Biology (Volume 1) Zoology Chapter-wise Solved Papers 9415650134

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Biology (VOLUME-I)

Zoology Chapterwise Solved Papers Chief Editor A.K. Mahajan Editor Advocate Abhishek Singh Writers Ambuj Kumar, Anand Soni Ritesh Tiwari, Ranjeet Pal Computer Graphics By Balkrishna, Charan Singh, Vinay Sahu, Gyanendra Yadav Editorial Office Youth Competition Times 12, Church Lane Prayagraj-211002 Mob. : 9415650134 Email : [email protected] website : www.yctbooks.com Publisher Declaration

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf INDEX TGT and PGT Examination Syllabus ................................................................................................................................................... 4-6 LT Grade Exam Level and Syllabus wise Analysis Chart of Solved Papers ...................................................................... 7 Trend Analysis chart and Bar Graph of Solved Questions ........................................................................................................... 8 Taxonomy ............................................................................................................................................................................................................ 9-16 Principles of Classification............................................................................................................................................... 9 Concept Of Species And Sub-Species ..........................................................................................................................14 Binomial Nomenclature ..................................................................................................................................................16 Animal Kingdom ........................................................................................................................................................................................17-160 Protozoa.............................................................................................................................................................................17 Entamoeba ..................................................................................................................................................................22 Euglina ........................................................................................................................................................................23 Plasmodium ................................................................................................................................................................24 Paramecium ................................................................................................................................................................28 Protozoa and their Diseases .....................................................................................................................................32 Porifera ..............................................................................................................................................................................37 Leucosolenia ..............................................................................................................................................................43 Sycon ...........................................................................................................................................................................44 Cnidaria/ Coelenterata ....................................................................................................................................................45 Hydra ...........................................................................................................................................................................49 Aurelia .........................................................................................................................................................................51 Obelia ..........................................................................................................................................................................52 Polymorphism in Cnidarians ...................................................................................................................................54 Ctenophora ........................................................................................................................................................................55 Platyhelminthes ................................................................................................................................................................55 Fasciola and Taenia ...................................................................................................................................................57 Aschelminthes ..................................................................................................................................................................63 Ascaris .........................................................................................................................................................................64 Helminthes and Diseases ..........................................................................................................................................69 Annelida ............................................................................................................................................................................70 Nereis ..........................................................................................................................................................................71 Pheretima ....................................................................................................................................................................73 Hirudinaria..................................................................................................................................................................76 Arthropoda ........................................................................................................................................................................79 Cockroach ...................................................................................................................................................................88 Musca ..........................................................................................................................................................................90 Mosquito and Prawn .................................................................................................................................................91 Mollusca ............................................................................................................................................................................94 Unio .............................................................................................................................................................................99 Pila ............................................................................................................................................................................ 100 Echinodermata............................................................................................................................................................... 103 Starfish ..................................................................................................................................................................... 105 Chordata ......................................................................................................................................................................... 108 Herdmania ............................................................................................................................................................... 141 Amphioxus .............................................................................................................................................................. 144 Scoliodon ................................................................................................................................................................. 147 Rana, Uromastyx .................................................................................................................................................... 148 Columba ................................................................................................................................................................... 152 Rabbit ....................................................................................................................................................................... 153 Poisonous and Non Poisonous Snakes ................................................................................................................ 156 2

Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Animal Cells............................................................................................................................................................................................... 161-186 Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic Cells ............................................................................................................................... 161 Ultra-Structure of Animal Cell ................................................................................................................................... 167 Function of Cell Organelles ........................................................................................................................................ 171 Mitosis And Meiosis Cell Division ............................................................................................................................ 179 Chromosomes............................................................................................................................................................................................ 187-194 Structure of Genes and Genetic Code......................................................................................................................................... 195-209 Inheritance/Human Genetics ........................................................................................................................................................... 210-227 Mendel's Law of Inheritance ....................................................................................................................................... 210 Linkage And Crossing Over........................................................................................................................................ 216 Eugenics ......................................................................................................................................................................... 224 Organic Evolution .................................................................................................................................................................................. 228-250 Organic Evolution......................................................................................................................................................... 228 Evidences of Organic Evolution ................................................................................................................................. 231 Theories of Organic Evolution ................................................................................................................................... 233 Lamarckism ................................................................................................................................................................... 236 Darwinism...................................................................................................................................................................... 237 Neo-Darwinism ............................................................................................................................................................. 241 Mutation ......................................................................................................................................................................... 241 Evolution Through Ages ............................................................................................................................................. 243 Evolution of Human ..................................................................................................................................................... 246 Nutrition and Digestion ....................................................................................................................................................................... 251-267 Respiration ................................................................................................................................................................................................. 268-277 Blood Circulation.................................................................................................................................................................................... 278-300 Excretion ...................................................................................................................................................................................................... 301-311 Nerve Conduction ................................................................................................................................................................................... 312-324 Muscles and Skeleton ........................................................................................................................................................................... 325-335 Endocrine System ................................................................................................................................................................................... 336-356 Endocrine Glands and Their Function ....................................................................................................................... 336 Hormones ....................................................................................................................................................................... 344 Embryonic Development .................................................................................................................................................................... 357-385 Gametogenesis .............................................................................................................................................................. 357 Types of eggs and cleavage ......................................................................................................................................... 369 Embryonic Development of Amphioxus, Frog and Chick ...................................................................... 375 Placenta in Mammals ................................................................................................................................................... 382 Biological Molecules .............................................................................................................................................................................. 386-398 Carbohydrates................................................................................................................................................................ 386 Proteins ........................................................................................................................................................................... 387 Lipids .............................................................................................................................................................................. 392 Enzymes ......................................................................................................................................................................... 393 Harmful and Beneficial Insects ...................................................................................................................................................... 399-408 Ecosystem .................................................................................................................................................................................................... 409-446 Ecology Components of Ecosystem and Major Ecosystems ................................................................................ 409 Environment Conservation/ Climate Change ........................................................................................................... 426 Wildlife conservation/Wildlife Sanctuaries .............................................................................................................. 431 Environmental Pollution .............................................................................................................................................. 438 Miscellaneous ................................................................................................................................................................ 444 Miscellaneous ............................................................................................................................................................................................ 447-480 3

Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf TGT Syllabus (B) Botany (19)

(A) Zoology (07)

Virus Definition, Characteristics/features, Infection, Morphology and structure, chemical composition, Importance, Diseases caused by Viruses.

Study classification structure, nature, lifecycle and disease caused by following species :Phylum - Protozoa:– Entamoeba, Paramecium, Plasmodium, Euglena.

Bacteria:– Definition, Characteristics/features form and morphology of Bacteria, Shapes of Bacteria, Reproduction in Bacteria, Economic importance of Bacteria.

Phy. Porifera:– Leucosolenia, Sycon Phylum Coelenterata:– Hydra, Obelia, Aurelia Phylum Platyhelminthes:– Fasciola, Taenia

Lichen:– General characteristics and importance of Lichens.

Phylum Nematoda:– Ascaris, Helminth Phylum Annelida:– Neries, Pheretima, Leech Phylum Arthropoda:– Mosqitoes, Prawn

Cockroach,

Algae:– Classification of Algae, Characteristic of BGA (Blue Green Algae) and Brown algae, Habitat, structure and life cycle of Nostoc, Chlamydomonas, Volvox, Ulothrix, Spirogyra, Oedogonium, Ectocarpus and Betrachospermum, Economic Importance of Algae.

Musca,

Phylum Mollusca:– Pila Phylum Echinodermata:– Starfish Phylum Chordata:– vertebrata, Scoliodon

Herdmania,

Amphioxus,

Fungi:– Alexopoulos, Mucor and Rhizopus, Classification of fungi, characteristic features, nature and life cycle of Pythium, Albugo, Saccharmyces, Penicillium, Puccinium, Agaricus, Economic importance of fungi.

Amphibia:– Rana Reptilia:– Uromastyx, Lizard Aves:– Columba Cell Biology:– Microscopic structure of cell, Mitosis and Meiosis cell division, Gametogenesis. Genetics:– Mendelism, Crossing over, DNA, RNA

economic

Eugenics,

Bryophyta:– Classification of Bryophyta, Main characteristics features, Habitat, classification and life cycle of Riccia, Marchantia and Funaria.

Linkage,

Pteridophyta:– Classification of pteridophyta, Main characteristic features, Habitat. Classification and life cycle of Lycopodium, Selaginella Equisetum and marsilea.

Organic Evolution:– Evidences of evolution, Theories of evolution – Lamarckism, NeoLamarckism, Darwinism, Neo-Darwinism, Process of evolution - Variations, Mutation, Evolution through Era, Evolution of Man.

Gymnosperms:– Classification of Gymnosperms, Main characteristic feature, Habitat, Classification and life cycle of Cycas & Pinus. Economic importance of Gymnosperms.

Ecology:– Ecosystem, Ecological factor, Biosphere, Biotic Community, Ecological pyramid.

Palaeobotany:– Geological time scale, Types of fossils and importance of fossils.

General introduction of pollution. Animal Physiology:– Integumentary, Skeletal System, Muscular System, Nutrition and digestive System, Blood, Circulatory system, Respiratory system, Excretory System, Reproductive system, Endocrine system, Nervous system, Sensory organs, Immunity & Disease. Biochemistry:– Carbohydrates, Enzymes and Hormones.

Proteins,

Angiosperms:– Bentham & Hooker system of classification. Study of families. Ranunculaceae, Cruciferae, Papaveraceae, Caryophyllaceae, Leguminosae, Rosaceae, Solanaceae, Cucurbitaceae, Umbeliferae, Compositae, Acanthaceae, Labitae, Euphorbiaceae, Liliaceae & Gramineae.

Fats,

Economic Botany:– Study of wood, fibres, oils, Medicine and Spices yielding plants.

Embryology:– Embryonic development in Amphioxus, Frog, Chick, Placentation in Mammals. Human geography & conservation of Natural resources.

Plant Morphology & Anatomy:– Roots, stem, leaf, Inflorescence, Flower, Tissue and Tissue system, secondary growth. 4

Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Crossing over, sex Theories of Evolution.

Embryology:– Microsporogenesis, Megasporogenesis, Male and female gametophyte, Endosperm and life cycle of Angiosperms.

determination,

Mutation,

Plant Physiology:– Mineral nutrition & water relations in plants (mineral Nutrition, Water relations of cell, Absorption of water, Ascent of sap, Transpiration & Translocation of food), Photosynthesis, Respiration, Plant growth and movements, Protein synthesis, Nitrogen cycle.

Ecology & Environment:– Autecology and Synecology, plant community, Ecosystem, Succession & Adaptation. Environment & Its major component & their effects on human. Cytogenetics:– Plant cell, cell wall, cell membrane, cell organelles, cell division, structure and chemical composition of chromosome. Mendel's law, linkage,

Soil Science:– Soil profile, Types of soil, soilerosion and Soil conservation.

PGT Syllabus limitation factor, aquatic & terrestrial habitats, Natural resources and their conservation scope of toxicology and survey of environment toxicants, selective toxicity and antidotal procedure, environmental management.

Zoology (06) Non-chordate:– General survey and classification of different phyla; Nutrition and Reproduction in Protozoa, Structure and life-history of Entamoeba and Paramecium-Structure and life history of Sycon, polymorphism in Coelenterates, Structure and lifehistory of Wuchereia, Brancrafti Structure and life history Hirudinaria (Leech), Larval form and parasitism in crustacean, structure and Life history of pila (pond shell), Larval forms in echinodermata, structure and life history of Starfish.

Wild life:– General study of wild life and endangered wild animals of India, wildlife sanctuaries, national parks and biosphere reserves in India. Activities of various organizations for the conservation of wild life. Economic Zoology:– Protozoan and helminthes parasites causing human disease culture, Lac culture, sericulture, Apiculture, Pearl culture and fish culture industries. General survey of economically important mammals, Pharmaceuticals obtained from animal.

Chordata:– General survey and classification of different classes, origin of chordate and tetrapoda, structure and principal characteristics of herdmania and amphioxus, migration in fishes, structure and function in scoliodon, parental care in Amphibia, structure and function in Uromastyx, poisonous and non-poisonous snakes of India, Migration and flight adaptation in birds, structure and functions in columba, general characteristics and affinities of prototheria, metatheria and Eutheria, comparative anatomy of digestive, circulatory, respiratory, excretory and reproductive system of vertebrates.

Biostatistics:– Elementary idea of central tendency and variation in data test, probability, nullhypothesis, chi-square test, normal distribution, Binomial distribution, Poisson distribution. Physiology and biochemistry:– Digestion and absorption of food, nutritive requirement in balanced diet, Hunger and secretion of digestive juice, Regulation or breathing and transport of gases physiological categories of heart and regulation of heart beat, Blood pressure and blood volume, patterns of nitrogen excretion in different animals, salts and water balance, Microscopic structure of muscle. Contraction, endocrine organs and their secretions, Regulatory action of hormones at the cellularlevels, action of hormones at the cellular levels, Law of mass action, elementary thermodynamics, Kinetics of enzymes reaction, coenzymes, basics of immune - response- AIDS, energy production from carbohydrates, lipid and amino acids.

Animal Development:– Outlines of development of Amphioxus from chick placentation and evolution in mammals, metamorphosis in insects, regulation of cellular differentiation. Evolution:– Theories and evidences of evolution, genes in population, micro, macro and mega evolution. Taxonomy, procedure in Taxonomy, Species concept, Artificial verses natural classification. Environmental Biology & Toxicology:–Ecosystem homeostatsis, Population → inter and intraspecific relation. Eco-factors with special reference to 5

Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Animal Behaviour:– Behavioural categories, stereotype and learning behaviour, communication among animals, sexual behaviour, Migration behaviour reference to fish and birds.

Bentham & Hooker System. Nomenclature systematic study of families like Ranunculaceae, Cruciferae, Capparidaceae, Cucurbitaceae, Composite, Malvaceae, Rosaceae, Leguminosae, Acanthaceae, Verbenaceae, Solanaceae, Labiatae, Euphorbiaceae, Palmaceae, Musaceae & Gramineae. Field & herbarium technique.

Cytology & Genetics:– Microscopic structure and function of cell organelles, chromosomal structure, type- structure - aberration of D.N.A., D.N.A. replication, gene interactional cytoplasmic inheritance, sex-linked inheritance, linkage and crossing over, lethal gene, protein synthesis, principles of biotechnology.

Economic Botany:– Distribution, characteristics and uses of following plants. 1- Timber:– Teak, Sheesham, Sal, Pine 2- Fibre:– Cotton, Jute, coconut, sunhemp 3- Oil:– Mustard, Coconut, Castor, Ground nut. 4- Sugar:– Sugarcane, Sugarbeet 5- Medicine:– Opium, Rauwolfia 6- Spices:– Coriander, Cardamom, Black pepper, 7- Beverages:– Tea, Coffee. Morphology and Anatomy:– Plant body and its development, Meristems and mature tissue, concepts of morphology and anatomy of vegetative and reproduction parts, normal and anomalous secondary growth in roots and stem. Development of plant anatomy in India of cell, tissue and organ culture. Embryology:– Life cycle of Angiosperms with special reference to micro and megasporaogenesis, morphology and structure of ovule, embryosac, endosperm and seed. Recent trends in embryology of angiosperms. Ecology & Environment:– Autecology & Synecology, Ecosystem, Ecosystem- dynamics, Photo-geography, Production ecology, Pollution : Man & Environment. Cytology & Genetics:– History of cytology & genetics, Microscopic structure of chromosomes and its function, chromosomal aberration. Cell division and its significance. Linkage and chromosomal maps. Mendelia and deviation from mendelian ratio. Sex determination with special reference to environmental and hormonal control. Mutation and its molecular basis, polyploidy and its role in evolution. Modern concepts of gene. Recent trends in cytological and genetic research with emphasis on principle of molecular genetics. Physiology:– Water relation of plant cell. Transpiration, absorption, salt uptake photosynthesis, nitrogen assimilation, respiration, fat metabolism, physiology of growth, Reproduction & movement. Soil Science:– Soil characteristics, soil profile, soil water relation, types of soil in India, problems of roots, Reclamation of user soils, soil erosion & soil conservation.

Prokaryotes:– Elements of prokaryotic genetics, genetic recombination, transformation, conjugation and Transductional plasmids and their roles in prokaryotic genetics. Basic principles of genetics engineering, microbes of economic importance and their application in human welfare.

Botany (19) Viruses:– Definition, nature, structure and transmission of viruses, symptoms of viral disease and control. Bacteria:– Classification of bacteria, structure of reproduction scope and importance of bacteriology. Lichens:– Occurrence, habit, reproduction, classification and importance of Lichen.

structure, economic

Algae:– Classification of Algae by Fritsch, occurrence, habit, range and thallus structure, economical importance of algae. Structure and life cycle of Gloeotrichie, oscillatoria, scytonema, chlamydomonas, volvox, oedogonium, Chara, focus, ectocarpus and padina. Bryophyta:– Occurrence, distribution, structure, reproduction and life cycle of psilotum, lycopodium, seleginella, equisetum and marsilea, steler system, heterospory and seed habits in pteridophytes. Gymnosperms:– Classification, ecology, distribution, morphology, anatomy, reproduction and economic importance of cycas, pinus and Ephedra. Palaeobotany:– Geological Time Scale with special reference of origin & development of various classes of plants fossils. Fossilization & fossil techniques to study fossils, Applications and limitations of Palaeobotanic fossilization of the World. Taxonomy of Angiosperms:– Origin of Angiosperms, system of classification (Artificial, Natural and Phylogenetic) with special reference to 6

Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Zoology TGT/PGT/GIC/LT Grade-Exam Level and latest syllabus wise, Chapterwise analysis Chart of Solved Question Papers S. No. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55.

Examination Question Paper G.IC/Ashram Paddhati/Diet/L.T. Government Inter College (GIC) Exam-2021 UPPSC Ashram Paddhati 2021 Government Inter College (GIC) LT Exam-2018 Government Inter College (GIC) LT Exam-2015 Government Inter College (GIC) LT Exam-2012 UP (LT) Grade Exam- 2018 Lecturer Selection Exam (PGT) Lecturer Selection Exam - 2021 Lecturer Selection Exam, 2002 Lecturer Selection Exam, 2003 Lecturer Selection Exam, 2004 Lecturer Selection Exam, 2005 Lecturer Selection Exam, 2009 Lecturer Selection Exam, 2010 Lecturer Selection Exam, 2011 Lecturer Selection Exam, 2013 Lecturer Selection Exam, 2016 Trained Graduate Teacher Selection Exam (TGT) Trained Graduate Teacher Selection Exam, 2021 Trained Graduate Teacher Selection Exam, 2016 Trained Graduate Teacher Selection Exam, 1999 Trained Graduate Teacher Selection Exam, 2002 Trained Graduate Teacher Selection Exam, 2003 Trained Graduate Teacher Selection Exam, 2004 Trained Graduate Teacher Selection Exam, 2005 Trained Graduate Teacher Selection Exam, 2009 Trained Graduate Teacher Selection Exam, 2010 Trained Graduate Teacher Selection Exam, 2011 Trained Graduate Teacher Selection Exam, 2013 Central School/Navodaya & Delhi Lecturer Exam Navodaya Vidyalaya lecturer recruitment exam-2014 Delhi Central School Lecturer recruitment exam-2015 UPPCS UPPCS Preliminary Exam- 1994 UPPCS Preliminary Exam- 1995 UPPCS Preliminary Exam- 1996 UPPCS Preliminary Exam- 1997 UPPCS Preliminary Exam- 1998 UPPCS Preliminary Exam- 1999 UPPCS Preliminary Exam- 2000 UPPCS Preliminary Exam- 2001 UPPCS Preliminary Exam- 2002 UPPCS Preliminary Exam- 2003 UPPCS Preliminary Exam- 2004 UPPCS Preliminary Exam- 2005 UPPCS Preliminary Exam- 2006 UPPCS Preliminary Exam- 2007 UPPCS Preliminary Exam- 2008 UPPCS Preliminary Exam- 2009 UPPCS Preliminary Exam- 2010 Other State UK PSC Lecturer Mains-2020 Bihar PGT Lecturer Selection Exam- 2019 UK SSSC LT Science 2018 Rajasthan PSC Lecturer Selection Exam-2018 Rajasthan PSC Lecturer Selection Exam- 2016 Rajasthan PSC Lecturer Selection Exam- 2015 Rajasthan PSC Lecturer Selection Exam- 2013 Rajasthan PSC Lecturer Selection Exam- 2011 Jharkhand Diet PGT Lecturer Exam- 2014

Exam Date/Examination year

No. of Question.

19 September, 2021 29/09/2021 29 July, 2018 15 September, 2015 14 June, 2015 2018

120 120 120 120 120 60

17/10/2021 2002 2003 2004 2005 2009 2010 2011 2013 2019

125 85 85 125 125 125 125 125 125 67

07/08/2021 31/07/2021 1999 2002 2003 2004 2005 2009 2010 2016 2016

125 125 100 85 85 125 125 125 125 125 125

2014 2015

80 200

1994 1995 1996 1997 1998 1999 2000 2001 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006 2007 2008 2009 2010

120 120 120 120 120 120 120 120 120 120 120 120 120 120 120 120 120

2020 200 2019 82 21/01/2018 100 07/01/2022 150 23/07/2016 150 2015 150 2013 150 2011 150 2014 100 Total (Volume-I+Volume-II) 6594 Note- After due analysis of the above question papers, a total of 6594 (Repeated questions + similar nature questions) questions related to Zoology have been placed below the name of the original questions, so that the examinees can understand the nature of repetition of questions. 7

Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Trend Analysis of Previous Year Papers Through Bar Graph and Pie Chart

8

Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 1. Taxonomy 1.

4.

Amniotes do not include : (a) Amphibia (b) Reptiles (c) Birds (d) Mammals PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (a) : Amniotes are a clade of tetrapod vertebrates comprising the reptiles, birds and mammals. Amniotes are characterized by having an egg equipped with an amnion, an adaptation to lay eggs on land or retain the fertilized egg within the mother. 5. The group amniota includes : (a) Reptiles and birds (b) Reptiles and mammals (c) Reptiles, birds and mammals (d) Birds and mammals PGT Biology 2009 Ans. (c) : Amniota, a group of limbed vertebrates which includes all living reptiles, aves (birds), mammals and their extinct relatives and ancestors. The vertebrates which possess amnion during embryonic development belong to the group amniota. The extra-embryonic membranes – the amnion, chorion and allantois.

Principles of Classification

1.

The binomial system of Carolus Linnaeus was devoid of which of the following categories? (a) Genus and species (b) Class and order (c) Phylum and family (d) Kingdom and class UP PGT 17/08/2021 Ans. (c) : The binomial system of Carolus Linnaeus was devoid of phylum and family. Carolus Linnaeus was a Swedish botanist, zoologist, taxonomist, and physician who formalised binomial nomenclature, the modern system of naming organisms. The name is composed of two terms, where the first term indicates the genus and the second term indicates the species of the organism. The current taxonomic system now has eight levels in its hierarchy, from lowest to highest, they are species, genus, family, order, class, phylum, kingdom, domain. 2. Amniota group includes: (a) Aves and Reptiles (b) Pisces, Amphibia and Reptiles (c) Amphibia, Reptiles and Aves (d) Reptiles, Aves and Mammalia GIC 19/09/2021 Ans. (d) : Amniota group includes reptiles, aves and mammalia. Any group of vertebrates that undergo embryonic or fetal development within an amnion are included in Amniota. Members of the amniota are characterized by having a series of specialized protective extraembryonic membranes during development. The presence of these membranes makes it possible for the embryonic development of the amniotes to take place out of the water. There are two main divisions of amniotes, the sauropsid (Reptiles and Aves), and the synapsid (Mammals). 3. Which is true? (a) Pisces, Reptiles and birds are poikilotherms. (b) Pisces, Amphibians and Reptiles are Anamniota (c) Aves, Mammals and Reptiles are 6. homeotherms (d) Reptiles, Aves and Mammals are Amniota TGT Biology 1999 Ans. (d) : Reptiles, aves and mammals are Amniota, while fishes and amphibians are an amniotes. Amniotes are a clade of tetrapod vertebrates distinguished by a membrane protecting the embryo and lack a larval stage while an amniote lay eggs in water. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

9

In which kingdom prokaryotic organisms were placed by Whittaker? (a) Animalia (b) Plantae (c) Monera (d) Protista Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2015 RPSC School Lecturer (23/07/2016) YCT

Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (c) : The five kingdom classification was proposed 10. 'Mycoplasma' belongs to which kingdom ? by R.H. Whittaker in the year 1969. The kingdom (a) Monera (b) Protista Monera is comprised of unicellular prokaryotic (c) Fungi (d) Plantae organisms. This group contains the bacteria and the TGT Biology 2011 cyanobacteria species. These are the prokaryotic organisms which do not have well-developed cell Ans. (a) : Mycoplasma belongs to the kingdom organelles, like the nucleus, mitochondria and Monera. Monera kingdom is made up of prokaryotes. It chloroplast, the other four kingdoms are - Protista, includes single celled organisms that lack true nucleus. Fungi, Plantae and Animalia are composed of all the Monera contain 70s ribosomes. eukaryotic organisms. It lacks organelles like mitochondria, golgi bodies, lysosomes, plastids, centrosome etc. 7. Concern with nomenclature of organisms : They reproduce asexually by binary fission or budding. A - Whittaker, B - Strickland (a) Only A (b) Only B (c) Both A and B (d) None RPSC School Lecturer 2011 Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (b) : Strickland was an English geologist, ornithologist, naturalist and systematist. He proposed a series of rules for the nomenclature of organisms in zoology, known as the strickland code, that was a precursor of later codes for nomenclature. 8.

According to five kingdom classification, Protozoa are placed in : (a) Protista (b) Monera (c) Fungi (d) Animalia 11. TGT Biology 2011

Ans. (a) : According to five kingdom classification system, Protozoa are placed in Protista. Five kingdom classification was given by 'Robert Whittaker' in 1969. He divided living things in 5 kingdoms, Protista, Fungi, Monera, Animalia & Plantae. Characteristic features of protista – * These are unicellular and eukaryotic organisms. * They have a membrane bound nucleus & other cellular organelles. * Most of them live in water while some habitat in moist places. * They have pseudopodia, flagella or cilia for movement. 9.

Ans. (c) : Binomial Nomenclature is given by Carolus Linnaeus. Biologists follow universally accepted principle to provide scientific name to known organisms, each name has two component- The Generic name and the Specific epithet. This system providing a name with two components is called bionomial nomenclature. 12.

Highest category of taxonomy is called: (a) Family (b) Species (c) Division (d) Kingdom Bihar PGT 2019

10

Animals in which mouth develops opposite to blastopore, are called: (a) Protostomia (b) Parazoa (c) Deuterostomia (d) Protista UPPCS Pre 2010

Ans. (c) : Animals in which mouth develops opposite to blastopore are called Deuterostomia. Animals in which the definitive mouth develops directly from the blastopore are called Protostomia. Protostomes are primitive invertebrates while deuterostomes include chordates and echinoderms.

Ans. (d) : Highest category of taxonomy is called kingdom. There are 7 main taxonomic categories - 13. Kingdom, Phylum (Animal) or Division (Plants), Class, Order, Family, Genus and species. Each of this level of the hierarchy is called taxonomic category or rank. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Binomial nomenclature was discovered by : (a) Darwin (b) Lamarck (c) Linnaeus (d) Cuvier UPPCS Pre 1994

The term 'biology' was introduced by: (a) Aristotle (b) Lamarck (c) Darwin (d) Linnaeus UPPCS Pre 1996, 1997 YCT

Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (b) : The term 'biology' was introduced by 17. Identify the group in the following having all animals belonging to the same class : Lamarck in 1802 to describe the science of life. Biology is the branch of science which deals with the (a) dogfish, silverfish, crayfish, flatish study of living organisms. The term biology was (b) glow-worm, silkworm, housefly, bedbug coined by two scientists at the same time, Lamarck (c) sea urchin, sea cucumber, sea fan, sea-lion and Treviranus. Lamarck coined the term with the (d) centipede, earthworm, caterpillar, shipworm study of life forms and the various branches like zoology, phytology, biochemistry etc. Treviranus UPPCS Pre 1997 coined the term on the basis of the study of the Ans. (b) : Glow-worm, silkworm, housefly, bedbug conditions in which different life forms exist. are the animal of phylum Arthropoda. 14. Herbivorous sea mammals belong to order : Animal of other options exhibit different phylum. (a) Pholidota (b) Cetacea (a) Fish and Arthropoda (b) Echinodermata and (c) Sirenia (d) Artiodactyla Coelenterates (d) Arthropoda and Mollusca. UPPCS Pre 2006 18. In the history of animal science, the person who Ans. (c) : Sirenia (Herbivorous sea mammals belong for the first time, recognised the importance of to order Sirenia.) the fossils as evidence of evolution was : (a) Leonardo da Vinci (1452-1519) Character Belonging e.g. order (b) George Cuvier (1769-1832) (c) Darwin (1809-1882) Herbivorous Sirenia Manatee, sea mammal (d) Lamarck (1744-1829) Dugong, UPPCS Pre 1997 Seacow Ans. (b) : George Cuvier was first to realise that Scaly anteater Pholidota Pangolin, fossils were the organic remains of extinct animals. Manis Because of his work with fossils, he was given the Omnivores Carnivora Cat, Dog title of father of paleontology. character 19. Which of the following is derived from latin Hoofed Artiodactyla Buffalo, word : mammal Antelope, (a) Porifera Camel, sheep It is Herbivores (b) Annelida 15. Proterospongia belongs to the sub-class: (c) Mollusca (a) Phytomastigophorea (b) Zoomastigophora (d) All of the above (c) Demospongiae (d) Keratosa UPPCS Pre 2001 UPPCS Pre 2006 Ans. (d) : All i.e. Porifera, Mollusca, Annelida are Ans. (b) : Proterospongia belongs to sub-class derived from Latin word. The name 'Porifera' means Zoomastigophora. Zoomastigophora is a phylum 'pore bearer' in Latin. The word mollusc originated within the kingdom Protista. Organism within this from latin molluscus (thin-shelled). Annelida is group have a spherical elongated body with a single derived from the latin word annelus, meaning 'little central nucleus. Proterospongia is the connecting link ring'. between phylum Protozoa and Porifera. 20. The book 'Origin of species' was published in : 16. The common units of classification are (i) Genus (a) 1809 (ii) family (iii) species (iv) order (v) variety. (b) 1858 Their correct sequence starting from smallest is : (c) 1956 (a) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv), (v) (d) 1859 (b) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v) TGT Biology 2010 (c) (iv), (ii), (iii), (i), (v) (d) (v), (iii), (i), (ii), (iv) Ans. (d) : The book 'Origin of species' was published UPPCS Pre 2007 in 1859, is a work of scientific literature by Charles Darwin. Ans. (d) : In botanical nomenclature, variety is a (1) Published on 24 November 1859, 'On the origin of taxonomic rank below that of species and subspecies, species' was a book written by English biologist but above that of form. As such, it gets a three-part Charles Robert Darwin. infraspecific name. (2) The complete title of the book is 'on the origin of Kingdom → phylum or division → class → order → species by means of natural selection or the family → tribe → genus → species → sub-species → preservation of favoured races in the struggle for life'. variety. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf The first phylum of animal kingdom to exhibit bilateral symmetry is: (a) Arthropoda (b) Annelida (c) Mollusca (d) Platyhelminthes TGT Biology 2009 Ans. (d) : The first phylum of animal kingdom to exhibit bilateral symmetry is Platyhelminthes. Platyhelminthes or flatworms are the acoelomate animals i.e. without any body cavity. Animals exhibiting bilateral symmetry can be 21. Aplysia belongs to the class : categorized into three types on the basis of their body cavity. (a) Amphineura (b) Gastropoda 1. Acoelomate- without body cavity e.g., (c) Bivalvia (d) Cephalopoda Platyhelminthes UPPCS Pre 1996 2. Pseudocoelomates- With false coelom or cavity e.g., Ans. (b) : Aplysia belong to the family Aplysiidae Aschelminthes and is a marine gastropod mollusc. It has Parapodia. 3. Coelomates- With true coelom or cavity. e.g., Aplysia - Include in class Gastropoda Annelida, Arthropoda, Mollusca, Echinodermata, Hemichordata & Chordata. Octopus - Cephalopoda In bilateral symmetry, you create two matching halves Unio - Bivalvia by drawing a line from the anterior (head) end of the Chiton - Amphineura organism to posterior (tail) end. This creates two sides 22. Linnaeus published his concept of binomial that seemingly reflect each other. nomenclature first in : 25. Father of taxonomy is : (a) Systema Naturae (a) De Candolle (b) Hooker (b) Species Plantarum (c) Linnaeus (d) Aristotle (c) Genera Plantarum TGT Biology 2009 (d) Philosophia Botanica Ans. (c) : 'Father of taxonomy' is Linnaeus. Aristotle is TGT Biology 2009 known as the "Father of Biology and Zoology" Taxonomy of Natural System was given by Bentham Ans. (b) : and Hooker. A.P. De Candolle was a swiss Botanist Book Name Description who coined the term Taxonomy. Species Plantarum Ist – Binomial Nomenclature 26. Retrogressive metamorphosis is characteristic of: for Plants (Published in (a) Urochordata (b) Hemichordata 1753) (c) Cephalochordata (d) all of the above st Systema Naturae - I Pronomial System for PGT Biology 2013 Animals (Published in 1758) Genera Plantarum - It was written by carolus Ans. (a) : Retrogressive metamorphosis is characteristic of Urochordata. linnaeus in 1753. Philosophia Botanica - also written by Carolus In retrogressive metamorphosis, the larva shows advance characters which are lost during the development and the Linnaeus. It is the Ist text book adult is degenerated with primitive characters. of descriptive systematic Metamorphosis is changes that a juvenile larva undergoes botany and botanical latin. in its development from larval stage to adult stage. 23. The word 'species' was coined by : (a) John Ray (b) Mayer (c) J. Huxley (d) C. Linnaeus TGT Biology 2009 Ans. (a) : The word species was coined by John Ray. * C. Linnaeus has given Binomial Nomenclature. * J. Huxley gave the concept of protoplasm. The English naturalist John Ray (1627-1705) was an early botanical and zoological systematist who divided plants into monocotyledons and dicotyledons. He defined species as the largest group of organisms in which two individuals are capable of reproducing fertile offspring typically using sexual reproduction. (3) The book lays the foundation of evolutionary biology by introducing the theory that through a process called natural selection, populations evolve over the course of generations. Note- Name Books Charles Darwin Origin of species Carolus Linnaeus Systema Naturae William Paley Natural Theology Erasmus Darwin The Botanic garden

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24.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 27.

Smallest tape worm is: (a) Taenia (b) Moniezia (c) Echinococcus (d) Cotugnia

Ans. (d) : Cyanea is not a coral while Pennatula, Oculina, Tubipora planetary eating all are corals. Corals consists of small, colonial, invertebrate animals called polyp, like the anemone in the phylum-Cnidaria. They secrete calcium carbonate to form a hard skeleton or coral reef.

PGT Biology 2013 31. Limbless amphibians are placed in order: Ans. (c) : Smallest tape worm is Echinococcus. It is a (a) Anura genus within cestode, a parasitic class of the Platyhelminthes phylum. It is also known as hydatid (b) Urodela worm. It causes an infectious disease called (c) Gymnophiona echinococcosis in humans. The infection affects the (d) None of these liver is about 75 percent of people. Symptoms may PGT Biology 2011, 2010 include pain in the abdomen and the formation of cysts in the liver. The infection affects the lungs in about Ans. (c) : Limbless amphibians are placed in order 22% of people who contract its symptoms, may include Gymnophiona. Its members are known as caecilians, chest pain and coughing up bloody mucus. meaning sightless or blind. They live underground in 28. Peripatus belongs to class : humid tropical regions throughout the world. (a) Crustacea They possess venom glands. (b) Onychophora They secrete mucus to reduce water loss. (c) Insecta 32. Alimentary canal is absent in the animals of class: (d) Arachnida (a) Arachnida PGT Biology 2011 (b) Cestoda Ans. (b) : Peripatus belongs to phylum-Onychophora (c) Trematoda and class-Udeonychophora. It is found in Central (d) Nematoda America, the Caribbean and northern South America. It is a connecting link between the phylum-Annelida and PGT Biology 2010 Arthropoda. As annelids, peripatus have worm-like Ans. (b) : Alimentary canal is absent in the animals of segmented body, segmented nephridia etc. and as class Cestoda. Cestoda is a class which comprises of arthropods they have jointed pairs legs. parasitic flatworms, of the phylum Platyhelminthes. All cestoda members are parasitic. They usually live in the digestive tracts of vertebrates as adults and often in the bodies of other species of animals as juveniles. Tapeworms are unique in lacking an alimentary canal. This means that nutrients must be absorbed through the tegument. 33. 29.

Class-Bivalvia is also called_____. (a) Gastropoda (b) Cephalopoda (c) Pelecypoda (d) Arachnida PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (c) : Class-Bivalvia is also called Pelecypoda. It is a class of marine and freshwater molluscs that have laterally compressed bodies enclosed by a shell composed of two hinged parts. Examples– Oysters, clams, & mussels etc.

30.

Which of following is not a coral ? (a) Pennatula (b) Tubipora (c) Oculina (d) Cyanea PGT Biology 2011

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“Horned Toad” belong to the class : (a) Chordata (b) Reptilia (c) Amphibia (d) Anura PGT Biology 2003

Ans. (b) : "Horned Toad" belong to the class Reptilia, called Phrynosoma. It is a genus of North American lizards. It common names refer directly to their horns or to their flattened, round bodies and blunt snouts. This property is used to place the lizard in the group of reptiles. 34.

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Which is absent in archaebacteria : (a) Polysaccharides (b) Peptidoglycan (c) Lipids (d) Proteins Delhi SSB PGT Biology 2015 YCT

Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 38.

Ans. (b) : Peptidoglycan or murein is a polymer consisting of sugars and amino acids that forms a mesh like peptidoglycan layer outside the plasma membrane of most bacteria forming the cell wall. Archaean cell walls do not have peptidoglycan, but they may have pseudopeptidoglycan polysaccharides, glycoproteins or protein based cell walls. 35.

Linnaeus system of plant classification is based on: (a) Morphological and anatomical character (b) Evolutionary trends (c) Floral character (d) None of the above Delhi SSB PGT Biology 2015

Which of the following is the correct descending sequence of taxonomic categories? (a) Class–order–division–family–species–tribe (b) Family–order–genus–order–division–class (c) Division–class–order–family–tribe–genus (d) Family–order–division–family–species–tribe Jharkhand Daite PGT Biology 2014

Ans.(c) : The correct descending sequence of taxonomic categories is, Division-class-order-family tribe-genus. 37.

– – – – – –

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is

not

a

Which one of the following protozoan depicts the characteristics of both plants and animals? (a) Entamoeba (b) Paramecium (c) Monocystis (d) Volvox UPPCS Pre 1996, 2002

Ans. (d) : In the old 5 kingdom system, the group protista was created because there were some organisms like Volvox and Euglena. They have characteristics of both plants (chloroplasts with chlorophyll, so they can photosynthesize) and of animals (they have flagellae and for colonies that are capable of co-ordinated movement).

2.

Concept of Species and Sub-Species Deuterostome and protostome animals differ in: (a) their symmetry (b) the embryonic origin of their mouth (c) to the presence or absence of a body cavity (d) the presence or absence of a nervous system UPPCS Pre 2008

Ans. (b) : Based on the embryonic development, metazoans are divided into protostomes and deuterostomes. Protostomes are primitive invertebrates while deuterostomes include chordates and echinoderms. This division is helpful in understanding the relationships between different groups of animals. The main difference between protostomes and deuterostomes is that the blastopore in protostomes are developed into a mouth while the blastopore in deuterostomes is developed into an anal opening. Given below in a tabular column are the differences between protostomes and deuterostomes.

⇒ Carpenter ants (Camponotus species) ⇒ Phylum Class Order Family Tribe Genus

following

Ans. (a) : Snail comes under protostomia so it is not a deuterostome. In these animals, the first opening (the blastopore) becomes the anus, while in protostomes becomes the mouth. Deuterostomes are also known as enterocoelomates because their coelom develops through enterocoely. There are four extant phyla of deuterostomes-Chordata, Echinodermata, Hemichordata and Xenoturbellida.

Carpenter ants belong to which of the following orders? (a) Neuroptera (b) Lepidoptera 40. (c) Plecoptera (d) Hymenoptera Jharkhand Daite PGT Biology 2014

Ans. (d) : Carpenter ants build their nest in both moist and dry wood, but prefer wood which is moist. Hymenopterans are chiefly small to medium sized insects usually with four membranous wings and a narrow waist that seats off the abdomen from the thorax, or middle region of the body. Hymenoptera includes carpenter ants, bees, wasps and sawflies.

the

GIC Biology 15.09.2015

Ans. (c) : Linnaeus system of plant classification is 39. based on floral characters. Linnaeus is known as father of plant taxonomy. Oswald Tippo in 1942 classified the plant kingdom into 2 kingdoms on the basis of presence or absence of the embryo - Thallophyta and Embryophyta. 36.

Which one of Deuterostome? (a) Snail (b) Starfish (c) Lizard (d) Snake

Arthropoda Insecta Hymenoptera Formicidae Camponotini Camponotus 14

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 42.

Consider the following and answer : 1. Unicellular 2. Multicellular 3. Prokaryote 4. Eukaryote 5. With plastid 6. Without plastid Protista are : (a) 1, 3 and 6 (b) 2, 4 and 5 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 4 UPPCS Pre 2002 Ans. (b) : Protista are multicellular, eukaryotic, with plastid. Protists are eukaryotic organism. They are mostly unicellular, but some, like algae are multicellular. According to question, B answer is correct.

43.

The geological age of a rock is determined by : (a) The fossil flora and fauna (b) Chemical composition of the rocks Protostomes Deuterostomes (c) Radiometric dating In protostomes, the In deuterostomes, the (d) Spectroscopic data blastopore develops into a blastopores develop mouth into an anal opening PGT Biology 2004 Ans. (c) : The geological age of a rock is determined by It exhibits determinate It exhibits radiometric dating. It is a technique which is used to cleavage indeterminate cleavage date materials such as rocks or carbon in which trace The gut forms the anus by The gut forms the radioactive impurities are present. Fossils are tunnelling itself into the mouth by tunnelling impressions of plants or animals embedded in rock and embryo itself into the embryo preserved. They may be in the form of a body or trace. The age of the fossils is determined by the radioactive It comprises of a solid It comprises of a carbon dating technique in which the half-life of carbon ventral cord hollow nerve cord and found radioactive elements is determined to 41. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct calculate the age of a fossil. answer from the code given below the list : 44. The term 'Taxon' for the first time was used List-I List-II by: (A) Pila 1. Dr. K.N. Bahl (a) ICBN (b) ICZN (B) Pheretima 2. Dr. S.M. Das (c) Meyer (d) de Condolle (C) Herdmania 3. Dr. Beni Prasad Delhi SSB PGT Biology 2015 (D) Palaemon 4. Dr. M. S. Mani Ans. (c) : The terms taxon was used for the first time by (E) High altitude 5. Dr. S.S. Patwardhan Meyer. Adolf Meyer approached the problem with a new entomology definition for species, In his book 'systematics and the Code : origin of species' (1942). He wrote that a species is not A B C D E just a group of morphologically similar, individuals, but (a) 5 4 3 2 1 a group that can breed only among themselves, excluding all others. (b) 1 2 3 4 5 In biology, a taxon is a group of one or more (c) 3 1 2 5 4 populations of an organism or organisms seen by (d) 4 5 2 1 3 taxonomists to form a unit. UPPCS Pre 2001 Term Scientist Ans. (c) : Taxon Adolf Meyer 1926 (a) Pila — Dr. Beni Prasad Systematics Linnaeus (1735) (b) Pheretima — Dr. K.N. Bahl Taxonomy A.P de Candolle (1813) Phylogeny Haeckel (1866) (c) Herdmania — Dr. S.M. Das Phylum Haeckel (1866) (d) Palaemon — Dr. S.S. Patwardhan Class and Order Linnaeus (e) High Altitude — Dr. M.S. Mani Species John Ray Entomology TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 3. 45.

Binomial Nomenclature

Ans. (b) : When the species name exactly repeats generic name, it is known as Tautonym.

Binomial system of nomenclature was proposed by : (a) Gaspard Bauhin (b) Charles Darwin (c) Carl Linnaeus (d) Thomas Drummond UPPSC Ashram Paddhati 29/09/2021

e.g. - Rattus - rattus, Naja naja. Basionym is the original name on which a new name is based. eg.- the basionym of the name Picea abies is Pinus abies. Homonym is a name for a taxon that is identical in spelling to another such name, that belongs to a different taxon. e.g. - Hoarse - Horse

Ans. (c) : Binomial system of nomenclature was proposed by Carolus Linnaeus. He was a Swedish Synonym– A name rejected due to misuse. A synonym botanist, Zoologist, taxonomist, and physician. Binomial nomenclature is the biological system of is a scientific name that applies to a taxon that goes by a naming the organisms in which the name is composed different scientific name. e.g.- The cat has a few of two terms, where the first term indicates the genus scientific names in : Felis silvestris catus, Felis catus and the second term indicates the species of the and Felis catus domestica. organism. When the names are handwritten, they are underlined or italicized if typed. The name of the genus 49. Linnaeus is credited for : starts with a capital letter and the name of the species (a) Discovery of blood circulation starts with a small letter. (b) Theory of biogenesis 46. All organisms were classified into eight (c) Discovery of microscope kingdoms of two empires by : (a) (b) (c) (d)

R. H. Whittakar Haeckel Woese et. al. Cavalier-Smith

(d) Binomial nomenclature UPPCS Pre 1995

UP PGT 2016

Ans. (d) : Linnaeus given Binomial nomenclature system : Zoological name of any animal contain one generic name + one specific name.

Ans. (d) The 8 kingdom classification by CavalierClassification is the process by which anything can be Smith includes the following kingdoms: grouped into convenient categories based on some (I) Eubacteria (II) Archaebacteria (III) Archaezoa (IV) Protozoa (V) Chromista (VI) Plantae (VII) Fungi and easily observable characters. It is followed by naming (VIII) Animalia. the organism. Each biological name is made up of two 47. Taxonomy includes: components, generic name, and specific epithet. This (a) Identification system is called the binomial system, given by (b) Classification Carolus Linnaeus. (c) Nomenclature 50. Two words comprising binomial nomenclature (d) All of these are: Bihar PGT 2019 (a) Family and Genus Ans. (d) : Taxonomy includes all - identification, classification and nomenclature. Taxonomy is the science of naming, describing and classifying organisms. It includes all animals, plants and microorganisms of the world. Taxonomy identifies and enumerates the components of biological diversity providing basic knowledge, underpinning the management and implementation of the convention on biological diversity. 48.

(b) Order and Family (c) Genus and Species (d) Species and Variety Navoday Vidyalay PGT Biology 2014

Ans: (c) 'Binomial Nomenclature' was given by taxonomist Carolus Linnaeus in 1758. For that he is When species name exactly repeats generic known as the "Founder of Modern taxonomy". name, it is known as : In this naming system, one's name has two words genus (a) Basionym (b) Tautonym and species. (c) Homonym (d) Synonym Ex. - Mangifera indica, Homo sapiens. PGT Biology 2003

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 2. Animal Kingdom 4.

1.

Protozoa

Feeding in Sporozoa is : (a) by cytostome (b) autotrophic (c) by micropores (d) ciliary UP PGT 17/08/2021 Ans. (c) : Feeding in Sporozoa is by micropores. Micropore is an organelle formed by the pellicle of all stages of sporozoan protozoa of the subphylum Apicomplexa and also found in developmental stages that may lack the inner pellicle layer. It is composed of two concentric rings. It seems to serve as feeding organelles.

1.

2.

Of the following sub-phylum is exclusively endoparasitic ? (a) Sarcomstigophora (b) Sporozoa (c) Ciliophora (d) Cnidospora UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (b) : Sub-phylum Sporozoa is exclusively endoparasitic sporozoans are organisms that are characterized by being one-celled non-motile parasitic and spore-forming. In sporozoa locomotory organs are absent. They reproduce asexually by multiple fission and sexually by syngamy. Food capturing sub-structures are also absent due to parasitic life. They are always heterotrophic and saprozoic in nutrition. All species of sporozoa have elaborate life cycles, often requiring more than one host.

3.

Sol-Gel theory of pseudopodia formation in Amoeba was proposed by : (a) Jennings (b) Berthold (c) Dellinger (d) Hyman RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) Ans. (d) : Sol-Gel theory of pseudopodia formation in Amoeba was proposed by Hyman (1917). This theory was later supported by Pantin and Mast. Steps :(a) At the point of formation of pseudopodium, the plasma-gel converts into plasmasol and begins to flow. (b) The constant flow of plasmasol results in the growth of pseudopodium. When plasma sol strikes the hyaline cap, it converts into plasmagel which is called as gelation. (c) At the opposite end, the plasma gel converts into plasma sol to continue the supply of plasma sol. It is called as solation.

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Sol-gel theory to explain locomotion in Amoeba was propounded by : (a) Dellinger (b) Mast and Pantin (c) Hyman (d) Sellard UPPCS Pre 1997 Ans. (c) : Sol-gel theory proposed by Hyman and supported by Pantin and Mast. Sol-gel Conversion of protoplasm within its cell. It is based on reversible change of protoplasm from sol to gel state. Amoeba shows characteristics amoeboid movement by the formation of finger-like temporary process, the pseudopodia. 5. Locomotory organelles are absent in the class : (a) Sporozoa (b) Ciliata (c) Rhizopoda (d) Flagellate RPSC School Lecturer (23/07/2016) Ans. (a) : Rhizopoda are group of protozoan amoeboid organisms and possess locomotory organs in the form of cilia, which become sessile in their developed stage. Mastigophora is a phylum of unicellular heterotrophic protozoans of the kingdom Protista. Sporozoa in large group of parasitic non-photosynthetic protists that wholly lack flagellated stages and hence do not possess any locomotory organs. 6. Hyaline cap of pseudopodium of Amoeba is made up of : (a) Ectoplasm (b) Mesoplasm (c) Endoplasm (d) All of the above RPSC School Lecturer (23/07/2016) Ans. (a) : Pseudopodium at its forward end get its firm consistency by hyaline cap which is made of ectoplasm. During locomotion the leading edge of the cell shows an area of transparent hyaloplasm, which looks as clear as water. This anteriorly situated hyaloplasm forms a hyaline crescent and is usually called the hyaline cap. 7. The correct statement for contractile vacuole of Amoeba is : (a) Systole is gradual but diastole is sudden (b) Systole is sudden but diastole is gradual (c) Both systole and diastole are sudden (d) Both systole and diastole are gradual RPSC School Lecturer 2011 Ans. (b) : Contractile vacuoles is a cell organelle, associated with diastole and systole, it act as protective mechanism that prevents cell from absorbing excessive water and possibly rupturing through. The stage in which fluid flows into the contractile vacuole is called diastole and contraction or expulsion of water is called systole. It is found in unicellular organisms like Amoeba and Paramecium.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 8.

Correct for Amoeba is – A - Zootrophic, B - Lentic C - Kingdom D Kingdom Monera (a) A, B, C and D (b) B, C and D (c) A, B, and C (d) A, C, and D RPSC School Lecturer 2011 Ans. (c) : Amoeba is carnivorous, they feed by phagocytosis. The mode of nutrition is zootrophic or holozoic. It is acellulates (not essentially cellulas) animal and it is lentic animal found in still waters such as ponds, ditches, reservoirs, seeps, lakes, and vernal pools. 9. Which of the following diseases is caused by protozoa, bacteria and virus in that sequence? (a) Malaria, mumps and typhus (b) Amoebiasis, polio and tetanus (c) Sleeping sickness, diphtheria and hepatitis B (d) Yellow fever, syphilis and influenza UP PGT 2016 Ans. (c) Sleeping sickness also known as African trypanosomiasis, caused by infection with protozoan parasites belonging to the genus Trypanosoma brucei transmitted to humans by tsetse fly bites. Diphtheria is a serious infection caused by strains of bacteria called Corynebacterium diphtheriae which make toxin, spreads from coughing and sneezing. Hepatitis B is caused by the hepatitis B virus (HBV). It is vaccine preventable liver infection. 10. Protozoa is classified on the basis of : (a) Nutrition (b) Mode of locomotion (c) Nucleus (d) Reproduction LT Biology 2015 Ans. (b) : Protozoa can be divided into four phyla based on their locomotion. (1) Mastigophora (2) Sarcodina (3) Ciliophora (4) Sporozoa. Four groops af protozoans are (1) Amoeboid protozoans – Pseudopodia for locomotion. (2) Flagellated protozoans – Flagella for locomotion. (3) Ciliated protozoans – Cilia for locomotion. (4) Sporozoans – No specific locomotory structure but exhibit gliding movements. 11. The transmission of infection caused by Loa loa is through : (a) Chrysops sp. (b) Anopheles sp. (c) Culex sp. (d) Musca domestica LT Biology 2018 Ans. (a) : Loiasis is a filarial disease caused by Loa-loa. It actually means 'worm-worm', commonly called as 'African eye worm' (conjunctiva of the eye). The main vectors are Chrysops silacea and C.dimidiata. It is passed on to humans through the repeated bites of deerflies (also known as mango flies or mangrove flies) of the genus Chrysops. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

12.

Plasmodium enters the body of human being as : (a) Sporozoite (b) Trophozoite (c) Merozoite (d) Crypto-merozoite UPPCS Pre 2007 Ans. (a) : When the female Anopheles mosquito bites a human, the parasite enters the blood stream in the form of a sporozoite. Plasmodium is a digenetic parasite, meaning it needs two hosts to complete its life cycle. Here the asexual phase takes place in man and the sexual phase take place in mosquito. So, the correct answer is "Sporozoite". 13. Mode of nutrition in Amoeba is : (a) saprozoic (b) holophytic (c) caprozoic (d) holozoic UPPCS Pre 2003 Ans. (d) : The mode of nutrition in Amoeba is holozoic. The Holozoic means animal ingesting both animal and plant. Directly enter the food inside the cell of Amoeba. Nucleus

The mode of nutrition are holophytic in Euglena and saprozoic in Entamoeba histolytica and holozoic in paramecium. 14. Nutrition in Amoeba is : (b) Parasitic (a) Holophytic (c) Holozoic (d) Saprobiotic TGT Biology 2013 Ans. (c) : The mode of nutrition in Amoeba is known as holozoic nutrition. It involves the ingestion, digestion and egestion of food material with the help of pseudopodia. Pseudopodia facilitate movement & help in capturing food. 15. Which of the following organisms is regarded immortal : (a) Paramecium (b) Volvox (c) Tortoise (d) Amoeba Bihar PGT 2019 Ans. (d) : Amoeba is a single celled organism. Single celled organisms are considered biologically immortal because they do not die, whereas green plants and fungi are multicellular organisms and they are mortal. Amoeba is immortal because it does not undergo natural death. There are no remains of parent body cells and they start living as two daughter cells after binary fission. 16. The skeletons of which of the following groups of protozoa forms an important constituent of the sedimentary rocks ? (a) Foraminifera only (b) Heliozoa only (c) Radiolaria only (d) All of the above UPPCS Pre 2008

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (d) : All types of animals of the protozoa 21. Cephalopoda is a class of animals in which the: federation are components of sedimentary rocks. These (a) head is located on the foot animals contribute to the formation of superficial (b) head is fused with the thorax depressions, which is called Ooze. The fossil record in (c) foot is located on the head the form of shells in sedimentary rocks shows that (d) notochord extends up to the head protozoa were present even in the Precambrian era. TGT Biology 2004 17. Monocystis is a parasite of : (a) Pila (b) nereis Ans. (c) : The Cephalopoda is a member of molluscan. They are marine animals and characterised by bilateral (c) Hirudinaria (d) Eutyphoeus UPPCS Pre 1997 body symmetry, a prominent head, and a set of arms of tentacles modified from the primitive molluscan foot. Ans. (d) : Monocystis is an endoparasite of seminal The foot is located on the head, so the correct answer is vesicle of earthworm. option C. (i) Pheretima posthuma  22. Phylum Protozoa is divided into four classes on  North Indian Earthworm the basis of their : (ii) Eutyphoeus  (a) Nuclear structure Both belong to class Oligochaeta, phylum Annelida. (b) Locomotor structure 18. Suctoria is a sub class of the phylum : (c) Mode of reproduction (a) Protozoa (b) Platyhelminthes (d) Mode of nutrition (c) Mollusca (d) Echinodermata TGT Biology 2003, 2005 UPPCS Pre 1997 Ans. (b) : Locomotor structure can be used as the Ans. (a) : Suctoria is class of Protozoa that makeup criterion for classifying Protozoa. Phylum Protozoa is about 7% of all ciliates. Young with cilia, adult with divided into four classes- Rhizopoda, Mastigophora, suctorial tentacles. eg. Ephelota, Acineta, Subphylum Sporozoa and Ciliata. Pseudopodia is the locomotory Ciliophora. organ in Rhizopoda, Flagella is the locomotory organ Suctoria are ciliates that become sessile in their in Mastigophora. No locomotory organ is present in developed stage and then lose their redundant cilia. Sporozoa and cilia is a locomotory organ in Ciliata. They were originally thought to feed by suction, but Hence, option B is the correct answer. they feed by extracellular digestion. 23. The main basis of classification of Protozoa is : 19. Consider the following statements : (a) Size (b) Shape Assertion (A) : Protozoans belong to Protista. (c) Locomotors device (d) Number of nuclei Reason (R) : Protozoans are unicellular. UPPCS Pre 1996 Select the correct answer using the codes given below : Ans. (c) : See the explanation of the above question. Code : 24. Syzygy condition is found in : (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (a) Gregarina (b) Paramecium explanation of A. (c) Cockroach (d) Earthworm (b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct UPPCS Pre 2002 explanation of A. Ans. (a) : Syzygy condition is found in Gregarina and (c) A is true but R is false Monocystis. In this condition each trophozoites (d) A is false but R is true become an oval reproductive body, the gamont or UPPCS Pre 2004 gametocyte. A cell capable of dividing to produce Ans. (b) : Protozoans belong to the protista because gametes. (A cell that divides to form gamete). they are heterotrophic & showed animal like 25. Assertion (A) : Judged from the adult structure behaviours. alone, the members of sub-class Suctoria would Protozoans are unicellular but eukaryotes. Reason is certainly be placed in a separate class of not satisfactory explanation of (A). protozoa. 20. Fission, a method of reproduction, is commonly Reason (R) : It is only in virture of facts of found in : development that they are united in a single (a) protozoans (b) helminths class with Ciliophora. (c) annelids (d) All of the above Code : UP LT 2018 (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct Ans. (a) : Protozoans reproduces asexually by binary explanation of (A). fission and multiple fission. In this mode of (b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the reproduction, the parent cell divides itself into two correct explanation of (A). equal and identical daughter cells. (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false In protists, binary fission is often differentiated into (d) (A) is false, but (R) is true. types, (1) transverse (2) longitudinal, depending on the axis of cell separation. UPPCS Pre 2005 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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YCT

Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (a) : Suctoria is one of subclass of the class Phyllopharyngea and phylum Ciliophora. Suctoria are perhaps most well known as highly unusual members of this classification, they were not considered to be ciliates, because they lack cilia at certain stages of life. Suctoria bears much resemblance to other members of ciliophora. 26. Basal granule differs from the flagellum in having : (a) Nine peripheral triplets and two central fibres (b) Nine peripheral triplets but without central fibres. (c) Nine peripheral doublets and nine central fibres. (d) Only nine peripheral doublets UPPCS Pre 1994 Ans. (b) : A basal body (synonymous with basal granule, kinetosome, and in older cytological literature with blepharoplast) serves as a nucleation site for the growth of the axoneme microtubels is a protein structure contains nine peripheral triplets but without central fibres. 27. Which class of protozoa is totally parasitic : (a) Ciliata (b) Mastigophora (c) Sporozoa (d) Sarcodina UPPCS Pre 1994 Ans. (c) : All sporozoa are parasitic. The Sporozoa are totally endoparasitic protozoans that lack locomotory organs. They have no cilia, no flagella, no pseudopods. They usually pass from host to host by in protective capsules, called spores. 28. Identify the true statement : (a) Protozoans are mainly heterotrophs (b) Water enters through osculum in sponges (c) Cnidoblasts are located at the base of Hydra (d) All are true TGT Biology 2011 Ans. (a) : Protozoa (animal like protists) are known as heterotrophs (using carbon as a source of energy) because they depend on other organisms for their food. All protozoans are eukaryotes and therefore possess a 'true' nucleus. 29. A class of protozoa, that contains only endoparasites : (a) Sarcodina (b) Flagellata (c) Sporozoa (d) None of these TGT Biology 2011 Ans. (c) : Members of the phylum sporozoa are exclusively parasites because some member produce sporelike bodies. Locomotory and food capturing sub-structures are absent due to parasitic life. They are always heterotrophic and saprozoic in nutrition. Sporozoa generally show alternation of generation between asexual and sexual generation. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

30.

Contractile vacuole in protozoans mainly serves for : (a) Digestion (b) Excretion (c) Osmoregulation (d) Water absorption TGT Biology 2010 Ans. (c) : The contractile vacuole complex is an osmoregulatory organelle of free living Amoeba and Protozoa. The contractile vacuole will absorb excess of water in the body then it reaches the surface and ruptures. The mechanism which is assumed to effect water regulation is the contractile vacuole. The vacuole periodically increases in volume (diastole) to get filled with water and contracts (systole) to discharge its water content to the surrounding environment. 31. Which of the following is not a pathogenic flagellate ? (a) Leishmania (b) Giardia (c) Trypanosoma (d) Noctiluca TGT Biology 2009 Ans. (d) : Noctiluca is not a pathogenic flagellate. Protozoans can be classified into four major type. (1) Mastigophora or Flagellate (2) Sarcodina or Rhizopoda (3) Sporozoa (4) Ciliophora Leishmania donovani– Leishmania donovani is a parasite protozoan belonging to the class Mastigophora or Flagellate. It causes the disease Kala-azar or dum dum fever by a sand fly (Phlebotomus). Giardia lamblia-It is a flagellated (8 flagella) protozoan parasite of human intestine, it causes prolonged diarrhea in human called giardiasis. It is a water borne disease occurring throughout the world. The parasite is found in human feces. Trypanosoma gambiense–It is protozoan that causes the disease african sleeping sickness. 32.

Bioluminescence is exhibited by : (a) Ceratium (b) Toxoplasma (c) Paramecium (d) Plasmodium TGT Biology 2005 Ans. (a) : Bioluminescence is the phenomenon of production and emission of light where the chemical energy is converted into light energy. Ceratium contain bioluminescent representative. Most ceratium species also contain chloroplasts. Under adverse conditions, ceratium are able to encyst themselves as a form of protection.

33.

20

Contractile vacuole is present in : (a) Amoeba (b) Euglena (c) Paramecium (d) All of these TGT Biology 1999 YCT

Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (d) : Contractile vacuoles are found in Amoeba, Euglena and Paramecium. This vacuole controls the water balance by osmosis, by continuously pumping out more water that is necessary and prevents the Amoeba from bursting by filling its body with water. At regular intervals, it is bursts outwards and disappears and reappears to become larger. This process is called diastole. The first contractile vacuole is called the organelle used to believe now it is certain that its main function is water balance. So much water has been continuously coming into it form the cytoplasm that is natural for some dissolved excretory substances (mainly ammonia) to be present in this water. 34. The correct statement for contractile vacuole of Amoeba is : (a) Systole is gradual but diastole is sudden (b) Systole is sudden but diastole is gradual (c) Both systole and diastole are sudden (d) Both systole and diastole are gradual Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (b) : The contractile vacuole in amoeba acts like a human kidney. It rapidly compresses itself (systole) to take out the excretory substances, due to which the excretory substances come out and gradually there is a lack (diastole) because it keeps on taking food slowly from water. 35. Polymorphic forms are found during the life cycle of : (a) Entamoeba histolytica(b) Trypanosoma (c) Euglena (d) Balantidium PGT Biology 2013 Ans. (b) : Polymorphic stage is found in Trypanosoma. In its life cycle, two or more stages are seen in two different nutrients. Trypanosoma causes a disease called sleeping sickness, whose carrier is tsetse fly. Kala Azar is caused by a protozoan called Leishmania.

37.

Amoeba limax moves by : (a) Axopodia (b) Filopodia (c) Lobopodia (d) Rhizopodia GIC Biology 14.06.2015 Ans. (c) : Lobopodia is helpful in the propagation of Amoeba limax. It also surround food material and engulf them within a vesicle where they are acted upon by various enzymes. Lobopodia may be flattened or cylindrical (tubular). They are blunt and fingerlike.

38.

Classification of Protozoa is based on : (a) Skeletal (b) Pellicle (c) Contractile vacuole (d) Locomotory organelle UPPCS Pre 2001 Ans. (d) : The classification method is based on their means of locomotory organs. Protozoa are classified by the presence of cilia, flagella and pseudopodia by their non-motility. These are flexible membrane extensions of the cell that vary in length and in structure. The major form of movement exhibited by many protozoans is through swimming (e.g. sperm cells). They propel themselves at great speeds through their environment either to transport food particles, expel particulate matter, or create new developing cell.

39. Locomotory organelles are absent in the class : (a) Sporozoa (b) Ciliata (c) Rhizopoda (d) Flagellate Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2015 Ans. (a) : Protozoan protists are classified into four groups based on the type of locomotion exhibited by its members Mastigophora, Sarcodina, Sporozoan, and ciliates. Sporozoans are non-motile and are devoid of any locomotory organelles. All the sporozoan have been found to be endoparasites i.e. they live in the body of other organisms and obtain their nutrition from them e.g. 36. Which among the following protozoa is not an Plasmodium, Monocystis. So the correct answer "Sporozoan". example of endoparasite ? 40. Hyaline cap of pseudopodium of Amoeba is made (a) Trichomonas tenax up of : (b) Plasmodium vivax (a) Ectoplasm (b) Mesoplasm (c) Leishmania donovani (c) Endoplasm (d) All of the above (d) Hydramoeba hydroxena Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2015 Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2015 RPSC School Lecturer (23/07/2016) Ans. (a) : Amoeba belongs to the class Sarcodina or Ans. (d) : Hydramoeba hydroxena occurs on various Rhizopoda of the phylum Protozoa. Pseudopodium at its species of fresh water hydras. It is not an example of forward end gets its form consistency by hyaline cap endoparasites. It is a monopodial Amoeba, usually 150 to which is made of ectoplasm. Pseudopodia in Amoeba are 250 µm in length with a thin anterior hyaline zone. It is meant for feeding and locomotion'. Pseudopodia are found in Amoeba and leucocyte of higher animals. an ectoparosite on freshwater coelenterates. 41. One reason for putting Protozoa under kingdom It occurs on various species of fresh-water hydras. Animalia is that they are : It is also capable of destroying adult fresh water medusae (a) Motile (b) Sexually reproducing in six days. (c) Mainly heterotrophic (d) Parasitic It is a multicellular & has tissue level of body organization. UPPCS Pre 2001 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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YCT

Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 46.

Morphologically Entamoeba histolytica occurs in how many distinct forms ? (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 TGT (2016) 31/07/2021 42. Sol-gel theory to explain locomotion in Amoeba was propounded by : Ans. (b) : Morphologically Entamoeba histolytica occurs in three distinct forms. Parasite in three stages (a) Dellinger (b) Wainer trophozoite, precyst and cyst. Enatmoeba histolytica (c) Mast and Pantin (d) Sellard causes amoebic dysentery in man and Primates. The UPPCS Pre 1995 trophozoites are 20-30 µm in diameter and contain a vesicular nucleus with a central endosome, peripheral Ans. (c) : Sol-gel theory of Amoeba (supposed to be chromatin and radial achromatic fibrils. (Imparting the best to explain the locomotion) given by Hyman, 'cart-wheel' appearance). supported by Pantin and Mast. Walking movement theory was given by Delinger. Sol-gel theory is based on reversible change of protoplasm from sol to gel state. Ans. (a) : Because of their motile nature and heterotrophic mode of nutrition, Protozoa are placed under kingdom Animalia. It includes all multicellular, eukaryotic, heterotrophic organisms.

43.

Which of the following is a shelled Amoeba ? (a) Arcella (b) Amoeba proteus (c) Chaos carolinense (d) Amoeba limax GIC Biology 14.06.2015 Ans. (a) : Arcella is a testate amoebae. It is a cellular protist which is covered with a simple test (shell). Some other shelled Protozoans are Elphidium, Foraminifera Difflugia.

44.

Rainey's or Miescher's corpuscles are associated with : (a) Haemosporidia (b) Myxosporidia (c) Coccidia (d) Sarcosporidia UPPCS Pre 2002 Ans. (d) : Rainey's or Miescher's corpuscles are associated with Sarcosporidia. It is a crescent shaped spore of a sporozoan of the order sarcosporidia. Spores or bradyzoites found within the elongated cysts of the protozoan sarcocystis occuring in connection with the process of calcification of tissues.

A. 45.

47.

Entamoeba Entamoeba histolytica has : (a) one pseudopodium (b) two pseudopodia (c) many pseudopodia (d) no pseudopodia

UPPCS Pre 2009 Ans. (a) : Entamoeba histolytica is a pathogenic parasite in the human beings and many other Primates. In the most common manifestations of E. histolytica infection are dysentery and liver diseases. It resemble Amoeba in structure but differs in parasitic mode of life. Its body is covered by plasma lemma and cytoplasm is differentiated into ectoplasm and endoplasm. There is a single large, broad, and blunt pseudopodium formed of ectoplasm. Endoplasm contains single spherical nucleus and food vacuoles. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Entamoeba histolytica has : (a) one contractile vacuole (b) two contractile vacuole (c) three contractile vacuole (d) contractile vacuole absent

PGT Biology 2013 Ans. (d) : Parasitic Amoeba - they have three speciesEntamoeba histolytica - Dysentery (in the intestine) Entamoeba gingivalis - Pyorrhea (in the teeth) Entamoeba coli - Intestinal parasite It was first discovered by Friedrich Losch. Entamoeba histolytica causes a disease called dysentery or amoebiasis. It does not need to have a contractile vacuole as it lives in an isotonic environment. 48. Contractile vacuole is lacking in which of the following protozoans ? (a) Entamoeba histolytica (b) Amoeba proteus (c) Euglena viridis (d) Ceratium UPPCS Pre 2008

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (a) : The contractile vacuole is absent in the Entamoeba histolytica because the osmotic concentration of its body remains equal to its surrounding and entry of water through osmosis will not happen. It doesn't need to have a contractile vacuole as it lives in an isotonic environment. 49. Contractile vacuole is absent in : (a) Amoeba proteus (b) Entamoeba histolytica (c) Paramecium caudatum (d) Arcella discoides UPPCS Pre 1997 Ans. (b) : Contractile vacuole is absent in Entamoeba histolytica but food vacuole is present. The function of Contractile vacuole is osmoregulation. 50. Infective stage of Entamoeba histolytica is : (a) Precystic stage (b) Cystic stage (c) Tetranucleate cysts (d) Trophozoite stage PGT Biology 2004 Ans. (c) : The life cycle of the Amoeba consists of three stages. These are, trophozoite, pre-cystic and the cystic stage. The cysts are eliminated in the faeces of the infected person are known as tetranucleate. Tetranucleate cyst of Entamoeba and Giardia are the diagnostic and infectious stage of each parasite. The cyst wall, that is hard and impermeable to the small molecules, protects the Entamoeba and Giardia from the lysis by environmental insults such as stomach acid and duodenal proteases. 51. The infective stage of Entamoeba histolytica is : (a) Sporozoite stage (b) Minuta form (c) Binucleate form (d) Tetranucleate form UPPCS Pre 1996 Ans. (d) : Infective stage of Entamoeba histolytica is the tetranucleate form. Infection depends upon intake of food or water contaminated with faecal matter containing cyst of E. histolytica. 52. How many nuclei are found in the mature cyst of Entamoeba coli : (a) Four (b) Eight (c) Two (d) None of the above UPPCS Pre 2001 Ans. (b) : In Entamoeba coli, the most distinguishing feature is the eight-core nuclei, which develops as the cyst begins to mature, While an immature cyst may contain only 1 to 3 nuclei. Entamoeba coli is the only Entamoeba species found in humans that has more than four nuclei in the cyst stage. 53. The excretion in Entamoeba histolytica takes place by : (a) Contractile vacuoles (b) General body surface (c) Food vacuoles (d) Endosomes UPPCS Pre 1996 Ans. (b) : Excretion in Entamoeba histolytica takes place through the general body surface because in unicellular animals there is no specific organ for specific function. Contractile vacuole is absent but food vacuole is present. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

54.

