. A. Mango B. * Coconut C. Teak D. Paddy
91. Which one of the following plants has the largest flower? A. Chrysanthemum B. * Rafflesia C. Sunflower D. Zinnia
Chapter 5 Nervous System
1. The involuntary muscles are controlled by the. A. Cerebrum B. Cerebellum C. * Medulla oblongata D. Pons
2. Conduction of stimulus along the nerve when it gets excited is. A. Chemical B. Thermal C. * Electrical D. Mechanical
3. The number of cranial nerves in frogs is. A. 7 pairs B. 8 pairs C. * 10 pairs D. 12 pairs
4. The hypoglossal nerves are the _____ of the spinal nerves. A. * First pair B. Second pair C. Third pair D. Fourth pair
5. Which one of the following acts as a communication system? A. Blood B. * Nerve C. Lymph D. Enzymes
6. The thermoregulatory centre in the human brain is the. A. Pituitary B. Spinal cord C. Cerebellum D. * Hypothalamus
7. The axon fibre is insulated with. A. * Myelin sheath
B. Sarcolemma C. Protein D. Lipid
8. The external ears of man are intended for. A. Ornaments B. Scattering sound waves C. * Collecting sound waves D. Beauty
9. The number of cranial nerves in man is. A. 8 pairs B. 10 pairs C. * 12 pairs D. 15 pairs
10. What is the colour of the outer portion of the spinal cord? A. Gray B. Brown C. * White D. Yellow
11. We lose consciousness if blood flow to the brain is cut off, for more than. A. 2 sec B. * 5 sec C. 15 to 20 sec D. 5 min
12. The part of the eye behind the lens is filled with. A. Aqueous humor B. * Vitreous humor C. Lymph D. Blood
13. Grey matter consists of. A. A large number of neurons B. * A large number of nerve cell bodies C. A large number of nerve fibres D. Neuroglia
14. Brain and the spinal cord are invested by connective tissue called. A. Arachnoid B. Pleural membrane
C. * Meninges D. None of the above
15. Nissl’s granules inside the nerve cell are made of. A. DNA B. Proteins C. * RNA D. Carbohydrates
16. While swallowing a tablet of chloroquin, one experiences its bitter when it accidentally comes in contact with the. A. Tip of the tongue B. Side of the tongue C. Centre of the tongue D. * Back of the tongue
17. The nerve messages enter the cell through the. A. * Dendrite B. Axon C. Cyton D. Synapse
18. All or none law is observable in. A. Blood B. Lymph C. * Nerve D. Bone
19. The cavities of the brain are filled with. A. Blood B. Lymph C. Water D. * Cerebrospinal fluid
20. The centres for balancing and hearing lie respectively, in the. A. Cochlea and semicircular canals B. * Semicircular canals and cochlea C. Semicircular canals and middle-ear bones D. Cochlea and middle-ear bones
21. Memory is the responsibility of. A. * Cerebrum B. Cerebellum
C. Medulla obongata D. Spinal cord
22. What is the other name for the brain? A. Myelon B. * Encephalon C. Cephalon D. All of the above
23. The proper order of our ear ossicles in. A. * Malleus, Incus, Stapes B. Incus, Malleus, Stapes C. Stapes, Incus, Malleus D. Incus, Stapes, Malleus
24. Which one of the following is poorly developed in a frog? A. * Cerebellum B. Cerebrum C. Optic capsule D. Diencephalon
25. The part of the brain which is responsible for intelligence is.
A. * Cerebrum B. Opthalmic C. Cochlea D. Semicircular canals
26. The iter lies in. A. The second ventricle B. The third ventricle C. * Between third and fourth ventricle D. The fourth ventricle
27. The chemical found at the synapse or nerve junction is. A. Adrenaline B. Enzyme C. * Acetylcholine D. Epinephrine
28. When dust gets into the eye, the part that become inflamed is the. A. Cornea B. Choroid C. * Conjuctiva
D. Sclerotic
29. Eye in an organ that can be called as. A. Phonoreceptor B. Thigmoreceptor C. * Photoreceptor D. Rheoreceptor
30. Optic nerve is. A. Motor nerve B. Mixed nerve C. * Sensory nerve D. None of the above
31. The cerebellum. A. Contains the pons B. Controls the release of melatonin C. * Controls coordination D. Controls the vital function of respiration and circulation
32. Which is the longest cranial nerve in the body? A. Opic
B. Opthalmic C. Mandibular D. * Vagus
33. A pungent odour or the smell of a fine perfume is interpreted in the brain in the. A. Cerebrum B. Cerebral hemispheres C. * Temporal cortex D. Cerebellum
34. The control centers that regulate hunger, water balance and body temperature are located in the. A. Pons B. Medulla oblongata C. Thalamus D. * Hypothalamus
35. The sense organs that perceive senses from the outer world are called. A. Entero receptors B. Proprioceptors C. * Extero receptors
D. Phonoreceptors
36. Which cells make up the insulation of nerve fibre? A. * Schwann cells B. Epinelial cells C. Connective tissue cells D. Columnar cells
37. The transparent part of the eye that is in front is called. A. Retina B. Choroid layer C. * Cornea D. Iris
38. A person will have brown eyes, blue eyes or black eyes depending upon the particular pigments present in the. A. Cornea B. Choroid C. * Iris D. Vitreous body
39. The cortex of human brain normally consists of.
A. Five billion two hundred million cells B. * Nine billion, two hundred million cells C. Six billion, two hundred million cells D. Eight billion, two hundred million cells
40. The grey matter of the brain is so coloured because of the concentration of. A. * Nerve cells B. A pigment C. Nerve fibres D. Melanin
41. Which type of movements occur without participation of brain? A. Cranial reflexes B. Afferent reflexes C. Efferent reflexes D. * Spinal reflexes
42. Olfactory receptors are placed in. A. Brain B. Spinal cord C. * Nasal chamber
D. Cranial nerves
43. Which of the following is the largest part of the human brain? A. Cerebellum B. Midbrain C. * Cerebrum D. Medulla oblongata
44. The cavities inside the brain are called. A. Auricles B. * Ventricles C. Atria D. Vacuoles
45. The medulla oblongata encloses the. A. Optic lobe B. Optic capsule C. Second ventricle D. * Fourth ventricle
46. Myopia is otherwise known as. A. Long sight
B. Night blindness C. * Short sight D. Blindness
47. A person, who met with an accident was partially paralysed and lacked a sense of feeling after treatment. Which part of the nervous system was affected by the accident? A. The left cerebral hemisphere was damaged B. * The spinal cord seemed damaged C. The olfactory lobes seemed to have become defective D. The oculomotor nerve seemed damaged
48. The part of the ear involved in balancing is. A. Utriculus B. Sacculu C. Cochlea D. * Semicircular canals
49. The part of the brain in control of voluntary muscles is. A. Cerebellum B. Medulla oblongata C. Pons
D. * Cerebrum
50. Axon is that part of a nerve cell which appears as a. A. Short branch B. * Long branch C. Granule D. Central body
51. The part of the human brain concerned with sight is the. A. Frontal lobe B. Parietal lobe C. Temporal lobe D. * Occipital lobe
52. The nerve cells can be stimulated by. A. Mechanical stimuli B. Chemical stimuli C. Electrical stimuli D. * All of the above
53. The tear glands help up in. A. Sobbing
B. Protecting the eye C. Preventing dust D. * Providing a clean moist surface
54. The ramus communications of the spinal nerves. A. Joins the parasympathetic chain B. * Joins the sympathetic chain C. Remains independent D. Joins brachial plexus
55. Cranial nerves except one pair end in sense organs or the head. Which is that pair? A. First pair B. Fourth pair C. Seventh pair D. * Tenth pair
56. The thickened wall of each cerebral hemisphere is called. A. Olfactory wall B. Pallium C. * Corpus striatum D. No thick wall
57. The equilibrium and coordination is looked after by. A. Cerebrum B. Medulla oblongata C. * Cerebellum D. Olfactory lobes
58. The arachnoid membrane cocers the. A. Spinal cord B. Optic lobes C. * Inner surface of dura mater D. Pia mater
59. The olfactory area is concerned with. A. * Smell B. Sight C. Hearing D. Speech
60. Colour vision is made possible by the cells in the retina called. A. Rods
B. * Cones C. Fovbea D. Blind spot
61. Encephalites occur when. A. There is excessive cerebrospinal fluid B. A person suffers a stroke C. The basal ganglia are damaged D. * The meninges of the brain become inflamed
62. The ninth cranial nerve, the glossopharyngeal is. A. Sensory nerve B. Motor nerve C. * Mixed nerve D. None of these
63. Just after a fever, our sense of taste is affected because. A. Taste buds are dead B. * Taste buds are covered C. Fever destroys sense of taste D. The nerves do not function
64. The brain is covered by. A. Meninges B. Bone C. Skin D. * All of the above
65. The rate and force of the heartbeat the secretion of glands of the alimentary tract and the contraction of involuntary muscles are controlled by the. A. Central nervous system B. Spinal nerves C. Caranial nerves D. * Autonomic nervous system
66. Brain receives and sends signals in the form of. A. * Electrical impulses B. Mechanical impulses C. Chemical impulses D. Magnetic impulses
67. Phonoreceptor refers to the perception of. A. Light
B. * Sound C. Touch D. Smell
Chapter 6 Genetic And Mendel’s Law of Heredity
1. Sugar present in the nucleotides is. A. Hexose sugar B. * Pentose sugar C. No sugar D. None of the above
2. Genetic engineering is the most recent and potent technique developed to improve plants animals. This means. A. Modifying the genes of an organism by various mutagenic agents B. * Modifying the genotype of an organism by in vitro manipulations involving the linking of two DNA molecules C. Linking two DNA molecules by in vivo gene manipulations D. Transferring genes from one organism to another through in vivo manipulations
3. Rate of mutation can be increased by. A. Hormones B. I. A. A
C. * Radiation D. Grafting
4. The specialized cell types having extremely long lives extremely long lives with their inability to undergo mitosis and which get replaced following an injury are. 1. 2. 3. 4.
Skeletal muscle cells Cardiac muscles cells Lymphocytes Nerve cells
A. 1 and 2 B. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2, 3 and 4 D. * 1, 2 and 4
5. Which is the correct chronological order? 1. 2. 3. 4.
Mendel’s laws of inheritance Darwin’s theory of evolution Blood circulation by Harvey De Vries theory of mutation
A. 1, 2, 3, 4 B. 4, 2, 3, 1 C. 2, 4, 1, 3 D. * 3, 2, 1, 4
6. Which fungus was of great use in finding out genetic principles? A. Mucor B. * Neurospore C. Agaricus D. Penicillium
7. When tall Red plant is crossed with dwarf white plant, the F2 generation tall red and dwarf white will occur in the ratio of. A. 3:1 B. * 9:1 C. 3:3 D. 1:9
8. An exception to Mendel’s Laws is. A. Purity of gametes B. Dominance C. Independent assortment D. * Linkage
9. The genotypic ratio in the F2 generation in a monohybrid cross will be. A. 3:1 B. * 9:1
C. 3:3 D. 1:9
10. A white woman marries a black man. They have four children-2 sons and 2 daughters What proportion of these children is likely to be black? A. 25% B. 50% C. 100% D. * None
11. Match the following. List I (A) Hargobind Khorana (B) Watson and Crick (C) Gregor Mendel (D) Landsteiner
List II (1) Laws of Heredity (2) Blood groups (3) Working model of synthetic gene (4) Double helix DNA
A. * A − 3,B − 4,C − 1,D − 2 B. A − 1,B − 3,C − 4,D − 2 C. A − 4,B − 2,C − 1,D − 3 D. A − 3,B − 1,C − 4,D − 2
12. Which of the following human disease/s is/are hereditary in nature?
A. Haemophilia B. Phenylketonuria C. Sickle-cell anaemia D. * All of the above
13. Sons of a colour blind woman are always colour blind but not the daughters This suggests that. A. Fewer sex chromosomes are transferred to the daughters B. Sex chromosomes are transferred only from mother to son C. Sex is determined by the mother D. * Sex linked characters find immediate expression in man
14. A pair of chromosomes determines sex in human beings and, therefore these chromosomes are called sex chromosomes What is the name given to the other chromosomes? A. * Autosomes B. Heterosomes C. Polysomes D. Spherosomes
15. Who coined the term gene? A. Mendel B. Hugo De Vries
C. Jacob and Mendel D. * Johannson
16. Two tall plants, each being a hybrid and carrying a recessive factor for dwarfness are crossed What proportion of thier offspring will be dwarf? A. 50% B. * 25% C. 75% D. 100%
17. Mendel chose for his experiments the plant. A. Bean B. * Pea C. Cucumber D. Rose
18. The cell undergoing a reduction division is called. A. Germ cell B. * Meiocyte C. Meiospore D. Oocyte
19. Sex-linked genes are carried by. A. X Chromosomes B. Y Chromosomes C. * Different parts of X and Y chromosomes D. Autosomes
20. The science of heredity was called Genetics by. A. Gregor Mendel B. C. Correns C. H. J Muller D. * W. Bateson
21. What is epistasis? A. * The gene which masks the effect of non-allelic gene B. An undesirable defective gene C. The gene which fails to express itself in the presence of non allelic genes D. All of above
22. That genes control heredity through their control on enzymes synthesis and that one gene controls the synthesis of one enzyme _____ the, one gene one enzyme hypothesis _____ was proposed by. A. * Beadle and Tatum
B. Darwin C. Mendel D. Morgan
23. What is atavism? A. The genes which show numerous phenotypic effects B. * Reappearance of traits after several generation C. Effects of mutation D. Intermediate inheritance of genes
24. Which one of the following Laws of Mendel could be arrived at only by a dihybrid cross. A. Law of dominance B. Law of purity of gametes C. Law of segregation D. * Law of independent assortment
25. A male child is born to parents only when. A. * The genetic composition of the child includes XY combination of ohromosomes B. The genetic composition of the child includes XX combination of chromosomes C. Rh factors of the parents are positive
D. Rh factors of the parents are negative
26. A lot of information about linkage in genetics has been obtained by researches on the organism. A. Oenothera B. Escherichia coli C. Pisum D. * Drosphila
27. Mutation is. A. A factor responsible for plant growth B. A change which affects the offsprings F generation only 2
C. * A change that is inherited D. A change which affects the parents only but is never inherited
28. Mutation could be created by X-rays This was found by. A. * Muller B. Morgan C. Meyer D. Flemming
29. Test cross is a cross between.
A. F generation 1
B. * F hybrid with a recessive parental type 1
C. F with dominant parental type 2
D. F generation 2
30. The theory of jumping genes was propounded by. A. Gregor Johann Medel B. Thomas Hunt Morgan C. * Barbara McClintock D. Watson and Crick
31. During protein synthesis a particular kind of RNA acts as an intermediary between DNA and ribosomes. This is. A. * m-RNA B. r-RNA C. t-RNA D. Cytoplasmic RNA
32. Human skin colour is believed to be controlled by at least. A. * 3 genes B. 4 genes C. 5 genes
D. 6 genes
33. Consider the following discoveries in life sciences. 1. 2. 3. 4.
Principal Nucleus DNA as the genetic material Light essential for the photosynthesis
The correct chronological sequence of these discoveries is. A. 2, 3, 1, 4 B. 1, 2, 4, 3, C. * 4, 2, 1, 3 D. 2, 1, 3, 4
34. In which one of the following is sex determined by environment? A. * Bonnelia B. Honeybee C. Maize D. Papaya
35. External manifestation of characters helps one to identify only the. A. * Phenotype B. Genotype C. Mutation
D. Genes
36. Normal monohybrid cross yields in the F2 generation, a ratio of 3:1 In some cases the ratio is found to be 2:1 Itis due to. A. Mistake in crossing B. Incomplete dominance C. * Lethal genes D. Recessive genes
37. Which of the following human disease/s is/are controlled by heredity? A. * Alkaptonuria B. Leukemia C. Anaemia D. All of the above
38. There are forty -six chromosomes in a normal human body cell. Compare the chromosome numbers given below with the special structure in the human body. 1. 2. 3. 4.
Ovum 23 Sperm 46 Kidney cells 46 Urinary bladder 23
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched? A. 1, 2 and 4
B. 2, 3 and 4 C. * 1 and 3 D. 1, 3 and 4
39. A test cross is one which is made to determine the. A. Phenotype B. * Genotype C. Purity D. Resistance
40. The science of improving the hereditary qualities of future generation of mankind is referred to as. A. Genetics B. * Eugenics C. Epigenesis D. Epistasis
41. The molecules responsible for storing the genetic code are. A. * DNA B. RNA C. Proteins D. Chromosomes
42. The number of chromosomes in a normal human body cells is. A. 43 B. 44 C. 45 D. * 46
43. Organisms which have similar external appearance with reference to a particular character are called. A. Analogous B. Homologous C. Phenocopies D. * Phenotypes
44. If a mouse over eight times of its normal size has been produced by introducing human growth hormone gene, the technique involved is called. A. Hybridization B. * Genetic engineering C. Mutation breeding D. Hormonal feeding
45. How many alleles in a given gene are possible?
A. 2 B. 4 C. 3 D. * Any number
46. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists. List I (A) Cell theory (B) Theory of natural selection (C) One gene one enzyme hypothesis (D) Chemiosmotic hypothesis
List II (1) P Mitchell (2) Beadle and Tatum (3) Schleiden and Schwann (4) Darwin
A. A − 2,B − 3,C − 4,D − 1 B. A − 3,B − 4,C − 1,D − 2 C. * A − 3,B − 4,C − 2,D − 1 D. A − 4,B − 1,C − 2,D − 3
47. Which one of the following approaches come under the category of biotechnology? A. * Use of living organisms or substances obtained from B. Modernising the commercial industries to produce products for use in biological research
C. Use of modern technology to investigate biological disorders D. Use of inductrial technology to increase the biosphere
48. The number of chromosomes in Turner’s Syndrome is. A. * 45 B. 43 C. 46 D. 47
49. Linked genes are present in. A. Different chromosomes B. * Same chromosomes C. Sex chromosomes D. Autosomes
50. In genetic engineering, a DNA segment of interest is joined to a small but complete DNA molecule that is capable of replicating itself This DNA molecule is referred to as. A. Plasmid B. Vector C. Cloning vehicle D. * Both b and c
51. Which of the following fungi has been extensively used for genetical studies? A. Bread mold B. Green mold C. * Pink bread mold D. Mushroom
52. Which one of the following represents a true heterozygous arrangement of genes? A. TT RR B. tt rr C. TT rr D. * Tr Rr
53. Mutation may cause. A. Polyploidy B. Chromosomal aberration C. Variation D. * All of the above
54. A gene which fails to express in the presence of non-allelic genes is. A. * Hypostasis
B. Pleotropy C. Aneuploidy D. Mutation
55. A colour blind person commonly has difficulty in seeing. A. All colours B. Red only C. * Red, green and pale tints D. Violet and blue
56. When White flowered F1 plants were crossed to pure red-flowered plants the progeny had all plants which were. A. White flowered B. * Red flowered C. Exhibiting 3 1 ratio of red to white flowered plants D. Exhibiting 1. 1 ration of red to white flowered plants
57. An organism that breeds true for a particular character producing identical gametes is called. A. Hemizygous B. Heterozgous C. Homogamous
D. * Homozygous
58. The International Centre for Genetic Engineering and Biotechnology established by the United Nation Organizations (UNO) is located at. A. * New Delhi B. Paris C. Tokyo D. Washington
59. A normal couple has five children, two of whom suffer from a somewhat uncommon genetic disorder that has, however appeared occasionally in this familial line. What kind of gene is involved in this case? A. Co-dominant B. Completely dominant C. * Completely recessive D. Incompletely dominant
60. The new techniques developed during the last few years have made it possible to produce an intergeneric hybrid between potato and tomato, the pomato through. A. Embryo culture B. Endosperm culture C. Genetic engineering D. * Protoplast culture
61. Mutation cannot be caused by one of the following. A. X-ray B. * Infrared ray C. Ultaviolet ray D. Gamma ray
62. If a boy’s father has haemophilia and his mother has one gene for it, what is the chance that the boy will inherit the disease? A. 100% B. 75% C. * 50% D. 25%
63. Gene, the basic unit of heredity, was first synthesized in the laboratory by. A. * Arthur Kornberg B. Johannson C. Gregor Johann Mendel D. Watson and Crick
64. Genes are arranged in the chromosomes.
A. In clusters B. In binary fashion C. * In linear fashion D. Scattered
65. There are 23 pairs of chromosomes in man, How many types of eggs can woman produce supposing that she is Heterozygous for each of her 23 pairs of chromosomes? A. 23 B. 46 C. 2. 3 million D. * 8. 4 million
66. Hereditary characters are carried to the next generation by. A. * Chromosomes B. Plastids C. Mitchondria D. Ribosomes
67. Eugenics is the application of genetics to improve. A. Crop plants B. Fruit trees
C. Cattle D. * Human beings
68. Successful fusion of somatic cells from man and mouse was first demonstrated by. A. A. Kornberg B. E. C Cocking C. * H. Harris D. R. Sinsheimer
69. In human beings, sex is determined by the sex chromosomes X and Y. What would, then be the genetic constitution of a normal woman? A. XO B. * XX C. XY D. YY
70. Genes control heredity in man and other organisms. This is. A. A bead like structure on the chromosomes B. A protein molecule C. A segment RNA D. * A segment of RNA and DNA
71. Some human disease sare genetically controlled was first established by. A. Gregor Mendel B. * A. E. Garrod C. Watson and Crick D. William Bateson
72. When two organisms are crossed with a view to study only one of their characters it is called. A. Dihybrid B. * Monohybrid C. Polyhybrid D. Back cross
73. Haemophilia is a hereditary disease carried by. A. Females and expressed by females B. * Females and expressed by males C. Males and expressed by females D. Males and expressed by males
74. Match the scientific discoveries in List I with the scientists in List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists.