In humans Entamoeba gingivalis lives in the : (a) intestine (b) colon (c) pus pockets of pyorrhoea (d) intestine and colon GIC Biology 14.06.2015 Ans. (c) : Entamoeba gingivalis is a protozoan endoparasite, residing in the tartar and pus pockets of teeth of pyorrhoea of infected human beings. It is the first parasitic Amoeba known to human beings.

B.

Euglena

The chloroplast of Euglena is composed of : (a) Chlorophyll 'a' (b) Chlorophyll 'b' (c) Chlorophyll 'a' and 'b' (d) Chlorophyll a, b and β-carotene TGT (2016) 31/07/2021 Ans. (d) : The chloroplast of Euglena is composed of Chlorophyll a, b and β- carotene. Euglena is a genus of single cell flagellate eukaryotes. When there is enough sunlight, Euglena utilizes chlorophyll a and b and β carotene, produces sugar by photosynthesis. Euglena is believed to be surrounded by a protoplasmic capsule.

55.

56.

Euglena contains Chlorophyll types : (a) b and a (b) a and c (c) b and c (d) a, b and c UPPCS Pre 2010 Ans. (a) : Euglena is classified in the kingdom Protista and phylum Euglenophyta, in which the photosynthesis pigments ch-a, ch-b, carotene are found.

57.

23

Of the following Euglena belongs to which class? (a) Phytomastigophora (b) Zoomastigophora (c) Rhizopoda (d) Actinopoda TGT 07/08/2021 Ans. (a) : In class, Mastigophora flagella are found as locomotive organs, that's why these are also called flagellate. These show both heterotrophic and autotrophic types of nutrition. Therefore it is said that in this class, nutrition is most varied. Class Mastigophora is classified as Phytomastigophora and Zoomastigophora. In organisms of Phytomastigophora pigments are found. These are aquatic and covered by an exoskeleton of calcium. Organisms like Euglena, Chlamydomonas, Noctiluca, and Volvox are included. These are autotrophic and do photosynthesis. Organisms of Zoomastigophora are found as parasites or symbionts, some organisms are marine. Examples are Leishmania, Trypanosoma, and Giardia. YCT

Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 58.

The two-word definition "Unicellular animals" for Protozoa is found rather unsatisfactory due to one of the following examples, stated to be one of the following exceptions to this definition : (a) Euglena (b) Sponge (c) Chilomonas (d) Fungi UPPCS Pre 2003 Ans. (a) : The Protozoa are unicellular organism but body of Euglena is enveloped by organised structure of the cell surface called pellicle, therefore euglena is exception. Euglena in example of Protozoa is found in rather unsatisfactory. They possess the characteristic features of plants and animals. 59. Paramylum bodies are : (a) Reserve food of Euglena (b) Basal granules of flagella (c) Excretory substances of Plasmodium (d) Micronuclei in conjugated Paramecium UPPCS Pre 2004 Ans. (a) : Paramylum are the reserve food of Euglena. It is a poly-saccharide similar to starch. Euglena is connnecting link between plant and animal. The chloroplasts found in Euglena contains chlorophyll which aids in the synthesis of carbohydrates to be stored as starch granules and paramylon. 60. Reserve food in Euglena viridis is mainly : (a) Starch (b) Paramylum (c) Fats (d) Both (a) and (b) UPPCS Pre 2001 Ans. (b) : Reserve food in Euglena is a paramylum. The chloroplasts in Euglena contain pyrenoids which are used to synthesize Paramylum, it is conversion product of starch. 61. Paramylum is a : (a) Protein (b) Carbohydrate (c) Fat (d) Nucleoprotein UPPCS Pre 2009 Ans. (b) : Paramylon (Paramylum) is a carbohydrate similar to starch. The chloroplasts found in Euglena contain chlorophyll which aids in the synthesis of carbohydrates to be stored as starch granules and paramylon. 62. The proof of sexual reproduction is not found in: (a) Paramecium caudatum (b) Euglena viridis (c) Monocystis agilis (d) None of these PGT Biology 2009 Ans. (b) : There is no evidence of sexual reproduction in Euglena viridis, because in this asexual reproduction takes place through longitudinal binary fission and sexual reproduction is absent. Reproduction begins with the mitosis of the cell nucleus, followed by the divison of the cell itself. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

63.

In Euglena, food is stored in the form : (a) Paramylon granules (b) Protein (c) Fat (d) Sucrose Delhi SSB PGT Biology 2015 Ans. (a) : Paramylon is conversion product of starch, where in successive glucose residues are joined by beta 1, 3 linkage and branches points have beta 1, 6 linkages. The chloroplasts found in Euglena contain chlorophyll which aids in the synthesis of carbohydrates to be stored or starch granules and paramylon. Paramylon is made in the pyrenoids of Euglena.

C.

Plasmodium

64.

The trophozoite of plasmodium lives in (a) Erythrocytes of man (b) Liver cells (c) Stomach of mosquito (d) Blood plasma GIC 19/09/2021 Ans. (a) : The trophozoite of Plasmodium lives in erythrocytes of man-Plasmodium is the causative agent of malaria, and trophozoites are thick walled cysts formed by plasmodium. It is the activated, feeding stage of Plasmodium found in the surface of erythrocytes when the infected mosquito bites a healthy person, the sporozoites are passed on to the person. These sporozoites enter the circulation and reach the liver. The infected liver cell known as shizont bursts and releases the merozoite, that develop into trophozoites.

65.

The infective stage of malarial parasite is : (a) trophozoite (b) merozoite (c) sporozoite (d) cyst UPPCS Pre 1997 Ans. (c) : The sporozoite represent the infective form of malarial parasite. Each sporozoite has tapering end containing a single nucleus. When the female Anopheles mosquito bites a healthy person, the sporozoites are injected in his/her blood along with saliva. The sporozoites go to the human liver for multiplication which turns into merozoites and attacks human RBC. 66. The infective stage of Plasmodium vivax is known as : (a) merozoite (b) schizont (c) sporozoite (d) oocyst TGT Biology 2004 Ans. (c) : See the explanation of the above question.

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YCT

Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 67.

In the life cycle of Plasmodium, haemozoin is 70. In Plasmodium falciparum infection the minute found in : granulesin the corpuscular cytoplasm of parasitized erythrocytes are known as : (a) trophozoite stage (b) schizont stage (a) Schuffner's dots (b) Maurer's dots (c) merozoite stage (d) cryptozoite stage (c) Wright's dots (d) Haematin dots UPPCS Pre 2003 UPPCS Pre 1994 Ans. (c) : Haemozoin is found in merozoite stage. Each cytoplasmic mass with one nucleus becomes an Ans. (b) : Haemoglobin affect the motion of Maurer's oval shaped merozoites. The haemozoin granules are cleft in Plasmodium falciparum-infected erythrocytes gathered at the centre. Schizont stage found in liver in parasitized erythrocytes and the generation of an cell and R.B.C. Trophozoite stage found in R.B.C. actin network that seems to be required for vesicular merozoites stage found in R.B.C. protein trafficking from the Maurer's dots. 71. Mature gametocytes of Plasmodium are found in : (a) Blood of man (b) Liver of man (c) Stomach of female mosquito (d) RBC of man UPPCS Pre 1996 Ans. (c) : Mature gametocytes of Plasmodium occur in the stomach of female mosquito. Where as gametocyte formed in the RBC of man but not mature in RBC. Schizont stage found in liver cell of man. 72.

Which one of the following has vermiform motile zygote in its life cycle : (a) Plasmodium (b) Nereis (c) Taenia (d) Balanoglossus UPPCS Pre 1996, 1995 Ans. (a) : Plasmodium has vermiform motile zygote called ookinetes. For some time zygote remain rounded and motionless but soon it become elongated vermiform and motile. It performs wriggling or gliding movement known as vermicule or ookinetes. Tail present in the zygote of Plasmodium.

68.

The infective stage of Plasmodium vivax for female Anopheles is : (a) Sporozoite (b) Merozoite (c) Trophozoite (d) Gametocyte UPPCS Pre 2001 Ans. (d) : When the female Anopheles sucks blood malaria individual, the gametocytes of the parasite find their way into the gut of the mosquito. So this is the infected stage of the Plasmodium vivax in female Anopheles mosquitoes. 69. 'Maurer's dots' are found in the erythrocytes of man infected with : (a) Plasmodium vivax (b) Plasmodium falciparum (c) Plasmodium ovale (d) Plasmodium malariae UPPCS Pre 2001 Ans. (b) : Malaria is caused by the protozoan parasite Plasmodium. Four species of Plasmodium are known to cause different types of malaria in humans. They are Plasmodium falciparum, Plasmodium ovale, Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium malariae. The life cycle of Plasmodium is characterized by an exogenous sexual phase (Sporogony), in which multiplication occurs in female Anopheles mosquitoes and an endogenous asexual phase (schizogony) which take place in the RBCs of the infected host. Different dots showed by different Plasmodium species are : 73. Plasomdium falciparum – Maurer's dots P. ovale and Plasmodium vivax – Schuffner's dots Plasmodium malariae – Ziemann's dots TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Motile zygote is found in the life history of : (a) Taenia (b) Plasmodium (c) Ascaris (d) Hirudinea UPPCS Pre 2005 YCT

Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (b) : Malaria is a mosquito-borne infectious disease affecting humans and other animals caused by Plasmodium species. In the female Anopheles mosquito gametocytes are taken up with the blood and mature in the mosquito gut. The male and female gametocytes form an ookinetes – fertilized, motile zygote. Ookinete develop into new sporozoites that migrate to the insects salivary glands, ready to infect a new vertebrate host. 74.

Plasmodium is : (a) digenetic (c) ectoparasitic

(b) monogenetic (d) polygenetic UPPCS Pre 1999, 1998

Ans. (a) : The parasites which completed their life cycle on two host called digenetic. Mosquito is primary host and man is intermediate host. Plasmodium causes malaria in human. In female Anopheles mosquito sexual reproduction occurs and in human asexual reproduction occurs. 75.

Cryptozoite is stage in the life cycle of Plasmodium vivax that is found in : (a) Liver of man (b) Blood of man (c) salivary gland of mosquito (d) intestine of mosquito UPPCS Pre 1999

Ans. (a) : Cryptozoite is stage in the life cycle of Plasmodium vivax that is found in the liver of man. Sporozoites found in the salivary gland of mosquito. The stage of Plasmodium injected by mosquito into human blood is sporozoites. 76.

The schizont stage of Plasmodium is found in : (a) spleen and red cells of man (b) spleen and liver of man (c) stomach of female Anopheles (d) liver and red cells of man UPPCS Pre 2010

Ans. (d) : The sporozoites are carried by the blood to the liver, where they mature into forms, known as schizonts. After entering the blood stream the parasite involves erythrocytes or RBCs and start erythrocytic schizogony. Plasmodium parasites are carried by infected mosquitoes. The parasite is released into your blood stream when this mosquito bites you, while within the body, the parasites migrate to the liver, where they grow. The mature parasites invade the blood stream and begin to infect red blood cell after a few days. 77.

Schuffner's dots observed in erythrocytes are due to (a) Filaria (b) Malaria (c) Kala-azar (d) Giardiasis TGT Biology 2013

TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (b) : Malaria is caused due to Protozoa Plasmodium vivax. Schuffner's dots also known as Schuffner's granules. During malaria, RBCs of man gets some what enlarged and irregular in shape, punctate granulations found in RBCs invaded by the tertian malaria parasite are known as schuffner's dots. 78. Which stage of Plasmodium life cycle is infective to man ? (a) Merozoite (b) Schizont (c) Sporozoite (d) None of these TGT Biology 2011, 2009, 2002 Ans. (c) : The life cycle of Plasmodium that infect humans follows three stage (i) infection of the human with sporozoites (ii) asexual reproduction (iii) sexual reproduction. The two first stage take place exclusively into the mosquito organism. The human infection begins when an infected female Anopheles mosquito bites a person and infected with sporozoites saliva into the blood circulation. That is, the first life stage of Plasmodium (stage of infection). The next stage in malaria life cycle is the one of asexual reproduction that is divided into different phases - the Preerythrocytic and the erythrocytic phase. Within only 30-36 minutes after the parasites inocluation, sporozoites enter through blood circulation to their first target, the liver. The sporozoites enter the liver cell and start dividing leading to schizonts creation in 6-7 days. Each schizont given birth to thousands of merozoites (exoerythrocytic schizogony) that are released into the blood stream marking the end of the exoerythrocytic phase of the asexual reproductive stage. 79. Microgametes and megagametes in Plasmodium form : (a) oocysts (b) heterocysts (c) sporozoites (d) zygotes TGT Biology 2004 Ans. (d) : Microgametes in Plasmodium and megagametes combine with each other to form a zygote. This process is called fertilization. The male gamete is the microgamete and the female gamete is the macrogamete. The zygote formed is soon get transformed into the motile ookinetes. 80. Gametocytes of Malaria Parasites (Plasmodium) are formed in : (a) Stomach of Male Anopheles (b) Blood of man (c) Stomach of Female Anopheles (d) Salivary glands of Anopheles TGT Biology 1999 Ans. (b) : Gametocytes of malaria parasites (Plasmodium) are formed in blood of man. Once there cells have gained maturity, they are picked up by an Anopheles mosquito during a blood meal. In the midgut of the mosquito they become activated and differentiate into male and female gametes. The male gamete then fertilizes the female gamete resulting in the formation of a zygote.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 81.

Schizont stage in the life cycle of malarial Ans. (b) : While female Anopheles suck the infected parasite occurs in : blood then various phases of malaria parasite reach in (a) Stomach of Anopheles the stomach, where digestive enzymes digest all (b) Blood of man phases besides gametocyte. Gametocytes are formed (c) Erythrocytes of man in the RBCs of man from merozoites which do not (d) Salivary glands of Anopheles enter schizogony but instead enter into RBCs. PGT Biology 2010 86. Anisogamy : Ans. (c) : The sporozoites are carried by the blood to (a) is the union of similar gametes, as seen in the liver, where they mature into forms, known as Monocystis schizonts. After entering the bloodstream the parasite (b) is the union of dissimilar gametes, as seen in invades erythrocytes or RBCs and start erythrocytic schizogony. The correct answer is Erythrocytes of man. Plasmodium 82. In which of the following places is the ookinete (c) in the union of two conjugants as seen in stage of Malarial parasites found : Paramecium (a) Liver of Man (d) Occurs in the life cycle of Euglena (b) Erythrocytes of Man UPPCS Pre 1994 (c) Salivary glands of mosquito Ans. (b) : Anisogamy is sexual reproduction by the (d) Stomach of Mosquito PGT Biology 2003 fusion of dissimilar gametes. Anisogamy is a mode of sexual reproduction in which fusing gametes, formed Ans. (d) : Malaria is caused by a Protozoan called by participating parents, are dissimilar in size. It is a Plasmodium. The female Anopheles mosquito is form of sexual reproduction which involves the union responsible for spreading. The ookinete stage of the as fusion of two gametes which differ in form. malaria parasite is found in the stomach of the mosquito. Microgametes and megagametes are found in the stomach of the mosquito, in which fertilization forms the zygote, and then the ookinete. 83. Which species of Plasmodium causes cerebral malaria : (a) P. vivax (b) P. ovale (c) P. falciparum (d) P. malariae UPPCS Pre 1994 Ans. (c) : * Plasmodium falciparum – cerebral malaria or (Malignant Malaria, Aestivo autumnal, Pernicious, Tropical, Blackwater fever). * Plasmodium vivax– vivax malaria * Plasmodium ovale – mild tertian malaria. * Plasmodium malariae – quartan malaria. 84. Malignant tertian malaria is caused by which of the following ? (a) P. vivax (b) P. ovale (c) P. falciparum (d) P. malariae UPPCS Pre 2007 87. Plasmodium berghei is the parasite of : (a) Man (b) Monkey Ans. (c) : Malaria caused by Plasmodium falciparum and characterised by severe malarial peroxysome that (c) Rat (d) Bird recur about every 48 hours and often by acute UPPCS Pre 2000 cerebral, renal, or gastrointestinal manifestation. Also called malignant tertian malaria. The infected RBC Ans. (c) : Plasmodium berghei is the parasite of Rat. becomes sticky and clogs together to block the It is a protozoan that causes malaria in certain rodents. capillaries. The correct answer is P.falciparum. Plasmodium berghei is a species in the genus 85. All stages of Plasmodium get digested in the Plasmodium, subgenus Vinckeia. It was originally stomach of Anopheles except. isolated from thicket rats in Central Africa. Due to its (a) sporozoite (b) gametocyte ability to infect rodents and relative case of genetic (c) erythrocyte (d) none of the above engineering, P. berghei is a popular model organism UPPCS Pre 2007 for the study of human malaria. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf D. 88.

Ans. (d) : Symbiosis is a relation between two organisms where both the partner are benefitted by the relationship. Paramecium bursaria is a species of ciliate protozoan that has a mutualistic symbiotic relationship with green algae called as Zoochlorella. The algae live inside the Paramecium which provides movement, protection and in turn algae provide it food.

Paramecium

The micronucleus of Paramecium is : (a) diploid (b) polyploid (c) non-reproductive 91. (d) the main source of RNA UP PGT 2016 UP PGT 17/08/2021

The macronucleus of Paramecium is : (a) Polyploid and controls metabolism (b) Haploid and controls reproduction (c) Diploid and controls metabolism (d) Haploid and controls metabolism UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (a) : Paramecium is a genus of Eukaryotic, unicellular ciliates, wide spread in freshwater brackish and marine environments. Paramecium contains two nuclei. The larger bean-shaped macronucleus is polyploid and controls metabolic activities while micronucleus is diploid and controls reproduction. Both types of nuclei contain the full complement of genes that bear the hereditary information of the organism.

Ans. (a) : The micronucleus of Paramecium is diploid. Paramecium is a unicellular organism, and it ranges from 50 to 300 µm in size which varies from species to species. It is mostly found in a freshwater environment. Paramecium has two kinds of nuclei, a large macronucleus and small micronucleus. The micronucleus is diploid whereas the macronucleus is polyploid. Micronucleus is a storage site for the germline genetic material of the organism.

92.

Endomixis of Paramecium is a phenomenon related to : (a) nutrition (b) reproduction (c) osmoregulation (d) unfavourable environmental conditions UPPCS Pre 2008 Ans. (b) : In Paramecium, conjugation is a form of sexual reproduction by binary fission. Endomixis is an interesting phenomenon involving a total internal nuclear reorganization, without amphimixis, within a single individual in a culture of a pedigreed race of Paramecium taking place in the absence of conjugation.

93.

89.

The micronucleus of Paramecium is : (a) diploid (b) polyploid (c) non–reproductive (d) the main source of RNA UP LT 2018

Endomixis is a mode of reproduction found in : (a) Vorticella (b) Paramecium (c) Opalina (d) Euglena UPPCS Pre 1995 Ans. (b) : Periodic division and reorganization of the nucleus in certain ciliated Protozoa. Endomixis is mode of reproduction found in Paramecium was discovered by L. Woodruff Erdmann. It is one of the methods of nuclear organization. There is no meiosis and no nuclear fusion in this process. It is an interesting phenomenon occurring periodically in which a new macronuclear apparatus is produced without synkaryon formation.

Ans. (a) : They have two types of nuclei which differ in their shape, their content, and function. Two types of nuclei are the micronucleus and macronucleus. The micronucleus is diploid, it contains two copies of each 94. Paramecium chromosome. 90.

Which species of Paramecium has symbiotic algae Zoochlorella ? (a) Caudatum (b) Aurelia (c) Multimicronucleatum(d) Bursaria TGT (2016) 31/07/2021

TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Paramecin is produced by which particle of Paramecium ? (a) Kappa (b) Pi (c) Mu (d) Lambda TGT 07/08/2021 YCT

Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (a) : Paramecin is produced by Kappa particles of 98. Paramecium. Kappa particles were discovered by Sonneborn as cytoplasmic particles in Paramecium. They are symbiotic, gram-negative bacteria. The bacteria or particles when released into the surroundings, Kills other sensitive strains of Paramecium. The strains carrying kappa particles are called killer strains.

95.

Some individuals of Paramecium have special granules called Kappa particles in their cytoplasm, which produce a toxin known as : (a) Haemicin (b) Kappacin (c) Paramecin (d) Sansiticin UPPCS Pre 2002 UPPCS Pre 2004

Ans. (c) : Kappa particles is self replicating DNA containing cytoplasmic body. These are associated with the production of a toxic substance called paramecin. 96.

The posterior contractile vacuole of Paramecium pulsates : (a) slower than the anterior vacuole (b) at the same rate as the anterior vacuole (c) faster than the anterior vacuole (d) only when the anterior vacuole stops pulsating UP LT 2018

Ans. (c) : The posterior contractile vacuole of Paramecium pumps excess water out of the organism. The two contractile vacuoles pulsate regularly but at different rates. The posterior vacuole pulsates faster than the anterior region of the body and gets more water. 97.

Which of the following is not a flagellate protozoan ? (a) Paramecium (b) Euglena (c) Trypanosoma (d) Leishmania Bihar PGT 2019

Ans. (a) : Paramecium is such a Protozoa in which cilia are found and flagella is absent, while flagella is found in Euglena, Trypanosoma, Leishmania etc. Cilia are able to move in a coordinated way to propel a Paramecium forward. Most protists move with the help of flagella, cilia or pseudopods. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

The posterior contractile vacuole of Paramecium pulsates : (a) slower than the anterior vacuole (b) at the same rate as the anterior vacuole (c) faster than the anterior vacuole (d) only when the anterior vacuole stops pulsating UP P CS 2 0 0 4 Ans. (c) : In Paramecium there are two contractile vacuoles, one at each end of the body close to the dorsal surface. They open to outside on dorsal surface by a short discharge canal. The wall of contractile vacuole and radiating canals may have a system of fibrils. Contractile vacuoles maintain water balance of the body. It pumps excess water out of the organism. The two contractile vacuoles pulsate regularly but at different rates. The posterior vacuole pulsate faster than the anterior because due to the presence of cytopharynx posterior region of the body gets more water. 99. The function of contractile vacuole is : (a) Osmoregulation (b) Excretion (c) Digestion (d) Circulation UPPCS Pre 2002 Ans. (a) : The function of contractile vacuole is osmoregulation. The posterior contractile vacuole is faster than anterior in pulsating. 100. Between the two contractile vacuoles of Paramecium : (a) the anterior one pulsates faster than the posterior one. (b) both the anterior and the posterior ones pulsate at the same rate (c) the posterior one pulsates faster than the anterior one (d) None of the two pulsate at all UPPCS Pre 1998 Ans. (c) : See the explanation of the above question. 101. Cytopyge is an aperture on the body of Paramecium which is used for : (a) Feeding (b) Locomotion (c) Egestion of undigested food (d) Respiration UPPCS Pre 2002 Ans. (c) : The cytopyge or cytoproct is called cell anus. Cytopyge is an aperture on the body of Paramecium which is used for egestion of undigested food. It is a fixed point for waste discharge in the body of a protozoan, especially a ciliate. It is the only region of pellicle that is not covered by ridges and cilia. 102. Paramecium belongs to the order : (a) Ciliophora (b) Ciliata (c) Hymenostomatida (d) Holotricha UPPCS Pre 2001

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (c) : Paramecium can be classified into the following Phylum and sub-Phylum based on their certain characteristics. Phylum – Protozoa Sub-Phylum – Ciliophora Class – Oligohymenophorea (ciliates) Order-Hymenostomatida Genus – Paramecium Species – Caudatum Family – Parameciidae Paramecium or Paramoecium is a genus of unicellular ciliated Protozoa. They are characterised by the presence of thousands of cilia covering their body. They are found in freshwater, marine and brackish water. They are also found attached to the surface. Reproduction is primarily through asexual means (binary fission). They are slipper shaped and also exhibit conjugation. They are easy to cultivate and widely used to study biological processes. 103. Cytopyge is found in : (a) Paramecium (b) Entamoeba (c) Amoeba (d) Trypanosoma UPPCS Pre 1997 Ans. (a) : Cytopyge is found in Paramecium of class Ciliata. The undigested residual matter is eliminated from the body through anal pore or cytopyge, posterior to cytostome. It is also known as cytoproct. 104. Regarding the conjugation in Paramecium, which of the following statements is true ? (a) Zygote nucleus undergoes 8 successive division in each conjugant. (b) Out of the 12 macronuclei formed 3 degenerate (c) Out of the 4 micronuclei formed 3 degenerate (d) Out of the 16 nuclei formed from zygote, 12 become macronuclei and 4 become micronuclei. UPPCS Pre 2005 Ans. (c) : True statement about Paramecium conjugation - During conjugation, four micronuclei are formed out of which three are degenerated. The diploid micronucleus of each conjugant divides by meiosis. 105. Assertion (A) : In Paramecium posterior contractile vacuole pulsates faster than the anterior one. Reason (R) : Large amount of water is being delivered into anterior region by cytopharynx. Select the correct answer using code given below : Codes: (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (d) (A) is false, but (R) is true. UPPCS Pre 2009 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (c) : The correct answer using code (A) is true but (R) is false. In Paramecium, posterior contractile vacuole pulsates faster than the anterior one because the posterior contractile vacuole is close to cytopharynx and hence contract more quickly because of more water passing through. 106. Kappa particles of Paramecium are not examples of : (a) Cytoplasmic inheritance (b) Mendelian inheritance (c) Maternal inheritance (d) Non-chromosomal inheritance UPPCS Pre 2009 Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (d) : Kappa particles were discovered by Sonneborn. He reported that a gram-negative symbiotic bacterium called Kappa particle was found in the cytoplasm of certain strains of the Protozoan named Paramecium aurelia. Kappa particles contain DNA and protein and are about 2 µ × in diameter. The species which has Kappa particle is known as a killer. NonChromosomal inheritance are not example of Kappa particles of Paramecium. 107. Paramecium is : (a) ammonotelic (b) ureotelic (c) uricotelic (d) None of the above UPPCS Pre 2009 Ans. (a) : Ammonotelic animals - animals which excrete ammonia are called ammonotelic animals. examples - Protozoans (Amoeba, Paramecium) annelids etc. Uricotelic animals – animals which excrete uric acid are called uricotelic animals, examples – Birds, insects, land reptiles etc. 108. Conjugation in paramecium involves exchange of : (a) Micronuclei (b) Meganuclei (c) Both of these (d) None of these TGT Biology 2010 Ans. (a) : The conjugation in Paramecium involves exchange of micronuclei, the micronucleus is the centre of all metabolic activities of the organism. The micronucleus is a storage site for the germline genetic material of the organism. It gives rise to the macronucleus and is responsible for the genetic reorganization that occurs during conjugation (Cross fertilization). 109. In Paramecium the phenomenon of cyclosis is associated with : (a) excretion (b) locomotion (c) digestion (d) reproduction TGT Biology 2004 Ans. (c) : Cyclosis is the movement in the fluid in the cytoplasm where the proteins and nutrient in the cytoplasm get digested. Cyclosis is also known as cytoplasmic streaming and it is assoicated with digestion in Paramecium. It is a phenomenon in which the protoplasm remains in a constant state of circular motion.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 110. Function of Trichocysts : (a) offence and defence (b) helps in reproduction (c) to attain resting condition (d) all the above PGT Biology 2013 Ans. (a) : After a series of experiments, it was concluded that the function of trichocyst in Paramecium is mainly of offensive and defensive nature. The trichocysts defend Paramecium against D. Margaritifer. Thus, trichocysts in Paramecium serve as defensive organelles against several predators. 111. ‘Silverline’ system is associated with : (a) Plasmodium (b) Entamoeba (c) Paramecium (d) Sycon PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (c) : ‘Silverline’ system act as neuromotor is associated with Paramecium. It is series of superficial lines in many protozoans that stain intensely with silver impregnation techniques and are variously regarded as supporting or coordinating organelles or as pellicular striations and sculpturings. 112. Regarding the conjugation in Paramecium, which of the following statements is true ? (a) Zygote nucleus undergoes 8 successive divisions in each conjugant (b) Out of the 12 macronuclei formed, 3 degenerate (c) Out of the 4 micronuclei formed, 3 degenerate (d) Out of the 16 nuclei formed from zygote, 12 become macronuclei and 4 become micronuclei PGT Biology 2009 Ans. (c) : The true statements of the conjugation in Paramecium, during conjugation four micronuclei are formed out of which 3 degenerate. In each conjugation the zygote nucleus undergoes three-point division and soon 8 nuclei are formed, of which 4 larger structures are called micronuclei and the other 4 are called micronuclei. Three micro-nuclei are destroyed.

113. Mode of food intake in Paramecium is : (a) Holozoic (b) Holophytic (c) Saprozoic (d) Antozoic PGT Biology 2005 Ans. (a) : The mode of nutrition in Paramecium is holozoic which is a category of the heterotrophic mode of nutrition. It mostly engulfs other microorganisms from its surrounding environment. Paramecium belongs to the phylum Protozoa of the kingdom Protista. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

114. Amphimixis in paramecium involves : (a) Fusion of two daughter meganuclei of same individual. (b) Fusion of two daughter micronuclei of same individual. (c) Fusion of male pronucleus with male pronucleus of different individuals. (d) Fusion of male pronucleus with female pronucleus of different individuals. UPPCS Pre 2006 Ans. (d) : Amphimixis in Paramecium involves fusion of male pronucleus with female pronucleus of different individual. Male and female pronuclei of two different species are capable for Amphimixis. Only mega nuclei, micronuclei and male pronuclei of different species are not capable for Amphimixis. 115. Heteromorphic nuclei occur in : (a) Muscle cells (b) Human germ cells (c) Neurons (d) Cilliated protozoans PGT Biology 2002 Ans. (d) : Paramecium is a group of Protozoa, or single - celled organisms. Paramecium move with cillia, so they are called ciliates. The ciliates can also be distinguished from other Protozoans in having two different types of nuclei. 116. Which of the following helps in anchorage and defence of Paramecium ? (a) Nematocyst (b) Trichocyst (c) Statocyst (d) Spirocyst UPPCS Pre 2007 Ans. (b) : Trichocyst is a structure in the cortex of certain ciliates flagellate protozoans which contains a cavity and long thin thread like structure that can be ejected in response to certain stimuli. One of the most important functions of trichocysts is to defend and attack the enemy. 117. In Paramecium : (a) both contractile vacuoles work at same rate (b) anterior works faster then posterior (c) posterior works faster then anterior (d) not definite UPPCS Pre 2001 Ans. (c) : The posterior contractile vacuole works faster than anterior vacuole because of intake of large amount of water into the posterior region by the cytopharynx. The contractile vacuole maintain an optimum concentration of water in the body cytoplasm by disposing of the excess. 118. Conjugation helps in Paramecium in : (a) rejuvenation (b) hereditary variation (c) nuclear reorganization (d) all of the above PGT Biology 2004

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (d) : A single Paramecium has three nuclei. A large macronucleus is essential for its survival, while one or two smaller micronuclei are necessary for sexual reproduction. Reproduction is usually asexual by binary fission and can occurs several times a day.

E.

Protozoa and their Diseases

119. Trypanosoma is polymorphic. Which of its following stages lacks a flagellum ? (a) Leptomonad (b) Crithidial (c) Trypanosome (d) Leishmanial UP PGT 17/08/2021 Ans. (d) : Trypanosoma is polymorphic and its leishmanial stage lacks a flagellum. Trypanosoma has three morphological forms : the trypomastigote, the epimastigote, and the amastigote. The trypomastigote is the infective flagellated form. Epimastigote is an extracellular and non-infective form. Amastigote multiply intracellularly until the host cell is overwhelmed, at which point they transform into bloodstream trypomastigote.

Ans. (b) : Viviparous endoparasite of man is Wuchereria. It is a filarial nematode that is the major cause of lymphatic filariasis. Wuchereria requires two hosts for completion of its life cycle. Man is the definitive host and the intermediate host is the female mosquito of the genus Culex. They live in the lymphatic system and female gives birth to the larvae, called as microfilariae. The microfilariae is a miniature adult and retains the egg membrane as a sheath, and is often considered an advanced embryo. 122. The cause of cerebral malaria is : (a) Plasmodium vivax (b) Plasmodium falciparum (c) Plasmodium malariae (d) Plasmodium ovale TGT (2016) 31/07/2021 Ans. (b) : The cause of cerebral malaria is Plasmodium falciparum. Surviving patients have an increased risk of neurological and cognitive deficits behavioral, difficulties and epilepsy making cerebral malaria a leading cause of childhood neurodisability in the region. The parasite is transmitted through the bite of a female Anopheles mosquito and causes the diseases most dangerous form, falciparum malaria.

123. Which of the following diseases cannot be prevented by vaccination? (a) Polio (b) Diphtheria (c) Pneumonia (d) Amoebiasis RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) Ans. (d) : Amoebiasis cannot be prevented by vaccination. It is an infection of the intestines caused by the parasite Entamoeba histolytica. Mild symptoms include cramping and diarrhoea. Bloody stools, fever, and liver abscess may occur in severe cases. No amoebiasis vaccine has been approved for human clinical trials. ⇒ Vaccines are available for Polio, Diphtheria, and 120. The relationship between mosquito and Pneumonia. 124. Haemozoin, a toxin, is released in the blood malaria was discovered by : after rupture of RBCs in which of the (a) Ronald Ross (b) Pasteur following? (c) William Harvey (d) Needham (a) Typhoid (b) Malaria TGT 07/08/2021 (c) Filariasis (d) Small Pox Ans. (a) : Ronald Ross had mosquito suck blood from RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) malaria infected people and in 1897 he found the malaria parasite at a certain stage of life in the stomach Ans. (b) : Haemozoin, a toxin, is released in the blood of a certain species of mosquito. Sir Ronald Ross was a after rupture of RBCs in malaria. It is a deadly British medical doctor who received the Nobel Prize for infectious disease caused by the intraerythrocytic Physiology or Medicine in 1902 for his work on the protozoan parasite Plasmodium. The four species of Plasmodium known to affect humans, all produce transmission of malaria. hemozoin during the heme detoxification process. It is a 121. Which of the following endoparasite of man is biocrystal synthesized by Plasmodium to avoid the viviparous ? toxicity of free heme derived from the digestion of (a) Ascaris (b) Wuchereria hemoglobin during invasion of the RBCs. This (c) Taenia (d) Dracunculus haemozoin is responsible for the chills and high fever GIC 19/09/2021 recurring every 3 – 4 days. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 125. Shivering characteristic of malaria occurs when– (a) Schizonts enter the RBC (b) Merozoites enter the RBC (c) Signet ring is formed (d) Merozoites are liberated from RBC UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (d) : Shivering characteristic of malaria occurs when merozoites are liberated from RBC. The natural history of malaria involves cyclical infection of humans and female Anopheles mosquitoes. In humans the Plasmodium parasite grow and multiply first in the liver cells and then the RBC. The red blood cells break down, releasing merozoites and attacking more red blood cells. When the red blood cells are destroyed hemozoin venom is released . This causes high fever chill and shivering. 126. Which among the following disease is caused by a protozoa? (a) Pneumonia (b) Malaria (c) Common cold (d) Typhoid RPSC School Lecturer (23/07/2016) Ans. (b) : Pneumonia is an infection of the lungs caused by germs (fungi, bacteria or viruses). It causes cough, fever, chest pain, problem in respiration. Cholera is caused by the bacteria Vibrio cholerae, Malaria is caused by a protozoan parasite called Plasmodium. Carrier is a female Anopheles mosquito and affects the spleen organs. 127. Which among the following disease is caused by a protozoa? (a) Pneumonia (b) Malaria (c) Common cold (d) Typhoid Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2015 Ans. (b) : Malaria is caused by protozoa of the genus Plasmodium. Malaria is spread to humans by the bite of female mosquitoes of the genus Anopheles. Protozoa are microscopic, single-celled organisms, it can multiply in humans and transmitted from one person to another. 128. Cerebral malaria is caused by : (a) Plasmodium vivax (b) Plasmodium ovale (c) Plasmodium falciparum (d) Plasmodium malariae UPPCS Pre 2002 UPPCS Pre 2004 PGT Biology 2009 Ans. (c) : Cerebral malaria is the most severe pathology caused by the malaria parasite, Plasmodium falciparum. The pathogenic mechanisms leading to cerebral malaria are still poorly defined as studies have been hampered by limited accessibility to human tissues. Cerebral Malaria

Plasmodium falciparum

Tertian Malaria

Plasmodium vivax

Mild Tertian Malaria

Plasmodium ovale

Quartan Malaria

Plasmodium malariae

TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

129. Schuffner's dots are corpuscles of man in diseases? (a) Kala azar (c) Malaria

seen on the red blood which of the following

(b) Filaria (d) Diabetes UPPCS Pre 2008 Ans. (c) : Schuffner's dots refers to a hemotological finding that is associated with malaria, exclusively found in infections caused by Plasmodium. They are used to detect malaria. Plasmodium vivax induces morphologic alternations in infected red blood cells which are visible by light microscopy. 130. Match List–I with List–II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the list : List–I List–II A. Dengue fever : 1. Phlebotomus B. Elephantiasis : 2. Aedes aegypti C. Kala azar : 3. Glossina D. Sleeping sickness : 4. Culex fatigans Code A B C D A B C D (a) 2 4 3 1 (b) 2 4 1 3 (c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 1 4 3 2 UP LT 2018 LT Biology 2018 Ans. (b) : The correct matching – Dengue fever – Aedes aegypti Elephantiasis – Culex fatigans Kala - azar – Phlebotomus Sleeping sickness– Glossina 131. In a Malaria patient Schuffner's granules are found in : (a) Red cells (b) Liver cells (c) Signet ring stage (d) Schizont UPPCS Pre 2006 Ans. (a) : In a malaria patient schuffner's granules are found in red blood cells (RBC). Types of cells Symptoms/character (a) Red cells → In a malaria patient Schuffner's granules are found in it. In R.B.C., red eosinophilic granules change into Schuffner granules in the R.B.C. (b) Liver cells → Schizont present in the liver cells. It is non pigmented divided by schizogony develop into cryptozoites. (c) Signet ring stage → It is a stage formed in R.B.C. when trophozoite infect the R.B.C., the vacuole present in ring stage. (d) Schizont → It is non-pigmented formed in the liver cells after the infection of sporozoites.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 132. Causative agent of dysentery is (a) Entamoeba gingivalis (b) Entamoeba histolytica (c) Entamoeba buccalis (d) Entamoeba coli PGT Biology 2005 Ans. (b) : Amoebic dysentery is caused by the protozoan parasite Entamoeba histolytica. Invasive intestinal parasitic infection can result in symptom of fulminant dysentery, such as fever, chills, bloody or mucous diarrhoea, and abdominal discomfort. For treatment boiled water should be drunk. Medicines like Metroni-dazole, tinidazole, nitroimidazole drug for the treatment. 133. Kala azar is transmitted by : (a) Tse Tse fly (b) Dragon fly (c) sand fly (d) Fruit fly TGT Biology 2003 Ans. (c) : Kala azar, also known as leishmaniasis, is a parasitic disease transmitted by the bite of infected female sandflies. In India, Leishmania donovani is only parasite causing this disease. It affects poor communities and causing significant health, social and economic impact. Therefore the correct answer is sandfly. 134. Which of the following human parasite protozoans is found in the human mouth and damages gums? (a) Entamoeba gingivalis (b) Entamoeba coli (c) Entamoeba histolytica (d) Giardia intestinalis UP LT 2018 Ans. (a) : The protozoan species such as Trichomonas tenax and Entamoeba gingivalis are components of oral microbiome. They are more common in human having poor oral hygiene, it is found in 95% of people with healthy gums. Transmission is direct from one person to another by kissing or by sharing eating utensils. 135. Chaga's disease is caused by (a) Trypanosoma gambiense (b) Trypanosoma rhodesiense (c) Trypanosoma brucei (d) Trypanosoma cruzi LT Biology 2015 Ans. (d) : Triatomine bugs can carry Trypanosoma cruzi, this parasite causes Chagas disease. It is a tropical parasite disease, also known as American trypanosomiasis spreads by kissing bugs. Chagas disease is an inflammatory, infectious disease common in South America, Central America and Mexico, the primary home of the triatomine bug. 136. Viviparity generally occurs in : (a) Wuchereria (b) Ancylostoma (c) Enterobius (d) Trichuris UP PGT 2016 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (a) Wuchereria bancrofti and Brugia malayi are thread - like nematodes, the adult stage of which live within lymphatic vessels. Some individuals whose lymphatics are infected with these nematodes develop disfiguring elephantiasis. The worms are ovoviviparous, and their larvae are called microfilariae. 137. Sleeping sickness in man is caused by– (a) Trypanosoma (b) Leishmania (c) Plasmodium (d) Entamoeba TGT Biology 2002 Ans. (a) : Sleeping sickness or human African "Trypanosomiasis" is a tropical disease caused by an infection with the flagellate Protozoan "Trypanosoma" brucei gambiense. It is spread by the Tsetse fly. This Tsetse fly species is native to the African continent. The bite of the tsetse fly causes a red sore. This disease can be dangerous as it is capable of affecting our nervous system and it changes the patient's personality, alters his biological clock and the patient may find difficulty in walking. 138. Glossina palpalis is a vector of(a) Kala azar (b) Amoebiasis (c) Sleeping sickness (d) Typhoid PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (c) : The disease is transmitted to human by the tsetse flies, Glossina palpalis. The rhodesiense sleeping sickness is caused by T. brucei rhodesiense which are transmitted to man by the bites of tsetse fly Glossina morsitans. Both these forms of African trypanosomiasis are endemic in different parts of Africa. 139. Which disease is caused by Leishmania donovani : (a) Sleeping sickness (b) Oriental sore (c) Kala-Azar (d) Dysentery UPPCS Pre 1998 Ans. (c) : Leishmania is a causative agent of KalaAzar, by the bite of an infected female phlebotomus sandfly, a tiny 2-3 mm long insect vector. Kala-Azar is also called Dum Dum fever, infection occurs chiefly in spleen and liver, secondarily in bone marrow and intestinal villi. 140. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using from the codes given below the lists: List - I List- II (Disease) (Parasite) A. Blood dysentery 1. Echinococcus B. Filaria 2. Entamoeba C. Hydatid disease 3. Leishmania D. Kala-azar 4. Wuchereria Codes : A B C D (a) 4 2 3 1 (b) 1 3 4 2 (c) 2 4 1 3 (d) 3 1 2 4 UPPCS Pre 2008

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 145. Indicate the wrong match in the following : (a) Endomixis-Paramecium List - II (b) Euglena-Mixotrophic Entamoeba (c) Monocystis-Sleeping sickness Wuchereria (d) Hydra-Nematocyst Echinococcus UPPCS Pre 1996 Leishmania Ans. (c) : Sleeping sickness caused by Trypanosoma 141. Malarial fever is caused by a toxic substance gambiense not by monocystis. Monocystis typically released by its pathogen. This substance is : endoparasite of earthworm occurs in their coelom and (a) urea toxin (b) haemocyanin seminal vesicles. Monocystis is the most common (c) haemozoin (d) haemoglobin genus of protozoans to infect earthworms. UPPCS Pre 2008 146. Dengue fever is spread by the following mosquito: Ans. (c) : In malaria, chills and shivers are caused by (a) Culex (b) Aedes the release of toxic substance haemozoin into the blood (c) Anopheles (d) Mansoni after the RBC, rupture. Malaria is caused by the UPPCS Pre 1996 protozoan Plasmodium which is transmitted by the vector female Anopheles mosquito. Ans. (b) : Dengue fever is viral fever but spread by 142. Which of the following is the causative agent of Aedes. Symptom includes aching limb, high temperature and minute rash. Malaria spread by African sleeping sickness : female Anopheles. Culex spread elephantiasis. Aedes (a) Phlebotomus aegypti and Aedes albopictus are two species of aedes (b) Glossina palpalis (Tse tse fly) that spread dengue fever. (c) Anopheles 147. Microfilariae during night resides in : (d) None of the above (a) Peripheral vessels UPPCS Pre 2001 (b) Deep seated blood vessels Ans. (b) : Individuals can become infected with west (c) Caval veins - African trypanosomiasis if they receive a bite from (d) Mesenteric veins an infected tsetse fly which is only found in Africa. PGT Biology 2009 West African trypanosomiasis also called sleeping Ans. (a) : Microfilariae circulate in the peripheral blood sickness is caused by a parasite called Trypanosoma vessels during night because. It ensures the vector, the brucei gambiense, carried by the tse-tse fly. 143. Which of the following is called' grand old man night time mosquito, will have a higher chance of transmitting them elsewhere. Adults filarial worms of intestine' : reside in the lymph nodes where the female parasite (a) Taenia Solium reproduces to form larvae, while the larvae called (b) Taenia Saginata microfilariae circulate in the bloodstream. During the day time microfilariae move through the blood vessels (c) Giardia deep inside the body and during the night, they move to (d) Entamoeba histolytica superficial parts, which are the capillaries in the skin. UPPCS Pre 2001 148. African sleeping sickness in man is caused by : Ans. (c) : Giardia intestinalis is known as the grand (a) Trypanosoma gambiense old man of the intestine because it only resides in the (b) Trypanosoma cruzi intestine and not in any other tissue. This is a flagellated Protozoan that causes infection in the small (c) Glossina palpalis intestine and does not spread by the bloodstream. (d) Eimeria 144. Dengue fever is caused by : UPPCS Pre 2002 (a) Schistosoma mansoni Ans. (a) : African sleeping sickness in man caused by (b) Plasmodium vivax Trypanosoma gambiense. The vector of Trypanosoma is Tse-tse fly. Glossina palpalis is the zoological name of (c) Wuchereria tse-tse fly. Its early symptoms include fever, headaches, (d) Leishmania donovani joint pains and itching. Later stages may include UPPCS Pre 2001 behavioural changes, confusion and poor coordination. Ans. (b) : Dengue fever is caused by Plasmodium 149. Which of the following insects transmit vivax. In P vivax and P. ovale malaria, a brood of "Chaga's" disease ? schizonts mature every 48 hr, so the periodicity of (a) Glossina (b) Phlebotomus fever is tertian (tertian malaria). Whereas in P. (c) Triatoma (d) musca malariae disease, fever occurs every 72 hours (quartan UPPCS Pre 2009 malaria). Ans. (c) : The correct match– List - I 1. Blood dysentery 2. Filaria 3. Hydatid disease 4. Kala-azar -

TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (c) : Chaga's disease (also termed American 153. Vector of elephantiasis disease is : Trypanosomiasis) is an infection caused by a Protozoan (a) culex mosquito Parasite (Trypanosoma cruzi) that can result in acute (b) Female anopheles mosquito inflammatory skin changes (chagoma) and eventually may (c) Infected Culex mosquito cause infection and inflammation of many other body tissues especially those of the heart and intestinal tract. (d) None of the above The insect vectors are called triatomine bugs. PGT Biology 2013 150. Yellow fever is transmitted by : Ans. (c) : Lymphatic filariasis commonly known as (a) Female Culex (b) Female Anopheles elephantiasis is a mosquito - borne disease. The major (c) Female Aedes (d) Housefly vector of elephantiasis is Culex mosquito but TGT Biology 2009 Anopheles and Aedes mosquito are also known to Ans. (c) : Yellow fever is caused by a virus that is transmit elephantiasis. spread by the female Aedes aegypti mosquito. These 154. Which one of the following species of mosquitoes thrive in human habitations where they Plasmodium causes malignant tertian malaria : breed in even the cleanest water. A mosquito becomes (a) P. vivax (b) P. falciparum infected when it bites a person who has yellow fever in (c) P. malariae (d) P. ovale his or her blood. UPPCS Pre 1998 151. 'Quartan malaria' is caused by : Ans. (b) : Malaria is a protozoan disease caused by (a) Plasmodium vivax plasmodium. Four species of plasmodium causes (b) Plasmodium malariae many types of malaria in human. (c) Plasmodium ovale 1. Tertian malaria (d) Plasmodium falciparum Plasmodium vivax TGT Biology 2009 2. Benign tertian malaria 3. Vivax malaria Ans. (b) : Quartan fever is one of the four type of malaria, which can be contracted by humans. It is 1. Mild tertian malaria specifically caused by the Plasmodium malariae 2. Ovale malaria Plasmodium ovale species, one of the six species of the Protozoan genus Plasmodium. It is a form of malaria where an onset of 1. Subtertian malaria fever occurs in an interval of 3-4 days. 2. Aestivo-autumnal Plasmodium 152. Which one of the following statements is correct malaria falciparum about the given harmful insects? 3. Malignant tertian (a) Tse-tse fly spreads Kala-azar malaria (b) Sand fly spreads sleeping sickness 4. Cerebral malaria (c) Trichonympha a symbiotic protozoan is found 5. Black water fever in the gut of termite (d) Pediculus humanus corporis is an endoparasite 1. Quartan malaria Plasmodium malariae UPPCS Pre 2004, 2005 155. Which one of the following acts a vector for Ans. (c) : Trichonympha a symbiotic protozoan is Trypanosoma gambiense : found in the gut of termite. Trichonympha digest (a) Culex (b) Glossina cellulose. Kala-azar is spread by sand fly and sleeping (c) Anopheles (d) Musca sickness is spread by tse-tse fly. UPPCS Pre 1998 Trichonympha convert cellulose in wood into starches and sugars that the termite can use as nutrients. In Ans. (b) : Trypanosoma gambiense causative agent of exchanges, these organisms benefit from a continuous sleeping sickness. The vector of Trypanosoma is supply of energy-rich cellulose and a suitable Glossina palpalis called tse-tse fly. Tsetse flies include environment in which to live. all the species in the genus Glossina, which are placed in their own family Glossinidae.

TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 156. Wuchereria causes filariasis as a result of: (a) block in lymph glands (b) block in blood capillary (c) block in the veins (d) block in the arteries PGT Biology 2004 Ans. (a) : Most of the infection caused by the Wuchereria bancrofti, some people have no symptoms, Others may have inflammation, swelling or fever. It can lead to lymphedema (fluid retention) or hydrocele (swelling in the scrotum), blockages to flow of lymph glands. 157. Sandfly transmits the pathogens of : (a) Kala-azar (b) Typhoid (c) Sleeping sickness (d) Malaria TGT Biology 2002 Ans. (a) : Kala-azar is caused by bites from female Phlebotomus sand flies - the vector (or transmitter) of the Leishmania parasite. The sand flies feed on animals and humans for food, which they need for developing their eggs. If blood containing Leishmania parasites is drawn from an animal or human, the next person to will receive a bite, they become infected and develop leishmaniasis. Months after this initial infection the disease can progress into a more severe form, called visceral leishmaniasis or, Kala azar.

160. Kala-azar is transmitted by (a) Glossina (b) Pediculus (c) Aedes (d) Phlebotomus PGT Biology 2010

TGT Biology 2013 Ans. (d) : See the explanation of the above question. 161. Kala- Azar is caused by : (a) tse-tse fly (b) Rat fly (c) Sand fly (d) House fly Delhi SSB PGT Biology 2015 Ans. (c) : See the explanation of the above question. 162. Vector of Kala-azar disease is : (a) Glossina (b) Phlebotomus (c) Pediculus (d) Aedes PGT Biology 2013 Ans. (b) : See the explanation of the above question. 163. Glossina palpalis is the Zoological name of : (a) Tse tse fly (b) Fruit fly (c) Sand fly (d) May fly TGT Biology 2011 Ans. (a) : Glossina palpalis is the zoological name of tse-tse Fly.

158. 'Kala-azar' is caused by : (a) Balantidium coli (b) Leishmania donovani (c) Leishmania tropica (d) Trypanosoma gambiense

Example 1.

Gambiense Trypanosoma

2.

T. cruzi

3.

Leishmania donovani

4. 5. 6.

L. Tropica L. Braziliensis Trichomonas Vaginalis

2.

Disease

V factor

African sleeping sickness Chagas disease Dum - Dum fever; Kala azar Oriental sore Espundia Vaginitis found in female, it is also called leucorrhoea

Tse Tse fly (Glossina) Kissing bug Sand fly Phlebotomus Sand fly Sand fly No vector, as it is monogenetic

Porifera

164. Which of the following is the most distinctive character of sponges ? UPPCS Pre 2000 (a) They possess Cnidocytes Ans. (b) : Kala-azar is also called dum-dum fever (b) They possess Choanocytes caused by Leishmania donovani. It is a protozoan (c) They reproduce only asexually disease, transmitted by Sand fly (Phlebotomus) (d) They are all fresh water organisms 159. Kala-azar is caused by : UPPSC Ashram Paddhati 29/09/2021 (a) Leishmania donovani Ans. (b) : The most distinctive character of sponges is (b) Trypanosoma gambiense the presence of choanocytes. These are flagellated cells (c) Trichomonas which function as the sponge's digestive system, and are also known as 'collar cells'. The beating of the (d) Giardia UPPCS Pre 1994, TGT Biology, 2011 choanocytes flagella creates the sponge's water current. These cells capture microscopic food particles. They Ans. (a) : See the explanation of the above question. make up a cell layer called choanoderm. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 165. Which one of the following is NOT a character of organisms of Phylum "Porifera"? (a) They bears two types of pores i.e. Ostia and Osculum (b) They are called sponges (c) They are Acoelomates (d) They are either Oviparous or Viviparous UPPSC Ashram Paddhati 29/09/2021 Ans. (*) : All the given options are character of phylum "Porifera". • Porifera bears two types of pores, i.e., ostia and osculum. • They are called sponges. • They are acoelomates. • They are either oviparous or viviparous. Note :- Commission has given the answer of this question (d). 166. Power of regeneration in sponges is due to : (a) Theocytes (b) Amoebocytes (c) Archaeocytes (d) Scleroblasts TGT (2016) 31/07/2021 Ans. (b) : The power of regeneration in sponges is due to archaeocytes. They are totipotent cells which can transform into sclerocytes, spongocytes or collencytes. These are amoeboid cells. Cellular differentiation is an essential function of the archaeocyte. This is especially important in reproduction as the sex cells of the sponge in sexual reproduction are formed from these amoeboid cells. 167. Choanocytes or collar cells are found in the animals of which phylum ? (a) Porifera (b) Coelenterata (c) Echinodermata (d) Arthropoda UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (a) : Choanocytes or collar cells are found in the animals of phylum porifera. Choanocytes form the inner lining of the sponges which contain a flagellum for locomotion and are surrounded by a collar of microvilli. These collar cells or choanocytes form a type of cell layer called choanoderm inside the sponges. Members of phylum Porifera are primitive multi cellular animals and have cellular level of organisation. 168. Apopyles are : (a) Opening of radial canal into spongocoel (b) Opening of incurrent canal into spongocoel (c) Opening of radial canal into incurrent canal (d) Opening of incurrent canal into radial canal UK SSSC L.T. (21/01/2018) Ans. (a) : Apopyles are opening of radial canal into spongocoel. Body of all sponges are perforated by large number of apertures through which water enters inside body and flows through a canal system. Spongocoel is the large central cavity of sponges. ⇒Prosopyles are opening of incurrent canal into radial canal. Incurrent canals are opening through which water first enters a sponge. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

169. Silica for the formation of siliceous spicules is : (a) Synthesized by the sponge (b) Provided by symbiotic algae (c) Supplied by bacteria (d) Extracted by the sponge from the sea water UP PGT 2016 Ans. (d) Silica for the formation of siliceous spicules is extracted by the sponge from the sea water. Siliceous spicules, found in the Demospongiae and in the Hexactinellida are made essentially of silicic acid, they also contain, some water, a small quantity of other compounds containing sodium, potassium, iron and chlorine, and a small quantity of organic matter called spicule. 170. Sponges are : (a) triploblastic (b) diploblastic (c) monoblastic (d) none of the above UPPCS Pre 1995 Ans. (b) : The body wall of sponges, diploblastic with outer pinacoderm and inner choanoderm and a gelatinous non cellular mesenchyme in between. Mesenchyme consists of skeletal element and free amoeboid cells. Pertaining to a condition in which there are two primary germ layers, such as ectoderm and endoderm, as in the embryos of sponges & coelenterates are known as diploblastic. 171. Amphiblastula larva is found in the life cycle of: (a) sponges (b) coelenterates (c) helminthes (d) echinoderms UPPCS Pre 1999 Ans. (a) Animals Larva (a) Sponges Amphiblastula, Parenchymula (b) Coelenterates Planula, Hydrula, Scyphistoma, Ephyra. (c) Helminthes Miracidium, Sporocyst, Redia, Cercaria, Metacercaria, Bladderworm and Rhabditiform. (d) Echinoderms Brachiolaria, Bipinnaria 172. Type of canal system found in Leucosolenia is called : (a) Sycon type (b) Ascon type (c) Rhagon type (d) Leucon type UPPCS Pre 2006 Ans. (b) : Ascon type of canal system found in Leucosolenia * Sycon type found in Scypha * Rhagon type of canal system found in larva of Spongilla. * Leucon type found in Spongilla. 173. In which type of canal system of sponges the spongocoel is lined by choanocyte cells : (a) Ascon type (b) Sycon type (c) Leucon type (d) Rhagon type UPPCS Pre 1998 Navoday Vidyalay PGT Biology 2014

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (a) : Asconoid type or Ascon canal system. It is the simplest type of canal system found in asconoid sponges like Leucosolenia. It is the only canal system in which spongocoel is lined by choanocytes. The ostia are represented by cells called porocytes. The cells have intracellular canal inside them. The cells extends radially into the mesenchyme and open directly into the spongocoel. Ascon type canal system is simplest type of canal system found in Leucosolenia. Incurrent canal → Radial canal → Apopyle → spongocoel → osculum (spongocoel in Ascon type canal system is flagellated lined by choanocytes)

174. Of the following spicules are found in : (a) Spongia (Euspongia) only (b) Herdmania only (c) Euplectella only (d) Both (a) and (c) UPPCS Pre 2009 Ans. (d) : Sponge spicules are made of calcium carbonate or silica, spicules are the structural elements. Two types of spicules are found (1) visible to the naked eye – megascleres (2) Smaller, Microscopic – Microscleres In Euplectella, the body is composed entirely of silica in the form of 6-pointed siliceous spicules, known as glass sponges. 175. Which of the following animals is/are sponge? (a) Ciona (b) Proterospongia (c) Halisarca and Oscarella (d) None of the above UPPCS Pre 2009 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (c) : Halisarca and Oscarella is sponge. Halisarca and Oscarella belong to class-Demospongiae and OrderMyxospongida. These sponges are small to large-sized, solitary or colonial. These order-species, spicules are absent. In this class-sponges are marine except freshwater family. Oscarella is native to the northeastern Atlantic ocean and the mediterranean sea. Halisarca is native to the caribbean sea. 176. Which of the following sponges lacks spicules, but has skeleton of spongin fibres? (a) Spongia but not Phyllospongia (b) Phyllospongia but not Spongia (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) none of the above UPPCS Pre 2009 Ans. (c) : Euspongia or Spongia and Phyllospongia belongs to class-Demospongiae and sub-class-keratosa. These are horny sponges with skeleton of spongin fibres but no spicules. Body form usually rounded and massive, with a leathery surface and dark colour. Spongia also known as bath sponge. Phyllospongia is also called leaf sponges. Spongin is an organic, horny, elastic substances, resembling with silk in chemical composition. 177. Which of the following sponges has a skeleton of spongin fibres? (a) Chalina (b) Halichondria (c) Phyllospongia (d) Ephydatia UPPCS Pre 2010 Ans. (a&c) : Chalina is a deep-water form. Chalina is popularly known as the 'mermaids gloves' or 'dead man's fingers because it is shaped like a hand with several fingers perforated with oscula. Chalina and Phyllospongia both sponges has a skeleton of spongin fibres but Chalina's skeleton consists of spongin with siliceous spicules (oxea) and Phyllospongia's skeleton consists of spongin fibres but no spicules. Note-Commission has given the answer of this question (a). 178. Of the following, which zoophyte remains associated with Hyalonema? (a) Cirripedia (b) Palythoa (c) Artemia (d) Alcippe UPPCS Pre 2007 Ans. (b) : Palythoa is related to Hyalonema which forms a symbiotic relationship with Hyalonema. It is a marine and free living sponge found at considerable depths around New England coast and America. It is commonly called glass-rope sponge. 179. Which of the following types of cells store reserve food in sponges : (a) Pinacocytes (b) Choanocytes (c) Trophocytes (d) Thesocytes TGT Biology 2013 Ans. (d): Gemmule is comprised of thesocytes surrounded by a collagen and spicule coat. The thesocytes from freshwater sponges are usually binucleate and are packed with yolk platelets and lipid inclusions along with numerous ribosome, endoplasmic reticulum, mitochondria and golgi body. The yolk platelets provide energy reserves in the form of the basic proteins and glycoproteins.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 180. Bath sponge is : (a) Euplectella (c) Euspongia

(b) Gorgonia (d) Velella TGT Biology 2011 Ans. (c) : Euspongia commonly known as bath sponge, is a commercially used sponge. It belongs to class Demospongiae of Phylum Porifera. It is found throughout the Mediterranean sea. It is a hermaphrodite animal and can reproduce asexually by means of budding or through sexual reproduction. 181. Which sponges is detrimental to pearl industry? (a) Sycon (b) Euspongia (c) Glass Sponge (d) Cliona PGT Biology 2010 Ans. (d) : Sponges in the genus Cliona are members of the family Clionaidae. They are efficient excavators of calcareous materials including corals and shells. Cliona has been particularly destructive to pearl oysters because they create holes into the oyster shells to find shelter inside the oysters. Thus the correct answer is Cliona. 182. Example of phylum Porifera is : (a) Obelia (b) Fasciola (c) Planaria (d) Sycon Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2015 Ans. (d) : Few Example of Phylum Porifera – Sycon, Spongilla, Hylonema, Cliona Platyhelminthes examples – Taenia (Tapeworms), Fasciola (liver fluke), Taenia saginata - (Beef tapeworm), Opisthorchis, Planaria. Cnidaria Examples – Corals, hydroids, Jellyfish, sea anemones. 183. Example of phylum porifera is : (a) Obelia (b) Fasciola (c) Planaria (d) Sycon RPSC School Lecturer (23/07/2016) Ans. (d) : Example of phylum porifera is Sycon. Sycon is a genus of calcareous sponges belonging to the family Sycettidae. These sponges are small, growing up to 7.5 cm and having length from 2.5 to 7.5, are tube shaped and often white to cream in colour. Sycon is a marine sponges which is found attached to the rocks, corals and shells of molluscs. 184. Which cells are found only in sponges ? (a) Amoeboid cells (b) Choanocytes (c) Trichocysts (d) Gland cells Delhi SSB PGT Biology 2015 Ans. (b) : Flagellated choanocytes or collar cells, found associated with canal system, occurs only in sponges. The most distinctive character of sponge's is the presence of choanocytes. These are flagellated cells which function as the sponge's digestive system, and are also known as 'collar cells'. The beating of the choanocytes flagella creates the sponge's water current. These cells capture microscopic food particles. They make up a cell layer called choanoderm. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

185. Mesohyl is found in : (a) Ctenophora (c) Parazoa

(b) Echinodermata (d) Platyhelminthes UPPCS Pre 2001 Ans. (c) : The mesohyl, formerly known as mesenchyme or as mesoglea, is the gelatinous matrix within a sponge. It fills the space between the external pinacoderm and the internal choanoderm. Mesohyl is found in Porifera. The sponges are placed in the subkingdom Parazoa. 186. The fresh water sponge is : (a) Spongilla (b) Grantia (c) Euplectella (d) Euspongia TGT Biology 2009 Ans. (a) : Spongilla is a genus of fresh water sponges in the family Spongillidae found in lakes and slow streams. The skeleton of spongilla is composed of siliceous spicules. Euplectella is a genus of glass sponges, which includes the well-known Venus' flower basket. 187. Which of the following is not a sponge ? (a) Euspongia (b) Spongilla (c) Proterospongia (d) Cliona UPPCS Pre 2006 Ans. (c) : Animal Class Euspongia → It is a sponge → Demospongiae Spongilla → It is a sponge → Demospongiae Cliona → It is a sponge → Demospongiae * Proterospongia is protozoa not a sponge. Proterospongia belongs to class Mastigophora. It is a connecting link between Protozoa and Porifera. 188. Free swimming larva of some sponges is known as : (a) veliger (b) trochophore (c) Parenchymula (d) bipinnaria UPPCS Pre 2006 Ans. (c) : Parenchymula is free swimming larva of some sponges. (a) Veliger → It is known by second name glochidium larva found in the class Pelecypoda of phylum Mollusca eg. Unio. (b) Trochophore → It is a larva of Nereis. (c) Parenchymula → Free swimming larva of some sponges is known as parenchymula. It is found in the sponges like Leucosolenia. (d) Bipinnaria → It is a bilaterally symmetrical free-swimming larva of certain starfishes. 189. Totipotent cells in sponges are : (a) Archaeocytes (b) Choanocytes (c) Pinacocytes (d) Trophocytes UPPCS Pre 2006

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (a) : Totipotent cell in sponges are Ans. (c) : Leucon type of canal system is found in archaeocytes. Spongilla. This canal system is most complex type of canal system. It has narrow, non flagellated cavity Sponges cells Character lined by pinacocytes and it opens to exterior through (a) Archaeocytes → Totipotent cell give an excurrent pore called osculum. rise to sex cell i.e., ova and sperm and play important role in regeneration. (b) Choanocytes → It is a oval rounded cell that make the chamber flagellate. (c) Pinacocytes → It is a cell that make nonflagellate. The in-current canal lined by pinacocyte cells. (d) Trophocytes → It is nurse cell. The oocyte move like an amoebocytes and grow by engulfing special nurse cell or trophocytes. 190. In sponges, which one of the following amoebocytes, is modified for storing food granules? (a) Thesocytes (b) Collencytes (c) Trophocytes (d) Myocytes UPPCS Pre 2007 Ans. (a) : The body wall of a common sponge consists of three layer pinacoderm, choanoderm, and 194. The term ostia is associated with : mesenchyme. The mesenchymal layer is found (a) Porifera (b) Insects between pinacoderm and choanoderm. It contains (c) Coelenterata (d) Protozoa amoebocytes (amoeba - like cells). Amoebocytes are modified into the following types. UPPCS Pre 2001 • Archaeocytes may be converted into other types of cells Ans. (a) : Ostia are the inhalant pores in the body of and are also called undifferentiated "totipotent cells". sponges. Water enters to the body of sponges through ostia and reaches the spongocoel. It flows out of the • Myocytes form a circular ring round the osculum body through osculum. Ostia is present only in and help in closing and opening of the osculum. sponges i.e. phylum Porifera as sponges have a porous • Thesocytes–Those have lobose pseudopodia and are body. So, the correct answer is "Porifera." filled with food granules, thus acting as storage cells. 191. Which of the following types of cells store 195. In sponges prosopyle is a : (a) cell at the opening of incurrent canal reserve food in sponges? (b) small canal which connects incurrent canal (a) Pinacocytes (b) Choanocytes with radial canal (c) Trophocytes (d) Thesocytes (c) contractile structure at the osculum PGT Biology 2004 (d) cells which form inner lining of spongocoel at Ans. (d) : See the explanation of the above question. places 192. Types of spicules found in gemmules of UPPCS Pre 2002 Spongilla are : UPPCS Pre 2008 (a) Amphidisc (b) Monaxon Ans. (b) : (c) Triaxon (d) Tetraxon Dermal Ingressing water  Incurrent canals Ostia → UPPCS Pre 2008 ↓ Prosopyles Ans. (b) : Monaxon of spicules found in gemmules of Apopyles Osculum To outside ← Spongocoel ← Radial Canals Spongilla, these spicules grow along a single axis. They The prosopyles is a small canal which connects may be straight needle - like or rod - like or may be incurrent canal with Radial canal. curved. Their ends may be pointed, knot based or hooked. Monaxon can be both calcareous and siliceous Prosopyle in sponges is a pore through which water is types. They are of two kinds. drawn from the outside into one of the sac like chambers formed by evagination of the body wall. (I) Monactinal (II) Diactinal The incurrent pores or ostia, found on the outer 193. Leucon type of canal system is found in : surface of the body opens into the incurrent canals, (a) Leucosolenia (b) Sycon which lead into adjacent radial canals through these (c) Spongilla (d) Euplectella minute openings, known as prosopyles. Prosopyle is UPPCS Pre 2000 present only in asconoid and syconoid sponges. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 196. The fertilization in sponges occurs : (a) externally in water (b) internally in spongocoel (c) externally on body surface (d) internally in mesenchyme UPPCS Pre 2002 UP LT 2018 Ans. (d) : Fertilization in sponges occur internally in mesenchyme. Male sex cells or sperms, female ova, are found in mesenchyme. The zygotes develop into ciliated larvae. Some sponges release their larvae, where others retain them for some time. Once the larvae are in the water column they settle and develop into juvenile sponges. 197. Internal fertilization occurs in : (a) Sycon (b) Obelia (c) Asterias (d) Branchiostoma UPPCS Pre 2000 Ans. (a) : See the explanation of the above question. 198. The sponges were classified with plants till the discovery of : (a) Spongocoel (b) Spicules (c) Osculum (d) Circulation of water through their body UPPCS Pre 2005 Ans. (d) : The sponges were classified with plants till the discovery of circulation of water through their body. The sponges are sessile, variously branched just like plants. They have no way of capturing food or eliminating wastes and show little response to stimulation. Hence, sponges were earlier considered as plants. 199. Which of the following cell type is capable of giving rise to other cell types in sponges? (a) Pinacocytes (b) Thesocytes (c) Archaeocytes (d) Trophocytes UPPCS Pre 2005 Ans. (c) : Sponges have cellular grade organization, they don't have organs like higher organisms, instead, have specialized cell such as pinacocytes (Skin cells) that line the exterior sponge body wall. Archaeocytes are important, they are totipotent and can change into all other types of sponge cells. The collencytes, founds in the mesohyl, secrete fibers and often form a net in the cytoplasm. Thesocytes are responsible for intracellular digestion along with choanocytes in sponges. So, the correct answer is "Archaeocytes". 200. Which of the following features is universally present in all sponges ? (a) marine habitat (b) presence of spicules (c) presence of spongin fibres (d) presence of spongocoel UPPCS Pre 2005 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (d) : Spongocoel found in sponges are lined with choanocytes, where flagella beat to maintain water current and pushes water through the spongocoel, take place through ostia and exits through the osculum. Spongocoel is a characteristic feature of all sponges. 201.