List I (A) DNA structure (B) A B O Blood groups (C) Jumping genes (D) Regulatory genes
List II (1) Jacob and Monod (2) Barbara McClintock (3)Watson and Crick (4) Landsteiner
A. A − 2,B − 3,C − 4,D − 1 B. A − 1,B − 4,C − 3,D − 2 C. * A − 3,B − 4,C − 2,D − 1 D. A − 4,B − 2,C − 1,D − 3
75. Genes are made of. A. Carbohydrates B. Poteins C. Fats D. * Nucleotides
76. Tijo and Levan found out. A. Mutational changes B. Sex-linked genes C. * Number of chromosomes in the human cell D. Chromosomal aberrations
77. Rate of mutation in plants can be increased by. A. More manure B. More pesticides C. * X-ray D. Infrared rays
78. The sex of a child is determined by the. A. * Chromosomes of the father B. Chromosomes of the mother C. Rh factor of the parents D. Blood group of the father
79. In all of the Mendel’s experiments the alleles causing a trait were. A. * Dominant-recessive B. Co-dominant C. Co-recessive D. Incomplete dominant
80. Haploid chromosome number is not seen in. A. * Primary spermatocytes B. Spermatids
C. Sperms D. Spermatids and sperms
81. Body cells infected with virus produce a protein called. A. * Interferon B. Properdin C. Gamma globulin D. Hybridoma
82. Allosomes are chromosomes. A. In separate individuals B. In separate cells C. * Connected with sex D. Not connected with sex
83. What are oncogenes? A. Dominant genes B. * A set of genes which produce cancer C. Genes present in the X chromosomes causing haemophilia D. Recessive genes
84. What makes Mendel’s contribution so impressive is that he described the
basic patterns of inheritance before the mechanism for inheritance was even. A. * Discovered B. Believed C. Found D. Solved
85. Which of the following is normal human (male chromosomal constitution )? A. * 44+XY B. 44+ XXY C. XYY D. None of the above
86. The suggestion that the chromosomes are the carriers of hereditary material was first made by. A. Johannson B. Flemming C. * Sutton and Boveri D. Morgan
87. Who, amongst the following is regarded as the father of genetics? A. Robert Hooke
B. * Gregor Johann Mendel C. Charles Darwin D. Hugo De Vries
88. One inherited haploid set of chromosomes is called. A. * Genome B. Chromomere C. Karyotype D. None of the above
89. What is the chromosomes number in a human ovum? A. 24 B. 46 C. 48 D. * None of the above
90. An inherited characteristic which does not appear in one generation but can appear in the next is called. A. Dominant B. * Recessive C. Homozygous D. Heterozygous
91. A colur blind man is married to a normal visioned woman whose parents also had normal vision What proportion of their Children is likely to be colour blind? A. * 0 percent B. 25 percent C. 50 percent D. 100 percent
92. Which of the following statements is true? A. Colour blindness generally occurs in human males B. Night blindness generally occurs in human males C. Haemophilia generally occurs in human males D. * All of these
93. In a gamete there will be. A. One pair of sex chromosomes B. * Only one sex chromosome C. No sex chromosomes D. Only autosomes
94. Which of the following statements is wrong?
A. Discontinuous variations appear suddenly or accidentally B. Continuous variations are very common and they are caused due to environmental changes C. Mendel is known as the father of genetics D. * Genetics is the study of transmission of characters to the progeny from the parents and it is unrelated to evolution
Chapter 7 Ecology
1. Which one of the following does provide the best estimate of world’s biological diversity? Of about ten million species Of about thirty million living probably alive today, some 20 species some 50 are lost species are lost every day every day, most of them A. * Most of them unknown because no more than half a million have yet been actually identified by scientists B. unknown because no more than one million have been actually identified C. Of about forty-five million living species some 100 are lost every day most of them unknown because on more than 10 million have been actually identified D. Of about seventy-five million living species some 500 are lost every day most of them unknown because no more than 3 million have been actually identified
2. Nektons are those organisms. A. Which cannot be netted B. * Which are independent of tides and waves C. Which have long necks D. None of the above
3. The best example of an ecological community is. A. * A meadow B. An oak tree C. All the people in Lahore D. All the whales on Earth
4. Herbivores are called. A. Secondary consumers B. * Key industry animals C. Tertiary consumers D. Decomposers
5. Autecology deals with ecology of. A. * Single species B. Many species C. Community D. Area
6. Aquatic plants with floating leaves. A. Do not have stomata B. * Have stomata on both surfaces
C. Have stomata on lower surface D. Have stomata only on upper surface
7. Which of the following branches of science is concerned with the study of relationship of plants with their environment? A. Cytology B. * Ecology C. Morphology D. Physiology
8. Xerophytes are plants living in. A. Water B. Forests C. * Deserts D. Sea
9. The aphotic zone means that light is. A. Always present B. Present during day C. * Always absent D. Present during night
10. Light compensation zone refers to. A. Where light is available in plenty B. Where all light energy is used C. Where light is maximum D. * Beyond which light does not penetrate
11. Around the planet Earth, all living organisms form a. A. Biotic community B. Abiotic community C. * Biosphere D. None of the above
12. Green plants produce food by the. A. Holozoic method B. * Holophytic method C. Saprophytic method D. Parasitic method
13. The reaction between living and non-living in an ecosystem is known as. A. * Interaction B. Reaction
C. Communication D. Reversal
14. What are top carnivores? A. Biggest carnivores B. Tigers C. All carnivorous animals D. * Carnivores that are not eaten by any other animals
15. The Red Sea derives its name from the. A. Profuse growth of a red flowered plant B. Red bloom caused by a blue green alga C. Red bloom caused by a red alga D. * Red coloured effluents deposited in it
16. Phytoplanktons in a pond ecosystem are. A. * Autotrophs B. Heterotrophs C. Lithotrophs D. Osmotrophs
17. Primary producers are.
A. * Green plants B. Bacteria C. Protozoa D. Carnivores
18. Plants which are attached to the stones. A. Aerophytes B. Halophytes C. * Lithophytes D. Psammophytes
19. The nutrition in which food is devoured is called. A. * Holozoic B. Holophytic C. Saproprytic D. Parasitic
20. Which of the following is abiotic factor of environment? A. Temperature B. Sunlight C. Rainfall
D. * All of the above
21. A hydrophyte is. A. A marine animal B. * An aquatic animal C. A plant disease D. A rootless plant
22. What do you mean by lentic biota? A. * Plants and animals in lakes and ponds B. Plants and animals in forest C. Plants and animals in sea water D. Desert plants and animals
23. Ecology of a population is known as. A. * Demecology B. Synecology C. Autecology D. Space ecology
24. One way of checking the expansion of the Thar Desert would be. A. By digging canals
B. * Through afforestation C. Through artificial rains D. By constructing water reservoirs
25. Some plants feed upon insects for their nitrogen requirements. They are called insectivorous plants. Which of the following is such a plant? A. * Bladderwort B. Hornwort C. Liverwort D. Spiderwort
26. The energy relationships in an ecosystem can be studied with the help of. A. * Pyramid of energy B. Pyramid of biomass C. Pyramid of numbers D. None of the pyramids
27. Which one of the following strongly threatens biodiversity? A. Fragile ecosystem such as mangroves and wetlands B. Inaccessible habitats in the Himalayas C. * Destruction of natural habitats and vegetation and shifting cultivation D. Creation of biosphere reserves
28. Organisms that eat the excreta of other organisms are called. A. Autotroph B. Hetrotroph C. * Coprophagous D. Saprotroph
29. The most crucial event in nature governing nutrient balance is. A. Primary production B. Secondary production C. * Nutrient cycling D. Gross production
30. Timberline shows. A. A line of trees B. * The limit of the forest C. Annual rings D. Height of trees
31. What are mesophytes? A. Plants associated with organisms
B. Plants growing in water C. Plants growing on rocks D. * Plants growing under normal conditions
32. Biotic factors in an ecosystem are. A. Height and temperature B. Gravity and pressure C. * Living organisms D. Climate and rainfall
33. The mineral substances in the bodies of organisms are released to the environment by. A. Producers B. Consumers C. * Decomposers D. Parasites
34. Organisms, which make their own food are called. A. * Autotrophs B. Heterotrophs C. Saptrotrophs D. Auxotrophs
35. The functional unit in ecology. A. Organism B. Biosphere C. * Ecosystem D. Population
36. Aquaculture is the. A. Water portion of the biosphere B. Loss of water by plants C. * Use of water for farming D. Water content of organisms
37. A simple sequence in which the grass grows a cow eats the grass, a human cats the cow or drinks its milk an example of. A. * Food chain B. Food web C. Food eycla D. Pyramid
38. Population refers to. A. All the human beings living in a particular area
B. * All the animals, including man, living in a particular area C. All the organisms plants as well as animals living in a particular area D. Individuals of a particular species
39. ‘Niche’ refers to. A. Place of living B. Type of food C. * Place of living and type of food D. Food and movement
40. In very hot climate, one is likely to find. A. Organisms capable of hibernation B. * Organisms capable of aestivation C. Coke machines D. Short tailed deer
41. Organisms that live in the deep sea are mainly. A. Herbivores B. Carnivores C. * Detritivores D. None of the above
42. Organisms that take only raw plant products as their food are called. A. * Herbivorous B. Vegetarian C. Carnivorous D. Omnivorous
43. Plankton are. A. Large and sessile B. Small free swimming and sessile C. Large and fast swimming D. * Not capable of negotiating water currents
44. Which are producer organisms? A. Plants B. Animals C. * Organisms that can trap solar energy for photosynthesis D. Both plants and animals
45. An organism eating its own species is called. A. Carnivores B. Detritivore
C. * Cannibal D. Herbivore
46. The flow of energy in ecosystem is. A. * Unidirectional B. Bi-directional C. Multi-directional D. All of the above
47. Agroecologhy relates. A. Crops and productivity B. * Crops and environment C. Crop productivity and physiology D. Crop resistance to climatic changes
48. A small organism depending upon for its livelihood on a bigger organism is called. A. Prey B. Predator C. * Parasite D. Host
49. It is said that the spiders of the Himalayas are native to the highest territory higher than any animal of Earth Spiders are carnivores. Therefore, they must thrive by. A. Becoming herbivorous B. * Eating insects blown up the mountains by winds C. Adapting to the manufacture of organic materials from inorganic substances D. Making daily forays to lower altitudes
50. The part of aquatic medium which has a gradually declining temperature range is called. A. Epilimnion B. Hypolimnion C. * Thermocline D. Aphotic
51. An ecosystem consists of. A. * A living community and its environment B. All the plants and animals of an area C. Carnivores and herbivores of an area D. Producers, consumers and decomposers in a particular locality
52. The two most prevalent ions in the marine habitat are.
A. Na+, Mg++ B. * Na+, CI C. Na+, So. 4 D. K+, Cl-
53. What are halophytes? A. Plants found in fresh water B. * Plants growing in saline C. plants growing in sunlight D. Desert plants
54. Macro consumers are known as. A. Herbivores B. Carnivores C. Benthos D. * Phagotrophs
55. Which one of the following ecosystem is the largest in the world? A. Forests B. Rivers C. Deserts
D. * Oceans
56. The study of ecology with pyramids was invented by. A. Darwin B. * Elton C. Odum D. Joshua
57. A prairie is. A. * A grassland without trees B. A locality in Australia C. An area in South America on the side of River Amazon D. A kind of plant
58. Animals that take only dead flesh as their food are called. A. Herbivorous B. Carnivorous C. Omnivorous D. * Carrion eaters
59. Plants growing in sunlight are called. A. Sciophytes
B. * Hydrophytes C. Xerophytes D. Heliophytes
60. Bacteria utilising radiant energy to prepare food are. A. Chemosynthetic bacteria B. Heterotrophic bacteria C. * Photosynthetic bacteria D. Free living bacteria
Chapter 8 Circulatory System
1. A person with blood group AB is sometimes called a universal recipient because of. A. Lack of antigens B. * Lack of antibodies C. Lack of both antigens and antibodies D. The presence of antibodies
2. Blood from the right ventricle is sent to. A. * Pulmonary artery B. Pulmonary vein C. Vena cava D. Dorsal aorta
3. Phagocytes. A. Control blood pressure B. * Ingest foreign materials in blood C. Give colour to the blood
D. Control osmotic pressure
4. We hear the beating of heart of human beings on the left side because. A. It is a physiological phenomenon B. The left ventricle is toward the left side C. Air is passed only through the left side of the heart D. * The heart is on the left side
5. Clotting of blood is. A. * A chain reaction B. Reversible reaction C. Reflex action D. No reaction
6. Removal of calcium from freshly collected blood. A. Results clotting of blood B. Causes haemolysis of RBCs C. Prevents oxidation of haemoglobin D. * Prevents colotting of blood.
7. The rate of heart beat is accelerated by hormone. A. * Adrenaline
B. Acetycholine C. Thyroxine D. Prolactin
8. The natural defence of our body against foreign germs is formed by. A. Red blood corpuscles B. * White blood corpuscles C. Platelets D. Lymph
9. Monocytes are. A. Red blood corpuscles B. * White blood corpuscles C. Platelets D. Both red and white corpuscles
10. Valves are present inside. A. Arteries B. Capillaries C. * Heart D. Lymph vessels
11. Venous blood has the colour. A. Bright red B. * Purple C. Greenish red D. Blue
12. The rate at which the heart beats per minute in an adult averages. A. 60 B. * 72 C. 84 D. 96
13. Monocytes are formed in. A. Liver B. Spleen C. Bone marrow D. * All of the above
14. Each red corpuscle in man has. A. A single nucleus B. Two nuclei
C. Numerous nuclei D. * No nucleus
15. The erythrocytes originate from the. A. Chondroblasts B. Neuroblasts C. * Haemocytoblasts D. Scleroblasts
16. Which of the following act as soldiers in our body? A. * Leucocytes B. Erythrocytes C. Nerve cells D. Flame cells
17. Pace maker is. A. * Sinoauricular node B. Auriculo-ventricular node C. Bundle of His D. Purkinje fibres
18. Intravascular clotting of blood is known as.
A. Anaemia B. Leucopenia C. * Thrombosis D. Thrombin
19. The naturally occurring anticoagulant in the human blood is. A. Hirudin B. * Heparin C. Fibrinogen D. Serotonin
20. The grouping of blood is based on substance called. A. Antibodies B. * Antigens C. Antitoxin D. Enzymes
21. An obnormality in which heart valves become leaky and narrowed, reducing cardiac function may be due to. A. Atherosclerosis B. Atherosclerosis and smoking C. * Rheumatic fever
D. Coronary occlusion
22. The fluid of the transport system in insects is called. A. Blood B. Lymph C. * Haemolymph D. Endolymph
23. Blood pressure is measured by. A. Auxanometer B. Stethoscope C. * Sphygmomanometer D. Kaleidoscope
24. Very fast heart beat is called. A. Brachy cardia B. * Tachycardia C. Spasm D. Heart attack
25. pH of the blood remains constant due to. A. Absorption
B. Digestion C. * Buffer action D. Perspiration
26. Erythroblastosis foetalis is a disease affecting. A. Nerves B. Muscles C. * Blood corpuscles D. Lymph
27. Fibrinogen is present in. A. Lymph B. Liver C. * Blood plasma D. Pancreas
28. Normal adult human male has. A. 10 gm of haemoglobin/100 gm of blood B. * 14 gm of haemoglobin/100 gm of blood C. 18 gm of haemoglobin/100 gm of blood D. 24 gm of haemoglobin /100 gm of blood
29. Blood does not clot in the absence of Vitamin K because it is. A. An essential component of the clot B. An essential component of the platelets C. * Essential for synthesis of prothrombin D. Essential for synthesis of fibrinogen
30. The metallic part in haemoglobin is. A. Copper B. Molybdenum C. Nickel D. * Iron
31. Blood cancer is otherwise called. A. * Leukemia B. Leucoderma C. Leucopenia D. Erythrocemia
32. Blood clot inside blood vessels is prevented by. A. * Heparin B. Fibrinogen
C. Thrombin D. Prothrombin
33. Eosinophils are stained by. A. Alkaline dyes B. * Acidic dyes C. Neutral dyes D. Vital stains
34. Neutrophils are so called because. A. They do not perform any work B. They remain the same place C. * They are stained by neutral dyes D. They are neutral to enzymes
35. The muscles of the heart are. A. * Striated and involuntary B. Striated and voluntary C. Smooth and involuntary D. Smooth and voluntary
36. Embolus formation takes place inside.
A. Oesophagus B. Lymph vessels C. * Blood vessels D. Twice
37. What is an antigen? A. Toxic substance B. * A kind of protein C. Blood platelets D. Blood corpuscles
38. A man of AB blood group meets with a serious accident and requires blood transfusion Who among the following could donate blood to him? Relation 1 Wife 2 Son 3 Friend 4 Daughter A. Only 2 B. 2 and 4 C. 1, 2 and 4 D. * 1, 2, 3 and 4
Blood group A AB O B
39. Who among the above relations could donate blood to the man? A. Only 2 B. 2 and 4 C. * 1, 2 and 3 D. 1 and 3
40. The specific gravity of blood is. A. Lower than water B. * Higher than water C. Same as water D. Many times that of water
41. Mark the anticoagulant in leech. A. * Hirudin B. Heparin C. Prothrombin D. Thrombin
42. The heat produced in various parts of the body is distributed evenly by. A. Lymph system
B. * Vascular system C. Nervous D. Alimentary system
43. Blood is. A. Acidic B. * Alkaline C. Neutral D. Like a buffer
44. The hormones are carried to target organs through the. A. * Blood B. Lymph C. Water D. Corpuscles
45. Blood of cockroach is. A. Red B. Leucocytes C. Erythrocytes D. * Thrombocyte
46. The oxygenated and deoxygenated blood mix inside the heart. A. In the right auricle B. In the left auricle C. In the ventricle D. * No where
47. Fat persons are less healthy and have a shorter life expectancy because. A. Fat inhibits many important enzymes of energy yielding reactions in the body B. Accumulation of fat around the pericardial membrane interferes with the functional efficiency of the heart C. The high level of cholesterol in the blood interferes with the efficient working of the liver, heart and kidney and so there are greater chances of hypertension, cirrhosis D. * The more weight the body has to carry the greater the strain on the heart and greater the chances of high blood pressure and heart attacks
48. The opening of the aorta is guarded by. A. Tricuspid valve B. Bicuspid valve C. Monocuspid valve D. * Semilunar valve
49. Blood plasma from which fibrinogen is removed is known as. A. * Serum B. Blood concentrat C. Lymph D. Antibody component
50. The study of heart is called. A. Haematology B. * Cardiology C. Pathology D. Nephrology
51. A person which one of following group is considered a universal donor? A. A B. AB C. B D. * O
52. The vein in mammal that originates as capillaries and ends in capillaries is. A. Coronary vein f B. Hepatic vein
C. Renal vein D. * Hepatic portal vine
53. The insects do not have pigments in blood because. A. There is no blood B. * Blood does not have respiratory function Pigments are elsewhere C. Tissues have pigments D. Pigments are elsewhere
54. Which one of the following is essential for blood clotting? A. B R C B. W B C C. * Blood platelets D. Lymph
55. The wall of the heart is made up of. A. Voluntary muscles B. Involuntary muscles C. * Cardiac muscles D. Skeletal
56. The universal recipient belongs to blood group.
A. A B. B C. * AB D. O
57. The most oxygenated blood in the body is found in. A. Pulmonary artery B. * Pulmonary vein C. Carotid artery D. Coronary artery
58. The buffer substance in blood is. A. Calcium carbonate B. Carbondioxide C. * Sodium bicarbonate D. Ammonia
59. Pernicious anaemia results in. A. Loss of whole blood B. Reduction in RBC and plasma C. * Reduction in RBC and moderate increase in plasma
D. Reduction in WBC
60. Oxygen transport is a function of. A. White blood corpuscles B. * Red blood corpuscles C. Blood platelets D. Plasma
61. What is the basic characteristic of antigens? A. They are capable of stimulating the formation of haemoglobin in the blood B. They destroy haemoglobin C. They are capable of defending themselves against attack by anti bodies D. * They are capable of stimulating the formation of antibodies
62. Veins carry blood. A. * Toward the heart B. Away from the heart C. Both to and from the heart D. Only around the heart
63. The average ratio of white blood corpuscles to red blood corpuscles in the adult human is.
A. 1:500 B. * 1:700 C. 1:1000 D. 1:1200
64. In wrong blood transfusion. A. * RBCs of recipient agglutinise B. RBCs of donor agglutinise C. WBCs of donor agglutinise D. WBCs of recipint agglutinise
65. A single heart beat is equal to. A. An auricular diastole and a systole B. A ventricular systole and diastole C. An auricular systoles and ventricular systole D. * An auricular systole, a ventricular systole and a pause
66. The enzyme that is necessary to bring about clotting of blood is. A. Peptidase B. Amylase C. Lipase
D. * Thrombokinase
67. When the right ventricle in the human heart contracts, the blood moves t. A. Aorta B. Brain C. Lungs D. * Pulmonary arteries
68. Blood of a person in group O his in its plasma, antibodies. A. A B. B C. * A and B D. None
69. The release of thromboplastin facilitates the. A. Conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin B. Stabilization of fibrin C. Coagulation of blood D. * Conversion of prothrombin to thrombin
70. What is Rhesus factor? A. A factor found associated with A group blood
B. A factor associated with B group blood C. * RBC containing a particular antigen D. None of the above
71. Human blood has the highest percentage of. A. Eosinophils B. Basophils C. * Neutrophils D. Monocytes
72. Vessels proceeding to the heart are called. A. * Veins B. Arteries C. Capillaries D. Lymph ducts
73. A person belonging to blood group A has in his red corpuscles antigen. A. B B. AB C. None D. * A
74. The haemoglobin pigments in vertebrates are present in. A. Lymph B. Leucocytes C. * Erythrocytes D. Thrombocytes
75. Blood platelets are found in. A. All vertebrates B. All chordates C. * Mammals only D. Birds and mammals
76. The scientist who discovered the blood groups is. A. * Landsteiner B. T. H Morgan C. William Harvey D. Darwin
77. Foramen ovale is present in the. A. Ear B. Eye
C. Brain D. * Embryonic heart
78. The route of circulation in the human heart is. A. * Left auricle-right auricle right ventricle pulmonary veins-left ventricleaorta B. Right auricle-left auricle-right ventricle-pulmonary artery-lungsPulmonary veins -left auricle-aorta C. Right auricle-left auricle-right ventricle-pulmonary artery-lungsPulmonary veins -left auricle left ventricle -aorta D. Right auricle-left auricle-right ventricle-pulmonary artery-lungsPulmonary veins -left auricle-left ventricle-aorta
79. Formation of blood is. A. Histolysis B. Histogenesis C. * Haemopoiesis D. Haemolysis
80. The leucocytes that are stained by alkaline dyes are called. A. Eosinophils B. * Basophils C. Neutrophils
D. Acidophils
81. The vessel whcih supplies blood to the heart is. A. Pulmonary artery B. Pulmonary vein C. Pulmocutaneous artery D. * Coronary artery
82. The blood of cockroach shows certain characteristics except. A. It serves to distribute nutrients directly to every part of the body B. It contains several kinds of corpuscles without haemoglobin C. It collects metabolic wastes D. * It carries oxygen
83. People who live at high altitudes have rosy cheeks because. A. Haemoglobin has an increased binding affinity for oxygen to become deep red in colour B. * Red cell concentration becomes considerably above the average in response to lowered oxygen pressure C. The rate of capillary circulation increases in the skin to make it look pinkish D. All of the above
84. The antibodies that are produced by liver are carried by. A. * Lymph B. Blood C. Nerves D. Muscles
85. Once blood clots at a wound, harmful bacteria are prevented from entering by. A. Antibodies B. Exudation of serum C. * Scab formation D. Antitoxins released by the blood clot
86. Our body can produce specific antibodies to counteract. A. * Antigens B. Poisons C. Foreign tissues D. Germs
87. Which of the following are blood antioagulants? 1. Heparin 2. Potassium fluoride 3. Calcium oxalate
4. Sodium oxalate A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 2, 3 and 4 C. * 1 and 4 D. 2 and 3
88. The function of human spleen is. A. To consume foreign bodies, bacteria and dead cells B. Act as a reservoir of blood and RBC C. To produce antibodies D. * All of the above
89. The blood corpuscles that help to build up resistance against disease are. A. All leucocytes B. Moncocytes C. Neutrophils D. * Lymphocytes
90. Haemoglobin remains dissolved in plasma of. A. Rabbit B. Man
C. Frog D. * Earthworm
91. Compared to veins, the arteries have their walls. A. * Thicker B. Thinner C. Same type D. Very much thinner
92. In invertebrates, haemoglobin is present in. A. * Plasma B. Erythrocytes C. Leucocytes D. Thrombocytes
93. Consider the following scheme of the circulation of blood in the mammalian heart. 1. 2. 3. 4.
Left auricle Right auricle Left ventricle Right ventricle
The correct sequence in which blood flows through the mammalian heart is. A. 2, 1, 4, 3
B. 1, 2, 3, 4 C. * 2, 4, 1, 3 D. 4, 3, 2, 1
94. Lymphocy are manufactured by. A. Bone marrow B. Spleen C. Liver D. * Lymph nodes
95. Loss of blood is minimized due to the blood. A. * Clotting B. Receding C. Healing D. Drying up
96. Compared to auricles, ventricles have. A. Thinner walls B. * Thicker walls C. The same size of walls D. No walls
97. The human heart is. A. Neurogenic heart B. * Myogenic heart C. Pulsating heart D. Ampullary heart
98. The function of haemoglobin in human body is to. A. Help excretion B. Provide amino acids for growth C. Provide enzymes and hormones D. * Carry oxygen to various tissues
99. The thrombocytes are associated with. A. * Blood coagulation B. Transport of respiratory gases C. Removal of nitrogen wastes D. All of above
100. Pulse rate is measured in the wrist by observing the jerks of blood in the. A. Veins B. Capillaries
C. * Arteries D. Nerves
101. When does the heart start functioning? A. At birth B. After birth C. * Before birth D. After a week from birth
102. The blood is different from serum in having. A. * Corpuscles and proteins B. Water and plasma C. Corpuscles and plasma D. More salts
103. Wich one of the following statements is not correct regarding RBC? A. Carries oxygem B. Manufactured in bone marrow C. Carries CO2 D. * Contains haemoglobin in the nucleus
104. The blood without corpuscles is called.
A. Bile B. Lymph C. * Plasma D. Blood
105. Blood is formed in the human adult by the. A. Heart B. Spleen C. * Red bone marrow D. Yellow bone marrow
106. If the blood circulation in an afflicted portion of a limb of the body is curtailed so that the tissues in that area die this condition is known as. A. Irreversible fatal limb block B. * Gangrene C. Arterio-venous limb blockade D. All of the above
107. Vessels leaving the heart are known as. A. Veins B. * Arteries C. Capillaries
D. Lymph ducts
108. The amount of blood in a normal man is about. A. * 5. 0 liters B. 2. 5 liters C. 3. 8 liters D. 4. 7 liters
109. The counting of RBC’s con be performed by. A. * Haemocytometer B. Haemoglobinometer C. Clinostat D. Thermometer
110. Venous blood is carried to the lungs for oxygenation by the. A. * Pulmonary arteries B. Pulmonary veins C. Pulmonary arterio-venous shunt D. Right ventricle
111. The pulse wave in the arteries is. A. Slower in children than in adults
B. Dependent on speed of the blood C. * Set up by systole in the ventricles D. Caused by the flow of blood into the heart
112. RH+blood is due to genes which are. A. * Dominant B. Recessive C. Codominant D. Neutral
113. The condition in which there is abnormal decrease of white blood corpuscles is. A. Leukemia B. Leucoderma C. * Leucopenia D. Anaemia
114. Which one of the following statements is wrong about Rhesus (Rh) factor. A. Rh system is different from ABO blood group system B. Everybody is either Rh positive or Rh negative C. * This system of blood factors is inherited along with that of the A B O
D. We inherit some factors from each parent and it may occur that an Rh positive baby is born of an Rh-negative mother
115. The valve between the right auricle and right ventricle is called. A. * Tricuspid B. Bicuspid C. Monocuspid D. Semilunar
116. Which statement is correct? A. All arteries carry oxygenated blood B. All veins carry oxygenated blood C. * All arteries excerpt pulmonary artery carry oxygenated blood D. All veins except pulmonary vein carry oxygenated blood
117. The life span of human red blood corpuscles is. A. Uncertain B. * 120 days C. 180 days D. As long as the individual survives
118. Blood runs evenly in.
A. Arteries B. * Capillaries C. Veins D. Lymph vessels
119. The disease in which blood clotting does not take place is known as. A. Xerophthalmia B. Haemopoeisis C. * Haemophilia D. Haemoerythrin
Chapter 9 Skeletal System
1. In movable joints, the tip of the bones are covered with. A. * Hyaline cartilage B. Calcified cartilage C. Elastic cartilage D. Fibrous cartilage
2. The following bone is not found in man. A. Humerus B. Carpal C. * Astragalus D. Atlas
3. Regeneration of cartilage is brought about by. A. Fibres B. Matrix C. Nerve and blood vessels D. * Perichondrion
4. The adult human skeleton consists of. A. 240 bones B. * 206 bones C. 208 bones D. 214 bones
5. The bone cells are connected with each other by. A. Haversian canal B. * Canaliculi C. Capillaries D. Matrix
6. The matrix of the cartilage is formed of. A. Spongin B. Collagen C. * Chondrin D. Calcium salts
7. Which of the following statements is wrong? A. In mammals, bone of skull and long bones have red marrow
B. In mammals, skull bones and long bones have yellow marrow C. * In long bones of vertebrates (other than mammals) there is yellow and red bone marrow D. Long bone of vertebrates(except mammals) have yellow marrow
8. The longest bone in the human body is the. A. Stirrup B. Backbone C. * Thigh bone D. Gullet
9. The total number of ear bones are. A. 2 B. 4 C. * 6 D. 8
10. The tissue that plays a leading role in the elongation of many bones is. A. Areolar tissue B. * Cartilage C. Spongy bone D. Fibroelastic tissue
11. In an adult human being, the number of vertebrae is. A. 33 B. * 26 C. 36 D. 56
12. While writing one holds the pen by tips of the digits 1, 2 and 3 of the hand supported by the. A. Carpals B. Metacarpals C. * Phalanges D. All of the above
13. The bones are held together by elastic tissues called. A. * Ligaments B. Fibrous tissues C. Fibrin D. Muscular tissues
14. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.
List (I) (A) Cartilaginous skeleton (B) Limbless (C)Jawless vertebrate (D) Four chambered hearth
List (II) 1. Crocodile 2. Sea lamprey 3. Skate 4. Caecilian
A. A − 2,B − 4,C − 3,D − 1 B. A − 4,B − 3,C − 2,D − 1 C. A − 1,B − 2,C − 4,D − 3 D. * A − 3,B − 4,C − 2,D − 1
15. The interstitial ground substance of cartilage contains. A. Mucopolysaccharides B. Fat cells C. Fibrous cells D. * Chondromucoids
Chapter 10 Botany
1. Wallace’s line is a line. A. Drawn by Darwin B. Across the mountains C. * Between two zoogeographical areas D. Between different classes of animals
2. The most accepted theory of the origin of Earth is the fiery origin which was propounded by. A. Laplace B. * Chamberlain C. James Jean D. Hovle
3. Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny is the theory of. A. Evolution B. Reduction C. * Recapitulation
D. Darwinism
4. The hypothesis that living matter originated in the past from non-living matter is supported by. A. Fossil records B. * Millcr’s experimcnts C. Pasteur’s experiments D. Spallanzani’s experiments
5. Spontaneous generation signifying the development of living organisms from non-living has been termed. A. Biogenesis B. * Abiogenesis C. Cosmozoic D. Catastrophism
6. Both Sun and Earth are. A. 1 to 2 billion years old B. * 4 to 5 billion years old C. 10 to 12 billion years old D. 100 to 150 billion years old
7. The theory that believes that the first living organism came from another
planet is known as. A. Catastrophic theory B. Special creation theory C. Organic evolution theory D. * Cosmozoic theory
8. Lamarck’s theory of inheritance of acquired characters was challenged by. A. * August Weismann B. Hugo De Vries C. Herbert Spencer D. Carl Linnaeus
9. The oldest era is. A. Palaeozoic B. Mesozoic C. Coenozoic D. * Proterozoic
10. When the Earth was formed it had an atmosphere with. A. Hydrogen Oxygen and Nitrogen B. Water vapours Hydrogen and Oxygen
C. Oxygen Carbondioxide and Nitrogen D. * Water vapours, Ammonia and Methane
11. The germ plasm theory of inheritance was proposed by. A. * Weismann B. Lamarck C. Darwin D. De Vries
12. Life begets life, or biogenesis was stated by. A. Robert Koch B. Miller C. * Louis pasteur D. Lord Lister
13. The biologist who believed in the spontaneous creation of microorganisms was. A. Leuwenhoek B. * Needham C. Spllanzani D. Pasteur
14. Biochemical origin of life was discovered by. A. Haldane B. Muller C. * Oparin D. Darwin
15. The modern synthetic theory of organic evolution is a synthesis of theories proposed by. A. Lamarck and Darwin B. Lamarck and De Vries C. * Darwin and De Vries D. None of the above
16. Charles Darwin was influenced in his work by. A. Wallace B. Lamarck C. * Malthus D. Mendel
17. The Lamarckian theory of organic evolution is usually known as the theory of. A. Natural selection
B. * Inheritance of acquired characters C. Continuity of germ plasm D. Descent with change
18. Palaeontology is the study of. A. Birds B. Bones C. * Fossils D. Primates
19. The most primitive mammals are. A. Carnivorous B. Herbivorous C. Omnivorous D. * Insectivorous
20. Which organism probably arrived first in the world? A. * Algae B. Fungi C. Protozoa D. None of the above
21. Seymouria represents the transitional stage between. A. * Amphibians and reptiles B. Pisces and amphibians C. Reptiles and mammals D. Birds and mammals
22. Winter dormancy is. A. * Hibernation B. Aestivatio C. Papillation D. None of these
23. The theory, which advocates that living beings can arise only from other living beings is termed as. A. * Biogenesis B. Abiogenesis C. Catastrophism D. Cosmozoic
24. Sexual selection theory was propounded by. A. Wallace
B. De Vries C. Lamarck D. * Charles Darwin
25. Darwin’s theory of natural selection involves. A. Over reproduction B. Competition C. Survival of the fittest D. * All of these
26. The organisms that live inside alimentary canal are. A. * Symbionts B. Autotrophs C. Heterotrophs D. Saprotrophs
27. Spontaneous creation of living matter was proposed by. A. Darwin B. * Anaximenes C. Democritus D. Hutchinson
28. The biogenetic law was proposed by. A. Alfred Russel Wallace B. Charles Darwin C. * Ernest von Haeckel D. Lamarck
29. Who among the following has not championed the modern, synthetic theory of organic evolution? A. Julian Huxley B. T. Dobzanski C. G. L. Stebbins D. * De Vries
30. Hugo de Vries based his theory of mutation on observing the organism. A. Drosophila B. Pea plant C. * Oenothera D. Elephant
31. Origin of Species was published by. A. Lamarck
B. Weismann C. De Vries D. * Charles Darwin
32. The theory that cells arise from the pre-existing cells was proposed by. A. Nageli B. * Virchow C. Schleiden D. Muller
33. The vestiges of hind limbs are present in. A. Cobra B. Sea snake C. Krait D. * Python
34. The solenocytes of Platyhelminthe, the nephridium of Annelids and the kidneys of Vertebrates all have a similar function of excretion but differ in origin. They are said to be. A. * Analogous B. Homologous C. Adaptational
D. Vestigeal
35. The limbs of different mammals have evolved from a basic. A. * Pentadactyl plan B. Hexadactyl plan C. Bidactyl base D. Adactyl
36. A firm believer of Special Creation Theory was. A. Darwin B. Lamarck C. * Cuvier D. Linnaeus
37. The ship in which Darwin toured different parts of the world to collect data for his theory is known as HMS. A. Victoria B. * Beagle C. Alexander D. George
38. The golden age of dinosaurs was.
A. Palaeozoic B. Coenozoic C. * Mesozoic D. Proterozoic
39. The various organs of mouthparts used for bitting sucking chewing etc of insects though differ externally and in functions are built on the same basic plan and it is termed. A. Analogy B. * Homology C. Parallel evolution D. Isolation
40. Who considered evolution as due to mutation? A. Charles Darwin B. Lamarck C. * Hugo de Vries D. Wallace
41. Vestigeal organs are those which are. A. Fully formed and functional B. Much reduced but functional
C. * Much reduced and functionles D. Fully formed but functionaless
42. The theory of use and disuse was used to explain evolution by. A. * Lamarck B. Darwin C. De Vries D. Wallace
43. Vestigeal pelvic girdle and bones of hind limbs are characteristics of. A. * Whales B. Dolphins C. Seals D. Sharks
44. The first sign of life made its appearance on the Earth about. A. 1 million years ago B. 500 million years ago C. 1 billion 1000 million years ago D. * 3 billion years ago
45. Darwinism does not explain.
A. Progression B. Retrogression C. Usefulness of all organs D. * Presence of vestigeal organs
46. Animals belonging to different classes of Vertebrates have developed similar adaptational features to a particular type of habitat. This phenomenon in called. A. * Convergent evolution B. Adaptive radiation C. Mimicry D. Parallel evolution
47. In the last stage of chemical evolution. A. Nucleic acids were formed B. Nucleotides were formed C. * Nucleoproteins were formed D. Enzymes were formed
48. Abiogenesis was disproved by. A. * Spllanzani B. Muller
C. Darwin D. Cuvier
Chapter 11 Endocrine Glands
1. Injection of insulin causes. A. Increase in glucose in blood B. * Decrease in glucose in blood C. Increase in blood pressure D. Decrease in blood pressure
2. The hormone that is responsible for secondary sexual characters in the male is. A. Oestrogen B. Progesterone C. * Testosterone D. Prolactin
3. The output of urine is controlled by ADH (Anti Diuretic Hormone ) which is secreted by. A. Anterior lobe of pituitary B. * Posterior lobe of pituitary C. Intermediate lobe of pituitary
D. Thyroid gland
4. Which one of the endocrine glands is often referred to in discussing the AIDS disease? A. Thyroid B. * Thymus C. Pituitary D. Adrenals
5. The hormone insulin is secreted in the Islets of Langerhans of pancreas by the. A. x Cells B. * B Cells C. By the x and B cells D. Either x or B cells
6. The hormone which is popularly called as stress hormone is. A. * Epinephrine B. Cortisone C. Thyroxine D. Insulin
7. The androgens are.
A. * Male hormone B. Female hormone C. Enzymes D. Catalysts
8. Which hormone increases the blood glucose level by the formation of glucose from amino acids? A. * Glucagon B. Insulin C. Antidiuretic hormone D. Oxytocin
9. Which one of the following hormones if is administered, the young tadpoles metamorphise into premature frogs? A. Growth hormone B. Follicular stimulatinng hormone C. * Thyroxine D. Adrenaline
10. Insufficient dietary iodine causes a/an. A. Cretin B. Giant
C. * Enlarged thyroid D. Small thyroid
11. Diabetes is a disease which is. A. Contagious B. * Non-communicable C. Communicable D. Epidemic
12. The hormone secreted when one is frightened is. A. Pituitrin B. Thyroxine C. * Adernaline D. Parathormone
13. Hormones are carried from their place of production by. A. Ducts B. * Blood C. Lymph D. Mucus
14. The hormone that regulates blood pressure is _____ and it is secreted by
_____ A. Insulin pancreas B. Epinephrin, kidneys C. Thyroxine, thyroid D. * Adrenaline, adrenal glands
15. The endocrine glands secrete. A. * Hormones B. Enzymes C. Antibodies D. Neurohumor
16. Cretinism is due to the disorder of the glands. A. Thymus B. Parathyroid C. * Thyroid D. Adrenal
17. Goitre is a disease caused by the insufficient amount of. A. Mercury B. Iron
C. * lodine D. Magnesium
18. In case of a heart attack, a hormone is injected as an emergency measure Which one is it? A. Thyrexine B. Vasopressin C. * Heparin D. Insulin
19. The endocrine glands concerned with calcium metabolism are the. A. Pituitary B. * Parathyroids C. Thymus D. Cortex of suprarenals
20. Diabetes is caused by. A. * Fall in insulin level B. Increase in insulin level C. Eating too much sugar D. Decrease in glucose
21. Oxytocin is called the labour hormone because. A. It gives great strength B. It is found more in workers C. * It causes contraction of uterus D. It reduces energy
22. The blood pressure is controlled by the hormone. A. * Vasopressin B. Oxytocin C. Oestrogen D. Testosterone
23. One of the following is often called the Master Gland Which one is it? A. Thymus B. Islets of langerhans C. * Pituitary D. Thyroid
24. Which of the following is a substance abundantly available in the sea and administered in a certain deficiency disease? A. * lodine B. Iron
C. Vitamin A D. Flourine
25. Maintenance of pregnancy is under the control of. A. Follicular stimulating hormone B. Growth hormone C. Estrogen D. * Progesterone
26. The hormones that contains iodine is. A. Prolactin B. Vasopressin C. * Thyroxine D. Adrenaline
27. Because the cells of Islets of Langerhans are worn out completely, one would expect to find a. A. Low blood glucose level B. Normal blood glucoses level but high urine glucose level C. High blood glucose level but low urine glucose level D. * High blood glucose level and high urine glucose level
28. Somato Tropic Hormone is concerned with. A. * Body growth B. Metamorphosis C. Digestion D. Reproduction
29. Which of the following glands in the human body is popularly called. Adam’s Apple? A. Adrenal B. Liver C. * Thyroid D. Thymus
30. Which one of the endocrine glands disappears after puberty? A. Thyroid B. * Thymus C. Adrenals D. Pituitary
31. Which of the following glands acts both as endocrine and exocrine glands? A. * Pancreas
B. Thyroid C. Pituitary D. Adrenal
32. The expulsion of milk form the breast during suckling is brought about by. A. * Prolactin B. Oxytocin C. Vasopressin D. Estrogen and progesterone
33. Liver is considered as an endocrine gland because it produces. A. Antibodies B. * Bile C. Heparin D. Pigments
34. One of the following is called a feminine hormone. Which one is it? A. * Oestrogen B. Testosterone C. Pituitrin D. Thyroxine
35. Which hormone is secreted by intermediate lobe of pituitary gland? A. Somatotropin B. Thyrotropin C. * Melanocyte stimulating hormone D. Vasopressin
36. What is gastrin? A. * A hormone B. An enzyme C. Lymph D. Venous blood
37. Antidiuretic hormone is concerned with. A. Release of sugar from liver B. Reabsorption of glucose from uriniferous tubules C. * Reabsorption of water from uriniferous tubules D. Constriction of blood vessels in the skin
38. The gland that contains the body’s thermostat is. A. Pineal
B. Pituitary C. Thyroid D. * Hypothalamus
39. The continued growth of the graafian follicle and its correlated rising estrogen output, ultimately bring about a. 1. 2. 3. 4.
Sharp rise in FSH Sharp rise in FSH Sharp rise in LH Sharp fall in LH
A. 1 and 2 are correct B. * 2 and 3 are correct C. 1 and 3 are correct D. 2 and 4 are correct
40. Insulin is concerned with the metabolism of. A. * Sugar B. Fats C. Proteins D. Vitamins
Chapter 12 Cell Biology
1. The amount of DNA present in cell. A. * Increases sharply during the period just before B. Is at constant level during the life of the cell C. Continues to increase during mitosis D. Increases immediately after mitosis is completed
2. Granum is a component of. A. * Chloroplasts B. Golgi apparatus C. Ribosomes D. Starch grains
3. Endoplasmic reticulum is bound by. A. Cellulose B. * Membranes C. Sclerotised layer D. Chitinised wall
4. DNA is found. A. Only in cytoplasm B. Only in nucleus C. * In both cytoplasm D. In hybrid form only
5. Dr. Khorana’s work relates to. A. Synthesis of simple DNA B. Genetic code C. Reduction of mutation D. * Synthesis of RNA from bacterial cell
6. All of the following are constituents of RNA molecule, expect. A. Adenine B. Guanine C. * Thymine D. Uracil
7. Cellular component can be physically separated from each other by. A. * Centrifugation
B. Radioactive tracers C. Microscopy D. Chromatography
8. A particular cell organelle is sometimes referred to as the suicide bag, because it contains certain enzymes (acid hydrolase)that can break down the cell components or even the whole cell. Which one of the following is such an organelle? A. * Lysosome B. Mesosome C. Phagosome D. Ribosome
9. Within the cell, the site of respiration is the. A. Golgi bodies B. Ribosomes C. * Mitochondria D. Nucleus
10. (A) Louis Pasteur (1) DNA (B) Walter Flemming (2) Life begets life (C) Watson and Crick (3) Lysosome
(D) Christian Duve
(4) Mitosis
A. * A − 2,B − 4,C − 1,D − 3 B. A − 3,B − 2,C − 1,D − 4 C. A − 2,B − 1,C − 3,D − 4 D. A − 2,B − 3,C − 1,D − 4
11. Nuclear membrane is absent in. A. * Prokaryotes B. Eukaryotes C. Protozoans D. All of the above
12. The protoplasm of a child is exactly the same as that of its. A. Mother B. Father C. Grandfather D. * Identical twin
13. The smallest size of a cell, which can be seen directly by the eye is. A. One micron B. 10 micron
C. * 100 micron D. 1000 micron
14. The exchange of chromosomal segments between maternal and paternal chromatids during meiosis is known as. A. Pairing B. Chromosomal mutation C. Linkage D. * Crossing over
15. At which stage, mobilisation of materials takes place during mitosis? A. * Interphase B. Prophase C. Metaphase D. Anaphase
16. A prokaryote is. A. A single-celled organism An organism locking B. A hard and stony fruit C. * membrane bound nucleus in its cells D. multicellular organism
17. The cell that lacks a nucleus is. A. Flame cell B. Spermatozoan C. * Red blood corpuscles in man D. White blood corpuscles
18. In human body, the longest cell is. A. Liver cell B. Muscle cell C. Reproductive cell D. * Nerve cell
19. The body cells of both plants and animals divide mitotically to produce identical cells. The stage at which the chromosomes are aligned exactly in the middle of the spindle, each attached to the spindle fibres (microtubule) is called. A. Prophase B. * Metaphase C. Anaphase D. Interphase
20. In complex plants, the formation of spores takes place by. A. Amitosis
B. Mitosis C. * Meiosis D. Plasma membrane
21. Match list I with list II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists. List(I) (A) Cell Theory (B) Theory of Natural Selection (C) One gene on enzyme hypothesis (D) Chemiosmotic hypothesis A. A − 2,B − 3,C − 4,D − 1 B. A − 3,B − 4,C − 1,D − 2 C. * A − 3,B − 4,C − 2,D − 1 D. A − 4,B − 1,C − 2,D − 3
22. The powerhouse of a cell is the. A. Plastid B. Chloroplast C. Golgi apparatus D. * Mitochondrion
List(II) (1)P. Mitchell (2) Beadle and Tatum (3)Schleiden and Schwann (4) C. Darwin
23. The division of nucleus is called. A. * Karyokinesis B. Cytokinesis C. Meiosis D. Crossing over
24. Quantosomes are present in. A. * Thylakoid membrane B. Palisade tissue of mesophy ll C. Spongy tissue of mesophy II D. Mitochondria
25. Lysosomes were discovered by. A. Palade B. Porter C. * Dedave D. De Vries
26. During which period of cell cycle does a centriole become a centrosome? A. Prophase B. Metaphase
C. Anaphase D. * Telophase
27. In the plant cells, golgi complex is scattered in the cytoplasm in the form of small vesicles called. A. Lysosmes B. Oxysomes C. * Dictyosomes D. Ribosomes
28. Meischer discovered. A. RNA B. DNA C. Nucleus D. * Nucleic acids
29. Match the following (A) William Seifriz (B) Flemming and Kollicker (C) Camillo Golgi (D) Porter Palade and Thomson A. A − 4,B − 2,C − 3,D − 1
(1) Golgi bodies (2) Endoplasmic reticulum (3) Plasma membrane (4) Mitochondria
B. A − 2,B − 3,C − 4,D − 1 C. A − 3,B − 2,C − 1,D − 4 D. * A − 3,B − 4,C − 1,D − 2
30. Who first observed the plasma membrane? A. * William Seifriz B. Schwann C. Palade D. None of the above
31. In meiotic prophase, the synapsis of chromosomes occurs at the stage of. A. Leptotene B. * Zygotene C. Pachytene D. Diplotene
32. Cell sap is. A. * A dilute solution of minerals and some organic substances in the vacuole B. A dilute solution of minerals in water absorbed by the plant from the soil C. Exudate from the cell D. None of the above
33. The primary energy for living organisms is. A. * Solar energy B. Chemical energy C. ATP D. Mitochondria
34. A mitochondria possesses a. A. Single membrane B. * Double membrane C. Three layered membrane D. Four layered membrane
35. Chromosomes are principally composed of. A. Proteins B. RNA C. DNA D. * DNA and proteins
36. A crosome in a sperm is secreted by. A. Endoplasmic reticulum B. Mitochondria
C. * Golgi bodies D. Centrioles
37. Haploid chromosome number is not seen in. A. * Primary spermatocytes B. Spermatids C. Sperms D. Spermatids and sperms
38. Red pigment is found in. A. Nucleoplasm B. Mitochondria C. Choloroplasts D. * Cell sap in vacuoles of the leaf
39. Vacuoles are bound by a definite membrane in plant cells called. A. Plasma membrane B. * Tonoplast C. Cell wall D. None of the above
40. Chromosomes are concerned with.
A. Respiration B. Assimilation C. Growth of the body D. * Transmission of hereditary characters
41. The spores formed by the zygospore of rhizopus is by. A. Amitosis B. * Meiosis C. Mitosis D. Budding
42. The DNA is a double helix was proposed by. A. De Robertis B. Griffith C. Hershey and chase D. * Watson Crick
43. The electron transport chain is in the. A. Nucleus B. Outer membrane of mitochondria C. * Inner membrane of mitochondria
D. Lysosomes
44. Who was the first scientist to use an instrument for biological studies in 1665? A. * Robert Hooke B. Schwann C. Schleiden D. None of the above
45. The cell theory of Schleiden states that. A. Cells reproduce by mitosis or meiosis B. All cells have nuclei C. * Cells are the ultimate units forming the structure of all plant tissues D. Cells arise only from pre-existing cells
46. Which of the protoplasm of a child is a physical basics of life. A. Nucleus B. Ribosome C. * Protoplasm D. Mitochondria