Spicules in sponges are formed by : (a) choanocytes (b) scleroblasts (c) thesocytes (d) myocytes TGT Biology 2009 UPPCS Pre 2010 Ans. (b) : Spicules are the structural elements, skeleton of sponges, scleroblasts are skeleton manufacturing cell in sponges and may be of following types : 1. Calcoblasts – scleroblasts that secrete calcareous spicules. 2. Spongioblasts – scleroblasts that secrete spongin fibres. 3. Silicoblasts – scleroblasts that secrete siliceous spicules. Hence, skeleton of sponges may be made up of calcareous or siliceous spicules or spongin fibres, but ultimately, spicules are formed by scleroblasts. So, the correct answer is "scleroblast".

202. 'Paragastric cavity' is another name for : (a) Pseudocoel (b) Coelom (c) Spongocoel (d) Gastrovascular cavity TGT Biology 1999 Ans. (c) : Paragastric cavity is another name for spongocoel. Spongocoel is the sponge large, central cavity, Via hundreds of tiny openings, water enters the spongocoel (Ostia) and exits through the larger opening (osculum). It is a paragastric cavity and has epithelial cells lining it. 203. Flagellated cells in sponges are called : (a) Pinacocytes (b) Choanocytes (c) Porocytes (d) Thesocytes TGT Biology 1999 Ans. (b) : Spongocoel is a large central cavity in the sponges. Water enters through the numerous ostium in the cavity and exit by a central pore known as osculum. Choanocytes are the flagellated cell which line the spongocoel. It helps to set up water current and helps in intake of food. 204. The diameter of ostia in sponges is regulated by : (a) Choanocytes (b) Porocytes (c) Pinacocytes (d) Myocytes UPPCS Pre 2000

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (b) : The correct sequence of classification of Sycon are. Branch → Parazoa Phylum → Porifera Class → Calcarea Sycon is a genus of calcareous sponges belonging to the family Sycettidae. These Sponges are small growing up to 7.5 cm and having length from 2.5-7.5. They are tube shaped and often white to cream in colour.

Ans. (d) : The diameter of ostia in sponges is regulated by myocytes. It is modified to form pinacocytes. The pinacocytes form a pinacoderm or dermal layer. Myocytes are fusiform contractile muscle cells present around ostia, oscula and other openings. These form a sphincter which regulates the size of these openings.

205. In sponges, the diameter of ostia is regulated by : (a) Choanocytes (b) Porocytes (c) Myocytes 208. A sponges can be distinguished by the presence of : (d) Pinacocytes (a) Coelenteron (b) Choanocytes UPPCS Pre 1997 (c) Tentacles (d) Calcareous skeleton Ans. (c) : See the explanation of above question. UPPCS Pre 1996 206. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct Ans. (b) : Choanocytes is the characteristic feature of answer from the code given below the list : sponges. Choanocyte are the cells found in radial List-I List-II canal of Canal System. (a) Calcarea (i) Six-rayed siliceous Choanoderm, consisting the gastral epithelium, is spicules formed of flagellated collar cells or choanocytes. Choanocytes cells are oval or rounded and arranged in (b) Demospongiae (ii) Spongin fibers, aragonite and siliceous a loose layer upon the mesenchyme. spicules (c) Sclerospongiae (iii) Spongin fibers and A. Leucosolenia siliceous spicules (d) Hexactinellida (iv) Aragonite spicules 209. Of the following Leucosolenia belongs to which Code : class? A B C D (a) Calcarea (b) Hexactinellida (a) 1 2 3 4 (c) Demospongiae (d) Homocoela (b) 2 4 3 1 TGT 07/08/2021 (c) 3 2 1 4 Ans. (a) : Leucosolenia is a genus of calcareous (d) 4 3 2 1 sponges belonging to the family Leucosoleniidae and UPPCS Pre 2000 order Leucosolenida. Leucosolenia body is radially symmetrical. They characterized by spicules made up of Ans. (d) : The correct matching are given below: calcium carbonate in the form of calcite or aragonite. List–I List–II 210. The principal cell types present in the body Calcarea Aragonite Spicules wall of Leucosolenia are : Demospongiae Spongin fibers and (a) pinacocytes, porocytes, choanocytes, siliceous spicules amoebocytes Sclerospongiae Spongin fibers, (b) pinacocytes, choanocytes, amoebocytes, aragonite and siliceous nephrocytes spicules (c) choanocytes, nerve cells, amoebocytes, Hexactinellida Six-rayed siliceous nephrocytes spicules (d) choanocytes, porocytes, nephrocytes, 207. Which of the following is the correct sequence of amoebocytes descending hierarchical taxa when classifying LT Biology 2018 Sycon : Ans. (a) : The principal cell types present in the body (a) Porifera-Parazoa-Hexactinellida wall of Leucosolenia are pinacocytes, porocytes, (b) Parazoa-Porifera-Calcarea choanocytes, amoebocytes. (c) Porifera-Parazoa-Calcarea It consists of two cellular layers, the outer pinacoderm and inner choanoderm, with a non-cellular mesenchyme (d) Parazoa-Porifera-Demospongiae UPPCS Pre 2003 in between. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 211. Asconoid canal system found in : (a) Grantia (b) Scypha (c) Leucosolenia (d) Spongilla TGT Biology 2013 Ans. (c) : The Asconoid type of canal system is the simplest type of canal system and is found in Leucosolenia and order-Homocoela. In this type of canal system, ostia are present on the surface of the body and connected to the spongocoel. It is lined by flagellated choanocyte cells. Spongocoel opens to the outside through osculum, which is located at the distal free end of the sponge body. So water enters through ostia into the spongocoel and excrete out through the osculum.

213. The flow of water in sycon type of canal is in following sequence : (a) Dermal ostia →Prosopyles → Osculum → Apopyles (b) Dermal ostia → Apopyles→ Prosopyles→ Osculum (c) Dermal ostia → Prosopyle → Apopyle → Osculum (d) None of these UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020

Ans. (c) : The flow of water in sycon type of canal is in following sequence : Dermal ostia → Prosopyle → Apopyle → Osculum • Body walls of syconoid sponges include two types of canals, the radial canals and the incurrent canal. B. Sycon Incurrent pores also known as dermal ostia are found on the outer surface of the body. The prosopyles help to 212. In Sycon which type of canal system is found ? move the water inside the radial canal. Apopyle is the (a) Ascon (b) Sycon connection between the radial canal and the ex-current canal. Osculum is a large opening through which water (c) Leucon (d) Rhagon TGT 07/08/2021 is expelled. Ans. (b) : In Sycon, type of canal system found is 214. The hollow blastula of Sycon is : Sycon type or syconoid canal system. This type of canal (a) Stereoblastula (b) Coeloblastula system develops from asconoid type due to horizontal (c) Stomoblastula (d) Amphiblastula folding of asconoid body wall. The spongocoel is lined UP LT Biology 2018 by pinacoderm and these are restricted to small Ans. (d) : Development indirect through a freechambers. Incurrent canals are also there. Incurrent swimming ciliated larva, the amphiblastula or canals open into radial chamber through prosopyle and radial chamber opens into spongocoel through apopyle. parenchymula. Spongocoel is very narrow and opens to outside through Amphiblastula (Gr. amphi, both + blastos, germ), its osculum. one half bears flagella and other half does not. Amphiblastula larva does not stay within the maternal mesenchyme. It breaks out into the spongocoel and passes out through osculum with the outgoing water current. Amphiblastula settles down and undergoes gastrulation. 215. Choanocytes are found in : (a) Sycon (b) Proterospongia (c) Both Sycon and Proterospongia (d) None of the above UPPCS Pre 1997 Ans. (a) : Choanocytes is the characteristic feature of Porifera. Choanocytes is flagellated collar cell which line the internal chamber of sponge. Choanocytes cells are oval or rounded and arranged in a loose layer upon the mesenchyme. 216. Spicules are found in : (a) Sycon (b) Euspongia (c) Herdmania and Sycon (d) Sycon And Euspongia UPPCS Pre 2001 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (a) : Spicules are found in sycon. The scleroblasts secrete spicules which form the skeleton of the sycon body. These spicules are made by calcareous substance. Spongin fibres are present in the skeleton of sponges belonging to class Demospongiae. Euspongia belong to the class Demospongiae, so it has an endoskeleton of spongin fibres.

Ans. (b) Radial symmetry is the arrangement of body parts in which an organism can be divided into two equal halves in any plane from the central axis. Porifera are asymmetrical animals. Coelenterates are radially symmetrical, platyhelminthes, arthropods and molluscans are bilaterally symmetrical. Adult echinodermata animal are also radially symmetrical, so the correct answer is "cnidaria".

217. The fertilization in Sycon takes place : (a) in sea water (b) within choanocytes (c) in the spongocoel (d) in the ostia UPPCS Pre 2005 Ans. (b) : Sycon is a bisexual or monoecious sponge but cross fertilization is a rule, because of protogyny. Special sex organs are not found but the sperms and the ova are found in mesenchyme. Undifferentiated amoebocytes, called archaeocytes or choanocytes act as sperm mother cell and ovum mother cell. The fertilization in Sycon take place within choanocytes. 218. Olynthus stage is seen in the development of : (a) Hydra (b) Sycon (c) Asterias (d) Ascaris UPPCS Pre 2010 Ans. (b) : The 'Olynthus' is the simplest known type of sponge as it has the simplest type of canal system (ascon). It occurs as a transitory stage in the life-history of all calcareous syconoid sponges. In syconoid sponges, gastrula swims and settles on a rock with blastopore against the rock and grows to form "Olynthus" stage and look like a little sponge.

221. Which of the following is a coelenterate? (a) Sea-fan (b) Sea-cucumber (c) Sea-horse (d) Sea-lily UPPCS Pre 2010 Ans. (a) : Coelenterates are sedentary marine organisms. Some of the examples of coelenterates are sea fan, sea anemone, Hydra, sea pen. Sea fans are sessile, colonial cnidarians found throughout the oceans of the world, especially in the tropics and subtropics. They are also known as gorgonians or sea whips. 222. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below the list : List-I List-II (a) Pallium 1. Mussel (b) Rhopalium 2. Obelia (c) Neopallium 3. Mammal (d) Neopilina 4. Monoplacophora Code : A B C D (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 3 2 1 (c) 2 1 3 4 (d) 3 4 1 2 UPPCS Pre 2003

3.

Cnidaria/Coelenterata

219. Coral reefs are formed by : Ans. (a) The correct sequence of List-I and List-II (a) Molluscs (b) Echinoderms given as follows : (c) Protozoans (d) Coelenterates List-I List-II TGT Biology 2002 A. Pallium Mussel Ans. (d) : Corals are the Colonies formed by small B. Rhopalium Obelia organisms, belonging to the kingdom Animalia. They C. Neopallium Mammals are enclosed by calcium carbonate shells. They are mostly present in the marine environment. Corals are a D. Neopilina Monoplacophora group of invertebrates present in the marine environment, belonging to the phylum coelenterates or 223. Study the following statements about Adamsia and select your answer from the answer code : cnidaria. It belongs to the class Anthozoa. They exist in (i) it is a parasite colonies, with individual polyp forms. They form diverse shapes in association with other individual (ii) it is an example of commensalism polyps. They possess a hard calcium carbonate (iii) it is called sea anemone exoskeleton. The organisms included in phylum (iv) it is called hermit crab cnidaria are coral, hydra, jellyfish. Answer Code : 220. A radially symmetrical invertebrate animal, (a) I and II are correct with differentiation of tissues only, will be (b) II and III are correct placed in : (c) III and IV are correct (a) Porifera (b) Cnidaria (d) I and IV are correct (c) Platyhelminthes (d) Echinodermata UPPCS Pre 1997 UP PGT 2016 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (b) : Adamsia is known as sea anemone. It belongs the class-Anthozoa of phylum Coelenterata. It shows the commensalism with hermit crab. Adamsia is a genus in the family Hormathiidae. The anemone gets a place to live and discarded scraps of crab's food in exchange for its help in the crab's defence.

228. Which one of the following features applies Metridium : (a) it belongs to the class Hydrozoa. (b) its gastrovascular cavity is divided by six pairs of primary mesenteries. (c) it is hermaphrodite (d) it has no skeleton UPPCS Pre 1996

224. Scientific name of "Sea Fur" is : (a) Antedon (b) Pennatula Ans. (d) : There is no skeleton in anemones. The (c) Obelia geniculata (d) Cliona anemones belong to the class-Anthozoa or Actinozoa. UPPCS Pre 2001 It is dioecious animal. There are two type of mesenteries. There are 8 pair of mesenteries. Ans. (c) : "Sea fur" is the common name of the Metridium is commonly called 'sea anemone' or freshwater/ marine hydrozoan Obelia/Obelia geniculata is scientific name. They belong to the 'plumose anemones'. cnidaria phylum and have the polyp and medusa stage 229. Velarium is a structure associated with Aurelia in their life cycle. and : 225. Which of the following animals is pelagic : (a) it is a part of the true velum. (a) Euplectella (b) Noctiluca (b) it is like a true velum of the hydrozoan medusa (c) Physalia (d) Both (b) and (c) and does not contain endodermal cells. UPPCS Pre 2001 (c) unlike true velum of the hydrozoan medusa it contains endodermal cells. Ans. (d) : The pelagic zone consists of the water column of the open ocean and can be further divided (d) it does not form a part of the narrow region of into regions by depth. The pelagic zone can be the umbrella adjoining the edge. thought of as an imaginary cylinder or water column UPPCS Pre 2005 between the surface of the sea and the bottom. Pelagic Ans. (c) : Velarium is a structure associated with zone, ecological realm that includes the entire ocean Aurelia and it is not like true velum. It is called water column. Noctiluca and Physalia are found in pseudovelum. It is different from obelia velum. It is pelagic zone. Animals in pelagic means freely made up of endodermal cells. Such a medusa with a swimming animals. pseudovelum is called acraspedote medusa, while a 226. The scientific name of red coral "Moonga" is : medusa with a true velum is called craspedote medusa (a) Tubipora musica (b) Corallium rubrum (e.g.-Obelia). (c) Renilla (d) fungia UPPCS Pre 2001 Ans. (b) : The scientific name of red coral "Moonga" is Corallium rubrum and several related species of coral. The original Corallium rubrum is mainly found in Mediterranean sea and it grows at a depth of 10 to 300 meters below see level. Red coral grows in dark environment on rocky sea bottom, where there is a very high sediments deposit. It is composed of intermeshed spicules, a hard calcium carbonate, though it looks like a plant but actually it is marine gelatinous animal known as polyps.

227. Which of the following is not a coral reef : (a) Atolls (b) Lagoons (c) Fringing reef (d) Barrier reef 230. Which of the following set of individuals of the UPPCS Pre 2002 phylum-Coelenterata belong to sub-class Ans. (b) : Lagoon is not coral reef. There are three hexacorallia of the class Actinozoa? coral reef-fringing reef, barrier reef, Atolls. A narrow (a) Zoanthus, Alcyonium, Pennatula water canal with the depth of 20-30 Fathoms called (b) Urticina, Zoanthus, Edwardsia lagoons. (c) Edwardsia, Hartea, Tubipora A lagoon is a shallow body of water protected from a (d) Antipathes, Gorgonia, Heliopora larger body of water (usually the ocean) by sandbars, barrier islands or coral reefs. UPPCS Pre 2005, PGT Biology, 2009 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (b) : Urticina, Zoanthus, Edwardsia, sub-class hexacorallia, class Actinozoa and Phylum Coelenterata. This sub-class members are solitary or colonial. Tentacles usually unbranched, numerous. Siphonoglyph usually one or two. Skeleton are absent, mostly epizoic.

Ans: (a) The nematocysts present in coelenterates are exclusive stinging apparatus of the cnidocytes/ cnidoblasts and is a distinguishing feature of the phylum Coelenterata. It helps to capture the prey, Serve for adhesion, offence and defense.

231. Which of the following corals is the example of solitary coral? (a) Millepora (b) Fungia (c) Meandrina (d) None of the above UPPCS Pre 2009 Ans. (b) : Fungia is the example of solitary coral. Fungia are commonly called 'Mushroom corals'. It is big solitary coral. Meandrina is called brain coral. Millepora is hydroid colony that is abundantly associated with coral reefs. 232. Common name of Fungia is : (a) Mushroom coral (b) Red coral (c) Brain coral (d) Organ pipe coral TGT Biology 2013 Ans. (a) : Fungia is also called commonly as the 'Mushroom coral' due to its body morphology resembling a mushroom. Skeleton or corallite is 236. Nematocysts are found in : discoid, convex on the upper and concave on the lower (a) Porifera (b) Coelenterata side. It bears short tentacles and is without (c) Nematodes (d) Annelida siphonoglyph. TGT Biology 2003 233. Diploblastic acoelomate condition is found in : Ans. (b) : See the explanation of the above question. (a) earthworm 237. Which one of the following is called "Dead (b) ascaris man's finger?" (c) sea anemone (a) Corallium (b) Alcyonium (d) planaria (c) Physalia (d) Tubipora TGT Biology 2004 UPPCS Pre 2007 Ans. (c) : (i) Diploblastic acoelomatic condition found Ans. (b) : Alcyonium digitatum is 'dead-man's in porifera, coelenterata & ctenophora. fingers' is a species of soft corals in the family Alcyoniidae. It is found around the coasts of the (ii) Triploblastic northern Atlantic ocean and other temperate waters such as the south Pacific. They are soft corals named 234. Triploblastic stage of organisation in the animal for their appendage like appearance when thrown ashore by storms. The finger like clumps or coral kingdom begins from : polyps come in various shades of pink, orange, white, (a) Coelenterata (b) Helminthes grey or yellow. (c) Sponges (d) Annelida UPPCS Pre 1999 238. Which one of the following is non-parasitic animal? Ans. (b) : See the explanation of above question. (a) Mosquito (b) Tapeworm 235.Nematocysts are present in which of the (c) Sea anemone (d) Leech following phylum? TGT Biology 2010 (a) Coelenterata Ans. (c) : Sea anemone is non parasitic. It shows (b) Porifera mutualism with hermit crab. Tapeworm is an (c) Nemathelminthes endoparasite while leech and mosquito are (d) Echinodermata exoparasites. Hence the correct answer is "SeaNavoday Vidyalay PGT Biology 2014 anemone". TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 239. Consider the following statements : Assertion (A) : Alternation of generations occurs in coelenterates. Reason (R) : Sporophytic and gametophytic stages replace each other. (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation (A). (c) (A) is true but (R) is false. (d) (A) is false but (R) is true. UPPCS Pre 2007 Ans. (b) : Alternation of generation may be defined as a phenomenon where by, in the life history of an organism a diploid asexual phase and a haploid sexual phase regularly alternates with each other. This type of true alternation of generation is also called metagenesis. In coelenterates, an asexual polypoid generation appears to alternate regularly with a sexual medusa generation. Both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion. 240. The feeding zooids of Obelia are known as : (a) blastostyles (b) medusa (c) gonangia (d) polyps UPPCS Pre 1999 PGT Biology 2003 Ans. (d) : Cnidarians exhibit dimorphism with polypoid and medusoid stage. Polyps are feeding zooids of Obelia. Blastostyles is the reproductive zooid of colony. The blastostyle bilateral a sexual budding produce the sexual individual called medusa or gonophore. Gonotheca and blastostyle collectively called gonangium. 241. A coral reef lying close to the shore of some volcanic islands is known as : (a) atoll (b) coral island (c) barrier reef (d) fringing reef UPPCS Pre 1998 Ans. (d) : Coral reef are formed by the members of Coelenterata class Anthozoa. Fringing reef lying close to the shore of some volcanic island. A fringing reef may extend out to a distance of a quarter mile from the shore with the most active zone of the coral growth facing the sea. 242. Cnidarians are : (a) acoelomate (b) schizocoelomate (c) enterocoelous coelomate (d) pseudocoelomate UPPCS Pre 1998 UPPCS Pre 2007 Ans. (a) : Cnidarians are the member of the phylum 'Cnidaria' comprises the animals with stinging cells or nematocysts. Cnidarians are acoelomate and diploblastic animals. Cnidarians are radially symmetrical and tissue level of organisation. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

243. Read the following statements and select your answer from the code given below : Assertion (A) : Polymorphism is very common among the hydrozoan coelenterates. Reason (R) : Polymorphism is the outcome of division of labour. Code : (a) both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A. (c) A is true but R is false. (d) A is false but R is true. UPPCS Pre 1999 Ans. (a) : Polymorphism is the characteristic features of hydrozoan coelenterates. Polymorphism is the outcome of division of labour is correct. In biology, polymorphism is a discontinuous genetic variation resulting in the occurence of different forms or types of individuals among the members of a single species. Coelenterates having more than 3 types of individuals are called polymorphic, e.g. - Hydractinia, Gastrozooids for feeding, spiral dactylozooids for protection, long tentaculozooids have sensory function. 244. Which of the following does not belong to Phylum Coelenterata ? (a) Sea pen (b) Sea feather (c) Sea cucumber (d) Sea fan TGT Biology 2003 Ans. (c) : Sea cucumber is an echinoderm from the class Holothuroidea as it has a spiny skin. They are marine animals and have an elongated body with branched gonad. Whereas 'sea pen' or 'sea feather' and 'sea fan' are the coelenterates. Thus, the correct answer is option c. 245. What is a nematocyst ? (a) A complete cell (b) Organ of the body (c) Part of a cell (d) Group of cells TGT Biology 2005 Ans. (c) : Nematocyst is part of the stinging cell called the cnidocyte, that help in capturing the prey and defense. So the correct answer is "Part of a cell". 246. Medusa of Obelia differs from Aurelia in having : (a) gonads (b) Tentacle (c) Rhopalium (d) Tentaculocyst PGT Biology 2013 Ans. (c) : The medusa from the Aurelia has rhopalium which is a light and gravity sensing organ. Rhopalium is absent in the medusa of obelia. Hence, the correct answer is (c) a rhopalium.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf A.

Hydra

247. In which of the following organism budding is commonly found ? (a) Hydra (b) Spirogyra (c) Planaria (d) Amoeba UPPSC Ashram Paddhati 29/09/2021 Ans. (a) : Budding is commonly found in Hydra. It is a genus of small, freshwater organisms of the phylum Cnidaria and class Hydrozoa. Budding is an asexual mode of reproduction in which a new organism is developed from a small part of the parent's body. For reproduction, Hydra uses regenerative cells where a bud expands as an outgrowth because of repeated cell division at one specific location. These buds then developed into new small individuals which when completely matured, detach from the parent body. 248. The green colour of green Hydra is due to : (a) Chlorophyll (b) Haemocyanin (c) Copper sulphate (d) Symbiotic green algae Zoochlorella UPPSC Ashram Paddhati 29/09/2021 Ans. (d) : The green colour of green Hydra is due to symbiotic green algae Zoochlorella. Hydra viridissima is commonly called green hydra. Zoochlorella live inside its tissues in a mutually beneficial relationship. As symbionts, Zoochlorella use carbon dioxide and nitrogenous and phosphorus wastes and, in illuminated conditions, provide oxygen and useful nutrients to Hydra.

Ans. (d) : Planula is the free swimming larva of Hydra. It is a ciliated reciprocally symmetric larval type of different cnidarian species. It is elongated and has distinct anterior and posterior ends but no gastrovascular cavity. The body of planula bears numerous cilia which are used for locomotion. The planula forms either from the fertilized egg of a medusa (in scyphozoans and hydrozoans) or from a polyp (anthozoans). 251. Tentacles of Hydra are : (a) Solid (b) Eight (c) Not for protection (d) All of these Bihar PGT 2019 Ans. (b) : Hydra is small freshwater animal, which is an invertebrate of the Hydrozoa class of the phylum Cnidaria. By using tentacles, it can catch the prey. This animal has some stinging cells on their tentacles, as these are specialized and known as nematocytes. The length of the tentacles are similar to the body length. These tentacles are mostly used as muscular hydrostats. There are 6 to 10 tentacles found in the Hydra. These are variously used for catching prey, touch and more. The correct answer is eight. 252. Gonads in Hydra originate from : (a) ectoderm (b) endoderm (c) mesoderm (d) none of the above UPPCS Pre 2003 Ans. (a) : The gonads in Hydra develop temporarily from the interstitial cell of the epidermis or ectoderm Ectoderm is the outer layer of the gonads, which accumulates to form bulges in the body wall.

249. The formation of gonads in Hydra is stimulated by : (a) Lack of oxygen (b) Abundance of carbon dioxide (c) c-AMP 253. Regeneration in Hydra occurs by : (d) Alanine (a) epimorphosis TGT 07/08/2021 (b) morphogenesis Ans. (b) : In Hydra sexual reproduction starts with the (c) morphallaxis development of temporary structure called gonads, (d) epimorphosis and morphogenesis during autumn month. Actually sexual reproduction UPPCS Pre 1995 occurs during the unfavorable conditions like excessive TGT Biology 2010 high and low temperature of water in which Hydra lives or also due to increase in the amount of free carbon Ans. (c) : Regeneration in Hydra occurs by dioxide in surrounding water. So gonads formation in morphallaxis. If a living Hydra animal is cut into two, three or more pieces, each missing part grows and Hydra is stimulated by abundance of CO2. becomes complete animal. A fragment of Hydra is 250. What is the name of free swimming larva of capable of regenerating an entire individual called Hydra ? morphallaxis. Regeneration is not reproduction (a) Hydrula (b) Parenchymula because it is not a normal method of multiplication. Epimorphosis is based on the growth of new and (c) Stereogastrula (d) Planula patterned structures . e.g.- vertebrate limb. UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 254. The body organisation in Hydra is : Ans. (a) : Poisonous fluid present in nematocyst of Hydra is hypnotoxin. (a) tissue grade (b) organ grade Hydra is a coelenterate organism with (c) cellular grade (d) acellular grade cnidocytes/cnidoblasts that have stinging cells or UPPCS Pre 1996 nematocytes. These nematocytes have a neurotoxin or UPPCS Pre 1997 hypnotoxin that can paralyze its prey. This is made by TGT Biology 2009 the organism during defense or any danger. Penetrant is the largest nematocysts in Hydra produce hypnotoxin. Ans. (a) : The correct body organization grade and 258. Poisonous substance found in nematocysts of phylum are given below : hydra is : Body organization Grade Phylum (b) Haematin (a) Hypnotoxin 1. Acellular grade − Protozoa (c) Heparin (d) Thrombin 2. Cellular grade − Porifera TGT Biology 2010 3. Tissue grade − Hydra (Cnidaria) Ans. (a) : See the explanation of the above question. 4. Organ grade − Platyhelminthes 259. Hypnotoxin is a poisonous substance produced by– Hydra has reached the tissue grade of organization, but it lacks organs. It consist of a tube about 5 mm (a) Parasitic protozoa (b) Sponges long formed by two epithelial layers (endoderm and (c) Ascaris (d) Nematocyst ectoderm). It has a head consisting of a mouth TGT Biology 2002 surrounded by a ring of tentacles at one end and an Ans. (d) : The nemotocysts in Hydra is filled up with a adherent disk, the foot, at the other end. poisonous fluid, known as hypnotoxin which is protein 255. Glutathione is secreted by : in nature. Penetrant is the largest nematocysts in Hydra produce hypnotoxin. (a) Hydra (b) Daphnia 260. Which of the following animals has a nervous (c) Paramoecium (d) Sycon system but no brain ? UPPCS Pre 2001 (a) Amoeba (b) Hydra Ans. (b) : Hydra is the most primitive organism (c) Cockroach (d) Eathworm which have the nervous system and have sensors TGT Biology 2009 which can detect the presence of their prey. When the Ans. (b) : The nervous system is absent in Porifera. In prey moves, this causes the activation of the stinging coelenterates, nerve cells are present but not organised cells. These cells release mechanosensory discharge into a nervous system. In Hydrozoan, cnidarians like called the nematocysts which gets inserted into the Hydra, nerve cell associate to form a nerve net but a prey. The injured prey release glutathione in the fluid. well-organised brain is absent. The glutathione can be detected by the sensors present 261. Hydra can digest all types of food except in the mouth region of Hydra. This detection cause the tentacles to hold the prey and bring it towards the (a) fats (b) starches mouth. Daphnia is the prey of hydra, so glutathione is (c) sugars (d) proteins secreted by Daphnia. TGT Biology 2004 256. The gastrula of Hydra is known as Ans. (b) : Hydra can digest proteins, fats, and some stereogastrula because it is : carbohydrates, but it does not digest starch because they lack salivary amylase and pancreatic amylase. So (a) encapsulated (b) 2-layered the correct answer is "Starch". (c) hollow (d) solid UPPCS Pre 2005 262. Which cells in Hydra are called Embryonic reserve– Ans. (d) : In Hydra, after fertilization, the zygote (a) Epithelio muscular cells undergoes complete cleavage and a hollow blastula is (b) Interstitial cells formed which changes into a solid stereogastrula (c) Gland cells whose ectodermal cells acquire cilia. This stereogastrula changes into free-swimming planula (d) Glandulo-muscular cells (larva). TGT Biology 2002 Planula attaches itself to the hard substrata and Ans. (b) : The interstitial cells of Hydra form a transforms into the young Hydra through multipotent stem cell system, producing terminally metamorphosis. differentiated nerve cell and nematocytes during 257. Poisonous fluid present in nematocyst of Hydra is. asexual growth. Under well-fed conditions the interstitial cell population doubles in size every 4 days. (a) Hypnotoxin (b) Haematin Nerve cells are normally found in highest (c) Haemozoin (d) Agglutinogen concentrations in the head region of Hydra, while TGT Biology 2013 interstitial cells are primarily located in the body GIC Biology 15/09/2015 column. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 263. Axons of Hydra are : (a) naked (b) encircled by Schwann cells once (c) encircled by Schwann cells twice (d) encircled by Schwann cells several times GIC Biology 15.09.2015 Ans. (a) : In Hydra the nerve is naked. Just outside the muscular layer there is a nerve net madeup of non polarized nerve cell and their nutrients in the depth of the epidermis. There are many depolarized nerve cells just inside the muscle layer, in which the central system or brain is absent for control. Generally, one or two thin, naked axons extend laterally from the perikaryon into the nerve net region above the myonemes of the large epitheliomuscular cells.

B.

266. Rhopalium of Aurelia is also called as : (a) Nematocyst (b) Tentaculocyst (c) Lappets (d) Indentations TGT 07/08/2021 Ans. (b) : Rhopalium of Aurelia is also called as tentaculocyst. Aurelia possesses sensory organs that allow them to detect light, chemicals and touch.The margin of the umbrella portion of the jelly fish consist of tentaculocysts or hollow tentacles. Sense organ of Aurelia are eight rhopalia, situated one in each of the per and interradial marginal notches. Each rhopalium comprises tentaculocyst or statocyst, two ocelli and two olfactory pits. Tentaculocysts control the equilibrium of umbrella during swimming.

Aurelia

264. In Aurelia the exhalent water current returns through : (a) Per-radial and inter-radial (b) Per-radial and adradii (c) Per-radial and ring canal (d) Inter-radial and adradii 267. In Aurelia, rhopalium is a complex structure of: TGT (2016) 31/07/2021 (a) two sense organs Ans. (a) : Aurelia is most common largest jelly fishes. (b) three sense organs It occurs in the warm and temperate seas and lives in (c) four sense organs coastal waters singly or in large schooling fish. In (d) five sense organs Aurelia the exhalent water current returns through perradial and inter-radial. There are 4 major body axis UPPCS Pre 2007 known as perradii. The 4 interradii are placed exactly Ans. (c) : In Aurelia, the rhopalium is a complex midway between two perradii. Between each perradii structure of four sensory organs attached to the and interradii there is adradii. Perradii, interradii and tentaculocyte. Each rhopalium contains a statocyst for adradii together form the radial canals which originate gravity detection, mechanoreceptors, chemoreceptors from the gastric pouches and join the circular or ring and an ocellus for photoreception. canal. The inhalant water enters through mouth into the 268. Ephyra larva is found in the life cycle of : gastric pouches and then into the circular canal through (a) Aurelia (b) Obelia the adradial canal system. From the circular canal, the exhalent water returns through perradial and interradial (c) Physalia (d) Adamsia canals into the stomach. UPPCS Pre 1998 265. Velarium of Aurelia is : Ans. (a) : Aurelia is a coelenterate commonly known (a) a part of the true velum as 'Jelly Fish'. Larva are found in Aurelia as– (b) like a true velum of hydrozoan medusa and Planula → Scyphistoma → Hydratuba → Ephyra does not contain endodermal cells Planula larva found in life cycle of Obelia. (c) unlike true velum of hydrozoan medusa, it 269. Ephyra is the free swimming larva of : contains endodermal cells. (a) Anopheles (b) Culex (d) non of the above (c) Aurelia (d) Unio UPPCS Pre 2006 UPPCS Pre 1999 Ans. (c) : Unlike true velum of Hydrozoan medusa, Ans. (c) : Ephyra is the free swimming larva of Aurelia contains endodermal cells. Aurelia or jelly fish. Velarium of Aurelia is unlike true velum called Ephyra has three larval stage as pseudovelum. It contain endodermal cell medusa with Planula → Scyphistoma →Hydratuba→Ephyra pseudovelum called a craspedote. It is a pseudovelum Obelia has one larval stage that is planula. unlike a true velum of Hydrozoan. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 270. Number of radial canals in Aurelia aurita is : (a) four (b) eight (c) sixteen (d) thirty two UPPCS Pre 2009 UPPCS Pre 2010 Ans. (c) : At the four corner of the mouth are four perradial canals situated at right angle to each other, four inter-radial canals are present in between the per-radial canals. There eight canals are much branched and they end at the marginal lappets. The system comprises a ring canal, in the margin of the bell and a set of 16 radial canals that extend from stomach to the ring canal.

274. The coenosarcs of Obelia is : (a) Tubular and non-living (b) Tubular and living (c) Rod like and non-living (d) Rod like and living TGT (2016) 31/07/2021 Ans. (b) : The Obelia genus belong to the invertebrates marine animals and can be found in all the oceans of planet earth. Obelia common name is 'sea fur'. Obelia belongs to the animal kingdom within the Hydrozoa class and has many species. The colony of Obelia contains living tissue called coenosarc or coenenchyme. The blastostyles, polyps, and their tubular connections 271. Ephyra larva is found in the life cycle of : are made up of ectoderm, mesoglea, and endoderm. All (a) Aurelia (b) Obelia these layers are together referred to as coenosarc. (c) Physalia (d) Adamsia Obelia colonies can have different colours ranging from TGT Biology 2010 cream to light brown. Ans. (a) : The Aurelia life cycle consists of an ephyra larva which is an immature medusa stage. This arises from the metamorphosis of a scyphistoma or the fixed polyp-like stage in the life cycle of a Jellyfish, which reproduces asexually by budding (strobilation). After this process, the ephyra swims off and detaches away. A single polyp may produce one or more ephyra at a time depending on the species. So the correct answer is "Aurelia".

C.

Obelia

272. The growth of Obelia colony is of_____ type ? (a) bipodal (b) biramous (c) sympodial (d) racemose UP PGT 17/08/2021 Ans. (c) : The growth of Obelia colony is of sympodial type. Obelia is widely distributed across the world. They occur both in sexual and asexual forms and grow in the rock pools at extreme low water of the tides. They contain branching stems which are called hydrocaulus and root-like branches which are called hydrorhiza. 275. Perisarc of obelia is : Each hydrocauli branches alternatively. The main (a) Chitin layer secreted by ectoderm branch terminates into a nutritive zooid which is called (b) Ectodermal cell layer the polyp. (c) Ectoderm, mesoglea and endoderm together 273. In Obelia colony which of the following is not (d) Endoderm covered by perisarc ? RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) (a) Hydranth (b) Blastostyle Ans. (a) : Perisarc of obelia is chitin layer secreted by (c) Medusa (d) Coenosarc ectoderm. Obelia is a sedentary, colonial, marine TGT 07/08/2021 cnidarian which grows upright in a branching tree-like Ans. (c) : In Obelia colony, medusa is not covered by form and has several specialized feeding and perisarc. Medusa are Jellyfish. The Obelia medusa reproductive polyps. Entire colony of obelia is swim freely and reproduce sexually by releasing either surrounded by perisarc. It is non-cellular, tough, eggs or sperm into the water. Both polyp and medusa transparent, yellowish-brown and cuticular in nature. It stages are present in Obelia life cycle. The entire makes the vertical part of the colony firm and rigid. colony is covered by a tough, yellow chitin secreted by Perisarc is separated from the coenosarc by a thin fluidthe ectoderm, this covering is known as perisarc. filled space. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 279. Consider the following statements : 276. Obelian medusa is a : Assertion (A) : The expression 'Alternation of (a) Detritus feeder (b) Omnivorous generations' in the life history of Obelia uses the (c) Carnivorous (d) Herbivorous word "metagenesis" in a very special sense. Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2015 Reason (R) : In the ordinary sense, a generation of RPSC School Lecturer (23/07/2016) Obelia would mean one life cycle. Ans. (c) : Obelia exhibits alternation of sexual and Select the correct answer using codes given below: asexual stages. The nutritive asexual polyp feeds upon Code : aquatic crustaceans and worms and is carnivorous. The (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct sexual reproductive free swimming medusa is also explanation of A. carnivore and feeds on planktons. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct So the answer is "Carnivorous". explanation of A. 277. Which of the following is not correctly matched? (c) A is true but R is false (a) Unsegmented pseudocoelomate animal– (d) A is false but R is true Nematoda UPPCS Pre 2003 (b) Unsegmented acoelomate animal– Ans. (c) : The expression alternation of generation in Platyhelminthes the life history of Obelia use the word metagenesis in (c) Metameric coelomate animal–Annelida a very special sense is true. In the ordinary sense, a (d) Metameric haemocoelomate animal–Mollusca generation of Obelia would mean one life cycle is UP LT 2018 false. So A is true but R is false. 280. A different kind of alternation of generation Ans. (d) : The correct matching is as follows – called metagenesis occurs in one of the following : Unsegmented pseudo coelomate animal – Nematoda. (a) Hydra (b) Aurelia Unsegmented acoelomate animal – Platyhelminthes (c) Obelia (d) Metridium Metameric coelomate animal – Annelida UPPCS Pre 2002 Animal mollusca estimate, their soft body is not Ans. (c) : Metagenesis occur in Obelia. There is fixed segmented. 278. Regarding metagenesis in Obelia, which one of hydroid and free swimming medusoid phase both are diploid while in the true alternation of generation the following is not correctly matched? there is a diploid asexual phase and a haploid sexual (a) Gonangium - haploid stage phase regularly alternate with each other. (b) Planula - sexual stage 281. Which one of the following is not correctly (c) medusa - diploid stage matched : (d) hydranth - sexual stage (a) Ctenophora - planula larva UPPCS Pre 2005 (b) Cnidaria - mesoglea UPPCS Pre 2006 (c) Ctenophora - nematocyst PGT Biology 2009 (d) Cnidaria - gastrovascular cavity UPPCS Pre 1999 Ans. (d) : Obelia colony contain two type of zooid (1) polyp or hydranth (2) medusa Ans. (a) : Obelia is a coelenterata. (a) Gonangia → Gonotheca with gonophore Which commonly called 'sea fur'. and blastostyle called Planula larva is the larva of Obelia. gonangium. It is haploid stage. Cnidaria – mesoglea (b) Planula → It is a larval stage of medusa. Ctenophora – nematocyst Medusa reproduce sexually by Cnidaria – gastrovascular cavity producing male and female gamete. 282. Medusa of Obelia is formed from : (a) hydrocaulus (b) hydranth (c) Medusa → A diploid stage. The blastocyst by lateral asexual budding (c) hydrorhiza (d) blastostyle produce sexual UPPCS Pre 2010 individual called medusa. Ans. (d) : Medusa in Obelia is formed from the (d) Hydranth → It is known by second name blastostyle by asexual budding. It is a small umbrella or called polyp. It is a nutritive bell - like structure, its outer surface of exumbrella and zooid of the colony. It is the concave surface subumbrella. The blastostyles are formed by three structure, the reproductive zooids as they reproduce asexually to mouth, hypostome and give rise to numerous lateral buds called medusa buds hydrotheca. or gonophores. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 283. 'Metagenesis' is observed in members of class : (a) Hydrozoa (b) Scyphozoan (c) Anthozoa (d) All of these TGT Biology 2011 Ans. (a) : Metagenesis is observed in members of class of Hydrozoa, the sedentary hydroid colony alternates with the pelagic medusa phase. Hydroid colony reproduces by asexual budding from medusa phase. Hydroid colony reproduces by asexual budding from blastostyle but they are free swimming sexual forms that carry ova and sperm in four gonads and disperse them in water far and wide. Such alternation of generation in which the asexual polypoid generation appears to alternate regularly with the sexual medusoid generation but both forms are diploid is called metagenesis. 284. Statocysts are found in : (a) Earthworm (b) Cockroach (c) Obelia (d) Paramecium TGT Biology 1999 Ans. (c) : A statocyst is a tiny, circular, closed vesicle lined with ectoderm and filled with certain granules. This lining has sensory cells that can transmit signals from nerve to muscle of the medusa in Obelia. It is a balance sensory receptors in some aquatic invertebrates, including bivalves, cnidarians, ctenophorans, echinoderms, cephalopods and crustaceans.

Ans. (b) : The free-swimming planula stage of Obelia helps in the dispersal of the species. The life history can be represented as male and female gametes → Zygote → Planula larva → hydrula → colony → sexual medusae → gametes → Zygote and so on. Fertilization usually takes place in open sea water and here the gametes are set free. Sometimes, the sperms are carried into the female medusae with water currents and they fertilize the eggs in situ. However, the parent medusae die soon after liberating their respective gametes. 287. Statocyst is the organ of : (a) defence (b) attack (c) balance (d) chemo-reception PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (c) : Statocyst is a balancing sensory organ present in some aquatic invertebrates, including molluscs, cnidarians, echinoderms, cephalopods, crustacean. The cell of statocyst contains statoliths. It also helps in rising to the surface of the water or sinking. Thus, the correct answer is "balance".

288. Sensory cell of Obelia is : (a) Pinacocyte (b) Choanocyte (c) Collencyte (d) Lithocyte PGT Biology 2005 Ans. (d) : Lithocyte is the sensory cell of Obelia. It 285. Metagenesis occurs in : secretes round particles of calcium carbonate called (a) Hydra (b) Obelia statoliths. Sensory cells that can transmit signals from (c) Aurelia (d) Tubipora nerve to muscle of the medusa in Obelia. UPPCS Pre 2000 Statolith is helpful for swimming. PGT Biology 2013 289. Planula is a larval stage of : Ans. (b) : Life history of Obelia includes both asexual (a) Obelia (b) Taenia and sexual generation that alternates with each other to (c) Ascaris (d) Pheretima complete the life cycle. The sedentary hydroid colony Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2013 alternates with the pelagic medusa phase. Hydroid colony reproduces by asexual budding to produce Ans. (a) : Planula is the ciliated bilaterally symmetrical, hydranths and blastostyles. Medusae are also produced flattened, free swimming larva of organism in the by budding from blastostyle but they are free phylum cnidaria, Obelia also belongs to this phylum. swimming sexual forms that carry ova and sperms in The free-swimming planula stage of Obelia helps in the four gonads and disperse them in water far and wide. dispersal of the species. The life history can be represented Such alternation of generation in which the asexual polypoid generation appears to alternate regularly with as male and female gametes → Zygote → Planula larva → the sexual medusoid generation but both forms are hydrula → colony → sexual medusae → gametes → diploid, is called metagenesis. In true alternation of Zygote and so on. generation one of the stages in life cycle is haploid, whereas in metagenesis both stages are diploid. D. Polymorphism in Cnidarians So the correct answer is "Obelia". 286. Planula larva occurs in the life cycle of : 290. Of the following, which group of coelenterates (a) Hydra shows maximum polymorphism? (b) Obelia (a) Chondrophora (b) Siphonophora (c) Comb jellies (c) Hydroida (d) Gorgonacea (d) Echinococcus UPPCS Pre 2008 PGT Biology 2011 UPPCS Pre 2003 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (b) : Siphonophora are very polymorph members of the cnidarian superclass-Hydrozoa. The fully developed siphonophora is organised as a colony, made up of highly modified medusae and polyps. The members of cnidaria have life cycle that alternate between two forms - asexual polyps (generally sessile, with the body or a vase - shaped forms) which are nutritive in function and sexual free-swimming forms called medusae (the body in a bell - shaped form), which are reproductive in function. 291. Polymorphic animal is : (a) Hydractinia (b) Hydra (c) Tubipora (d) Metridium PGT Biology 2009 Ans. (a) : Polymorphism is an important feature of phylum Coelenterata, some coelenterate have more than three forms called polymorphism. In Hydractinia, five polymorphic forms or zooids exist- gastrozooid, spiral dactylozooids, tentaculozooids, skeletozooids and gonozooids Gastrozooids- responsible for feeding. Spiral dactylozooids – responsible for protection. Tentaculozooids - responsible for sensory impulse. Skeletozooids - reponsible for spiny projections. Gonozooids - responsible for sexual reproduction. 292. Polymorphism is seen in : (a) Coelenterata (b) Annelida (c) Arthropoda (d) Echinodermata

294. Biradial animal which bears lasso cells A - Beroe, B - Hydra, C - Ctenoplana, D - Sea Anemone (a) A and D (b) A and B (c) A and C (d) B and D RPSC School Lecturer 2011 Ans. (c) : Ctenophora is a phylum of animals that live in marine waters. They bears lasso cells which are kind of defensive and offensive stinging cells. The Beroe & ctenoplana is a genus of ctenophora.

295. “Sea Walnuts” belong to phylum(a) Coelenterate (b) Ctenophora (c) Sponges (d) Hemichordata UPPCS Pre 1997 PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (a) : Species of more than one type of individual Ans. (b) : Ctenophora is a phylum including the or zooid is known as polymorphism found in animals that live in marine waters world wide. Their coelenterata, absent in other. eg. Physalia. (Portuguese most distinctive feature is the combs group of cilia, man of war). which they use for swimming. They are the largest animals that swim by the means of cilia. Sea walnuts belongs to the phylum ctenophora. 4. Ctenophora

293. Lasso cells are present in(a) Coelenterata (b) Ctenophora (c) Porifera (d) Protozoa GIC 19/09/2021 Ans. (b) : Lasso cell are present in Ctenophora. These are special type of stinging cells embedded in the tentacles of the organism. These cells are filled with fluid and contain a thread coiled up within. The thread penetrates the body of other animals and a poison is released which paralyzes and kills the organism. Lasso cell are also known as colloblasts and similar to cnidocytes of cnidarians. [Note ;– Commission, has given the answer of this question, (a).] TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

5.

Platyhelminthes

296. Schistosoma is commonly called : (a) Liver fluke (b) Dog tape worm (c) Blood fluke (d) Sheep fluke PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (c) : Schistosomiasis is an acute and chronic parasitic disease caused by blood flukes (trematode worms) of the genus Schistosoma. Schistosomiasis also known as snail fever, Bilharzia and Katayama fever is a disease caused by parasitic flatworms. The urinary tract or the intestines may be infected, symptoms include abdominal pain, diarrhoea, bloody stool or blood in the urine.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 297. Which one of the following shows the phenomenon of autotomy : (a) locust (b) wasps (c) crabs (d) planaria UPPCS Pre 1997 Ans. (d) : Autotomy is regeneration occur in planaria, these body part detached or separated but it occurs at the particular region of body it is specialized cells in body. Autotomy also occurs in star fish (Asterias). 298. Which one of the feature is not seen in turbellarians : (a) Ciliated epidermis (b) Generally bisexual (c) Rounded body (d) Regenerative capacity UPPCS Pre 1996 Ans. (c) : Class-Turbellarian include Dugesia. Body is flat so called flatworm. It is generally Bisexual animal. Ciliated epidermis, regenerative Capacity found in it. There is true bilateral symmetry and dorso-ventral flattening of the body. 299. Alimentary canal is absent in : (a) Nematoda (b) Cestoda (c) Trematoda (d) Turbellaria UPPCS Pre 1998 Ans. (b) : Cestoda is a class of phylumPlatyhelminthes including flat worm e.g. Taenia, Parasite of small intestine of human. The digested food in the small intestine of human is the chief source of nourishment for the tapeworm. Suck through the general body surface by diffusion. So, alimentary canal absent in Cestoda. 300. Which one of the following is correctly matched : (a) Taenia - Trematoda (b) Echinococcus - Turbellaria (c) Schistosoma - Trematoda (d) Planaria - Cestoda UPPCS Pre 1998 Ans. (c) : Schistosoma is known as human blood fluke including in the class trematoda. Schistosoma is a digenetic parasite. Primary host is man and secondary host is snail. Taenia and Echinococcus belongs to class cestoda and Planaria belongs to class turbellaria. 301. Which of these is a character of platyhelminthes? (a) Radial Symmetry (b) Triploblastic (c) Metameric segmentation (d) All of these PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (b) : The platyhelminthes is considered as triploblastic because it has body tissues which derived from three germ layers and they are endoderm, ectoderm and mesoderm which are found in all multicellular organisms except in sponges and cnidarians. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

302. Flame cells are main excretory structures of : (a) Coelenterates (b) Platyhelminthes (c) Annelida (d) Echinodermata GIC Biology 15.09.2015 Ans. (b) : A flame cell is specialized excretory cell found in the simplest freshwater invertebrates, including platyhelminthes. Flame Cell function like a kidney and remove waste materials. Bundles of flame cell are called protonephridia. Flame cells function on the basis of filtration and reabsorption. So option B is correct.

303. Mesodermal tissue filling up the space between various organs in flatworm is : (a) parenchyma (b) sclerenchyma (c) botryoidal (d) moroglea UPPCS Pre 1995 Ans. (a) : Mesodermal tissue filling up the space between various organs in flatworm called parenchyma. Botryoidal tissue found in Hirudinaria (leech). In platyhelminthes, the mesoderm forms a type of connective tissue called parenchyma which fills the body spaces and separates internal organs from the body wall. 304. Absence of anus in flatworms is a : (a) primary acquisition (b) secondary acquisition (c) specialisation (d) degeneration UPPCS Pre 1999 Ans. (c) : Absence of anus in flatworm is a parasitic specialisation. In flat worm excretion occurs through flame cell or solenocytes or protonephridia. In flatworms, alimentary canal is incomplete and has a single mouth which leads into the blind gut and it has no anus. 305. The tapeworm absorbs food through : (a) sucker (b) hooks (c) rostellum (d) general surface UPPCS Pre 1999 Ans. (d) : The tapeworm absorbs food through general body surface, because alimentary canal is totally absent in tapeworm. It sits inside the host intestine absorbing nutrients through its body wall, utilizing both host enzymes and its own enzymes in its own surface membrane.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 306. Flame cells are : (a) reproductive (c) sensory

(b) excretory (d) inflammatory UPPCS Pre 1998 PGT Biology 2017 Ans. (b) : A Flame cells is a specialized excretory cell found in the simple freshwater invertebrates, including flat worms, rotifers and nemerteans. Flame cells functions like a kidney and remove waste materials. Bundle of flame cells are called protonephridia. Flame cell function on the basis of filtration and reabsorption. 307. In which parasitic class, the snail is definitely one of the intermediate hosts : (a) Monogenea (b) Cestoda (c) Digenea (d) Trematoda UPPCS Pre 1998 Ans. (d) : Trematoda is a parasitic class of phylumPlatyhelminthes. Animal commonly called 'flukes'. Flukes are endoparasite suck blood from host. e.g. Fasciola, Schistosoma etc. Fasciola and Schistosoma both are digenetic endoparasite. The primary host of Fasciola is sheep and secondary host is snail. The primary host of Schistosoma is man and secondary host is snail. Thus, snail is definitely one of the intermediate hosts of class trematoda. 308. Which of the following statement is correct about shell-gland? (a) A shell gland is also called accessory female gland in Fasciola hepatica. (b) A shell gland is a renal organ and modified coelom duct in crustacea. (c) A shell gland is molluscan organs (d) All the above. UPPCS Pre 2005 Ans. (d) : A looped tubular excretory organ of an entomostracan or the young of many other Crustaceans that ends blindly at one extremity and opens to the exterior on or near the second maxilla. Glandular organ in the embryo of many mollusca that secretes the embryonic shell. * A shell gland is also called accessory female gland in Fasciola hepatica. * Shell glands a renal organ and modified coelom duct in crustacea. * A shell gland is molluscan organs.

Ans. (c) : Digestive system is completely absent in Cestodes, this phylum is the animal of Platyhelminthes and all of them are parasitic. These are commonly called tapeworms. In these, alimentary canal is absent for example in Taenia solium, flame cell are found for excretion.

A.

Fasciola and Taenia

310. Sporocyst is the larva of : (a) Sycon (b) Taenia (c) Liver fluke (d) Ascaris UPPSC Ashram Paddhati 29/09/2021 Ans. (c) : Sporocyst is the larva of liver fluke. The liver fluke is a parasite found in the bile ducts and the liver. It is also known as Fasciola hepatica. Miracidium is a free-swimming ciliated larval stage. Sporocyst develops from miracidium. Sporocyst will produce an elongated sac known as rediae. Rediae further form cercaria. The motile cercaria finds and settles in a host where it will become either an adult, or a metacercaria.

311. Of the following which larval stage of Fasciola does not produces several larvae? (a) Sporocyst (b) Secondary redia (c) Primary redia (d) Cercaria TGT (2016) 31/07/2021 Ans. (d) : The larval stage of Fasciola cercaria does not produces several larvae. The larval stage of Fasciola hepatica is a miracidium - cercaria - metacercaria rediae-Sporocysts. Cercaria stage is formed within the intermediate host. The Rediae develop into cercaria by forming well developed penetration glands and a tall cercaria larvae that are encysted are known as 309. Digestive system is completely absent in : metacercaria. They are found in a resting stage on aquatic (a) trematodes (b) nematodes vegetation. When the infected aquatic vegetation is (c) cestodes (d) all of the above consumed by the primary or definitive hosts like humans PGT Biology 2013 or cattle or sheep, they are in turn infected. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 312. Which of the animal does not have an alimentary canal ? (a) Fasciola (b) Ascaris (c) Ancylostoma (d) Taenia TGT (2016) 31/07/2021 Ans. (d) : The alimentary canal is absent in Taenia solium. So its mode of nutrition is saprozoic, i.e., it absorbs digested liquid food from the intestine of the host through its general body surface. In fact, the digested nutrients like glucose, amino acids, glycerol etc, from the host's intestine which diffuse directly through its body surface. 313. Of the following which cestode is protandrously hermaphrodite : (a) Diphyllobothrium (b) Dipylidium (c) Taenia (d) Echinococcus UP PGT 17/08/2021 Ans. (c) : Taenia is protandrously hermaphrodite. Protandrous is a condition where the male organs become mature first as compared to a female organs. The tapeworm are self-fertile as well as hermaphrodite. It prevents self-fertilization. It is also resulted from a limited space of proglottids for developing the hermaphroditic genital apparatus. 314. How is it that, Taenia escapes digestion by the enzymes of the host, it is due to the presence of: (a) acid mucopolysaccharides (b) alkaline mucopolysaccharides (c) acid lipopolysaccharides (d) alkaline lipopolysaccharides UP PGT 17/08/2021 Ans. (b) : Taenia escapes digestion by the enzymes of the host due to the presence of alkaline mucopolysaccharides. Taenia is the type of genus of the Taeniidae family of tapeworms. Tapeworms or cestodes are a class of flat parasite worms that usually have several hosts during their life cycle. Due to their parasitic mode of life these worms completely lost their digestive apparatus but have a well-developed reproductive system and special organs that help them attach to the host's tissues. 315. Fasciola attaches to liver by : (a) Four suckers (b) Two suckers (c) One sucker (d) Hooks only TGT 07/08/2021 Ans. (b) : Fasciola hepatica, also known as the common liver fluke or sheep liver fluke, is a parasitic trematode of the class-Trematoda, phylum-Platyhelminthes. They are dorsoventrally flattened, the tegument is covered with scaly spines, and they have two suckers (distome arrangement) with the oral sucker and acetabulum close together. 316. Life cycle of Taenia is : (a) Monogenetic (b) Digenetic (c) Polygenetic (d) Hexagenic TGT 07/08/2021 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (b) : Digenetic life cycle have two stage of multiplication. One sexual in the mature forms, the other asexual in the larval stages. Taenia solium, Fasciola hepatica and Taenia saginata all have digenetic life cycles. 317. Which of the following is not a part of female reproductive tract of Taenia? (a) Ootype (b) Vagina (c) Uterus (d) Cirrus sac RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) Ans. (d) : Cirrus sac is not a part of female reproductive tract of Taenia. It is the tentacular process or growth on each of the feet (Parapodia), either the dorsal cirrus or the ventral cirrus, and has nothing to do with reproduction. ⇒ Ovary is a bilobed organ situated ventrally in the posterior part of proglottid. ⇒ Ootype is spherical bulb-like structure situated at the junction of oviduct, uterus and vitelline duct. ⇒ Vagina originates from the female genital pore located behind the male genital pore in genital atrium. ⇒ Uterus is a blind sac-like structure originating from the ootype and extending towards the anterior side of proglottid. 318. Taenia solium belongs to the class: (a) Trematoda (b) Nematoda (c) Turbellaria (d) Cestoda UK SSSC L.T. (21/01/2018) Ans. (d) : Taenia solium belongs to the class Cestoda. It is also known as the pork tapeworm. It is a zoonotic tapeworm, with pigs as intermediate hosts and humans as definitive host. It may be transmitted to pigs through human feces, and back to humans through consumption of uncooked pork that contains tapeworm cysts. ⇒ Cestoda is a class of the phylum platyhelminthes comprising the tapeworms and including dorsoventrally flattened parasitic usually segmented flatworms. 319. Which of the following parasites has no intermediate host? (a) Tapeworm (b) Ascaris (c) Liver fluke (d) Malarial parasite UP LT 2018 Ans. (b) : An Intermediate host is a host that harbours a parasite that primarily grows, but not to the point of reaching sexual maturity. Ascaris doesn't have an intermediary host and completes its life cycle in a single host i.e. humans. The intermediate host in the case of tapeworm may be fish, pork, beef etc. The intermediate host in the case of liver fluke is a mud snail. The intermediate host in the case of plasmodium is the female Anopheles mosquito. So, the correct answer is "Ascaris". 320. Fasciola hepatica occurs in : (a) Bile duct of Man (b) Liver of Sheep (c) Liver of Man (d) None of these Bihar PGT 2019

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (b) : Fasciola hepatica is known as the common 322. Taenia takes food through : liver fluke, the organism is also called as the sheep liver (a) Mouth (b) Suckers fluke. This organism is also called as the sheep liver (c) Body wall (d) Suckers and mouth fluke because sheep acts as one of the host. UPPCS Pre 1994 The organism is a parasitic trematode. They belong to Ans. (c) : Taenia solium lacks a digestive system, the class trematoda and phylum platyhelminthes. The alimentary canal is absent, therefore, nutrition is fluke infects the liver of humans and other mammals. saprozoic. It takes digested food from the intestine of This disease or the infection which is caused is known the host through its general body surface. as fasciolopsis. They are commonly known to cause 323. Which larval stage is absent in life cycle of parasitic infections in sheep and cattles. Schistosoma : (a) redia (b) cercaria (c) miracidium (d) sporocyst PGT Biology 2013 Ans. (a) : Blood flukes form five different developmental stages, which are eggs, miracidia, sporocyst, cercariae and adult worms. Schistosoma do not produce redia stage instead the sporocysts produce cercariae which are released into the water after infection. 324. Which of these is not a larva of Fasciola hepatica? (a) Sporocyst (b) Hexacanth 321. The function of Laurer's canal in Fasciola (c) Redia (d) Miracidium hepatica is : PGT Biology 2011 (a) excretion Ans. (b) : Hexacanth is not a larva of Fasciola hepatica. (b) secretion of mucus Hexacanth, larvae of Taenia solium, pass into the (c) act as copulatory passage intestine and attach to mucous layer of intestine with the (d) egestion help of its hooks, penetrate the intestinal wall with the UPPCS Pre 2006 help of the substances secreted by the penetration UPPCS Pre 2007 glands. Fasciola hepatica (this species cause hepatic fibrosis in Ans. (c) : The function of Laurer's canal in Fasciola ruminant and humans) parasite morphology. These hepatica is cross fertilization and act as a copulatory flatworms form seven different development stages, passage. The inverted cirrus of one fluke penetrate the eggs, miracidia, sporocysts, redia, cercariae, Laurer canal of other fluke. Excretion take place by metacercaria and adult flukes. protonephridia and flame cells. Laurer canal not associated with mucus secretion by flame cells. 325. Taenia saginata differs from Taenia solium as it lacks. (a) Rostellum (b) Suckers (c) Scolex (d) None of these TGT Biology 2013 Ans. (a) : Taenia saginata is commonly called beef tapeworm. The scolex of Taenia saginata has four large suckers but lacks rostellum and rostellar hooks. Taenia solium has rostellum. A rostellum is a knob-like projection present at the anterior end of a tapeworm, as an extension. The scolex region of Taenia solium consists of four large suckers and a rostellum containing two rows of large and small hooks. 326. Taenia takes its food only through : (a) Mouth (b) Suckers (c) Body wall (d) Suckers and mouth both TGT Biology 2010 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (c) : Taenia takes its food only through the body wall. Tapeworms get into the body when a person eats or drinks something that's infected with a worm or its eggs. Once inside the body, the tapeworm head attaches to the inner wall of the intestine. The tapeworm feed on the food, that the host is digesting. 327. Taenia takes food through : (a) mouth (b) sucker (c) anus (d) body wall UPPCS Pre 2010 Ans. (d) : Taenia takes food through body wall. Tape worms come under cestoda and are a class of parasitic flatworms. They anchor to the host's intestinal wall and once they anchor the tapeworm absorb nutrients through its body wall as the food being digested by the host flows over and around it. It has the capability to absorb the nutrients from the blood of the host. 328. Bladder worm is a larva of : (a) Obelia (b) Silkmoth (c) Taenia (d) Nereis UPPCS Pre 1997 TGT Biology 2009, PGT 2003 Ans. (c) : Cysticercus is the scientific name given to the larva of tapeworms belonging to the genus Taenia. It is small, sac-like vesicle resembling a bladder. So, it also known as bladder worm. It normally develops from the eggs, which are ingested by the intermediate host such as pigs and cattle. The tissue infection is called cysticercosis. Inside such hosts, they settle in the muscles. When humans eat raw or undercooked Pork or beef that is contaminated with cysticerci, the larvae grow into adult worms inside the intestine. 329. Bladder worm is a : (a) Larva of silkmoth (b) Larva of Taenia (c) Common name of Ascaris (d) Urine containing sac UPPCS Pre 1996 Ans. (b) : Bladder worm larva called cysticercus larva found in tapeworm (Taenia solium). Pig flesh have cysticercus larva called Measly pork. The larva of silk moth called caterpillar. 330. Bladder worm is the larva of : (a) tapeworm (b) snail (c) insect (d) echinoderm UPPCS Pre 1995 Ans. (a) : Bladderworm is the larva of tapeworm– present in muscles of pigs. Bipinnaria and Dipleurula larva present in the life history of starfish echinodermal animal. 331. In Fasciola hepatica, the secretion of Mehlis glands is to : (a) lubricate the uterus (b) harden the capsule (c) activate the sperms (d) do all of the above works UPPCS Pre 2007 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (d) : Mehlis gland is unicellular gland. Mehlis gland secretes lubricant material which lubricate the passage of egg in uterus and hardens the egg and also activate the sperm. It is also called shell gland and it is a part of the female reproductive organ of Platyhelminthes. 332. Mehlis gland in liver fluke help in : (a) reproduction (b) digestion (c) excretion (d) respiration UPPCS Pre 1995 Ans. (a) : Mehlis gland associated with reproduction. See the explanation of the above question. 333. Osmotrophy is found in : (a) Asterias (b) Palaemon (c) Pila (d) Taenia UPPCS Pre 2000 PGT Biology 2003 Ans. (d) : Osmotrophy is a process of taking food from hosts through diffusion method. It is found in Taenia, because Taenia is an endoparasite of human small intestine and takes digested food through body surface by this method. 334. Apolysis is the process of : (a) cellular digestion (b) destruction in of phagocytes (c) separation of gravid proglottid from main body (d) development of unfertilised egg UPPCS Pre 2002 UPPCS Pre 2008 Ans. (c) : Apolysis is separation of gravid proglottid from the main body of Taenia solium. Taenia solium gravid proglottids are regularly detached from the posterior end of strobila and are sent out with the faeces of the host. The shedding of gravid proglottids by the tapeworm is called apolysis. Apolysis is useful to the parasite in regulating the length of the body and facilitating the transfer of gravid proglottids to the intermediate host. 335. Give : 1. Redia 2. Cercaria 3. Metacercaria 4. Sporocyst 5. Miracidium The correct sequence of larval form appearing in the life history of Fasciola hepatica is : (a) 1-2-3-4-5 (b) 5-1-2-3-4 (c) 5-4-1-2-3 (d) 1-4-2-3-5 UPPCS Pre 2003 Ans. (c) : The correct sequence of larval form appearing in the life history of fasciola hepatica. Miracidium → Sporocyst → Redia → Cercaria → Metacercaria

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 336. The process of detachment of mature proglottids from the body of tapeworm is known as : (a) discharge (b) apolysis (c) delamination (d) proliferation UPPCS Pre 1997 Ans. (b) : Scolex of tapeworm which contains the suckers or hooks where present known as rostellum that help attach to the host proglottids are formed near the scolex. The process of shedding off gravid proglottids called the apolysis. 337. Which of the following infects the snail in the life-cycle of Fasciola : (a) cercaria (b) redia (c) miracidium (d) metacercaria UPPCS Pre 1997 Ans. (c) : Miracidium larva Infects the snail and developed into sporocyst. Miracidium is first larval stage of fasciola. Redia, Cercaria larva developed in snail, metacercaria larva ingested by primary host or sheep. 338. The term acetabulum is associated with : (a) Pectoral girdle (b) Pelvic girdle (c) Fasciola hepatica (d) Both (b) and (c) UPPCS Pre 2001 Ans. (d) : Acetabulum is associated with Fasciola hepatica and pelvic girdle. The Acetabulum is a concave surface of the pelvis, it is the socket of the hip bone (Pelvis), into which the head of the femur fits. In Fasciola, acetabulum is a specialised sucker. 339. The reason for the measly pork flesh is the : (a) Presence of hexacanth (b) Presence of cysticercus (c) Presence of proglottid (d) Presence of cercariae PGT Biology 2003 UPPCS Pre 1998 PGT Biology 2003 Ans. (b) : Pig, secondary host of Taenia infected by ingesting the oncospheres. Oncosphere → hexacanth → cysticercus or (bladderworm) Presence of cysticercus in flesh of pig is known as measly pork. 340. Mehli's gland is found in : (a) Aplysia (b) Nereis (c) Obelia (d) Fasciola UPPCS Pre 2009 Ans. (d) : Mehli's gland is found in Fasciola. Mehlis gland is also called as shell gland. It is primarily present surrounding the ootype of tapeworm and it is a part of the female reproductive organ. As a part of the female reproductive organ, it has an important role in guiding the ova out towards the passage ending in the uterus of flatworms. So, its secretion lubricates the passage of the uterus through which ova move. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

341. Hexacanth larva is found in : (a) Ascaris (b) Amphioxus (c) Fasciola hepatica (d) Taenia solium UPPCS Pre 1994 Ans. (d) : Larval stage of Taenia Solium which has been formed by the transformation or modification of hexacanth stage. Hexacanth is the larval stage of Taenia which are released when eggs are hatched. The hexacanth then develops into cysticercus or metacestode phase in voluntary muscles. 342. Allogenesis is a type of alternation of generation and is found in : (a) Paramecium (b) Liver fluke (c) Monocystis (d) Snail UPPCS Pre 1994 PGT Biology 2002 Ans. (b) : Allogenesis is a type of alternation of generation also known as metagenesis or heterogenesis found in the liver fluke. The alternation of a sexual phase and an asexual phase in the life cycle of an organism. The two generations are often morphologically & chromosomally distinct. 343. Number of excretory pore in Fasciola is/are. (a) Two (b) one (c) three (d) four UPPCS Pre 2010 Ans. (b) : A single excretory pore is situated at the posterior end of the body. Because of the presence of an incomplete alimentary canal, there is no anus in this animal. Scales - the body of Fasciola is covered by tegument from which numerous minute backwardly directed spinules or scales arise. 344. Osmotrophy is found in : (a) Sycon (b) Obelia (c) Pila (d) Taenia GIC Biology 15.09.2015 Ans. (d) : Osmotrophy is found in Taenia. Osmotrophy is the process of taking the dissolved food particles by the process of osmosis. Saprophytic nutrition is the process wherein an organism gets its nutrition from dead and decaying organic matter. When the decayed food is taken into the body through the osmosis process, then we can say osmotrophy occurs. 345. Free swimming ciliated larval stage of Liver fluke is : (a) redia (b) Miracidium (c) Metacercaria (d) cercaria TGT Biology 2013 Ans. (b) : The miracidium is the free swimming ciliated larva which is released from the hatched egg and enters into intermediate snail host. Redia, cercaria, and metacercaria are the stages present inside the snail. The sequence of larva Miracidium → Sporocyst → Redia → Cercaria → Metacercaria.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 346. Stage of the life history of the liver fluke which infects the primary host is : (a) Redia (b) Cercaria (c) Metacercaria (d) Rhabditiform larva TGT Biology 2010 Ans. (c) : The eggs become embryonated and attach in the form of miracidium larvae to continue their life cycle. The larval stage of fasciola hepatica that infects intermediate hosts is miracidium and the definitive or primary host is metacercaria. 347. The intermediate host in the life cycle of F. hepatica (Liver fluke) is : (a) Sheep (b) snail (c) man (d) bird TGT Biology 2009 Ans. (b) : The life cycle of the platyhelminthes parasite Fasciola hepatica is completed in a primary host and an intermediate host. The primary or definitive hosts include cattle, sheep, ruminants as well as human beings. Intermediate hosts are generally snails. 348. In which one of the following is the anus absent? (a) Leech (b) Roundworn (c) Earthworm (d) Flatworm UPPCS Pre 1998 TGT Biology 2009 Ans. (d) : Platyhelminthes or commonly known as "flatworms" do not have anus. They have an incomplete alimentary canal, having a single opening representing the mouth. A separate pore for the anus is absent. Undigested food material is probably ejected through the mouth or diffused into excretory system. 349. The type of respiration found in Taenia solium (Tape worm) is (a) Aerobic (b) Endorespiration (c) Scotorespiration (d) Anaerobic Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2013 Ans. (d) : Tapeworms use anaerobic respiration which breaks down sugars into lactic acid or ethanol. This type of respiration is less efficient than using oxygen for respiration (aerobic respiration) as it produces a lesser amount of ATP. It does not use a lot of energy so anaerobic respiration allows them to fulfil the energy requirement for metabolic process. 350. The shedding off of gravid Proglottids in Taenia is called : (a) Apolysis (b) Strobilation (c) Metamerism (d) None of these PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (a) : The segments of tapeworm or Taenia solium are called proglottids. Small groups of gravid proglottids regularly detach from the posterior end of the strobila and pass out with the host's faeces. Shedding off of gravid proglottids is termed apolysis and the tapeworm exhibiting this phenomenon are called apolytic. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

351. Hexacanth is a larval stage of : (a) Ascaris (b) Tape worm (c) Liver fluke (d) Star fish Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (b) : Hexacanth is larval stage of Pork tapeworm Pork tapeworm is an endoparasite in human intestine. Tapeworm enters in Pig by feeding on garbage and human excreta having oncospheres. Oncospheres are released in the intestine of pigs. The shell dissolves and the hexacanth larva is liberated. The hexacanth larva is activated by bile salts.