47. The quality and number of chromosomes remain unchanged in.
A. Meiosis B. Amitosis C. * Mitosis D. All of these
48. The period between two divisions, that is the resting phase of a cell, is referred to as. A. * Interphase B. Prophase C. Metaphase D. Telophase
49. Cell membrane is. A. Permeable B. * Selectively permeable C. Semipermeable D. Impermeable
50. Plant cells can usually be distinguished because only plant cells possess. A. Cell walls and mitochondria B. Golgi bodies and central vacuoles C. * Cell walls and central vacuoles
D. Chromosomes and mitochondria
51. Mitosis actually means. A. Division of cytoplasm only B. Division of nucleus only C. Reduction in number of chromosomes D. * Both nuclear and cytoplasmic division
52. Which of the following is not a constituent of DNA molecule? A. Adenine B. Cytosine C. Thymine D. * Uracil
53. The function of a cell wall is. A. To give definite shape to the cell B. To provide mechanical C. To prevent the cell from desiccation D. * All of the above
54. The cells that make up neurilemma nerve tissue are. A. Epithelial cells
B. Connective tissues C. * Schwann cells D. Erythrocytes
55. The process of the division of somatic cells of an organism is called. A. Cytokinesis B. Karyokinesis C. Meiosis D. * Mitosis
56. Nucleus was first discovered by. A. Porter B. * Robert Brown C. Palade D. None of the above
57. What controls the entry and exit of molecules in a cell? A. Nucleus B. Ribosomes C. DNA D. * Plasma membrane
58. Depending upon their structure and function lysosomes are categorized into. A. Once type only B. Two types C. * Three types D. Four types
59. The theory that all animals and plants are made up of cells and they could arise only from pre-existing cells was propounded by. A. Robert Hooke B. * Matthias Schleiden and Theodore Schwann C. Purkinje D. Leuwenhoek
60. Most plant and animal cells are similar in some respects since they both have in common. A. Cytoplasm and cellulose B. Cytoplasm and contractile C. * Cytoplasm and nucleus D. Membrane and cell wall
61. The DNA bases are.
A. Adenine, cytosine uracil guanine B. * Adenine, cytosine guanine, thymine C. Uracil, adenine, cytosine thymine D. Guanine thymine, uracil, adenine
62. (A) Purkinje (B) Schleiden and Schwann (C) Leuwenhoek (D) Cinchona officinalis
(1) Cell theory (2) Microscope (3) Quinine (4) Protoplasm
A. A − 3,B − 1,C − 4,D − 2 B. * A − 4,B − 1,C − 2,D − 3 C. A − 4,B − 2,C − 1,D − 3 D. A − 1,B − 2,C − 3,D − 4
63. All higher plants and animals, including man, were a single cell in their earliest life history. This cell. the gygote undergoes repeated divisions to produce all the body cells of the organism which are identical to start with. This process of division is called. A. Amitosis B. Cytokmesis C. Meiosis
D. * Mitosis
64. Autophagy is the function of. A. Ribosomes B. * Lysosomes C. Centrosomes D. Mitochondria
65. The cytoplasm of a cell refers to. A. * Protoplasm outside the cell nucleus B. Protoplasm within the cell nucleus C. Protoplasm within and outside the nucleus D. Peripheral within the cell nucleus
66. Reverse transcription was first of all discovered by. A. Watson B. Crick C. * Temin D. Porter
67. The wonder pigment chlorophyll is present in. A. Mitochondria
B. Centrosomes C. * Quantosomes D. Lysosomes
68. The cell that is concerned with excretion and osmoregulation is. A. * Flame cell B. Chromatophores C. Nematoblast D. None of these
69. Who invented the electron microscope? A. * Knoll and Ruska B. Rudolk and Kolliker C. Robert Hooke D. C. P. Swanson
70. The thin layer that forms a common layer for any two adjacent cells is. A. * Middle lamella B. Primary wall C. Secondary wall D. None of the above
71. Which of the following plays a on important part in photosynthesis? A. * Chloroplast B. Centrosome C. Tonoplast D. Nematoblast
72. The use of which of the following devices has given the modern biologist a better insight into the internal structure of cells. A. Computer B. * Electron microscope C. Spectrophotometer D. Ultracentrifuge
73. The first person to observe the bacteria, protozoa and spermatozoa under the microscope was. A. Theodore B. Matthias Schleiden C. Robert Hooke D. * Leuwenhoek
74. The protein synthesis takes place in. A. * Ribosomes
B. Chromosomes C. DNA D. None of these
75. Nucleus was discovered by. A. Robert Brown B. Robert I looke C. Leuwenhoek D. * Fontana
76. For a cell to divide, it is essential that its DNA is replicated so that each daughter cell gets an identical DNA. This replication occurs during. A. Prophase B. Metaphase C. Telophase D. * Interphase
77. The main function of plasma membrane is to. A. Control all cellular activities B. Store cell material C. Maintain the cell shape and size D. * Regulate the flow of material into and outside the wall
78. The pairing of homologous chromosomes during prophase I of meiosis is called. A. Crossing over B. Syngamy C. * Synapsis D. Syngenesis
79. The plasma membrane in animal cell is composed of. A. Cellulose B. Proteins C. * Lipids and proteins D. Fats
80. Waldeyer gave the name. A. Microsome B. * Chromosome C. Ribosome D. Lysosome
81. Which one of the following is not a correct pairing of structure and function?
A. * Golgi complex-Breakdown of complex molecules B. Mitochondria -Producing energy C. Chromosomes-Vehicles of heredity D. Chloroplast-Photosynthesis
Chapter 13 Units, Abbreviations, Inventions & Discoveries
1. For measuring the relative humidity in atmosphere, _____ is used. A. Hygroscope B. * Hygrometer C. Keratometer D. None of these
2. Aeroplane was invented by Wright Brothers in. A. * 1903 B. 1906 C. 1907 D. 1913
3. For hearing and analyzing the sound of heart and lungs, _____ is used. A. Stereoscope B. Telemeter C. * Stethoscope D. Stethometer
4. The unit of electric current is. A. Kelvin B. * Ampere C. Candela D. None of these
5. Which of the following is the unit of distance (usually between planets and stars)? A. Angstorm B. Astronomical unit C. * Light year D. None of these
6. What is meant by RNA? A. * Ribonucleic Acid B. Radiation Nucleic Acid C. Ribonucleic Agency D. Radiation-nucleic Association
7. What is meant by WBC? A. * White Blood Cell
B. World Basketball Company C. White Board Cell D. None of these
8. Manometer is used to measure pressure of. A. Air B. Liquids C. Magnates D. * Gases
9. LPG stands for. A. Liquid per Gram B. Leg Pads and Gloves C. * Liquified Petroleum Gas D. Liquified Pressare Gas
10. Which instrument is used for measuring viscosity? A. * Viscometer B. Viscoscale C. Visco guage D. Commutator
11. Mole is the unit of. A. * Substance B. Current C. Temperature D. Intensity
12. For measuring small sub divisions of scale, which instrument is used? A. Vernier scale B. Vernier guage C. * Vernier caliper D. Vernier meter
13. Daimler invented _____ in 1885. A. Motor AC B. Motor DC C. Nylon D. * Motorcycle
14. For measuring the relative density of milk, _____ is used. A. Milkoscope B. Milkometer
C. * Lactometer D. Glucometer
15. _____ is used to measure degree of sensation of skin. A. Altimeter B. Ammeter C. * Algesimeter D. None of these
16. Goodard invented _____ in 1926. A. Search light B. * Rocket engine C. Rifle D. Bakelite
17. AM means. A. After Marriage B. Arithmetic Memory C. * Amplitude Modulation D. After Memory
18. RAM means.
A. Read After Memory B. * Random Access Memory C. Random Access Memory D. Read After Marriage
19. _____ is used to measure rainfalls. A. Rain-meter B. * Rain-guage C. Salinometer D. Quadrant
20. Metre is the unit of. A. Mass B. * Length C. Balance D. Distance
21. Hydrometer is used to determine relative density of. A. Water B. Milk C. * Liquids
D. Gasoline
22. Roentgen discovered _____ in 1895. A. Insulin B. Neutron C. Proton D. * X-rays
23. _____ is used for spectrum analysis. A. Spectruant B. Spectrometer C. Spectro guage D. * Spectroscope
24. _____ is used to measure potential difference between two points. A. Telemeter B. Anemometer C. Salinometer D. * Voltmeter
25. CNG stands for. A. Chloro N’itro Gas
B. * Compressed Natural Gas C. Compressed Nitrogen Gasoline D. Complete New Gas
26. The unit of time is. A. Gram B. Ton C. * Kilogram D. Volume
27. Coulomb is the unit of. A. Electric resistance B. * Electric charge C. Electric conductance D. Electric capacitance
28. Schonbein discovered _____ ozone in. A. 1822 B. 1844 C. * 1840 D. 1848
29. What is meant by VHF? A. Very Hot Frequency B. Very Hot Force C. Very Heavy Frequency D. * Very High Force
30. Which is the unit of power? A. * Watt B. Newton C. Kelvin D. Joule
31. Which of the following is used to measure small distances or angles? A. Anglometer B. * Micrometer C. Micro guage D. None of these
32. ROM means. A. Read On Memory B. Read Only Modulation
C. * Read Only Memory D. Radiation Only Mean
33. CAD stands for. A. * Computer Aided Design B. Community Aided Design C. Complete Aid Data D. Complete After Design
34. _____ is used to measure temperature. A. * Thermometer B. Thermoscope C. Pyrometer D. Sextant
35. SOS means. A. Sample Of Statues B. Series Of Schools C. Save Our State D. * Save Our Souls
36. The inventor of telephone is.
A. Dupont B. Morse C. * Graham Bell D. Galileo
37. The unit of time is. A. Year B. Hour C. Minute D. * Second
38. Who invented Galvanometer in 1820? A. Geiger B. * Sweigger C. Larson D. Sturgeon
39. The international system of units is based on _____ fundamental units. A. * 7 B. 4 C. 3
D. 5
40. Seismograph is used to record intensity and source of. A. Thunderstorm B. * Earthquakes C. Pulse D. Heart beat
41. Calculus was discovered in 1670 by. A. Harvey B. Judson C. * Newton D. Thomson
42. Barometer is used to measure. A. Atmospheric condition B. * Atmospheric pressure C. Temperature D. Atmospheric speed
43. Chronometer is a clock used to measure longitude of vessel over. A. * Sea
B. Land C. Earth D. All of these
44. Who invented penicillin in 1829? A. Alexander Swinton B. * Alexander Fleming C. Stanley D. Pascal
45. ECG means. A. Electric Cell Gas B. * Electro Cardiogram C. Electro Colouring Gas D. Electro Cardio Gas
46. Which of the following is used to measure velocity of wind? A. Altimeter B. Skinmometer C. Ammeter D. * Anemometer
47. Television was invented by Baird in. A. * 1923 B. 1925 C. 1926 D. 1928
48. Which of the following is used to compare magnetic moments and fields? A. * Magnetometer B. Magnetoscope C. Magnets D. Magnet guage
49. Radio was invented by Marconi in. A. 1898 B. 1901 C. * 1895 D. 1892
50. Newton is the unit of. A. Pressure B. * Force
C. Power D. Stress
Chapter 14 Physics
1. While in orbit, all occupants of a spacecraft become. A. Emotional B. Static C. * Weightless D. Very heavy
2. The relationship between volume and temperature is given by. A. * Charl’s Law B. Ohm Law C. Pressure Law D. Gas Law
3. Which theory is based on the idea that gases consist of atoms or molecules moving rapidly rapidly in all directions? A. Pressure law B. Universal gas law C. * Kinetic theory of gases
D. Kinetic theory of energy
4. Some solids do not melt when heated under normal conditions, instead they change directly from the solid to the gaseous state. This phenomenon is called. A. External pressure B. Atmospheric pressure C. Oxidation D. * Sublimation
5. The angular of a rotating object is the angle through which it moves per unit. A. Length B. Area C. Density D. * Time
6. Give the formula of ordinary water. A. * H2 O B. O2 H C. H4 O D. HO 2
7. _____ is a unit of power. A. Pound B. Joule C. Coloumb D. * Horse power
8. _____ is a turning force, the rotational analogue of normal force in linear motion. A. Inertia B. * Torque C. Angular acceleration D. Momentum
9. _____ is defined as the emission of alpha, particles beta particles or gamma rays by disintegration of nuclei of certain unstable elements. A. Quark B. * Radioactivity C. Fusion D. Radiation
10. The inter-atomic or inter-molecular forces that hold togcther the atoms or molecules within a solid is called. A. Condensation
B. Gravity C. Adhesion D. * Cohesion
11. Conduction is the flow of heat through a. A. Gas B. Metal C. Body D. * Solid
12. _____ are more likely to be affected by lightning due to closeness with charges in the clouds. A. Schools B. Hospitals C. Small cottages D. * Tall buildings
13. The nuclear firebox is smaller than an average. A. Hours B. Farm house C. * Living room D. Baby room
14. Heat spreads through liquids and gases mainly by. A. Conduction B. Radiation C. * Convection D. Conversion
15. There are _____ basic products of a nuclear reprocessing plant. A. 5 B. 4 C. 2 D. * 3
16. Angular displacement is angle on a circle traversed by an object and is shown by. A. * Q B. A C. D D. A. D
17. _____ is defined as the ability to do work. A. * Energy
B. Motion C. Power D. Direction
18. _____ is not a conductor of heat. A. Wood B. Cloth C. Water D. * Vacuum
19. In a body that moves in a circular path around a central point, the force that acts away from the centre is called. A. * Centrifugal force B. Rotational force C. Moving force D. Attracting force
20. Reflection in all types of mirrors is governed by _____ principal laws. A. * 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5
21. Substances can be broken down into molecules and molecules can be broken down into. A. Smaller cells B. Electrons C. Protons D. * Atoms
22. _____ is mainly due to salts of calcium particularly the soluble bicarbonates fromed by the action of rain water and carbon dioxide from air on limestone. A. Freshness of air B. Hardness of air C. Freshness of water D. * Hardness of water
23. Pure _____ have precise melting and boiling points, fixed temperatures at which they change from one state to another. A. * Substances B. Solids C. Metals D. Mixtures
24. What is called an abbreviation for the name of an element consisting of first letter or first two letters of its name? A. Isotope B. Atomic number C. * Symbol D. Property
25. When two substances are mixed together and they react with each other chemically then a _____ is formed. A. Molecule B. Mass C. * Compound D. Isotope
26. In a body that moves in a circular path around a central point the force that acts toward the centre and keeps the body at a constant distance from the centre is called. A. Objectional force B. Circular force C. Centrifugal force D. * Centripetal force
27. When a pure _____ is heated its temperature rises unit it is at its melting point an additional quantity of heat causes it to melt.
A. Metal B. Mineral C. * Solid D. Gas
28. The neutron is the particle with no electric charge, whereas the proton has a. A. Triple positive charge B. Double positive charge C. * Single positive charge D. No positive charge
29. The matter in all three phases (solid, liquid, and gas)is composed of tiny particles, called _____ which are continuously in motion. A. * Molecules B. Atoms C. Nuclei D. Electrons
30. Name the instrument to measure the temperature of an object. A. Barometer B. * Thermometer
C. Celsiusmeter D. Kelvinmeter
31. The action which changes the state of rest or uniform motion of a body is called. A. * Force B. Motion C. Retardation D. Momentum
32. In 1662, Robert Boyle experimented with the relationship between pressure and. A. Gas B. Energy C. Liquid D. * Volume
33. During winter season when snow falls, _____ is spread on the roads, that lowers the freezing point and thus snow does not make ice on the road and the road remains open for safe traffic. A. Topaz B. Clay C. Sugar
D. * Salt
34. How much the nucleus of an atom is smaller than that of the atom? A. 2, 000 times B. * 10, 00 times C. 1, 000 times D. 5, 000 times
35. _____ of light is a change in direction that a ray of light undergoes when it posses from a transparent medium of one density into another medium of a different density. A. Defraction B. Reflection C. * Refraction D. Depression
36. Ohm is the SI unit of electrical. A. Conductivity B. * Resistance C. Hardness D. Flow
37. In how many modes, heat transfer can take place?
A. 2 B. 4 C. * 3 D. 5
38. Hardness of a material depends on attraction between molecules or atoms of the. A. * Material B. Elastic bodies C. Mineral D. Substance
39. Current electricity is the continuous flow of charges usually electrons or ions, through a. A. Capacitor B. Battery C. * Conductor D. Prism
40. Nuclear energy is produced when the _____ of atoms change either by splitting apart or joining together. A. Protons B. Electrons
C. Neutrons D. * Nuclei
41. Dry ice has a temperature of. ∘
A. -76 c ∘
B. -89 c ∘
C. * -79 c ∘
D. -82 c
42. The _____ colour of the sky results from a phenomenon called scattering. A. Red B. White C. * Blue D. Yellow
43. Metals conduct heat well because of their. A. * Atomic structure B. Size C. Nature D. Volume
44. There are _____ physical states of matter.
A. * 3 B. 2 C. 4 D. 5
45. Which bomb was dropped on Nagasaki on August 9, 1945? A. Atomic bomb B. * Plutonium bomb C. Radon bomb D. Hydrogen bomb
46. Which coloured surface absorbs all light? A. Grey B. Blue C. * Perfectly black D. White
47. Which is the softest material? A. Gypsum B. Graphite C. Topaz
D. * Talc
48. A _____ is defined as a device for applying or transmitting mechanical power. A. Lever B. Pulley C. * Machine D. Gravity
49. Mohs is the unit of hardness of a. A. Resistance B. Material C. * Solid D. Water
50. _____ energy consists of moving waves of _____ pressure in medium such as air water or metal. A. Chemical B. Physical C. * Sound D. Radiant
51. A rainbow is always an are of a.
A. Line B. Perpendicular C. Right angle D. * Circle
52. Physics deals with properties of matter forces and energy and their various. A. * Interactions B. Properties C. Relation D. None of these
53. _____ is the chemical decomposition that some substances undergo when an electric current passes through them. A. Electroplating B. Hydrolysis C. Photoelectric D. * Electrolysis
54. The temperature at which a solid melts into a liquid is called the _____ point of that solid. A. Freezing B. * Melting
C. Boiling D. Condensation
55. When radioactivity was discovered by Marie Curie? A. * 1898 B. 1896 C. 1902 D. 1904
56. Name the hardest material which is widely used in industry for grinding and drilling. A. Silver B. * Diamond C. Gold D. Quartz
57. Which animal has no sweat glands? A. Cat B. * Dog C. Rat D. Monkey
58. Potential energy is due to the _____ of an object. A. Direction B. Power C. * Position D. Motion
59. Capillary Action is caused by the surface tension of the. A. * Liquid B. Solid C. Water D. Gas
60. Sound waves with frequencies lower than the lowest limits of human hearing are called. A. Echosonic waves B. * Infrasonic waves C. Supersonic waves D. None of these
61. A prism is a triangular block of glass or. A. * Plastic B. Wood
C. Iron D. Silver
62. Velocity of a particle is defined as the rate of change of displacement with. A. Direction B. Speed C. Acceleration D. * Time
∘
63. Water expands from 4 c to. ∘
A. 2 c ∘
B. 5 c ∘
C. * 0 c ∘
D. -4 c
64. A liquid becomes a gas or vapour by increasing the. A. Velocity B. Acceleration C. Speed D. * Temperature-evaporation
65. The ultrasonic waves are inaudible to. A. Animals B. Insects C. * Humans D. Reptiles
66. In solids and liquids the molecules move relatively _____ and interact with each other strongly. A. Fastly B. More fastly C. * Slowly D. More slowly
67. The weight of a body is the downward force exerted by an object resulting from it being acted on by the force of. A. * Gravity B. Molecules C. Work D. Atoms
68. Pressure is defined as the force per unit. A. * Area
B. Volume C. Length D. Density
69. All the objects in the world are formed by various combinations of. A. Atoms B. Molecules C. Substances D. * Elements
70. Which electricity can be produced by rubbing an insulating material such as a polyethylene rod with a dry cloth? A. Electromagnetic B. * Static C. Materialistic D. Condensed
71. _____ is defined as the force acting on a material divided by area over which the force is applied. A. Elasticity B. * Stress C. Half life
D. Strength
72. Conduction and convection of heat is possible only with the movement of molecules and. A. * Atoms B. Fluids C. Gases D. Electrons
73. Name the branch of physics which deals with the ways in which object behave when they are acted on by forces. A. Mechanics B. * Dynamics C. Kinematics D. Thermodynamics
74. A thermostat is a device used in refrigerators and air conditioners to maintain a constant. A. * Temperature B. Heat C. Volume D. Nature
75. _____ solids do not have crystalline structure. A. Regular B. Dimensional C. True D. * Amorphous
76. Resistance is the property of a _____ that causes it to resist the flow of electric current. A. * Substance B. Current C. Energy D. Power
77. The pressure o the air around us is known as. A. Simple pressure B. Double pressure C. Vacuum pressure D. * Atmospheric
78. _____ is done when a force makes an object move. A. * Work B. Distance
C. Negative work D. Power
79. _____ in liquids is produced the inter-molecular forces between the liquid molecules in the surface. A. Spherical tension B. Cohesion C. * Surface tension D. Molecular tension
80. Light travels at different velocities in mediums of different. A. Speeds B. * Densities C. Directions D. Surfaces
81. Who was the first to formulate the law of gravitation? A. Kepler B. * Newton C. Einstein D. Charles
82. Density of an object is the mass of object per unit. A. Area B. * Volume C. Length D. Work
83. Graham law states that the rate of diffusion of a gas is inversely proportional to the square root of its. A. Pressure B. * Density C. Volume D. All of these
84. The vapours above a liquid have a pressure called. A. * Vapour pressure B. Gaseous pressure C. Liquid pressure D. Absolute pressure
85. When a _____ is heated up, the kinetic energy of its atoms or molecules increases. A. Gas
B. Liquid C. * Solid D. Matter
86. Matter that has gained or lost some electric charge has. A. Kinetic energy B. * Electric energy C. Vibrational energy D. Electrostatic energy
87. Red, blue and green are considered to be the. A. Secondary colours B. * Primary colours C. Beautiful colours D. Natural colours
88. Which cell gradually uses up the chemical fuel it contains and cannot be recharged? A. Dry cell B. * Primary cell C. Secondary cell D. Electrical cell
89. Some washing powders contain _____ compounds called optical brightness that makes fabrics appear brighter and cleaner. A. phosphorescence B. * Fluorescence C. Luminescence D. All of these
90. _____ is the smallest particle that can represent a particular chemical element. A. Electron B. * Atom C. Nuclei D. Cell
91. True solids have definite. A. Shape B. * Crystalline structure C. Nature D. Volume
92. Most lasers in use today are _____ lasers.
A. Simple B. Light C. Tube D. * Gas
93. Name the from of energy that is possessed by all material things. A. Condensation B. * Heat C. Cold D. Wavelength
94. Artificial radioactivity can be induced by bombarding a nucleus with high velocity. A. Protons B. Electrons C. * Neutrons D. Nuclei
95. There are _____ types of mirrors. A. 2 B. * 3 C. 4
D. 5
96. Name the basic theory that explains that energy is not continuous but is composed of indivisible quanta. A. Visible theory B. Invisible theory C. Simple theory D. * Quantum theory
97. The hydrogen atom has _____ protons in its nucleus. A. No B. Two C. Three D. * One
98. _____ is defined as quantity of matter in an object. A. Energy B. Solution C. * Mass D. Density