352. Digestive system is not found in : (a) Ascaris (b) Taenia (c) Cockroach (d) Earthworm PGT Biology 2010 Ans. (b) : Taenia solium is devoid of digestive system. Tape worms are parasites and their body walls absorb the digested food from the host animals in which they live. So they do not need a digestive tract. 354. The adult tapeworm derives nourishment by (a) sucking blood through the suckers. (b) feeding on the intestinal mucosa of the host (c) absorbing the host’s digested food through the body wall. (d) sucking the host’s digested food by the suckers. GIC Biology 14.06.2015 Ans. (c) : The adult tapeworm derives nourishment by absorbing the host's digested food through the body wall. Tapeworms get into the body when a person eats or drinks something that's infected with a worm or its eggs. Once inside the body the tapeworm head attaches to the inner wall of the intestine. The Tapeworm feeds on the food that the host is digesting. It uses this nutrition to grow. 354. Apolysis the process of : (a) Cellular digestion (b) Destruction of phagocyte (c) Separation of gravid proglottid from the main body (d) Development of unfertilized egg PGT Biology 2009

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (c) : Separation of gravid proglottid from the main body is the process of Apolysis and the separation of 6. Aschelminthes old endocuticle or exoskeleton from the underlying epidermis as seen in insects, arthropods etc. During this process, an organism may hide to protect itself and 357. Pseudocoelom develops from : (a) Gut (b) Mesoderm becomes inactive. Apolysis is usually followed by ecdysis. (c) Blastocoel (d) Archenteron Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2015 RPSC School Lecturer (23/07/2016) Ans. (c) : Roundworms of phylum Nematoda are characterised as pseudocoelomates, such a coelom is not formed from mesodermal layer and is not layered with mesoderm on both sides. The coelom in these animals is called persistent blastocoel as it is derived from embryonic blastocoel. 358. Bladder worm is found in : (a) Human muscles (b) Muscles of pig or cow (c) Human feces (d) Soil UP PGT 2016 Ans. (b) Bladder worms is found in muscles of pig or cow. In the normal lifecycle of Taenia, Cysticerci develop in the muscles of the intermediate hosts such as pigs, cattle, and sheep. In these animals they do not cause severe symptoms. They are transmitted to humans when their infected meats are eaten. 359. Pin worm is : (a) Ancylostoma (b) Necator (c) Wuchereria (d) Enterobius UPPCS Pre 2004, 2005 Ans. (d) : The pinworm also called threadworm or 355. Detachment of gravid proglottids in tapeworm is seatworm, is a parasitic worm. The scientific name is enterobius. While the infected person sleeps, female called aspin-worms leave the intestinal tract and lay their eggs (a) Segmentation (b) Autolysis on the skin around the anus. (c) Apolysis(d) Apogenesis 360. Larva of Wuchereria bancrofti is : RPSC School Lecturer 2011 (a) Microfilaria Larva Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2011 (b) Trochophore Larva Ans. (c) : The segments of tapeworm or Taenia solium (c) Bipinnaria Larva are called proglottids. Small groups of gravid (d) Cercaria Larva proglottids regularly detach from the posterior end of PGT Biology 2013 the strobila and pass out with the hosts faeces. Shedding off of gravid proglottids is termed apolysis Ans. (a) : Larva of Wuchereria bancrofti is microfilaria and the tapeworm exhibiting this phenomenon are larva. There the microfilariae develop into first stage called Apolytic. larvae and subsequently into third stage infective 356. Which one of the following set includes all larvae. The third stage infective larvae migrate through the hemocoel to the mosquito proboscis and can infect hermaphrodite animals : another humans when the mosquito takes a blood meal. (a) Ascaris, Hydra, earthworm 361. Which one of the following phylum is (b) Hydra, Locust, leech characterized by the absence of a true coelom ? (c) Tapeworm, toad, starfish (a) Echinodermata (b) Mollusca (d) Leech, Hydra, tapeworm (c) Annelida (d) Nematoda UPPCS Pre 1997 UPPCS Pre 2007 Ans. (d) : Hermaphrodite means sex are not separate. Ans. (d) : Coelomate animals, true coelom animals Leech-Hydra-Tapeworm, all are hermaphrodite have a fluid filled body cavity, called as coelom as it animals. is lined with mesoderm layer. But if the fluid filled Hermaphrodite animals are mostly invertebrates and cavity is not lined with mesoderm layer it is called as are usually parasitic, slow-moving or permanently pseudocoelom which is the key characteristic of the attached to another animal or plant. nematodes. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 362. Which of the following is a pseudo coelomate? A. Ascaris (a) Obelia (b) Beroe (c) Pheretima (d) Ascaris UPPCS Pre 2007 367. The first and the final moult in the larva of Ascaris occurs in the : Ans. (d) : The body cavity of Ascaris is not covered (a) Lungs (b) Liver by the mesoderm in all sides. It is covered externally by muscle (Mesoderm) but internally by the lining of (c) Stomach (d) Intestine intestine (endoderm). So it is regarded as TGT (2016) 31/07/2021 pseudocoelom. Ans. (d) : Larvae hatch from the eggs in your small 363. Coelom derived from blastocoel is called : intestine (first moult) and then penetrate the intestinal (a) Enterocoel (b) Haemocoel wall to travel to your lungs via your bloodstream or lymphatic system. After maturing for about a week in (c) Pseudocoel (d) Schizocoel your lungs, the larvae break into your airway and travel UPPCS Pre 2000 up your throat, where they are coughed up and Ans. (c) : Coelom Derived from blastocoel is called swallowed. pseudocoel, is a false body cavity and is not lined by Maturation-Once back in the intestine, the parasites peritoneum, Ex-flat worms. The pseudocoelom is a grow into male or female worms (last moult). Female body cavity lying inside the body wall of certain worms can be more than 15 inches (40 centimeters) organisms like the nematodes. This cavity bathes the long and a little less than a quarter inch (6 millimeters) internal organs. in diameter. Male worms are generally smaller. 364. The body cavity of nematode : (a) Contains blood (b) Spleen of man (c) Human blood (d) Is filled with parenchyma Delhi SSB PGT Biology 2015 Ans. (d) : It is filled with parenchyma. It is not lined by mesodermal epithelium. It is derived from primitive gut or archenteron. 365. True coelom is absent in which phylum : (a) Nematoda (b) Annelida (c) Echinodermata (d) Mollusca PGT Biology 2013 Ans. (a) : Nematodes are characterized as pseudocoelomate. The meaning of pseudocoelom is false body cavity. This cavity exists between the germinal layer which is mesoderm and the gut. 368. In Ascaris, first and last moults takes place in : (a) Liver (b) Heart Wuchereria which is a parasitic nematode causes filariasis disease. Nematodes are basically round (c) Kidney (d) Intestine worms. It is a fluid filled cavity inside an organism Delhi SSB PGT Biology 2015 body. It is not derived from mesoderm. It is pseudocoelom also known by the term blastocoelomate Ans. (d) : See the explanation of the above question. because here the body cavity is derived from 369. Number of testes found in adult Ascaris is : blastocoel. (a) 6 (b) 2 366. In which of the following animals sexes are (c) 1 (d) 3 separate? TGT 07/08/2021 (a) Ascaris alone (b) Schistosoma alone Ans. (c) : Ascaris belong to nematodes and is unisexual. (c) Bonellia alone (d) All of the above Females are usually wider around and 20-40 cm long, UPPCS Pre 2009 while males are usually thinner and grow to be 15-30 Ans. (d) : In Ascaris, Bonellia, Schistosoma, male and cm long. Female worms are straight posterior end while males are hooked. Male ascaris is monarchic, female sex are different. In case of the Schistosoma, the possessing a single testis which is long, thin and highly female resides in the gynecophoric canal of the male. twisted tube-like structure while female ascaris is Where as in Bonellia, the male is found in the female didelphic i.e., it has two ovaries, two oviducts and two uterus. In ascaris, sexes are separate and there is distinct uterus. Each ovary is a long, thin thread -like much sexual dimorphism between male and female ascaris. twisted tube. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 374. Which of the following parasites has no 370. How many testes are present in Ascaris? intermediate host : (a) One (b) One pair (a) Fasciola (b) Ascaris (c) Two pairs (d) Many (c) Taenia (d) Plasmodium RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) UPPCS Pre 1998 Ans. (a) : One testis is present in Ascaris. Male Ascaris Ans. (b) : See the explanation of the above question. is monorchic, which means it possesses a single testis, 375. Male Ascaris differs from female Ascaris in while female Ascaris is didelphic, which means it has having : two ovaries, two oviducts, and two uteri. The testis is in (a) Lips (b) Amphids the form of long-thread like highly twisted tube. The wall of testis is made up of single layer of cuboidal cells (c) Pineal Spicules (d) Tail covered by basement membrane. TGT Biology 2013 371. Body cavity of Ascaris is: Ans. (c) : The differences are as listed below – (a) Coelenteron (b) Pseudocoel (1) Females are wider around whereas male are thinner. (2) Female grow to 20-40 cm long whereas male grow (c) Enterocoel (d) Haemocoel Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2015 to 15-30 cm long. RPSC School Lecturer (23/07/2016) (3) Female are straight at the posterior end whereas male are hooked. Ans. (b) : Pseudocoelom is the characteristic body (4) Males have pineal spicules or spine like extensions cavity of roundworms. near its posterior opening whereas females lack these Ascaris is filled with protein-rich pseudocoelomic fluid structures. and carries five giant mesenchyme cells, known as (5) Female has two reproductive organ tubes joining to pseudocoelomocytes that occupy fixed positions in the whereas male have one straight tube. anterior third of the body. Pseudocoelomic fluid is 376. Through which of the following organs, Ascaris composed of about 93% water and substances such as passes during its life cycle? protein, glucose, non-protein nitrogenous substances, (a) spleen (b) lung sodium chloride, and phosphate. (c) kidney (d) skeletal muscle 372. Ascaris is most commonly found in : UPPCS Pre 2006 (a) Men (b) Women Ans. (b) : Ascaris passes through lungs during its life (c) Children (d) Both (a) and (b) cycle. Bihar PGT 2019 (a) spleen → Ascaris larva called rhabditiform larva. It is not Ans. (c) : Ascaris is most commonly found in children. passed through spleen Ascaris is found in soil and human feces of both male (b) lung → 3rd and 4th form of larva and female. But children are more likely to get passes through lungs. ascariasis. Ascariasis is a round worm infection of your Sequence of organ through intestines. It happens through hand-to mouth contact which larva passes are. with the eggs of the worm Ascaris lumbricoides. Liver→Heart→Lung→Intestine Ascariasis symptoms can include stomach pain. → Any stage of larva not 373. Which of the following parasites has no (c) Kidney passes through kidney. intermediate host ? (d) Skeletal muscles→ larval stage not passes (a) Tapeworm (b) Ascaris through skeletal muscles. (c) Liver fluke (d) Malarial parasite 377. Consider the following statements : TGT Biology 2004 Assertion (A) : Power of locomotion is poor in UP P CS P re 1 9 9 9 Ascaris. LT Biology 2018 Reason (R) : The body wall of Ascaris has cuticle but lacks circular muscles. Ans. (b) : An intermediate host is the host harboring a Select the answer using the codes given below : parasite that primarily grows, but not to the point of reaching sexual maturity. Code : (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct Ascaris doesn't have an intermediate host and explanation of A. completes its life cycle in a single host i.e. humans. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct The intermediate host in the case of tapeworm is may explanation of A. be fish, pork, beef etc. The intermediate host in the (c) A is true but R is false case of liver fluke is a mud snail. The intermediate host in the case of plasmodium is female anopheles (d) A is false but R is true mosquito. UPPCS Pre 2000 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (a) : (A) : Power of locomotion is poor in Ascaris (R) : The body wall of Ascaris has cuticle but lacks circular muscles. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. 378. Consider the following statements : Assertion (A) : Power of locomotion is poor in Ascaris. Reason (R) : Circular muscle fibres are lacking in the body wall of Ascaris. Select the correct answer using codes given below : Code : (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A. (c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true UPPCS Pre 2003 Ans. (a) : See the explanation of the above question. 379. Which parasite does not require secondary host : (a) Fasciola (b) Taenia (c) Ascaris (d) Plasmodium TGT Biology 2002 Ans. (c) : Ascaris does not require secondary host because Ascaris is monogenetic and hence it has only a single host which is human being. See the explanation of the above question. 380. Amphids of Ascaris are : (a) baroreceptors (b) chemoreceptors (c) tactoreceptors (d) olfactoreceptors UPPCS Pre 2008 Ans. (b&d) : Amphids are innervated invaginations of cuticle in nematodes. They are usually found in the anterior or head region of the animal, at the base of the lips. It is the olfactory chemoreceptors. It is reduced in the Parasitic nematodes. Amphids are olfactory receptors found on the lower lips of invertebrates like nematodes that help in olfactory sensation or sensation of smell. 381. The epidermis of Ascaris is which one of the following types? (a) Syncytial type (b) Simple squamous type (c) Stratified squamous type (d) Pseudostratified squamous type UPPCS Pre 2008 Ans. (a) : The epidermis of Ascaris is the outermost syncytial layer covered on the outer surface by cuticle, which is a thick, transparent and noncellular layer secreted by the underlying epidermis. Syncytial epidermis composed of peripheral layer of continuous cytoplasm is feature found in the parasitic platyhelminth part of the cytoarchitectural. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

382. Syncytial epidermis is found in : (a) Planaria (b) Ascaris (c) Earthworm (d) Starfish UPPCS Pre 1997 Ans. (b) : Syncytial layer found in Ascaris, Present below the cuticle, it is multinucleate. The epidermis of Ascaris is syncytial with scattered nuclei and no partition of wall. 383. Body cavity of Ascaris is called : (a) haemocoel (b) coelom (c) pseudocoel (d) amphicoel UPPCS Pre 1997 UPPCS Pre 1999 Ans. (c) : Body cavity of Ascaris is called pseudocoel. Pseudocoel means false coelom derived from embryonic blastocoel. Pseudocoelom is the characteristic body cavity of roundworms (Ascaris and Nemathelminthes). It is filled with protein rich pseudocoelomic fluid and carries five giant mesenchyme cells, known as pseudocoelomocytes that occupy fixed positions in the anterior third of the body. 384. Amoeboid sperms are not found in : (a) Ascaris (b) pila (c) Unio (d) (b) and (c) UPPCS Pre 2001 Ans. (d) : Ascaris is a nematode. Sperms of Ascaris are tailed, asymmetrical and amoeboid. The sperms reach the seminal receptacle of the uterus by amoeboid movement and fertilize the ovum. Pila male reproductive system consists of the testis, vas deferens, and penis. In pila, two types of sperm are found, Eupyrene and Oligopyrene sperms. 385. Ascaris lumbricoides is : (a) Monorchic (b) Didelphic (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Monoecious UPPCS Pre 2001 Ans. (c) : Male Ascaris is monorchic, which means it possesses, a single testis, while female Ascaris is didelphic which means it has two ovaries, two oviducts and two uteri. Male reproductive organs of Ascaris consists of the testis, a vas deferens, a seminal vesicle, an ejaculatory duct, cloaca and penial setae. 386. The fourth juvenile stage of Ascaris is found in the following organ of the host : (a) Liver (b) Pharynx (c) Lungs (d) Intestine UPPCS Pre 2001 Ans. (c) : Third and fourth Juvenile stage of Ascaris larva found in the lungs of the host. Whereas the mature larva of the fourth stage is found in the intestine. In alveoli of lungs, it undergoes 2nd moulting and forms 3rd stage larvae and it undergoes 3rd moulting and forms 4th stage larvae in the alveoli.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 387. The infective stage of ascaris is : (a) Fertilised egg (b) 3rd stage larva (c) Unfertilised egg (d) Adult UPPCS Pre 1996 Ans. (a) : The fertilized egg of Ascaris is infective. In case of larva the Second stage larva is infective. There is no intermediate host, man acquired infection by directly ingesting the 2nd stage of larva called rhabditiform larva. 3rd and 4th stage moulting occur in the lungs. 388. Larva found in the life history of Ascaris is called : (a) Cysticercus larva (b) Rhabditiform larva (c) Miracidium larva (d) Planula larva UPPCS Pre 1995 Ans. (b) : Rhabditiform larva is found in the life history of Ascaris. 2nd stage of larva is infective called Juvenile stage II. When the eggs of ascaris breaks, the rhabditiform larvae come out of the shell. From there they move to the liver, through the circulation of the blood it travels to the heart in the pulmonary circulation. 389. In Ascaris the egg is : (a) Immature at the time of sperm entry with no polar bodies formed. (b) Mature at the time of sperm entry with both polar bodies formed. (c) Fully mature with polar bodies shed (d) None of the above UPPCS Pre 2002 Ans. (a) : In Ascaris the egg is immature at the time of sperm entry, with no polar bodies formed. The sperms nucleus has to wait in the egg until both divisions have been completed. Therefore it has time to mature and at the time of nuclear union is equal in size to the egg pronucleus. 390. In Ascaris eggs are fertilised in the : (a) Vagina (b) Oviduct (c) Uteri (d) Seminal vesicle UPPCS Pre 1998 UPPCS Pre 1999 Ans. (c) : Female Ascaris has ovaries, oviduct, uteri and median vagina. The eggs are fertilized in the lower part of uteri. The fertilized eggs laid out of the body of the host through faecal matter. 391. The first juvenile larva of Ascaris is known as : (a) Fili form larva (b) Rhabditi form larva (c) Miracidium larva (d) Microfilariae UPPCS Pre 1994 Ans. (b) : The juvenile/larval stages of Ascaris lumbricoides present in soil are also called rhabditiform larvae or rhabditoids because of their similar appearance to a soil nematode, Rhabditis found in soil and human faeces. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

392. The correct route through which Ascaris passes to complete its life cycle after infecting a fresh host is : (a) intestine → liver → heart → lung → pharynx → stomach → intestine (b) outside → intestine → liver → heart → lung → pharynx → gullet → intestine (c) intestine → liver → heart → lung → pharynx → gullet → stomach → intestine → outside → intestine (d) outside → intestine → heart → lung → pharynx → gullet → stomach → intestine → outside. UPPCS Pre 2005 Ans. (d) : The correct sequence of Ascaris entire life cycle after infection with a host is – outside → intestine → heart → lung → pharynx → gullet → stomach → intestine → outside. 393. Phasmids are present in : (a) Ascaris (b) Pila (c) Taenia (d) Unio UPPCS Pre 2010 Ans. (a) : Phasmids are present in Ascaris. Phasmids or caudal sensory organs are the single-celled sensilia present in the lateral tail region of certain species of nematodes. They are similar to amphid sensilia but smaller. Phasmid neurons are also involved in modulation of chemorepulsion behavior. 394. Sexual dimorphism is clearly seen in : (a) Earth worm (b) Leech (c) Ascaris (d) Taenia TGT Biology 2011 Ans. (c) : Ascaris is a member of the PhylumAschelminthes. It shows sexual dimorphism. The male and the female can be identified from their external features. Males have a posteriorly curved tail with a small spicule whereas, the female has a long and straight tail. Females also have gonophore.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 395. Sexual dimorphism is found in : 400. The total number of longitudinal muscle cells in the body wall of Ascaris is(a) Hydra (b) Earthworm (a) 150 (b) 300 (c) Ascaris (d) Fasciola (c) 600 (d) 1200 TGT Biology 2009 Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (c) : See the explanation of the above question. 396. In Ascaris the excretory organs are in the form Ans. (c) : It is the innermost layer of body wall. Body wall of Ascaris has only longitudinal muscle layer and of a : circular muscle layer is absent, so Ascaris is almost (a) J (b) L incapable of changing its body length. It can change (c) H (d) M only 15% of its length with help of longitudinal muscle TGT Biology 2004 layer. Ans. (c) : In the excretory system of Ascaris, there are Due to epidermal lines, muscle layer of body wall is two longitudinal canals running one in each lateral line, divided into 4 quadrant called as longitudinal columns. which is connected anteriorly by a transverse canal in Out of these 4, 2 are dorsolateral and 2 ventrolateral. the form of a network. These canals open by a single Each quadrants or column has 150 muscles cells, so excretory pore on the ventral side. The whole system total no of muscle cell is 600. forms an H-like appearance. 401. In Ascaris eggs are fertilized in the : (a) Vagina (b) Oviduct (c) Uterus (d) Seminal vesicle GIC Biology 15.09.2015 Ans. (c) : In Ascaris fertilization of eggs take place in the proximal end of the uterus and not in any other part of female reproductive system. When a fertilised egg is ingested by humans, it becomes a larval worm and then it enters the walls of the duodenum and then the blood stream. 402. Ascaris has which of the following types of egg cleavage? (a) Bilaterally symmetrical (b) Radially symmetrical 397. Excretory structure of ascaris is(c) Spiral (a) H- Shaped (b) O- Shaped (d) None of the above (c) T- Shaped (d) S- Shaped GIC Biology 15.09.2015 Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (c) : In determinate cleavage, each early blastomeres is destined to become a particular portion Ans. (a) : See the explanation of the above question. of the embryo. e.g., Ascaris and some tunicates. In 398. Amoeboid sperms are found in– spiral cleavage, the blastomeres are arranged in a spiral (a) Hydra (b) Leucosolenia form around the vegetal axis. It is seen in Ascaris (c) Snail (d) Ascaris flatworms, annelids, molluscs and rotifers. TGT Biology 2002 403. Ascaris is unique among parasites as : Ans. (d) : Ascaris is a nematode. Sperms of Ascaris are (a) It is highly specialized for parasitic life. tailed, asymmetrical and amoeboid. The sperms reach (b) It has amoeboid sperms. the seminal receptacle of the uterus by amoeboid (c) It produces large number of eggs. movement and fertilize the ovum. (d) It remains unaffected by the digestive 399. Rhabditiform larva occurs in the life cycle of enzymes of the host. (a) Liver fluke (b) Ascaris GIC Biology 14.06.2015 (c) Tapeworm (d) Planaria PGT Biology 2013, UPPCS (Pre), 2010 Ans. (d) : Ascaris is unique among parasites as it is Ans. (b) : Ascaris is monogenetic since it has only host, unaffected by the host's digestive enzymes. Intestinal a man, in which infection occurs directly. Cleavage is digestive body wall of Ascaris is thick, multi-layered spiral, determinate and holoblastic. The first larva is and possibly glandular to avoid the side effects of the formed 10-14 days after cleavage and is called enzyme. Ascaris develops thick, tough layer called as rhabditiform larva or first larva which is not an cuticles which are resistant to the digestive juices of the infective stage. In another week, it molts to become the host. Some antienzymes are also secreted by cuticle of ascaris. second larva, which is capable of infecting the host. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf B.

Helminthes and Diseases

404. Filaria is diagnosed by the presence of microfilariae in the human blood. For this, the blood sample is taken : (a) just after sunrise (b) any time of the day (c) between 4:30 and 6:30 in the evening (d) between 10:00 p.m. and 4:00 a.m. in the night UP PGT 17/08/2021 Ans. (d) : Filaria is diagnosed by the presence of microfilariae in the human blood. For this, the blood sample is taken between 10:00 p.m. and 4:00 A.M. Species that cause lymphatic filariasis have microfilarial levels that tend to peak at night, so it is recommended to collect samples at this time. The microfilariae circulate in the blood at night and it is called nocturnal periodicity.

Ans. (a) : Ascaris lumbricoides is a monogenetic parasite. It belongs to the phylum nematoda and it is the most common parasitic worm in humans. This organism is responsible for the disease ascariasis. It is monogenetic because it completes its life cycle in single host i.e. humans Ascaris lumbricoides (round worm)infects humans via the fecal oral route. Eggs released by adult females are shed in faeces. Infections happen when a human swallows water or food contaminated with embryonated eggs. 408. Hydatid cyst occurs in the life history of : (a) Schistosoma haematobium (b) Echinococcus granulosus (c) Hymenolepis nana (d) Ancylostoma duodenale UPPCS Pre 1995 Ans. (b) : Hydatid cyst occur in life history of Echinococcus granulosus. It is produced by asexual budding. Schistosoma haematobium called blood fluke. Human infection with E.granulosus leads to the development of one or more hydatid cysts located most often in the liver and lungs and less frequently in the bones, kidneys, spleen, muscles and central nervous system.

405. Which one of the following has no intermediate host? (a) Plasmodium (b) Tapeworm (c) Roundworm (d) Liverfluke RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) 409. Ancylostoma duodenale cause a disease known as : Ans. (c) : Roundworm has no intermediate host man acquires infection by directly ingesting Ascaris eggs (a) elephantiasis with contaminated food or water. (b) filariasis (c) trichinosis ⇒Plasmodium intermediate host is female Anopheles mosquito. (d) hookworm disease UPPCS Pre 1995 ⇒The intermediate host in the case of Tapeworm is fish, pork, beef etc. Ans. (d) : Ancylostoma duodenale cause hook worm disease. ⇒ Liverfluke intermediate host is a mud snail. 406. Which of the following causes filariasis in man? Elephantiasis caused by Wuchereria. Filariasis is caused by Filarial worm. (a) Wuchereria (b) Ancylostoma Trichinosis is caused by Trichinella. (c) Tape worm (d) Liver fluke 410. Which one of the following pair is related to RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) elephantiasis : Ans. (a) : Filariasis in man is caused by Wuchereria (a) Wuchereria - Glossina bancrofti. Infection occurs when filarial parasites are (b) Wuchereria - Culex transmitted to humans through mosquitoes. It is a filarial nematode (round worm). (c) Plasmodium - Anopheles (d) Panosoma - Glossina ⇒Ancylostoma (Hookworms) causes Ancylostomiasis. UPPCS Pre 1999 ⇒Taeniasis in humans is a parasitic infection caused Ans. (b) : Female Culex mosquito is the vector of by the tapeworm species. Wuchereria. Wuchereria cause elephantiasis in ⇒Fascioliasis is a parasitic infection caused by human. Lymph node affected in elephantiasis. liverfluke. Elephantiasis is also known as lymphatic filariasis. It 407. Which of the following is a monogenetic is more common in tropical or subtropical areas. parasite ? Enlargement and hardening of limbs or body parts (a) Ascaris lumbricoides occurs due to tissue swelling. (b) Plasmodium vivax 411. Wuchereria causes : (c) Taenia solium (a) Dysentery (b) Headache (d) Fasciola hepatica (c) Jaundice (d) Elephantiasis UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 PGT Biology 2002 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (d) : Wuchereria causes elephantiasis. It is caused by parasitic worms, and can spread from person to person through mosquitoes. Elephantiasis causes swelling of the scrotum, legs or breasts. Elephantiasis is considered a neglected tropical disease (NTD). It is more common in tropical and subtropical areas of the world, including Africa and southeast Asia. 412. Seat worm is the alternate name of : (a) Pin -worm (b) Hook -worm (c) Intestinal round -worm (d) Guinea-worm TGT Biology 2013 Ans. (a) : The alternate name for seatworm is Pin worm, the long tails of the worm give Pin like appearance. The larval Pin worm ranges from 140-150 micrometers. seatworm – Pinworm Hookworm – Ancylostoma Guinea worm – Dracunculus Round worm – Ascaris 413. 'Elephantiasis' or 'Filariasis' disease is transmitted by : (a) Housefly (b) Mosquito (c) Bedbug (d) Fruitfly TGT Biology 2010 Ans. (b) : The disease spreads from person to person by mosquito bites. When a mosquito bites a person who has lymphatic filariasis, microscopic worms circulating in the person's blood, enter and infect the mosquito. The common name is often used because if you have it, your arms and legs can swell and become much bigger than they should be. 414. Which of the following belongs to Aschelminthes? (a) Ship worm (b) Guinea worm (c) Silk worm (d) None of the above GIC Biology 14.06.2015 Ans. (b) : Guinea worm (Dracunculus medinensis), also called medina worm or dragon worm, member of the phylum- Nematoda (Aschelminthes). The guinea worm, a Parasite of humans, is found in tropical regions of Asia and Africa and in the West Indies and tropical South America. A variety of other mammals are also parasitized by Guinea worms. This disease caused by the worm is called Guinea worm disease (or dracunculiasis).

Ans. (c) : Peripatus is connecting link between Annelida and Arthropoda. Peripatus or velvet worms are little known nocturnal creatures living in damp forest in New Zealand and other southern lands. Peripatus is an arthropoda as it had joined paired legs compound eyes and tracheas, but they have worm like segmented body, non-chitinous cuticle and segmental nephridia which are characteristic of annelids. 416. Animals which maintain their body fluid concentration different from that of their immediate environment, include : (a) Crabs and prawns (b) Earth worms and leeches (c) Star fishes and urchins (d) Clams and oysters UPPCS Pre 2006 Ans. (b) : Animals which maintains their body fluid concentration different from their immediate environment includes earthworm and leeches. Osmoregulation is a process that regulates the osmotic pressure of fluids and electrolytic balance in organisms. Osmoregulators are organisms that actively regulate their osmotic pressure, independent of the surrounding environment. 417. Which one of the following annelids is a parasite on snail, frog, etc ? (a) Acanthobdella (b) Pontobdella (c) Branchellion (d) Glossiphonia UPPCS Pre 2002 UPPCS Pre 2005 UPPCS Pre 2008 Ans. (d) : Glossiphonia is a genus of Glossiphoniidae. Glossiphoniidae are a family of freshwater proboscisbearing leeches. These leeches are generally flattened and have a poorly defined anterior sucker. Most suck the blood of freshwater vertebrates like amphibians (frog), but some feed on invertebrates like freshwater snails. 418. Which of the following is common between Pheretima and Periplaneta ? (a) Hermaphroditism (b) Excretion by nephridia (c) Respiration by trachea (d) Ventrally located nerve cord UPPCS Pre 2010 Ans. (d) : Pheretima posthuma is common earthworm and belongs to phylum Annelida. Periplaneta is the common cockroach and belongs to phylum Arthropoda. Both of these animals have ventral nerve cord. The 7. Annelida ventral nerve cord is a major structure of the invertebrate central nervous system. It is the functional 415. Peripatus is a connecting link between – equivalent of the vertebrate spinal cord. (a) Arthropoda and Mollusca 419. Which of the following animals does not have a (b) Mollusca and Echinodermata circulatory system in the trunk? (c) Annelida and Arthropoda (a) Sipunculus (b) Echiurus (c) Polygordius (d) Nereis (d) Annelida and Protozoa UPPCS Pre 2010 UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (b) : Male Bonellia, shows the parasitic nature in female. Most larvae, come in contact with the bonellin in the skin of an adult female-its body or its roving, bonellin rich proboscis and are masculinised by this exposure.

Ans. (b) : Echiurus does not have a circulatory system in the trunk. It is a species of spoon worm in the family Echiuridae. These are marine worms, most of which live in burrows in soft sediments. Once treated as a separated phylum, they are now considered to belong to Annelida. 420. In Polychaeta, the nature of setae is : (a) numerous (b) occur singly (c) occur in bundles (d) fused PGT Biology 2013 Ans. (c) : Polychaetes belong to class Annelida and they are known as segmented worms. Each segment bears a pair of paddle-like and highly vascularized parapodia, which bears many bristles, called as chaetae, which are made of chitin that is used for movement and in many species, act as the worm's primary respiratory surfaces. Bundles of bristles called as setae project from the parapodia.

425. Blood is colourless in : (a) Hirudinaria (b) Neanthes (c) Pavo (d) Echiurus UPPCS Pre 2010 Ans. (d) : Blood of arthropoda is colourless. The blood of the insect is known as hemolymph, they do not have blood as haemoglobin like vertebrates do. The circulatory system of insects is of open type, has no veins and arteries. Oxygen is directly transferred into the tissue through the tracheoles ex-Echiurus.

421. Aphrodite commonly known as sea mouse is : (a) an annelid (b) a mollusc A. Nereis (c) an insect (d) mammals UPPCS Pre 1998 426. In which form the nitrogenous waste is discarded by the nephridia of Nereis? Ans. (a) : Aphrodite is a member of phylum Annelida of class Polychaeta. Exclusively marine, body (a) Ammonia (b) Urea segmented and sexes separate found crawling on the (c) Uric acid (d) Guanine seabed. Aphrodite is commonly known as sea mouse. TGT (2016) 31/07/2021 422. Unique characteristics of annelida is : Ans. (a) : An organism which excretes ammonia as a (a) Coelom chief excretory nitrogenous waste is called as (b) Nephridia ammonotelic. Ammonia is water soluble and very toxic it should be removed from the body as soon as it is (c) Hermaphrodite formed. Nereis is called ammonotelic because it (d) Alimentary canal complete excretes ammonia as chief excretory nitrogenous waste TGT Biology 2013 material. The excretory system of Nereis consists of a Ans. (b) : The excretory organs occurs as segmentally series of metamerically arranged paired tubes, called arranged coiled tubules called nephridia. Nephridia are nephridia. They collect and excrete ammonia outside of ectodermal in origin and help in osmoregulation and the body. excretion which is the unique feature of Annelida. 427. In Nereis, the blood is pumped by Nephridia with nephrostomes are open nephridia and (a) Heart which do not have nephrostomes are called closed (b) Dorsal blood vessel nephridia. (c) Ventral blood vessel 423. Bonellin pigment is : (d) Capillary (a) red in colour (b) blue in colour TGT 07/08/2021 (c) green in colour (d) colourless UPPCS Pre 2009 Ans. (b) : Nereis has a primitive circulatory system in Ans. (c) : Male Bonellia is a parasite on the female which the blood is propelled by slow peristaltic wave. adult. Female Bonellia produces bright green pigment In general, the blood move forward in the dorsal vessel on its skin, which is called bonellin, it is toxic to other and rearward in the ventral vessel. Dorsal vessel is the organisms. The bonellin is a very effective biocide. The main collecting vessel and blood flows through it from chemical is more concentrated to the proboscis. The posterior to anterior end. 428. Heteronereis is – (a) The sexual phase of Nereis 424. In which of the following male is parasitic on (b) Haematophagus female? (a) Sacculina (b) Bonellia (c) Belongs to Oligochaeta (c) Sipunculus (d) Bugula (d) Belongs to Hirudinea UPPCS Pre 2009 UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 toxicity of the chemical can even cause paralysis.

TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (c) : Trochophore larva of Neanthes is Ans. (a) : Heteronereis is the sexual phase of Nereis. It characterised by the presence of both apical and is a free swimming dimorphic sexual individual of horizontal rows of cilia. They are spherical or pearcertain polychaete worms (family Nereididae) shaped and are guarded by a ring of cilia (minute characterized by greatly enlarged eyes and more or less hairlike structure), the prototroch, that enables them to complete obliteration of the internal viscera by masses swim. of developing germ cells. It discharges gametes to far off places in the sea and thus helps in the dispersal of 433. How many eyes are present in "Clam Worm". (a) Four pairs (b) Two pairs species. (c) One pair (d) Five pairs 429. Which one of the following is the characteristic UPPCS Pre 2001 of the heteronereis phase of Neanthes : Ans. (b) : Clamworm has two pairs of eyes. It is a (a) Nuchal organs (b) Atoke genus of phylum Annelida. It is reddish brown in (c) Epitoke (d) Peristomial tentacles colour. It mainly feeds on algae and worms. It is freeUPPCS Pre 2003, 2000 living and bears many tentacles. It acts as an important food source for crustaceans and bottomAns. (c) : The characteristic of the heteronereis phase feeding fishes. It reproduces sexually. It is dangerous of Neanthes is Epitoke. The intestine in the epitoke to touch giving very painful longlasting burns. region becomes compressed due to the development of gonads and finally it becomes functionless. The 434. The nuchal organs found in Nereis are responsible for : nereididae Nereis (Neanthes) undergoes drastic (a) Olfactory functions behavioural, morphological and physiological changes during its sexual maturation (epitoky). (b) Balancing (c) Mucous secretion 430. Epitoke in Nereis is associated with : (d) Digestive enzyme production (a) digestion (b) respiration UPPCS Pre 2005 (c) excretion (d) reproduction Ans. (a) : The nuchal organs found in Nereis are UPPCS Pre 1995 responsible for olfactory functions. The nuchal organ Ans. (d) : Two region in Nereis, Atoke asexual is a ciliated pit or groove present at the posterior end region and Epitoke sexual region associated with of the prostomium in a group of Annelids. Annelids reproduction. only possess one nuchal organ which usually seems like a pair. The Nereididae Nereis (Neanthes) virens undergoes drastic behavioral, morphological and physiological 435. In which of the following animals circulatory changes during its sexual maturation (epitoky). system is absent in the trunk? (a) Sipunculus (b) Echiurus Some female epitokes of clam worms (Nereis) produce a chemical substance called fertilizin that (c) Polygordius (d) Nereis attracts the male. UPPCS Pre 2009 431. Trochophore larva of Neanthes is character-ized Ans. (d) : Animals without a circulatory system or by the possession of : blood in their bodies are Nereis, Jellyfish and flatworms. Fluid is absent in their body as they consume (a) apical of cilia alone oxygen, minerals and nutrients through direct means (b) horizontal row of cilia alone from water and air. (c) both apical row of cilia and horizontal row of 436. Heteronereis during it transformation from cilia Nereis acquires : (d) vertical row of cilia alone (a) reduced eyes UPPCS Pre 2003 (b) enlarged parapodia in the posterior half of body Ans. (c) : The Trochophore larva of Neanthes is a (c) slow bottom creeping habits type of larva of free swimming, planktonic, marine (d) all the above larva with several bands of cilia. PGT Biology 2003 Trochophore larva of Neanthes possess both apical UPPCS Pre 2005 and horizontal row of cilia. Ans. (b) : A free-swimming dimorphic sexual 432. Trochophore larva of Neanthes is characterised individual of certain polychaete worms (family by: Nereidae) characterized by greatly enlarged eyes and modified, parapodia and more or less complete (a) apical cilia only obliteration of the internal viscera by masses of (b) horizontal row of cilia only developing germ cells. Externally the body of both (c) both apical and horizontal rows of cilia male and female individuals show a distinction (d) vertical row of cilia only between modified posterior and unmodified anterior UPPCS Pre 1999, 2007 somites which is a characteristic feature of Nereis. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 437. Parapodia are the structures related to : (a) Circulation (b) Respiration (c) Locomotion & Respiration (d) Reproduction PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (c) : Parapodia are usually the organs of locomotion used both in creeping and in swimming, since they are externally vascularised, they also serve the functions of respiration. Nereis is a genus of Polychaete worms within the family nereididae. They possess setae and parapodia for locomotion. Each segment of the body, except the peristomium and the anal segment, bears on either side a flat, fleshy, hollow and vertical flap-like outgrowth called parapodia. However, the earthworms has parapodia but doesn't use it for locomotion.

Ans. (c) : The blood of Pheretima is red due to the presence of a respiratory pigment and intercellular haemoglobin in it. The haemoglobin is not contained in the corpuscles like the vertebrates but it is found dissolved in the plasma. The plasma also contains many corpuscles which are colourless and nucleated. 440. In Pheretima, the septal nephridia are found in all septa behind_______segments. (a) 14/15 (b) 4/6 (c) 1/2 (d) 9/10 TGT 07/08/2021 Ans. (a) : In pheretima the septal nephridia are found in all septa behind 14/15 segments. The septal nephridia are the largest nephridia present in an earthworm and are present on both sides of each intersegmental septum after the 15th segment. There are 40-50 septal nephridia present in each septum and they are arranged in two rows.

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B.

Pheretima

438. Which of the following has blood gland ? (a) Ascaris (b) Pheretima (c) Cockroach (d) Dogfish UPPSC Ashram Paddhati 29/09/2021 Ans. (b) : Pheretima has blood gland. These glands are located in the 4th, 5th and 6th segments. They produce blood cells and haemoglobin which is dissolved in blood plasma. Pheretima has closed type of blood vascular system as the blood flows in the closed vessels. Contraction keep blood circulating in one direction. The blood glands are phagocytic in nature. 439. The blood of Pheretima is red due to the presence of : (a) Iron salts (b) Pigment cells (c) Intercellular hemoglobin (d) Intracellular hemoglobin TGT (2016) 31/07/2021 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

441. The circular muscle layer of Pheretima's body wall contains which of the following pigments ? (a) Porphyrin (b) Chlorocruorin (c) Heamoglobin (d) Haemocyanin RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) Ans. (a) : The circular muscle layer of Pheretima's body wall contains porphyrin pigment. The circular muscle is a thin and continuous layer present around the body. The contraction of the circular muscle makes the body long and narrow. Earthworm is brown or clay-coloured because of pigment porphyrin. Numerous granules of porphyrin are found scattered in this layer. Porphyrin protects the body from the injurious effects of bright light. 442. In which segments of earthworm setae are absent – A - First, B - Last, C - First 13 segments, D - 14, 15 and 16 (a) A and C (b) B and C (c) A, B and C (d) A, B and D RPSC School Lecturer 2011 Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2011

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (a) : A typhlosole is an internal fold of the intestine or the intestinal wall. In earthworms, typhlosole is a dorsal flap of the intestine that runs along most of its length, effectively forming a tube within a tube and increasing the absorption area by that of its inner surface. Its function is to increase the intestine surface area for more efficient absorption of digested nutrients.

Ans. (d) : Each segment of earthworm bears a ring of tiny curved, chitinous structure known as setae. Setae is absent in the first, the last and the segments containing clitellum (14, 15 and 16). Setae helps in locomotion and copulation.

443. Spermatheca in Pheretima are situated in : (a) 6th, 7th, 8th and 9th segments (b) 9th, 10th, 11th and 12th segments 446. What is the function of Prostomium in (c) 2nd, 3rd, 4th and 5th segments earthworm? (d) 4th, 5th, 6th and 7th segments (a) Digging soil UPPCS Pre 2006 (b) As sensory organ (c) Both A & B Ans. (a) : Spermatheca in Pheretima are situated in 6th, 7th, 8th, 9th segment. In 3rd segment Buccal cavity, (d) None of these 7th segment oesophagus, 8th segment gizzard and 9th to TGT Biology 2011 14th segment stomach are situated in Pheretima. It Ans. (c) : The anterior end of earthworm consists of belongs to the phylum Annelida. the mouth and the prostomium, a lobe which serves as a covering for the mouth, as a wedge to force open cracks in the soil into which the earthworm may crawl. The prostomium is sensory in function. Prostomium is small lip or tongue like lobe present on the upper side of mouth. It helps the earthworm to push into the soil and is also a sensory organ. 447. Chloragogen cells of earthworms are analogous to which structure of vertebrates– (a) Liver (b) Lungs (c) Kidney (d) salivary gland TGT Biology 2002 Ans. (a) : Chloragogen cells in Annelids function similarly to the liver in vertebrates. The cells store glycogen and neutralize toxins, are yellowish in colour due to the presence of yellow granules called as chloragosomes and are present in coelomic fluid of some annelids. It is similar to the liver of a vertebrate. They take part in the deamination of amino acids and synthesis of urea. Silicates taken in along with food are deposited in the chloragogen cells.

444. In Pheretima cingulum is present in : 448. Which of the following cells in earthworm play (a) one segment (b) eight segments a role similar to the liver of vertebrates? (c) five segments (d) three segments (a) Epidermal cell (b) Flame cells UPPCS Pre 2001 (c) Mucous cells (d) Chloragogen cells Ans. (d) : In Pheretima cingulum is present in three TGT Biology 2004 segments. The first body segment is called the Ans. (d) : Chloragogen cells are present in the family Peristomium (buccal segment) which contains the Annelida. Chloragogen cells take up excretory matter mouth. In a mature worm, segments 14, 15 and 16 are from the blood capillaries of the gut and from the covered by prominent dark band of glandular tissue celomic fluid of the coelom. They also store glycogen called clitellum or cingulum. Thus the body is and fat. So, these cells are analogous to the liver of divisible into three prominent regions - Preclitellar, vertebrates. Clitellar and Postclitellar segments. 449. In earthworm the chloragogen cells are : 445. Typhlosole in earth worm is meant for (a) digestive (b) reproductive (a) Digestion and absorption (c) sensory (d) excretory (b) Formation of blood UPPCS Pre 1995 (c) Locomotion Ans. (d) : Chloragogen cell also known as the yellow (d) Release of gametes cells. Cell is supposed to be excretory in nature which TGT Biology 2011 is analogous to human liver. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 450. Which of the following matched? (a) Botryoidal tissue (b) Chloragogen tissue (c) Hydrocoel (d) Ambulacra -

pair is correctly

Nereis Earthworm flatworms roundworms UPPCS Pre 2010 Ans. (b) : Chloragogen tissue found in Earthworm. Chloragogen cells are cells in annelids that function similarly to the liver in vertebrates. The cell store glycogen and neutralize toxins, are yellowish in color due to the presence of yellow granules called chloragosomes and are present in the coelomic fluid of some annelids. These cells are derived from the inner coelomic epithelium and help in excretory function, as most commonly demonstrated in earthworms. They have characteristic vesicular bulging which store and transport substances like glycogen and nitrogenous wastes. They take part in the deamination of amino acids and the synthesis of urea. Silicates taken in along with food are deposited in the chloragogen cells. 451. Haemoglobin is found dissolved in the plasma of (a) Man (b) Bird (c) Frog (d) Earthworm Delhi SSB PGT Biology 2015 Ans. (d) : The earthworm has a developed and close blood circulatory system of definite vessels for the transport of chemical substance between different part of the body. Blood is red due to hemoglobin but unlike 454. The blood pigment of Earthworm is : in vertebrates, In earthworms, hemoglobin is dissolved (a) Hemoglobin in the plasma. All blood cell are colorless and nuclear. (b) Hemocyanin 452. Main function of clitellum in earthworm is– (c) Hemin (a) Excretion (b) Copulation (d) Cyanin (c) Cocoon formation (d) Locomotion TGT Biology 1999 TGT Biology 2002 Ans. (a) : The earthworms exhibit a closed type of Ans. (c) : The clitellum is part of the reproductive blood vascular system, consisting of blood vessels, system. The clitellum is a thick, saddle - like ring capillaries and heart. Contractions of the body keep the found in the epidermis (skin) of the worm, usually with blood flowing unidirectional. The blood pigment a light - coloured pigment to form a cocoon for its present in earthworms is haemoglobin which is eggs, the clitellum secretes a viscous fluid. The main dissolved in blood plasma. They produce blood cells function of clitellum is cocoon formation. In and haemoglobin, also they lack red blood cells in their earthworms, the clitellum can only be seen when the ciculatory system as the gaseous exchange through the worm is sexually mature. skin. There are three main vessels that supply blood to 453. Which part is called grinding machine of the body of the earthworm which are aortic arches, Earthworm's alimentary canal? Ventral blood vessels and dorsal blood vessels. The aortic arches work to supply the blood to the dorsal and (a) Buccal cavity (b) Gizzard ventral blood vessels which take blood to the front part (c) Calciferous glands (d) Intestinal caeca TGT Biology 1999 and back part of the earthworms body respectively. Ans. (b) : Proteolytic enzymes hydrolyze proteins into 455. Excretory product of earthworm is (a) Amino acid peptones and proteases. Then, food comes into gizzard through the oesophagus. Gizzard acts as a grinding (b) Urea machine that further grind food and soil. It is present in (c) Uric acid 8-9th segments, the gizzard uses stones that the earth (d) Ammonia and Urea worm eats to grind the food completely. The food PGT Biology 2010 moves into the intestine release fluids to aid in the digestive process. PGT Biology 2013 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (d) : The main excretory product of earthworms is urea. They excrete some amount of ammonia also. Excretory organs of earthworms are coiled tubules known as nephridia. They are the nitrogenous waste products in various animals that are excreted out of the body, out of these two, one of them is highly toxic and is later converted into the other form. 456. Haemoglobin is found dissolved in blood plasma of (a) Cockroach (b) Earthworm (c) Rabbit (d) Pigeon PGT Biology 2010 Ans. (b) : Haemoglobin is an iron-containing oxygen carrying pigment found in the blood of animals. It imparts a red colour to the blood due to the iron present in it and transports oxygen to various tissue. The haemoglobin found in earthworms is found dissolved in the plasma and is hence called extracellular haemoglobin. 457. Haemoglobin is found dissolved in the plasma of (a) toad (b) bird (c) hydra (d) earthworm TGT Biology 2004 Ans. (d) : See the explanation of the above question. 458. Testes sacs in earthworm located in which segment (a) 13 and 14 (b) 9 and 10 (c) 11 and 12 (d) 10 and 11 PGT Biology 2013 Ans. (d) : Earthworm is hermaphrodite i.e. testes and ovaries are present in the same individual. There are two pairs of testes present in the 10th and 11th segments. Their vas deferens run up to the 18th segment where they join the prostatic duct. Testes sacs are whitish, wide, bilobed sacs that encloses testes. They are thin - walled and fluid - filled sacs. In testes sac, a large spermatic funnel having folded and ciliated margins is present behind each of the four testes. The testes sacs link with a pair of seminal vesicles. The spermatogonia are casted into the testes sacs then they are passed into the seminal vesicles. 459. Earthworm responds positively towards : (a) Light (b) Gravity (c) Chemicals (d) None of these PGT Biology 2005 Ans. (c) : The earthworm's body is covered with chemoreceptors. These are cells that allow the earth worm to taste things and are tiny sense organs which detect positively towards chemicals response in the soil. The muscles make movement in response to touch and taste. 460. Testes occur in earthworm in the segments (a) 11 and 12 (b) 12 and 13 (c) 14 and 15 (d) 10 and 11 TGT Biology 2010 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (d) : Lumbricus and Pheretima are the common Indian earthworm species. Their body is divided into segments. Being hermaphrodites, they have both male and female organs in their body. Two pairs of testes are present in 10th and 11th segment while ovaries are present on 13th segment. Vas deferens extends to the 18th segment where it joins the prostatic duct. 461. Earthworms have : (a) 4 pairs of Heart (b) No Heart (c) 2 pairs of Heart (d) Blue blood Delhi SSB PGT Biology 2015, TGT 2013 Ans. (a) : Earthworm possess a closed vascular system. There are four pairs of hearts in the circulatory system of earthworm, one pair each in 7, 9, 12 and 13 segments. The hearts located in 7th and 9th segments are lateral hearts having 4 pairs of valves and those in 12th and 13th segments are called lateral oesophageal hearts having 3 pairs of valves. 462. What is typhlosole of Earthworm ? (a) A defence mechanism (b) A part of the circulatory system (c) An excretory organ (d) A fold of the intestine Delhi SSB PGT Biology 2015 Ans. (d) : A typhlosole is an internal fold of the intestine or the intestinal wall. In earthworms, typhlosole is a dorsal flap of the intestine that runs along most of its length, and increasing the absorption area of its inner surface. Its function is to increase the intestine surface area for more efficient absorption of digested nutrients. 463. Which of the following animals respires although it has no special organs for respiration : (a) Cockroach (b) Earthworm (c) Mussel (d) Scorpion UPPCS Pre 2003 Ans. (b) : In case of earthworm respiration takes place through general body surface, it mean skin. It has no special organ for respiration. In cockroach, respiration take place by trachea. In mussel, respiration take place through gills. In scorpion, respiration take place through book lungs.

C.

Hirudinaria

464. Which of the following animals, never regenerates ? (a) Hydra (b) Leech (c) Planaria (d) Newt UPPSC Ashram Paddhati 29/09/2021

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 468. Most of the coelomic space in Hirudinaria is Ans. (b) : Leech never regenerates. filled with: Regeneration is the natural process of replacing or (a) Connective tissue restoring damaged or missing cells, tissues, organs, and (b) haemocoelomic fluid even entire body parts to full function. Hydra, Planaria possess the power of regeneration. It was discovered in (c) botryoidal tissue Hydra by Trembley, in 1740. Regeneration is of two (d) spongy tissue main type-Reparative and Restorative. PGT Biology 2004 Leeches are epimorphic, meaning they pass through the Ans. (c) : In Hirudinea (which are a member of stages of growth without changing fundamentally. Annelida), the botryoidal tissue is made up of two 465. Botryoidal tissue is the characteristic feature of different types of cell such as flattened endothelial like cells and granular botryoidal cell. The botryoidal tissue which of the following animal? goes through functional and structural changes due to (a) Pheretima (b) Nereis the different needs developing during the life cycle of (c) Hirudinaria (d) Aphrodite the animal. Botryoidal cells are aligned in cords or TGT (2016) 31/07/2021 clusters, occasionally enclosing few, small lacunae in Ans. (c) : In leeches, the botryoidal tissue is composed mature untreated leeches. Again, in unhealthy injured of two different cell types, granular botryoidal cells and animals - there occurs change of the botryoidal tissue flattened endothelial like cells containing a brown from cluster/cord like form to a hollow/tubular structure, representing pre-vascular structures. pigment and may serve an excretory function. Hence, 469. Of how many segments is Hirudinaria option "Hirudinaria is correct answer. granulosa is made of ? (a) 23 (b) 33 (c) 43 (d) 53 TGT 07/08/2021 Ans. (b) : Hirudinaria granulosa is commonly known as the Indian cattle leech. It occurs in freshwater ponds, lakes, tanks, swamps and slow stream, where it either swims by vertical undulation or grips objects with its suckers and moves by looping. Body of leech is metamerically divided into 33 segments or somites. Except the first two and the last seven, each segments is further superficially subdivided into rings or annuli by closely-set grooves or furrows. A typical segment possesses five annuli. Segments with less than five annuli are referred to as incomplete. A temporary clitellum is formed by segments 9th, 10th and 11th during breeding season. 466. Botryoidal tissue is found in 470. Which of the following statements is not true (a) sponges (b) Flat worms about the India leech, Hirudinaria? (c) insects (d) leeches (a) Its medical use in India dates back to around UPPCS Pre 2009, 2001, 1997, PGT 2010 1000 BC Ans. (d) : In leeches of the phylum Annelida, the (b) It sucks blood from fish, frog, cattles and botryoidal tissue is composed of two different cell humans types, granular botryoidal cells and flattened endothelial (c) Digestion of the blood takes 10 to 14 months - like cells, containing a brown pigment and may serve (d) Its body cavity is well developed an excretory function. TGT 07/08/2021 467. How many somites are present in Hirudinaria? Ans. (d) : Hirudinaria is an organism belonging to (a) 32 (b) 33 phylum Annelida in kingdom Animalia. Hirudinaria is (c) 34 (d) 35 the name of a genus of common Indian blood sucking UP PGT 17/08/2021 leeches. It sucks blood from fish, frog, cattles and Ans. (b) : 33 somites are present in Hirudinaria. humans. Digestion of the blood takes 10 to 14 months. Its medical use in India dates back to around 1000 BC. Somites are a set of bilaterally paired blocks of paraxial Its body cavity is not well developed. mesoderm that form in the embryonic stage of somitogenesis, along the head-to-tail axis in segmented 471. Which one of the following is a bisexual animal? (a) Leech (b) Ascaris animals. Hirudinaria are also known as Indian cattle leech. It is a temporary ectoparasite that feeds on cattle (c) Honeybee (d) Housefly and blood. They are metamerically segmented. TGT Biology 2010 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (a) : Bisexual animals or hermaphrodites are different from unisexual animals, in the fact that they possess both male and female sex organs in a single individual. Bisexual nature is seen mostly in angiosperm plants but some animals own both the sex organs and also their gametes associate with both male and female sexes. Examples of such animals are the earthworm, tapeworm, sponge, leech, etc. 472. Which one is a bisexual animals ? (a) Leech (b) Ascaris (c) Honeybee (d) Housefly PGT Biology 2010 Ans. (a) : See the explanation of the above question. qa 473. A typical segment of leech is : (a) Quadriannulate (b) Biannulate (c) Triannulate (d) Quinquannulate UPPCS Pre 2000 Ans. (d) : A typical segment of leech is quinquannulate, externally it is divided into more segments called annuli. There are 109 annuli in a leech. A typical segment of the middle part of the body includes five annuli. It is used for reproduction process. 474. The saliva of leech contains an anticoagulant called : (a) Histidine (b) Hirudin (c) Heparin (d) Histamine UPPCS Pre 2000 Ans. (b) : The saliva of leech contains an anticoagulant called Hirudin which is naturally occurring peptide in the salivary gland of bloodsucking leeches that has a blood anticoagulant property. This is fundamental alimentary habit of hematophagy since the blood flowing after initial phlebotomy performed by the worm of the host skin. 475. Leech obtains continuous blood-stream from its victim by pouring in it : (a) heparin (b) hirudin (c) insulin (d) pepsin UPPCS Pre 1997, TGT 2009 Ans. (b) : Hirudin is an anticoagulant present in Salivary Secretion poured on wound, prevents the clotting of blood. 476. Hirudin : (a) helps in blood coagulation (b) prevents coagulation (c) helps in blood formation (d) destroys bacteria UPPCS Pre 1995 Ans. (b) : Hirudin is anticoagulant found in Saliva of leech, it prevent coagulation. 477. How many pairs of pretesticular nephridia are present in Hirudinaria? (a) 17 (b) 11 (c) 6 (d) 23 UPPCS Pre 2008 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (c) : In Hirudinaria the excretory system includes 17 pairs of nephridia. They are arranged in 6th to 22nd segments, one pair in each segment. In these 17 pairs the first six pairs will not show contact with testis. They are called pre-testicular nephridia. The next 11 pairs of nephridia will show contact with testis, hence they are called testicular nephridia. 478. Which is a hermaphrodite form? (a) Leech (b) Ascaris (c) Mosquito (d) Cockroach TGT Biology 1999 Ans. (a) : Hermaphrodite organisms are those organisms in which both male and female sex organs are present in a single individual. Earth worm, tapeworm, leech and sponge are hermaphroditic organisms. Ascaris, mosquito and cockroach are unisexual. 479. Anticoagulant in the saliva of leech is known as: (a) Heparin (b) Hirudin (c) Sympathin (d) Serotonin UPPCS Pre 2004 Ans. (b) : Hirudin is anticoagulant in the saliva of leech. Heparin is another anticoagulant found in the blood of human secreted by mast cells. 480. How many chambers are found in the crop of leech (a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 9 (d) 10 PGT Biology 2009 PGT Biology 2013 Ans. (d) : Leech, (subclass Hirudinea), any of about 650 species of segmented worms (Phylum Annelida) characterized by a small sucker, which contains the mouth, at the anterior end of the body and a large sucker located at the posterior end. The leech uses its 15 cm (6 inch) proboscis as a hypodermic needle to suck blood from the host. Some species of leeches are predators of other animals, some eat organic debris and others are parasitic. The crop is the largest chamber of alimentary canal and extends from 9th to 18th segments, one chamber in each segment and a total of ten chambers. 481. Which of the following is a sanguivore? (a) Hirudinaria (b) Starfish (c) Paramecium (d) Obelia PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (a) : Hirudinaria granulosa is a common Indian leech found in freshwater tanks, ponds, lakes, swamps and slow streams. It feeds by sucking the blood of fishes and frogs, and also of cattle or human being when they enter the pond. Blood sucking feeding habit is knows as sanguivorous. 482. Hirudinaria is the leech of : (a) Cattle (b) fish (c) snake (d) dog UPPCS Pre 1995

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (a) : Hirudinaria is the cattle leech live in fresh water, while some are marine or terrestrial. They are also known as Indian cattle leech. It is a temporary ectoparasite that feeds on cattle and blood. It is sanguivorous (blood-sucking) in nature. 483. In Hirudinaria granulosa, a temporary clitellum is formed by the segments (a) V-VII (b) XII-XXV (c) IX-XI (d) III-V PGT Biology 2003 Ans. (c) : There is no permanent clitellum in Hirudinaria but temporary clitellum develops only during breeding season. This region possesses glandular wall. In Hirudinaria granulosa the temporary clitellum is formed by IX - XI Parts. But it is produced during the breeding season. Male and female genitals are in the V and XI segment.

486. Suckers of Leech are located at : (a) anterior end of body (b) posterior end of body (c) all over the body (d) anterior and posterior end of body PGT Biology 2010 PGT Biology 2013 Ans. (d) : Leeches belong to the sub class Hirudinea. They are organisms from the group Annelida. They are segmented worms. The medicinal leech Hirudo medicinalis is commonly used for treatment of blood related disorders or removal of venom from the blood. They have two suckers, one at each end. They are called as the anterior and posterior sucker. The posterior is mainly used for leverage or locomotion by attachment to the surface. The anterior sucker which consists of the jaw and teeth is used for sucking blood. It is used in feeding from the humans and other mammals.

8.

484. The posterior sucker of Hirudinaria is made of (a) 2 segments (b) 5 segments (c) 7 segments (d) 10 segments UPPCS Pre 2010 Ans. (c) : Posterior segments of Hirudinaria include anus and suckers, which help organism for stick to the substratum. Segment number XXVII to XXXIII (27th to 33rd), It means a total of 7 segments carry the portion of the posterior segment of the organism. 485. How many segments form the posterior suckers. (a) Two (b) Five (c) Seven (d) Ten PGT Biology 2005 Ans. (c) : See the explanation of the above question. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Arthropoda

487. An insect that produces shellac is : (a) Apis indica (b) Bombyx mori (c) Laccifer lacca (d) Dactylopius coccus TGT (2016) 31/07/2021 Ans. (c) : Shellac is resin secreted by the female lac bug (Laccifer lacca). The indian lac (Laccifer lacca), a south Asian scale insect, secretes a resin material onto trees that can be used as shellac, an important ingredient in various inks, paints, sealants and varnishes. 488. Of the following insects which takes its food after liquefying ? (a) House fly (b) Mosquito (c) Cockroach (d) Honey bee TGT (2016) 31/07/2021 Ans. (a) : The housefly belong to the family Diptera. The flies of this group have chemosensilla as receptors on the tarsi. These receptors help in sensing the presence of sugar or carbohydrates in liquid or dried form. The labium being articulate and possessing at its end a sponge - like labellum. There are paired mandibles and maxillae are present. After sensing the presence of food, the insects secrete viscous liquid as saliva. This saliva and the atmospheric water helps the sugar to get dissolved and get converted in the liquid form. The liquid is then soaked and sucked, with the help of the mouth parts. The food enters the labellum through minute channels. The food moves from the mouth to oesophagus. 489. Which of the following statements is true regarding the Nauplius larva ? (a) Both antennules and antennae are biramous. (b) Only antennules are biramous. (c) Only mandibles are biramous. (d) Both antennae and mandibles are biramous. TGT (2016) 31/07/2021

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (d) : The true statement regarding the Nauplius 493. Nauplius is the larva of : larva is both antennae and mandibles are biramous. (a) Mollusca (b) Insecta Nauplius larva is the first free swimming, planktonic (c) Crustacea (d) Ecninodermata larva of most marine and some freshwater crustaceans. UPPCS Pre 1999 Crustaceans belong to the phylum Arthropoda. It has no Ans. (c) : Nauplius, Zoea, Mysis, Megalopa, evident segmentation. There is a single median, Phyllosoma and Alima larva are found in Crustacea. Naupliar eye at the front of the head. There are only But Nauplius is the simplest and commonest type of three pairs of appendages, the first and second antennae larva found in most marine Crustacea. It is a and the mandibles are biramous. microscopic, oval or pear shaped with an Crustacean appendages are typically biramous, which unsegmented body having a broad anterior head means they are divided into two parts. Each branch region, an intermediate trunk and a posterior bilobed consists of a series of segments attached end-to-end. anal region. 494. Which of the following pair is not correctly matched ? (a) Cnidaria - Radially symmetrical, tissue level organization (b) Platyhelminthes - Unsegmented, acoelomate (c) Nematoda - Unsegmented, pseudocoelomate (d) Arthropoda - Metameric, coelomate UP PGT 17/08/2021 Nauplius Larva Ans. (d) : Incorrect match is : Arthropoda - Metameric, 490. Which of the following statement is true coelomate. regarding the 3-pairs of appendages found in Arthropods are metameric, protostome coelomates (acoelomates and pseudocoelomates are also the Nauplius larva ? protostomes). Arthropods inherited metamerism from (a) Antennules and antennae are biramus annelids in which body organs and appendages were (b) Only antennules are biramus serially repeated in each segments. According to (c) Only mandibles are biramus Williston's rule of serial homology, arthropods used this feature to specialise body organs and compaction of the (d) Both antennae and mandibles are biramus body segments. UP PGT 17/08/2021 495. The larval life of Bombyx mori lasts for _____ Ans. (d) : See the explanation of the above question. days. 491. Cyclops is the secondary host of: (a) 32 (b) 42 (a) Hook-worm (b) Pin-worm (c) 52 (d) 62 (c) Guinea-worm (d) Round-worm UP PGT 17/08/2021 UPPCS Pre 1994 Ans. (b) : The larval life of Bombyx mori lasts for 42 PGT Biology 2004 days. Bombyx mori (domestic silk moth), is an insect Ans. (c) : Cyclops is one of the most common genus of from the moth family Bombycidae. The silkworm is the fresh water Copepods. Cyclops is intermediate host of larva or caterpillar of a silk moth. The female adult dies Dracunculus (guinea - worm disease) and fish upon depositing her eggs. After 10 days, the eggs hatch and larva emerge. The larva eat and grow for tapeworm (Diphyllobothrium latum) infection. approximately 6 weeks, and then they begin next stage. 492. Commonest crustacean larva is : 496. Which of the following is not a true fish? (a) Alimas (b) Zoaea (a) Silverfish (b) Goldfish (c) Protozoaea (d) Nauplius (c) Silver carp (d) Dogfish PGT Biology 2009 GIC 19/09/2021 Ans. (d) : When the eggs hatches, the larvae is Ans. (a) : Silverfish is not a true fish. It is a species of produced. The larvae may pass through various stages small, primitive, wingless insect in the order and are known by different name to form an adult. In Zygentoma. Silverfish get their name from the insect's the case of crustaceans, there are larval and immature silvery, metallic appearance and fish like shape and stages. These are the stages through which the organism movements. They are also known as "bristletails" passes during their life cycle and development from the because of their three long, bristle like or tail like egg stage to adult. This is the larval stage which is appendages on the rear end of their body. Silverfish are found in most of the Crustaceans. The nauplius stage is most often found in moist and humid places and are characterized by the use of appendages of the head for active at night (nocturnal). They feed on sugar and swimming. The nauplius is the stage at which a simple, starch and are not dangerous, but can damage property and trigger allergies. unpaired eye first appears. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 497. Which of the following groups of Arthropods have two pairs of legs in every segment of their trunk and have cylindrical body? (a) Centipede (b) Millepede (c) Prawn (d) Spider RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) Ans. (b) : Millipedes are a group of arthropods having two pairs of legs in every segment of their trunk and a cylindrical body.

⇒Centipedes have only one pair of legs on each body segment and a flat body.

⇒Prawns are crustaceans with a shell, five pairs of swimming legs, five pairs of walking legs, three with claws, and a tail.

⇒The spiders are characterized by having four pairs of legs and the cephalothorax and abdomen joined by a narrow pedicel. 498. Chitinous plates making the exoskeleton in arthropoda are called – (a) Pleurites (b) Sclerites (c) Sternites (d) Tergites UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (b) : Chitinous plates making the exoskeleton in arthropoda are called sclerites. They usually do not correspond to particular anatomical areas. Sclerites in particular areas are given specific names : • Tergites – on the dorsal surface of the body. • Laterogites – on the lateral part of the dorsal surface. • Pleurites – on the pleural region derived from the base of limbs (legs). • Sternites – on the ventral surface. 499. Which of the following characters belongs to the animals of Phylum Arthropoda ? (a) Cold blood with jointed appendages and closed circulatory system (b) Triploblastic, Poikilothermic with jointed appendages and open circulatory system (c) Stenothermic, triploblastic with jointed appendages and open circulatory system (d) Diploblastic, poikilothermic with jointed and open circulatory system UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (b) : The phylum Arthropoda animal are triploblastic. They have all three germinal layers, which are ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm. • Arthropoda are poikilotherm (cold-blooded) with a variable body temperature that tends to fluctuate with the temperature of its surroundings • An open circulatory system is found in arthropods that pumps blood into a cavity called a hemocoel. • Arthropoda have paired jointed appendages. 500. Modified form of Zoaea larva is : (a) Mysis (b) Alima (c) Megalopa (d) Cypris UP PGT 2016 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (b) The so-called Alima larva of Squilla which hatch out from the egg directly, is a modified Zoaea larva. Being pelagic and having a glass-like transparency it occurs in large numbers in the plankton. It has a slender form, and a short and broad carapace. All the head appendages are present. Abdomen is six segmented having 4 orb pairs of pleopods i.e. swimming legs. The alima larva differs from the zoea larva in the armature of the telson and a very large raptorial second maxillipede. 501. The "Green gland" is the excretory organ of : (a) Mollusca (b) Crustacea (c) Urochordata (d) Cephalochordata UPPCS Pre 2007 Ans. (b) : The Arthropods make a diverse group of organism including insects, marine animals etc. They are characterized by segmented soft bodies that are covered in hard exoskeletons. They have paired appendages that are usually joined to the abdominal portion of the organism's body. The crustaceans is a subgroup of Arthropods that consists of marine animals like, crabs, prawns, shrimps etc. The Crustaceans also have a hard exoskeleton covering. Larval type is Nauplius. The crustaceans have a paired set of glands having characteristic green colour due to which they are called green glands. As they are present in the larger antennae of the organism they are also called antennal glands. Each of the green glands is made up of a labyrinth, and a bladder. The labyrinth is the major excretory part of the green gland. 502. Metamorphosis in cockroach is regulated mainly by : (a) Corpora cardiaca (b) Prothora gland (c) Corpora allata (d) Brain TGT Biology 2010 UP PGT 2016 Ans. (c) Metamorphosis in cockroach is mainly regulated by corpora allata by secretion of Juvenile hormone. It's removal can cause an immature larva to pupate at its next molt, resulting in a miniature adult. Metamorphosis is a biological process that involves sudden and abrupt changes in the body structure of the animal by cell growth and differentiation. 503. The number of segments in the legs of Scorpion are : (a) 7 (b) 8 (c) 9 (d) 10 UPPCS Pre 2010 Ans. (a) : Scorpions are Arthropods, they have eight legs, two pedipalps and a tail with a venom-injecting barb. Scorpions have two venom glands that produce venom used in hunting and self defense. The body is divided into three segments. The prosoma or cephalothorax (head), the mesosoma (abdomen), the metasoma (tail). Pedipalps (which have chelae commonly called claw or pincer) and four pairs of walking legs. The 7 segments are Coxa, trochanter, femur, patella, tibia, basitarsus and telotarsus.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 507. In honeybees, specified dance is meant for– 504. Consider the following statements : (a) Reproduction Assertion (A) : Blood of some invertebrates is bluish. (b) Informing the source of food Reason (R) : They contain a copper carrying (c) Killing foreign substance haemocyanin. (d) Entertainment Select the correct answer using the codes given TGT Biology 2002 below : Ans. (b) : See the explanation of the above question. Code : 508. Which one of the following is known as Water(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct flea? explanation of (A). (a) Cyclops (b) Daphnia (b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the (c) Lucifer (d) Mysis correct explanation of (A). UPPCS Pre 2006 (c) (A) is true but (R) is false Ans. (a&b) : Daphnia and Cyclops are known as (d) (R) is false but (A) is true water flea. UPPCS Pre 2004 (a) Cyclops → It is a single median eye arthropods. Ans. (a) : Blood of invertebrates is bluish due to presence of copper containing haemocyanin pigment. (b) Daphnia → It is water flea. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct (c) Lucifer → It is a lac insect explanation of (A). (d) Mysis → Mysis is the larva of crustacean. 505. Tail wagging dance is the language of : 509. Which one of the following is a living fossil ? (a) Silkworms (b) Lac worms (a) Seymouria (b) Lepisma (c) Honeybees (d) Fishes (c) Dodo (d) Limulus PGT Biology 2010 UPPCS Pre 2006 Ans. (c) : The waggle dance, or wag - tail dance, is Ans. (d) : Limulus is a living fossil. performed by honeybees foraging at food sources that are over 150 meters away from the hive. This dance, Seymouria → It is a connecting link between unlike the round and sickle dance, communicates both Amphibia and Reptiles. distance and direction to potential recruits. A bee that Lepisma → Lepisma is an arthropod also called performs a waggle dance runs straight ahead for a short silver fish distance, returns in a semicircle to the starting point, Dodo → An extinct bird of Mauritius runs again through the straight course, then makes a Limulus → Limulus is called king crabs. semicircle in the opposite direction to complete a full, figure eight circuit.