99. A substance in which all the atoms have the same atomic number is called.
A. Solid B. * Element C. Atomic mass D. Plasma
100. What is formed when two substances are mixed together and they do not react chemically. A. Isotope B. * Mixture C. Energy D. Solution
Chapter 15 Human Physiology & Anatomy
1. What is the average diameter of an adult eyeball? A. 3. 5 cm B. * 2. 5 cm C. 2. 0 cm D. 3. 0 cm
2. Which is the largest part of the brain? A. * Cerebrum B. Frontal Lobe C. Occipetal Lobe D. Parietal Lobe
3. Which system protects the delicate organs and tissues of the body? A. Nervous system B. Productive system C. Digestive system D. * Skeletal system
4. How many bones a human skeletal system contains? A. 216 B. 210 C. 208 D. * 206
5. Minerals and non-living matter make up _____ of a bone’s mass. A. Three-fourth B. One-fourth C. One-third D. * Two-third
6. The brain weighs about _____ grams in an adult. A. 1000 B. 1200 C. 1500 D. * 1300
7. The esophagus is a short tube between the lower pharynx (throat) and the. A. * Stomach
B. Heart C. Liver D. Kidney
8. _____can be damaged by sharp objects like matches, toothpicks, hairpins and nails etc. A. * Hearing B. Ear C. Eardrum D. Cochlea
9. An adult mouth contains_____ teeth. A. 20 B. 34 C. 30 D. * 32
10. The living matter of bones includes bone cells, blood vessels and _____. A. Flesh B. Tissues C. * Nerves D. Genes
11. In the inner ear is a chamber called the. A. Eardrum B. Ear membrane C. * Cochlea D. Eustachian tube
12. Of what kind, the drug penicillin is? A. Anesthetic B. Antipyretic C. Analgesic D. * Antibiotic
13. Muscles make up _____ percent of the human body’s mass. A. * 40 to 50 B. 50 to 70 C. 50 to 60 D. 50 to 65
14. _____ is like the film in a camera. A. Image
B. Sclera C. * Retina D. Cornea
15. Bone is one of the hardest_____ in the body. A. Parts B. * Tissues C. Hormones D. Muscles
16. A strain is a _____ injury which is caused by over exerting a muscle. A. Tissue B. * Muscle C. Bone D. Blood
17. Which one of the following is used to break down food and release energy. A. Chlorine B. Carbon dioxide C. * Oxygen D. Fresh air
18. Which part of the tooth gives sensation of hot or cold? A. Artery B. * Nerve C. Vein D. Lymph duct
19. Major veins have valves while arteries have _____ valves. A. 4 B. 3 C. 2 D. * No
20. How many parts an ear have? A. 2 B. * 3 C. 4 D. 5
21. Most absorption occurs in the long narrow, small. A. Stomach
B. Mouth C. Gall bladder D. * Intestine
22. Lungs heart, liver and brain are. A. Hard tissues B. * Soft tissues C. Moderate tissues D. None of these
23. The long deep sleep of animals is called. A. Migration B. * Hibernation C. Estivation D. None of these
24. The muscles of the heart are called. A. Smooth muscles B. Voluntary muscles C. * Cardiac muscles D. Striated muscles
25. Each kidney weighs about _____ grams. A. 80 B. 100 C. 120 D. * 140
26. The liver lies adjacent to the. A. Kidney B. Gall Bladder C. Lungs D. * Stomach
27. No image is formed on. A. * Blind spot B. Conjunctiva C. Cornea D. Sclera
28. Name the region where two bones meet. A. Ligament B. * Joint
C. Muscle D. None of these
29. About _____ blood filtration units, or nephrons, are packed into each kidney. A. 2 million B. Half million C. * 1 million D. 3 million
30. Name the longest and strongest bone in the body. A. Shin B. Tibia C. * Thigh D. Fibula
31. There are _____ types of bone tissues. A. * 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5
32. Arteries carry blood in a direction away from the. A. Liver B. Lungs C. * Heart D. Gall bladder
33. Arteries have thick elastic _____. A. Cells B. * Walls C. Hormones D. Blood
34. Which bones are called long bones? A. Hip and leg B. Arm and brain C. * Leg and arm D. Hip and arm
35. Which is the outermost tissues of skin? A. * Epidermis B. Dermis
C. Subcutaneous tissue D. None of these
36. Human ear can detect from 30 to _____ vibrations per second. A. 300 B. 10, 000 C. 15, 000 D. * 20, 000
37. Which is 2nd largest brain part? A. Occipetal Lobe B. * Cerebellum C. Temporal Lobe D. Pons Varolii
38. The skeleton can be divided into _____ sections. A. * 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5
39. The filtered blood is brought by the renal artery and removed by renal
veins. A. Bladder B. * Kidneys C. Gall bladder D. Liver
40. The filtered blood is brought by the renal artery and removed by renal minute. A. 15 to 20 B. 20 to 30 C. * 12 to 25 D. 25 to 35
41. The crusting and softening of food in the mouth is called. A. Saliva B. Absorption C. * Mastication D. None of these
42. The eyeball has _____ layers. A. 2 B. * 3
C. 4 D. 5
43. Medulla is the _____ part of the brain. A. Third largest B. Strongest C. * Smallest D. Softest
44. Name the process by which the body takes in oxygen and releases carbon dioxide. A. Breathing B. Inhalation C. Exhalation D. * Respiration
45. Where does the absorption of water and salts take place? A. Small intestine B. * Largo intestine C. Kidney D. Bladder
46. The weight of liver is about. A. * 2 kg B. 1 kg C. 3 kg D. 4 kg
47. The retina of eye and film of camera are sensitive to. A. Liquid B. Sound C. Airy dust D. * Light
48. Animals eat, sleep hunt and exercise at certain times of. A. The season B. The life C. The year D. * The day
49. Eye movements are made possible by _____ muscles. A. * 6 B. 4
C. 2 D. 3
50. Which system includes the heart, the blood and three types of blood vessels? A. Digestive system B. * Circulatory system C. Excretory system D. Respiratory system
51. An adult person’s skin weighs about_____ kilograms. A. 2. 5 B. 3. 5 C. * 2. 7 D. 3. 2
52. Intense pain is a symptom of. A. Blood strain B. Bone strain C. * Muscle strain D. Flesh strain
53. The minerals that harden bone contain the following elements. A. Carbon B. * Calcium C. Manganese D. Zinc
54. Animals that are active during the day are called_____ animals. A. * Diurnal B. Nocturnal C. Seasonal D. None of these
55. Blood in the veins contains a great deal of _____ that has been gathered from all the body cells. A. * Carbon dioxide B. Oxygen C. Supher D. Poison
56. The skeleton stores calcium and. A. * Phosphorus B. Potassium
C. Zinc D. Manganese
57. Skin has _____ layers of tissues. A. 2 B. * 3 C. 4 D. 5
58. Within the inner ear are three semicircular canals. These canals are filled with _____that shifts with movements. A. Air B. * Fluid C. Wax D. Dust
59. Each lung contains about _____ million air sacs. A. * 150 B. 200 C. 250 D. 300
60. The skin of an adult person is approximately _____ square feet. A. 16 B. 17 C. 18 D. * 19
Chapter 16 Environmental Sciences
1. Two million sea bird and over 100, 000 marine mammals die each year because of the poisoning of. A. * Sea water B. Soil C. Temperature D. Atmosphere
2. The major damage done to ozone has been attributed to. A. Carbon dioxide B. * Chlorofluoro-carbons C. Chlorine D. Sulphur
3. The solar constant is the encrgy that crosses each square metre at the top of the atmosphere per. A. * Second B. Minute C. Hour
D. Day
4. About _____ of carbon dioxide come from burning of fossil fuel (coal, gas, petroleum). A. 40% B. 60% C. * 80% D. 75%
5. _____comprises only 2 PPM (parts per million)of atmosphere but it is 30 times more effective than carbon dioxide in warming action. A. * Methane B. Chlorofluoro. . . carbons C. Sulphur D. Nitrous oxide
6. Decomposes are bacteria and fungi which degrade _____ organic matter. A. * Dead B. In C. Active D. Dormant
7. _____gases present in the air are more dangerous. They can travel over
thousands of kilometers and cause damage to vegetation, animals and human beings over a vast area. A. Natural B. Pure C. * Toxic D. Exhaust
8. Which gas quickly destroys ozone? A. Helium B. * Chlorine C. Carbon-dioxide D. Fluorine
9. Clean drinkable water is called. A. * Potable water B. Unpotable water C. Natural water D. Pure water
10. Visible light and radio waves penetrate to Earth’s. A. Water B. Gravity
C. * Surface D. Atmosphere
11. A substance which causes damage to life and ecosystem is called. A. * Pollutant B. Manure C. Garbage D. Dust particle
12. Producers are plants, which produce food through the process of. A. Polymerization B. Radiation C. Classification D. * Photosynthesis
13. The depletion of ozone has been called the. A. Ozone surface B. * Ozone hole C. Ozone layer D. Ozone destruction
14. When did the British atmosphere scientists surveying in Antarctica
announce a more than 40 percent decrease in the atmospheric ozone? A. * 1984 B. 1981 C. 1997 D. 1974
15. Much of sun’s radiation is either reflected or absorbed by. A. Dust B. Gravity C. Water D. * Atmosphere
16. _____ can make up 4 percent of the atmosphere by volume percent by weight. A. Helium B. * Water vapours C. Methane D. Ozone
17. Chlorofluoro-carbons are very stable and when they reach _____ kilomtres altitude (where the concentration of ozone is supposed to be highest), they are subjected to intense ultraviolet radiation from the sun. A. * 25
B. 28 C. 30 D. 32
18. Trout, Salmon and other types of fish are very sensitive to change in. A. * pH B. Gravity C. Atmospheric pressure D. Temperature
19. The components of an ecosystem are classified into _____ categories. A. 3 B. * 2 C. 4 D. 5
20. Ozone is a derivative of. A. Carbon dioxide B. Hydrogen C. Argon D. * Oxygen
21. What is the average temperature of the surface of the Earth? ∘
A. 24 c ∘
B. 16 c ∘
C. * 14 c ∘
D. 8 c
22. Most greenhouse models say that the temperature on the surface of the Earth would increase by at least_____ over the next century. ∘
A. 4-6 c ∘
B. * 3-5 c ∘
C. 5-10 c ∘
D. 3-9 c
23. Most ultraviolet radiation is absorbed by the _____ layer in the stratosphere. A. Gravitational B. * Ozone C. Gaseous D. Dust
24. The study of the inter-relationships of living organisms with each other and their environment is called.
A. * Ecology B. Polymerization C. Genetics D. Anthropology
25. The ozone layer is a naturally occurring ozone found in the stratosphere, situated between _____ kilometers above the Earth’s surface. A. 16-26 B. * 10-16 C. 20-28 D. 05-10
26. Over _____ % of India’s rivers are over polluted and 90% of child death toll is due to water pollution. A. 40 B. 55 C. * 66 D. 60
27. Chlorofluoro-carbon gases were introduced about _____ years ago. A. 25 B. 40
C. 50 D. * 60
28. Much of the solar radiation that reaches the surface of the Earth is absorbed in the. A. * Ground B. Water C. Metals D. Rocks
29. _____ of the population of the world is devoid of clean drinking water, in spite of abundance of water on the Earth. A. One third B. * Two third C. One fourth D. Three fourth
30. Ozone is a/an _____ gas. A. Pure B. Impure C. * Unstable D. Stable
31. There has been an increase in amount of _____ in the last two and half centuries. A. Nitrogen B. * Carbon dioxide C. Methane D. Sulphur
32. Name the global phenomenon in which there is a gradual increase in the temperature of the Earth as a result of pollutants and certain gases in the atmosphere of the Earth. A. Ecosystem B. Solar radiation C. Ozone depletion D. * Greenhouse effect
33. For the control of global warming Kyoto Conference was held in Dec 1997, in which _____ countries participated. A. 165 B. * 159 C. 155 D. 150
34. The composition of the atmosphere is relatively constant up to about
_____ kilomtres above the Earth’s surface. A. 32 B. 36 C. 46 D. * 48
35. Acid rain is a direct result of. A. * Air pollution B. Water pollution C. Dust D. Atmospheric pressure
36. The temperature of Arctic region is supported to rise on the average by 8 C more than present by the year. ∘
A. 2050 B. 2030 C. 2020 D. * 2010
37. _____ in the air combine with rain water to from nitric acid and sulfuric acid. A. Water vapours
B. Gases C. Dust particles D. * Pollutants
38. Acid rain concentrates _____ in water and soil. A. Oxygen B. Dust C. * Metals D. Purity
39. Currently carbon dioxide alone is responsible for _____ of the global warming phenomena. A. 25% B. 44% C. 50% D. * 57%
40. Pure rainwater is slightly acid It has a pH of about. A. 5. 5 B. 5. 6 C. 5. 4 D. * 5. 8
41. Water and carbon dioxide in air from an acid called. A. Carbolic acid B. Carbon acid C. * Carbonic acid D. None of these
42. Which is the most abundant gas in the atmosphere? A. Oxygen B. Carbon dioxide C. * Nitrogen D. Hydrogen
43. About how many people die every day because of contaminated water? A. 5, 000 B. 15, 000 C. 10, 000 D. * 25, 000
44. When was Earth Summit held in Brazil in which a treaty was signed to control the production of greenhouse gases? A. June 1994
B. June 1990 C. * June 1992 D. June 1991
45. During 1980s, _____ million tons of solid wastes was dumped into oceans. About 80% of it came through rivers. A. 168 B. * 172 C. 185 D. 190
46. How many layers, atmosphere has? A. 3 B. 4 C. * 5 D. 6
47. Ecosystem is the major structural and functional unit of. A. Biology B. * Ecology C. Taxanomy D. Genetics
48. Between 1946 and _____ a huge amount of radioactive wastes was dumped in the Northern Atlantic and Pacific Ocean as a result of military testing and reprocessing plants. A. 1992 B. * 1982 C. 1974 D. 1965
49. Which wastes come from atomic explosions and nuclear power plants? A. Industrial wastes B. Power wastes C. Ocean wastes D. * Radioactive wastes
50. When did USA and 22 other nations sign an agreement to reduce consumption of Chlorofluoro carbons? A. 1982 B. 1977 C. 1985 D. * 1987
Chapter 17 Energy & Energy Resources
1. Petroleum is deposited in. A. Coal B. * Rocks C. Water D. Non-living organisms
2. Uranium-_____ is used in a nuclear reaction to give energy. A. * 235 B. 435 C. 335 D. 135
3. _____ in Pakistan is got at Dandot Balkasar and Baluchistan. A. Petroleum B. Coal C. Gas D. * Oil
4. Coal is a _____ fuel. A. Organic B. Natural C. Ancient D. * Fossil
5. Lave, gases and hot water given off as a result of volcanic activity or natural hot springs and geysers are sources of. A. Solar energy B. Nuclear energy C. * Geothermal energy D. Hydroelectric
6. Air, water, food, forests, land, fish and wild life are _____ resources. A. Natural B. Renewable C. Particular D. * All of these
7. France, Saudi Arabia, Japan, and some European countries are using _____ to heart buildings, water and to power cars and communication system.
A. Natural gas B. * Solar energy C. Hydroelectric D. Nuclear energy power
8. Horse power is a unit of. A. * Power B. Work C. Energy D. Length
9. Electricity is a _____ source of energy. A. Basic B. Primary C. Intermediate D. * Secondary
10. The sources of energy which are commonly used particularly for power generation are called_____ sources of energy. A. Non-conventional B. * Conventional C. Non-sustainable
D. Sustainable
11. When was gas discovered at Sun? A. 1948 B. 1951 C. 1954 D. * 1952
12. Pakistan gas contains 70-_____ methane. A. 95% B. * 90% C. 85% D. 80%
13. The raw material for hydrocarbons and plastics is. A. * Gas B. Oil C. Rocks D. Water
14. Pakistan uses oil for its _____ power production. A. 60%
B. 50% C. * 40% D. 20%
15. Which is the major oil production country? A. Egypt B. pakistan C. Afghanistan D. * Russia
16. Karachi Nuclear Power plant (KANUPP)produces about _____ percent of power. A. 1. 27 B. 2. 27 C. * 0. 27 D. 0. 54
17. Pakistan has two nuclear power plants, one at Karachi and the other at. A. Rawalpindi B. Dhodak C. Taxilla D. * Chashma
18. Falling water in hilly areas is used as a source of mechanical energy to rotate turbines to generate. A. Oil B. * Electricity C. Petroleum D. Gas
19. British thermal unit is the amount of heat necessary to raise the temperature of one pound of water through one degree. A. * Fahrenheit B. Centigrade C. Temperature D. Celsing
20. Gas is used for _____ of power generation in Pakistan. A. 58% B. 64% C. * 48% D. 40%
21. Fossil fuel, hydel power and nuclear energy are major sources of energy while wind power, tidal power, solar energy and geothermal energy are
_____ sources. A. Intermediate B. * Minor C. Common D. Particular
22. What is produced by using energy of coal, gas, nuclear fission, sunlight and energy of flowing water? A. * Electricity B. Fuel C. Manure D. None of these
23. In pakistan where is coal fueled power station? A. * Lakhra (Sindh) B. Jehlum C. Attock D. Dhodak
24. A 100-watt bulb lit for one hour uses _____ watts of electricity. A. 60 B. * 100
C. 50 D. 200
25. Coal is used for about 30% of world’s power production and about _____ of pakistan’s power production. A. 30% B. 40% C. * 10% D. 50%
26. The hydroelectric power generation is only about _____ percent in Pakistan. A. 23% B. * 13% C. 33% D. None of these
27. The hydroelectric power generation is only about _____ in Pakistan. A. * 13% B. 15% C. 10% D. 8%
28. Chief direct sources of energy are, oil, coal, wood and gas. There are also the _____ sources of energy. A. Pre-mature B. Basic C. * Primary D. Natural
29. Ancient organic matter also gave _____ along with petroleum and coal. A. Ashes B. Manure C. * Gas D. All of these
30. Megawatt is amount of energy equal to _____ kilowatts. A. 100 B. 10 C. * 1000 D. 10, 000
Chapter 18 Earth Science
∘
∘
1. Sea water freezes below 28. 6 F(-1. 9 C)whereas fresh water freezes at. ∘
A. 34 F ∘
B. 33 F ∘
C. * 32 F ∘
D. 30 F
2. Metamorphic rocks are classified into _____ main types. A. 5 B. 4 C. 3 D. * 2
3. A branch of science which deals with the study of the Earth’s crust is called. A. * Geology B. Climatology C. Morphology
D. Histology
4. The axis of the Earth is inclined at an angle of _____ degree relative to the plane of the orbit of the Earth. A. 25 B. * 23 C. 24 /12 D. 26 /14
5. There are _____ main strata (layers) of the atmosphere. A. 2 B. * 4 C. 6 D. 5
6. There are _____ types of sedimentary rocks. A. 2 B. * 3 C. 4 D. 5
7. The important ozone layer is found in.
A. lonosphere B. Exosphere C. * Stratosphere D. Troposphere
8. Variation in Earth’s magnetic field causes changes in the _____ smaller duration or longer duration. A. Atmosphere B. * Weather C. Clouds D. Water
9. Sedimentary rocks are common and cover about _____ percent of the total land area. A. 45 B. 50 C. 60 D. * 75
10. About 200 million years ago, virtually all the Earth’s dry land was contained in the original super continent. What is it called? A. Pangaea B. Lauresia
C. Gondwana D. * None of these
11. The Earth has _____ main structural components. A. 2 B. * 4 C. 3 D. 6
12. Who is known as the Father of Geology? A. James Hutton B. Alfred Wegener C. Charles Lyell D. * Philon
13. Equator is a/an _____ line around the Earth midway between the poles. It is 0-degree latitude. A. Complete B. Half C. Geological D. * Imaginary
14. The outer core is believed to be completely. A. Gaseous B. Solid C. Covered D. * Melted metals
15. Usually _____ of the mass of an iceberg is under the surface of water. A. 2/10 B. 4/10 C. 6/10 D. * 9/10
16. Carbon dioxide present in the atmosphere is necessary for. A. Human beings B. * plants C. Reptiles D. Insects
17. icebergs have caused ships to sink, the most famous example being the Titanic which sank in _____ after hitting a relatively small iceberg. A. * 1912 B. 1910
C. 1914 D. 1916
18. By which scale, the severity of an Earthquake is measured? A. Fischer Scale B. Index scale C. Absolute scale D. * Richter scale
19. Name the outer rigid layer of the Earth from which the plates are made. A. Thermosphere B. Stratosphere C. * Lithosphere D. lonosphere
20. Greenwich (England) is at _____ degree longitude. A. 45 B. 145 C. * Zero D. 90
21. _____ rocks are the most common types on the surface of the Earth.
A. Metamorphic B. lgneous C. * Sedimentary D. Organic
22. Life not possible on the Earth without the presence of. A. Weather B. Clouds C. * Atmosphere D. Dust
23. The hemisphere of Earth facing the Sun has day time while the hemisphere facing away from the Sun has. A. Summer B. Winter C. * Night D. Morning
24. Which of the following units of the geological, clock is the longest? A. * Eons B. Epoctis C. Eros
D. Epochs
25. The most destructive waves in the ocean are _____ caused by underwater Earthquakes, landslides, volcanic eruption, or by hurricanes. A. Tidal waves B. * Tsunamis C. Ocean current D. El-Nino
26. How much Earth’s surface is covered by water? A. 75 B. * 70 C. 80 D. 65
27. _____ are also called tropical cyclones or typhoons. A. * Hurricanes B. Tornadoes C. Thunders D. Currents
28. El-Nino is a _____ weather phenomenon.
A. Regional B. * Global C. Continental D. None of these
29. At a depth of between about 1650 and _____ feet, a sound channel exists where sound waves can be tapped and also along which sound waves can travel for large distances. A. 2000 B. * 5000 C. 2500 D. 3300
30. A continental shelf is a submerged, gently sloping ledge that surrounds the edge of a. A. * Continent B. Region C. Country D. Sea
31. _____ rocks are formed when molten magma cools and solidifies. A. Metamorphic B. Elastic
C. * lgneous D. Chemical
32. Ocean waves are produced due to movement of. A. Dust particles B. Animals remains C. * Water molecules D. Rocks
33. Our atmosphere has a protective role against dangerous ultraviolet radiation, solar x-rays and other high energy radiation coming from. A. * Space B. Sun C. Moon D. Other planets
34. The density of the Earth is _____ times of water. A. * 5. 5 B. 6. 5 C. 7. 5 D. 4. 5
35. More the 75 percent of the water in the oceans has a temperature of less than. ∘
A. 40 F ∘
B. 35 F ∘
C. 42 F ∘
D. * 41 F
36. Nearly _____ million years ago, the land masses of the Earth were concentrated into one super continent called Pangaea. A. 500 B. * 200 C. 100 D. 400
37. The continental shelf constitutes _____ percent of the total area of the sea floor. A. 8 to9 B. * 7 to 8 C. 10 to 12 D. 6 to 7
38. Name the major gas in the atmosphere of the Earth. A. * Nitrogen
B. Oxygen C. Hydrogen D. Argon
39. Which cololour penetrates in water farther than other colours? A. Yellow B. * Blue C. Red D. Black
40. The chemical composition of the Earth’s crust is dominated by _____ elements which together make up more than 99 percent by weight and volume of the crust. A. 4 B. 6 C. * 8 D. 9
41. Severe storms like hurricanes and tornadoes account for about _____ percent of the huge damage caused annually by natural disasters. A. 30 B. * 20 C. 35
D. 25
42. How many cloud shapes are present in atmosphere? A. 5 B. 4 C. 3 D. * 2
43. The ocean’s surface currents are created and driven by the _____ on the Earth’s surface. A. Pollution B. Lights C. * Winds D. Noise
44. Ozone is concentrated in the stratosphere, between 44 and _____ above the Earth. A. 49 B. 46 C. 52 D. * 56
45. What is the mouth of a volcano called?
A. * Vent B. Crater C. Plug D. Cone
46. Latitude is the distance on the surface of the Earth measured in degree north and south of the equator. The equator is at zero degree while the poles are at _____ degree. A. 30 B. * 90 C. 45 D. 60
47. The course of a river can be divided into _____ sections. A. * 3 B. 2 C. 4 D. 6
48. icebergs in sea last for less than _____ months. A. 2 B. 4
C. * 3 D. 5
49. Tropic of Capricorn is an imaginary line _____ degree south of equator. A. * 23 B. 25 C. 23 D. 20
50. The top layer of the oceanic crust has an average thickness of. A. * 808 meters B. 1000 meters C. 950 meters D. 700 meters
51. Today, the area of ice-covered land has reduced to _____ million square kilometers. A. 15. 6 B. * 15. 5 C. 15. 7 D. 15. 2
52. Hurricanes can be _____ at radar screens and satellite pictures. A. Recorded B. * Recognized C. Seen D. None of these
53. Asthenosphere is the region of the Earth’s mantle extending from about 60 to _____ miles below the surface, in which plastic movements can take place. A. 450 B. 455 C. 445 D. * 435
54. Which of the following is not an example of igneous rocks? A. * Aqueous rocks B. Plutonic rocks C. Alkali rocks D. Silicon rocks
55. The temperature increases rapidly with depth in outer _____ kilometers of the Earth.
A. 209 B. 220 C. 125 D. * 201
56. There are _____ broad categories of rocks. A. * 3 B. 2 C. 4 D. 5
57. A meander is a wide loop or bend in a. A. Stream B. Ocean C. Lake D. * River
58. Minerals that are commercially valuable are known as. A. Crystals B. * Ore minerals C. Organic minerals
D. Inorganic minerals
59. The slow movement of continents from one part of the globe to another through long periods of geological time is called. A. Magnetic field B. Tectonic plate C. Continental crust D. * Continental drift
60. Seasonal variations on the Earth take place due to motion of _____ in its orbit. A. Sun B. Moon C. * Earth D. Solar System
61. Exosphere layer consists only of scattered atoms of oxygen, hydrogen and. A. Neon B. Carbon dioxide C. Argon D. * Helium
62. A needle of the compass points _____ because the Earth’s magnetic field is dipolar. A. * North B. West C. Downward D. South
63. Which day is the longest day in the Northern Hemisphere and shortest day in the Southern Hemisphere? A. June 22 B. * June 21 C. Jan 21 D. Sep 22
64. The rocks immediately below the Earth’s surface contain over _____ million cubic miles of water, about 40 time as much as in all rivers, lakes and marshes in the world. A. * 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5
65. The crust extends down to about _____ miles and consists of rocks with a density of less than 188 pounds per cubic foot.
A. 40 B. 35 C. * 25 D. 30
66. Name the instrument, which detects the waves of an Earthquake. A. Cardiograph B. * Seismograph C. Spectrograph D. Holograph
67. There are _____ million tons of gold in the sea. A. * 10 B. 5 C. 20 D. 15
68. Tornadoes travel up to _____ miles (322 km). A. 220 B. * 200 C. 240
D. 210
69. The mass of the Earth is. A. 5. 87×10 Tons 21
B. 5. 847×10 Tons 21
C. * 5. 972×10 Tons 21
D. 5. 974×10 Tons 22
70. The Mariana Trench the World’s deepest point is more than _____ feet below the sea level in some parts about 23, 000 feet below the mean depth of the ocean floor. A. * 36, 000 B. 34, 000 C. 32, 000 D. 30, 000
71. Which of the following units of the geological, clock is the shortest? A. Ages B. Eras C. Epochs D. * Periods
72. Who showed first that the Earth is a giant magnet?
A. William Gilbert B. * Alfred Wegener C. R. a Dally D. Gerardus Mercaton
73. _____ are formed of masses of water droplets and ice crystals. A. Storms B. Hurricanes C. * Clouds D. El-Ninos
74. As the Earth moves round the sun, the Northern Hemisphere and shortest day in the Southern Hemisphere? A. * 6 B. 9 C. 3 D. 4
75. Knot is a unit of _____ over sea or a ship. A. Velocity B. Acceleration C. Length
D. * Speed
76. The equatorial diameter of the Earth is 12756. 274 km and polar diameter of the Earth is. A. 12711. 506 km B. 12731. 505 km C. * 12713. 505 km D. 12713. 506
77. A geyser is a hot spring in which underground water is heated by geothermal activity and periodically boils. In _____, there are many geysers. A. Indonesia B. Egypt C. * Iceland D. U. K
78. The troposphere is the _____ layer which contains about 75 percent of the total mass of the atmosphere. A. * Lowest B. 2nd lowest C. Middle D. Upper
79. A mineral is a naturally formed inorganic substance with a fixed _____ composition. A. Natural B. * Physical C. Organic D. Chemical
80. It is believed that Earth’s magnetic field is used by _____ for their long distance migration. A. Reptiles B. Animals C. * Birds D. Insects
81. There are _____ measures of the severity of an Earthquake. A. * 2 B. 4 C. 3 D. 1
82. Tropic of Cancer is an imaginary line 23 equator.
degree _____ of the
A. East B. * North C. West D. South
83. The two most abundant elements in the sea water are sodium and. A. Oxygen B. Sulphur C. * Chlorine D. Carbon dioxide
84. Centrifugal force pushes the matter away from the center of axis of the rotation Many of other planets are also compressed like that. The most prominent is. A. Venus B. Mercury C. Pluto D. * Saturn
85. The canyon has a maximum depth of about_____ feet (1. 6 kilometres) from the plateau top to the Colorado River. A. 5480 B. * 5280
C. 5380 D. 5180
86. The composition of the atmosphere is constant up to about _____ km above the Earth’s surface with the exception of ozone and water vapours. A. 44 B. * 48 C. 46 D. 50
87. The largest ocean is. A. Atlantic B. Indian C. Arctic D. * Pacific
88. _____ is the shortest day in the Northern Hemisphere and longest day in the Southern Hemisphere. A. Sep 21 B. Oct 24 C. Dec 22 D. * Dec 21
89. Between about 48 and 306 kilometers above the surface is the A. * lonosphere B. Troposphere C. Thermosphere D. Stratosphere
90. Tides are characterized by rise and fall of the water level in the. A. Lakes B. Rivers C. Streams D. * Oceans
91. In how many climatic zones, our Earth is divided? A. * 5 B. 3 C. 2 D. 4
92. The outer core is a mixture of melted iron and. A. Rocks B. * Nickel
C. Silicon D. Cobalt
93. Most of the rivers start as small. A. Lakes B. Deltas C. * Streams D. Meanders
94. The geographical location of a _____ is given by its latitude and the longitude. A. Region B. Country C. Continent D. * City
95. The force of flowing rivers usually cut _____ shaped valleys in the mountain regions. A. L B. S C. T D. * V
96. Tides occur every _____ and their timing and position depend on the Earth’s rotation on its axis related to the position of the moon. A. Night B. Year C. * Day D. Week
97. Upon which the density of water depends? A. * Temperature B. Light C. Dust D. Atmosphere
98. The equatorial circumference of the Earth is 40075. 02 km and polar circumference is. A. 40007. 68 km B. * 40007. 86 km C. 40007. 58 km D. 40006. 68 km
99. _____ rocks are formed by the alteration of pre-existing rocks by great heat or pressure.
A. Metamorphic B. Alkali C. * Silicon D. Organic
100. There are more than _____ submerged, usually extinct, volcanoes in the world. A. 200 B. 1000 C. 1500 D. * 2000
101. _____ is a mass of ice produced by accumulation and compression of snow which moves slowly downhill or seaward under its own weight. A. * Glacier B. Mountain C. Delta D. Volcano
102. Wind speeds in tornadoes may reach _____ miles per hour. A. 330 B. 280
C. 300 D. * 380
103. Which of the following is an important physical property of mineral? A. Cleavage B. Specific gravity C. Hardness D. * All the above
104. Minerals are very important as they are basic units of the. A. Salts B. Crystals C. * Rocks D. Blocks
105. The highest Richter magnitude ever recorded was 8. 9 in _____ in 1933 approximately as powerful as a 100- megaton explosion. A. Turkey B. Indonesia C. * Japan D. U. k
Chapter 19 Computers, Electronics & Communication
1. When was IBM personal Computer launched? A. 1975 B. 1977 C. 1974 D. * 1979
2. Binary system employed in computers use only two digits. A. 1 and 2 B. 0 and 10 C. * 0 and 1 D. 1 and 10
3. A printer receives information from computer and prints it on a. A. Control unit B. Disk C. Copy D. * Paper
4. A kilo byte is a group of _____ bytes. A. 2024 B. * 1024 C. 24 D. 124
5. Name the smallest unit of memory. A. Phase B. Maze C. * Bit D. Byte
6. Which is the main unit of any computing system? A. Keyboard B. * CPU C. Cursor D. Modem
7. The first floppy disk was developed by IBM in. A. 1968
B. 1970 C. * 1972 D. 1974
8. Macro computers have _____ CPU (central processing units). A. No B. 1 C. * Many D. 2
9. Brain virus was the first virusdeveloped by two _____ brothers. A. * Pakistan B. Japanese C. American D. German
10. Which of the following is not an examples of software? A. Floppy disks B. Hard discs C. Magnetic tapes D. * All of these
11. A floppy disk is a circular piece of mylar or other plastic like material coated with. A. Silicon B. Iron sulphide C. Nickel oxide D. * Iron oxide
12. The bacteria are_____ that do not explicitly damage any file. A. Networks B. Systems C. * Programmes D. Information
13. _____ computers are large sized computers, also called main frame computers. A. Laptop B. Super C. Analog D. * Macro
14. All computers use _____ to hold certain start up programmes to start disk drives, and load operating systems into memory.
A. * ROM B. RAM C. Both ROM and RAM D. None of these
15. In _____ programming programming are written as lists of instructions, which the computer obeys in sequence. A. Preferential B. Internal C. * Procedural D. Instructional
16. Which of the following is an essential part of a pocket calculator? A. Number keys B. Display panel C. Command keys D. * All of these
17. The time needed to access data from disk is called. A. More time B. Warm time C. * Access time
D. Set time
18. What is a hybrid computer? A. * Combination of analogue and B. Pure analogue computer C. Pure digital computer D. None these
19. A giga byte is a group of 1024. A. Bits B. Kilo kilo bytes C. Kilo bytes D. * Mega bytes
20. Physical components of a computer including all peripheral devices are called. A. * Hardware B. Mathematics C. Lograthm D. Mechanics
21. The writing of instructions in a language for control of computer is called.
A. Application B. * Programming C. Software D. Word-processing
22. A number indicating a specific location of memory is called. A. * Address B. Location C. Area D. Specified region
23. Complete structure of instructions is called. A. Robot B. Command C. Compiler D. * System
24. Which programming is based on definition of functions? A. Basic B. Educational C. * Functional
D. Processing
25. Nibble is smaller than byte, it is a group of _____ bits. A. 10 B. 6 C. * 4 D. 3
26. Monochrome is a _____ colour. A. Bi B. * Single C. Tri D. Mega
27. Very big computers used for complex scientific calculations are. A. Digital computers B. Special computers C. * Super computers D. Super main frame
28. An instruction given to Computer in direct mode is called. A. Database
B. Forward C. Search D. * Command
29. Semiconductors used in electronic devices are doped to change their electronic devices are doped to change their electrical. A. Qualities B. Programmes C. Substances D. * Properties
30. The _____ of a Computer is measured in terms of its processing speed, memory capacity and back-up size. A. Accuracy B. Time C. Language D. * Power
31. A byte is a unit for measurement for computer memory capacity. It is a group of _____ bits. A. * 8 B. 4 C. 6
D. 10
32. A machine languages is the most fundamental programming languages which is directly understood by the. A. System software B. * Microprocessor C. Word processor D. Computer
33. High level symbolic languages are_____ generation. A. Fifth B. Fourth C. * Third D. None of these
34. A network virus is known as. A. Disease B. * Worm C. System D. Dormancy
35. What is 4 GL?
A. Four graphic lights B. Four gates locomotives C. * Fourth generation languages D. None of these
36. ROM and RAM are commonly used terms in computers. What are these? A. * Memories B. Input devices C. Output devices D. Peripherals
37. Laptops are the smallest computers, also called the. A. * Portable computers B. Small computers C. Dwarf computers D. Mini computers
38. FORTRAN is a high level language used for _____ purposes. A. * Scientific B. Educational C. Trade
D. Instructional
39. What is meant by tallying? A. * Method of counting B. Method of copying C. Method of matching D. Method of remembering
40. Which memory can be read or written? A. ROM B. * RAM C. Both ROM and RAM D. None of these
41. The functions of the analogue computer is only to. A. Copy B. Imitate C. Compare D. * All of these
42. Which is the oldest storage medium? A. Audio tape
B. * Magnetic tape C. Floppy disk D. Hard disk
43. Which computers are used in small business applications and for home computing? A. Pocket computers B. Macro computers C. * microcomputers D. Portable computers
44. Which computer has a memory and solve problems by counting precisely, adding, subtracting multiplying, diving and comparing? A. Quality computer B. Analogue computer C. Hybrid computer D. * Digital computer
45. A tera byte is a group of _____ giga bytes. A. * 1024 B. 2041 C. 10024
D. 124
46. Low level symbolic languages are called _____ generation languages. A. * Second B. Third C. Fourth D. None of these
47. Function keys are the keys on the keyboard marked as F1 to. A. F9 B. F10 C. * F12 D. F16
48. There are _____ application softwares. A. * 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5
49. Which of the following can be used as a printer in word processing? A. Laser printer
B. Dot matrix printer C. Daisy wheel printer D. * All of these
50. With respect to hardware generations, programming languages have _____ generations. A. 4 B. * 5 C. 3 D. 2
51. There are _____ types of memories. A. * 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5
52. There are _____ types of monitors. A. 2 B. * 3 C. 4 D. 5
53. _____ controls time and sequence of the operation of the computers or organizes the processing. A. * Control unit B. Electronic clock C. Programme counter D. Control device
54. The millennium bug is named. A. Yo k B. * Y2 k C. Y4 k D. Y2 k2
55. Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU)performs actual _____ of date, which includes addition, subtraction, multiplication and division. A. Organizing B. * Processing C. Programming D. All of these
56. The velocity at which an object will continue its circular motion around the Earth in an orbit called the.
A. Object velocity B. * Orbital velocity C. Circular velocity D. Continuing velocity
57. _____ worlds on production of suitable electromagnetic signals that can be transmitted, received and converted back to the original pattern. A. Tape recorder B. Radar C. * TV D. Transistor
58. A blinking undercore (dot)seen on monitor is called. A. Star B. * Cursor C. Light D. None of these
59. A database is information or date on a disk or tape, where database are used? A. Hospitals B. Police headquarters
C. Libraries D. * All of these
60. Name the simplest calculator that has been used for thousands of years. A. Acabus B. * Abacus C. Stonehenge D. None of these
61. Registers store _____ results and date awaiting processing. A. * Intermediate B. Basic C. Primary D. Pre-mature
62. Date stored for long long term retention in called. A. Retrieve B. * Archive C. Access D. Backing
63. A programming language is a special notation in which insertions for
controlling computer are. A. Made B. * Written C. Noted D. All of these
64. Which programme assembles photos, text and audio onto web pages that appear on Computer screen? A. COBOL B. * Browser C. ALGOL D. SNOBAL
65. For word processing, what input device must be used? A. Joystick B. * Keyboard C. Modem D. Mouse
66. A mega byte is group of 1024. A. * Kilo bytes B. Kilo bits
C. Bits D. Bytes
67. Radio is based on the principle that electrical signals can travel without a wire, So it is also called. A. * Wireless B. Electronic signal C. Speedometer D. Transmitor
68. Which of the following is an example of special purpose analogue computer? A. Planimeters B. Scale models C. Slide rule D. * All of these
69. Special purpose softwares are developed for special situations like rules and regulations to prepare payroll which differ from. A. Computer to Computer B. Network to network C. System to system D. * Company to company
70. Which of the following is not an input device of a computers? A. * Compiler B. Mouse C. Light pen D. Keyboard
71. The programmes and date or the instruction are called the _____ of the system. A. Physics B. * Software C. Mechanics D. Electronics
72. A small area of memory for temporary storage of date is called. A. Bug B. Bios C. Temporary D. * Buffer
73. The number code used by computer is called. A. Logarithmic
B. * Binary system C. Decimal D. Mathematical system
74. The general term for the production and processing of electric signals that convey information is called. A. * Electronics B. Electrolysis C. Searching D. Mechanics
75. The memory of the computer is measured in bytes. How many bytes make a megabyte? A. 1, 046, 576 B. 1, 048, 376 C. 1, 058, 576 D. * 1, 048, 576
76. The web refers to all those interconnected data sources you get there via the. A. Computer B. DOS C. * Internet
D. Microprocessor
77. A programme is a sequence of _____ to be performed. A. Information B. Programmes C. * Instructions D. Works
78. Which input device is used for playing computer games? A. Keyboard B. Mouse C. * Joystick D. Keypad
79. A copy of virus can _____ a number of programmes. A. Beautify B. Store C. Erase D. * Damage
80. _____ can be defined as the machines which can do calculation or process data with high accuracy and great speed.
A. Calculator B. Abacus C. * Computer D. All of these
81. _____ programming is for end user programmes, such as word processing packages. A. * Application B. Software C. System D. Electronic
82. A TV like device called _____ is used to display result on a screen. A. Modem B. CPU C. printer D. * Monitor
83. Memory Unit (MU), also called main storage is an integral physical part which contains date stored in unique locations identified by. A. computer B. Mouse
C. * An address D. Cursor
84. In the field of business, internet will work as world wide _____ in the near future. A. * Manager B. Boss C. Companion D. Subordinate
85. Which is the most widely used programming language in schools, colleges and universities? A. PASCAL B. FORTRAN C. DOS D. * BASIC
86. An integrated circuit is a group of electronics parts joined together in a protective ease. It is also called as. A. Byte B. * Chip C. Bit D. Silicon
87. _____ is an alphabet, numeric, punctuation marks etc. A. Word B. Data C. * Character D. Storage
88. On the net, which Computers are linked together via telephone lines and fibre-optic cable? A. * Servers B. Mega Computers C. Super Computers D. Special purpose Computer
89. Hard disk is fixed disk which has a great capacity of storing date normally calculated in _____ A. Tera bytes B. * Mega bytes C. Kilo bytes D. Bytes
90. There are _____ major types of computers.
A. * 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5
91. All machine languages are considered as _____ generation of programming languages. A. Second B. Third C. * First D. No
92. Which device links computers over telephone lines? A. Monitor B. CPU C. Printer D. * Modem
93. Electronic mail (E. . . mail) is the information directed to specific users, screens or held in computer mail box for access by users who type in. A. * Codes B. computers
C. Papers D. Systems
94. Which of the following was discovered by Germans during World WarTwo? A. * Magnetic Tape B. Keypad C. Floppy disc D. Hard disc
95. The common _____ words are used as instructions in third generation. A. * English B. French C. Latin D. Greek
96. Which computer is used in medium sized organizations and laboratories? A. Macro B. * Mini C. Pocket D. Calculating
97. _____ satellites are the most important of satellites. A. * Communication B. Scientific research C. Navigation D. Weather
98. COBOL is a language for_____ applications. A. Commerce B. Trade C. Scientific D. * Business
99. A chip is made from a very thin flake of an elemental called. A. Aluminum B. Iron C. Copper D. * Silicon
100. The internet is like the _____ system, which ties callers around the world together via web of data-transmission lines. A. Micro B. * Phone
C. Mechanical D. Intelligence
Chapter 20 Chemistry
1. The experimental relationship between a reaction rate and the concentration of the reactions is known as. A. * Rate law B. Law of reaction C. Rate of reaction D. Order of reaction
2. Oxidation reaction is that in which _____ is added to an element or compound. A. * Oxygen B. Nitrogen C. Carbon dioxide D. Hydrogen
3. How many known natural silicates are in the world? A. 700+ B. 750+ C. * 800+
D. 600+
4. Which is used in closed spacies to kill bacteria and other micro-organisms? A. Insecticides B. Rodenticides C. * Fumigants D. Pesticides
5. The phenomenon of cooling and sudden expansion of gases is called. A. Charl’s effect B. Boyl’s effect C. Compton’s effect D. * Joule Thomson effect
6. _____ fertilizers contain all the major ingredients required for the growth of plants. A. * Complete B. Incomplete C. Direct D. Indirect
7. Saturated hydrocarbons are called.
A. Alkynes B. * Alkanes C. Alkenes D. Alicyclic hydrocarbons
8. Ordinary _____ is made by adding sand, sand ash (sodium oxide) and limestone (Calcium oxide). A. Ceramic B. Cinnabar C. * Glass D. Quartz
9. Which gas is used in preparing soft drinks? A. * Carbon dioxide B. Ammonia C. Nitrogen D. Hydrogen sulphide
10. For the lat _____ years chemistry has been essential to the development of mankind. A. * 4000 B. 3000
C. 2000 D. 4500
11. Bronze has been in use since 3500 B. C Currently bronze contains about 75 percent copper and 25 percent. A. Zinc B. * Tin C. Led D. Iron
12. Which water does not readily from lather with soap and causes curdling of soap? A. Simple water B. Natural water C. Heavy water D. * Hard water
13. When animals and plants die, bacteria release nitrogen from their dead bodies in the form of. A. Carbon dioxide B. Hydrogen sulphide C. * Ammonia D. Oxygen
14. Any organism which is harmful or destructive for human beings, crops or useful plants is called. A. Insect B. * Pest C. Reptile D. Mammal
15. 18-carat gold is three-fourth gold and one-forth other metals Pure gold is. A. 22 carats B. * 21 carats C. 20 carats D. 19 carats
16. The number of protons is called. A. Atomic weight B. Atomic mass C. * Atomic number D. Atomic density
17. Elements which do not react with other elements have their outermost shell.
A. * Completely filled B. Completely empty C. Complex shaped D. Half filled
18. In about _____ John Dalton realized that all matter is composed of relatively few elements. A. 1850 B. 1820 C. 1840 D. * 1800
19. Organic compouds are widely distributed in nature in various forms Name the most abundant organic compound in the world. A. Methane B. Glucose C. Alcohol D. * Cellulose
20. _____ are widely used in electric supply industry. A. Ceramic tiles B. Synthetic ceramics
C. Raw ceramics D. * Ceramic insulators
21. There are _____ alkali metals. A. 4 B. * 6 C. 2 D. 5
22. Name the phenomenon in which the same number and types of atoms may join together in different molecular arrangements. A. * Isomerism B. Chemical reaction C. Chemical bonding D. Oxidation
23. Which is the most purest form of iron? A. Stainless steel B. * Wrought iron C. Cast iron D. Pig iron
24. Which metal is used in fluorescent tubes, ammunition and thermometers? A. * Mercury B. Zinc C. Cadmium D. Beryllium
25. Which gas makes up approximately 78 percent by volume of the Earth’s atmosphere? A. Hydrogen B. Carbon dioxide C. * Nitrogen D. Oxygen
26. Since _____ synthetic diamonds have been made industrially. A. * 1955 B. 1965 C. 1975 D. 1945
27. The building blocks of proteins are called. A. * Amino acids B. Monosaccharids
C. Lipids D. Carbonylic acids
28. A solution is a. A. * Hymogeneous mixture B. Heterogeneous mixture C. Non-homogeneous mixture D. Normal mixture
29. Name the first element of the periodic table. A. Oxygen B. Krypton C. * Hydrogen D. Radon
30. Nitrogen, phosphorous and potassium are. A. Simple nutrients B. Micro nutrients C. Secondary nutrients D. * Macro nutrients
31. The process in which a solid turns to a vapour without passing through an
intermediate liquid state is. A. Allotropy B. * Sublimation C. Carbon dating D. Alkaline dating
32. Which gas is used in fire extinguishers? A. Helium B. Nitrogen C. Nitrogen dioxide D. * Carbon dioxide
33. _____ are found in the form of liquids or solids. A. Polythenes B. Nylons C. * Silicones D. Polyurethanes
34. Dead plant material, animal dung, manure rock phosphate and chile saltpeter are. A. Phosphate fertilizers B. Artificial fertilizers
C. * Natural fertilizers D. Direct fertilizers
35. Properties of gases and liquids are. A. * Isomeric B. Anisotropic C. Isomorphic D. Isotropic
36. Atoms unite together to form molecules and compounds by means of. A. Chemical ores B. * Chemical bonds C. Chemical ions D. Electrical bonds
37. Which metal is very abundant throughout the Earth’s crust and the most commonly used structural metal? A. Steel B. Copper C. * Iron D. Silver
38. Merbicides are used against. A. Fungi B. * Weeds C. Mites D. Worms
39. Most of the familiar products around us depend on the _____ industry. A. Physical B. * Chemical C. Modern D. Civilized
40. Which theory says that all matter is composed of atoms which give characteristic properties to matter? A. Radioactive theory B. * Atomic theory C. Combustion theory D. Metallic theory
41. Who proved that burning is the chemical combination of the combustible material with then oxygen of the air? A. Mendeleev
B. Dobereiner C. * Antoine Lavoisier D. Joseph Priestly
42. Lakium is present in the largest amount in a human body Name the element which is present in the smallest amount. A. Iodine B. Zinc C. Glyline D. * Manganese
43. There are _____ kinds of chemical bonds. A. 2 B. * 3 C. 4 D. 5
44. Ozone is found in its highest concentration at a height of _____ kilometers. A. 19 B. 24 C. 27
D. * 30
45. Which element can be found pure in nature in three forms as diamonds as graphite and as amorphous carbon? A. Aluminium B. Zinc C. Boron D. * Carbon
46. Ceramics is a _____ word which means potter’s clay. A. Latin B. * Greek C. English D. French
47. Which metal is used in making electrodes for dry batteries and crucibles for melting metals? A. Mercury B. * Graphite C. Diamond D. Cadmium