510. Sacculina belong to : (a) Acrothoracica (c) Rhizocephala

(b) Ascothoracida (d) Apoda UPPCS Pre 2006 Ans. (c) : Sacculina belongs to Rhizocephala. Sacculina is a genus of barnacles that is a parasitic castrator of crabs. The female Sacculina larva finds a crab and walks on its until she finds a joint. The Rhizocephala are all highly specialized parasites on crustaceans (mainly decapoda).

511. Scorpion respires with the help of : (a) skin (b) gills (c) lungs (d) book-lungs 506. In bees, 'waggle' dance is meant for UPPCS Pre 2000 (a) Reproduction Ans. (d) : Scorpion respires with the help of book(b) Communication lungs. A book lungs is a type of respiration organ used (c) Visiting the source of food for atmospheric gas exchange that is found in many arachnids, Ex-scorpions & spiders. Each book lung (d) Killing foreign beings consists of a series of thin plates that are highly TGT Biology 2010 vascular and are arranged in relation to each other like Ans. (c) : See the explanation of the above question. the pages of a book. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 512. Arachnids possess : (a) 3 pairs of legs (c) 5 pairs of legs

Ans. (a) : Members of the class Insecta have two pairs of wings, three pairs of jointed legs, tri(b) 4 pairs of elgs segmented bodies, head, thorax and abdomen, hard (d) 6 pairs of legs exoskeletons, a pair of compound eyes, a pair of UPPCS Pre 2003 antennae and bilateral symmetry. But the diagnostic Ans. (b) : Class Arachnida of the phylum Arthropoda feature of insects is three pair of legs, because, the include Scorpion has 4 pair legs. These 4 pair legs other features, which are mentioned above are also situated in the prosoma region. Arachnids body present in other organisms. consists of a cephalothorax, which bears the 517. Peripatus resembles an arthropods in having : mouthparts and legs and an abdomen. Arachnids also (a) segmented metanephridia have two additional pairs of appendages. The first pair (b) paired appendages is chelicerae and next pair is pedipalps. (c) ciliated reproductive duct 513. The two pairs of wings in Periplaneta are (d) dorsal tubular heart situated on : (a) prothorax and mesothorax UPPCS Pre 1997 (b) mesothorax and metathorax Ans. (d) : Peripatus is connecting link between Annelida and Arthropoda. Peripatus has following (c) prothorax and metathorax arthropods characters like presence of antennae, (d) metathorax and Ist abdominal segment cuticle has thin deposit of chitin, haemocoelic body UPPCS Pre 1997 cavity, dorsal tubular heart and tracheal respiratory Ans. (b) : Body of Periplaneta is divided into head, system. thorax and abdomen. Thorax consist of three segment, 518. Peripatus is a connecting link between prothorax, mesothorax and metathorax. Mesothorax (a) Annelida and mollusca and metathorax bear a pair of wings dorsally, except (b) Mollusca and echinodermata Blatta orientalis. (c) Annelida and Arthropoda 514. Archnida is characterised by : (d) Arthropoda & Mollusca (a) cephalothorax, 3 pairs of legs, book lungs and mandibulate mouth parts. TGT Biology 2011 (b) head, thorax, abdomen, 4 pairs of legs, Ans. (c) : Peripatus is the connecting link between booklungs, chelicerae and pedipalps Annelida and Arthropoda. (c) cephalothorax, chelicerae, pedipalps Some Annelida characters of Peripatus are – compound eye and booklungs 1. Presence of thick cuticle. (d) cephalothorax, chelicerae, pedipalps, 4 pairs of 2. Presence of simple eyes. legs, simple eyes. 3. Body is pseudosegmented and worm like UPPCS Pre 1997 4. An excretory organ is nephridia. Ans. (b) : Class Arachnida eg. Scorpion of phylum Some Arthropod characters of Peripatus are Arthropoda, body divisible into head, thorax and (1) Presence of antennae. abdomen, 4 pair of walking legs, booklungs (2) The trachea is the respiratory organ (respiratory organ), chelicerae, padipalps. (3) Presence of clawed and pseudosegmented walking 515. Which of the following is apterygote insect : legs. (a) Bed bug (b) Head louse (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Collembola UPPCS Pre 2001 Ans. (d) : Collembola or springtails, a wide range of animals, are generally predators. They are not insects because they lack wings and have soft bodies and hidden mouth parts. Springtails are known scientifically as Collembola. The primary characteristic of the apterygotes is they are primitively wingless. 519. Which of the following sets of animals belongs to the same class of a phylum : 516. Diagnostic feature of insects is : (a) Hydra, Jelly fish, Cray fish (a) Three pairs of legs (b) Bat, Pigeon, Whale (b) Compound eyes (c) Whale, Duck billed mole, Kangaroo (c) Chitinous body (d) Spider, Scorpion, Tick (d) Two pairs of wings UPPCS Pre 1996 UPPCS Pre 1996 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 524. Book lungs are found in : (a) cockroach (b) scorpion (c) earthworm (d) flatworm UPPCS Pre 2009, 1995 Ans. (b) : Book-lung, form of respiratory organ found in certain air breathing arachnid arthropods (scorpions 520. Which of following pair does not belong to the and some spiders). Each book lung consists of a series same class : of thin plates that are highly vascular (i.e., richly (a) Bat and Rat supplied with blood) and are arranged in relation to (b) Lizard and Snake each other like the pages of a book. These plates extend into an internal pouch formed by the external skeleton (c) Housefly and Tick that opens to the exterior by a small slit. This provides (d) Frog and Toad an extensive surface for the exchange of oxygen and UPPCS Pre 1999 carbon dioxide with the surrounding air. There are four pairs in scorpions and up to two in spiders. Ans. (c) : House fly and tick belong to same phylum Arthropoda but classes are not same. House fly belong to the class Insecta and tick belong to the class Arachnida. Ans. (d) : Spider, Scorpion, Tick belong to the same class Arachnida, phylum Arthropoda, because they having an exoskeleton, a segmented body, a paired pointed appendages. They are distinguished by their pointed limbs and cuticle made of chitin, often mineralised with calcium carbonate.

521. In which one of the following respiratory pigments heme groups and iron are missing : (a) Haemocyanins (b) Hemerythrin (c) Chlorocruorins (d) Haemoglobin UPPCS Pre 1998 Ans. (a) : Haemocyanin is a copper containing respiratory pigment found in mollusca and Arthropoda. Haemoglobin contain globin protein and haem group. Some annelids have the iron-containing green pigment chlorocruorin, other the iron-containing red pigment hemerythrin. 522. In which of the following animals a trilobite larva is found : (a) Peripatus (b) Limulus (c) Fasciola (d) Ascaris UPPCS Pre 1998 Ans. (b) : Limulus is an Arthropod called king crabs. Limulus is a 'Living fossil'. Trilobite larva found in life cycle of Limulus. Cercaria larva found in Fasciola and Rhabditiform larva found in Ascaris. 523. The spinnerets of spiders which secretes silken threads for making the web are situated : (a) anterior to the anus (b) in the mouth (c) in the chelicerae (d) in the pedipalps UPPCS Pre 1998 525. The correct sequence for the life cycle of Cimex is : Ans. (a) : Spider include phylum Arthropoda, class Arachnida. The web is made of silk produced by (a) Egg→ Larva→ Adult spinneret present in the posterior part of the abdomen (b) Egg→ Larva→ Pupa→Adult (anterior to the anus). Spinnerets are tubular or conical (c) Egg→ Nymph→ Adult structures and silk is produced in liquid form at the (d) Egg→ Pupa→ Adult tip. They have spigots in them that connect to the silk glands. UPPCS Pre 2009 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (c) : Cimex is commonly called bedbug. Correct sequence of the life cycle of bedbug - Egg → Nymph → Adult. This metamorphosis is called incomplete metamorphosis. A female adult bed bug lays 250 to 300 eggs in their life span. Nymphs are newly hatched bed bugs and generally measure up to 1.5 mm. After five weeks of maturation, the adult bed bug measures up to 4.5 mm long.

Ans. (a) : The procuticle in most land Arthropoda, particularly insects, is covered externally with a thin, waxy, water-resistant outer layer containing no chitin. That outer layer is the epicuticle, and it is much thinner than the procuticle. The chitinous procuticle is formed of an outer exocuticle and the inner endocuticle. This type of exoskeleton, helps prevent water loss from an insect's body, allowing it to survive well in a terrestrial environment.

526. In insects, juvenile hormone is secreted by 530. Spiders and Scorpions are included in class : (a) Prothoracic gland (b) Corpora allata (a) Arachnida (b) Echarida (c) Corpora cardiaca (d) Salivary glands (c) Actinozoa (d) Anthozoa UPPCS Pre 2009 TGT Biology 2005 Ans. (b) : Corpora allata is an endocrine gland which generates Juvenile hormone. It actually plays a crucial Ans. (a) : Arthropoda includes Arachnida. It is a class role in metamorphosis. As long as this hormone is of joint-legged invertebrate animals or arthropods in present in the blood, the molting epidermal cells lay the subphylum Chelicerata. They have a segmented down a larval cuticle. In the last larval stage, the body with head, thorax and abdomen. Spiders and juvenile hormone is no longer produced and the insect Scorpions are included in class Arachnida. The class undergoes metamorphosis into an adult. Arachnida is a large and diverse group. 527. Codes : 531. Which of the following animals respire through (1) Aquatic book lungs ? (2) Terrestrial (a) King crab (b) Scorpion (3) More than 11 body segments (c) Prawn (d) Octopus (4) Mandibles present PGT Biology 2011 (5) Chelicerae present Ans. (b) : Different organisms have different structure Which of the following characters are found in which acts as the respiratory organ. In the Crustaceans, there are gills to exchange the gases. There is a tracheal insects ? system in the insects which has developed to allow the (a) Only 1, 2 and 3 (b) Only 3, 4 and 5 exchange of gases. There are book lung in the arachnids (c) All of the above (d) Only 2, 3 and 4 like the scorpions. UPPCS Pre 1998 532. A chitinous exoskeleton occurs in : Ans. (d) These characters are found in insects (a) Birds (b) Fishes → Terrestrial (c) Insects (d) Tortoises → More than 11 body segments TGT Biology 2010 → Mandibles present PGT Biology 2010 → Land and freshwater habitat Ans. (c) : Insects are the largest group of animals that → Three pairs of jointed legs & segmented bodies. have an exoskeleton. Insects have exoskeleton made of 528. In insects, uric acid is temporarily stored in the a substance called chitin. The exoskeletons of crabs, lobsters, shrimp, spiders, ticks, mites, scorpions and (a) liver (b) lungs related animals are also made of chitin. (c) fat bodies (d) cloaca 533. The single group of organisms which contains TGT Biology 2004 over 0.75 million species is : Ans. (c) : Uric acid is a waste substance excreted by insects. Uric acid is high in nitrogen but also contains carbon, oxygen and hydrogen. Uric acid is produced by the malpighian tubules and is usually excreted as a solid. Uric acid is stored in the fat body and accessory glands (males) of such insects.

(a) Insects (c) Monkeys

(b) Animal (d) Fungi Delhi SSB PGT Biology 2015

Ans. (a) : There are millons of living organisms such as plants, animals, bacteria and slime moulds etc. The 529. Which enabled Arthropods most to survive on single group of insects contains over 0.75 million species. Every year about 15000 new organisms are land : discovered. Thousands are still unknown and are yet to (a) Chitinous cuticle (b) Uricotelic excretion be identified and described. It is practically impossible (c) Omnivorous habit (d) Jointed appendages to study each and every individual. Also it is difficult to UPPCS Pre 1994 remember their name, characters and uses. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 534. Which of the following cannot folds its wings ? (a) House fly (b) Cockroach (c) Fruit fly (d) Dragonfly Delhi SSB PGT Biology 2015 Ans. (d) : Dragonfly can not fold their wings together, dragonflies lose this ability after their first flight (directly after the hatching process, wings of Dragonflies are still folded). Dragonflies rest with their wings held straight out. Dragonflies can not sting or harms humans. 535. Haemocoelomic system is found in the members of (a) Arthropoda (b) Mollusca (c) Echinodermata (d) Hemichordata PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (a) : Haemocoelomic system is found in the Arthropoda. The body cavity found in many invertebrates where the hemolymph circulates through. It contains blood or hemolymph and function as part of the circulatory system. The remainder of its journey takes place within the body cavity called the hemocoel. Blood is pumped by a heart into the body cavities where tissue are surrounded by the blood. In most vertebrates the oxygen of the body pass through capillaries in a closed circulatory system. 536. Bombyx mori belongs to the class : (a) Lepidoptera (b) Diptera (c) Hymenoptera (d) None of the above UPPCS Pre 2001 PGT Biology 2003 UPPCS Pre 2001, 2009 Ans. (d) : Bombyx mori belong to class Insecta of Phylum Arthropoda, as it can fly but in adult age, female Bombyx mori is not able to fly due to its heavy weight. It is an economically important insect, being a primary producer of silk. Classification – Phylum- Arthropoda Class-Insecta Order- Lepidoptera Family- Bombycidae Genus - Bombyx Species - mori 537. Rock bee is: (a) Apis florea (b) Apis indica (c) Apis dorsata (d) None of these PGT Biology 2011

Ans. (c) : Apis dorsata or giant honey bee is among the largest in the species of bees. They have body length ranging from 17 to 20 mm and a forewing length ranging from 12 to 15 mm. As in other species of honeybees, depending on the race, Apis dorsata is highly variable in coloration, which is also associated with distribution. Their nests are typically constructed in exposed or open and conspicuous areas such as, rock, cliffs, tall trees, or even buildings. They are also known as rock bees. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

538. Which of the following is a social insect : (a) Kalotermes (b) Cimex (c) Bombyx (d) Mantis UPPCS Pre 1994 Ans. (a) : Insects which live in a colony called-social insect. Kalotermes live in the colony so Kalotermes are a social insect and others examples are not. Social insects are the ants, bees, wasps and termites that have organized societies. 539. Hormone helping insect metamorphosis is : (a) Thyroxine (b) Ecdysone (c) Pheromone (d) all of these TGT Biology 2013 Ans. (b) : Metamorphosis is the process of developmental stage of an organism after birth or hatching. Ecdysone is a steroid hormone which is secreted from prothoracic glands of insects and controls ecdysis (metamorphosis). It is produced by prothoracic glands of insects and helps in molting. 540. Silkgland of slikmoth are modification of : (a) Collateral glands (b) Mushroom glands (c) Salivary glands (d) Anal glands UPPCS Pre-2010 TGT Biology 2010, 2013 Ans. (c) : Silkworm, common name for the silk producing larvae of any of several species of moth. Silkworms possess a pair of specially modified salivary glands called silk glands, or sericteries, which are used in the production of cocoons. 541. Termites digest wood with the help of an enzyme secreted by the (a) salivary glands (b) cells in the midgut (c) symbiotic protozoa (d) bacteria and fungi outside the body TGT Biology 2009 Ans. (c) : Termites eat wood, which is mostly cell wise which they can not digest without their symbiotic gut protozoans. These protozoans can not digest cellulose either. So their own symbiotic bacteria digest it for them and for the termites. The termites themselves do not have such enzymes in their body they must rely on the microorganism in their gut to provide it for them. The protozoa break up the wood cellulose into simple sugars which both organisms can digest. When the protozoa digest the wood cellulose, they release acetic acid and other acids that the host termite is able to metabolize. 542. Which enabled Arthropods most to survive on land? (a) Chitinous cuticle (b) Uricotelic excretion (c) Omnivorous habit (d) Jointed appendages PGT Biology 2009

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (a) : The most important feature for arthropods to survive on land and to maintain adaptation in adverse conditions is the chitinous cuticle found on their body. In arthropods, the integument, the external skin or shell is the product of a single layer of ectodermal epithelium. The layer of epithelium on the basement membrane produce the cuticle, which begins as a tough, flexible layer of chitin. 543. For seeing a haemocoel which animal will you select ? (a) Hydra (b) Centipede (c) Fasciola (d) Sponge TGT Biology 2004 Ans. (b) : Haemocoel is the body cavity, between the organs of arthropods and molluscs through which the blood circulates. Of the given options, centipede is an arthropod and thus, possess hemocoel. The haemocoel has haemolymph which helps in gaseous exchange. 544. The insect which lays eggs in water is : (a) Butterfly (b) Housefly (c) Dragon fly (d) Sand fly TGT Biology 2010 Ans. (c) : Dragonflies are especially vulnerable to predators while they are in the egg or nymph stage. Once, they become airborne they are harder to catch. In the water, they are preyed on by fish, water beetles, frog and other carnivorous water species. 545. The correct sequence of segments in the pedipalp of Palamnaeus is (a) Coxa, trochanter, femur, tibia, patella and tarsus (b) Coxa, femur, trochanter, tibia, patella and tarsus. (c) Coxa, trochanter, brachium, humerus, manus and finger. (d) Coxa, trochanter, humerus, brachium, manus and finger. UPPCS Pre 2009 Ans. (d) : The correct sequence of segments in the pedipalp of palamnaeus is abbreviated as (THBMM) whose expanded form is coxa, trochanter humerus, brachium, manus and finger. 546. In the walking leg of prawn the three podomeres that lie in sequence between cox and carpus are (a) Merus-Ischium-Basis (b) Basis-Ischium-Merus (c) Ischium-Merus-Basis (d) Basis-Merus-Ischium UPPCS Pre 2010 Ans. (b) : In the walking leg of prawn, the three podomeres that lie in sequence between cox and carpus are basis-ischium-merus. Seven segments are coxa, basis, ischium, merus, carpus, propodus and dactylus. The appendages of prawn are many and jointed. The segment of an appendage are known as podomeres. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

547. Biramous appendage is the characteristic of: (a) Chilopoda (b) Diplopoda (c) Crustacea (d) Cephalopoda UPPCS Pre 2010 Ans. (c) : A biramous appendage is a type of appendage which is branched into two. There is a bifurcation at the end of these appendages. The crustacean are the organisms which have a biramous appendages. The appendages have a basal or first portion referred to as protopod. The two bifurcated segments are called as endopod and exopod. 548. Malpighian tubules are (a) excretory organs of annelids (b) respiratory organs of insects (c) excretory organs of frogs (d) excretory organs of insects TGT Biology 2004 Ans. (d) : The malpighian tubule system is a type of excretory and osmoregulatory system found in some insects, myriapods, arachnids, and tardigrades. The system consist of branching tubules extending from the alimentary canal that absorbs solutes, water, and wastes from the surrounding hemolymph. Malpighian tubules are excretory organs in most of the Insects.

549. Complete metamorphosis is found in (a) bed bugs (b) grasshoppers (c) butterflies (d) silverfish TGT Biology 2004 Ans. (c) : Most of insects undergo complete metamorphosis, where each stage of the life cycle, egg, larva, pupa and adult, looks different from the others. These insects are called as holometabolous. It is observed in various insect species including, butterflies, moths, trueflies, ants, bees, beetles and house fly too. Cockroach shows gradual metamorphosis.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 550. Complete metamorphosis occurs in : 553. Following character is common in cockroach and centipede(a) Mosquito (b) Grasshoppers (a) Compound eyes (b) Jointed legs (c) Bed bug (d) Silver fish (c) Book lungs (d) Green glands UPPCS Pre 1996 GIC 19/09/2021 Ans. (a) : Complete metamorphosis occur in mosquito, housefly, butterfly, honeybees. Incomplete Ans. (b) : Cockroach and centipede both have jointed metamorphosis occur in bed-bug, mayflies, dragonfly. legs. They are both invertebrates and belong to the phylum Arthropoda. All arthropods have jointed appendages, that allow them to have greater flexibility A. Cockroach and range of movement. Centipede body is segmented into many parts and each segment has single pair of 551. Which of the following is not true regarding the legs. Cockroach has three pairs of jointed legs, one pair of antennae and a rigid exoskeleton. blood vascular system of cockroach? (a) Its blood is called hemolymph 554. Where is peritrophic membrane present in Periplaneta? (b) Heart has 13 chambers (a) in oral cavity (c) Respiratory pigment absent in blood (d) Pulsatile vesicles absent (b) in the mid-gut TGT (2016) 31/07/2021 (c) outer to gut (d) present around salivary glands Ans. (d) : Pulsatile vesicles absent is not true regarding the blood vascular system of cockroach. Body cavity of RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) cockroach is known as hemocoel as it remains filled with hemolymph (blood). The heart is present along the Ans. (b) : Peritrophic membrane is present in mid-dorsal line of the body. The heart of cockroach is Periplaneta, in the mid-gut (mesenteron). It is a porous, an elongated muscular tube. It consists of 13 mesh-like membrane that envelops the food bolus in the segmentally arranged funnel - shaped chambers. In mesenteron and is secreted by the glandular cells of the between the 2 chambers, a pair of ostia is present. The anterior portion of the mesenteron. This membrane heart receives oxygenated blood from the dorsal sinus protects the wall of mesenteron from hard food through ostia. It extends from the tip of the head up to particles. The peritrophic membrane is composed of the abdominal end. The alary muscles hold the heart in regularly arranged chitin microfibrils, and species position. The blood of the cockroach is colorless due to specific proteins embedded in a proteoglycan matrix. the absence of haemoglobin which is the respiratory 555. Main excretory organ in cockroach is: pigment in blood and pulsatile vesicles is present. (a) Haversian tubules (b) Maligian tubules (c) Malpighian tubules (d) Aligian tubules UK SSSC L.T. (21/01/2018) Ans. (c) : Main excretory organ in cockroach is malpighian tubules. These are narrow tubes present in arthropod alimentary canals posterior portions. It is a highly convoluted structure that absorb solutes and water from the hemolymph and remove waste. The number of these tubules in cockroaches usually ranges 552. In cockroach, the endoskeletal structure, from 60 to 150. These tubules are the outgrowth of tentorium is found in the : alimentary canal and present at the junction of midgut (a) Mandibles (b) Thorax and hindgut. The main components of cockroach excreta are urea and uric acid. (c) Abdomen (d) Head TGT 07/08/2021 Ans. (d) : The head of a cockroach is a flattened and pear-shaped structure placed anteriorly at right angles to the long axis of the body. The exoskeleton of the head is formed by a number of sclerites. The cuticle in cockroach enters into the coelom and forms the endoskeleton and this endoskeleton in the head is known as tentorium. So, the head region has both completely developed endoskeleton and exoskeleton. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

556. The unit of compound eye of cockroach is – (a) Nephridia (b) Ommatidium (c) Phallomere (d) Plantula RPSC School Lecturer 2011 Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (b) : A cockroach has compound eyes found on the lateral sides of the head, each compound eye is a dark kidney-shaped structure made up of around 2000 hexagonal units called the ommatidia as simple eyes.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 557. In invertebrates, the haemoglobin is present in (a) Erythrocytes (b) Leucocytes (c) Blood plasma (d) Thrombocytes UP PGT 2016 Ans. (c) Haemoglobin is widely distributed among the invertebrates. Polymeric, extracellular hemoglobins are present in annelids, molluscs, crustacean, arthropods and nematodes. In vertebrates, the haemoglobin is in the red blood cell whereas in invertebrates it is dissolved in blood plasma. 558. Which one of the following has an open circulatory system? (a) Periplaneta (b) Hirudinaria (c) Octopus (d) Pheretima Bihar PGT 2019 Ans. (a) : Periplaneta (genus of cockroaches) belong to Arthropoda. Arthropods have an open circulatory system where the blood flows in open spaces, not in well-defined vessels. In Hirudinaria, Octopus and Pheretima closed type circulatory system are found. 559. Open type blood vascular system is found in : (a) Earthworm (b) Lizard (c) Cockroach (d) Toad UPPCS Pre 1996, 1995, TGT 2010 Ans. (c) : Open type or lacunar type blood vascular System is found in cockroach and blood flow within the body cavity or the haemocoel. In this, blood is pumped by the heart and flows open in the body cavity. Organs floating in the blood get nutrition directly. 560. Antenna of cockroach consists of : (a) One segment (b) Three segments (c) Five segments (d) Many segments UPPCS Pre 2001 Ans. (d) : Antenna of cockroach consist of many segments. The fact that cockroaches with only one antenna perform as well as those with two totaling the same length suggests either that they switch from using spatial to temporal comparisons when they lose an antenna. Each antenna of adult Periplaneta americana is as long as its body length (≈ 40 mm) and consists of approximately 140 segments. 561. The two pairs of wings in cockroach are situated on the : (a) Prothorax and mesothorax (b) Mesothorax and metathorax (c) Prothorax and metathorax (d) 1st and 2nd abdominal segments UPPCS Pre 1996 Ans. (b) : Cockroach has two pair of wings in mesothorax and metathorax. The first pair of wings called the tegmina comes out from the mesothorax and the second pair comes out from the metathorax. They are narrow, dark, opaque and leathery in texture. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

562. Excretory product of cockroach is : (a) Ammonia (b) Urea (c) Urea and ammonia (d) Uric acid UPPCS Pre 1996 Ans. (d) : Excretory product of cockroach is uric acid, birds also excretes uric acid. Cockroach can save water through the excretion of semisolid uric acid. Urea is the excreta of mammals. Deamination causes a uricotelic organism to excrete uric acid or its salts. Uricotelic species include reptiles, birds, ground snails and insects such as cockroaches. 563. The correct sequence of parts of the alimentary canal of cockroach is : (a) oesophagus, pharynx, gizzard, crop, mesenteron, colon, ileum (b) Pharynx, oesophagus, gizzard, crop, mesenteron, ileum, colon (c) oesophagus, pharynx, crop, gizzard mesenteron, colon, ileum (d) Pharynx, oesophagus, crop, gizzard, mesenteron, colon, ileum UPPCS Pre 1995 Ans. (*) : Alimentary canal of Cockroach Pharynx → Oesophagus → Crop → Gizzard → Mesenteron → Ileum → Colon. 564. Neurogenic heart is found in : (a) King crab (b) Snail (c) Cockroach (d) Leech UPPCS Pre 2005 Ans. (c) : The cockroach is an arthropod. Heart of cockroach is neurogenic which requires nervous impulse to contract. A cluster of neurons send impulse to contract. A cluster of neurons is present on the wall of the heart that produces the rhythmic motor output for the heartbeat. 565. Colleterial glands of cockroach help in : (a) Digestion (b) Copulation (c) Formation of Ootheca (d) fertilization TGT Biology 2002 Ans. (c) : The colleterial gland are present in third and fourth abdominal segments of female cockroach. They helps in secretion of egg case of ootheca. The colleterial glands of insects are organs associated with the female genital apparatus. In cockroaches, these glands produce secretions that cover two parallel rows of eggs during oviposition, and in oviparous species, these secretions become the tanned, sculpted, rigid outer casing of the ootheca. 566. Egg of cockroach is : (a) Isolecithal (b) Mesolecithal (c) Telolecithal (d) Centrolecithal PGT Biology 2010

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (d) : Eggs of cockroach are centrolecithal. During cytokinesis, centrolecithal zygotes undergo meroblastic cleavage where the cleavage plane extends only to the accumulated yolk and is superficial. This is due to the large dense yolk found within centrolecithal eggs and helps in delayed embryonic development. 567. The most swollen segment in the leg of cockroach is : (a) Coxa (b) Femur (c) Trochanter (d) Tarsus PGT Biology 2010 Ans. (a) : The cockroach has three pairs of strong welldeveloped legs segmented as coxa, trochanter, tibia. The basal segments are coxa, which are particularly large and most swollen part and well supplied with powerful muscles. 568. Prothoracic glands are found in : (a) Taenia (b) Periplaneta (c) Pila (d) Hirudinaria UPPCS Pre 1995 PGT Biology 2003 Ans. (b) : The prothoracic glands are either of a pair of endocrine glands located in the prothorax of cockroach. (Periplaneta). Ecdysone is the gonadotropic hormone of insect which induce molting in insects. When cockroach come to the age of molting, brain send signal that come to corpora allata. Corpora allata secrete prothoracicotropic hormone (PTTH). This PTTH goes to prothoracic gland. Prothoracic gland get activate and secrete gonadotropic or steroidal hormone ecdysone. Ecdysone induce molting of insects. 569. Clypeus in cockroach is : (a) Part of head (b) Part of leg (c) part of wing (d) part of thorax Delhi SSB PGT Biology 2015 Ans. (a) : A clypeus is one of the sclerites or plates present at the anterior - median region of the head. It is situated between the eyes, region of the head of the cockroach. In insects, the clypeus delimits the lower margin of the face, with the labrum articulated along the ventral margin of the clypeus. 570. Pungent smell in cockroach occurs due to : (a) Secretion of phallic gland (b) Secretion of collateral gland (c) Secretions of Pheromones (d) Living in dirty places GIC Biology 15.09.2015 Ans. (c) : Pheromones are the secretion of chemical substances leading to specific physiological or behavioural responses. They are mainly used to induce mating. Cockroach produces it to attract the opposite sex for mating. Their pheromones leave a strong, foul odour on materials they visit. The peculiar pungent smell of cockroach is produced by the secretion of pheromones. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

B.

Musca

571. The hind wings of housefly are modified into little halters. During flight these : (a) Do not beat (b) Beat at same rate as fore wings (c) Beat faster than fore wings (d) Beat slower than fore wings TGT 07/08/2021 Ans. (c) : The hind wings of housefly are modified into little halters. During flight, these beat faster than forewings. Halters are used in balance to help stabilize the housefly in flight. Houseflies flap their halters at high speeds during flight. Most flies flap their wings over 200 Hz, or 200 cycles per second. 572. Which of the following insects is without mandibles ? (a) Musca (b) Anopheles (c) Blatta (d) Apis LT Biology 2018 Ans. (a) : An insect without mandibles is musca. Musca is one of the insects that does not have a mandible. Musca is a fly that belong to the family of Muscidae. Insect mandibles are a pair of appendages near the insects mouth and the most anterior of the three pairs of oral appendages (the labrum more anterior, but is a single fused structure). 573. Complete metamorphosis occurs in : (a) Cockroach (b) Bed bug (c) House fly (d) Gundhi bug UPPCS Pre 2006 Ans. (c) : Complete metamorphosis occurs in Housefly. (a) Cockroach →gradual metamorphosis occurs known as paurometabolous. (b) Bed-bug→Simple or incomplete metamorphosis occurs. (c) Housefly→Housefly, mosquito, moths, complete metamorphosis occurs. (d) Gundhi Bug→It is pest of paddy, incomplete metamorphosis occurs. Metamorphosis : In biology, metamorphosis is the striking change of form or structure in an individual after hatching or birth. 574. Larva of House fly is called : (a) Nymph (b) Imago (c) Maggot (d) Tumbler TGT Biology 1999 Ans. (c) : House fly eggs hatch into larvae, also known as maggots. Maggots are legless. White insects are fed from the egg laying site for three to five days. During this time, maggots molt several times. A freshly hatched larva is about 2 mm long, white, soft cylindrical, legless headless and wingless.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 575. Pseudotrachea is found in : (a) Rabbit (b) Earthworm (c) Cockroach (d) Housefly UPPCS Pre 1996 Ans. (d) : Pseudotrachea is found in Housefly. Housefly has sponge-like organs called the labella. The labella is a complex structure having many grooves. These grooves are called pseudotrachea. This takes up liquids like sponges. Salivary secretions from the labella help to dissolve and collect food particles so that they may be more easily taken up by the pseudotrachea.

578. In Palaemon, the statocyst are present within which appendage ? (a) Antennule (b) Antenna (c) Mandible (d) Maxilla TGT (2016) 31/07/2021 Ans. (a) In Palaemon, the statocyst are present within Antennule. Statocysts are also known as balancing organs and are found in many phyla of the animal kingdom. Statocysts are found in organisms belonging to the phylum Arthropoda and Mollusca. These are also known as lithocysts and are related to equilibrium and balance. Palaemon or Prawn belongs to the phylum Arthropoda and therefore has statocysts. C. Mosquito and Prawn Precoxa bears the opening of statocyst on its dorsal side. It also bears one basal spiny lobe called stylocerite, 576. In which of the following appendages of prawn basis is elongated and bears two long jointed feeler. the podobranch is attached? Outer feeler is bifurcated. All feelers bear sensory setae (a) 2nd maxillipede (b) 3rd maxillipede and are tactile in function. (c) 2nd walking leg (d) 5th walking leg UPPSC Ashram Paddhati 29/09/2021 Ans. (a) : Podobranch is attached to 2nd maxillipede of prawn. The prawn carries, in all, nineteen pairs of appendages of which the first five are cephalic, the following eight are thoracic, and the remaining six are abdominal. Maxillipede appendages are modified to function as mouthpart and situated next behind the maxillae. Gills are the primary respiratory organs in prawn. Podobranch is the first gill from anterior side which remains attached with the coxa of the second maxillipede.

579. In Palaemon, statocyst is situated on the : (a) antennule (b) maxillae (c) maxillulae (d) antennae UPPCS Pre 1997 Ans. (a) : See the explanation of the above question.

Palaemon : Opened left gill sac showing three types of gills 577. The mouth parts of male mosquito do not have (a) Maxillae and mandible (b) Labium and labrum (c) Maxillary palps and labellum (d) Antenna and hypopharynx TGT (2016) 31/07/2021 Ans. (a) : The mouth parts of male mosquito do not have maxillae and mandible. Both males as well as female Anopheles mosquitoes feed on liquid food and rely on solid food. The mouth parts consist of the epipharynx, maxillae, labium, hypopharynx of the labrum. The mandibles are totally absent in male mosquito. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

580. The statocyst of prawn is a : (a) tangoreceptor (b) chemoreceptor (c) gravity receptor (d) sound receptor UPPCS Pre 1997 Ans. (c) : • A statocyst is a sensory organ containing statolith & sensory hairs. • The statolith is made up of calcareous bodies, which are grainy structure that lie centrally in the stastcyst. • The sensory hairs line up the statocyst. • It is found in some agnatic invertebrates like prawns. • It help the organism in balance and orientation with respect to gravity. • In prawns the statocyst is present in the precoxa of the antennule (also called first antenna).

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 581. In Palaemon the hastate plate is found on the_______ side of cardiac stomach. (a) dorsal (b) lateral (c) ventral (d) radial UP PGT 17/08/2021 Ans. (c) : In Palaemon the hastate plate is found on the ventral side of cardiac stomach. The hastate plate forms the most significant structural part of the cardiac stomach. It plays an important role in filtering food. It is a large triangular plate and its shape is like a head of the spear. Its upper surface has a thick growth of delicate setae and has a median ridge with gradually sloping sides. 582. Statocyst of prawn is found in the : (a) Precoxa of antennule (b) Coxa of antenna (c) Coxa of antennule (d) Coxa of mandible TGT 07/08/2021 Ans. (a) : Statocyst of prawn is found in the precoxa of antennule. A statocyst lies inside the basal segment or precoxa of each antennule, attached to its dorsal wall. It opens dorsally on the concave surface of the pre coxa through a minute statocysts aperture. A small statocystic branch of antennules nerve supplies the statocyst.

Ans. (b) : A lappet inserted between the appendix interna and the mesial margin of the second pleopod of most male shrimps. Lappet, sometimes scalelike at the mesial base of the endopod of the second pleopod (ventral to the appendix interna if latter present) in some males. Among the specimens of same age the size of male prawn is large, abdomen is narrow in male prawn, walking legs are closely set, second walking leg is strongly developed and with numerous spines. Appendix masculina is present in the second pleopod. 586. In prawn, male genital pores are located on : (a) 2nd pair of Pleopods (b) 3rd pair of walking legs (c) 5th pair of walking legs (d) Antennules UPPCS Pre 2007, 2001 Ans. (c) : In Prawn male genital pores are located on 5th pair of walking legs. Second pair of swimmerets are modified to form spinous projection known as appendix masculina, which helps in copulation. The endopodite of 2nd pleopod has appendix interna along with appendix masculina. Reproductive setae are absent on the ventral side of the throax and pleopods of mature male. Ventral side of the first abdominal segment has a hard lump at the centre, which can be felt with finger.

583. In male Palaemon appendix interna is found in: (a) II abdominal appendage alone (b) III-V abdominal appendages alone (c) I abdominal appendage (d) II-V abdominal appendages 587. Excretory organ of Prawn is : UPPCS Pre 2009 (a) Green gland (b) Coxal gland Ans. (a) : In male Palaemon, appendix interna is found (c) Malpighian tubules (d) Tracheae in II abdominal appendage alone. In the females during PGT Biology 2013 breeding season the appendix interna of opposite Ans. (a) : Different kinds of excretory system in prawn appendages unite and carry eggs. are as follows. Appendix masculina is a lappet inserted between the appendix interna and the mesial margin of the second (a) A pair of antennary or green glands - the pair of excretory organs in each side of the head region of pleopod of most male shrimps. decapod crustaceans, emptying at the base of the antennae. 584. In Palaemon the appendix interna is absent in : (b) A renal or nephroperitonial sac - large thin - walled sac (a) First pair of pleopods lying above the cardiac stomach. (b) Second pair of pleopods of male (c) The integument - It is an important excretory organ as (c) Second pair of pleopods of female the nitrogenous wastes present in the integument are removed during the moulting of the chitinous integument. (d) Present in all of the above UPPCS Pre 2001 588. Green glands are excretory in : (a) Prawn (b) Scorpion Ans. (a) : In Palaemon the appendix interna is absent in first pair of pleopods. There are 19 pair of (c) Earthworm (d) Pila appendages in Palaemon. Structurally they are of PGT Biology 2011 biramous type but show considerable variations Ans. (a) : "Green gland" is one of the pair of excretory depending on the function they perform. Basically, organs in each side of the head region of decapod each biramous appendage consists of a common base crustaceans, emptying at the base of the antennae. protopodite, bearing two remain, inner endopodite and Prawns have green glands for excretion. outer exopodite. 585. In male Palaemon, appendix masculina is 589. Which one of the following appendages of prawn bears a podobranch : present on the : (a) Maxilla (b) Maxillulae (a) 2nd walking legs (b) 2nd pleopod (c) Second maxillipede (d) Second chelate leg (c) 3rd pleopod (d) Antennule UPPCS Pre 2000 PGT Biology 2004 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (c) : Second maxillipede appendages of prawn bears a podobranch. It is the first gill from anterior side which remains attached with the coxa of the second maxillipede. Second and eighth gills are arthrobranchs and remaining five gills are pleurobranches. 590. The number of segments in the mandibular palp of prawn is : (a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 12 UPPCS Pre 2000 Ans. (b) : The number of segments in mandibular palp of prawn is 5. It contains 3 anterior pair of maxillipedes, 5 pair of legs and 6 pair of appendges, 5 pair of pleopods and one pair of uropods. 591. The image formed in the compound eyes of Palaemon is : (a) superposition image (b) apposition image (c) inverted image (d) distorted image UPPCS Pre 2008, 2002 Ans. (b) : The compound type of eye is found in Arthropods. A compound eye has a network like appearance. They consists of minute lenses called ommatidia. The eye can form either apposition image or superposition image with the help of the lenses. In the case of an apposition eyes, each ommatidium focuses only rays coming from the bright light that are almost parallel to its long axis. The image of the whole results from a combination of these part images. In superposition eye, the sensory cells of an ommatidium can pick up light from a large part of the visual field. The image received may overlap those received. The superposition image thus gains in brightness but loses in sharpness compared with the apposition image. 592. Which one of the following statements is true about the Anopheles ? (a) Eggs are without lateral airfloats. (b) Each egg has two lateral air floats. (c) Larvae are bottom feeders. (d) At rest the adult sits parallel to the surface. UPPCS Pre 2002 UPPCS Pre 2008 Ans. (b) : Anopheles eggs are laid singly and horizontally on the surface of the water. Eggs are boat shaped. Each egg has two lateral air floats, which help them in floatation. Eggs are laid on clean water. Larva of Anopheles mosquito is surface feeder. The respiratory siphon is short. It remains parallel with water surface. Each egg of Anopheles has two lateral air fold at the upper end, assist in the floating. At rest adult sit 450 to the surface. 593. The repiratory pigment in Palaemon is : (a) Haemoglobin (b) Haemocyanin (c) Chlorocruorin (d) Hemerythrin UPPCS Pre 2008 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (b) : Haemocyanin and hemoglobin are respiratory proteins found in animal's blood. Haemocyanin contains copper while hemoglobin contains iron. Hence the blood of animals with haemocyanin has a blue color instead of red. Most molluscs and arthropods contain haemocyanin, such as the horseshoe crab and the giant octopus. Haemocyanin is better than hemoglobin in lower oxygen environments like the bottom of certain seas. Annelids have hemoglobin, hemerythrin and chlorocruorin as blood pigments, while echinoderms often lack any pigments. 594. In which of the following places is the ookinete stage of malarial parasites found : (a) Liver of man (b) Erythrocytes of man (c) Salivary glands of mosquito (d) Stomach of mosquito UPPCS Pre 2003 Ans. (d) : Ookinete is the zygote found in stomach of the mosquito. It is stage of malarial parasite. It become elongated, vermiform and motile. It perform writhing or gliding movement. The Plasmodium ookinete is the developmental stage of the malaria parasite that invades the mosquito midgut. It forms an oocyst under the outer gut lining. 595. Given : 1. Basis 2. Ischium 3. Carpus 4. Merus 5. Propodus 6. Dactylus The correct sequence of podomeres in the walking leg of Palaemon in the proximal-distal direction is : (a) 1-2-3-4-5-6 (b) 1-2-4-3-5-6 (c) 1-4-2-5-3-6 (d) 1-3-2-4-5-6 UPPCS Pre 2003 Ans. (b) : The correct sequence of podomeres in the walking legs of palaemon follow formula C.B.I.M. CPD. Coxa → Basis → Ischium →Merus → Carpus → Propodus → dactylus. 596. Palaemon is found : (a) in fresh water (b) in sea water (c) on land (d) on land and in water UPPCS Pre 2001 Ans. (b) : Palaemon also called the common prawn, it is a species of shrimp found in the atlantie ocean from donemark to mauritania and in the mediterranean sea and black sea. Found in shallow waters down to around 40 m deep, normally hiding in crevices or under stones. However, the majority of ahrimp are found in salt water while most prawns live in fresh water.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 597. Consider the following features in relation to palaemon and select your answer from the code given below : 1. open type blood vascular system 2. presence of a pair of compound eye 3. respiration through book lung 4. statocyst as balancing organ Code : (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct (b) 1, 2 and 4 are correct (c) 2, 3 and 4 are correct (d) 1, 3 and 4 are correct UPPCS Pre 1999 Ans. (b) : In Palaemon, open type blood vascular system found, presence of a pair of compound eye and statocyst as balancing organ are correct. Respiration takes place through gills not by book-lung. 598. Which of the following legs of Palaemon are chelate? (a) 2nd pair of walking legs alone (b) 1st and 2nd pair of walking legs (c) 3rd and 5th pair of walking legs (d) 4th and 5th pair of walking legs UPPCS Pre 2009, 2010 Ans. (b) : The first and second pair of walking legs are chelate legs. They resemble the typical leg except propodus, which is long forming a chela with dactylus. They catch the prey to put it into the mouth. They help in walking and offence and defence of the animal. 599. The distal podomere in the walking leg of palaemon is called : (a) Coxopodite (b) Basopodite (c) Dactylus (d) Propodus UPPCS Pre 2009 Ans. (c) : The five pairs of walking legs on Palaemon differ from the absence of the exopodites and epipodites. A typical walking leg, like the fourth consists of a two joined protopodite and a five jointed endopodite. The protopodite consists of a short ring shaped coxa and a triangular basis. The endopodite consists of five podomeres, ischium, merus, carpus, propodus, and dactylus. All the seven podomeres are arranged in a linear series and are movably hinged together. In the first and second pairs of walking legs the propodus is prolonged distally beyond its articulation with the dactylus, so, that the two podomeres work, one against the other like the blades of a pair of forceps forming a chela or pincers with sharp terminus clause. In fact dactylus is movably articulated to propodus. 600. Branchial respiration is found in which of these animals : (a) Prawn and cyclops (b) Spider and cyclops (c) Clarias and pavo (d) Fishes and Icthyophis TGT Biology 2011 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (d) : Branchial respiration means respiration through gills. Gills are special vascularised structures that are used as respiratory organs by aquatic Arthropods and molluscs. Among vertebrates, pulmonary respiration (through vascularised bags called lungs) is observed in amphibians, reptiles, aves, and mammals whereas fishes respire through gills. So, branchial respiration is observed in fishes, aquatic arthropods and molluscs. Lower animals like sponges, coelenterates, and flatworms can use their entire body surface for gaseous exchange via simple diffusion. 601. Respiratory siphon is found in larva of : (a) Housefly (b) Culex (c) Anopheles (d) Silkworm PGT Biology 2010 Ans. (b) : Respiratory siphon is found in larva of Culex. Eggs are vertically laid in clusters on the surface of the water, eggs are cigar shaped. Eggs of Culex mosquito are not provided with lateral air floats. Eggs are laid on dirty water. LARVA → Larva of Culex mosquito is bottom feeder. The respiratory siphon is long. It forms an angle inside water. It transmits adult filarial parasite. 602. In Palaemon hastate plate is found in : (a) Midgut (b) Hindgut (c) Pyloric stomach (d) Cardiac stomach PGT Biology 2005 Ans. (d) : Palaemon's stomach consist of two chamber pyloric and cardiac. In the cardiac part below on the mid-ventral surface there is a hard triangular structure called the hastate plate. The posterior part of the hastate plate forms cardiac pyloric aperture. It guides the food towards the cardiac-pyloric aperture.

9.

Mollusca

603. Which of the following mollusca is not used as food by man? (a) Oyster (b) Cuttle fish (c) Teredo (d) Mussels RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) Ans. (*) : All the following molluscs are used as food by man.

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⇒ Oysters are salt-water bivalve molluscs that live in marine habitats. They are highly esteemed sea food and considered a delicacy in various parts of world.

⇒ Cuttlefish are marine molluscs that can be eaten, but the remains of the head and small hard beak are discarded.

⇒Mussels are bivalve molluscs and about 17 species of mussels are edible.

⇒ Tere do (Shipworms) is a genus of highly modified saltwater clams. They are edible, and are traditionally consumed on the Island of Marajo and parts of Thailand. [Note - Commission has given the answer of the Question, (3)]. YCT

Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 604. Which one of the following is a mollusc : 608. Which one of the following is the link between Annelida and Mollusca ? (a) Flat fish (b) Cuttle fish (a) Archaeopteryx (b) Peripatus (c) Star fish (d) Silver fish (c) Neopilina (d) Coelacanth UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 UPPCS Pre 1996 Ans. (b) : Cuttlefish are marine molluscan of the order TGT Biology 2009 Sepiida. They are related to squid, octopuses, and the chambered nautilus. They possess a unique internal Ans. (c) : Neopilina is a connecting link between annelids shell known as cuttlebone, which is used for control of and molluscs. It is the only segmented molluscs. It has a buoyancy, cup shaped shell, like that of limpet. Its visceral mass is • Flatfish is any fish of the order Heterosomata divided into five segments each with a pair of shell (Pleuronectiformes) having a greatly compressed body muscles, gills, auricles and nephridia. and swimming on one side, with both eyes on the upper 609. Which one is the most primitive mollusc : side in the adult. (a) Chiton (b) Dentalium • Starfish are star-shaped echinoderms belonging to the (c) Neopilina (d) Patella class Asteroidea. TGT Biology 2005 • The silverfish is a species of small primitive, Ans. (c) : Molluscs are the largest marine phylum. wingless insect in the order Zygentoma. They have evolved during the course of evolution. 605. Pearls are obtained from : They include various group like gastropods, bivalves, (a) Murex truncutus (b) Pinctada vulgaris scaphopods and cephalopods. A mollusc discovered in 1950's which led addition of a new class in molluscs is (c) Brachystomia (d) Mediolaria Neopilina. Neopilina is a highly evolved genus of RPSC School Lecturer (23/07/2016) modern Monoplacophora. It is a connecting link Ans. (b) : Pearls are obtained from pinctada vulgaris. between Annelida and Mollusca. Oysters come under the phylum Mollusca which has a 610. In Bivalves, which structure secretes Pearl ? soft body under a shell that is secreted by a mantle and (a) Periostracum layer made up of calcicum carbonate. Pearl oysters are (b) Prismatic layer scientifically known as Pinctada which belong to the family pteriidae of class Pelecypoda. Pearl is found (c) Nacreous layer inside on oyster which is made up of a calcareous shell (d) Mantle layer in bivalved and joined dorsally. The Indian species of UPPSC Ashram Paddhati 29/09/2021 the pearl-producing oyster is Pinctada vulgaris which is Ans. (c) : In Bivalves, pearl is secreted by nacreous commonly found in marine water and sedentary in layer. It is the innermost layer of many Molluscs shells, living or dead form. Pearl is formed between the mantle and shell after the deposition of fine silica, the colour and is also known as "mother of pearl". It is widely studied as a model for understanding biomineralization and lustre of pearl depend upon the light penetration. process, because of its regular brick wall-like structure. 606. 'Mother of Pearl' is known as : It is composed of alternating layers of aragonite platelet (a) Conchiolin (b) Calcite and organic materials film. (c) Nacre (d) None of these UP PGT 2016 Ans. (c) Nacre is also known as the mother of pearl is an organic, inorganic composite materials produced by some molluscs as an inner shell layer, it also makes up the outer coating of pearls, it is strong, resilient and iridescent. Mother of pearl is a glowing - pearlescent material that's used to make jewellery and ornaments. 607. Neopilina is a primitive : (a) Annelida (b) Arthropoda (c) Mollusca (d) Helminthes 611. The "mother of pearl" in the shell of pearl UPPCS Pre 2006 oyster lies just Ans. (c) : Neopilina is a primitive Mollusca. Its (a) inner to periostracum detailed description had been given by Dr. H. Lemche (b) outer to periostracum and Dr. K.G. Wingstrand. Neopilina is a highly (c) outer to mantle connective tissue derived genus of modern Monoplacophoran. Fossil (d) inner to mantle connective tissue and Morphological data shows that they are "ancestral mollusca". UPPCS Pre 2010 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (a) : The mother of pearl in the shell of Pearl oyster lies just inner to periostracum. Pearl is secreted by the mantle of the pearl oyster as a protection against foreign objects which may be sand particles, minute larval forms or other such thing. Shell of pearl oyster is composed of three distinct layers. Periostracum - The outermost layer madeup of organic substance conchiolin. It is secreted by the mantle. It serves to protect the underlying layers from the harmful effects of weak carbonic acid in water. Prismatic layer – It is the middle layer secreted by the mantle. This layer is made up of minute crystals of calcium carbonate. It gives strength and rigidity to the shell. Nacreous layer – It is the innermost layer of the shell and is better known as the mother of pearl, responsible for the formation of a pearl. It consists of alternate layer of calcium carbonate and conchiolin, which lie parallel to the surface of the shell. The pearls are formed due to irritation caused to the mantle by the entry of foreign bodies. Any sort of foreign body enters and gets between the mantle and shell, it becomes enclosed in a sac of mantle epithelium. This foreign body now acts as an irritant and stimulates the mantle epithelium to secrete concentric layers of nacre around this foreign body. These layer when harden, become a pearl. 612.Veliger larva is found in : (a) Platyhelminthes (b) Arthropoda (c) Mollusca (d) Echinodermata Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2015 Ans. (c) : A veliger form of the larvae is the planktonic larvae of sea snails and freshwater snails. This type of larvae is also found in most bivalve molluscs and tusk shells. It is the characteristic larva found in molluscs, gastropods, scaphopods and bivalves. It is developed following the trochophore larval stage and further develops to form pediveliger larva. 613. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer from the code given below the list : List-I List-II (a) Unio 1. Coelenterata (b) Aurelia 2. Mollusca (c) Asterias 3. Echinodermata (d) Ascaris 4. Nematoda Code : A B C D (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 1 3 4 (c) 3 1 2 4 (d) 4 3 2 1 UPPCS Pre 2004 Ans. (b) : The correct match of List-I and List-II as follows. List-I List-II A. Unio Mollusca B. Aurelia Coelenterata C. Asterias Echinodermata D. Ascaris Nematoda TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

614. Oysters, clams and mussels all belong to : (a) Gastropoda (b) Bivalvia (c) Cephalopoda (d) Polyplacophora UP LT 2018 Ans. (b) : Clams, mussels, oysters and scallops are all part of the class Bivalvia in the phylum Mollusca, which means that they share many of the same characteristics. Although clams, mussels, oysters, and scallops are all part of the same taxonomic class, they belong to different subclasses, orders, and families. 615. Molluscs may regenerate : (a) eyes (b) foot (c) parts of head (d) all of the above UP LT 2018 Ans. (d) : Regeneration process is found in Molluscs. It may regenerate their eyes, foot and part of head. Formation of new parts of the body, which are lost due to injury or accidents is called restorative regeneration. In molluscs, restorative regeneration includes the regeneration of damaged eyes and eye stalks, part of head, part of foot etc. 616. Of the following, pair(s) of animals belongs to class Bivalvia of the phylum Mollusca? (a) Astraea and Mytilus only (b) Astraea and Anodonta only (c) Pholas and Teredo only (d) All the above pairs UPPCS Pre 2007 Ans. (c) : Pholas and Teredo belongs to class Bivalvia of the phylum Mollusca. • Pholas is a taxonomic genus of marine bivalve molluscs in the subfamily Pholadinae of the family Pholadidae. • Teredo are commonly known as 'shipworms' and are marine bivalve molluscs in the taxonomic family Teredinidae. • Astraea is a genus of medium to large sea snails, marine gastropod mollusks in the family Turbinidae. • Mytilus is a cosmopolitan genus of medium to large sized edible, mainly saltwater mussels, marine bivalve mollusks in the family Mytilidae. • Anodonta is a genus of freshwater mussels in the family unionidae. 617. The example of class Amphineura is : (a) Dentalium (b) Loligo (c) Sepia (d) Chiton UPPCS Pre 2007 Ans. (d) : Chitons are small to large marine molluscs in the class Polyplacophora, formerly known as Amphineura. They have a dorsal shell, which is composed of eight corporate shell plates or valves. They live worldwide, in cold water, warmwater and in the tropics. They live on hard surfaces, such as on or under rocks or in rock crevices. They are eaten in many islands in the caribbean, philippines and by native Americans of both North and South America.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 618. Which one of the following characters is not Ans. (d) : Sepia and Octopus swim swiftly by means of jet propulsion through siphon. Both sepia and octopus found in Gastropoda : belong to class Cephalopoda of phylum Mollusca. (a) they have two shells Siphon is the organ which helps in movement and (b) they are asymmetrical due to torsion locomotion. They pull in and absorb water through (c) some can digest cellulose siphon and release it with a lot of pressure due to which they move forward with high force similar to a jet and (d) many are hermaphrodite the process is called jet propulsion. UPPCS Pre 1999 623. Cephalo poda is a class of Mollusca in which : Ans. (a) : Class Gastropoda shell - spirally coiled (a) notochord extends into head (univalved) or one shell. (b) foot is located on the head Class Pelecypoda or bivalvia shell - consist of two (c) head is located on the foot shell or valve, movable, hinged dorsally (bivalved). (d) head is fused with thorax Many gastropods are hermaphrodite. UPPCS Pre 1996 619. Octopus belongs to class : UPPCS Pre 1997 (a) Mollusca (b) Pelecypods Ans. (b) : Cephalopoda is class of mollusca in which foot (c) Arthropoda (d) Cephalopoda is located on the head of animal. e.g. Octopus (devil fish) TGT Biology 2005 with eight equal arms. Cephalopods are characterized by a completely merged head and foot, with a ring of arms or Ans. (d) : Octopus is a cephalopod mollusc of the tentacles surrounding the head. The arms, tentacles order Octopoda. It has two eyes and four pairs of arms and funnel are all derivatives of the foot. and like other cephalopods, it is bilaterally symmetrical. These are triploblastic and they have a 624. Ink-sac is found in : coelom. Body has three main parts head, mantle and (a) Nautilus (b) Sepia foot. (c) Mytilus (d) Bonellia UPPCS Pre 1997 620. Which one of the following animals belongs to class Amphineura : Ans. (b) : Sepia is commonly known as cuttle fish. The body possess ink-sac and inkgland. Inkglands is (a) Dentalium (b) Chiton used by some squids for offence and defence. When (c) Oyster (d) Loligo the squid is attacked, it emits a cloud of inky fluid UPPCS Pre 1997 through its siphon. This 'smoke screen' interferes with the visual and chemoreceptor of the predator and there Ans. (b) : Chiton belong to the class Amphineura of by helps the squid to escape. phylum Mollusca. Dentalium is commonly called elephant tusk shell belong to the class Scaphopoda. 625. Chaetoderma and Neomenia belong to which of the following? 621. The swift locomotion in Sepia and octopus is (a) Annelida, Chaetopoda effected by : (b) Mollusca, Solenogaster (a) a fast moving neighbouring animal (c) Arthropoda, Insecta (b) undulation of their own lateral fins (d) Echinodermata, echinoidea (c) lashing movement of their cephalic arms UPPCS Pre 2005 (d) water in jets expelled through siphon UPPCS Pre 1997 Ans. (b) : Chaetoderma and Neomenia belong to Mollusca, Solenogaster. Ans. (d) : The swift locomotion in Sepia and Octopus (1) Chaetoderma – Classification is effected by water in jet expelled through Siphon. Kingdom – Animalia Sepia and Octopus are marine molluscans. Phylum – Mollusca The cephalopods is a class of molluscs, which include Class – Caudofoveata, octopuses, sepia, squid, loligo, etc. These organisms Order – Chaetodermatida uses the 'jet-siphon system' of locomotion. When Family – Chaetodermatidae these organisms feel to move or locomote, the cephalopods propel themselves through the water Genus – Chaetoderma using jet propulsion. (2) Neomenia–Classfication 622. Sepia and Octopus swim swiftly by means of : Kingdom – Animalia Phylum – Mollusca (a) arms Class – Solenogaster (b) lateral fins Order – Neomeniamorpha (c) suckers Family – Neomeniidae (d) jet propulsion through siphon Genus – Neomenia UPPCS Pre 2005 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 626. Which of the following is a living fossil? (a) Trilobites (b) Archaeopteryx (c) Nautilus (d) Cheetah UPPCS Pre 2005 Ans. (c) : The unique characters of phylum Mollusca are muscular foot, mantle and a hard exoskeleton called shell which is made up of calcium carbonate. Nautilus belongs to the family of cephalopoda. It is type of mollusca which is found in marine environment. The Nautilus is known as the living fossil due to the fact that it has remained largely unchanged for almost 400 million years. 627. Dentalium belongs to the class (a) Monoplacophora (b) Gastropoda (c) Bivalvia (d) Scaphopoda UPPCS Pre 2009 Ans. (d) : Shells can be found in animals that belong to the class Scaphopoda. The animal looks roughly like an elephant's tusk. The organisms open on both the ends. It is much smaller in size. The organism Dentalium which is recognised by the presence of this type of shell - like body structure is a member of a mollusks class Scaphopoda. 628. Organ of Bojanus is : (a) Excretory in Cockroach (b) Excretory in Molluscs (c) Respiratory in some echinoderms (d) Osmoregulatory in crabs. PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (b) : Organ of Bojanus is excretory in molluscs. Mollusca is the second largest phylum which consists of a diverse range of organisms. The organs of Bojanus are excretory glands that serve the function of kidneys in some of the mollusca. These excrete the waste materials and helps in osmoregulation. 629. Which of the following mollusc has an internal shell ? (a) Nautilus (b) Teredo (c) Sepia (d) Lamellidens Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2013 Ans. (c) : Internal shell is present in Loligo/Sepia, the common name of Sepia is cuttle fish. This internal shell acts as a buoyancy organ. Buoyancy organ helps in swimming. The cuttlefish has an internal shell also known as cuttle bone whose main function is to control the buoyancy (It is upwards force exerted by liquid) and this is possible due to the presence of the gas-filled chambers present in the inner shell of the cuttle fish. This inner shell of cuttlebone is made up of calcium also known as calcareous. 630. Study of shells, especially those of molluscs is known as : (a) Malacology (b) Conchology (c) Entomology (d) Ophiology Delhi SSB PGT Biology 2015 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (b) : Malacology → Study of Molluscs Conchology → Study of Molluscan shells Entomology → Study of Insects Ornithology → Study of Birds Oology → Study of Birds egg Mammalogy → Study of Mammals Cetology → Study of Whales Ophiology → Study of snakes. 631.Which of the following belongs to Mollusca ? (a) Cray fish (b) Jelly fish (c) Cuttle fish (d) Hag fish Navoday Vidyalay PGT Biology 2014 Ans: (c) Cuttlefish is commonly known as Sepia. It belongs to phylum Mollusca. The characteristics features include large, W-shaped pupils, eight arms, and two tentacles furnished with denticulated suckers, by which they secure their prey. Cuttle-fish feeds on small molluscs, crabs, shrimp, fish, octopus and worms. Its predators include dolphins, sharks, fish, seals, seabirds, and other cuttlefish. 632. Which of these a 'Bioluminescent' ? (a) Physalia (b) Cuttle fish (c) Jelly fish (d) All of these TGT Biology 1999 Ans. (b): Cuttlefish is a bioluminescent. This is the angry cuttle fish. It can raise and create a "terrain" on it's skin to help it blend in from predators, like all cuttle fish they can rapidly change the texture, and color of their skin to communicate with other of their kind. 633. In which protostomian phylum the trochophore larva becomes veliger larva? (a) Annelida (b) Arthropoda (c) Mollusca (d) None of the above UPPCS Pre 2010 Ans. (c) : Both trochophore larva and veliger larva are present in phylum Mollusca. Veliger larva is a planktonic larva which is formed from trochophore larva or embryonic larva. Both the larvas have a freeswimming nature. Trochophore larva is present in class Bivalves/Pelecypods and gastropods of phylum Mollusca. These larvae have cilia which is responsible for their movement. These larvae convert into veliger larvae before the organism turns into an adult. 634. Respiratory pigment in Mollusca is : (a) Haemoglobin (b) erythrocin (c) Haemocyanin (d) none of the above PGT Biology 2013 Ans. (c): Respiratory pigment in Mollusca is haemocyanin. The active centre of haemocyanin contains two molecules of copper which bind to the single oxygen molecule. The blue colour of this pigment is due to the presence of copper. This is the pigment which is present in the plasma and help in exchange of gases.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 635. Haemocyanin is found dissolved in the plasma of the following : (a) cockroach (b) earthworm (c) leech (d) snail UPPCS Pre 1999 Ans. (d) : Haemocyanin is a copper containing respiratory pigment dissolved in the plasma of snail. It is blue in colour. 636. The crystalline style is found in : (a) star fish (b) snail (c) mussel (d) leech UPPCS Pre 2010 Ans. (c) : The crystalline style is found in fresh water mussel. A style, sometimes refer to as a crystalline style (though there are no other biological kinds), is a rod made up of glycoprotein located in the midgut of most bivalves and some gastropods which aids in extracellular digestion. 637. Pearl producing Indian species is : (a) Pinctada indica (b) Pinctada vulgaris (c) Ostrea indica (d) Ostrea vulgaria PGT Biology 2009, 2010 Ans. (b) : Oysters come under the phylum Mollusca which has a soft body under a shell that is secreted by a mantle and made up of calcium carbonate. Pearl oysters are scientifically known as Pinctada which belong to the family pteriidae of class Pelecypoda. Pearl is found inside an oyster which is made up of a calcareous shell. Oyster is bivalved and joined dorsally. The Indian species of pearl-producing oyster is Pinctada vulgaris which is commonly found in marine water and sedentary in living or dead form. Pearl is formed between the mantle and shell after the deposition of fine silica, the color and lustre of pearl depend upon the light penetration. In India pearl fisheries are commonly famous in the Gulf of kutch and the Gulf of Mannar. 638. How many teeth are found in a row of radula? (a) 5 (b) 7 (c) 9 (d) 11 PGT Biology 2009 Ans. (b) : The radula is a horny, ribbon - like structure found in the mouth of all molluscs except the bivalves. The radula, part of odontophore, may be protruded and it is used in doing holes in prey or grasping food particles from a surface. It is supported by a cartilage like mass (the odonto-phore) and is covered with rows of many small teeth (denticles), 7 teeth are found in a row of radula in each row.

Ans. (c) : Ctenidium of Unio are of Eulamellibranch type. There is a single pair of elongated ctenidia or gills one on each side of the foot and are of eulamellibranch types. These filaments of unio absorb oxygen from water and transfer it to the blood stream. They also receive carbon dioxide from the blood and release it into the surrounding water. 640. What is the functions of Keber's Organ in Unio? (a) Excretory (b) Vascular (c) Digestive (d) Reproductive TGT 07/08/2021 Ans. (a) : Keber's organs are excretory organs in some molluscs. It is also called as "Pericardial gland" and is a large, reddish-brown glandular mass. It is situated anterolateral to the pericardium into which it discharges the waste material. They are collected from the kidney. 641. Keber's organ is found in : (a) Obelia (b) Unio (c) Ascaris (d) Echinus UPPCS Pre 2010 Ans. (b) : Keber's organ is found in the bivalve mollusks. This organ is the part of excretion system of bivalve mollusks. Unio is an example of aquatic bivalve mollusks. Keber's organ is additional excretory pericardial gland along with actual renal organs or organs of Bojanus in some molluscs. 642. Which of the following animals has three chambered heart? (a) Rabbit (b) Pila (c) Unio (d) Amphioxus UPPCS Pre 2009 Ans. (c) : Unio heart is very contracted and has 3 chambers. It is divided into chambers in which there is one ventricle and 2 auricle. Rabbit's heart is 4 chambered. The auricles are thin-walled, highly distensible, triangular chambers one on either side of the ventricle. The heart is enclosed in a thin-walled triangular sac, called pericardium.

643. In which of the following the alimentary canal passes through heart? (a) Cockroach (b) Pila (c) Unio (d) Scorpion UPPCS Pre 2010 Ans. (c) : The heart of Unio is three - chambered and found enclosed in a thin walled triangular sac called pericardium. The heart is three chambered having one ventricle and two auricles. The ventricle is thick walled, muscular and horizontal chamber surrounding the A. Unio rectum. In most lamellibranch's the ventricle has become folded around the rectum so that the 639. Ctenidium of Unio are of which type? pericardium encloses not only the heart but also a part (a) Protobranch (b) Fillibranch of the alimentary canal. The heart beats about 20-100 (c) Eulamellibranch (d) Septobranch times per minute. Alimentary canal passes through the TGT (2016) 31/07/2021 heart in Unio. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 644. The Glochidium larva of Unio : B. Pila (a) is free swimming (b) is ectoparasite of fish 648. Pila is adapted to lead ______ life. (c) is endoparasite on fish (a) Aerial (b) Aquatic (d) lives in bottom (c) Amphibious (d) Benthic TGT Biology 2009 TGT (2016) 31/07/2021 Ans. (b) : The Glochidium larva of Unio is ectoparasite Ans. (c) : Pila is adapted to lead an amphibious life, that of fish. The glochidium or plural glochidia is a it lives both in air and water. To carry on with these two microscopic larval stage of some freshwater mussels, modes of respiration efficiently and successfully, the aquatic bivalve molluscs in the families animal possesses a gill or ctenidium for aquatic margaritiferidae, and unionidae. This larva form hooks respiration and a pulmonary sac or lung for aerial that allow it to bind to fish for a time until it detaches respiration. Left and right nuchal lobes act as accessory and falls to the substrate and takes on the typical form structures. Aquatic respiration takes place when the of a juvenile mussel. snail is at the bottom or is floating or lying suspended in 645. In Unio the suprabranchial chamber midwater or attached to plants and weeds in water. Aerial respiration is observed when the animal is in communicates with the exterior by : water or on land. (a) mantle cavity 649. Line of growth found on the shell of Pila is (b) inhalent siphon called : (c) exhalent siphon (a) Spere (b) Columella (d) anus (c) Sutures (d) Varices UPPCS Pre 2003 UP PGT 17/08/2021 Ans. (c) : In case of Unio the suprabranchial chamber communicate with extent exterior by exhalent siphon. Where as infrabranchial chamber communicate exterior through inhalent siphon.