48. Name a naturally occurring radioactive gas.
A. Ammonia B. Nitrogen oxide C. Helium D. * Radon
49. Which gas makes about 23 percent by weight and 21 percent by volume of the atmosphere? A. * Oxygen B. Hydrogen C. Carbon monoxide D. Nitrogen
50. Which gas is used in refrigerators? A. Dry ice B. Ammonia C. * Feron D. Ethane
51. Which metal is highly malleable ductile? A. * Gold B. Sodium C. Copper
D. Iron
52. An atom can be divided into _____ smaller particles. A. * 3 B. 2 C. 4 D. 5
53. Nitrogen makes up about _____ percent of animals and vegetable proteins. A. 18 B. * 16 C. 20 D. 24
54. Chlorine is a poisonous greenish yellow gas with a pungent odour but it has lot of uses, Where it is not used? A. Purification of water B. Preparation of war gases C. * Preparation of soaps D. Preparation of Insecticides
55. Carbon makes up less than _____ percent of the Earth’s crust.
A. 0. 3 B. 0. 06 C. * 0. 03 D. 0. 003
56. Copper, silver and gold are called _____ metals. A. Hard B. Pure C. Natural D. * Coinage
57. Which gas was first discovered on the Sun and later on the Earth? A. * Helium B. Carbon dioxide C. Nitrogen D. Hydrogen
58. S. I unit of heat is. A. * Joule B. Calorie C. British thermal unit
D. Kilowatt hour
59. Urea contains nitrogen. A. 52% B. * 46% C. 48% D. 56%
60. During the 18th and 19th century, scientists continued preparing lists of elements based on their. A. Nature B. * Properties C. Shape D. Volume
61. The electrons in each element are characterized by _____ different quantum numbers. A. 5 B. 6 C. 3 D. * 4
62. Hydrogen is only the _____ most common element.
A. * 9th B. 2th C. 7th D. 4th
63. Who developed the periodic table without knowing about the parts of the atoms? A. Joseph Priestly B. John Dalton C. * Mendeleev D. Lavoisier
64. Which gas is used by the green plants in the process of photosynthesis to synthesize sugar or energy rich organic compounds? A. Oxygen B. * Carbon dioxide C. Argon D. Hydrogen
65. The path that on electron makes around a nucleus is called. A. Orbital B. * Orbit
C. Sphere D. Circle
66. Which water is similar to ordinary water and also uses in atomic reactors? A. Fresh water B. Purified water C. * Heavy water D. Natural water
67. Name the element which has maximum number of naturally occurring isotopes. A. Hydrogen B. Iron C. Mercury D. * Tin
68. The composition of the Sun can determined by analyzing its spectrum. The spectrum of the Sun is. A. Line spectrum B. * Continuous spectrum C. Dark spectrum D. Band spectrum
69. Which food contains small amounts of caffeine? A. Coffee B. Soft drinks C. Tea D. * All of these
70. _____ is a hard dark grey non-metallic element abundant in the crust of the Earth. A. Graphite B. Calcium C. Phosphorus D. * Silicon
71. _____ is a complex chain of processes in Which carbon compounds circulate among air, water living organisms and minerals. A. * Carbon cycle B. Nitrogen cycle C. Hydrogen cycle D. Life cycle
72. Minerals that are commercially valuable are known as. A. Simple minerals
B. Commercial minerals C. Organic minerals D. * Ore minerals
73. Decomposition of water into oxygen and Hydrogen is a/an _____ reaction. A. Exothermic B. Chemical C. Hydro-oxidation D. * Endothermic
74. Which of the following is not an alloy? A. Brass B. * Aluminium C. Bronze D. German silver
75. Which metal is used in making paint pigments soaps, skin ointments, cosmetics and various plastics? A. Magnesium B. Radium C. Calcium
D. * Zinc
76. The process of shaping a piece of wet clay on a potter’s wheel is called. A. Claying B. Firing C. * Throwing D. Heating
77. The mixture of two or more metals, combined in order to produce a material with more useful properties than any of the components individually is called. A. * Alloy B. Substance C. Amalgam D. None of these
78. _____ is a synthetic polymer made from coal, water limestone or other similar basic raw materials. A. Thermopore B. * Plastic C. Steel D. Polymer
79. Of 109 known elements, _____ are metals. A. 102 B. 88 C. 94 D. * 86
80. Usually chemical reactions take place in. A. * Solutions B. Mixture form C. Very high pressure D. Gaseous phase
Chapter 21 Biological Sciences
1. Jelly fish is like. A. A chair B. * An umbrella C. A star D. A moon
2. Both DNA and RNA are made up of repeated units called. A. * Nucleotides B. Amino acids C. Nucleic acids D. Microtubules
3. Indus dolphin is found only in. A. China B. India C. Kashmir D. * Pakistan
4. Estrogen, progesterone testosterone cortisol hydrocortisone and corticosterone are some _____ hormones. A. Basic B. Primary C. * Steroid D. Secondary
5. A man weighing about 70 kilograms contain about _____ litres of blood. A. 10 B. 8 C. 3 D. * 5
6. Plants use energy to synthesize sugar and starch through the process of. A. Reproduction B. * photosynthesis C. Metabolism D. Growth
7. The name ‘gene’ was introduced by Johannsen in. A. 1914
B. 1920 C. 1917 D. * 1909
8. Angiosperms or flowering plants have _____ species which are described. A. * 250, 000 B. 350, 000 C. 150, 000 D. 100, 000
9. The basic use of all scientific information is to improve the quality of our. A. Ethics B. Bodies C. Character D. * Lives
10. Invertebrates are the animals which do not have. A. Legs B. * A back-bone C. Red blood D. Mouth
11. About 19% of total water of Earth is in. A. * The oceans B. The soil C. The rivers
12. Name the ability to resist infectious diseases. A. Biopsy B. Healing C. Vaccintion D. * Immunity
13. Penguin the flight less bird, is found in. A. Australia B. * Antarctica C. New Zealand D. South America
14. The shrinkage of protoplasm due to exosmosis of water from the cell is known as. A. Taxonomy B. Physiology
C. Osmolysis D. * Ecology
15. The kind of blood circular system which does not permit whole blood to come in direct contact with cell is known as. A. Open blood circular system B. Empty blood circular system C. * Dosed blood circular system D. Full blood circular system
16. All the eggs before the start of cell division are composed of. A. 100 cells B. 1000 cells C. Two cells D. * One cells
17. A process in which micro-organisms in the absence of oxygen breakdown carbohydrates into various organic compounds is called A. Guttation B. Fermentation C. Photosynthesis D. * Respiration
18. A variety of organisms which always produce offspring indentical to the parent is called a. A. * True breeding variety B. False breeding variety C. Special breeding variety D. Constant breeding variety
19. Felis domesticus is the botanical name of. A. Monkey B. Rat C. Lion D. * Cat
20. Name the post-mortem examination. A. * Autopsy B. Biopsy C. Osmolysis D. Metaphase
21. Silverfish and termite are. A. Birds
B. * Insects C. Mollusk D. Fish
22. Which vitamin is important for bone development? A. Vitamin B B. * Vitamin D C. Vitamin A D. Vitamin E
23. All proteins are made of. A. Genes B. Molecules C. Cells D. * Amino acids
24. _____ are used in getting fermented food and drinks. A. Viruses B. * Bacterias C. Vaccines D. Insulines
25. Which vitamin promotes good eyesight and is helpful in night vision? A. Vitamin B1 B. Vitamin B2 C. Vitamin B3 D. * Vitamin A
26. The weight of blue whale is upto. A. * 180 tons B. 150 tons C. 100 tons D. 200 tons
27. In which process ripe pollen is transferred from the anther to the stigma of a flower? A. * Pollination B. Fertilization C. Transpiration D. Expiration
28. Where lives an amoeba? A. Streams
B. * Fresh waters C. Cakes D. Salt water
29. Name the mean of making an individual immune to an infectious disease, such as smallpox, by injecting a vaccine. A. Inoculation B. Metabolism C. * Vaccination D. Catabolism
30. About how many hormones are steroids, some are proteins and others have different nature? A. * 50% B. 60% C. 70% D. 40%
31. Proteins are considered to be the most common large molecules in. A. Plants B. Human bodies C. * Living organisms
D. Non-living things
32. The estimated number of genes in a human cell is 100, 000 and the number of nucleotide pairs in human DNA is. A. 2 billion B. 4 billion C. 1 billion D. * 3 billion
33. Plant kingdom consists of more than _____ species. A. * 50. 000 B. 10, 000 C. 100, 000 D. 80, 000
34. A man performing heavy manual work may use as many as _____ kilocalories a day. A. 3500 B. * 3600 C. 3400 D. 2500
35. Apes have no_____ as against monkeys.
A. * Tail B. Lungs C. Wings D. Feet
36. Snow leopard jaguar are. A. * Mammals B. Reptiles C. Birds D. Fish
37. Most plants cease to grow at the temperature below. ∘
A. 10 c ∘
B. * 6 c ∘
C. 0 c ∘
D. 2 c
38. Milk has _____ prominent proteins. A. 5 B. * 2 C. 4
D. 3
39. All the _____ are included in kingdom animalia. A. Human beings B. Plants C. Insects D. * Animals
40. About _____ percent of the plasma is water. A. 70 B. 80 C. * 90 D. 95
41. _____ are highly specialized proteins that control the chemical reactions in all living cells. A. Antibodies B. Myoglobin C. * Enzymes D. Hemoglobin
42. The basic or fundamental unit of ecology is known as ecological system or.
A. * Ecosystem B. Biosystem C. Biomas D. Cyclic system
43. _____ may be killed by heat, sound waves, or chemical treatment. A. * Viruses B. Diseases C. Bacterios D. Insects
44. The energy for the movement of cilia is provided by. A. * ATP B. ADP C. DNA D. RNA
45. Which vitamin helps in healing of wounds and mending fractures? A. Vitamin K B. Vitamin B C. * Vitamin C
D. Vitamin B2
46. Name the organism that lives by taking nourishment from another living organism, giving no benefit in return. A. Epiphyte B. Saprophyte C. * Parasite D. Scavenger
47. Numerous useful bacteria do many beneficial jobs for. A. Insects B. Plants C. Birds D. * Humans
48. Which is the largest mammal? A. Walrus B. * Blue whale C. Killer whale D. Seal (sea lion)
49. Most of the changes in materials are physical or.
A. Permanent B. Compound C. * Chemical D. Hard
50. Ringworm, athlete’s foot, dandruff, and mycoses are. A. Viral diseases B. Bacterial diseases C. * Fungal diseases D. Diseases of protozoa
51. All the biochemical energy related reactions in living body or cell are collectively called. A. AMP B. ATP C. Catabolism D. * Metabolism
52. Of the dry protoplasm, inorganic matter is. A. 25% B. 50% C. * 10%
D. 90%
53. Server disturbance of blood glow to the brain may cause a. A. Blood clotting B. Nervous breakdown C. Heart failure D. * Stroke
54. The fungi have on _____ and thus cannot photosynthesize. A. Leaves B. * Chlorophyll C. cells D. Internal system
55. There are more than _____ million species of living organisms which have been discovered. A. 1/2 B. 1 C. * 2 D. 3
56. The cell consists of a nucleus, which is surrounded by a jelly-like substance called the.
A. Capsule B. Silicon C. * Cytoplasm D. Nucleus pack
57. Gases involved in respiration are. A. Nitrogen and chlorine B. * Oxygen and Carbon dioxide C. Hydrogen and oxygen D. Carbon dioxide and hydrogen
58. The structure of DNA was elaborated by Watson and Crick in. A. 1963 B. 1956 C. * 1953 D. 1951
59. Pteridophytes were much more abundant at least _____ million years ago in the Pennsylvanian period than they are today. A. 400 B. 200 C. 100
D. * 300
60. In multicellular animals, much of digestion occurs in digestive tract but. A. Inside the cells B. * Outside the cells C. Within the cells D. Inside the nucleus
61. The parasite that remains on the surface of the body of locust is called. A. Pseudoparasite B. Dormant parasite C. * Extoparasite D. Endoparasite
62. The branch of biology that deals with the classification and naming of living things is called. A. * Taxonomy B. Physiology C. Embryology D. Ecology
63. About _____ different species of animals have been discovered
A. 0. 50 million B. 1. 50 million C. 2 million D. * 1 million
64. Starfish and jellyfish live in. A. Rivers B. * Shallow coastal waters C. Fresh water D. Sea water
65. The basic building unit of all animals and plants is. A. * Cell B. Protein C. Phylum D. plasma
66. Only difference between a fat and oil is. A. Boiling point B. * Melting point C. Freezing point
D. All of these
67. _____ require water to complete their life cycles. A. Pteridophytes B. * Bryophytes C. Fungi D. Amphibian
68. There are _____ chromosomes in human body cells. A. 45 B. * 46 C. 44 D. 47
69. Which is determined by the presence or absence of certain antigens on red blood cells and certain antibodies in the serum? A. AH factor B. Immune system C. * Blood group D. Co-enzyme
70. The substances on which the enzymes act are called.
A. Cholesterol B. * Substrates C. Nicotines D. Xylins
71. First antibiotic, penicillin was discovered by Alexander Fleming in. A. 1932 B. 1934 C. * 1928 D. 1924
72. Fossil evidence indicate that the earliest terrestrial vertebrates ware primitive. A. Mammals B. Aves C. * Amphibians D. Reptiles
73. A _____ may be defined as the fundamental unit of heredity, fromed as a sequence of bases in a DNA chain. A. Cell division B. * Gene
C. Embryo D. Cilia
74. Anatomy is the study of. A. Plants B. Fossils C. External organs D. * Internal organs
75. All amino acids contain just _____ elements. A. * 4 B. 2 C. 5 D. 3
76. Antibodies are key elements in the body’s _____ system. A. Blood B. * Immune C. Hormone D. Nervous
77. The binomial modern system of classification of plants and animals was
introduced by Linnaeus (1707-1778). How was a _____ naturalist. A. English B. Polish C. Spanish D. * Swedish
78. All the plants and animals are composed of. A. Genes B. * Cells C. Hormones D. Enzymes
79. The packages of the enzymes surrounded by membrane and appear as granules under light microscope are called. A. Ribosomes B. * Lysosomes C. Endoplasmic reticulum D. Golgi apparatus
80. The total pregnancy in human female is usually about nine months or. A. 250 days B. 260 days
C. 300 days D. * 280 days
81. Reaction to stimulus is called. A. Frequency B. Disturbance C. Impulse D. * Response
82. The solar radiation shorter than 390 millimicron is the. A. * Ultraviolet light B. Ultrared light C. Visible light D. Infra-red light
83. There are more than _____ species of mosses. A. 6000 B. 8000 C. 7000 D. * 9000
84. Pines are the common examples of.
A. Bryophytes B. Pteridophytes C. * Gymnosperms D. Angiosperms
85. _____ is any of several organic substances present in very small amounts in the blood and producing specific effects in the body. A. Cell B. * Hormone C. Gland D. Hemoglobin
86. The outer most boundary in most of the plant cells is. A. cell membrane B. * Cell wall C. Nuclear wall D. Nuclear membrane
87. The colour of the eye id due to the amount of brown pigment present in the. A. * Iris B. Retina
C. Pupil D. Eyeball
88. The quantity of DNA in an egg and a sperm cell of a species is. A. Double B. Different C. Half D. * Same
89. Each nucleotide of DNA is made up of nitrogenous base, a phosphate group and give carbon sugar called. A. Hexose B. Ribose C. * Deoxyribose D. Oxyribose
90. The hormone insulin controls the way in which the body uses. A. Protein B. Blood C. Sugar D. * Glucose
91. Which is required for making flesh and repairing damages? A. * Protein B. Food C. Calories D. Fats
92. The most primitive Multicellular are the sponges and the. A. Echninoderms B. Arthropods C. * Corals D. Coelentrates
93. It is not advisable to sleep under trees during. A. * Night B. Day C. Noon D. Morning
94. A special type of blood protein known as fibrinogen helps in. A. Blood supply B. * Blood clotting
C. Blood transport D. Blood infusion
95. Human body contains about 3 to 4 gm of. A. Chlorine B. * Iron C. Copper D. Manganese
96. Bio means. A. Death B. Matter C. * Life D. Evolution
97. Name the smallest blood particles which play a crucial role in blood clotting. A. Red blood cells B. * Platelets C. White blood cells D. Plasma
98. _____ works with phosphorous in building and maintaining bones and teeth. A. Sodium B. Zinc C. Manganese D. * Calcium
99. Isoenzymes are different forms of _____ with slight changes in molecular structure. A. Chemical B. Protein C. * Enzyme D. Molecule
Chapter 22 Branches & Fields of Science
1. Name the study of atmospheric phenomena for weather forecasting. A. Metallurgy B. * Meteorology C. Mineralogy D. Phrometallurgy
2. Mycology is the branch of botany which involves study of. A. Fish B. Nematode worms C. Mammals D. * Fungi
3. The study of creation of the universe is called. A. * Cosmogony B. Universal science C. Creaverse D. Universal creation
4. What is called the science of eye, sense of sight and lenses and mirrors? A. Ornithology B. Osteopathy C. Ophthalmology D. * Optics
5. The study of man, his body mind, culture, evolution etc is called. A. Toxicology B. Taxidermy C. Xenobioties D. * Authorpology
6. The science of diseases of living organisms is called. A. Pedagogy B. * Pathology C. Penology D. Philately
7. Name the science which deals with inheritance of characters and variation. A. Genealogy
B. * Genetics C. Geomicrobiology D. Genetic counseling
8. The technique of growing trees in small pots by entremely reducing their size is called. A. Voodooism B. Reducing technology C. * Bonsai D. Biohydrometallurgy
9. The study of tissues and cells of various organs of body is called. A. * Histology B. Histography C. Histopathology D. Tissuepathology
10. The science which deals with influence of stars on human fate and destiny is called. A. Astronomy B. Anatomy C. * Astrology
D. Nature
11. _____deals with structure and structural relationship of various body organs or parts. A. * Anatomy B. Biology C. Gynaccology D. Geochemistry
12. What is called the science of study of normal functions and life processes of the body? A. Physiography B. Photomicrography C. * Physiology D. Palcobotany
13. The branch of biology which involves study of microscopic organisms is called. A. * Microbiology B. Micropaleontology C. Molecular biology D. Micro-organisms
14. The technology based on utilization of living organisms particularly micro-organisms or their products in industrial operation or production is called. A. Bionics B. Inner-techonlogy C. * Biotechnology D. Micro-technology
15. Bionergeties is the study of energy production in. A. Human bodies B. * Living things (bodies) C. Plants D. Organisms
16. Entomology is the study of. A. Reptiles B. * Insects C. Snakes D. Liguids
17. What is called the art of reading the hand and interpreting the fortune by lines on human palm? A. * Palmistry
B. Philology C. Etlymology D. Lexicography
18. Botany is the scientific study of. A. Cells B. Organisms C. Human bodies D. * Plants
19. Name the study of atmospheric phenomena for weather forecasting. A. Oncology B. Carcinology C. * Pharmacology D. Obstetrics
20. The science of air navigation or air travel is called. A. Acoustics B. * Aeronautics C. Astrology D. Astronomy
21. The politics of a country as determined by its geographical features is called. A. Geographics B. Geodesy C. Imnology D. * Geolitics
22. What is called the science of growing plants without soil in water containing salts? A. Hydropathy B. Hydrography C. Hydrophonics D. * Hydroponics
23. Name the scientific cultivation of fruit, vegetables, flowers and shrubs. A. Flowiculture B. * Horticulture C. Tissueculture D. Pisciculture
24. Name the science of getting exact copies of desired living organisms, organs, genes or molecules.
A. Bio-technology B. * Cloning C. Genisis D. Molecular biology
25. Vital statistics (in human population) of births, mortality and diseases showing status of communities is called. A. Agronomy B. * Demography C. Electrometallurgy D. Dermatology
26. Name the science of nature, functions and phenomena of human mind and human behaviour. A. * Psychology B. Neurology C. Physiography D. Ostespathy
27. What is called the science of dealing with possibility of life on planets other than the Earth? A. Phonctics B. * Exobiology
C. Holography D. Genetic Engineering
28. The science which deals with deals with history or characteristics of the Earth, its strata, relationships and changes is called. A. Genophysics B. Geochemistry C. * Geology D. Holography
29. Gastronomy is the art and science of. A. * Good eating B. Use of Sun bath for treatment C. Kidney and disease D. Gases and their effects
30. The art of making pottery and the study of material used in pottery, tiles or other structures is called. A. Special pottery B. Materialistic pottery C. * Ceramics D. Cosmogony
31. Aerodynamics in the branch of _____ which deals with motion and mechanical effects of air or gases. A. Mathematics B. Astronomy C. Chemistry D. * Physics
32. Cosmology is the study of the. A. Sky B. Cosmos C. Moss D. * Universe
33. What is called the scientific of motion and pressure of fluids? A. Cryogenics B. Hydrostatics C. * Hydrodynamics D. Fluid biology
34. Biology is the study of. A. * Living things
B. Human behaviour C. Human structure D. None of these
35. Scientific study of human races is called. A. * Ethmography B. Ethonology C. Engenics D. Ethnopology
36. Scientific study of Earthquakes is called. A. * Seismology B. Serimology C. Topography D. Topology
37. The study of behaviour of electrons their production and use of movement of electrons for useful technology is called. A. * Electronics B. Electrography C. Electrostatics D. Electromagnetism
38. The study of X. rays and their use in medical sciences or diagnostics is called. A. Thermodynamics B. Electrostatics C. * Radiology D. Numismatics
39. Name the scientific study of living organisms, their environment and mutual interaction. A. Nematolog B. * Ecology C. Helminthology D. Gerontology
40. The study of chemical substances and chemical reactions of living bodies and cells is called. A. Biology B. Bionics C. Chemistry D. * Biochemistry
Chapter 23 Nature of Science
1. Name the physician, who for the first time used opium, as an anesthesia during surgery. A. Ibn-al-Haitham B. * Al-Razi C. Ibn-e-Sina D. Ibn-e-Baitar
2. Which award was given to Dr. Qadeer by Govt. of Pakistan? A. Sitara-i-Imtiaz B. * Hilal-i-Imtiaz C. Tamgha-i-Imtiaz D. Pride of Performance
3. Dr. Abdul Salam died in _____. A. * 1997 B. 1996 C. 1995
D. 1998
4. Einstein is considered to be the greatest scientist of the_____century. A. 17ht B. * 20ht C. 18th D. 19th
5. The designing manufacturing or putting to practical use of engines or machinery of any type, including electrical or electronic, or designing or construction of public works, such as roads, railways, sewers, bridges, harbours, ete:and construction of military fortifications is called: A. * Designing B. Dyanmics C. Engineering D. Architecture
6. The application of science, especially to industrial or commercial objectives is called: A. * Technology B. Radiation C. Electronics D. programming
7. When was Yaqoob Kindi born in Basra? A. 790 B. * 800 C. 785 D. 815
8. Galileo did experiments on falling bodies and proved that all bodies, light or heavy full at the same. A. * Velocity B. Speed C. Acceleration D. Level
9. The influenza pandemic of 1957 caused_____deaths in USA only. A. 10, 000 B. 12, 000 C. * 8, 000 D. 14, 000
10. Who analyzed the motion of bodies in space and time? A. * Newton
B. Galileo C. Copernicus D. F. H Crick
11. In Einstein’s famous equation E = mc , E is energy, m is mass and c is the? 2
A. Current B. Charge C. Computer D. * Speed of light
12. Encyclopedia Botanica by Ad-Dinawari in _____ thick volumes was compiled in the 9th century. A. * 6 B. 9 C. 3 D. 12
13. When Ibn Ibn-e-Sina died? A. 1039 B. * 1037 C. 1043
D. 1045
14. In which book, Aristotle put forward arguments that Earth was a round sphere rather than a flat plate? A. Our Planet B. * On the Heavens C. The Universe D. World’s Geographical Theory
15. Dr. Salam was awarded Nobel Prize in _____ for his theory of subatomic “N”particles and unification of forces. A. 1977 B. 1981 C. * 1979 D. 1980
16. Gegor Mendel is called the father of: A. Biology B. Biophysics C. * Genetics D. Anatomy
17. Abu Ali Ibn-e-Sina was born in 980 in Afshana near Bukhara which is
now _____ A. Tajikistan B. Turkey C. * Uzbekistan D. Iran
18. Zia-ud-Din Ibn-e-Baitar was very famous _____and pharmacopist of middle ages. A. * Botanist B. Scholar C. Scientist D. Mathematician
19. Ibn-al-Haitham was the first scientist to elaborate _____ laws of reflection of light. A. 5 B. 4 C. 3 D. * 2
20. Newton gave_____laws in Physics. A. 4
B. 2 C. * 3 D. 5
21. When polish, Nicholas Copernicus proposed the idea that the Sun was stationary at the centre and Earth and the planets move in circular orbits around the sun. A. 1524 B. 1522 C. 1516 D. * 1514
22. Where was Abdul Malik Asmai born in 741? A. * Basra B. Mosal C. Bukhara D. Samarqand
23. Dr. abdul Qadeer Khan obtained his Ph. D degree from University of Leaven in. A. Germany B. Italy C. * Belgium
D. U. K
24. Now with the revolution in surgery and medicine, which disease is eradicated from the world? A. Malaria B. Plague C. Typhoid D. * Smallpox