Ans. (d) : Line of growth found on the shell of Pila is called varices. Pila is a genus of large freshwater snails with an operculum. Varices is an anatomical feature of the shell of snails. In the centre of the shell runs a vertical axis or columella around which the whorls of 646. From the functional point of view, the adductor the shell are coiled. Varices are located at intervals muscle in Unio are : around the whorl, and is formed by considerable (a) striated muscle fibres with sustained action thickening of the outer lip during a resting stage in the growth of the shell. (b) quick acting non- striated muscle fibres. (c) slow acting striated muscle fibres. (d) striated and non-striated muscle fibres with sustained and rapid action. UPPCS Pre 2009 Ans. (b) : The adductor muscles contain both smooth and quick acting non-striated muscle fibres, enabling sustained (catch muscle) and rapid shell closure. The hinge ligament is usually external to the shell, but in many species has shifted to an internal position between the hinge teeth. 647. Adductor muscles of Unio contain : (a) striated muscle fibers only 650. In Pila how many teeth are present in each row (b) collagen fibers only of radula ? (c) unstriated muscle fibers only (a) 21112 (b) 11112 (d) both striated and unstriated fibers (c) 10112 (d) 10012 TGT 07/08/2021 UPPCS Pre 2010 Ans. (c) : Adductor muscles of Unio contain only Ans. (a) : Pila is a genus of large freshwater snails. unstriated muscle fibers. The muscles of Unio mainly Each row has seven teeth, two marginal and one lateral contracts involuntarily and are arranged in several band tooth on each side and a central or rachidian tooth in the or sheet. Bivalve mollusks generally have either one or middle, thus giving a formula 2,1,1,1,2. The radula moves forward and backward on the odontophore for two adductor muscles. The muscles are strong enough rasping food particles, these movements of radula are to close the valves of the shell when they contract. called chain saw movements. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 651. Veliger larva is found in: (a) Platy helminthes (b) Arthropoda (c) Mollusca (d) Echinodermata RPSC School Lecturer (23/07/2016) Ans. (c) : A veliger larvae is the planktonic larvae of sea snails and freshwater snails. These type of larvae is also found in most bivalve molluscs and tusk shells. It is the characteristic larva found in molluscs, gastropods, scaphopods and bivalves. It is developed following the trochophore larval stage and further develops to from pediveliger larve. 652. Aerial respiration in pila occurs from : (a) Pulmonary sac (b) Mantle (c) Ctenidium (d) Branchiae UP PGT 2016 Ans. (a) Pila is an amphibious animal and carries a single ctenidium on the right side of the branchial chamber. Water currents enter through the left nuchal opening and pass through the right nuchal opening. For aerial respiration, respiratory siphon of the pulmonary sac is thrust out of the left nuchal opening to inhale outside air into the single pulmonary sac, which is supplied with a network of blood vessels. Inhalation and exhalation are carried out by the muscles that surround the pulmonary sac. 653. Sperms in Pila are : (a) Eupyrene only (b) Oligopyrene only (c) Apyrene (d) Both Eupyrene and Oligopyrene LT Biology 2015 Ans. (d) : Two types of sperms is produced in the Pila testis, eupyrene and oligopyrene. Eupyrene sperm are small, thread-like, about 25.0 µ long and 1.2 µ broad, and with distinct head, middle piece and tail with a cilium. They are motile and fertilize ova. Oligopyrene sperms are large, spindle shaped about 32.5µ long, 3µ broad with distinct head, middle piece and tail of 4 or 5 cilia. They are non-motile, incapable of fertilization and probably have some other function. 654. Sperms found in Pila are : (a) Eupyrene only (b) Oligopyrene only (c) Both Eupyrene and Oligopyrene (d) None of the above GIC Biology 14.06.2015 Ans. (c) : See the explanation of the above question. 655. Oligopyrene sperms are found in : (a) Wuchereria (b) Pila (c) Antedon (d) Obelia PGT Biology 2004 Ans. (b) : Oligopyrene sperms are found in Pila. They are large spindle shaped. They are non-motile, incapable of fertilization and probably have some other function. Pila has two types of sperms present in the testis, eupyrene and oligopyrene. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

656. Pila produces two types of sperms of which only one type is motile and they are called : (a) Eupyrene (b) Eurypylous (c) Oligopyrene (d) Apylous UPPCS Pre 2006 Ans. (a) : Pila produces two types of sperm of which only one type is motile and they are called, Eupyrene, it is capable for fertilization. Eurypylous type : It is the most primitive type of leuconoid type of canal system. Oligopyrene :  It is large sperm found in Pila. It is incapable for fertilization. Apylous :It is a type of canal system. 657. The motile sperm of Pila is known as : (a) Oligopyrene (b) Eupyrene (c) Eurypylous (d) Apylous UPPCS Pre 2005 PGT 2009 TGT 2013 Ans. (b) : See the explanation of the above question. 658. Organs of Bojanus are found in : (a) Bonellia (b) Lamellidens (c) Salpa (d) Echinus UPPCS Pre 2006 Ans. (b) : Organs of Bojanus are found in Lamellidens. Bojanus is the excretory organ of Lamellidens. eg., Pila Salpa  Salpa found in urochordate, excretion take place by neural glands. eg, vertebrate Echinus  Aristotle lantern found in it. It is included in phylum Echinodermata. Bonellia is a genus of polychaetes belonging to the family Bonelliidae in the phylum Annelida.

659. Organs of Bojanus, associated with excretion, is found in which of the following animals : (a) Hirudinaria (b) Pila (c) Palaemon (d) Asterias UPPCS Pre 2002 Ans. (b) : Organ of Bojanus or renal organ associated with excretion in Pila. The organs of Bojanus are excretory gland that serve the function of kidneys in some of the molluscs. Metanephridia serve the same function as nephridia of advanced organisms but are structurally different. It is named after Ludwig Heinrich Bojanus, who first described it.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 660. Which one of the following sensory organs of Pila is single and not paired : (a) Tentacle (b) Statocyst (c) Osphradium (d) Eye UPPCS Pre 2003 Ans. (c) : Osphradium is single sensory organs situated on the left side. It probably serve as an olfactory organs. It serves to test the chemical nature of the inspiratory water current and help in the selection of the food material. 661. Osphradium is found in : (a) Unio alone (b) Pila alone (c) all molluscs (d) some arthropods UPPCS Pre 2009 Ans. (b) : Osphradium is an olfactory sense organ found in certain molluscan animals like the apple snail (Pila). Pila has a single gill - like osphradium that is positioned on the left side of the pulmonary chamber. It hangs from the roof of the mantle cavity, adjacent to the left nuchal lobe. This small organ is usually 6-7 mm long and is shaped like an elongated oval. The Osphradium of Apple snail is bipectinate i.e. branched like feather.

664. Monopectinate gill is found in : (a) Unio (b) Macrobrachium (c) Octopus (d) Pila UPPCS Pre 2010 Ans. (d) : Gill of Pila consists of a long ctenidial axis with a single row of a long series of triangular leaflets known as lamellae. Such a gill is called monopectinate. This structure exists in bivalves, cephalopods, polyplacophorans (chitons) and in aquatic gastropods such as freshwater snails and marine snails. Some aquatic gastropods possess one ctenidium known as monopectinate and others have a pair of ctenidia known as bipectinate. 665. Ctenidium is a respiratory organ of : (a) Pila globosa (b) Rana tigrina (c) Scorpion (d) Prawn PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (a) : Ctenidium is a respiratory organ of Pila globosa. The respiratory organ consist of a single ctenidium or gill, a pulmonary sac or lung and a pair of nuchal lobes. Ctenidium or gill → The ctenidium or gill is the organ of aquatic respiration. The ctenidium is situated on the dorso lateral wall of the branchial chamber of the mantle cavity. It is composed of a long series of thin triangular leaflets or lamellae, lying parallel to each other, which are attached to the mantle wall by their broad bases but have their apices hanging free in the branchial chamber. The line of attachment of the lamellae to the wall of the mantle forms the ctenidial axis. The ctenidial axis is provided with an afferent blood vessel (carrying deoxygenated blood) and an efferent blood vessel (carrying oxygenated blood) from gill to heart. Such a gill is known as monopectinate gill. 666. During development torsion occurs in case of : (a) Pila (b) Unio 662. Identify the subclass of Pila globosa : (c) Palaemon (d) Limax (a) Opisthobranchia (b) Pulmonata PGT Biology 2005 (c) Prosobranchia (d) Stylommatophora Ans. (a) : Torsion is the rotation of the visceral mass UPPCS Pre 1995 and foot 180 degrees with respect to the head and foot PGT Biology 2002 and is a unique characteristic of modern gastropods. Torsion occurs during development in all gastropods, Ans. (c) : Pila globosa related to phylum Mollusca, usually in the late veliger stage. It occurs in Pila. class-Gastropoda and subclass, Prosobranchia. Pila globosa is a species of freshwater snail with an 667. How many teeth are found in each transverse operculum. Prosobranchia is a subclass of gastropods row of Radula of Pila globosa ? which have an exterior mantle cavity, gills and anus (a) 5 (b) 6 and have therefore undergone torsion. (c) 7 (d) 8 663. The myogenic heart is found in : UPPSC Ashram Paddhati 29/09/2021 (a) cockroach (b) prawn Ans. (c) : In each transverse row of Radula of Pila (c) scorpion (d) snail globosa, 7 teeth are found. The Radula of pila is present UPPCS Pre 1999 in the buccal cavity and its major function is to break down the food into small particles. The radula is made Ans. (d) : The myogenic heart is found in snail. of many transverse rows of horny teeth. Each row has Myogenic heart is found in all vertebrate. The seven teeth, two marginal and one lateral tooth on each initiation and stimulation for functioning take place by side and a central or rachidian tooth in the middle, thus, specialised group of muscles fiber. Neurogenic heart giving a dental formula 2, 1, 1, 1, 2. is found in invertebrate. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 10.

Ans. (d) : Phylum Echinodermata adult is radially symmetrical but larva is bilaterally symmetrical. Echinoderm is the common name given to any member of the phylum Echinodermata of marine animals. Phylum features (a) Cnidaria or → Radial symmetry found coelenterate in both adult and larva. (b) Annelida → Bilateral symmetry found in both adult and larva. (c) Mollusca → Bilateral symmetry in both adult and larva. (d) Echinodermata → Adult animal has radial symmetry and larva has bilateral symmetry

Echinodermata

668. Aristotle's lantern is present in class(a) Echinoidea (b) Holothuroidea (c) Asteroidea (d) Ophiuroidea GIC 19/09/2021 Ans. (a) : Aristotle's lantern is present in class Echinoidea. It is a class that belongs to the phylum, Echinodermata, and are also known as sea urchins. Aristotle was a prominent philosopher and naturalist from the 4th century, noticed an interesting resemblance between lanterns and sea urchins. Horn lanterns were a very popular source of illumination at that time. 671. Which of the following animal group has radially symmetrical adult but bilaterally According to Aristotle, "the mouth apparatus of the symmetrical larva : urchin is continuous from one end to another, but to (a) Cnidaria (b) Annelida outward appearance it looks a horn lantern. "So mouth of sea urchin is referred to as an Aristotle's lantern. (c) Mollusca (d) Echinodermata UPPCS Pre 2002 Ans. (d) : In Echinodermata, adult are radially Symmetrical but larva are bilaterally symmetrical. Ex. Star fish. Echinoderms are a phylum of marine animals. Adults are distinguished by their radial symmetry and have five bodies, which they call tube feet. 672. Water vascular system is a salient feature of A - Porifera, B - Leeches, C - Echinodermata, D - Urochordata (a) Only A (b) Only C 669. Animals of following phylum are all marine : (c) A and C (d) B and D (a) Arthropoda RPSC School Lecturer 2011 (b) Mollusca Ans. (b) : The water vascular system is a distinctive feature of echinoderms such as starfishes and sea (c) Annelida cucumbers. (d) Echinodermata UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 It is a hydraulic system used by echinoderms for food and waste transportation, locomotion and respiration Ans. (d) : Animals of phylum Echinodermata are all and it functions by the movement of tube-feet. marine. Echinoderms are exclusively marine and there have been no traces of any terrestrial or freshwater echinoderms. The Echinoderms are found in the depths as well as in the intertidal zones. Echinoderms are all example of marine stars, sea cucumbers, sea urchins, sand dollars and brittle stars. The adults are recognizable by their radial symmetry. 670. In which of the following phyla adult is radially symmetrical but larva is bilaterally symmetrical? (a) Cnidaria (b) Annelida 673. Water vascular system is a trait of : (c) Mollusca (a) Poriferans (b) Molluscs (d) Echinodermata (c) Echinoderms (d) All of these UPPCS Pre 2006 TGT Biology 2013 UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (c) : The water vascular system or ambulacral system is a unique system of echinoderms that helps mainly in locomotion. It is a modified system of canals containing seawater and amoeboid corpuscles. It helps in locomotion by providing a hydraulic pressure mechanism of tube feet that may serve for the respiratory exchange of gases. Tube feet also help in anchoring the body to the substratum and in capturing and handling the food. 674. Main function of ambulacral system in Echinodermata is : (a) Circulation (b) Movement (c) Defence (d) Food Collections PGT Biology 2005 Ans. (b) : Function of ambulacral system or water vascular system — Locomotion, Capture, Transport of food, Excretion, Respiration. 675. Pluteus larva of echinoderms is characterised by the possession of : (a) Apical cilia alone (b) Horizontal row of cilia alone (c) vertical row of cilia alone (d) none of the above PGT Biology 2002 Ans. : (d) Pluteus larva which is found in some echinoderms, does not have any of the above symptoms. There is a single larval stage in Echinoidea, known as Pluteus, which is bilaterally symmetrical. The larva has oval body and long paired ciliated arms that are supported by calcareous skeletal rods. Preoral arm is present but posterolateral arm is absent. The other three arms are anterolateral, postoral and posterodorsal arms. Mouth, anus and gut are well developed. 676. Dipleurula larva is associated with : (a) Echinoderms (b) Cephalochordates (c) Molluscs (d) Annelids Bihar PGT 2019 Ans. (a) : Dipleurula larva is also known as early bipinnaria larva and it is the first larval stage of all echinoderms. Echinoderms are the organisms which are characterized by the central disc shaped body. They have five arms which have been modified to form tube feet. The gastrula stage of the organism develops into a basic larval type. This larvae is called as dipleurula larva. The larvae is characterized by bilateral symmetry. The name of the larvae means the organism have two sides. There is a single band of hair like projections or cilia which is found on each side of the body. There are cilia present in the front of the mouth and anus. This larvae type is found among the class of echinoderms. 677. Which of the following are not echinoderm larvae: (a) Bipinnaria and Brachiolaria (b) Echinopluteus and Ophiopluteus (c) Auricularia and Doliolaria (d) Tornaria and Veliger UPPCS Pre 1998 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (d) : Veliger larva found in Mollusca. Tornaria is the larva of Balanoglossus. Brachiolaria and Pinnaria is the larva of starfish. Auricularia and Doliolaria is the larva of Echinoidea and Holothuroidea. 678. Code : 1. Sluggish 2. Highly mobile 3. Arms present 4. Arms absent 5. Oral surface directed upwards 6. Oral surface directed downwards Using the code given above, answer the question : Which class of Echinodermata shows the features 1, 4 and 6 only : (a) Asteroidea (b) Echinoidea (c) Holothuroidea (d) Crinoidea UPPCS Pre 1998 Ans. (b) : Sluggish, arms absent and oral surface directed downwards are the characters of class Echinoidea eg. starfish. Echinoidea is a class of the sand dollars, cake urchins, sea urchins and heart urchins. 679. Which of the following animals is deuterostome (a) Asterias (b) Holothuria (c) Antedon (d) All of the above UPPCS Pre 2001 Ans. (d) : Deuterostome is any member of the phylum Echinodermata, Hemichordata, and Chordata, in which anus appears first, developing at or near the blastopore, cleavage is radial and indeterminate and mesoderm and coelom arise from the primitive gut. Asterias (starfish), Holothuria, Antedon, all these comes under Echinodermata animals. Hence option (d) answer is correct. 680. The mesodermal calcareous endoskeleton is found in : (a) Sand dollar (b) Sand fly (c) Sow bug (d) Paper nautilus PGT Biology 2003 Ans. (a) : The mesodermal calcareous endoskeleton is made of many small plates that overlap under the skin forming an armor and a structural forms for the organisms. Examples of an echinoderm, include a starfish, a sand dollar, a brittle star, a sea urchin, and a sea cucumber. They form part of the endoskeleton and provide rigidity and protection. 681. The mesodermal calcareous endoskeleton is found in : (a) Sand dollar (b) Sand fly (c) Sow bug (d) Paper nautilus UPPCS Pre 2000 Ans. (a) : The mesodermal calcareous endoskeleton is found in sand dollar. It consist of phylum Echinodermata located in middle layer of skin. The skeleton is mainly made of ossicles or calcareous plates found in the dermis layer of the skin.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 682. A mesodermal endoskeleton invertebrates is found in : (a) Porifera (b) Cephalopoda (c) Mollusca (d) Echinodermata UPPCS Pre 1997 Ans. (d) : Mesodermal endoskeleton found in Asterias (Starfish) - Echinodermata. A true endoskeleton is derived from mesodermal tissue. Echinoderms are the only exception in the invertebrates to have a mesodermal skeleton composed of calcareous plates or ossicles. 683. Doliolaria is a larva of which of the following phylum of animals ? (a) Cnidaria (b) Annelida (c) Echinodermata (d) hemichordata UPPCS Pre 2007 Ans. (c): Doliolaria in Holothuroidea, it is a larval form in which the ciliated band forms rings around the body. Holothuroidea is a class of echinodermata also called as sea cucumber. It displays two larval stagesauricularia, doliolaria larva. 684. Assertion (A) : All echinoderms are deuterostome. Reason (R) : In deuterostomes, development is indeterminate and mouth originates from embryonic blastopore. Select the correct answer using code given below: Codes: (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (d) (A) is false, but (R) is true. UPPCS Pre 2009 Ans. (c) : All echinoderms are deuterostome. In deuterostome development is indeterminate but mouth never originate from embryonic blastopore. The defining characteristic of the deuterostome is the fact that the blastopore becomes the anus. In protostomes, the blastopore becomes the mouth. 685. Aristotle's lantern is connected with : (a) respiration (b) mastication (c) excretion (d) reproduction PGT Biology 2013, UPPCS Pre 2008 Ans. (b) : The mouth of most sea urchins is made up of five calcium carbonate teeth or jaws, with a fleshy, tongue-like structure. The entire chewing organ is known as Aristotle's lantern. The lantern, where present surrounds both the mouth cavity and the pharynx. It is involved in mastication. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

686. Aristotle Lantern is found in : (a) Sea urchin (b) Sea cucumber (c) Star fish (d) Sea anemone Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (a) : Sea urchin, any of around 950 living types of prickly marine invertebrate creature (Class Echinoidea, Phylum Echinodermata) with a globular body and a radial plane of organs, appeared by five groups of pores running from mouth to anus over the testis (inner skeleton). The pores oblige tube feet, which are thin, extensible and frequently sucker - tipped. From knobs on the test emerge long, portable spines and pedicellariae (Pincerlike organs). The mouth, on the underside of the body, has an intricate dental contraption called Aristotle's lantern, which likewise might be venomous. The teeth of Aristotle's lantern are regularly expelled to scratch green growth and other food from rocks, and a few urchins can uncover concealing spots in coral or rock-even in steel. They live on the sea depths, typically on hard surfaces and utilize the cylinder feet or spines to move about. 687. Characteristic features of phylum Echinodermata : (a) Water Vascular System (b) Haemal System (c) both the above (d) none of the above PGT Biology 2013 Ans. (c) : Ambulacral system (Water Vascular System)→ Presence of ambulacral system is the characteristic feature of phylum Echinodermata. A perforated plate called madreporite is present in this system. The pores of the madreporite allow water into the system. Tube feet of this system help in locomotion, capture of food and respiration. Water vascular system is of coelomic origin. Haemal and perihaemal system → Instead of blood vascular system there are present haemal and perihaemal systems which are of coelom origin. Thus they are called a circulatory system which is open type and includes haemal and perihaemal systems so blood is often without a respiratory pigment. There is no heart.

A.

Starfish

688. Chief function of Pedicellariae in star fish is : (a) Respiration (b) Capturing (c) Cleansing (d) Feeding UP PGT 17/08/2021 Ans. (c) : Chief function of Pedicellariae in star fish is cleansing. The oral and aboral surfaces of star fish (Asterias) bear small, whitish, specialised jaw-like appendages called as pedicellariae. They are thought to keep the body surface clear of algae and other debris. They may also help in capturing small prey.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 689. The chief function of pedicellariae of star fish is: (a) Cleansing (b) Respiration (c) Capturing (d) Defence TGT (2016) 31/07/2021 Ans. (a) : The chief function of pedicellariae of star fish is cleansing. The star fish oral and aboral surface bear small, whitish, specialised jaw- like appendages called as pedicellariae. These are found between the spines of the aboral surface, while they remain attached to the bases of the spines and also lie in the spaces between the spines on the organ surface. These are used for protection, especially against small animals and larvae that may settle on the body surface, thereby keeping the body surface free of debris.

692. Which one is not a larval stage of star fish? (a) Planula (b) Dipleurula (c) Bipinnaria (d) Brachiolaria UP PGT 2016 Ans. (a) A bipinnaria is the first stage in the larval development of most starfish, and is usually followed by a brachiolaria stage. Movement and feeding is accomplished by the bands of cilia. Starfish that brood their young generally lack a bipinnaria stage, with the eggs developing directly into miniature adults. Planula larva is not a larval stage of starfish. A planula is a free-swimming larva. It is ciliated, reciprocally symmetric larval type of different cnidarian species. It is also present in the ctenophores.

690. Stone canal in Asterias connects the : 693. Stone canal in starfish is associated with : (a) ring canal and polian vesicle (a) blood vascular system (b) ring canal and radial canal (b) canal system (c) madreporite and ring canal (c) digestive system (d) madreporite and polian vesicle (d) water vascular system UP LT 2018 UPPCS Pre 2006 Ans. (c) : Starfish is an echinoderm which has water Ans. (d) : Stone canal is starfish is associated with vascular system. They have a central canal and tube-like vascular system. channels in the tube feet. The water enters by Name of system Character madreporite which is further circulated by stone canal to (a) Blood Vascular → It is associated in the ring canal and into the radial canals. The radial system human beings and canals carry water to the ampullae and provide suction animals. They flow by to the tube feet. So the stone canal is a part of water blood vessels. vascular system. (b) Canal system → It is the specific character of the phylum Porifera. (c) Digestive system → Any type of canal is not present in digestive system. This sytem includes organ to digest the food material. (d) Water vascular → Stone canal associated System with water vascular system. It is a canal of madreporite joining with ring canal. True blood vascular system not present in Echinodermata. 694. "Tiedemann's bodies" are one of the essential parts of the ambulacral system of the starfish and are closely associated with : 691. The correct sequence of larval development in (a) stone canal (b) ring canal Asterias is : (c) radial canal (d) lateral canal (a) brachiolaria → bipinnaria → dipleurula UPPCS Pre 1994 (b) bipinnaria → dipleurula → brachiolaria PGT Biology 2009 (c) dipleurula → bipinnaria → brachiolaria Ans. (b) : The stone canal is a vertical calcareous (d) bipinnaria → brachiolaria → dipleurula UPPCS Pre 2006 tube that connects the madreporite to the ring canal, which encircles the mouth. On the ring canal there are Ans. (c) : The correct sequence of larval development sacs, called Tiedemann's bodies, designed to capture in Asterias is. and rupture any bacteria cells that made it this far into Dipleurula→ Bipinnaria → Brachiolaria the system. They are five pairs in starfish. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 695. Hypothetical larva that brings evolutionary closeness between chordata and echinodermata is: (a) trochophore (b) bipinnaria (c) cyphonautes (d) dipleurula UPPCS Pre 1997 Ans. (d) : Hypothetical larva that brings evolutionary closeness between chordata and echinodermata is dipleurula. This larval stage is a hypothetical ancestor which is small, collated bilateral, benthic or pelagic which means it lives in the upper or lower water of the open sea. Dipleurula larva has common traits with echinoderms, hemichordates and chordates and is considered to be the common ancestor. 696. Madreporite is associated with : (a) Canal system of sponges (b) Reproduction in Prawn (c) Water vascular system of starfish (d) Respiration in Prawn PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (c) : The madreporite is a light colored calcareous opening used to filter water into the water vascular system of echinoderms. It acts like a pressure equalizing valve. The water vascular system of the sea star consists of a series of seawater-filled ducts that function in locomotion and feeding and respiration. Its main parts are the madreporite, the stone canal, the lateral canals the ring canal, the radial canals and the tube feet. The sieve - like madreporite allows entry of seawater into the stone canal, which connects to the ring canal around the mouth. 697. Water vascular system is found in : (a) Hydra (b) Sponge (c) Earthworm (d) Starfish UPPCS Pre 1996 Ans. (d) : An outstanding characteristic of the echinoderm is their complex coelom (enterocoel) and its derivatives : the water vascular system, perivisceral coelom and haemal system. The water vascular system is a unique organ system that functions in locomotion, feeding, respiration and excretion in starfish. 698. Water vascular system is a feature of : (a) King crab (b) Asterias (c) Balanoglossus (d) Sponges TGT Biology 2011 Ans. (b) : Water vascular system in Asterias serves for locomotion, respiration and food capture. It basically consist of a system of canals and reservoirs containing a watery fluid, the system consisting of a sieve plate, or madreporite and a ring vessel, or water - Vascular ring, that are connected by a frequently calcified vessel called the stone canal. Five radial water canals extend outward from the ring vessel and give rise to branches that end in the tube feet, which are in contact with the sea. It is specifically, the tube feet that are used to pass food to the mouth at the centre, and can attach to surface. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

699. Tube feet in echinoderms have functions of (a) locomotion alone (b) respiration alone (c) nutrition alone (d) all of the above UPPCS Pre 2009 Ans. (d) : Tube feet are small active tubular projection on the oral face of an echinoderm, whether the arms of a starfish, or the undersides of sea urchins, sand dollars and sea cucumbers. They are part of the water vascular system of echinoderms. Tube feet are used in locomotion, nutrition and respiration. Tube feet are used by starfish to open up bivalve shells. 700. Tube feet are characteristic features of (a) Jelly fish (b) Star fish (c) Cray fish (d) Cuttle fish GIC Biology 15.09.2015 Ans. (b) : Starfish belong to the phylum Echinodermata who have developed tube feet for locomotion. The tube feet generally protrude out through special radial areas called ambulacral. They are extended and retracted by variations in hydraulic pressure of fluid in them and by contractions of their muscles. Cuttle fish belong to the phylum Mollusca and it swims. Crayfish belong to the phylum Arthropoda in which locomotion occurs by jointed appendages. Jelly fish belong to the phylum Cnidaria and it swims. 701. Tube feet occur in : (a) Snail (b) Star fish (c) Cuttle fish (d) Cat fish Delhi SSB PGT Biology 2015 Ans. (b) : In the star fish, special locomotory organs called tube feet are present. These tube feet are arranged in the grooves along the arms. The function of feet is locomotion, respiration, and feeding. The animals containing tube feet can attach to the ocean floor and move very slowly. 702. Respiratory organs of starfish are : (a) Body walls (b) Tube feet (c) Pedicellariae (d) Papulae PGT Biology 2009 Ans. (d) : Asterias which is commonly known as starfish is an exclusively marine bottom dwelling animal. These marine vertebrates have a central disc shaped body with five arms have an oral and aboral surface. The oral side has the mouth, ambulacral spines, and sense organs. The aboral surface has papulae or gills, spines, anus, madreporite and pedicellariae. These organisms do not have true heart. There is no respiratory pigment in the blood. The exchange of gases occurs by different organs in different organisms. Gaseous exchange takes place through the dermal branchiae or papulae in starfish. The genital bursae is involved in respiration in the brittle stars. There are peristomial gills which acts as respiratory organs in sea urchins and cloacal trees are used for respiration in sea cucumbers. Exchange of gases also takes place through the tube feet in certain species. The dermal branchiae and the tube feet perform the functions of respiratory organs in case of Asterias.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 703. An animal which is radially symmetrical, but its larva is bilaterally symmetrical(a) Sycon (b) Aurelia (c) Asterias (d) All of these PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (c) : Echinodermata–Asterias includes marine animals which have spiny body surface and calcareous exoskeleton. They are triploblastic coelomates. They are radially symmetrical in adult stage but shows bilateral symmtery in the larval stage. They have five arms which are also known as tube feet. The larva of the echinoderms, however, have bilateral symmetry. 704. The eggs of starfish are : (a) homolecithal (b) telolecithal (c) microlecithal (d) oligolecithal PGT Biology 2004 Ans. (a&c) : The eggs of starfish are homolecithal and microlecithal. On the basis of amount and distribution of yolk sac the eggs are divided into following types Eggs based on amount of yolk 1. Microlecithal Eggs-They contain very small amount of yolk e.g.-Herdmania, Sea urchin, Amphioxus, Asterias

2. Mesolecithal Eggs-They contain moderate amount of yolk, e.g.-lamprey, lungfish, frog and toads, mammals.

706. Birds are capable of removing during inspiration which of the following amount of oxygen from the air ? (a) 20% (b) 40% (c) 90% (d) 100% UP PGT 17/08/2021 Ans. (c) : Birds are capable of removing during inspiration 90% of oxygen from the air. The respiratory system of birds facilitates efficient exchange of carbon dioxide and oxygen by using air sacs to maintain a continuous unidirectional airflow through the lungs. Unidirectional flow means that air moving through bird lungs is largely fresh air and has a higher oxygen content. Birds ability to extract more oxygen from air goes up as the air becomes more hypoxic.

707. Larva of Balanoglossus is : (a) Tornaria (b) Trochophore (c) Ammocoete (d) Maggot PGT Biology 2010, UPPCS Pre 2010 Ans. (a) : A tornaria is the planktonic larva of some Eggs based on distrispecies of Hemichordata, like Balanoglossus. It is very bution of yolk similar in appearance to the bipinnaria larva of 1. starfishes, with convoluted bands of cilia running Homolecithal/Isolecithal around the body. So, the correct answer is 'Tornaria'. Eggs-Yolk is uniformly distributed, e.g.Annelids, molluscs, echinoderms & protochordates. 2. Telolecithal EggsYolk is concentrated in vegetal half. e.g.Amphibians

3. Macrolecithal/Megalecithal Eggs- They contain large amount of yolk, e.g.insects, sharks, reptiles, birds, bony fishes and egg laying mammals.

3. Centrolecithal EggsYolk is localized at the centre, e.g.- Insects. 4. Meiolecithal EggsYolk is very large which occupies nearly the entire ooplasm. e.g.- Reptiles, Birds and 708. The presence of bone is an unique character of: egg laying mammals. (a) Hemichordata (b) Urochordata (c) Cephalochordata (d) Vertebrata 11. Chordata TGT (2016) 31/07/2021 Ans. (d) : The presence of bone is an unique character 705. Common rock pigeon does not build nest on : of vertebrata. Vertebrates are advanced chordates (a) Fissures of rocks (b) Forts having cranium (brain box) around the brain and hence, they are called as craniata. So all vertebrates have skull (c) Houses (d) Trees TGT (2016) 31/07/2021 i.e. cranium. Their body consists of serially arranged Ans. (d) : Common rock pigeon does not build nest on trees. In ancient times pigeons were used to carry vertebrae which comprises a major part of their axial messages, in racing and recreation. Given the fact that exoskeleton, the vertebral column or the backbone. they have a large number of natural enemies, Pigeons in Their skin covered by Protective Skeleton that urban areas prefer to make their nests or homes inside comprises of scales, feathers, hair, etc. They have an buildings rather than on trees in order to protect endoskeleton which may be made up of cartilage or themselves. bones. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf

709. Which of the following is flying fish ? (a) Shark (b) Chimera (c) Latimeria (d) Exocoetus TGT (2016) 31/07/2021 Ans. (d) : Exocoetus is called the 'flying fish' and is in the family of marine fishes. They have wing - like fins that enable gliding flight for considerable distances above the water's surface. This uncommon ability is a natural defence mechanism to evade predators.

712. The teeth are replaced by a horny beak in which of the following ? (a) Rhynchocephalia (b) Squamata (c) Chelonia (d) Crocodilia UP PGT 17/08/2021 Ans. (c) : The teeth are replaced by a horny beak in Chelonia. It belongs to the reptilian order Testudines, comprising of turtles, tortoises, and terrapins. No species of chelonian has teeth but they have a beak. With their strong jaw muscles and hard beaks, they crush the shells of their prey. Sea turtles are completely aquatic and eat mainly animal food, while land tortoises are largely vegetarian. 713. Which of the following phyla is classified on the basis of their skull cavities ? (a) Pisces (b) Amphibia (c) Reptilia (d) Aves RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) Ans. (c) : The reptiles are classified on the basis of their skull cavities. Based on the number and presence or absence of temporal fossae, reptiles were formerly grouped under four sub-class : Anapsida, synapsida, Parapsida, and Diapsida. Reptilia are the first class of organisms to adapt to life on land. They are believed to have evolved from the amphibians. The skull of the reptiles is modified that gives an efficient and powerful jaw action. ⇒Anapsida – No temporal fossae ⇒Synapsida – One temporal fossae on lower part. ⇒Parapsida –One temporal fossae on upper part. ⇒Diapsida –Two temporal fossae.

710. Which of the following animal is poisonous ? (a) Hemidactylus (b) Uromastyx (c) Ornithorhynchus male (d) Chameleon UP PGT 17/08/2021 Ans. (c) : Ornithorhynchus male is poisonous animal. It is a semiaquatic, egg-laying mammal and it is sometimes referred to as the platypus or duck-billed platypus. It is one of the few poison producing mammal, and they sense their prey through electrolocation. The male platypus has a spur which is an outgrowth of bone under a sheath of the horn. Unlike other poisonous mammals that produce venom to protect themselves, the male platypus uses it for mating purposes. 711. Which of the following is an anadromous fish ? (a) Eel (b) Carp (c) Hilsa (d) Goby UP PGT 17/08/2021 Ans. (c) : Hilsa is an anadromous fish. The hilsa, also 714. Which of the following statements is correct known as the ilish, ilishi, hilsa herring or hilsa shad, is a about class mammalia? species of fish related to the herring, in the family (a) All the mammals are viviparous. Clupeidae. It is a very popular food fish in the Indian (b) Duck-billed Platypus is a marsupial. subcontinent. Anadromous fishes are born in freshwater (c) All the eutherians have external ear (pinna). who spend most of their lives in saltwater and return to freshwater to spawn. There are approximately 100 (d) All the aquatic mammals live in oceans known species of anadromous fishes. RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (*) : All statements are incorrect. [Note – Commission has deleted this Question] 715. In which of the following placoid scales are found? (a) Elasmobranch fishes (b) Teleost fishes (c) Dipnoi (d) Latimeria RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) Ans. (a) : Placoid scales are found in Elasmobranch fishes Elasmobranch is a subclass of chondrichthyes or cartilaginous fishes, including sharks, rays, skates, and sawfish. Placoid scales are tiny, tough scales that covers the skin of elasmobranches. These scales provide protection, camouflage, and hydrodynamic advantage. The placoid scales are somewhat similar to the scales of the bony fishes. They are like teeth covered with enamel and are also known as dermal denticles. 716. The connecting link between reptiles and mammals is : (a) Sauropsida (b) Marsupialia (c) Monotremata (d) Cetacea UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (c) : The connecting link between reptiles and mammals is Monotremata. It is the most ancient living order of mammals and are only found in Australia, Tasmania and new Guinea. These are semi-aquatic egg laying mammals. It shows mammalian characters like mammary glands, hair, diaphragm, single aortic arch etc. It shows reptilian characters in having a large coracoid in pectoral girdle. 717. The reason for including Balanoglossus in chordata is the presence of – (a) Pharyngeal gill slits (b) A stomodeal diverticulum which is considered to be notochord (c) A dorsal hollow nervous system (d) All of the above UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (d) : The reason for including balanoglossus in chordata is the presence of pharyngeal gill slits a stomodeal diverticulum (notochord) and a dorsal hollow nervous system. Balanoglossus is considered a connecting link between chordates and non-chordates because it shows characteristics which are present in both the Phyla. J.F. Eschscholtz who discovered Balanoglossus in 1825 in Marshall Island described it as a worm like holothurian. 718. Ampullae of Lorenzini in cartilaginous fishes are : (a) Rheoreceptors (b) Thermoreceptors (c) Chemoreceptors (d) Phtotoreceptors UPPCS Pre 1994 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (b) : The ampullae of Lorenzini are special sensing organs called thermoreceptors, forming a network of jelly-filled pores. They are mostly found in cartilaginous fish (sharks, rays and chimaeras); however, they are also reported to be found in Chondrichthyes such as reedfish and sturgeon. 719. Which one of the following cranial nerves is found only in amniotes : (a) Glossopharyngeal (b) Trigeminal (c) Vagus (d) Hypoglossal UPPCS Pre 2000 Ans. (d) : Hypoglossal cranial nerve is only present in amniotes. It is 12th cranial nerve and it innervates all the extrinsic and intrinsic muscle of the tongue. There are 12 pairs of cranial nerves found in amniotes. In anamniota, 10 pairs of cranial nerves are present. 720. Sphenodon punctatus is called as a – (a) Missing link (b) Connecting link (c) Living fossil (d) Reptilian ancestor UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (c) : Sphenodon punctatus is called as a living fossil. They are reptiles endemic to New Zealand and are also known as tuatara (Means, " Peaks on the back") It is currently the living fossil because it received a second opportunity to keep inhabiting the incredible inlands of New Zealand. All species of the sphenodontia members apart from the Tuatara, declined and eventually became extinct about 200 million years ago. 721. In compounds fish culture, the surface feeder fish is – (a) Labeo rohita (b) Cirrhinus mrigala (c) Cyprinus carpio (d) Catla catla UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (d) : In composite fish culture the surface feeder fish is catla catla. Surface feeder fish are those fish which have a straight back that helps their upturned mouth or supra terminal mouth to easily reach the surface and perfectly grab the food without being revealed to the prey. The Catla fish eats phytoplanktons and are also called pelagic fish as they live in the pelagic zone of the water body. 722. The group of cold-blooded animals having incomplete four-chambered heart are : (a) Amphibia (b) Aves (c) Mammalia (d) Reptilia RPSC School Lecturer (23/07/2016)

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (d) : Characteristics of class Reptilia are given below(1) Class reptilian includes animals which are coldblooded. (2) The skin has a few cutaneous glands and high levels of keratin, which prevents water loss through the skin. (3) The scales and scutes are formed from the epidermis and are also made up of keratin, to protect the body. (4) These animals breath with well-developed lungs, right from birth. Most of them have two lungs, except for some snakes. (5) All reptiles have three- chambered hearts, except crocodiles, which have four chambered hearts (2 atria, 2 ventricles) like mammals and birds. (6) There amniotic eggs can survive without water as they have protective shells and membranes that allow oxygen and other gases to enter. 723. In which of the following subclasses of reptiles, the skull has a solid roof : (a) Anapsida (b) Diapsida (c) Synapsida (d) Parapsida TGT Biology 2003 Ans. (a) : In Anapsida is the sub classes of reptiles, the skull has a solid roof. Anapsid is a subclass of reptiles. An anapsid is an amniote whose skull does not have openings near the temples. The skull of an anapsid is made by a solid roof. It includes turtles and extinct permian forms. 724. Which of the fossils is linked between reptilia and aves ? (a) Peripatus (b) Protopterus (c) Archaeopteryx (d) Echidna UK SSSC L.T. (21/01/2018) Ans. (c) : Archaeopteryx is a connecting link between reptilian and aves. It is a genus of bird like dinosaurs. It was first described in 1861 by the German paleontologist Hermann von Meyer. They have wings and feathers like birds, and claws and teeth like reptiles. Archaeopteryx lived at the end of the Jurassic period, and plays an important role, not only in the study of the origin of birds, but in the study of dinosaurs. The word Archaeopteryx means " ancient wing". 725. Larva of Petromyzon is called : (a) Nauplius (b) Tornaria (c) Ammocoete (d) Crinoid UK SSSC L.T. (21/01/2018) Ans. (c) : Larva of Petromyzon is called Ammocoete. Petromyzon marinus (sea lamprey) is a parasitic lamprey native to the Northern Hemisphere. It is sometimes referred to as the "vampire fish". It has an eel -like body without paired fins. The ammocoete larva undergoes metamorphosis which changes its internal organs leading to their development. The young ammocoete larva spend many years in the rivers, where they live burrowed in fine sediment, filter- feeding on detritus and microorganisms. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

726. Which is called as "Reptile-like mammal" ? (a) Scaly ant eater (b) Giant ant eater (c) Spiny ant eater (d) All the above RPSC School Lecturer 2011 Ans. (c) : Spiny ant eater is called as Reptile like mammals. Echidna is known as spiny anteaters, are quill-covered monotremes belonging to the family Tachyglossidae. 727. Buccal diverticulum and proboscis gland are found in (a) Herdmania (b) Amphioxus (c) Balanoglossus (d) Elephant RPSC School Lecturer 2011 Ans. (c) : Balanoglossus is a hemichordata. The excretory organ of balanoglossus is glomerulus also known as proboscis gland. This gland comprised of many tube like projections and they are present at the covering of buccal diverticulum central sinus, and heart vesicle.

728. Retrogressive metamorphosis is found in : (a) Amphibia (b) Urochordata (c) Arthropoda (d) Hemichordata RPSC School Lecturer 2011

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (b) : Retrogressive metamorphosis is a 731. Heterocoelous centrum is a characteristic of (a) Amphibia (b) Reptilia characteristic of ascidians. They belong to the group of uro-chordates also known as Tunicates. Retrogressive (c) Birds (d) Mammalia metamorphosis means degenerative changes where in TGT Biology 2009 an active larva transforms into a sedentary adult exAns. (c) : Heterocoelous vertebrae are characteristic of Herdmania. birds neck. The centrum is saddle shaped. It permits extensive lateral and vertical flexion motion without stretching the nerve cord too extensively or wringing it about its long axis providing high flexibility to the neck movement. 732. Completely free movement of fishes between fresh and marine water without the purpose of breeding is called as : (a) Catadromous migration (b) Amphidromous migration (c) Anadromous migration (d) None of these UP PGT 2016 Ans. (b) In a 1949 Journal article, George S. Myers coined the inclusive term diadromous refer to all fish that migrate between the sea and freshwater. 729. Jacobson's organ is concerned with Diadromous proved to be a useful words but terms (a) smell (b) burrowing proposed by Myers for other types of diadromous fish did not catch on which includes amphidromous (fish (c) touch (d) vision that migrate from freshwater to the seas, or vice versa, TGT Biology 2009 but not for the Purpose of breeding) Potamodromous Ans. (a) : The vomeronasal organ (VNO), or (fish whose migrations occur within freshwater) and Jacobson's organ is an auxiliary olfactory sense organ, oceanodromous (fish that live and migrate wholly in the that is found in many animals. It was discovered by sea). Frederik Ruysch prior to 1732 and later by Ludwig 733. Pluteus larva of echinoderms is characterized by Jacobson in 1813. This organ is the sense organ the possession of : involved in the flehmen response in mammals. (a) apical cilia alone (b) horizontal row of cilia alone (c) vertical row of cilia alone (d) none of the above UPPCS Pre 2003, PGT 2002 Ans. (d) : Pluteus larva of echinoderms have 5 to 6 pairs of arms supported by calcareous rods and with pigmented tips and presence of four ciliated bands forming epaulettes at the base of postoral and postero dorsal arms. 734. Keratin in not found in the epidermis of (a) fish (b) reptile (c) bird (d) mammal 730. How many pairs of appendages are present in UP LT 2018 vertebrates? Ans. (a) : Keratinocytes or squamous cells are in the (a) One pair middle layer of the epidermis and produce keratin, the (b) Two pairs protein that forms the protective outer layer. keratin also is used to produce hair and nails. Keratin is not found in (c) Three pairs fish, whereas keratin is found in the epidermis level of (d) Variable in species to species skin of reptile, birds and mammals. PGT Biology 2009 735. Axolotl larva exhibits Ans. (d) : Paired appendages are not found in ancestral (a) Neoteny only vertebrates and are not present in the modern (b) Paedogenesis only cyclostomes (e.g. lampreys, hagfishes). Appendages (c) Both neoteny and paedogenesis first appeared during the early evolution of the fishes, (d) Eutely usually two pairs of appendages are present, fins in fish and limbs in land vertebrates. UP PGT 2016 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (c) The axolotl also known as a Mexican 739. Flying fox is a salamander (Ambystoma mexicanum) or a Mexican (a) Fox (b) Bat walking fish, is a neotenic salamander, closely related to (c) Squirrel (d) Fish the tiger salamander. Although the axolotl is Bihar PGT 2019 colloquially known as a walking fish, it is not a fish, but an amphibian. Axolotls exhibit neoteny, meaning they Ans. (b) : Flying foxes and blossom bats belong in a reach sexual maturity without undergoing group scientists call megabats. Flying fox (genus Pteropus) also called fox bat, any of about 65 bat metamorphosis. In the axolotl, metamorphic failure is caused by a lack species found on tropical islands from Madagascar to of thyroid stimulating hormone, which is used to induce Australia and Indonesia and in mainland Asia. They are the thyroid to produce thyroxine in transforming also often known as "Fruits bats" as they love to feed on salamanders. The feature of the salamander, that attracts fruit, flower and nector. They were called flying foxes the most is its healing ability. The axolotl does not heal because their heads look similar to those of foxes. by scarring and is capable of the regeneration of entire 740. Heart is absent in : lost appendages in a period of months (Paedogenesis). (a) Herdmania (b) Branchiostoma In some cases, axolotls have been known to repair a (c) Petromyzon (d) Myxine damaged limb, as well as regenerating an additional UPPCS Pre 2000, 2007 one, ending up with an extra appendage. Ans. (b) : Heart is absent in Branchiostoma. It is 736. Only one ovary is present in the : invertebrate animals but circulatory system is present. (a) Aquatic reptiles Blood without respiration. There is no pericardial (b) Terrestrial reptiles cavity. The blood vessels are muscular and pulsatile in (c) Birds nature. (d) Egg-laying mammals 741. The three basic chordate characters are founds TGT Biology 2005 in the adult of (a) Doliolum (b) Branchiostoma Ans. (c) : Ovaries are generally two in number in all female organisms except birds (Class Aves) in which (c) Oikopleura (d) Herdmania the females have a single left ovary. This reduces the UPPCS Pre 2010 weight which is essential for flight. So the correct Ans. (b) : Cephalochordata (Branchiostoma) exhibits answer is "Birds". the three basic chordate features such as notochord, 737. In which, adaptation to aquatic life is dorsal tubular nerve cord and pharyngeal gill - slits in secondary ? the most typical manner and there is no doubt about its (a) Whales (b) Seals chordate nature. However, it exhibits, relationships (c) Porpoises (d) All of the above with all the major group of phylum chordata, and its UP PGT 2016 real status in the phylum remains uncertain. Ans. (d) Whales, seals and porpoises, these animals are 742. Sea horse is a : called secondarily aquatic because although their (a) Fish (b) Mammal ancestors lived on land for hundreds of millions of (c) Bird (d) Carnivora years, they all originally descended from aquatic TGT Biology 2005 animals. These ancestral tetrapods had never left the water and were thus primarily aquatic, like modern Ans. (a) : Sea horse, (genus Hippocampus) any of about 50 species of marine fishes allied to pipefishes in fishes. the family syngnathidae (order Gasterosteiformes). 738. Fixation papillae are found in Seahorses are found in shallow coastal waters in (a) Tornaria larva latitudes from about 520N to 450S. Their habitats (b) Trochophora larva include coral reefs, mangroves, sea grass beds, and estuaries. They are unique in appearance, with their (c) Glochidium larva horselike head, prehensile tail, independently moving (d) Ascidian larva eyes and brood pouch. Their bodies are covered with PGT Biology 2009 consecutive rings of bony plates. Ans. (d) : Fixation papillae is found in the ascidian 743. 'Synsacrum' bone is the feature of larva which keeps the larva attached to a substance. The (a) Reptiles Ascidian class comes under the Ascidiacea. These are (b) Limbless amphibians commonly known as sea-squirts. Tornaria larva is found in Balanoglossus. Trochophora larva is found in nereis. (c) Flying birds Glochidium larva, also known as Veliger larva is found (d) None of these in the Unio genus of phylum Mollusca. TGT Biology 2011 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (c) : Synsacrum bone is the feature of flying birds. The synsacrum is a skeletal structure of birds and other dinosaurs, in which the sacrum is extended by incorporation of additional fused or partially fused caudal or lumbar vertebrae and it can only be seen in birds. Some posterior thoracic vertebrae are fused to form a complex bone called synsacrum. The innominate bones are fused with the synsacrum to a greater or lesser extent, according to species, forming an avian pelvis. This forms a more extensive rigid structure than the pelvis of a mammal, fulfilling requirements for flight, locomotion and respiration. Posterior to the synsacrum there are a few free caudal vertebrae, the last of which is the pygostyle to which the long, stiff tail feathers are attached. The central section of the synsacrum is swollen to accommodate the glycogen body, an organ whose function is as yet unclear but which may be associated with balance.

746. Zygosphene and zygantrum are found in : (a) vertebra of frog (b) girdle of frog (c) vertebra of snake (d) girdle of snake UPPCS Pre 2003 Ans. (c) The zygosphene - zygantrum articulation is an accessory joint between vertebrae found in several lepidosauromorpha reptiles. This pivot joint consists of a forward - facing, wedge shaped process called the zygosphene, that fits in a depression on the rearside of the next vertebrae called the zygantrum. The zygosphene sits between the prezygapophysis in the neural arch, whereas the zygantrum sits between the postzygapophysis. This joint is found in snakes, lacertids, teiids, gymnophthalmids as well as in some iguanids and cordylids. The zygosphene - zygantrum joint's function is to stabilize the vertebral column. While it permits horizontal and vertical movements of the vertebral column, it prevents rotations of the single verebrae against each other.

747. A fully formed sperm cell of frog has : (a) a nucleus (b) an acrosome 744. A gland which is found on the undersurface of the thighs of male lizard is : (c) a pair of centriole and tail (a) Sudorific gland (b) Femoral gland (d) all the above (c) Green gland (d) Stink gland UPPCS Pre 2007 TGT Biology 2009 Ans. (d) : The following structures are found in a fully formed sperm cell in a frog. One nucleus, one Ans. (b) : Femoral glands are a common secondary sex acrosome, one pair of centriole and tail. Sperm is characteristic of male lizards. These glands are used in various ways for sexual, individual and territorial, made up of head, neck and tail. The head is thick and identification. They are called femoral when in the enlarged structure with acrosomes in its top which femoral area and called preanal ventral glands when in contains the same sized nucleus. Neck joins head and the cloacal region. tail parts which consist of centrosome and mitochondria. The tail is a thread like structure and 745. Largest RBC are found in help in wriggling movements of sperm. (a) Llama (b) Musk deer 748. Inner ear of Agnatha have only : (c) Amphiuma (d) Necturus (a) One semicircular canal PGT Biology 2011 (b) Two semicircular canal Ans. (c) : Largest RBCs - Amphiuma 75-80 µ (class (c) Three semicircular canal Amphibia). (d) None of these Smallest RBCs - musk deer 2.5 µ (class mammalia) Largest RBCs among all mammals in elephant 9-11 µ. UP PGT 2016 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (c) In jawed (gnathostomes) vertebrates, the inner Ans. (b) : Adult urochordates have degenerate, sac ears have three semicircular canals arranged like, unsegmented body. Adult tunicates have a orthogonally in the three cartesian planes, one hollow cerebral ganglion equivalent to a brain, and a horizontal (lateral) and two vertical canals. The three hollow structure known as a neural gland. Both semicircular canals are mainly statoreceptors which originate from the embryonic neural tube are located help to maintain the balance. between the two siphons. 749. Eutherian mammals are 753. Which one of the following glands found in urochordates is said to be the forerunner of the (a) Oviparous (b) Viviparous thyroid gland of vertebrates : (c) Ovoviviparous (d) Both (a) and (c) (a) Neural gland (b) Endostyle TGT Biology 2013 (c) Dorsal tubercle (d) Pyloric glands Ans. (b) : Mammals having placenta are called UPPCS Pre 1995 Eutherians. Viviparity includes both fertilization and development of the embryo inside the body of a female Ans. (b) : Endostyle of Urochordate is equivalent to with ensured nourishment for growing embryo by thyroid gland of vertebrate. Neural gland is excretory forming the placenta and gives birth to the young ones gland. The endostyle is a pharyngeal organ of e.g. , Metatheria and Eutheria. urochordates, cephalochordates and primitive 750. The number of genera in the cephalochordata vertebrates. This organ has iodine-concentrating and iodine-metabolism activities and therefore the is endostyle is considered to be homologous to the (a) Two (b) Three follicle of the thyroid gland. (c) Four (d) Five 754. Number of Cranial nerves in amniotes is : TGT 07/08/2021 (a) 8 pairs (b) 9 pairs Ans. (a) : Cephalochordate is a subphylum or phylum (c) 10 pairs (d) 12 pairs of chordates that contains only the lancelets, a group of TGT Biology 2011 small invertebrate marine fishlike animals. There are 23 species in two genera, Branchiostoma (Amphioxus) and Ans. (d) : There are 12 pairs of Cranial nerves found in Epigonichthys-Members of cephalochordate possess a amniota whereas 10 pair of Cranial nerves are found in notochord, dorsal hollow nerve cord, pharyngeal slits frog. and a part and tail in the adult stage. Serial Different type of Cranial nerve found in 751. Which one of the following is catadromous? No. vertebrate (a) Lamprey (b) Rohu I Olfactory (c) Eel (d) Flatfish Bihar PGT 2019 II Optic Ans. (c) : Most species of the fishes are cold-blooded III Oculomotor which means that the body temperature of fishes varies with the changing ambient temperature. Fishes are IV Trochlear found abundantly in water bodies. Many species of fishes migrate long distance for the purpose of spawn. V Trigeminal Spawn is nothing but the release of egg and sperm of VI Abducens aquatic animals in water bodies. In order to understand the movement of migration of fishes, scientists have VII Facial further classified fishes into different groups known as anadromous, catadromous, amphidromous, VIII Auditory potamodromous and oceanodromous. IX Glossopharyngeal The fishes that are born in saltwater and migrate as a juvenile to the freshwater for the purpose X Vagus of growth are called catadromous fishes. Catadromous fishes spawn in the ocean after they migrate back from XI Spinal accessory the freshwater. Some of the examples of catadromous fishes are, American eel, Inanga, European eel, and XII Hypoglossal Longfin eel. The European eel is a catadromous fish belong to the Anguilla species of fishes. Note-In anamniotes (fishes and amphibians), the spinal accessory (XI) and hypoglossal (XII) cranial 752. Adult urochordates have : nerves are not found. (a) Sac like body with paired appendages 755. Aestivation is the process of : (b) Degenerate, sac like, unsegmented body (a) Summer sleep (b) Rapid breathing (c) unsegmented body with a prominent tail (c) building of nests (d) Loss of water (d) well developed segmented body UPPCS Pre 1994 UPPCS Pre 2007 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (a) : Aestivation (from Latin : aestas (summer) but also spelled estivation in American English) is a state of animal dormancy, similar to hibernation, characterized by inactivity and a lowered metabolic rate, that is entered in response to high temperatures and arid conditions. 756. 'Shagreen' is commercial product of : (a) Feather (b) Shark skin (c) Fish air bladder (d) Frog skin UPPCS Pre 1994 Ans. (b) : Shagreen is a type of rawhide consisting of rough untanned skin, historically from a horse's or onager's back or from shark or ray. In modern times, shagreen is produced from the skins of commercially farmed Asian sting rays. 757. Fixation papillae are found in : (a) Tornaria larva (b) Trochophore larva (c) Glochidium larva (d) Ascidian larva UPPCS Pre 2008, 2002 Ans. (d) : Fixation papillae are found in ascidian larva. The swimming larvae of most solitary ascidians belonging to the Ascididae family, that bear three anterior, simple conic adhesive papillae. They secrete adhesive substance that are used to effect transitory settlement at the beginning of the metamorphosis. 758. Herpetology is the study of : (a) fishes and amphibians (b) amphibians and reptiles (c) reptiles and birds (d) birds and mammals UPPCS Pre 2006 Ans. (b) : Herpetology : It deals with the study of amphibian and reptile. Ichthyology : It is the branch of the Science which deals with study of fishes. Ornithology : It deals with the study of birds. Mammalogy : It deals with the study of mammals. Mammals have a mammary glands. 759. Which one of the following is devoid of cervical vertebra? (a) Seal (b) Snake (c) Frog (d) Fish UPPCS Pre 2006 Ans. (d) : Fish is devoid of cervical vertebra. The cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, caudal are the vertebra of mammals. Cervical vertebra found in neck portion. So, cervical vertebrae is absent in fish. 760. Flight muscles of birds are attached to : (a) Clavicle (b) Sternum (c) Scapula (d) Coracoid UPPCS Pre 2006 Ans. (b) : Flight muscles of birds are attached to sternum or breast bone. It is broad, flat, unsegmented, boat-shaped bone. Flight muscles are attached to clavicle bone formed furcula. No flight muscles are attached to scapula called shoulder bone. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

761. The flight muscle pectoralis minor of birds is : (a) a depressor muscle (b) an elevator muscle (c) both depressor and elevator muscle (d) an accessory muscle UPPCS Pre 1997 Ans. (b) : Pectoralis minor help in upstroke of the wings, is an elevator muscles. Pectoralis major is depressor muscles. Pectoralis minor are present on the dorsal side of the pectoralis major and arises from the anterior part of the sternum bone. They control the up stroke and back ward stroke. 762. Retrogressive metamorphosis occurs in tadpole larva of : (a) Frog (b) Toad (c) Salpa (d) Amphioxus UPPCS Pre 2007 Ans. (c) : Metamorphosis is a change from juvenile to adult stage. In retrogressive metamorphosis the larva possesses advance characters which are lost during the development and the adult is either sedentary or degenerated with primitive characters. All the member of subphylum Urochordata or Tunicata show, retrogressive metamorphosis. Ex. Herdmania - sea potato or sea squirts, Salpa. 763. Furcula is formed by the fusion of : (a) carpals in lizard (b) clavicles in pigeon (c) zygosphenes in snake (d) vomers in rabbit UPPCS Pre 2006 Ans. (b) : Two clavicles are fused and form a Vshaped furcula. It is a character of bird only. It is known by second name wishbone. It work as a spring like connection between the two halves of shoulder girdle. Carpal is the bone in hand of lizard. In birds, furcula serves to provide strengthening to the thoracic skeleton that helps to withstand the rigors of flight. 764. Foramen triosseum is found in : (a) pectoral girdle of bird (b) pelvic girdle of bird (c) pectoral girdle of mammal (d) pelvic girdle of mammal UPPCS Pre 2006 Ans. (a) : Foramen of triosseum is an opening enclosed by the scapula, clavicle and coracoid of a bird. The tendon at the minor pectoral muscle, which raises wings, passes through this opening. In pectoral girdle of mammals, any type of foramen is not present. 765. The seventh visceral arch in shark, reptile and mammal forms : (a) epibranchial and epiglottis (b) pharyngobranchial and columella (c) hypobranchial and arytenoid cartilage (d) hyoid and epiglottis UPPCS Pre 2006

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (d) : The 7th visceral arch in shark, reptiles and mammals form hyoid and epiglottis. Reptiles and mammals 3rd visceral arch formed carotid artery, 4th visceral arch formed systemic artery and 6th visceral arch formed pulmonary artery. 766. Which of the following is a mismatch? (a) partoid gland - Amphibia (b) Pterygopodial gland - Mammalia (c) Uropygial gland - Aves (d) Femoral gland - Reptilia UPPCS Pre 2006 Ans. (b) : In given option, option number (b) is not correct matched because pterygopodial gland is absent in mammal. It is a gland of uncertain function at the base of clasper in rays and skates, occupying the position of the siphon of other Elasmobranchii. 767. Which of the following is a non edible fresh water fish? (a) Cirrhinus mrigala (b) Wallago attu (c) Labeo rohita (d) Tetraodon cutcutia PGT Biology 2002 Ans. (d) : Venom is found on the epidermis of Tetraodon fish. Therefore the fish is not edible even if found in fresh water. Labeo rohita (Rohu) - It is edible. Tetraodon cutcutia is found in the countries of Asia continent like India, Sri Lanka, Bangladesh, Myanmar, Borneo. 768. Preen gland is found in : (a) fishes (b) reptiles (c) birds (d) mammals UPPCS Pre 2006 Ans. (c) : Preen or oil gland found in birds. It is also called uropygial gland located dorsally at the base of the tail. It secretes oily secretion which is used to smear the beak and the feather to make them water proof and shining. Preen gland is absent in reptiles, fishes and mammals. 769. Labeo, Cirrhinus and Mystus are : (a) marine fishes (b) brackish-water fishes (c) fresh-water fishes (d) land fishes UPPCS Pre 2006 Ans. (c) : Labeo, Cirrhinus and Mystus are found in fresh water. Fresh water fishes take cell ion from external medium to make internal medium hypotonic. Marine fishes take H2O from external medium. Brackish water fishes live in a saline water land. Fishes are unable to live on land because respiration in fishes take place by gills. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

770. Which one of the following fishes is not a food fish of U.P.? (a) Tilapia mossambica (b) Labeo rohita (c) Clarias batrachus (d) Heteropneustes fossil UPPCS Pre 1994 Ans. (a) : Tilapia mossambicus is not a food fish of U.P. Rest fishes are eaten in U.P. Tilapia mossambica is a profilic African species that is now cultivated in many regions as a source of food. 771. Which one is not a part of animal body of Chordata : (a) endostyle (b) pygostyle (c) anal style (d) urostyle UPPCS Pre 1994 Ans. (c) : Anal style is not a part of chordate. Anal style is found in lower animals (male cockroach). * Endostyle is modified into thyroid gland. * Pygostyle vertebrae is found in a bird. * Urostyle is the last vertebrae of frogs. 772. The tusk of the elephant is the : (a) modified upper canine (b) modified upper second incisor (c) modified lower second incisor (d) a specialized growth from the maxilla UPPCS Pre 1994 Ans. (b) : In elephants, the upper incisors are modified into curved tusks (unlike with Narwhals, where it is a canine that develops into a straight and twisted tusk). Tusks are massive teeth of elephants and other such animals. They replace milk teeth at 6-12 months of age and after that grow continuously. 773. Ammocoetes larva occur in the life history of : (a) Lamprey (b) Sea urchin (c) Balanoglossus (d) Ascidian UPPCS Pre 1994 Ans. (a) : After hatching from eggs of lamprey laid in rivers and streams, young larvae is called ammocoetes which burrow in fine sediment and filter feeders, collecting detritus, algae, and microorganisms. This larvae may spend up to eight years in this stage, prior to undergoing a metamorphosis which lasts for four to ten months. 774. Ctenoid and cycloid scales are found respectively in : (a) Amia and Dogfish (b) Rohu and Amia (c) Amia and spiny rayed fish (d) Stingray fish and Amia UPPCS Pre 1994

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (b) : Ctenoid and cycloid scale are found in Rohu and Amia respectively. Ctenoid scales are scales with comb-like edge found in higher order teleost fishes, such as perch and sunfish. Cycloid scales are smooth-edged scales predominately found in lower order teleost fishes, such as salmon, carp and other soft fin rayed fish. 775. The smallest feathers in birds are known as : (a) Filoplume (b) down (c) contour (d) pennae UPPCS Pre 1994 Ans. (a) : Filoplumes are the small, delicate and hair like feather. Filoplumes are hairlike feathers with a few soft barbs near the tip. They are associated with contour feathers and may be sensory or decorative in functions. 776. Culturable fishes should not be (a) herbivorous (b) carnivorous (c) prolific breeder (d) disease resistant PGT Biology 2005 Ans. (b) : The production and cultivation of carnivorous fish is not done in ponds and puddles because it is harmful to the fishes of other species or small fishes of their own species and takes them as their food. Due to which there is a bad effect on fish production. 777. The largest fish is : (a) Whale (c) Wallago

(b) Labeo (d) Clarius PGT Biology 2005 Ans. (c) : Among the given options - Wallago attu is the largest fish whose size is 183 c.m. long. Note - Whale shark fish is the biggest fish but whale is a mammalian animal which is not kept in the category of fishes.

778. Of the following, which fishes live in fresh waters but go down to the sea for breeding? (a) Anadromous fishes (b) Catadromous fishes (c) Potamodromous fishes (d) None of the above UPPCS Pre 2007 Ans. (b) : The fish which live in fresh water but move to the sea for breeding is called catadromous and the fish which live in the sea and move to fresh water is called Anadromous. Unlike anadromous or catadromous fish, a potamodromous fish spends its whole life in fresh water. 779. Which is a true fish : (a) Flying fish (c) Whale fish TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

(b) Silver fish (d) Cray fish UPPCS Pre 1994

Ans. (a) : Flying fish (Exocoetus)– true fishes belong to class Osteichthyes or teleostomi. Whale – mammals Silver fish – Arthropoda Cray fish – Arthropoda 780. Only one occipital condyle is found in the skull of : (a) scoliodon (b) frog (c) pigeon (d) rabbit UPPCS Pre 1994 Ans. (c) : Reptiles and aves - monocondylar skull one occipital condyle. Mammal and Amphibian - dicondylic skull. Birds have only one occipital condyle and can thus rotate up to 270 degrees in their heads. 781. Which of the following is known as living fossil: (a) Lepidosiren (b) Lepidosteus (c) Latimeria (d) Neoceratodus UPPCS Pre 1994 Ans. (c) : Latimeria, named for Marjorie CourtenayLatimer, the curator of East London's Museum, is a living representative of the lobe-finned fish order known as Coelacanths. It is often called a living fossil. Lepidosiren - Lung fishes of America. Protopterus - Lung fish of Africa. Lepidosteus is a genus of gars in the family lepidosteidae. Neoceratodus– Lung fish of Australia. 782. Vampire bat is : (a) Sanguivorous (b) Insectivorous (c) Frugivorous (d) Folivorous UPPCS Pre 1994 Ans. (a) : Vampire bat is a 'blood eating' animal. It is also called sanguivorous. It belongs to family Desmodontidae. The common vampire bat thrives in agriculture areas and feeds on livestock such as cattle, pigs and chickens. 783. Which of the following Ca++ dependent cell-cell adhesion protein is responsible for tissue specific recognition process in vertebrates? (a) Selectin (b) Cadherin (c) Catarin (d) Vinculin UPPCS Pre 2007 Ans. (b) : Cadherins (named for calcium dependent adhesion) are a type of cell adhesion molecule (CAM) that is important in the formation of adherens junctions to bind cells with each other. By regulating contact formation and stability, cadherins play a crucial role in tissue morphogenesis and homeostasis. 784. Urinary bladder is not found in which of the following ? (a) Amphibians (b) Reptiles (c) Birds (d) Mammals UPPCS Pre 2007

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (c) : Majority of birds are uricotelic with the exception of hummingbirds which are facultatively ammonotelic. Birds do not have a urinary bladder and excrete urea as a semisolid waste along with faeces. 785. Paedogenesis is observed in : (a) Axolotl larva (b) Megalopa larva (c) Caterpillar larva (d) Tornaria larva UPPCS Pre 2007 Ans. (a) : Paedogenesis is observed in Axolotl larva. In progenesis (also called Paedogenesis), Sexual development is accelerated. Reproduction by sexually mature larvae, usually without fertilization is called paedogenesis. The young may be eggs, such as are produced by Miastor (a genus of gall midge flies). 786. Infra orbital orchard is seen in the skull of : (a) Frog (b) Pigeon (c) Varanus (d) Rabbit UPPCS Pre 2007 Ans. (b) : Infra orbital orchard is seen in the skull of pigeon. Infra-orbital orchard is complete, while the supra temporal orchard is mostly incomplete in birds. It is present in auditory capsule part. 787. In which animal, both sweat and sebaceous glands are absent? (a) Dog (b) Horse (c) Camel (d) Elephant UPPCS Pre 2007 Ans. (d) : An elephant doesn't have sweat or sebaceous glands, so it covers its skin in water or mud to keep cool. The micrometer-wide cracks in its skin retain 10 times more moisture than a flat surface, helping the animal regulate its body temperature. Elephant skin has none of this natural protection found on many other land mammals and lacks this natural elasticity. 788. Which of the following are early jaw-less vertebrates? (a) Placoderms (b) Ostracoderms (c) Urochordates (d) Hemichordates UPPCS Pre 2007 Ans. (b) : Ostracoderms are the armored jawless fishes of the Paleozoic era. Agnatha is an infraphylum of jawless fish in the phylum Chordata, subphylum vertebrata consisting of both present (cyclostomes) and extinct (Conodonts and Ostracoderms) species. 789. Of the following, which one is commonly known as horned toad, and is found in the deserts of USA & Mexico? (a) Phrynosoma (b) Bufo (c) Xenopus (d) Pipa UPPCS Pre 2007 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (a) : Horned lizards (Phrynosoma) also known as horny toads or horntoads, are a genus of USA and Mexico lizards and the type genus of the family phrynosomatidae. The thorn - like horn is situated on its head. 790. Limb girdles are absent in which one of the following amphibians? (a) Urodela (b) Gymnophiona (c) Anura (d) Stegocephalia UPPCS Pre 2007 Ans. (b) : Gymnophiona is the order of class Amphibia, under which limbs and girdle are not found in the animal but scales are found. They are limbless, blind, elongated and worm like. The tail is short or absent. Example– Caecilians and Uraeotyphlus. 791. Which one of the following is correctly matched : (a) Labeo rohita - Perch (b) Hilsa ilisha - Clupeidae (c) Wallago attu - Carp (d) Hypophthalmichthys molitrix - Cat fish UPPCS Pre 2000 Ans. (b) : Hilsa ilisha - clupeidae (common marine food fishes) Labeo rohita – Fresh water fish Wallago attu – Fresh water food fishes Hypophthalmichthys molitrix – Fresh water silver fish. 792. Which one of the following fishes is a living fossil : (a) Narcine (b) Lepidosiren (c) Protopterus (d) Polypterus UPPCS Pre 2000 Ans. (d) : Polypterus is a living fossil part of the missing link between fishes & amphibians. Narcine is a genus of electric rays in the family Narcinidae. It can create an electric shock from 14 to 37 volts. Polypterus is a native genus of fresh water river and lake systems in western and central Africa. They are classified in the family Polypteridae, order Polypteriformes. 793. Which one of the following is a living fossil : (a) Dolphin (b) Whale (c) Sphenodon (d) Archaeopteryx UPPCS Pre 2000 Ans. (c) : The living fossil is Sphenodon. Sphenodon belong to sub class Diapsida and order II Rhynchocephalia. Archaeopteryx is a dead fossil and dolphin and whale are not a fossil. 794. The endostyle of ammocoete larva transforms into : (a) Thymus (b) Adrenal (c) Thyroid (d) Pancreas UPPCS Pre 2000

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 798. Mammal which lays eggs : (a) rabbit (b) macropus (c) duck-billed platypus (d) whale

Ans. (c) : The endostyle of ammocoete larva transforms into thyroid gland. The endostyle is an organ present in lower chordates (urochordates & cephalochordates) as well as in the larva of lampreys. It is regarded as being homologous to the thyroid gland in vertebrates due to its iodine-concentrating activity. 795. Kidney in reptiles is : (a) Pronephric (c) Metanephric

(b) Mesonephric (d) Opisthonephric UPPCS Pre 2000 Ans. (c) : Kidney of reptiles is metanephric. It has nephridia having ciliated funnel or nephrostome opening into coelom are called metanephridia. In reptiles, the metanephric kidneys lie in a more caudal position in the body cavity. Also, they have much larger kidneys with a compact structure containing many tubules.

796. The diagram shows the caudal fin of a fish. This type of caudal fin is called :

(a) hypocercal type (c) homocercal type

(b) heterocercal type (d) isocercal type UPPCS Pre 2000 Ans. (b) : Heterocercal is a type of tail fins. It is found in the shark. Heterocercal is the intermediate type in which the vertebral column is upward and reaches upto the lip of the more prominent dorsal Lobe thus making the caudal fin strongly asymmetrical.

797. Which one of the following lays eggs yet the female secretes milk : (a) Ostrich (b) Kangaroo (c) Platypus (d) Bat UPPCS Pre 2000 Ans. (c) : Platypus lay eggs yet the female secretes milk. Basically they are mammal that lays eggs and produce milk through mammary gland. Platypus are monotremes-a tiny group of mammals. They don't have teats, instead they concentrate milk to their belly and feed their young by sweating it out. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

PGT Biology 2013 Ans. (c) : The platypus, also called as Ornithorhynchus or duck - billed platypus is a semiaquatic egg - laying mammals belonging to monotreme and are endemic to eastern Australia. 799. Which one of the following is not a deuterostome : (a) Starfish (b) Lizard (c) Lamprey (d) Snail UPPCS Pre 2000 Ans. (d) : Deuterostomes are group of animals that have true body cavities, in which the anus develops from the first opening in the embryo and the mouth develops later. All chordates are deuterostomes. Deuterostomes are also known as enterocoelomates because their coelom develops through enterocoely. There are four extant phyla of Deuterostomes chordata, echinodermata, hemichordata and xenoturbellidae. Snail are born with no appendages. They belong to phylum Mollusca. They usually are slow walkers as they lack any legs. Snail is not a deuterostome. 800. Which one of the following animals contains Sphenodontidae : (a) Sphenodon (b) Scolopendra (c) Echinus (d) Peripatus UPPCS Pre 2000 Ans. (a) : Sphenodon are reptiles its belong to order Rhynchocephalia and family Sphenodontidae Kingdom – Animalia Phylum – Chordata Class – Reptilia Order – Rhynchocephalia Family – Sphenodontidae Genus – Sphenodon 801. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists : List - I List- II (Generic names) (Common names) A. Clarias 1. Chital B. Heteropneustes 2. Mangur C. Labeo 3. Rohu D. Notopterus 4. Singhi Codes : A B C D (a) 3 1 4 2 (b) 4 2 3 3 (c) 1 3 2 4 (d) 2 4 3 1 UPPCS Pre 2008

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 806. Apteryx is found in : (a) South Africa (c) New Zealand

Ans. (d) : Correctly Matched List- I List-II (Generic Name) (Common Names) 1. Clarias Mangur 2. Heteropneustes Singhi 3. Labeo Rohu 4. Notopterus Chital 802. Which of the following mammals possesses scales on their tail? (a) Armadillo (b) Pangolin (c) Rat (d) Echidna UPPCS Pre 2008 Ans. (c) : Rat is such a mammal in which scaled tail is found. Tail of rat is covered with overlapping vestigial scales and very few remnant hairs and serves as a balancing organ. Pangolin is the mammal with scales similar to those of fish and reptiles. 803. Which one of the following is not an acraniate? (a) Myxine (b) Herdmania (c) Salpa (d) Amphioxus UPPCS Pre 2008 Ans. (a) : Myxine is a hagfish, those animals in which head and Cranium are absent are called acraniata whereas all those animals in which separate head and cranium are found are called Craniata. The higher chordata come under the craniata. 804. Monotremes are : (a) pouched mammals (c) viviparous fishes

(b) oviparous reptiles (d) oviparous mammals UPPCS Pre 2008 Ans. (d) : Monotremes are oviparous mammals. Monotremes (Prototheria) are mammals that lay eggs (Platypus is an example) instead of giving birth to live young like marsupials and other placental mammals. Marsupials are mammals that carry their young in a pouch. For example Kangaroo and true placental mammals are characterized by the presence of the placenta, which facilitates exchange of nutrients and wastes between the blood of the mother and the fetus. The placental mammals include all living mammals except marsupials and monotremes. The placental mammals include diverse forms as whales, elephants, shrews and armadillos.

805. Centrum in vertebrae of Aves is (a) amphiplatyan (b) heterocoelous (c) opisthocoelous (d) amphicoelous UPPCS Pre 2008, 1997 Ans. (b) : The bird vertebrae are heterocoelous. Since this is necessity for birds to have high flexibility for the lateral or ventral movement of their neck without stretching the nerve cord, for only this reason the centrum in the vertebrae is saddle - shaped. So the birds are having heterocoelous vertebrae which are characterized by saddle shaped ends of the vertebrae. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

(b) India (d) Australia UPPCS Pre 2008 Ans. (c) : Apteryx is commonly called kiwi, it is found in New Zealand. The kiwi is unique and curious bird, it cannot fly, has loose, hair-like feathers, strong legs and no tail. It is the national icon of New Zealand and unofficial national emblem. Cassowary is found in Australia. Ostrich is found in Africa. 807. 'Nilgai' belongs to mammalian order : (a) Cetacea (b) Carnivora (c) Artiodactyla (d) Perissodactyla UPPCS Pre 2008 Ans. (c) : Nilgai belongs to mammalian order Artiodactyla. Nilgai are the largest Asian antelope, there is debate as to the origin of the name - nilgai literally translated, it means blue cow. Carnivorous animals come under carnivora. For example cheetah, dog etc. Horse, donkey (Ass), Zebra come under the order Perissodactyla. 808. Which of the following carps is not native of Indian rivers : (a) Catla catla (b) Cirrhinus mrigala (c) Cyprinus carpio (d) Labeo rohita UPPCS Pre 2003, 2008 Ans. (c) : The common carp or European carp (Cyprinus carpio) is a wide spread fresh water fish in lakes and large rivers in the China. So, Cyprinus carpio is not native of Indian rivers. 809. Loss of competence of larval tissue to the effect of hormone, for metamorphosis is called : (a) Neoteny (b) Paedogenesis (c) Paedomorphosis (d) Gerontomorphosis UPPCS Pre 2003 Ans. (a) : The larval character present in the adult. The effect of hormones for metamorphosis lost. The reproductive organs develop precociously in the larva called paedogenesis or paedomorphosis. Loss of competence of larval tissue to the effect of hormones for metamorphosis is called neoteny. 810. Embryologically speaking, coelom arises from a split in the mesodermal bands, plates or masses in : (a) Most Protostomia (b) Some Chordata (c) Nematoda (d) Platyhelminthes UPPCS Pre 2003 Ans. (a) : Embryologically speaking, coelom arises from a split in the mesodermal band, plates or masses in most protostomia. Coelom formed by splitting of mesodermal mass called as-Schizocoelom. Schizocoelom found in Protostomes. Protostomes includes aschelminthes, annelids arthropoda & mollusca.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 811. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct Ans. (c) : The order Struthioni formes include ostrich. answer from the code given below the list : It is found in Africa not in Australia, New Guinea and East Indies. Presence of a long aftershaft. Absence of List-I (Fish) List-II (Character) any comb-like structure. (a) Mahseer 1. scaleless skin Features of order Struthioniformes(b) Rohu 2. small scales in skin (c) Tengra 3. moderate size scales The birds in this order don't have a keel on their Sternum or breast bone. in skin The keel is the part of the breast bone on a bird where (d) Moh 4. very large scales in the wing muscles are attached. skin The birds in this order have small wings and strong Code : A B C D legs. Most species are good runners. (a) 4 3 2 1 815. Venous heart is founds in : (b) 1 2 3 4 (a) fishes (b) amphibians (c) 4 3 2 1 (c) reptiles (d) mammals (d) 3 4 2 1 UPPCS Pre 2003 UPPCS Pre 2003 PGT Biology 2009 Ans. (c) : The correct match of List–I and List–II is Bihar PGT 2019 as follow. List-I List-II Ans. (a) : Venous heart is found in fishes. The fish heart is called the venous heart because it only A. Mahseer very large scales in skin receives blood from the veins and pumps it for B. Rohu moderate size of scales in skin oxygenation straight to the gills. The circulatory C. Tengra small scales in skin system found in fishes is a closed loop circulatory D. Moh scaleless skin system. A two-chambered heart pumps blood in a single loop throughout the body. 812. Ductus arteriosus is found in the aortic arches of : (a) Fishes (b) Anurans (c) Urodeles (d) Birds UPPCS Pre 2003 Ans. (c) : The ductus arteriosus is a blood vessels that connects two major arteries before birth and normally closes after a baby is born. Ductus arteriosus is found in the aortic arches of Urodeles. Urodeles called tailed amphibia. 813. Which type of jaw suspensorium is found in Chimaera : 816. Which of the following has only one systemic (a) Hyostylic (b) Holostylic arch : (c) Amphistylic (d) Craniostylic (a) Wall lizard (b) Pigeon UPPCS Pre 2003 (c) Salamander (d) Shark UPPCS Pre 2003 Ans. (b) : Holostylic type of jaw found in the chimaera and lung fishes, upper jaw is fused with the Ans. (b) : Systemic arch is a pair of blood vessel in skull part in cranium and the lower jaw is attached the embryos of tetrapods that carries blood from the directly with it. Hyoid arch does not participate in jaw aorta to the trunk and hind limbs. It is derived from suspension and is a typical branchial arch. There is no the fourth aortic arch. Adult amphibians and reptiles columella bone. retain both arches, while birds and mammals only have one. 814. Given : 817. Heterocercal types of tail fin is found in : 1. Presence of a long aftershaft (a) carp (b) shark 2. Absence of any comb-like structure (c) catfish (d) skate 3. Presence of stunted nail on inner toe UPPCS Pre 2003, 1997 4. Found in Australia, New Guinea and EastIndies. Ans. (b) : Heterocercal is a type of tail fins. It is Which of the above features are diagnostic of found in the shark. the order Struthioniformes : Heterocercal is the intermediate type in which the (a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 1 and 4 only vertebral column upwards and reaches upto the lip of the more prominent dorsal lobe thus making the (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only UPPCS Pre 2003 caudal fin strongly asymmetrical. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 818. Which of the following is the correct sequence of descending hierarchical taxa in the classification of pea fowl : (a) Aves-Neornithes-Neognathae-GalliformesPavo (b) Aves-Neornithes-Odontognathae-Galliformes Pavo (c) Aves-Neornithes-Palaeognathae-Passeriformes -Pavo (d) Aves-Neornithes-Neognathae-PasseriformesPavo UPPCS Pre 2003 Ans. (a) : Aves-Neornithes-Neognathae-GalliformesPavo. The correct sequence is as follow Class – Aves Subclass – Neornithes Super order – Neognathae Order – Galliformes Genus – Pavo Species → cristatus 819. Which of the following dinosaurs was the heaviest : (a) Diplodocus (b) Stegosaurus (c) Brontosaurus (d) Ichthyosaurus UPPCS Pre 1997 Ans. (c) : Brontosaurus is heaviest dinosaur about 25m long and 50 tonnes weight. Diplodocus is the longest dinosaur. Diplodocus is a genus of diplodocid sauropod dinosaurs, whose fossils were first discovered in 1877 by S.W. Williston. Stegosaurus is a genus of herbivorous, four-legged, armored dinosaur from the Late Jurassic. 820. Tubercular and capitular heads are parts of the : (a) vertebra (b) ribs (c) radio-ulna (d) tibiofibula UPPCS Pre 1997 Ans. (b) : The uppermost head of the rib called tubercular articulate with facet on transverse process of vertebra while lower head called capitulum. The bony vertebral part of rib is double headed comprising of tubercular (dorsal) and capitular (ventral). 821. The aortic arches lost in Amphibia are : (a) 1st and 2nd (b) 3rd and 4th (c) 2nd, 3rd and 5th (d) 5th and 6th UPPCS Pre 1997 Ans. (a) : 1st and 2nd aortic arch lost in amphibia and 3rd, 4th, 6th present in ambhibia. In amphibians, the aortic arches retain the bilateral symmetry of the six pairs of embryonic aortic arches, the fifth one is observed in adult Cryptobranchus (Urodele). The sixth arch becomes small. It gives rise to the pulmonary artery and continues as the ductus arteriosus to the dorsal stem. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

822. Neoteny is observed in : (a) Ambystoma (b) Alytes (c) Sycon (d) Sacculina UPPCS Pre 1997 Ans. (a) : Ambystoma (Tiger salamander) is found in North America and Mexico. Its larva is called axolotl larva. It shows neoteny or paedogenesis. Retention of larval characters even after sexual maturity is called neoteny. 823. Oikopleura belongs to : (a) Tunicata (b) Cephalochordata (c) Hemichordata (d) Cyclostomata UPPCS Pre 1997 Ans. (a) : Oikopleura is the most widely used larvacean and laboratory model. It has a very short life cycle (4 days at 20°C) only 12 hours are required for embryogenesis. Oikopleura is urochordate belong to the Tunicata in the class Appendicularia. 824. On which side of the female birds ovary develops : (a) left side (b) right side (c) both the sides (d) both the sides but lacks oviducts UPPCS Pre 1997 Ans. (a) : Left side ovary well developed in female bird and right side ovary degenerate. This is a specialization of arboreal life of birds. Ovary is located high in abdominal cavity. Left side ovary is functional and produce only a few eggs at a time. 825. Which one of the following pair is correctly matched : (a) Sphenodon - New Zealand (b) Ostrich- New Zealand (c) Kiwi - Australia (d) Platypus - South America UPPCS Pre 1997 Ans. (a) : Sphenodon called tuatara found in New Zealand. It is living fossil. It is an unique reptile having hidden eye in their anatomy known as parietal eye' or 'third eye'. Kiwi found in New Zealand. 826. In Amphibia scales are present in the skin of : (a) Toad (b) Siren (c) Ichthyophis (d) Proteus UPPCS Pre 1997 Ans. (c) : Ichthyophis has scale on skin which is transversely wrinkled. Ichthyophis is a genus of caecilians found in southeast Asia, the southern Philippines and the western Indo-Australian Archipelago.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 827. Australian lung fish in called : Ans. (b) : Archaeopteryx is connecting link between reptile and bird. It possess avian and Reptilian character. (a) Lepidosiren (b) Lepidosteus It looks like a bird and has bird wings. The teeth and (c) Protopterus (d) Neoceratodus tail, however, are closer to those of reptiles. Since it UPPCS Pre 1997 implies that birds evolved from reptiles. Ans. (d) : There are three living genera of lung fishes. 832. Which one of the following food fishes has Australian lung fishes called Neoceratodus, American preference over others because it lack the lung fishes called Lepidosiren and African lung fishes dreaded "fish bones"? called Protopterus. These fishes respire through lungs (a) Cyprinus carpio and gills both. (b) Hilsa ilisha 828. Indian carp is : (c) Ctenopharyngodon idella (a) Scoliodon (b) Labeo (d) Clupisoma garua (c) Torpedo fish (d) Pristis UPPCS Pre 2004 Bihar PGT 2019 Ans. (c) : Ctenopharyngodon idella preference over other because it lacks the dreaded fish bones. Ans. (b) : Indian carp is a common name for several Ctenopharyngodon idella is a large, herbivorous species of fish and may refer to catla and Rohu (Labeo). freshwater grass carp fish in the family Cyprinidae. It Rohu is a species of fish of the carp family, found in is native to eastern Asia, from northern Vietnam to the rivers in south Asia. It is an omnivore. Rohu is very Amur River on the Siberia-China border. commonly eaten in Bangladesh and the Indian states of 833. Which of the following is non-edible fresh water Bihar, Odisha, West Bengal and Uttar Pradesh. fish? 829. The function of the sebaceous gland in skin of a (a) Cirrhinus mrigala (b) Wallago attu mammal is to : (c) Labeo rohita (d) Tetraodon cutcutia (a) remove waste matter from the skin UPPCS Pre 2004 (b) make skin soft and oily Ans. (d) : Tetraodon cutcutia is non-edible fresh (c) maintain body temperature water fish because it contain a toxic substances. (d) kill any bacteria present on the skin Tetraodon cutcutia is a species of the pufferfish native UPPCS Pre 1997 to southern Asia from India to the Malay Archipelago. This species grows to a length of 15 cm. Ans. (b) : Sebaceous gland are branched alveolar gland open into hair follicle of mammal. They may 834. Retractile claws are found in : open directly into skin surface such as around the (a) Cat and Lion (b) Leopard genital organ. Oily secretion called Sebum make the (c) Hyaena (d) All the above skin soft and oily. UPPCS Pre 2004 830. Fishes do not collide under water because : Ans. (a) : Cat and Lion belong to the same family both has retractile claw. (a) they can see in the dark (b) they have electrochemical sense organs on Retractile claws is a remarkable mechanism for retracting the cat's claws when they are not in use. their snout. (c) they have sensory organs along their lateral The claw is retracted or extended by pivoting the end bone of the toe, which bears the claw, over the tip of lines. the next bone. (d) they have special organs along their sound waves in their cochlea. UPPCS Pre 1997 Ans. (c) : Fish do not collide under water because they have sensory organs along their lateral lines. Fish lateral system is also known as the lateralis system. It is a system of tactile sense organs located in the head and along both sides of the body. It is used to detect movement and vibration in the surrounding water. 831. Archaeopteryx is a connecting link between : (a) reptiles and amphibians (b) reptiles and birds (c) reptiles and mammals (d) birds and mammals UPPCS Pre 1997 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 835. Extra-abdominal testes in most homoeotherm Ans. (a) : Amblyrhynchus is only living marine are because : lizard. It is commonly called Iguana. Heloderma is a poisonous lizard called Gila monster. Amblyrhynchus (a) abdomen is packed with other organs (b) proper spermatogenesis requires temperature is found only on Galapagos islands that have the ability, unique among modern lizards, to live and below the body temperature forage in the sea. (c) spermatogenesis may interfere with renal 838. Vertebrate nails are derivative of : function (a) stratum lucidum (d) light is required for testosterone synthesis (b) stratum germinaturum UPPCS Pre 2004 (c) stratum granulosum Ans. (b) : Proper spermatogenesis requires low (d) stratum corneum temperature therefore most homeotherm has extra abdominal testes. UPPCS Pre 2004, 2005 The scrotum is a pouch-like structure of pigmented Ans. (d) : Vertebrate nails, claw, horns, hoofs, are the skin arising from the lower abdominal wall and derivative of stratum corneum. Eleidin is a protein hanging between the legs. Sperms develop the best found in stratum lucidum. The stratum corneum is the when the temperature of testes is about 2-2.5°C lower outermost layer of the epidermis. It's made up of than the internal body. mostly keratin and lipids. 836. Foramen of Panizza allows mixing of blood 839. "Horned toad" belongs to the class : between : (a) Chordata (b) Reptilia (a) the two aorta (c) Amphibia (d) Anura (b) the two portal systems UPPCS Pre 2001 (c) an aorta and a vein Ans. (b) : Reptiles are characterized by rough skin. (d) the two ventricles They have three chambered heart. They are generally UPPCS Pre 2004 oviparous. Horned toad is a short-horned lizard. This term is used to refer the horned toad, snout which Ans. (a) : The foramen of Panizza is a hole that provides a toadish look. This property is used to place connect the left and right aorta as they leave the heart the lizard in the group of reptiles. of all animals of the order Crocodilia. Foramen of Panizza allows mixing of blood between 840. "Isinglass" is obtained from : (a) Fish (b) Sponges the two aorta. (c) Corals (d) Protozoa UPPCS Pre 2001 Ans. (a) : Isinglass is a gelatinous product obtained from air bladder of certain fish and used for making cement, jelly and for clarification of wine & beer. It can also be cooked into a paste for specialised gluning purposes. 'Isinglass' comes from the word for 'sturgeon bladder' in German and Dutch. 841. 'Glass Snake' is : (a) Poisonous snake (b) Non-poisonous snake (c) Poisonous lizard (d) Non-poisonous lizard UPPCS Pre 2001 Ans. (d) : Glass snake is the commom name for the snake -like legless and non-poisonous lizards of the genus Ophisaurus. The shiny, scaled body is gray or greenish brown, sometimes striped above and white below. It looks like a snake but is actually a lizard. They are so-named because their tails are easily broken. 837. The only living marine lizard is : 842. Bones of birds are : (a) Amblyrhynchus (b) Heloderma (a) Hollow (b) Pneumatic (c) Ophisaurus (d) Eryx (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None UPPCS Pre 2004 UPPCS Pre 2001 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (c) : Pneumatic bones is a characteristic feature of birds. In biology the term pneumatic refers to breathing. Birds have remarkably specialized bones that are pneumatic, because they are full of air sacs that provide a continuous flow of breath throughout their bodies. In short, their lungs are essentially hooked up to their bones. The bones of birds are lighter in weight than most of the animals. Some of the bones are hollow and actually acts as part of the avian respiratory system. These bones, called pneumatic bones, include the skull, humerus, clavicle, keel, pelvic girdle, and lumbar and sacral vertebrae.

Ans. (d) : List - I (a) Axolotl larva (b) Limbless Lizard (c) Poisonous Lizard (d) Largest egg-laying mammals (e) Struthio

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List - II Ambystoma Glass snake Gila Monster Ornithorhynchus

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Ostrich

845. Which of the following is called living fossil : (a) Dodo (b) King crab (c) Tuatara, Dodo and King crab (d) King Crab and Tuatara UPPCS Pre 2001 Ans. (d) : A living fossil is a living species of organism that appears to be similar to a species otherwise known only from fossils, typically with no close living relatives. The coelacanth Latimeria is considered a living fossil, because it is believed to be 843. To which one of the following groups does the the sole remaining member of a taxon otherwise only snake belong ? from fossils, with no close relations alive and to have (a) Amphibia evolved into roughly its current from approximately (b) Reptilia 400 million years ago. King Crab (Limulus) are marine arthropods of the family Limulidae and order (c) Annelida Xiphosura. They live primarily in and around (d) Chondrichthyes bottoms. Because of their origin 450 million years TGT Biology 2004 ago, king crabs are considered living fossils. Ans. (b) : The class Reptilia is the group of animals Tuatara or Sphenodon have been referred to as known as the reptiles. These are a diverse group of living fossils as they retain many basal characteristics animals that are "cold-blooded" and have (or had) from around the time of the squamate scales. They are vertebrates, which puts them in the rhynchocephalian split. same phylum as humans, dogs, cats, fish and many other animals. There are over 6000 species of reptiles. 846. Which of the following has only one lung : (a) aves (b) ophidia The class Reptilia or reptiles, traditionally included a diverse group of animals - turtles, snakes, lizards and (c) lacertilia (d) aquatic mammals Crocodiles, alligators and caimans. Frogs are in class UPPCS Pre 2001 Amphibia. Mammals are in Mammalia and snails are in Ans. (b) : Ophidia has only one lung. Most snakes Mollusca. only have one functioning lung, and do not require the 844. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct exchange of respiratory gases to live. They also answer from the code given below the list : breathe by contracting muscles between their ribs. List-I List-II Snakes do not have a diaphragm. Snakes with a tiny (A) Axolotl Larva 1. Ostrich left lung or missing left lung have an additional internal organ, the trachea, which aids in breathing. (B) Limbless Lizard 2. Gila monster (C) Poisonous lizard 3. Glass Snake 847. Mammary glands are : (D) Largest egg laying 4. Ambystoma (a) Apocrine (b) Holocrine Mammals (c) Eccrine (d) None of the above (E) Struthio 5. Ornithorhynchus UPPCS Pre 1996 Code : Ans. (a) : Mammary gland are apocrine in nature. A B C D E The Secretion accumulated on the apical part of cell. (a) 4 2 3 1 5 Holocrine gland releases a secretion consisting of disintegrated cells and their secretory products into (b) 2 3 5 1 4 the lumen ex.- Sebaceous glands of skin. (c) 5 4 3 1 2 Eccrine glands are small sweat glands that discharge (d) 4 3 2 5 1 an odourless watery fluid onto the surface of the skin. UPPCS Pre 2001 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 848. Jacobson's organ is concerned with : 852. Balanoglossus belongs to the group : (a) Smell (b) Burrowing (a) Platyhelminthes (b) Annelida (c) Touch (d) Vision (c) Cephalochordata (d) Hemichordata UPPCS Pre 1996 UPPCS Pre 1996 Ans. (a) : Jacobson's organ is concerned with smell. Ans. (d) : Balanoglossus belong to the group of It is found in roof of mouth and nasal cavity. In reptile hemichordata. Earthworm and leech belong to the they are well developed in lizard, snake and group Annelida. Amphioxus belong to the group Sphenodon. It is also known as the vomeronasal cephalochordate. organ. They are present in pairs. 853. Match List-I with List-II and select your answer from the code given below : List-I List-II A. Lepidosiren 1. Africa B. Neoceratodus 2. Australia C. Protopterus 3. South America D. Latimeria 4. China Code : A B C D (a) 3 2 1 4 (b) 2 3 1 4 (c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 2 1 3 4 UPPCS Pre 1995 Ans. (a) : The correct match are given below– List-I List-II 849. Jacobson's organ is found in : Lung fishes Native place (a) birds (b) lizards Lepidosiren South America (c) fishes (d) mammals Neoceratodus Australia UPPCS Pre 2007 Protopterus Africa Ans. (b) : See the above of explanation. Latimeria is found in China is living fossil fish. 850. Birds and bats are good fliers, but the bat 854. Electric organs are present in : differs from birds in having a : (a) Raja (b) Anguilla (a) Diaphragm (c) Pristis (d) Astrape (b) Four chambered heart UPPCS Pre 1995 (c) Wings Ans. (d) : Torpedo (Astrape) is the electric ray. Their (d) Small brain UPPCS Pre 1996 electric organs are highly modified masses of muscle cells. Ans. (a) : Diaphragm found in mammal but absent in The electric organs of the Torpedo rays contain about birds. 45 columns of around 700 electrocytes. Electrical dis The diaphragm located below the lungs, is the major charges escape through the dorsal surface of the fish. muscle of respiration. In birds, air is moved in and out of the respiratory 855. Match the list-I with list-II and mark the correct answer from the code given below : system through pressure changes in the air sacs. List-I List-II Muscle in chest causes the sternum to be pushed outward. A. Bat 1. Marsupialia 851. Foramen of Panizza is found in the heart of : B. Horse 2. Sirenia (a) Frog (b) Pigeon C. Kangaroo 3. Chiroptera (c) Crocodile (d) Rabbit D. Seal 4. Perissodactyla UPPCS Pre 1996 Code : A B C D (a) 1 2 3 4 Ans. (c) : Foramen of Panizza a small opening connecting two aorta at their base bring about some (b) 2 3 4 1 mixing of the blood. This is found in the heart of (c) 3 4 1 2 crocodile. This connection operates when the (d) 4 3 2 1 crocodile holds its breath. It allows blood to bypass the lungs. UPPCS Pre 1995 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (c) : Bat Chiroptera, Horse Perissodactyla Kangaroo Marsupialia Seal, Sirenia are order of the animals. 856. Stratum corneum layer is lacking in the skin of: (a) Amphibia (b) Fishes (c) Reptilia (d) Mammalia UPPCS Pre 1995 Ans. (b) : The stratum corneum is the outermost layer of the epidermis and marks the final stage of keratinocyte maturation and development. Stratum corneum absent in fish but present in Ambhibia, Reptile, Bird, Mammals. 857. Which one of the following food fishes is cultivated in U.P. although it is not native of India. (a) Hypophthalmichthys molitrix (b) Clarias batrachus (c) Labeo rohita (d) Channa punctatus UPPCS Pre 2002 Ans. (a) : Hypophthalmichthys molitrix is not native of India but cultivated in U.P. Hypophthalmichthys molitrix is a species of freshwater cyprinid fish. It is a silver carp variety of Asian carp native to China and Eastern Siberia from the Amur River. It has very tiny scales on their body and the head and gill covers are scale-less. 858. Which one of the following mammals does not have a pinnae, nipples, uterus but has an abdominal testis is : (a) Scaly ant eater (b) Spiny ant eater (c) Two eyed anteater (d) Banded ant eater UPPCS Pre 2002 Ans. (b) : Spiny anteater called Tachyglossus does not have pinnae, nipples, uterus but has abdominal testis. It is called 'reptile like mammals'. Prototherians are primitive egg-laying mammal or Prototherian. 859. Which one of the following is an economically important exotic food fish being cultured in India. (a) Major carp (b) Grass carp (c) Minor carp (d) Bighead carp UPPCS Pre 1999 Ans. (a) : Major carp important exotic food fish being culture in India. Indian carp or Indian major carp is a common name for several species of Catla fish, Cirrhinus and Labeo. The major carps are the most preferred form fishes because of their fast growth and higher acceptability to consumers. 860. Which one of the following is not correctly matched: (a) Archaeopteryx - fossil bird (b) Struthio - bird with three toes (c) Hesperornis - toothed bird (d) Aptenodytes - bird with webbed foot UPPCS Pre 1999 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (b) : Struthio is the bird with two toes not three toes. Archaeopteryx is a 'fossil bird', known as connecting link between reptile and birds. 861. The lung fish is known as : (a) Polypterus (b) Protopterus (c) Anabas (d) Anguilla UPPCS Pre 1999 Ans. (b) : Protopterus is the lung fishes found in lake and river of tropical Africa. Anguilla (eel, order Anguilliformes) is more than 800 species of teleost fishes characterized by elongate wormlike bodies. Anabas is a genus of climbing gouramis native to southern and eastern Asia. It grows up to 30 cm long found in freshwater. 862. The nerve cord in chordates is situated : (a) dorsal to notochord (b) ventral to notochord (c) inside of notochord (d) embedded in the integument UPPCS Pre 1999 Ans. (a) : The nerve cord in chordate is situated dorsal to the notochords. The dorsal hollow nerve cord is derived from ectoderm that rolls into a hollow tube during development. 863. A fresh water fish must continuously : (a) acquire water and get rid of salts (b) get rid of both water and salt (c) get rid of water and acquire salt (d) acquire both water and salt UPPCS Pre 1999 Ans. (c) : A fresh water fish must continuously get rid of water and acquire salt. Freshwater fish lives in rivers and lakes where the salinity levels are less than 0.05%. The freshwater species differ physiologically from salt water fish in that their gills are modified to diffuse dissolved gases while retaining the salts present in the body fluids. Freshwater fish have very efficient kidneys that excrete water quickly. 864. Oviparity is found in : (a) whale (b) bat (c) echidna (d) kangaroo UPPCS Pre 1999 Ans. (c) : Primitive egg laying mammals called oviparous mammals e.g. Echidna, Ornithorhynchus. Bat are flying mammals. Whale are aquatic mammals. Echidna is oviparous, even then it is placed in class Mammalia as it possesses the basic mammalian characters like the presence of mammary glands, diaphragm between thorax and abdomen, fourchambered heart, non-nucleated RBCs, etc. However due to its oviparous nature, it has been assigned an infra class prototheria.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 865. Marsupials exhibit : (a) asexuality (c) oviparity

870. Which one of the following lacks a urinary bladder : (b) ovoviviparity (a) Rabbit (b) Frog (d) viviparity (c) Uromastyx (d) Pigeon UPPCS Pre 1999 UPPCS Pre 1998 Ans. (d) : Marsupials exhibit viviparity. Viviparous animals give birth to live young ones. Marsupial Ans. (d) : Birds are uricotelic, excretory product uric mammals are viviparous mammals in which the embryo acid. No need of water in excretion. Urinary bladder is born at very early stage and complete its development absent in birds it is a flight adaptation. outside the mothers body. Marsupials belongs to the (Note- Urinary bladder absent in snake also.) infraclass Metatheria. Examples of living marsupials 871. Hystrixbelongs to which one of the following mammals are bandicoots, kangaroos, koalas etc. orders : 866. Feathers covering the body of chick are : (a) Insectivora (a) down feather (b) filoplumes (b) Carnivora (c) contour feather (d) remiges (c) Rodentia UPPCS Pre 1999 (d) Chiroptera Ans. (c) : Feathers are found only in birds. Feathers UPPCS Pre 1998 are made up of a protein keratin. Ans. (c) : Rodentia is the largest order of mammals of Feather covering the body of chick are called contour feather (Pennae). species. Each jaw with one pair of long rootless chisel–like incisors. Filoplumes called pin feather or hair feather. e.g. Rat, Mouse, Squirrel, Hystrix. Quill feather in the tail are called rectrices. Hystrix–called Porcupines found in Africa and Asia. 867. Furcula bone is present in : 872. Which one of the following statements is not (a) fishes (b) amphibia true about Archaeopteryx : (c) aves (d) reptiles (a) True wings present UPPCS Pre 1999 (b) Resemblance to dinosaurs Ans. (c) : Both clavicles and a single interclavicle fused (c) Body size equal to that of an ostrich to form a V-shaped bones called furcula or wishbone or merry-thought bone. It is found only in aves. (d) Present in Jurassic 868. Reptile with 4 chambered heart is : UPPCS Pre 1998 (a) Python (b) Crocodile Ans. (c) : Archaeopteryx is a connecting link between (c) Chameleon (d) Turtle Reptile and birds. True wings present. UPPCS Pre 1999 Resemblance to dinosaurs from tail. It is present in Jurassic Period. The body size of Ans. (b) : 2 chambered heart is found in fishes. Archaeopteryx Resemblance equal to crow not an 3 chambered heart is found in Amphibian. ostrich. 3½ chambered heart is found in reptile. 873. Assertion (A) ; During bird migration But crocodile has 4 chambered heart. inhospitable oceans and deserts are crossed in Mammals have complete 4 chambered heart. one stretch without food. 869. Code : Reaon (R) : Fuel for flight comes from amino A. Metanephros B. Pronephros acids stored by birds before migration. C. Mesonephros D. Holonephros Select the correct answer from the codes given E. Opisthonephros below : Using the code given above, answer the Code : question: Which is the correct sequence in (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct which kidney structure evolved in the vertebrate explanation of (A). series : (b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the (a) B.E.A. (b) D.C.A. correct explanation of (A). (c) D.B.A. (d) D.E.A. (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false. UPPCS Pre 1998 (d) (A) is false, but (R) is true. Ans. (a) : Pronephros → Opisthonephros → UPPCS Pre 2005 Metanephros is the kidney structure evolved in the Ans. (a) : Both the assertion and the reason are true vertebrate. Pronephros is the earliest nephric stage. and the reason is the correct explanation of the Opisthonephros is formed from the extended assertion. mesonephros. Metanephros is most developed kidney. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 874. Which of the following chordate characters is not shared by non-chordates ? (a) bilateral symmetry (b) pharyngeal gill slits (c) axiate organization (d) metamerism UPPCS Pre 2005 Ans. (b) : Animals that belong to phylum Chordata and characterized by the presence of a notochord, a dorsal hollow nerve cord, and paired pharyngeal gill slits. These characters are known as three fundamental chordate characters. Notochord, pharyngeal gill slits and tail is absent in non-chordate animals. In nonchordates, the central nervous system is ventral, solid and double. 875. Obturator foramen is found in the pelvic girdle of : (a) amphibian (b) reptiles (c) birds (d) mammals UPPCS Pre 2005 Ans. (d) : Foramen - A bigger, round opening example - Foramen magnum in the skull. Obturator foramen is a large oval or irregularly triangular aperture in the hip bone (Pelvic girdle of mammals), the margin of which are formed by the pubis and the ischium.

877. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists: List - I List- II A. Cyprinus 1. Indigenous carp B. Catla 2. Air breathing fish C. Anabas 3. Scaleless fish D. Wallago 4. Exotic carp Codes: A B C D (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 1 2 3 (c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 3 4 1 2 UPPCS Pre 2009 Ans. (b) : Correctly matched – List- I List - II I. Cyprinus – Exotic carp II. Catla – Indigenous carp III. Anabas – Air breathing fish IV. Wallago – Scaleless fish

878. Which one of the following includes homeotherms only : (a) Crocodile, Caiman, Sphenodon (b) Whale, peacock, bat (c) Salamander, Protopterus, lizard (d) Sea horse, dogfish, rabbit UPPCS Pre 1998 Ans. (b) : In animals, body temperature is regulated called homeotherms. Birds are the first vertebrates to have warm blood. Mammals are also homeotherms. Amphibian and reptiles are cold blooded or 876. Match List I with List II and select the correct poikilotherms. answer from the code given below the Lists : 879. Poison glands of Heloderma are modification of List-I List-II (a) supralabial glands (b) pharyngeal glands A. Didelphis 1. Duck-billed platypus (c) sublingual salivary (d) none of the above B. Ornitho rhynchus 2. Koala bear UPPCS Pre 2009 C. Phascolarctos 3. Opossum D. Tachyglossus 4. Spiny ant-eater Ans. (c) : Gila monster - It is the only poisonous lizard. Its poison glands are modified sublingual salivary gland Code : (found in Mexico & USA). A B C D The poison glands of a gila monster are located in the (a) 1 3 4 2 lower jaw. Ducts lead to openings close to the base of (b) 2 4 1 3 grooved teeth in the lower jaw. The opening and closing (c) 3 1 2 4 of the mouth causes the venom to discharge into the (d) 4 2 3 1 saliva, travel along the grooved teeth and into the UPPCS Pre 2005 intended victim. Ans. (c) : Correctly matched– 880. Which of the following animals exhibits List-I List-II neoteny ? (A) Didelphys Opossum (a) Ambystoma alone (B) Ornithorhynchus Duck billed (b) Appendicularia alone platypus (c) Kowalevskia alone (C) Phascolarctos Koala bear (d) All of the above (D) Tachyglossus Spiny ant eater UPPCS Pre 2009 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (a) : Larva of Ambystoma (tiger salamander) is Ans. (d) : Archaeopteryx is not a living fossil in fact it called Axolotl larva. It exhibits the phenomenon of is a connecting link between the birds and the reptiles neoteny or paedogenesis. If the food and water are while king crab, Sphenodon, and Peripatus are the scarce and iodine is lacking in water then the Axolotl living fossils. Archaeopteryx is basically known to be larva leaves water for land and becomes an adult the connecting link between birds and reptiles as it look without metamorphosis. During metamorphosis the gills like a birds and possesses bird wings. and tail fin are lost. In the abundant supply of food and 884. First set of feathers to appear over the young birds are called water containing iodine compounds, the axolotl larva (a) Neossoptiles (b) Mesoptiles does not change into an adult but remains in the larval form and becomes sexually mature to start reproduction. (c) Teleoptiles (d) Lanugo This phenomenon is known as neoteny or paedogenesis. UPPCS Pre 2009 Metamorphosis in axolotl is induced by injecting Ans. (a) : First set of feathers to appear over the young thyroid extract. Axolotl larva is found in the mountain birds are called Neossoptiles. Mesoptiles are small fine regions of Mexico. hair - like feathers whose function is unknown. 881. The Reptilian skull with a single temporal fossa Teleoptiles resemble small soft wool. Lanugo is a between the post orbital, squamosal and jugal special type of feather with soft strength. bones is called 885. Baleen in Baleen whale is present in (a) Euryapsid skull (b) Anapsid skull (a) upper jaw (b) lower jaw (c) eye (d) none of the above (c) Synapsid skull (d) Diapsid skull UPPCS Pre 2009 UPPCS Pre 2009 Ans. (a) : Baleen whale fish have ballen found in upper Ans. (c) : Reptiles are tetrapod animals of class Reptilia. They are a group of air-breathing vertebrates jaw. It works to effectively filter out the faintly visible having internal fertilization and comprise turtles, Plankton which is its main food. crocodiles, alligators, snakes, lizards, etc. Reptiles Baleen is similar to bristles and consists of keratin, the evolved from labyrinthodont amphibians in 60 mya same substance found in human fingernails, skin and after the amphibians arose. The reptiles evolved with hair. Baleen is a skin derivative. some characteristics like stronger and more effective 886. Glass snake is : jaw mechanisms, amniotic egg development, effective (a) Euplectella (b) Hyalonema locomotion on land. Their key features include a well (c) Ophisaurus (d) Ophiocephalus ossified skeleton, ribs with sternum except in snakes, UPPCS Pre 2009 metanephric kidney, ectotherms, separate sexes, eggs covered with calcareous or leathery shells etc. The Ans. (c) : Glass snakes is called Ophisaurus, it is known upper part of the skull in reptiles is modified giving as limbless lizard. Euplectella and Hyalonema belong to Phylum of Porifera. The shiny, scaled body is gray or them a far more efficient and powerful jaw action and greenish brown, sometimes striped above and whitish making the skull light. The reptiles are majorly below. They are so-named because their tails are easily classified based on their skull structure, in which there broken. are temporal fossae or empty spaces in the temporal region. They are classified into five subclasses based on 887. In Hemichordata the coelom is (a) schizocoelous (b) acoelous the temporal fossae, which provides space for (c) enterocoelous (d) haemocoelous enlargement of jaw muscles - Anapsida, Euryapsida, Parapsida, Synapsida and Diapsida. UPPCS Pre 2009 Ans. (c) : Hemichordates are the primitive chordates or 882. Uncinate process is present in : invertebrate chordates. The coelom of hemichordates is (a) rib of mammal (b) rib of frog enterocoelous, usually divided into protocoel, mesocoel (c) rib of bird (d) ulna of mammal and metacoel, corresponding to 3 body regions. UPPCS Pre 2009 Body is divided into three regions-Proboscis, Collar and Ans. (c) : Uncinate process is present in the ribs of Trunk. This is the space between the body wall and the birds. Uncinate processes are short in walking birds, alimentary canal. long in diving species and of intermediate length in 888. Which of the following is not a cultivable major carp? non-specialist birds. These results demonstrate that (a) Catla (b) Rohu difference in the breathing mechanics of birds may be linked to the morphological adaptations of the ribs and (c) Mrigal (d) Mangur rib cage associated with different modes of locomotion. UPPCS Pre 2010 883. Which of the following animals is not a living Ans. (d) : Mangur is not the main carp (major carp) fossil fish, reared in the pond, the fish species mainly eaten in India are Rohu, Catla, Cirrhina mrigala, Wallago and (a) Limulus (b) Sphenodon Notopterus. The major carps are the most preferred (c) Latimeria (d) Archaeopteryx farm fishes because of their fast growth and higher UPPCS Pre 2009 acceptability to consumers. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 889. Which is a scaleless fish? (a) Labeo (b) Catla (c) Anabas (d) Wallago UPPCS Pre 2010 Ans. (d) : Scales are the projection on the surface of the skin of an animal's body and are dermal in origin. Generally all fishes have scales for protection with some exception. Labeo known as the carp fish, is found in clear and sluggish streams and rivers. Wallago attu is a freshwater catfish of the family siluridae, native to south and southeast Asia. It is commonly known as helicopter cat fish or wallago catfish. Cat fish is the fish that has long whiskers and thus, their mouth resembles the mouth of a cat. These fishes do not have scales and instead of scales, thick mucous layer plays the role of protection. 890. Which one of the following food fishes of Uttar Pradesh is without scales. (a) Hypophthalmichthys molitrix (b) Labeo rohita (c) Channa punctatus (d) Wallago attu PGT Biology 2003 Ans. (d) : Wallago attu is a commonly eaten fish in Uttar Pradesh. Labeo rohita also known as Rohu. Tetraodon fish is venomous. 891. Holonephros is found in the : (a) larva of Gymnophiona(b) Juveniles of Anura (c) Iarvae of Teleosts (d) embryos of Lizards UPPCS Pre 2010 Ans. (a) : The holonephros is the kidney of the larvae of Gymnophiona. The entire mass of nephrogenic tissue give rise to this kidney, which is usually of simple form with a single tubule in each segment. Gymnophiona, also called Apoda, is one of the three major extant orders of the class Amphibia. 892. The reptilian skull with a single temporal fossa is called : (a) synapsid skull (b) anapsid skull (c) diapsid skull (d) euryapsid skull UPPCS Pre 2010 Ans. (d) : The reptilian skull with a single temporal fossae is called euryapsid skull. Euryapsida is a polyphyletic (Unnatural, as the various members are not closely related) group of reptiles that are distinguished by a single temporal fenestrae, an opening behind the orbit, under which the post-orbital and squamosal bones articulate. They are different from synapsida, which also have a single opening behind the orbit by the placement of the fenestrae. 893 Monocondylic skull is found in : (a) Amphibia and Reptilia (b) Amphibia and Aves (c) Reptilia and Aves (d) Reptilia & Mammalia UPPCS Pre 2010 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (c) : Monocondylic skull is found in Reptilia and Aves. Monocondylic means a skull having a single condyle on the occipital. The skull of reptiles is an example of this type. Birds have only one occipital (monocondylic) condyle and can thus rotate up to 270 degrees in their heads. – Amphibia has a dicondylic skull. – Reptilia have monocondylic skull. – Aves possess a monocondylic skull. – Mammalia has a dicondylic skull. 894. Parental care by male are found in (a) Hippocampus fish (b) Labeo fish (c) Anabas fish (d) Scoliodon fish TGT Biology 2013 Ans. (a) : (A) Hippocampus, commonly called as a seahorse is a marine fish. (B) Labeo, known as the carp fish is found in clear and sluggish streams and rivers. (C) Anabas, known as the climbing perch is a common freshwater fish. (D) Scoliodon, commonly known as dogfish, is generally found in the bay of Bengal. Paternal care is the taking care of young ones by males. It is found in the Hippocampus. The eggs are laid in the pouch of males, by females. The males take care of the egg until they hatch and young ones come out. So, the correct answer is "Hippocampus fish". 895. Which of these is not a characteristic feature of mammals? (a) Ear ossicles (b) Non nucleated RBC (c) Placenta (d) Diaphragm TGT Biology 2011 Ans. (a) : Mammals have some key characteristic features such as four-chambered hearts, seven cervical vertebrae, muscular diaphragm, mammary gland and the presence of placenta. Thereby ear ossicles is not a characteristic feature of mammals. The most unique mammalian characteristic is the present of milkproducing gland (Mammary gland). Mammals are unique in possessing hair. External ears or pinnae are present. 896. 'Sphenodon' a living fossil belongs to(a) Rhynchocephalia (b) Crocodilia (c) Anapsida (d) Urodela TGT Biology 2011 Ans. (a) : Sphenodon commonly called tuatara is living fossil belongs to order Rhynchocephalia. Crocodiles, alligator etc., are included in this order. These are the largest modern reptiles. Inhabiting the incredible islands of New Zealand. All species of the Sphenodontia members apart from the Tuatara declined and eventually become extinct about 60 million years ago.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 897. 'Tornaria' is the larva of (a) Starfish (b) Balanoglossus (c) Cuttle fish (d) Holothuria TGT Biology 2011 Ans. (b) : Balanoglossus is a hemichordate and its larva is called tornaria. Tornaria larva is planktonic larvae of some hemichordates. Plankton are the organisms that live in large bodies of water and are unable to swim against a current. Hemichordate are a group of wormlike marine invertebrates closely related to chordates and echinoderms and usually constitute a phylum, the Hemichordata. Tornaria is similar in appearance with larvae of starfish. 898. Which of the following is a limbless amphibian? (a) Ichthyophis (b) Hyla (c) Phyllosoma (d) Alytes TGT Biology 2005 Ans. (a) : Ichthyophis (Blind worm) is a limbless amphibian. Dermal scales are embedded in the skin. Male copulates with female by a protrusible cloaca and thus fertilization is internal. The female shows parental care by carefully coiling her body around the egg till they hatch. 899. Which is the connective link of reptiles to birds? (a) Whale (b) Archaeopteryx (c) Platypus (d) Java man TGT Biology 2005 Ans. (b) : The reptiles and the aves belong to the vertebrates. Archaeopteryx is a connecting link between reptiles and birds as it possesses characteristics of both birds and reptiles. Archaeopteryx possessed a long tail, teeth in jaws, long neck with cervical vertebrae, all are reptilian characters, like birds it had wings and beak. It was warm blooded. 900.Which is called as “Reptile-like mammal” ? (a) Scaly ant eater (b) Giant ant eater (c) Spiny ant eater (d) All the above Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (c) : Spiny anteaters is called as reptile - like mammal. Echidnas also called as spiny anteaters belong to the family of Tachyglossidae in the Monotreme order of egg - laying mammals. They are the primitive mammal and live in Australia region due to geographical isolation. 901. Which of the following respires through book lungs and excretes through Coxal glands? (a) Peripatus (b) Daphnia (c) Polistes (d) Lepisma UPPCS Pre 2010 Ans. (a) : Peripatus is the connecting link between Annelida and Arthropoda. In which respiration is done by book lungs and excretion is done by coxal glands. 902. The type of dentition in Crocodile is : (a) Acrodont (b) Bunodont (c) Pleurodont (d) Thecodont TGT Biology 2003 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (d) : There are 3 types of dentition seen depending upon the mode of attachment of teeth. These are acrodont, pleurodont and thecodont. In acrodont teeth are attached to the surface of the underlying jawbone. They have no roots examples include Calotes, Draco, Uromastyx. In pleurodont, the teeth are attached to the inner side of the jawbone. They do not have root examples - include Iguana, Anguidae, Helodermatidae. In thecodont, the teeth are embedded in bony sockets of the jawbone. Examples include Crocodiles, Haddock. So the correct answer is Thecodont. 903. Which fish is viviparous : (a) Hippocampus (b) Scoliodon (c) Labeo (d) Protopterus TGT Biology 2002 Ans. (b) : Viviparous fish give birth to young one, the egg develop, while receiving nutrition from the parent. Scoliodon is the genus of requiem shark. The scoliodon or Spadenose shark exhibits the most advanced mode of viviparity of any fish. 904. The centrum of a typical vertebra of frog is– (a) Acoelous (b) Procoelous (c) Amphicoelous (d) Amphiplatyan TGT Biology 2002 Ans. (b) : Acoelous vertebrae are flat on both the anterior and posterior ends of the centrum (Spool in the middle). An example would be the vertebrae in the human spine. Procoelous vertebrae are anteriorly concave and posteriorly convex. They are found in frogs and modern reptiles. Amphicoelous vertebra has centre with both ends concave. This shape is common in fish, where most motion is limited. Amphicoelous centra often are integrated with a full notochord. Opisthocoelous vertebrae are the opposite, possessing anterior convexity and posterior concavity. They are found in salamanders, and in some non-avian dinosaurs. 905. Monocondylic, membranous, toothless skull is found : (a) Varanus (b) Frog (c) Pigeon (d) Man TGT Biology 1999 Ans. (c) : Monocondylic, membranous, toothless skull is found in pigeon. Monocondylar skull means the skull, which has only one occipital condyle. It is found on the base of occipital bone on the lower back side of the skull. They are kidney shaped convex bone. It is found in reptiles and birds. 906. Smallest feathers in birds are known as : (a) filoplume (b) down feather (c) contour feather (d) Penne PGT Biology 2002, 2013 Ans. (a) : Smallest feathers in birds are known as filoplume. Filoplume feathers are incredibly small. They have a tuft of barbs at the end of the shaft. Unlike other feathers which are attached to muscle for movement, filoplume feathers are attached to nerve endings. These feathers send messages to the brain that give information about the placement of feathers for flight, insulation and preening.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 907. Age of reptiles is known as : Ans. (d) : The Pecten is a comb-like structure of blood vessels belonging to the choroid in the eye of a bird. It (a) Palaeozoic era (b) Carboniferous era is a non-sensory, pigmented, structure that projects into (c) Mesozoic era (d) Archaeozoic era the vitreous humor from the point where the optic nerve PGT Biology 2013 enters the eye ball. It nourishes the retina and controls Ans. (c) : During the mesozoic, or 'middle life' era, life the pH of the vitreous body. High level of enzyme diversified rapidly and giant reptiles, dinosaurs and alkaline phosphatase activity in pecten oculi, has been other monstrous beasts roamed the earth. The period, linked to the transport of nutrient molecules from which spans from about 252 million years ago to about highly vascularized pecten oculi into vitreous and then 66 million years ago, was also known as the age of into retinal cell for nourishment. reptiles. 908. Cleidoic eggs are characteristic of ? (a) Mammals (b) Reptiles and Birds (c) Insects (d) Fishes TGT Biology 2003 Ans. (b) : Cleidoic eggs are those eggs, which have a protective shell, and are laid out of water. The shell is porous to air and may be flexible or calcareous (hard). The eggs contain all the food the embryo needs to develop into a hatching. The significance of the cleidoic egg is that it enables reproduction out of, and often away from water. The eggs of insects and birds, which is Pecten in Birds enclosed in a protective shell limiting the exchange of water, gases etc. These types of egg are found in 911. Mammary glands without teats are found in : reptiles, birds and insects. (a) Metatheria (b) Prototheria (c) Theria (d) Eutheria PGT Biology 2013 Ans. (b) : Modern mammals are classified in three subclasses. Holotheria includes the egg laying mammals or monotremes. Metatheria includes the marsupials, or pouched mammals and Eutheria includes the Placental mammals. The monotremes are the only living order of subclass Holotheria. These animals live in the Australian region. The female lay eggs. When the young hatch, they lap up milk secreted by their mother's mammary glands. Unlike other mammals, monotremes do not have nipples e.g. prototheria. 912. Scientific name of gharial is : 909. Endocrine gland absent in elasmobranchi : (a) Naja bungarus (a) thyroid (b) Hemidactylus flaviviridis (b) thymus and parathyroid (c) Gavialis gangeticus (c) pituitary (d) Rhacophorus maculatus (d) Islets' of Langerhans PGT Biology 2013 PGT Biology 2013 Ans. (c) : Gharial is the fish eating Crocodile, native to Ans. (b) : Endocrine glands absent in Elasmobranchii the northern part of the Indian subcontinent. It's are thymus and parathyroid. Elasmobranchii is a scientific name is Gavialis gangeticus. subclass of Chondrichthyes or cartilaginous fish, 913. ‘Wish bone’ is the characteristic feature of : including sharks, rays, skates and sawfish. The (a) Amniotes (b) Anamniotes endocrine glands in fishes are pituitary gland, interrenal (c) Reptiles (d) Flying birds tissue, chromaffin tissue, corpuscles of stannius, islets of langerhans, ultimobranchial glands, thyroid gland, PGT Biology 2011 pineal gland, gastro-intestinal glands and urophysis. Ans. (d) : 'Wish bone' is the characteristic feature of flying birds. The furcula also known as wishbone is a 910. Pecten is found in the eye of : forked bone found in the birds. It is V-shaped. It is also (a) fishes (b) frogs found in some other animals and is formed by the fusion (c) snakes (d) birds of the two clavicles and single interclavicle. In birds its UPPCS Pre 2009 main function is in the strengthening of the thoracic PGT Biology 2013 skeleton to withstand the rigors of flight. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 914. Fossil of Archaeopteryx was discovered by : (a) H. Spencer (b) E. Haeckel (c) Andreas Wagner (d) V. Kurein PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (c) : Fossil of Archaeopteryx was discovered by Andreas Wagner and the first fossil of Archaeopteryx (a feather) was discovered in Bavaria, Germany in 1860. It was named by Hermann von Meyer (German Paleontologist) in 1861. Archaeopteryx is considered as the connecting link between reptiles and birds. These were evidently in existence 150 million years ago, In the late Jurassic Period. 915. ‘Ampulla of Lorenzini’ in some fishes is : (a) Tangoreceptor (b) Chemoreceptor (c) Thermoreceptor (d) A sex organ PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (c) : Ampulla of Lorenzini is thermoreceptor in chondrichthyes or elasmobranchs fishes. Ex- Scoliodon - dog fish or common Indian shark. Carcharodon - Great white shark 916. Which of the following is not a lung fish? (a) Neoceratodus (b) Sardinella (c) Protopterus (d) Lepido siren PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (b) : Sardinella is not a lung fish. Sardinella is a genus of fish in the family clupeidae found in the Atlantic, Indian and Pacific Ocean. Protopterus is an African lung fish. Protopterus is the sole genus in the family protopteridae. Neoceratodus is an Australian lungfish which has the unique ability to breathe air using a single lung when during dry periods streams become stagnant, or when water quality changes. Lepidosiren is South American lung fish which is the single species of lungfish found in swamps and slowmoving water of the Amazon, Paraguay and lower Parana river basins of South America. 917. Ganoid scales are present in : (a) Labeo (b) Anguilla (c) Amia (d) Lepidosteus PGT Biology 2010 Ans. (d) : The ganoid scales are best developed in the chondrosteans (Polypterus, Acipenser) and holosteans (Lepidosteus) so that these are often called ganoid fishes. In Acipenser, they are in the form of large, isolated, bony scutes and are present in five longitudinal rows at places where there is greater wear and tear. Ganoid scales are usually rhomboid in shape and have articulating peg and socket joints between them. 918. Number of cervical vertebrae in giraffe is : (a) 17 (b) 7 (c) 27 (d) 37 PGT Biology 2010 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (b) : Although giraffes have extremely long necks, they only have seven cervical vertebrae, which is the same number found in humans, however each one can be over ten inches (25.4 centimeters) long. Giraffe cervical vertebrae are bound together with ball and socket joints. Also, the joint between its neck and skull permits the giraffe to extend its head almost completely perpendicular to the ground. 919. Animal which can move upper jaw is : (a) Elephant (b) Crocodile (c) Clarius (d) Frog PGT Biology 2010 Ans. (b) : The crocodile is a four-footed beast and its skin is very hard. It is armed with cruel teeth and claws. It is the only animal that can move the upper part of its jaw while keeping the lower part still. It is the reptile with 4-chambered heart. Thus, the correct answer is option B. 920. Catadromous migration refers to movement of fishes from : (a) Fresh water to fresh water (b) fresh water to salt water (c) salt water to salt water (d) salt water to fresh water PGT Biology 2009 Ans. (b) : Most species of the fishes are cold-blooded which means that the body temperature of fishes varies with the changing ambient temperature. Fishes are found abundantly in water bodies. Many species of fishes migrate long distance for the purpose of spawn. Spawn is nothing but the release of eggs and sperm of aquatic animals in water bodies. In order to understand the movement of migration of fishes into different groups known as anadromous, catadromous, amphidromous and oceanodromous. The fishes that are born in the saltwater and migrate as a juvenile to the freshwater for the Purpose of growth are called catadromous fishes. Catadromous fishes spawn in the saltwater. Some of the examples of catadromous fishes are American eel, Inanga, European eel and longfin eel. 921. Placenta is found in : (a) Prototheria (b) Reptiles (c) Aves (d) Eutheria PGT Biology 2009 Ans. (d) : The eutherian or 'placental' mammals like humans, make up the vast majority of today's mammalian diversity. Eutherians all have a chorioallantoic placenta, a remarkable organ that forms after conception at the site where the embryo makes contact with the lining of the mother's uterus. 922. Which of these fishes is not fit for eating ? (a) Wallago (b) Notopterus (c) Tetraodon (d) Labeo PGT Biology 2005 Ans. (c) : Tetraodon fish contains a powerful alkaloid poison called tetrodotoxin, so this fish is not suitable for eating. It is colorful, ornamental fish that adorns the aquarium and is found in the rivers of Bangladesh, India Myanmar and Sri Lanka.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 923. Monocondylic skull is found in: (a) Rana tigrina (b) Calotes (c) Oryctolagus (d) Elephas PGT Biology 2004 Ans. (b) : Monocondylic skull means the skull, which has only one occipital condyle. It is found on the base of occipital bone of the lower back side of the skull. Monocondylic skull is found in Calotes. This type of skull is common in birds and reptile. Mammals have dicondylic skull. 924. Excretion in the form of uric acid and urates in birds is helpful in: (a) conserving body heat (b) conserving body water (c) removing excess water (d) eliminating body water PGT Biology 2004 Ans. (b) : Most birds, with the exception of ostriches and rheas, lack a urinary bladder. Birds excrete urate instead of the toxic urea as mammals do. Urea (which is very toxic), is flushed from the body with a great amount of water. Urate (non toxic) a waste product from nitrogenous metabolism is largely insoluble, and uses very little water to excrete. This is an adaptation for water conservation in drier climates. 925. Syrinx is characteristic of birds but not found in one of the following birds : (a) Columba (b) Eudynamys (c) Psittacula (d) Struthio PGT Biology 2004 Ans. (d) : Flightless birds are usually large birds Struthio (Ostrich) adapted for walking and running. Syrinx is not found in struthio. Syrinx is the sound organ found in some birds. It is well developed in the song birds. 926. One of the following characters suggests reptilian affinity of Prototheria : (a) Dicondylic skull (b) Three ear ossicles in middle ear (c) Presence of cloaca (d) Four-chambered heart PGT Biology 2004 Ans. (c) : Prototheria consists of egg laying animals. Metatherians are characterized by the presence of an abdominal pouch to carry their under developed young ones for some time after birth. There are some resemblances between the prototherians and metatherians, these are- presence of cloaca, presence of epipubic bone attached to pubis, absence of true allantoic placenta and tympanic bulla. Near absence of corpus callosum is also seen in both these groups. 927. Which one of the following is an egg laying mammal : (a) Mongoose (b) Platypus (c) Whale (d) Mole UPPCS Pre 1998, TGT Biology 2010 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (b) : Prototherians are primitive egg laying mammals Confined to Australian region. e.g. Echidna (Tachyglossus), Duck billed platypus (Ornithorhynchus) 928. The fishes, which spend a major part of their lives in freshwater but migrate to saltwater for spawning, are called: (a) Potamodromus (b) Catadromous (c) Anadromous (d) Amphidromous PGT Biology 2004 Ans. (b) : A fish which born in fresh water and spends most of its life in the sea but again returns to fresh water to spawn, such type of migration is called as anadromous. e.g., salmon, smelt, shad etc. A catadromous fish lives in fresh water and enters the salt water to spawn. Most of the eels are catadromous. 929. Coelom formation in chordates is: (a) Schizocoelic (b) Enterocoelic (c) Primarily schizocoelic but secondarily enterocoelic (d) Primarily enterocoelic but secondarily schizocoelic PGT Biology 2004 Ans. (d) : Coelom formation in chordates is primarily enterocoelic but secondarily schizocoelic. – Enterocoelom – It is present in the deuterostome – Schizocoelom – It is present in the protostomes. The body cavity or coelom originates from the splitting of the mesoderm. 930. Floating ribs are present in : (a) Fishes (b) Mammals (c) Birds (d) Amphibia PGT Biology 2003 UPPCS Pre 2008 Ans. (b) : Floating ribs are present in mammals. All the sternal parts of the thoracic ribs except the last five attached to the sternum below by the hyaline cartilage. Therefore, they are called as true ribs. Actually last two pairs of ribs (11th and 12th pair) provided with the sternal parts and they are not connected with the sternum and hence known as floating ribs. Floating ribs protect the kidney.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 931. Bones of birds are : (a) Hollow (c) both (a) and (b)

Ans. (d) : Foramen magnum positioned towards the base of the skull is found not only in humans, but in (b) Pneumatic other habitually bipedal mammals as well. (d) None In animals (Mammalian) the side of the brain Skeleton PGT Biology 2003 (Cranial Skeleton) is opened by a stomata in the Ans. (c) : Pneumatic bones is a hollow bone filled with middle. The hollow part is surrounded by on all sides air, connected to the respiratory system. Many of a by the posterior supracarotid tubercle, the basal carotid bird's bones are pneumatic, with struts across their tubercle and the outer carotid tubercle. hollow interiors to provide a combination of light 934. In mammals, Coronoid process is a part of the : weight and strength as an adaptation to flying. For (a) Axis vertebra (b) Atlas vertebra flight to occur in Aves, four physical forces (thrust and (c) Pelvic girdle(d) Lower jaw drag, lift and weight) must work together in order for PGT Biology 2002 birds to balance these forces, certain physical characteristics are required. Flying birds have evolved Ans. (d) : In mammals, coronoid process is a part of reduced weight. Teeth have been replaced by a light the lower jaw. The single bone that makes the lower weight bill made of keratin, and chewing occurs in the jaw in mammals is called as dentary. The dentary also usually has an enlarged area at its posterior end, the bird's gizzard. coronoid process and helps in chewing. 932. Hensen’s node is formed during the gastrulation 935. Peripatus resembles an arthropods in having. of: (a) Segmented metanephridia (a) Amphibians (b) Paired appendages (b) Amphibian and Reptiles (c) ciliated reproductive duct (c) Birds (d) Dorsal stented heart (d) Reptiles, Birds and Mammals PGT Biology 2002 PGT Biology 2002 Ans. (d) : Peripatus is the link between Annelida and Ans. (c) : Hensen's node is formed during the Arthropoda Phylum i.e. Peripatus possesses the gastrulation of birds. A node or primitive knot, is an properties of both. Properties of Arthropoda which are enlarged group of cells located in the anterior portion of found in Peripatus. the primitive streak in a developing gastrula. The node (1) Dorsal stented heart (2) Respiratory trachea (3) is the site where gastrulation, the formation of the three Haemocel body cavity (4) Antennae 936. The group of cold-blooded animals having germ layers, first begins. incomplete four-chambered heart are: (a) Amphibia (b) Aves (c) Mammalia (d) Reptilia Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2015 Ans. (d) : Characteristics of class Reptilia. (1) The skin has a few cutaneous glands and high levels of keratin, which prevents water loss through the skin. (2) The scales and scutes are formed from the epidermis and are also made of keratin to protect the body. (3) This animals breath with well developed lungs, right from birth most of them have two lungs, except some snakes. (4) All reptiles have three - chambered hearts, except crocodiles which have four chambered hearts (2 atria, 2 ventricles), like mammals and birds. (5) These amniotic eggs can survive without water, as they have protective shells and membranes that allow oxygen and other gases to enter. 937. Pipa is a : (a) salamander (b) toad 933. In mammals foramen magnum is bounded by : (c) frog (d) snake (a) Exoccipital bones only Delhi SSB PGT Biology 2015 (b) Basioccipital bones only Ans. (c) : Pipa is a frog which is called Surinam toad or (c) Supraoccipital bones only star fingered toad which is a member of pipidae family (d) Exoccipital, Basioccipital and Supraoccipital of frogs. It is mainly found in places like Bolivia, bones. Brazil, Colombia, Guyana, Peru etc. It has a flat, PGT Biology 2002 squarish body, small eyes and a flat head with loose UPPCS Pre 1996 flaps of skin on the snout and jaws. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 938. The foot of bird has : (a) three toes (b) five toes (c) four toes (d) one toe Delhi SSB PGT Biology 2015 Ans. (c) : Depending on the bird species the toes of a bird will get modified for walking, running, swimming, climbing and food gathering. Bird feet are adapted to each species needs, whether designed to grasp (a) walk and wade (b) or swim (c), while humans have five toes on each foot, most birds have four toes. 939. Which of the following animals never drink water ? (a) Kangaroo (b) Bat (c) Kangaroo rat (d) Monkey Delhi SSB PGT Biology 2015 Ans. (c) : The Kangaroo rat is almost perfectly adapted to life in the desert. They can survive without ever drinking any water, getting needed moisture from their seed diet. Its kidneys generate super-concentrated urine and it does not pant or sweat. 940. Bone marrow is absent in : (a) Reptilia (b) Fishes (c) Amphibia (d) Birds Delhi SSB PGT Biology 2015 PGT Biology 2013 Ans. (d) : Aves is class of Phylum Chordata. It includes birds. Birds are feathered bipeds, truly flying vertebrates. Most of them can fly except flightless birds (e.g. ostrich). Bone marrow is absent in aves. Their endoskeleton is fully ossified (bony) and the long bones are hollow with air cavities. Such bones are known as pneumatic bones. It is adaptation for aerial life of birds. It helps them in flying. 941. Which of the following is a function of air bladder? (a) Respiration (b) Sound production (c) Buoyant float (d) All of the above Jharkhand Daite PGT Biology 2014 Ans. (d) : The swim bladder is a gas filled organ in the dorsal coelomic cavity in the bony fish. Its primary function is maintaining buoyancy, but it is also involved in respiration, sound production, and possibly perception of pressure fluctuations (including sound). 942. Which of the following structure of a fish is homologous with lung of frog ? (a) Gill pouch (b) Swim bladder (c) Stomach (d) Book lung Jharkhand Daite PGT Biology 2014 Ans. (b) : The structure of a fish that is homologous with the lung of a frog is the swim bladder. The swim bladder is an important organ that is required to maintain the buoyancy of any organism under water. The buoyancy is the upward force or the thrust that is given to the organism by the water onto which it is floating, the swim bladder is filled with gas that helps the organism floating. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

943. Heterocoelous centrum is a characteristic feature of (a) Amphibian (b) Reptilians (c) Birds (d) Mammalian GIC Biology 15.09.2015 Ans. (c) : Heterocoelous vertebrae are characteristic of birds neck. The centrum is saddle shaped. It permits extensive lateral and vertical flexion motion without stretching the nerve cord too extensively or wringing it about its long axis providing high flexibility to the neck movement. 944. Parotid glands are present in which group of the following animals ? (a) Lizards (b) Toads (c) Cockroaches (d) Frogs GIC Biology 15.09.2015 Ans. (b) : Parotid glands are small glandular structures which are present externally behind the eyes of a toad. They contain poisonous substances, such as bufotoxin which is a neurotoxin. This is alkaloid in nature. Bufo is the scientific term used for the common toad found in Europe. It's a large animal with short legs and rough skin. 945. Which one of the following fishes holds lowest oxygen retention capacity? (a) Ice fishes (b) Tuna (c) Mackerel (d) Hilsa GIC Biology 15.09.2015 Ans. (d) : Ice fish has more blood volume than other fish. It receives 30-40% oxygen, directly from the atmosphere. Hilsa is an important fish found in Bangladesh. This fish is considered very good in taste. But due to the lack of 'Air sac' in this fish, the oxygen holding capacity is low. There-fore when Hilsa is taken out of the water, she dies immediately. 946. Consider the following statements about the fish Periophthalmus. 1. It drowns, if submerged in water. 2. It can walk with its pectoral fins. 3. It is an elasmobranch fish. 4. It chases its prey and catches them with its teeth. Of these statements: (a) Only 1 and 2 are correct. (b) Only 2 and 3 are correct. (c) Only 1, 2 and 4 are correct (d) Only 3 and 4 are correct. GIC Biology 14.06.2015 Ans. (b) : Periophthalmus fish is a type of amphibian fish, that is a fish that can live out of water for a long time in wet sand and is also able to walk to some extent. – It uses its fin to walk. – It is an elasmobranch fish.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 947. Renal portal system is absent in : (a) In Amphibians (b) In Reptiles (c) In aves (d) In Mammals GIC Biology 14.06.2015 Ans. (d) : The renal portal system is derived from the posterior cardinal veins found in fishes, amphibians, and reptiles. It is absent in hagfish, lampreys, and mammals. Blood from the posterior part of the body flows into the renal portal veins, which pass into the caudal vena cava. 948. Bat is related to which class? (a) Amphibia (b) Reptilia (c) Aves (d) Mammalia GIC Biology 14.06.2015 Ans. (d) : Bat, rat and cat belong to class mammalia as they possess mammary glands, placenta, skin with hairs, four chambered heart, warm blooded and notochord at some stage. Bats are mammals as they give birth to their young ones instead of laying eggs as in birds, also they have mammary glands to nourish young ones and have hairs.