25. Ibn-al-Haitham was born in_____ in 1965. A. Baghdad B. Isphahan C. Gazni D. * Basra
26. Galileo’s famous book” Two New Sciences” led to genesis of modern; A. Geology B. Chemistry C. * Physics D. Economics
27. Where was Omar-Khayyam born in 1044?
A. Baghdad B. * Nishapur C. Balkh D. Bukhara
28. _____is defined as learning or study concerned with demonstrable truths or observable phenomena and characterized by the systematic application of scientific method. A. Biology B. * Science C. Chemistry D. Physice
29. Albert Einstein was a _____ Jewish scientist. A. English B. * German C. American D. Dutch
30. Yaqoob Kindi’s most important work was on reflection of. A. * Light B. Voice
C. Atmosphere D. Water
31. When was Khawarizmi died? A. * 850 B. 855 C. 845 D. 840
32. James D. Watson and F. H. Crick proposed the double standard model of the nucleic acid DNA in. A. 1964 B. * 1953 C. 1948 D. 1956
33. Scientific developments and inventions have made the pace of life very. A. * Fast B. Slow C. Static D. Funny
34. Who gave the of hereditary and gave two laws of inheritance. A. * Gegor Mendel B. Charles Darwin C. Alexander Fleming D. Chadwich
35. The Black Death (plague) of _____century wiped out one-third of the whole population of the world. A. * 14th B. 15th C. 16th D. 17th
36. Caliph al-Ma’mun, who acceded to power in _____ founded an academy called the House of Wisdom (Bait-ul-Hikmah). A. 816 B. 817 C. * 813 D. 808
37. Arab numerals also included zero which was very important discovery by the. A. Greeks
B. Egyptians C. Persians D. * Arabs
38. Name the famous book of Ibn-e-Sina, in which he discussed human physiology and medicine. A. * Al-Qanun B. Al-Masudi C. New Renaissance D. Tadhkira
39. Dr. Abdul Qadeer Khan got his M. Sc form _____ where he was appointed as a research officer. A. U. K B. * Netherlands C. France D. Germany
40. Nasir-ud-Din Tusi (1201-1275 A. D)was born in Tusi _____ A. Syria B. * Iran C. Iraq
D. Turkey
41. Al. . . Beruni was born in. A. * Afghanistan B. Iraq C. Iran D. Uzbekistan
42. Nasir-ud-Din Tusi, a famous Muslim philosopher, scientist and mathematician, was a _____ of Halaku Khan. A. Son B. Son0in-Law C. Scholar D. * Minister
43. Where was Dr. Abdul Salam born in 1926? A. * Jhang B. Rawalpindi C. Sialkot D. Jhelum
44. Muhammad-bin-Musa Khawarizmi was born in _____ in Khawarizim.
A. 760 B. 750 C. * 780 D. 770
45. Omar Khayyam introduced the Jalali Calendar which was in error of one day in _____ years (the Gregorian calendar has an error of one day in 3330 years). A. 3350 B. 3660 C. * 3770 D. 3700
46. AL-Beruni, one of the most famous scientists of the Islamic world wrote more then_____ books on different subjects. A. 50 B. 75 C. 100 D. * 150
47. Aristotle said that the Earth was at the_____of the universe. A. Corner B. Top
C. * Centre D. Nowhere
48. When Aristotle recorded his ideas about the universe, matter and living organisms? A. * 340 B C B. 360 B C C. 320 B C D. 380 B C
49. During the_____ century A. D, much progress was made in Chemistry and finding the nature of substances. A. 6th B. 7th C. 9th D. * 8th
50. In the year_____, Italian scientist Galileo and German scientist Johannes Kepler started observing the night sky through a telescope. A. 1617 B. * 1609 C. 1604 D. 1615
51. Who wrote the famous book”Firdous-ul-Hikma”? A. Yaqoob Kindi B. Abdul Malik Asmai C. * Ali Bin Tibri D. Omar Khayyam
52. Under the caliph Ma’mun, the circumference of the _____was measured in 9th century, which was astonishingly accurate. A. Moon B. * Earth C. Sun D. North Pole
53. Dr. Abdul Qadeer Khan was born on 1th April, 1936 at _____ in India. A. Agra B. Calcutta C. Madras D. * Bhopal
54. Ibn-al-Haitham described the function of human _____ in his book. A. Ear
B. Head C. * Eye D. Heart
55. The father of Chemistry_____ prepared a large number of important chemicals like hydroelectric acid, nitric acid and white lead. A. Nasir-ud-Din Tusi B. * Jabir Bin Hayan C. Ali Tibri D. Abul Wafa
56. Dr. Salam got his higher education from _____ where he performed research in field of theoretical physics. A. Netherlands B. Italy C. Belgium D. * England
57. The great plague, which started in 542 A. D was responsible for 10, 000, 000 deaths in _____years. A. 100 B. 75 C. 40
D. * 50
58. Al-Beruni was born in 973 and died in. A. 1045 B. 1055 C. * 1048 D. 1058
59. Musa Khawarizimi introduced the method of counting based on numerals and the decimals system used all over the. A. Iran B. Arab world C. Muslim world D. * world
60. Before_____, science was mainly based on ideas proposed by Greek philosopher Aristotle. A. 1580 B. 1600 C. 1618 D. * 1609
61. The discovery of penicillin by Alexander Fleming in _____revolutionized
the treatment of infections and infectious diseases. A. 1924 B. * 1927 C. 1929 D. 1922
62. Al-Razi was not only the greatest physician of Islam but also one of the greatest physician of. A. 7th century B. 8th century C. 9th century D. * All times
Chapter 24 Physical Sciences
1. The period of rotation of Neptune is 16. 1 hours and that of revolution around the Sun is. A. 162. 4 years B. * 164. 8 years C. 165. 9 years D. 168 years
2. There are _____ rocky planets in our Solar System. A. 3 B. 2 C. 5 D. * 4
3. Uranus has _____ moons (satellites). A. * 15 B. 18 C. 16
D. 12
4. After Sun, the nearest star proxima Centauri is at a distance of about _____ million kilometers from the Earth. A. 20 B. 60 C. 50 D. * 40
5. _____ is visible with naked eye shortly after the sunset or shortly before the sunset. A. * Mercury B. Mars C. Uranus D. Venus
6. The temperature (at cloud top) of Uranus is. ∘
A. * -200 c ∘
B. -185 c ∘
C. -215 c ∘
D. -195 c
7. Earth is the _____ planet from the sun.
A. 2nd B. * 3rd C. 4th D. 5th
8. Which is the nearest star to our sun? A. vega B. * Proxima Centauri C. Alpha Scorpii D. Beta orionis
9. Light year is defined as the distance travelled by light in one year. This unit is used to measure distances between the galaxies How much is one light year approximately equal to? A. Five million B. One million km C. * Ten million km D. One hundred million km
10. Milky Way is a spiral galaxy about-parsecs across? A. 10, 000 B. * 30, 000
C. 50, 000 D. 55, 000
11. There are _____ gaseous planets in our Solar System. A. None B. 2 C. 3 D. * 4
12. In the beginning, the temperature of the universe was _____ million degree centigrade. A. * 100, 000 B. 50, 000 C. 200, 000 D. 10, 000
13. The average surface temperature of Mars is. ∘
A. -40 c ∘
B. * -50 c ∘
C. -45 c ∘
D. -55 c
14. When did Edmund Halley calculate the orbit of Halley’s comet? A. 1750 B. * 1705 C. 1710 D. 1715
15. Mercury has an abundance of _____ and other metals. A. Gas B. Coal C. * Iron D. Carbon
16. It is accepted that most the planets in the Solar System have or had, rotation period of about _____hours. A. 24 B. 8 C. 12 D. * 10
17. _____ is called a twin of Uranus due to their similarity of size, mass and composition. A. Jupiter
B. Pluto C. Saturn D. * Neptune
18. The surface temperature of Venus is. ∘
A. 400 c ∘
B. 450 c ∘
C. 435 c ∘
D. * 462 c
19. The visible surface of the Sun is called. A. Thermosphere B. Mesosphere C. * Photosphere D. Stratosphere
20. The brightest planet is. A. * Venus B. Mercury C. Earth D. Ncptune
21. There are only 0 (zero) to _____ lunar eclipses per year. A. 2 B. 5 C. * 3 D. 6
22. Red shift experiments have shown that the universe is expanding Who first provided evidence for the expansion of the universe? A. * Edwin P Hubbel B. Henry Russcl C. George Gamow D. William Huggins
23. Planets are visible only because they reflect. A. Gravity B. Radiation C. Moonlight D. * Sunlight
24. The relationship between the tides (in the oceans ) and the moon was explained with lsaac Newton’s theory of gravitation in. A. 1689
B. 1655 C. 1692 D. * 1687
25. The time of the big ben is taken as time. A. Twelve B. Six C. One D. * Zero
26. What is the distance of the moon from the earth? A. * 385, 000 km B. 375, 000 km C. 380, 000 km D. 360, 000 km
27. At the time of occurrence of the total solar eclipse, what is the phase of the moon? A. Waning globous B. Quarter moon C. * New moon D. First moon
28. The diameter of Uranus is. A. 52, 300 km B. * 51, 300 km C. 53, 300 km D. 54, 200 km
29. Black hole is a hypothetical region in space having tremendously high gravitational pull. Which one of the following also refers to black holes? A. Collapsing object of very high density B. * Holes occurring in heavenly bodies C. Black spots on the Sun D. Craters on the moon
30. The average distance of Saturn from the Sun is. A. 1422 × 10 km 5
B. 1426 × 10 km 6
C. * 1427 × 10 km 6
D. 1425 × 10 km 6
31. Neptune was discovered in. A. * 1848
B. 1821 C. 1845 D. 1844
32. Name the gas which was discovered on the Sun about 130 years ago during eclipse-watching. A. Argon B. Nitrogen C. Hydrogen D. * Helium
33. Jupiter has _____ moons. A. 15 B. 18 C. * 16 D. 14
34. Saturn has _____ moons (satellites). A. * 23 B. 22 C. 18 D. 20
35. Early imprints of life on Earth have been discovered in rocks, _____ billion years old. A. * 3. 8 B. 2 C. 2. 8 D. 3. 5
36. Flares are fairly short lived outbursts of energy These were discovered by Carrington in. A. 1858 B. * 1859 C. 1848 D. 1850
37. How many moons Mars have? A. None B. * 2 C. 3 D. 4
38. The visible cloud layer of the Jupiter is composed of frozen crystals of.
A. Argon B. Hydrogen C. * Ammonia D. Nitrogen
39. When was famous Halley’s comet first seen? A. 1531 B. 1607 C. 1682 D. * 1456
40. Scientists have known since _____ that the universe is expanding. A. 1890 B. 1930 C. 1910 D. * 1920
41. The mass of Sun is _____ times of mass of Earth. A. 332, 220 B. * 333, 400 C. 323, 440
D. 323, 400
42. Which planet of our Solar System is called Morning Star? A. * Venus B. Jupiter C. Mercury D. Mars
43. The second brightest planet in the Sky, which can be seen with naked eye is. A. * Jupiter B. Mars C. Venus D. Neptune
44. While seen from the moon, the Earth appears as _____ planet with a dynamic layer of white clouds in its atmosphere. A. Black B. Grey C. Red D. * Blue
45. The average temperature of Pluto is estimated to be.
∘
A. -325 F ∘
B. -355 F ∘
C. -360 F ∘
D. * -370 F
46. Jupiter. s atmosphere is observed to be consisted hydrogen and. A. Carbon dioxide B. Oxygen C. Neon D. * Helium
47. Mars, also called Red Planet, is covered with. A. Red water B. Red atmosphere C. Red clouds D. * Red dust
48. Which gas is dominant in the atmosphere of Venus? A. Nitrogen B. * Garbon dioxide C. Helium
D. Oxygen
49. Pluto’s rotation period is 6. 4 days while period along the orbit is _____ years. A. 274. 8 B. 299. 7 C. * 248. 4 D. 256. 2
50. Which planet is nearly of the same size as that of the Earth? A. Mercury B. Neptune C. Mars D. * Venue
51. Patches on the surface of the Sun are called Sun spots, these spots look. A. Brigh B. * Dark C. colourless D. Black
52. The planets perform _____types of motions.
A. 4 B. 3 C. * 2 D. 5
53. _____ is the fastest planet in rotation. A. Pluto B. Mars C. Venus D. * Jupiter
54. A black hole is defined as an object whose matter has become so condensed that its gravitational field is strong enough to prevent light_____ from it. A. Entering B. Expanding C. * Escaping D. Deviating
55. The orbits of the planet are _____ and lie roughly in the same plane. A. Circular B. Square
C. * Elliptical D. Rectangular
56. The Moon orbits around the Earth once every. A. 25. 6 days B. 24. 7 days C. * 27. 3 days D. 28. 3 days
57. Atmosphere of Venus is moving. A. Slowly B. Very slowly C. * Rapidly D. Very rapidly
58. The collection of dust, gas and stars measuring thousands of parsecs across. A. * Galaxy B. Milky Way C. Black Hole D. Solar System
59. The average temperature on the surface of the Earth is. ∘
A. 35 c ∘
B. 25 c ∘
C. 20 c ∘
D. * 15 c
60. About how much energy is radiated per square meter of sun’s surface into space? A. * 64 million watts B. 62 million watts C. 64 million watts D. 62 million watts
61. There is no _____ around the Mercury. A. Dust B. * Atmosphere C. Light D. Space
62. The diameter of Saturn is. A. 111, 600 kms B. 120, 400 kms
C. 116, 400 kms D. * 120, 600 kms
63. _____ is used to measure the speed of an aircraft relative to the speed of sound. A. Telemeter B. Speedometer C. Altimeter D. * Machmeter
64. About how many miles above the surface of the Earth, the Hubble Space Telescope is orbiting? A. 280 miles B. * 380 miles C. 300 miles D. 200 miles
65. Who was the pioneer of modern astronomy? A. Robert Wilson B. Arno Penzias C. * Edwin P Hubble
66. When did space shuttle Challenger exploded in which seven astronauts
died? A. * January 28, 1986 B. December 28, 1986 C. February 28, 1986 D. January 28, 1985
67. The farthest away planet to the Sun is. A. * Pluto B. Neptune C. Uranus D. Jupiter
68. The Sun is a _____ star of the galaxy. A. Large sized B. Small sized C. * Medium sized D. Very huge sized
69. The lightest planet of the Solar System is. A. Jupiter B. Neptune
C. Uranus D. * Saturn
70. There are more than _____ billions in galaxy. A. 100 B. 500 C. * 200 D. 1000
71. Due to absence of air, the Sky is always black and full of. A. Light B. Dust C. * Star D. Density
72. There is a change of _____ on the Mars. A. * Weathers B. Clouds C. Atmospheres D. Lights
73. The temperature of Saturn at cloud top is.
∘
A. -16 c ∘
B. * -182 c ∘
C. -145 c ∘
D. -175 c
74. What does NASA stand for? A. Nuclear Atlantic Supervisory B. * National Aeronautics and Speed Administration C. National Agency for Space Administration D. None of these
75. Neptune has _____ moons. A. 6 B. 4 C. * 8 D. 2
76. Astronomical unit is a bigger unit of distance and it is used to measure distance between the heavenly bodies of the Solar System One astronomical unit is equal to how much km in whole numbers? A. * 150 million km B. 205 million km
C. 50 million km D. One million km
77. Mars atmosphere is principally composed of. A. Helium B. Nitrogen C. Argon D. * Carbon dioxide
78. Name the physical state in which most of the matter of the universe is conserved. A. Solid B. * Plasma C. Liquid D. Gas
79. The average distance of Mercury from the Sun is _____ kilometers. A. 56.9 × 10
5
B. * 57.9 × 10
6
C. 57.8 × 10
6
D. 56.9 × 10
8
80. The Sun rises on the North pole on the 21st March and this Pole remains in light till which date? A. 22 nd June B. 20th August C. 20th December D. * 23rd September
81. Name the closest planet to the sun. A. Earth B. * Mercury C. Mars D. Venus
82. Uranus completes its rotation in 17. 2 hours and trip in its orbit in. A. 80 years B. 82 years C. * 84 years D. 78 years
83. The average temperature of Jupiter is. ∘
A. * 130 c ∘
B. 140 c
∘
C. 150 c ∘
D. 120 c
84. The surface layer of the Earth the crust, has an average thickness of_____km over the continental area. A. 20 B. * 32 C. 30 D. 42
85. What is the shape of our Milky Way galaxy? A. * Rectangular B. Spiral C. Irregular D. Elliptic
86. Venus rotates from east to west opposite to most other planets and completes one trip in. A. * 243 days B. 250 days C. 263 days D. 242 days
87. The diameter of Neptune is. A. 48200 km B. 52200 km C. 54100 km D. * 49100 km
88. Name the famous comet which visited Earth in 1986. A. Ncujmin 1 B. Crommelin C. Pons-brooks D. * Halley
89. Visible light coming from the Sun is composed of _____ colors. A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. * 7
90. The period of is its rotation is 24. 6 hours while period of revolution around the Sun is _____ days. A. 680
B. 655 C. 692 D. * 687
91. The atmosphere of the Venus is extremely thick and the atmospheric pressure of gases is _____ times more as compared with that of the Earth. A. 75 B. * 90 C. 85 D. 92
92. The diameter of Pluto is. A. 2200 kms B. * 2300 kms C. 2100 kms D. 2400 kms
93. After how much time, a total solar eclipse passes over a particular spot on the Earth? A. * 360 years after B. 260 years after C. 200 years after
D. 240 years after
94. The distance of Jupiter from Sun is. A. 778. 3 ×10 km 5
B. 777. 8 ×10 km 5
C. * 778. 3 ×10 km 6
D. 776. 6 ×10 km 6
95. Up till now, _____satellites (moons) of the planets have been discovered. A. 69 B. * 67 C. 59 D. 58
96. The temperature at the core is very high about. ∘
A. 4500 c ∘
B. 5600 c ∘
C. * 5000 c ∘
D. 5300 c
97. Hwo many stars are present in our Milky Way galaxy? A. 10
2
B. 10
6
C. * 10
11
D. 10
33
98. The first spaceship to land on Moon was Soviet Union’s Sputnik-1 in. A. July 1964 B. * Oct 1957 C. Ang 1969 D. Sept 1959
99. Who invented the infrared telescope? A. George Gamow B. David Allan C. * Frank Low D. David Gregory
100. How much time the light takes to reach from the Sun to the Earth? A. 6 minutes and 45 seconds B. 7 minutes and 20 seconds C. * 8 minutes and 15 seconds D. 9 minutes 15 seconds
101. The center of the Earth is called _____ and is composed of highly dense liquid. A. * Core B. Crust C. Mantle D. Magnetic field
102. One parsec is equal to 3. 26 light year. All the stars are more than one parsec distance from the _____. A. Moon B. * Earth C. Sun D. Orbit
103. Radio telescope is different from optical telescope. Who was the first to build a radio telescope? A. Karl jansky B. * Van de Hurst C. John Flamsteed D. Bernard Lovell
104. The Earth completes its rotation along its axis in _____ hours and one trip along its orbit in 365 days, 6 hours 9 minutes and 9. 54 seconds.
A. 22. 9 B. * 23. 9 C. 23. 5 D. 23. 8
105. Which planet has maximum number of moons? A. Jupiter B. Mars C. Mercury D. * Saturn
106. Meteorites are classified into _____ groups. A. 3 B. * 2 C. 4 D. 6
107. The Sun revolves around the nucleus of the galaxy once in _____ years This duration is also called the cosmic year. A. 250 million B. * 225 million C. 325 million
D. 425 million
108. The last discovered planet was. A. Uranus B. Jupiter C. Neptune D. * Pluto
109. The smallest planet of our Solar System is? A. Earth B. Mars C. * Pluto D. Venus
110. Light is scattered by molecules of air, dust particles and water vaporous present in the _____ this scattering is inversely proportional to wavelength of light. A. * Atmoshpere B. clouds C. Liquid D. Dust
111. Name the unit of length equal to the average distance between the Earth
and sun. A. Aeronautical unit B. Small unit C. * Astronomical unit D. Parsec
112. The sun has nearly _____ times the diameter of the Earth A. * 109 B. 105 C. 100 D. 113
113. Our _____ is in the Milky Way galaxy. A. Earth B. Moon C. Sun D. * Solar System
114. The moons of Jupiter were discovered by Galileo in. A. 1620 B. * 1610
C. 1630 D. 1645
115. Mars is usually visible to naked eye as a bright_____ spot in the sky. A. Blue B. Yellow C. Violet D. * Red
116. What is the approximate age of the sun? A. * 6. 4 billion years B. 6. 2 billion years C. 6. 3 billion years D. 6. 4 billion years
117. The volume of Jupiter is _____ times the volume of Earth. A. 1319 B. * 1317 C. 1312 D. 1305
118. Lunar eclipses occur only at.
A. First quarter B. New moon C. * Full moon D. Last quarter
119. _____has on moon. A. Mars B. Uranus C. * Mercury D. Pluto
120. Moon orbits the Sun once in about _____ days (with the Earth). A. 365. 25 B. * 355. 25 C. 345. 25 D. 375. 25
121. Sky looks blue due to scattering of. A. Size B. Density C. Atmosphere
D. * Temperature
122. Asteroids are also called minor planets of the Solar System There are about _____ asteroids. A. * 40, 000 B. 45, 000 C. 42, 000 D. 35, 000
123. Which is the largest planet of our Solar System is? A. * Jupiter B. Saturn C. Uranus D. Neptune
124. The diameter of Mercury is. A. 4, 560 kms B. 4, 550 kms C. * 4, 878 kms D. 4, 800 kms
125. Clouds around the Jupiter are present in about _____ layers.
A. * 3 B. 6 C. 4 D. 2
126. The atmosphere of Saturn contains a major amount of methane and lesser amount of. A. Argon B. Hydrogen C. * Ammonia D. Carbon dioxide
127. There are millions of galaxies in the universe, A group of galaxies is called galactic cluster What is the name of a small cluster to which our Milky Way belongs to? A. Large group B. Small group C. Zero group D. * Local group
128. _____ was the first planet to be discovered with the help of a telescope. A. Jupiter B. Saturn
C. Neptune D. * Uranus
129. The temperature of Neptune at cloud top is. ∘
A. -220 c ∘
B. 205 c ∘
C. * -200 c ∘
D. 207 c
130. Mercury completes its period of one revolution around the Sun in _____ days (of the Earth). A. * 87. 969 B. 88. 969 C. 89. 696 D. 86. 969
131. The distance of the Uranus from the Sun is. A. 2670 × 10 km 6
B. 2880 × 10 km 6
C. 2770 × 10 km 6
D. * 2870 × 10 km 6
132. It is possible to see that stars vary in colour. These colour differences reflect differences in. A. Size B. Density C. Atmosphere D. * Temperature
133. Name the most widely accepted theory about the origin of the universe. A. Expansion theory B. * Big Bang theory C. Explosion theory D. Gravitational theory
134. The mean equatorial diameter of Moon is _____ km. A. * 3776 km B. 3476 km C. 3420 km D. 3576 km
135. The Sun is undergoing rotatory motion and a round is completed in about a. A. Year
B. Day C. Hour D. * Month
136. One of the major reasons besides explorations to send man to Mars is to look for _____ on it. A. Changes B. * Life C. Caves D. Streams
137. The orbit of the Earth is. A. * Ellipse B. rectangular C. Circular D. Square
138. The diameter of the planet (Mars)is. A. 6887 kms B. 6778 kms C. * 6787 kms D. 6877 kms
139. Pluto has a moon named Charon which discovered in. A. * 1978 B. 1982 C. 1930 D. 1945
140. There are _____ broad classes of galaxies. A. 2 B. 3 C. 5 D. * 4
141. Which is the densest planet of our Solar System? A. Pluto B. Mercury C. * Earth D. Saturn
142. Parsec is a unit of _____ equal to the distance at which the mean radius of the Earth’s orbit subtends an angle of one second of are. A. Light
B. * Length C. Distance D. Radius