Ans. (d) : Mammals that lay eggs are called monotremes. There are only two kinds of egg - laying mammals which includes duck - billed platypus and Echidna or spiny - anteater. They are both found in Australia. They are having sharp spines that cover their body, like other mammals they have three middle earbones, single bone with lower jaw, high metabolic rate and they also produce milk to nourish their babies. Monotremes egg generally hatch between 10-15 days. Duck-billed platypus are venomous in nature. They have spur which transfer venom that is capable of causing severe pain in the human body. They have a very characteristic feature that they sense prey through electrolocation which means through electrical signals.

952. Haversian system is found in bones of : (a) Frogs (b) Reptiles (c) Birds (d) Mammals PGT Biology 2010 Ans. (d) : The haversian system is present in mammals. It is one of the diagnostic feature of mammalian bones. These are microscopic tubes situated in the outermost region of bones. This region is known as compact bone 949. Fresh water fishes face the danger of : or cortical bone. Blood vessels and nerves travel (a) hydration through this region. The channels of the haversian system are made of layers known as lamellae, (b) dehydration throughout the bones, haversian canals surround both (c) increased water pressure blood vessels and nerves and helps in the (d) decreased glucose level communication with the bone cell. Therefore the correct GIC Biology 14.06.2015 option is mammals. Ans. (a) : Freshwater fishes face the danger of hydration. In the case of freshwater fish, their blood and bodily fluids are much saltier than the water they swim in, so water will flow in through their gills. In other words the body fluids of freshwater fishes are hypertonic to the water. Water therefore flows into the body by osmosis. 950. What is true about Archaeopteryx? (a) Connecting link between reptiles and mammals (b) Fossils of coenozoic era (c) Flying dinosaur (d) Connecting link between reptiles and birds Rajasthan PSC 2013, PGT Biology 2013 953. The skull of frog and rabbit are : (a) Dicondylic (b) Monocondylic Ans. (d) : Archaeopteryx is connecting link between reptiles and birds because it has a bird wings. The teeth (c) Tricondylic (d) Tetracondylic and tail, however, are closer to those of reptiles. Since it Jharkhand Daite PGT Biology 2014 implies that birds evolved from reptiles. Therefore Ans. (a) : Dicondylic skull means two occipital Archaeopteryx links reptiles and birds. condyles. Skull of frogs, rabbits, humans and other 951. A mammal which lays eggs is : mammals are dicondylic. Reptilia and Aves - have monocondylic skull. (a) Rabbit (b) Whale 954. Balanoglossus is commonly known as : (c) Macropus (a) Earthworm (b) Tapeworm (d) Duck-billed platypus (c) Corn worm (d) Tongue worm PGT Biology 2010 TGT Biology 2009 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (d) : Balanoglossus is commonly known as tongue worm. They (Tongue worm Balanoglossus) come under the Phylum Hemichordata. The body of Balanoglossus is divided into three distinct parts that are respectively proboscis, collar, and trunk. Being a Hemichordate, it's an "evolutionary link" between invertebrates and vertebrates. 955. Which animal is egg laying mammal? (a) Didelphis (b) Macropus (c) Pteropus (d) Tachyglossus TGT Biology 2009 Ans. (d) : Tachyglossus is also known as short beak Echidna and belongs to the class Monotremes – Monotremes are egg - laying mammals. Pangolin, Bat and Porcupine are all placental mammals. So the correct answer is "Tachyglossus". 956. An oil producing gland on the tail of some birds is known as (a) Preen gland (b) Mucus gland (c) Green gland (d) Sebaceous gland TGT Biology 2009 Ans. (a) : Preen gland which is also known as upropygial and oil gland is a bilobed sebaceous gland possessed by the majority of birds. It is located dorsally at the base of the tail. The preen oil help to maintain the integrity of the feather structure. In waterbirds, the oil maintains the flexibility of feathers and keeps feathers barbules from breaking. 957. Neoteny is observed in : (a) Ambystoma (b) Alytes (c) Sycon (d) Sacculina TGT Biology 2009 Ans. (a) : Neoteny is observed in Ambystoma. Neoteny is the sexual maturity at the larval state. Axolotl is immature form of Mexican salamander or Ambystoma or a mexican walking fish and is a neotenic endangered species and endemic in Mexico. 958. Excretion in urochordates is occurred through: (a) by nephrocytes (b) by neural glands (c) by glomerulus (d) by neural gland, pyloric glands and nephrocytes PGT Biology 2013 Ans. (d) : Excretion in urochordates is occurred through by neural gland, pyloric glands and nephrocytes. The urochordates or tunicates are a remarkable group of organisms and typically very beautiful and photogenic. All are marine. They comprise three classes, the ascidians or sea squirts the larvaceans and the thaliaceans. The body is enclosed in a more - or - less translucent tunic. No special excretory organs appear to be present. Nitogenous waste is excreted as ammonia which can easily be carried away in the exhalant flow of water and by diffusion from the general body surface. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

959. Reproduction in Hemichordates is mainly : (a) asexual (b) budding (c) sexual (d) regeneration PGT Biology 2013 Ans. (c) : Reproduction in Hemichordates is mainly sexual. Its structure is like a tube with bilaterally symmetrical body. Their body is divided into three parts : sucker, collar and trunk. It mainly consists of sexual reproduction example - Balanoglossus, saccoglossus. 960. Retrogressive metamorphosis is found in: (a) Amphibia (b) Urochordata (c) Arthropoda (d) Hemichordata Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (b) : Retrogressive metamorphosis is a type of metamorphosis seen in Herdmania (and other Urochordates). It involves transformation of larva and active, free swimming larva with advanced characters into sedentary and simple adult. So, in retrogressive metamorphosis, retrogression, or degeneration is shown by larva to form adult. 961. The dental formula of dog is : (a) i3/3, c1/1, p3/2, m 2/3 (b) i3/3, c1/1, p4/4, m3/3 (c) i3/3, c1/1, p3/2, m3/2 (d) i3/3, c1/1, p4/4, m2/3 UPPCS Pre 2003 Ans. (d) : Dental formula =

The half teeth of the upper jaw × 2 The half teeth of the lower jaw × 2

3 1 4 2 10 × 2 = i , c ,p , m = 3 1 4 3 11× 2 =

20 = 20 + 22 = 42 22

where i = incisors, c = canine, p = premolars, m = molars 962. The dental formula of cow is (a)

0.0.3.3 3.1.3.3

(b)

1.0.0.3 0.0.0.3

(c)

1.0.0.3 1.0.0.3

(d) none of the above UPPCS Pre 2010

Ans. (a) : The dental formula of cow =

0033 × 2 = 32 3133

1 0 3 3 Dental formula of elephant– I C PM M 0 0 3 3 1 0 0 3 Dental formula of rat– I C PM M 1 0 0 3

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 963. Dental formula of elephant is :

Ans. (b) The flow of blood in the chordates occurs backwards (posteriorly) in the dorsal blood vessels. 1033 1003 (a) (b) * Blood in vertebrates always flow from the heart in the 0033 1003 close vessels. The flow of blood by blood vessels is 1023 2033 called closed blood vascular system. (d) (c) 1013 1033 * In the Chordata blood flow from front to back in the TGT Biology 2013 dorsal vessel and back to front in the major ventral vessels. The vein carrying blood from the alimentary Ans. (a) : The dental formula of an adult elephant is as canal in the Chordata goes to the liver and not to the follows – heart and thus form a hepatic portal system. Incisor (I) 1/0 967. Match list-I with List-II (types of heart) and Canine (C) 0/0 select the correct answer by using the Pre molar (PM) 3/3 appropriate code given below : Molar (M) 3/3 List-I List-II A. Fishes 1. Branchial heart 1033 i.e. dental configuration = B. Amphibians 2. Transitional Heart 0033 C. Reptiles 3. Double heart 2033 dental configuration of rabbit = D. Birds 1023 E. Mammals 2123 dental configuration of human = Code : A B C D E 2123 (a) 1 1 2 2 3 3142 (b) 1 2 2 3 3 dental configuration of dog = 3143 (c) 1 2 1 3 2 964. The tusks of male elephants are : (d) 1 2 3 1 2 (a) molars (b) lower incisors UPPCS Pre 2006 (c) upper incisors (d) incisors Ans. (b) : The correct matches of List I and List IInd. TGT Biology 2004 List-I List II Ans: (c) Male elephant has upper incisors teeth. A. Fishes 1. Branchial Heart B. Amphibians 2. Transitional Heart 1033 Dental formula of elephant = C. Reptiles 2. Transitional Heart 0033 D. Birds 3. Double Heart Elephant upper incisors grow longer and are called E. Mammals 3. Double Heart tusks, which can serve as weapons for defense and as tools for moving objects and digging. 965. Heart beat in the vertebrates (a) Neurogenic (b) Myogenic (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these PGT Biology 2009 TGT Biology 2013 Ans. (b) : In vertebrates, the heart beat is produced by the muscles and is generated by the pacemaker (SANode). Myogenic heart is found in vertebrates, tunicates and some mollusca, in which the heart beat is performed by specialized type of muscle cell. Neurogenic heart is abundantly found in insects etc.

A.

Herdmania

968. Of the following which animal exhibits retrogressive metamorphosis? (a) Amphioxus (b) Herdmania (c) Balanoglossus (d) Doliolum TGT (2016) 31/07/2021 Ans. (b) : Retrogressive metamorphosis occurs in Urochordates (e.g., Herdmania, Ascidia, etc.), In which better developed (advanced) larva changes to less developed (Primitive) adult. In Urochordata, the 966. Which statement is true ? notochord is present only in the larval tail. Tail and (a) In chordates, blood flows anteriorly in Dorsal nervous system are reduced in adult because the adult is Blood Vessels sedentary. Balanoglossus is a hemichordate animal. (b) In chordates, blood flows posteriorly in 969. At regular intervals the heart beat is reversed Dorsal Blood Vessels in : (c) In invertebrates, blood flows posteriorly in (a) Herdmania (b) Amphioxus Dorsal Blood Vessels (c) Scoliodon (d) Uromastyx (d) None of the above UP PGT 17/08/2021 UP PGT 2016 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (a) : At regular intervals the heart beat is reversed in Herdmania. In Herdmania there is no valve in the heart and the flow of blood is maintained by peristaltic waves. The heart of Herdmania is unique for changing the direction of flow of blood through it by reverse peristalsis at regular intervals. The arteries and veins change their roles when reversal of flow of blood occurs periodically. 970. The excretory organ of Herdmania is : (a) Green gland (b) Coxal gland (c) Neural gland (d) Organ of Bojanus TGT 07/08/2021 Ans. (c) : A neural gland (Supra neural gland) is present in the brain in Herdmania. It is brown in colour. It is present in the mantle. It is 4 mm in diameter. It shows 973. Consider the following Statements : branching tubules. Assertion (A) : In certain respects retrogressive Green glands–Excretory organs of crustaceans. metamorphosis of Herdmania resembles progressive metamorphosis of frog. Coxal glands–Excretory organs present in some arthropods. Reason (R) : In both cases tail disappears, gut Organ of Bojanus – Excretory organs in some Molluscs. undergoes changes and gonads appear. Select the correct answer using the codes given 971. Which of the following statement is not correct below: with reference of Herdmania and Amphioxus ? Codes: (a) Both are marine (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the (b) Both are microphagous correct explanation of (A). (c) Both are ciliary filter feeder (b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the (d) Both perform retrogressive metamorphosis correct explanation of (A) UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 (c) (A) is true but (R) is false. Ans. (d) : The organisms belonging to the (d) (A) is false but (R) is true. Protochordata are generally known as the lower UPPCS Pre 2008 chordates. They are divided into two subphyla Urochordata and Cephalochordata. Ans. (a) : Retrogressive metamorphosis (decreasing • Urochordata are found in marine environment. They metamorphosis) of Herdmania in some cases resembles are sessile, filter feeders and microphagous. The frog Progressive metamorphosis because, In both cases notochord appears in the larval stage in the tail of the the tail disappears, the gut changes and the gonad larva and disappears in the adult (Retrogressive develops in both cases. So both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). metamorphosis) E.g. Herdmania. • Cephalochordata are marine ciliary filter feeder and 974. Which is the single most important character in microphagous. The notochord remain throughout life the external morphology of Herdmania which and extend up to the head region E.g. Amphioxus. suggests that it belongs to Ascidiacea : (a) Mouth (b) Cloaca 972. In which of the following animals heart has two pace-makers : (c) Test (d) Foot (a) Amphioxus (b) Asterias UPPCS Pre 2003 (c) Balanoglossus (d) Herdmania Ans. (c) : Test or tunic is the single most important UPPCS Pre 2000 character in the external morphology of Herdmania GIC Biology 15/09/2015 which suggest that it belong to ascidiacea. It is a protective jacket around the body and also act as an Ans. (d) : Herdmania is one of the animal that has accessory respiratory organs and a receptor organ. two pace-makers of heart. It belong to urochordate. 975. The exclusively sedentary protochordate The heart is tubular and open at both ends. Due to animals are found in the class : presence of two pace makers the blood can flow in reversal direction every few minutes. The heart first (a) Pterobranchia (b) Larvacea pumps oxygenated blood and then stops for sometime. (c) Ascidiacea (d) Thaliacea After pause, it starts again and pumps deoxygenated UPPCS Pre 1997 blood in reverse direction. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (c) : Ascidiacea are sedentary protochordate eg : Herdmania. It is exclusively marine animal. They are commonly known as the ascidians, tunicates and sea squirts. They are sessile animals after their phase, they then remain firmly attached to their substratum, such as rocks and shells. The three main types are solitary ascidians, social ascidians and compound ascidians.

Ans. (b) : Herdmania is a urochordate. They have oval body and long tail which shows the caudal fin. There is presence of notochord in the tail. Herdmania is bisexual organism in which the testis and ovaries are present in the same animal. Cross fertilization does not takes place in them. They are protogynous animal as ovaries mature earlier than testis. Sexual reproduction occurs and the 976. The correct sequence of blood flow in fertilized eggs are formed. Herdmania is : 980. During retrogressive metamorphosis of ascidian, structures indicative of chordate (a) Ventral aorta → Heart → Dorsal aorta → affinities are aborted, except Branchial vessel (a) eye (b) otocyst (b) Ventral aorta → Dorsal aorta → Heart → (c) endostyle (d) notochord Branchial vessel UPPCS Pre 2010 (c) Branchial vessel → Dorsal aorta → Ventral aorta → Heart Ans. (b) : The (Ascidian) chordates characters of the (d) Heart → Dorsal aorta → Ventral aorta → larva– Branchial vessel Ascidian are sac-like marine invertebrate filter feeders UPPCS Pre 2009 which composed of a tough outer, tunic made of polysaccharide cellulose. Development of solitary Ans. (d) : Correct sequence of blood flow in Herdmania ascidian tadpole larva. Heart (1) Tunicates are hermaphrodite. ↓ (2) The ovaries and testis are sack-like and lying close Dorsal aorta to the intestine and open to the exterior by duct. ↓ (3) Dorsal tubular nerve cords. Ventral aorta (4) Axial skeleton notochord. ↓ (5) Pharyngeal gill slits Branchial vessel (6) The tail is supported by a notochord The larva stage eye many otocyst found in 977. Excretion in Herdmania takes place by : invertebrates. (a) nephrocytes (b) nerve ganglion 981. Excretion in Herdmania takes place by : (c) neural gland (d) solenocytes (a) By Nephrocytes (b) By nerve ganglion UPPCS Pre 1995 (c) By neural gland (d) By solenocytes Ans. (c) : Neural gland is excretory organ of TGT Biology 2013 Herdmania. Nephrocytes is excretory organ of Branchiostoma. Neural gland or supra-neural gland PGT Biology 2009 lies just above the brain. The organ is present in the Ans. (c) : In Herdmania there is an oval - shaped mantle and has branching tubules. neural gland that is brown in color lying just above the 978. The blood of Herdmania contains : brain. It is encapsulated in the mantle in the intersiphonal region. It is about 4 × 1 mm in size. The (a) Iron (b) Copper neural gland has several branching tubules, which open (c) Vanadium (d) Cadmium into a non-ciliated canal running along the complete UPPCS Pre 2005, PGT 2009 length of the gland. Ans. (c) : Herdmania is a genus of ascidian tunicates It leads into a tiny duct that opens by a ciliated funnel in the family Pyuridae. Herdmania blood has some at the base of the dorsal tubercle (a small round unusual features. It contains high concentrations of the projection on the surface) in between two lobes. transitional metal vanadium and vanadium associated proteins in vacuoles in blood cell. The blood cell in this organism are known as vanadocytes. The role of vanadium is the chemical defence of the solitary tunicate. 979. Herdmania is : (a) unisexual (b) bisexual and protogynous (c) bisexual and protandrous (d) unisexual and protogynous UPPCS Pre 2009 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

143

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 982. Which is the single most important character in the external morphology of Herdmania which suggest that it belongs to Ascidiacea? (a) Mouth (b) Cloaca (c) Test (d) Foot PGT Biology 2009 Ans. (c) : Herdmania – External characters– The body of this animal is covered and protected by test. It is a thick, leathery test or tunic covering of the body. It is secreted by the epidermis of the body wall. It has matrix, corpuscles, fibrils, blood vessels and spicules. So Herdmania is belong to Ascidiacea.

986. Wheel organ is present in which of the following animal ? (a) Amphioxus (b) Herdmania (c) Balanoglossus (d) Doliolum PGT Biology 2009 TGT (2016) 31/07/2021 Ans. (a) : The wheel organ is found in Amphioxus, which is a specialized epithelium in the roof and sides of the adult lancelet oral cavity. It borders the oral epithelium properly. The wheel organ cells are tall and strongly ciliated and have dark, heterochromatin - rich nuclei. It draws food through the use of its cilia for 983. Main function of neural gland in Herdmania digestion. is in (a) Sensation (b) Respiration (c) Excretion (d) Circulation PGT Biology 2005 Ans. (c) : The main function of neural gland in herdmania is in excretion. They coiled waste matter. They come to the neural gland from there, they are sent out. The neural gland secretes a hormone which helps in oviposition and metamorphosis. Neural gland is considered homologous to pituitary gland of vertebrates. 984. Vanadium is supposed to be the repiratory pigment in : 987. Which statement is true about the fertilized egg (a) Echinoderms (b) Balanoglossus of Amphioxus ? (c) Herdmania (d) Amphioxus (a) dorsal crescent forms notochord PGT Biology 2004 (b) clear cytoplasm forms endoderm (c) ventral crescent forms epidermis Ans. (c) : Vanadium is supposed to be the repiratory pigment in Herdmania. Vanadium - it is a green (d) granular-yolky cytoplasm forms neural coloured vanadium containing pigment found in the structure vanadocytes of some sea squirts (Ascidians). UPPCS Pre 2006

B.

Ans. (a) : It is true about the fertilized egg of Amphioxus that dorsal crescent forms notochord. Clear cytoplasm forms ectoderm. Ventral crescent forms mesoderm. Yolky cytoplasm forms endoderm.

Amphioxus

985. In the gastrulation process of Amphioxus which organogenesis occurs from the 988. Which of the following statements regarding the fertilised egg of Amphioxus is true ? following? (a) Dorsal crescent forms notochord (a) Neuralization (b) Clear cytoplasm forms endoderm (b) Notogenesis (c) Ventral crescent forms epidermis (c) Mesogenesis and Coelom (d) Granular yolk cytoplasm forms neural (d) All of the above structures TGT 07/08/2021 UPPCS Pre 2005 Ans. (d) : During gastrulation, invagination of the Ans. (a) : Dorsal crescent forms notochord is true endoderm causes the formation of archenteron in place statement regardinge fertilised egg of Amphioxus. of blastocoel. 989. Cleavage pattern in Amphioxus is : Neurulation–it refers to the folding proces that results in (a) Equal holoblastic formation of the neural tube during gastrulation. (b) Unequal holoblastic Notogenesis–it is the process of notochord formation in the embryo. (c) Epiblastic Mesogenesis and coelom– it refers to the formation of (d) Meroblastic the mesodermal layer of embryo. UPPCS Pre 2007 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (a) : Equal holoblastic cleavage – In microlecithal and isolecithal eggs, cleavage leads to the formation of blastomeres of equal size. e.g. Amphioxus and placental mammals. Unequal holoblastic cleavage – In mesolecithal and telolecithal eggs, cleavage leads to the formation of blastomeres of unequal size. 990. The wheel organ is found in : (a) Ascidian (b) Lancelet (c) Acorn worm (d) Starfish UPPCS Pre 2000 Ans. (b) : The wheel organ is a specialized epithelium in the roof and side of the adult lancelet oral cavity. It borders oral epithelium properly separated by a thin strip of margin cell, which are not ciliated but contain a few large dense cored vesicles apically. 991. The wheel organ is found in : (a) Ascidian (b) Amphioxus (c) Acorn worm (d) Axolotl UPPCS Pre 2003 Ans. (b) : Wheel organs called rotatory organs or muller organs. It is found in the Amphioxus. The wheel organ is a specialized epithelium in the roof and sides of the adult lancelet oral cavity in Amphioxus. 992. The excretory organs of Amphioxus are of the following type : (a) solenocytes and resemble those of echinoderms (b) solenocytes and resemble those of certain annelids (c) nephrocytes and resemble those of insects (d) glomeruli and resemble those of vertebrates. UPPCS Pre 1997 Ans. (b) : Excretory organs of Amphioxus are solenocytes or protonephridia and resemble those of certain annelids. Amphioxus or Branchiostoma is a peculiar chordate animal, which does not have excretory organs in the form of mesodermal kidneys but are in the form of protonephridia. They are similar to protonephridia of flat worms or polychaete, annelids and they are ectodermal in origin. 993. Velum is found in : (a) Amphioxus (b) Branchiostoma (c) Herdmania (d) both (a) and (c) UPPCS Pre 2001 Ans. (d) : Velum is found in both Herdmania and Amphioxus. A membrane or membranous part resembling a veil or curtain, such as a soft palate. An annular membrane projecting inward from the margin of the bell in some jelly fishes (such as the hydromedusae). 994. Coelom in Amphioxus is : (a) pseudocoelous (b) enterocoelous (c) haemocoelous (d) schizocoelous UPPCS Pre 1998 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (b) : Pseudocoelous coelom found in Ascaris. Schizocoelous coelom found in Annelida. The body cavity of Amphioxus is a true coelom lined with the somatic and splanchnic layer of mesoderm and filled with a lymph like coelomic fluid. Its origin enterocoelic so body cavity called enterocoelous. 995. Assertion (A) : In Branchiostoma larva is asymmetrical but adult is symmetrical. Reason (R) : Larva asymmetry reflects an adaptation to a transitional condition between in pelagic free swimming ancestral life and in burrowing life of the modern adult. Select the correct answer using codes given below : Code : (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A. (c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true UPPCS Pre 2002 Ans. (a) : Both assertion and reason is correct. Reason is correct explanation of assertion. 996. In Amphioxus, heart is (a) one chambered (b) two chambered (c) three chambered (d) absent UPPCS Pre 2009 Ans. (d) : Closed circulatory system is the one in which blood circulates in body in closed tubes called blood vessels. The heart is absent in Amphioxus but blood is pumped by contractile vessels. Dissolved oxygen in the blood by diffusion is sufficient to carry out vital activities and hence, there is no respiratory pigment. 997. Emboly occurs in Amphioxus development during (a) cleavage (b) blastulation (c) organogenesis (d) gastrulation PGT Biology 2013 Ans : (d) Emboly occurs in Amphioxus development during gastrulation because when there are 800 cells in the embryo, gastrulation is started in Amphioxus. Basically two types of morphogenetic movements occur in the embryo cells, they are epiboly and emboly. 998. Amphioxus belongs to : (a) cephalochordata (b) urochordata (c) vertebrata (d) hemichordata PGT Biology 2013 Ans. (a) : Cephalochordata is an animal sub-phylum under the chordate. Amphioxus belong to cephalochordates. They are marine invertebrate chordates, found in coastal waters of the warmer parts of the world and less common in temperate waters. Amphioxus has a dorsal hollow neural tube and notochord.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 999. Which of the following is a chordate but not a vertebrate : (a) Catla (b) Hippocampus (c) Hemidactylus (d) Amphioxus PGT Biology 2013 Ans. (d) : Amphioxus also known as lancelet is a fish like marine chordate, unlike vertebrates, the dorsal nerve cord is not protected by bone but by a simpler notochord made up of a cylinder of cells that are closely packed to form a toughened rod. The lancelet notochord, unlike the vertebrate spine, extends into the head and therefore they are placed in subphylum cephalochordata. 1000. The egg of Amphioxus is : (a) Alecithal (b) Micro Lecithal (c) Mesolecithal (d) Polylecithal PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (b) : Microlecithal eggs are the eggs which contain very little yolk in it but the amount of cytoplasm is high. These eggs are generally small in size as compared to other types of eggs. The eggs of marsupials, Amphioxus and eutherian mammals are of this category of eggs. The egg of Amphioxus is microlecithal and isolecithal type. The nucleus is almost centric because the yolk content is very less and does not affect the nucleus of the egg considerably. 1001. Two layered gastrula is found in : (a) Amphioxus (b) Frog (c) Chick (d) Rabbit PGT Biology 2005, TGT Biology 2013 Ans. (a) : → At the start of gastrulation, the blastula of Amphioxus has two types of blastomeres, micromeres in the upper region and macromeres in the lower region. → The micromeres divide at a faster rate than the macromeres, so the macromeres are pushed from near the equatorial region. → The micromeres start moving downwards (Epiboly) → The blastula start to appears like a half - sphere with a flat macromere plate in the bottom. → The macromere plate starts to invaginate (bend upwards) and the monoblastic blastula gets converted into diploblastic gastrula (two-layered) having only ectoderm and endoderm. → This gastrula appears like a double walled inverted cup having a cavity between the two walls. → The newly formed cavity is called the Archenteron or gastrocoel. 1002. Which character of Amphioxus is true ? (a) Presence of oral hood (b) Sedentary life (c) Coiled alimentary canal (d) Presence of test PGT Biology 2005 Ans. (a) : Character of Amphioxus that is true is presence of oral hood. The roof of the oral hood in Amphioxus show the presence of Hatschek's pit which is responsible for the secretion of mucus. This mucus secretion helps to entrap food particles present in the water. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

1003. Hatschek's nephridium is found in : (a) Balanoglossus (b) Herdmania (c) Botryllus (d) Amphioxus PGT Biology 2005 Ans. (d) : Hatschek's nephridium is found in Amphioxus. The unpaired Hatschek's nephridium is the largest and most anterior of the nephridia in the body of the Branchiostoma. It is a single tubule which lies on the left side of the notochord running parallel to the left anterior aorta. It stretches from the anterior vestibule to a point immediately posterior to the velum where it opens into the endodermal pharynx.

1004. Approximate number of myotomes in Amphioxus is : (a) 40 (b) 50 (c) 60 (d) 70 PGT Biology 2005 Ans. (c) : Variation in the myotome formula of the acraniate Epigonichthys lucayanum (Andrews) is discussed in relation to that of its putative larval stage Amphioxides pelagicus (Gunther). In certain adult populations two main forms can be recognized. 60-62 myotomes of which 43-45 are pre-artrioporal is present. 1005. The oocytes on branchio stoma are said to be : (a) Oligolecithal (b) Cledoic (c) Megalecithal (d) Hypolecithal PGT Biology 2002 Ans. (a) : The oocytes on Branchiostoma are said to be oligolecithal. A small quantity of evenly distributed yolk is called an oligo-lecithal egg. Some embryologists described microlecithal eggs as alecithal eggs or oligolecithal eggs as microlecithal (i.e. little yolk) eggs. The eggs of Branchiostoma, marsupials and eutherian mammals are of this type. 1006.Which of the following statements regarding the fertilized egg of Amphioxus is true. (a) Dorsal crescent form notochord (b) Clear cytoplasm forms endoderm (c) Ventral crescent forms epidermis (d) Granular yolk cytoplasm forms neural structure PGT Biology 2002 Ans. (a) : It is true about the fertilized egg of amphioxus, dorsal crescent form notochord. Clear cytoplasm form ectoderm. Ventral crescent form mesoderm, yolky cytoplasm forms endoderm.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf C.

Scoliodon

1007. In scoliodon, the work of ampullae of Lorenzini is : (a) Mechano receptor (b) Thermo receptor (c) Rheo receptor (d) Photo receptor TGT (2016) 31/07/2021 Ans. (b) : "Thermoreceptor" ampullae of Lorenzini is important receptor or sense organ in Scoliodon (dog fishes). These are grape like pores found in bunches in the snout. They contain ampullae (gland cells) and sensory hair cells. These are thermoreceptors and respond to slight changes in temperature. Neuromast organs acts as rheoreceptor. Neuroepithelial bodies acts as Neuroreceptor. 1008. In Scoliodon how many pairs of cranial nerves are present? (a) 9 (b) 10 (c) 11 (d) 12 TGT 07/08/2021 Ans. (b) : Ten pairs of cranial nerves arise from the brain at different locations to supply the anterior region of the body. In addition a pair of terminal or pre olfactory nerves (zero nerves) arise from the ventral surface of the cerebrum. 1009. Spiral valve is found in the alimentary canal of: (a) Frog (b) Scoliodon (c) Pigeon (d) Rabbit UPPCS Pre 1999 Ans. (b) : Scoliodon commonly called dog fish. Spiral valve called scroll valve. It is found in intestine of Scoliodon. It serves to delay the passage of food and others increased surface for absorption like the typhlosole of earthworm. 1010. Scroll valve is found in : (a) Pigeon (b) Frog (c) Uromastyx (d) Scoliodon PGT Biology 2009 Ans. (d) : Scroll valve is found in Scoliodon. A spiral valve or scroll valve is the corkscrew- shaped lower portion of the intestine of some sharks. 1011. Scoliodon is : (a) ovoviviparous (b) viviparous (c) oviparous (d) sometimes viviparous, sometimes oviparous UPPCS Pre 1995 Ans. (b) : Dog fish or common Indian shark has dog like sense of smell. Scoliodon is viviparous that give birth to living young. Scoliodon is the Requiem Shark genus. The most sophisticated mode in viviparity of any species is demonstrated by the scoliodon or spadenose shark. 1012. Endoskeleton of Scoliodon is made up of : (a) Cartilage (b) Bones (c) Scales (d) Plates TGT Biology 2013 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (a) : Endoskeleton is a skeleton found within the interior of the body of the animals. It provides structural support and protection for the internal organs and tissue of an organism. Scoliodon is included in members of shark fish. Scoliodon also called dogfish because they have dog like sense of smell. Endoskeleton of scoliodon is made up of cartilage. 1013. Erythrocytes in Scoliodon are ? (a) circular nucleated (b) circular enucleated (c) oval nucleated (d) oval enucleated PGT Biology 2013 Ans. (c) : Scoliodon blood consists of a colourless plasma and corpuscles suspended in the plasma. Two kinds of corpuscles are encountered, the RBC (or erythrocytes) and the WBC (or leucocytes). The erythrocytes are oval bodies containing a nucleus. Haemoglobin is present in the erthrocytes. The leucocytes are amoeboid in structure. 1014. Dogfish is related to which group? (a) Agnatha (b) Gnathostomata (c) Eucoelomata (d) Squamata PGT Biology 2009 Ans. (b) : Dogfish is related to Gnathostomata group. The spiny dogfish shark, squalus acanthias, belong to Chondrichthyes, which first appeared in the Silurian Period and is among the earliest to branch of from the rest of the Gnathostomata (Jawed Vertebrates). 1015. Which of the following scale types characterize the cartilaginous fishes : (a) cosmoid (b) placoid (c) ganoid (d) cycloid UPPCS Pre 1995 Ans. (b) : Chondrichthyes also called cartilaginous Fish and bony fish called osteichthyes. Scoliodon is cartilaginous fish, placoid scale found in cartilaginous fishes. Cycloid scale found in lung fishes. Placoid scales are pointed and are tooth shaped. These are supported by spines and grow flat with their tips facing backwards.

1016. Ampullae of Lorenzini in Scoliodon respond to: (a) Light (b) Heat (c) Current (d) Touch PGT Biology 2005 Ans. (b) : The Ampullae of Lorenzini is present in cartilaginous fishes like shark, Scoliodon. It is respond to heat. It is a special type of sensing organs called as electroreceptors forming a network of jelly-filled pores.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 1017. Kidneys are opisthonephric in : (a) Scoliodon (b) Uromastyx (c) Columba (d) Rana PGT Biology 2004 Ans. (a) : The kidney of dogfish (Scoliodon) is opisthonephric. The substance of the opisthonephric kidney is made up of coiled glandular uriniferous tubules. Each uriniferous tubules comprises a Bowman's capsule enclosing the glomerulus and a coiled renal tubule, several of which open into a common collecting tubule.

D.

Ans. (d) : Salivary glands in Rana Tigrina (Frog) are absent. Salivary glands produce saliva in many different species of animals. The buccal cavity of frog has mucous glands which moist the buccal cavity and tongue that secretes saliva. The mouth leads into a wide and broad oral or buccal cavity which lies in between the upper jaw and lower jaw.

Rana, Uromastyx

1018. How many chambers are present in heart of Frog? (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 TGT 07/08/2021 Ans. (b) : Frogs (Amphibians) have a three chambered heart, two auricles and one ventricle. This means that the oxygenated and deoxygenated blood gets mixed resulting in insufficient supply of oxygen to the cells. Cutaneous respiration is also a mode of gaseous exchange in frogs. 1019. Uromastyx is commonly known as : (a) Girgit (b) Spiny tailed lizard (c) Flying lizard (d) Wall lizard TGT (2016) 31/07/2021 Ans. (b) : Uromastyx is commonly known as spiny tailed lizard. Uromastyx is a genus of African and Asian agamid lizards, the member species of which are commonly called spiny - tailed lizards, uromastyces, mastigures or dabb lizards. Lizards in the genus Uromastyx are primarily herbivorous, but occasionally eat insects and other small animals. 1020. Interventricular septum is incomplete in ? (a) Rana (b) Uromastyx (c) Columba (d) Oryctolagus UP PGT 17/08/2021 Ans. (b) : Interventricular septum is incomplete in Uromastyx. The genus Uromastyx is a member of the old world of lizard family Agamidae. Its heart is located anteriorly in the body cavity and it is relatively small. Heart is not completely four chambered and interventricular septum is incomplete. There is slight mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood. 1021. In Uromastyx 'Y' shaped chevron bone is found in which vertebra ? (a) Caudal (b) Sacral (c) Thoracic (d) Atlas TGT 07/08/2021 Ans. (a) : In Uromastyx 'y' shaped chevron bone is found in caudal. Caudal vertebrae are the bones that make up the tails of vertebrates. The chevron bones function as attachments sites for ventral flexor muscles in the pentapedal tail. 1022. Salivary glands in Rana tigrina are : (a) 1 pair (b) 2 pair (c) one (d) Absent RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

1023. How many pairs of cranial nerves arise from Rana's brain? (a) 8 (b) 10 (c) 12 (d) 16 RPSC School Lecturer (23/07/2016) Ans. (b) : Frog belong to the class Amphibia of phylum chordata. They can live on both land and water. Frogs are cold blooded animals and have camouflage property. They are short-bodied and tailless amphibians and are distributed widely, ranging from tropics to subarctic regions, the greatest being in tropical rainforest. The 10 pairs of cranial nerves in frog are(1) Olfactory (2) Optic (3) Oculomotor (4) Trochlear (5) Trigeminal (6) Abducens (7) Facial (8) Auditory (9) Glossopharyngeal (10) Vagus. 1024. Rana tigrina belongs to the order: (a) Urodela (b) Lepospondyle (c) Anura (d) Apoda RPSC School Lecturer (23/07/2016) Ans. (c) : Rana tigrina belong to the order Anura. Rana tigrina is a species of frog that belong to the genus Rana. Rana belong to class Amphibia. Class Amphibia comes under the section Gnathostomata. Gnathostomata come under the subphylum vertebrata which is a part of phylum chordate. 1025. The function of nictitating membrane in frog is: (a) Protection and moistening of the eye (b) Vestigial tissue only with no specific function (c) Focusing of light to retina (d) Detection of light signals UPPSC Ashram Paddhati 29/09/2021

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (a) : The function of nictitating membrane in frog Ans. (a) : In animals, rate of heart beat is connected is protection and moistening of the eye. The nictitating with the size of animals. In mammals, smaller animals membrane is a "third eyelid" that extends from the inner have higher heart beat. For example, 200 beats per corner of the eye to the outer corner. It is transparent or minute in rabbit, 500 beats per minute in sparrow, 28 translucent. This third eyelid protects the frog's eyes beats per minute in elephant. In frog, rate of heart beat when it is swimming underwater and helps to keep the is 64 beats per minute. In mammals, maximum heart beat is observed in shrew (800 per minute) and eye moist when the frog is on land. minimum in blue whale (25 per minute). 1026. Calcified cartilage is present in : 1031. Digital formula of forelimbs in Frog is : (a) external ear (b) supra-scapula (a) 0, 2, 2, 3, 3 (b) 0, 3, 2, 3, 3 (c) pericardium (d) ribs (c) 0, 2, 3, 3, 3 (d) 0, 3, 3, 2, 3 Bihar PGT 2019 TGT Biology 1999 Ans. (b) : Calcified cartilage is present in supra- Ans. (a) : Digital formula is a way of comparing scapula. Cartilage calcification occurs as a growth animals by the number of phalanges that they have in process of bone due to age. Calcium salts get deposited each of their digits. It can be used to study phylogeny in the matrix. Calcified cartilage is present in the pubis or to predict how an animal may use its hands and feet. An animals phalangeal formula is simply given as a and supra scapula of frog. series of numbers. Most land mammals including 1027. In Uromastyx cloaca is divided into : humans have a 2-3-3-3-3 formula in both the hands (or (a) Coprodaeum and Urodaeum paws) and feet. Fore limb of frog is 0-2-2-3-3 and hind limb is 2-2-3-4-3. (b) Coprodaeum and Proctodaeum 1032. Lens and retina of eye in frog develop from (c) Coprodaeum Urodaeum and Proctodaeum embryonic : (d) Urodaeum and Proctodaeum (a) ectoderm (b) endoderm TGT Biology 2013 (c) mesoderm (d) both (a) and (b) Ans. (c) : The cloaca of Uromastyx or commonly TGT Biology 2005 called Spiny-tailed lizard is divided into three parts. UPPCS Pre 2006 (1) Coprodaeum (2) Urodaeum (3)Proctodaeum Ans. (a) : Lens and retina of eye in frog develop from The rectum opens into the anterior chamber embryonic ectoderm : coprodaeum. Gonoducts and a pair of ureters open into Ectoderm : Olfactory organs, lens of eye, retina, and the middle chamber urodaeum dorsally. The posterior posterior pituitary, brain, inner ear is ectodermal origin. chamber proctodaeum opens externally by the cloacal Endoderm : Liver, pancreas, respiratory organs, aperture. thyroid, parathyroid, thymus is endodermal origin. 1028. In frog Y-shaped bone is : Mesoderm : Dermis, vertebral column, skeletal (a) Squamosal (b) Pterygoid muscles, circulatory system, excretory system. (c) Palatine (d) Quadra to jugal 1033. Diploid number of chromosomes in the zygote of frog is : TGT Biology 2002 (a) 22 (b) 26 Ans. (b) : Pterygoid is situated ventro-laterally to (c) 24 (d) 25 cranium which is triradiate y-shaped bone. It is one of the bones of the palate, forming the root of the mouth. PGT Biology 2013 Ans. (b) : A gamete has twice the number of 1029. The largest cranial nerve of frog is : chromosomes as a body cell. A frog gamete has 13 (a) Trigeminal (b) Vagus chromosomes. Every frog body cell, then the (c) Glossopharyngeal (d) Trochlear chromosome number is diploid and probably 26 in both UPPCS Pre 2004 sexes. Both sexes of adult and tadpoles are present. Ans. (a) : The largest cranial nerve of frog is trigeminal. It is the fifth (v) cranial nerve arising from the sides of the anterior end of the medulla oblongata. The main function of the trigeminal nerve is to supply sensations to mucous membranes, face and other structures associated with the head. It is having sensory as well as motor functions to perform. Trigeminal nerve is further divided into three divisons or branches. 1030. Rate of heart beat in Frog is : (a) 64 times per minute (b) 72 times per minute (c) 75 times per minute (d) 50 times per minute TGT Biology 1999 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 1034. The body of Uromastyx is divisible into : (a) head, trunk and tail (b) head, neck and tail (c) head, neck and trunk (d) head, neck, trunk and tail PGT Biology 2009 Ans. (d) : Uromastyx is divisible into head, neck, trunk and tail. Uromastyx is a genus of African and Asian agamid lizards, the member species of which are commonly called spiny - tailed lizards, uromastyces, mastigures or dabb lizards. 1035. The second cranial nerve of frog is : (a) Trochlear nerve (b) Optic nerve (c) Auditory/Acoustic (d) Vagus nerve TGT Biology 2010 Ans. (b) : The second cranial nerve in the frog is the optic nerve. Cranial Nerve I – Olfactory Cranial Nerve II – Optic Cranial Nerve III – Oculomotor Cranial Nerve IV – Trochlear Cranial Nerve V – Trigeminal Cranial Nerve VI – Abducens Cranial Nerve VII – Facial Cranial Nerve VIII – Vestibulocochlear Cranial Nerve IX – Glossopharyngeal Cranial Nerve X – Vagus Cranial Nerve XI – Accessory spinal Cranial Nerve XII – Hypoglossal Note-Cranial nerve XI and XII are not found in frog. 1036. Number of cranial nerves in frog is : (a) ten (b) twelve (c) twelve pairs (d) ten pairs PGT Biology 2010 Ans. (d) : There are ten pairs of cranial nerve in a frog. 1037. Rana tigrina belongs to the order : (a) Urodela (b) Lepospondyli (c) Anura (d) Apoda Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2015 Ans. (c) : Phylum – Chordata Class – Amphibia Order – Anura Genus – Rana Species – tigrina 1038. The number of spinal nerves in the frog is : (a) 7 pairs (b) 8 pairs (c) 9 pairs (d) 10 pairs TGT Biology 2004 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (d) : In frog there are 10 pair of spinal nerve and 10 pair of cranial nerve are present. S. No.

Cranial Nerve

Origin

Nature

Distribution

I

Olfactory

Olfactory Sensory Nasal lobe chamber

II

Optic

Optic

III

Oculomotor Crura Cerebri

Motor

Muscle eye wall

IV

Trochlear

Mid brain

Motor

Superior obliquesepta

V

Trigeminal Pons (a) ......... Opthalmic (b) ......... Maxillary (c) Mandibular

Mixed .........

Snout, Upper ileus, Upper Jaw, tooth, tongue, lower lip

VI

Abducens

Medulla

Motor

External Rectal Muscle

VII

Facial

Medulla

Mixed

Palate, lower jaw, hyoid, neck, ear

VIII Auditory

Medulla

Sensory Internal Ear

IX

Glossophar yngeal

Medulla

Mixed

Tongue, test bud

X

Vagus

Medulla

Mixed

Thoracic and abdominal cavities

Sensory Retina of eye

.........

of

1039. How many pairs of cranial nerves arise from Rana’s brain? (a) 8 (b) 10 (c) 12 (d) 16 Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2015 Ans. (b) : 10 Pairs cranial nerve mainly found in fishes and amphibia (Rana, Toad). 12 Pairs of cranial nerve are found in reptiles, bird and mammals. The smallest cranial nerve is the trochlear. 1040. In frog foramen magnum is surrounded by : (a) occipital , basioccipital and supraoccipital (b) occiptal and basioccipital (c) basiocciptal and supraoccipital (d) occipitals only UPPCS Pre 1997 Ans. (d) : In frog foramen magnum is surrounded by two irregular cartilaginous bone called occipital bone. Supra occipital and basioccipital are absent. Beneath the foramen magnum of frog, there are two occipital condyles. On other side of the foramen magnum, dorsolaterally exoccipital bones are present. The medulla oblongata passes out through this foramen and continues into spinal cord.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 1041. The thick muscular projections on the walls of the ventricle are called : (a) Chordae tendineae (b) Columnae carneae (c) Conus arteriosus (d) Truncus arteriosus UPPCS Pre 1997 Ans. (b) : From inner surface of ventricular wall project muscular ridge called columnae carneae. Truncus arteriosus occur in the heart of frog. It is also known as trabeculae carneae or meaty ridges. If this structure is not present the inner surface of heart ventricles would have been flat and suction could occur. 1042. Buccal cavity of frog is line by : (a) Squamous epithelium(b) Glandular epithelium (c) Cuboidal epithelium(d) Columnar epithelium UPPCS Pre 1997 Ans. (d) : Buccal cavity of frog is lined by columnar epithelium. Ciliated columnar epithelium contains mucus-secreting glands. The ciliated columnar epithelium is composed of simple columnar epithelial cells with clia on their apical surfaces. The buccal cavity of the frog consists of a moist mucous membrane and richly supplied with blood capillaries. 1043. Of the following bones of frog skull, which one is single (unpaired)? (a) frontoparietal (b) pro-otic (c) parasphenoid (d) premaxilla UPPCS Pre 2004 Ans. (c) : Parasphenoid bones of frog skull is unpaired. It is inverted T shape (⊥). It is situated beneath the sphenoid at the base of the skull. It forms the floor of the cranium. Early mammals have a small parasphenoid, but the most important part its function has been replaced by the vomer bone. 1044. Inverted "T" shaped parasphenoid bone is found: (a) On the ventral surface of the cranium of mammals (b) On the ventral surface of the cranium of frog (c) On the dorsal surface of the cranium of mammals. (d) On the dorsal surface of the cranium of frog UPPCS Pre 1996 Ans. (b) : Inverted T shaped bone called parasphenoid found on the ventral surface of the cranium of frog.

TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

1045. "Pace maker" of frog is located in : (a) right auricle (b) left auricle (c) sinus venosus (d) ventricle UPPCS Pre 2001 Ans. (a) : "Pace maker" of frog is located in right auricle. A specialised muscular tissue called SA node is located in the upper right corner of right auricle and helps in initiating the rhythmic contractions of the heart. In the frog, they are located near the junction of the vena cava and the right atrium, a region called the sinus venosus. 1046. In a frog the number of pairs of cranial nerves is : (a) 5 (b) 15 (c) 10 (d) 20 UPPCS Pre 1995 Ans. (c) : Cranial nerve is 10 pair in frog. These are following:– (i) Olfactory (vi) Abducens (ii) Optic (vii) Facial (iii) Oculomotor (viii) Auditory (iv) Trochlear (ix) Glossopharyngeal (v) Trigeminal (x) Vagus. 1047. The thin membrane covering the frog's skin is composed of : (a) columnar epithelium (b) squamous epithelium (c) ciliated epithelium (d) neurosensory epithelium UPPCS Pre 1995 Ans. (b) : The membrane covering the frog Skin is composed of squamous epithelium. It is also known as pavement epithelium. Simple squamous epithelium is a single layer of large flat cells. It is present in the outer layer of skin of a frog which is usually cast off by a process of moulting. 1048. In the skin of frog chromatophores are present in: (a) epidermis (b) dermis (c) stratum corneum (d) stratum granulosum UPPCS Pre 1999 Ans. (b) : In frog chromatophore are present in the dermis layer of skin. The colour of skin depend upon the number of chromatophore cells. The dermis of the frog is composed primarily of collagenous connective tissue in stratum spongiosum that has an arrangement of chromatophores. 1049. Ductus botalli is present in: (a) Rana (b) Scoliodon (c) Lepidosiren (d) Ceratodus PGT Biology 2002 Ans. (a) : Ductus botalli is present in Rana (Frog). The ductus arteriosus also called the ductus botalli, named after the Italian physiologist Leonardo Botallo, is a blood vessel in the developing fetus connecting the trunk of the pulmonary artery to the proximal descending aorta. It allows most of the blood from the right ventricle to bypass the fetus's fluid -filled nonfunctioning lungs.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 1050. Type of kidney functional in frog's tadpole is : (a) pronephros (b) mesonephros (c) archinephros (d) metanephros UPPCS Pre 2006 Ans. (a) : Pronephros type of kidney found in tadpole. Mesonephric kidney found in adult frog. Metanephric found in bird, reptile and mammals. Archinephros or holonephros is a primitive kidney that has been retained by the larvae of hagfish and some caecilians. 1051.The hormone responsible for the metamorphosis in frog is : (a) adrenaline (b) thyroxine (c) growth hormone (d) oxytocin UPPCS Pre 1995 Ans. (b) : Thyroxine hormones secreted by thyroid gland play an important role in metamorphosis. Adrenaline hormones called emergency hormones secreted by adrenal medulla. Oxytocin is secreted by pituitary gland. Pituitary gland is known as master gland found in brain protect by a bony structure called sella turcica.

E.

1054. The pecten of Columba (Pigeon) is derived from: (a) Choroid (b) Retina (c) Sclera (d) Lens TGT 07/08/2021 Ans. (a) : The pecten or pecten oculi is a comb-like structure of blood vessels belonging to the choroid in the eye of columba (pigeon). It is a non-sensory, pigmented structure that projects into the vitreous humor from the point where the optic nerve enters the eyeball. It is present in all birds and some reptiles.

Columba

1052. Double circulation and double respiration is found respectively in : (a) Scoliodon and Rana 1055.Infra orbital arcade is seen in the skull of : (b) Oryctolagus and Columba (a) Frog (b) Pigeon (c) Uromastyx and Rana (c) Varanus (d) Rabbit (d) Rana and Columba PGT Biology 2002 TGT 07/08/2021 Ans. (b) : Infra orbital arcade is seen in the skull of pigeon. Ans. (b) : Double circulation and double respiration is The upper jaw on each side form two bony arcades - the found respectively in Oryctolagus and Columba. outer arcade of Infra orbital arcade or sub-orbital bar Double circulation pathways are found in birds and consisting of premaxilla, maxilla, jugal and quadrato - jugal mammals. Animals with this type of circulatory system and the inner arcade or palato - pterygo quadrate bar is have a four - chambered heart. The right atrium receives formed by pterygoid, palatine and quadrate. deoxygenated blood from the body and the right 1056. "Pigeon milk" is secreted by : ventricle sends it to the lungs to be oxygenated. (a) mammary glands of pigeon Oryctolagus is a rabbit species and Columba is the genus (b) uropygial gland of pigeon representing pigeons and belongs to the class Aves. (c) crop gland of male pigeons During inspiration air passes twice through the lungs (d) crop gland of both female and male pigeons and get the opportunity to absorb oxygen twice is called UPPCS Pre 2001 double respiration. It is found in birds ex- Columba UPPCS Pre 2004 (Pigeon). UPPCS Pre 2007 1053. The function of "Gizzard" in pigeon is PGT Biology 2009 (a) Chewing food (b) Mixing food LT Biology 2015 (c) Digesting food (d) Grinding food Ans. (d) : The milk is a specific product of glands in UPPSC Ashram Paddhati 29/09/2021 the crop of male and female pigeons, just as cow's Ans. (d) : The function of "Gizzard" in pigeon is milk is the product of udder. These crop gland are grinding food. Gizzard is the hind part of the stomach, capable of producing 'Pigeon milk' from the sixteenth specially modified for grinding food. The walls of the day of incubation. It is formed by the degeneration of gizzard are highly muscular and it contains very little epithelial cells lining the crop. inner space. Internally the wall contains numerous ridges and its epithelial lining becomes very thick and 1057. Pecten is found in the eye of : (a) Pigeon (b) Rabbit tough. It has many small tubular glands. The function of gizzard is purely mechanical and it compensate the role (c) Lizard (d) Frog of teeth in pigeon. UPPCS Pre 2003 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (a) : Pecten is found in the eye of pigeon. Pecten is a comb like structure found in cavity of eye from the region of ventral to blind spot where optic nerve enters the eye ball. Pecten present in the pigeon. 1058. In which of the following animal the bones are lightest : (a) rabbit (b) cobra (c) pigeon (d) flying fish UPPCS Pre 1999 Ans. (c) : Bones which are hollow and have no bone marrow called pneumatic bone. Pneumatic bone are lightest and found in Pigeon. The total weight of the feathers of the pigeon exceeds that of its skeleton. The skeleton of a pigeon weighs just one twentieth of the weight of its whole body it helps to fly. 1059. Uropygial gland is associated with : (a) lizard (b) shark (c) frog (d) pigeon UPPCS Pre 2005 Ans. (d) : Preen gland, also called uropygial, or oil gland in birds, an organ located on the back near the base of the tail. Paired or in two united halves, it is found in most birds. The presence of uropygial gland is associated with pigeon. It produces a diverse range of biochemicals. It is involved in chemical protection, water-proofing and maintenance of plumage brightness. 1060. In pigeons retina possesses : (a) rods and cones equally (b) more rods than cones (c) more cones than rods (d) only cones PGT Biology 2013 Ans. (c) : In pigeons, retina possesses more cones than rods. Cones and rods are receptors which are found in the optic system of animals and birds. These receptors respond to light and enable better vision. Cones are functional at higher levels of light and enable coloured vision and it would be more meaningful for a nonnocturnal bird like pigeon to possess more cones than rods. 1061. The external nares of pigeon are covered with (a) Nasal folds (b) Mucous membrane (c) Cere (d) Skin folds PGT Biology 2009 Ans. (c) : At the base of beak are the external nostrils overhung by a swollen, sensitive soft skin called cere. Eyes are prominent, round and laterally present. Eyes are protected by an upper eyelid, lower eyelid, and a transparent nictitating membrane cere is present on each side of the upper beak. 1062. Down feathers are present in (a) newly hatched pigeons(b) male pigeons (c) female pigeons (d) adult pigeons PGT Biology 2009 Ans. (a) : Down feathers are present in newly hatched pigeons. A layer of feathers which is found closest to the skin of birds is down feathers. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

F.

Rabbit

1063. Which of the following layers of integument gives rise to the glands and keratin structures in rabbit ? (a) Stratum lucidum (b) Stratum germinativum (c) Stratum spinosum (d) Stratum granulosum UPPSC Ashram Paddhati 29/09/2021 Ans. (b) : Stratum germinativum layer give rise to the glands and keratin structures in rabbit. It is the innermost epithelial layer of epidermis lying on the basement membrane. Stratum germinativum cells are cuboidal and columnar shaped and have a high mitotic index. It is also known as stratum basale. Some basal cells can act like stem cells with the ability to divide and produce new cells. In the skin of rabbit, sweat or sudoriferous glands and sebaceous glands are present. 1064. Which of the following is not absent in Rabbit? (a) Right systemic arch (b) Renal portal system (c) Canine teeth (d) Left systemic arch RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) Ans. (d) : Left systemic arch is not absent in Rabbit. A paired blood vessel in the embryo of tetrapods that carries blood from the aorta to the trunk and hind limbs is known as systemic arch. It is derived from the fourth aortic arch. In amphibians and reptiles both right and left arches are present in adults. In birds only the right arch is present in adults and in mammals only the left arch is present in adults. 1065. Which of the following glands are not associated with rabbits eye? (a) Mebomian glands (b) Cowpers glands (c) Lacrimal glands (d) Harderian glands RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) Ans. (b) : Cowper's gland is not associated with rabbits eye. These glands lie posterior to the prostate gland and their secretion neutralizes acidity for the protection of spermatozoa. These are also known as the Bulbourethral gland. ⇒ Meibomian gland (Tarsal glands) are located in the tarsal plate of the eyelid. These are sebaceous (oilsecreting) glands, and its secretion helps in lubricating the eyelids. ⇒Lacrimal gland is situated in the caudodorsal sector of the orbit. Secretions from lacrimal glands moisten, lubricate and flush the surface of the eyeball. 1066. The burrow of rabbit is called : (a) Barrel (b) Warren (c) Barren (d) Form RPSC School Lecturer (23/07/2016) Ans. (b) : Rabbits live in groups called colonies in underground warrens where they can hide from anything hunting them. There underground systems of tunnels are dug by the rabbits and can be found in forests, grasslands, meadows or deserts.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 1067. Dental formula of rabbit is 1071. In rabbit, the blastopore develops into future : (a) 2023/1023 (b) 2033/1032 (a) Anus (b) Mouth (c) 2033/1023 (d) 2033/1033 (c) Neuropore (d) Notochord Bihar PGT 2019 UPPCS Pre 2000 TGT 07/08/2021 Ans. (a) : In rabbit the blastopore develops in the anus and in protostomes develops into mouth. Ans. (c) : Rabbit is herbivorous animal and depends Animals in which blastopore develops into anus on cellulose based food. It has no canines in jaw. The known as deuterostomes. e.g. Echinodermata & dental formula is 2033/1023 for incisors, canine, chordata. As the mouth is formed as a secondary premolar and molars in each jaw. Thus the canines are absent. There is a gap in both the jaw at the location opening, these animals are called deuterostomes. of canines. It is called as diastema. The total number 'Deutero' means secondary and 'stoma' means mouth. of teeth in upper jaw are 16 and 12 teeth in lower jaw. 1072. Cotyloid bone is found in : The total number of teeth are 28. (a) frog (b) rabbit (c) fowl (d) lizard UPPCS Pre 1998 UPPCS Pre 2002, 2008 UPPCS Pre 2009 Ans. (b) : The dissection of rabbits back limb is structurally comparable to that of additional land creatures and present to their functional form of movement. The bones of the hindmost limbs consist of large bones as well as small bones (the tarsals), pelvic girdle consist of both coxal bones. All coxal bone is created by union of three ossein, ilium, ischium and pubis. The two shares of the pelvic girdle face ventrally to reach the pubic symphysis, containing fibrous cartilage. So Dentition of rabbit (Arrangement of teeth in jaws) the cotyloid is found in pelvic girdle of rabbit. 1068. Renal portal system is absent in : 1073. Zygomatic arch is formed in the : (a) frog (b) rabbit (a) upper jaw of frog (b) lower jaw of frog (c) lizard (d) reptile (c) upper jaw of rabbit (d) lower jaw of rabbit UP LT 2018 UPPCS Pre 1997 Ans. (b) : The renal portal system is derived from the posterior cardinal vein found in fishes, amphibians and Ans. (c) : Zygomatic process found in the maxilla of reptiles. upper jaw of rabbits. The zygomatic arch is also called as cheekbone, zygomatic arch of rabbit is formed of It is absent in hagfish, lampreys, rabbit and mammals. maxilla, squamosal and jugal. The size of the lower Blood from the posterior part of the body flows into the renal portal veins, which pass into the caudal vena cava. jaw is correlated with the size and prominence of the 1069 Four kinds of skin colours are found in rabbits zygomatic arch. namely – albino, himalayan albino, agouti and 1074. Diastema is a : chinchilla because a gene can have (a) type of tooth (b) part of tooth (a) Incomplete dominance (c) part of vertebrate eye (d) gap between teeth (b) A pair of mutant isoalleles UPPCS Pre 1997 (c) Less than two allelomorphs UPPCS Pre 2004 (d) More than two allelomorphs Ans. (d) : Diastema is a gap between teeth of UP PGT 2016 mammal. In diastema canine teeth are absent. Ans. (d) Four kinds of skin colour are found in rabbits 2033 namely albino, himalayan albino, agouti and chinchilla Dental formula of rabbit because a gene can have more than two allelomorphs. 1023 Coat color in rabbits is inherited as a series of multiple Canine are absent in both jaw of rabbit. alleles. This means that there can be more than just 2 alleles for a single gene. In the case of skin color in 1075. The Vertebral formula of rabbit is : Code : rabbits, there are four alleles and each one is expressed (a) C7 T12 L6 S4 CD16 with a different phenotype. 7 13 7 4 (b) C T L S CD16 6 13 6 4 1070.The zygomatic arch of rabbit is made up of (c) C T L S CD16 maxilla, squamosal and : 7 13 7 4 (d) C T L S CD15 (a) mesethmoid (b) jugal UPPCS Pre 1998 (c) pterygoid (d) periotic UPPCS Pre 1999 Ans. (a) : Total number of vertebrae in rabbit varies from 45 to 47. Ans. (b) : Jugal is a narrow wavy bone. It connects Vertebral formula of rabbit C7 T12 L6 S4 CD16 zygomatic processes of squamosal and maxilla The first cervical vertebra is atlas. Centrum is absent. forming 'zygomatic arch'. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 1076. XI pair of cranial nerves of rabbit is called (a) Accessory spinal (b) Hypoglossal (c) Glossopharyngeal (d) None of the above UPPCS Pre 2009 Ans. (a) : The rabbit's XI pair cranial nerve is called accessory spinal nerve. This is the conduction nerve that goes to the neck. • XII pair of cranial nerve is called hypoglossal. • IX pair of cranial nerve is called glossopharyngeal. • XII, this is the motor cranial nerve that goes to the neck and tongue. • IX, this is the mixed cranial nerve that goes to the tongue. • Rabbit is a mammal having 12 pairs of cranial nerves. • The XIth cranial nerve is called the accessory spinal cranial nerve. • It supplies the muscles of the pharynx & larynx. • Its primary role is the movement of the pharynx & larynx. 1077. Atlas vertebra of rabbit is characterised by : (a) absence of centrum (b) absence of pre zygapophysis (c) absence of post zygapophysis (d) all the above characteristic UPPCS Pre 1996 PGT Biology 2002 Ans. (d) : Vertebra of rabbit are acoelous means centrum is absent, pre zygapophysis and post zygapophysis are absent, odontoid process and transverse process present. The odontoid process of the axis represents the centrum of the atlas. The first and second vertebrae, respectively the atlas and axis, are specially modified. 1078. Animals eating their faeces to redigest cellulose content are called : (a) Microphagous (b) Macrophagous (c) Coprophagous (d) Omnivorous UPPCS Pre 1996 Ans. (c) : Animals eating their faeces to redigest cellulose content known as coprophagous. eg. Rabbit. Heterotrophic organisms that take in their food in the form of tiny particles are microphagous. eg., filter feeding and ciliary feeding. Heterotrophic organisms feeding on relatively large particulate matter are macrophagous. e.g., frog, lizard and carnivores. 1079. In rabbit xiphoid cartilage is present in : (a) pelvic girdle (b) humerus (c) sternum (d) axis vertebra UPPCS Pre 2009 Ans. (c) : In rabbit xiphoid cartilage is present in sternum. The xiphoid process, also known as the xiphisternum, is vestigial cartilage attached to the lowest end of the sternum body located in the inner side of the peritoneum. 1080. Gestation period of rabbit is : (a) 48 - 50 days (b) 60 -70 days (c) 18 - 20 days (d) 28 - 32 days TGT Biology 2013 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (d) : The gestation (Pregnancy) period in rabbit ranges from 28-32 days (approximately 30 days). Female rabbits (Does) can become pregnant when they are 12 weeks old and can continue to have babies up to the age of four years. When a doe gives birth, it is called kindling. Kindling takes around 15 minutes and usually occurs in the early hours of the morning. 1081. Which of the following is the 11th cranial nerve of rabbit ? (a) Pneumogastric (b) Trigeminal (c) Spinal accessory (d) Oculomotor UPPCS Pre 2010 Ans. (c) : Rabbit has 12 pair of cranial nerve and 37 pair of spinal nerve. The first 10 pairs of cranial nerve are similar in frog and rabbit. Spinal assessory, 11th, is the pair of cranial nerve, it is found in the neck of the rabbit and is the motor nerve. 1082. The kidneys of adult rabbit are : (a) Opisthonephros (b) Pronephros (c) Mesonephros (d) Metanephros TGT Biology 2005 Ans. (d) : The metanephric kidneys are a paired compact organ whose functional units are nephrons. The nephrons filter initial urine from the blood, reabsorbing water and nutrients and secrete wastes, producing the final urine, which is expelled. The kidney of adult rabbit is metanephros type. 1083. The third ventricle is found in the : (a) hearts of rabits (b) brains of rabbits (c) hearts of insects (d) brains of insects TGT Biology 2004 Ans. (b) : The third ventricle is found in the brains of rabbits. The third ventricle of rabbit's brain is called as diocoel. The ventricular system is a set of four interconnected cavities (Ventricles) in the brain, where the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is produced. Within each ventricle is a region of choroid plexus, a network of ependymal cell involved in the production of CSF.

1084. Cowper's gland is present in : (a) frogs (b) earthworms (c) cockroaches (d) rabbits TGT Biology 2004 Ans. (d) : Cowper's gland is present in mammalian males and as the rabbit is a mammal hence these are also present in rabbit. These are also known as the bulbourethral gland. These are two complex pea-shaped glands situated at either side of the urethra. They secrete an alkaline fluid in the urethra which provides lubrication. It also neutralises the acidity of the urine.

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YCT

Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 1085. Fertilization of ovum takes place in Rabbit, man and other placental mammals : (a) Ovary (b) Vagina (c) Fallopian tubes (d) Uterus TGT Biology 2002 Ans. (c) : In most mammals, fertilization of the ovum take place in the fallopian tubes. After fertilization initial process of cell division occurs in the fallopian tube that leads to the formation of the morula and blastula stage. After this blastula enters the uterine cavity (the inside of the uterus). 1086. Cells of Rauber are found in : (a) rabbit (b) chick (c) frog (d) Amphioxus PGT Biology 2013 Ans. (a) : Cell of Rauber are found in rabbit. Cell of rauber are found in the trophoblast cells in contact with the inner cell mass of the blastocyst. Blastocyst contains blastomeres which are arranged into an outer layer called the inner cell mass (ICM). 1087. Number of lobes in right and left lungs of rabbit are : (a) two, four (b) one, two (c) four, two (d) six, three PGT Biology 2010 Ans. (c) : The right lung of rabbit consisted of four lobes; cranial lobe, middle lobe, caudal lobe and accessory lobe, while the left lung consisted of two lobes; cranial and caudal lobes. Moreover, the rabbit has four pulmonary veins. Two of these veins arise from both the lungs. The lungs are the main organs that help in the breathing and the exchange of gases in all mammals. 1088. 'Haversian system' is characteristic feature in the bones of : (a) Frog (b) Fowl (c) Rabbit (d) Varanus PGT Biology 2004 Ans. (c) : Haversian system or osteon is a characteristic feature of rabbit mammalian bone. It is basic unit of compact bone. Each Haversian system has a cylindrical structure, which is surrounded by Haversian lamellae. It is absent in spongy bone of mammals. 1089. The glomeruli in rabbit are limited to : (a) Cortex (b) Medulla (c) Pyramidal tissue (d) All over the kidney GIC Biology 14.06.2015 Ans. (a) : The glomeruli in rabbit are limited to cortex. The renal artery forms a tuft of capillaries in the bowman's capsule which is known as a glomerulus. The efferent arteriole carries blood away from the glomerulus. It has a smaller diameter than the afferent arteriole, which creates some resistance to blood flow, Producing the backup of blood in the glomerulus, which creates higher pressure in the glomerular cavity. 1090. The dental formula of rabbit is 2 0 3 3 3 1 3 1 (a) I C PM M (b) I C PM M 1 0 2 3 3 1 2 1 1 0 0 3 3 0 0 3 (c) I C PM M (d) I C PM M 0 0 0 3 1 0 0 3 UPPCS Pre 2009 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (a) : 28 teeth are found in rabbit and its dental 2 0 3 3 formula is I C PM M 1 0 2 3 3 1 3 1 Dental formula of cat - I C PM M 3 1 2 1 1 0 3 3 Dental formula of elephant - I C PM M 0 0 3 3 1 0 0 3 Dental formula of rat - I C PM M 1 0 0 3 1091. If alpha cells in the pancreas of an adult rabbit are destroyed then the affected process is : (a) Proteolysis (b) Cytolysis (c) Glycogenesis (d) Glycogenolysis PGT Biology 2009 Ans. (d) : The hormone glucagon is secreted from alpha cell (α) in the pancreas of an adult rabbit which regulate the bio-action by converting stored glycogen into glucose, so if the alpha cell of pancreas are damage, glycogen will be not changed into glucose, that is the action of glycogenolysis will be affected.

G.

Poisonous and Non-Poisonous Snakes

1092. Which of the snakes found in India is nonpoisonous? (a) King Cobra (b) Banded Krait (c) Boa constrictor (d) Brown Himalayan viper UP PGT 17/08/2021 Ans. (c) : Boa constrictor is a non-poisonous snake found in India. It is also called the red-tailed boa or the common boa. It is a large snake that can reach lengths of up to 4 metres, and its teeth are sharp and recurved. Boa constrictors strike when they perceive a threat. Their bite can be painful, but it is rarely dangerous to humans. 1093. Which of the following are poisonous ? (a) Pit viper (b) Krait (c) Coral snakes (d) All of the above UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (d) : Pit viper, Krait and coral snakes all are Poisonous. • Pit vipers (Crotalinae) are a subfamily of venomous vipers found in Eurasia and the Americas. Pit viper venom is a highly complex mix of toxins including metalloproteinases that cause local tissue destruction and thrombin-like proteins that cause coagulopathy. • Krait belongs to cobra family (Elapidae) Its venom contains β-bungarotoxin a presynaptic blocker which causes muscle paralysis. • Coral snakes are a large groups of elapid snakes. All coral snakes possess a highly potent neurotoxic venom. 1094. In poisonous snakes fangs are attached to (a) Mandible (b) Maxilla (c) Premaxilla (d) Quadrate PGT Biology 2010 Ans. (b) : In poisonous snakes fangs are attached to maxilla. It has paired, pointed and hook like teeth, which are the modified form of maxillary teeth. They are long, curved, sharp and pointed. Sacs produce a poisonous liquid called venom.

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YCT

Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 1095.Assertion (A) : Snake venom if ingested orally will be digested and causes no harm if alimentary canal is not injured. Reason (R) : Snake venom becomes fatal only when it enters blood stream. Find the correct answer with the help of the codes given below : Code : (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (d) (A) is false, but (R) is true. UPPCS Pre 2006 Ans. (a) : Snake venom ingested orally will be digested causes no harm. It is correct. Venom is fatal only when it enter in blood stream (R) is the correct explanation of (A). 1096. In poisonous snakes, fangs are modified (a) Maxillary teeth (b) Mandibular teeth (c) Molar teeth (d) None of these UPPCS Pre 1995, UPPCS Pre 2004 UPPCS Pre 2002, 2008 TGT Biology 2009 GIC Biology 15/09/2015 UP PGT 2016 Ans. (a) Fang is a long pointed tooth in snakes. Its function is to inject venom into the enemies or prey. In snakes, the two maxillary teeth are grooved, elongated or tubular which forms the poison gland. In snakes, it's a specialized tooth that's related to a venom gland (snake venom). Fang is a modified maxillary tooth.

1097. Which is the vestigial organ of Python? (a) Nose (b) Scales (c) Teeth (d) Hind limbs Bihar PGT 2019 Ans. (d) : Vestigial organs is the organs which occur in reduced form and are useless to the possessor, but are homologous to the fully developed, functional organs of related animals. The snakes have evolved from the lizard like reptiles bearing two pairs of functional limbs, but due to change in their mode of life, have lost the limbs and girdles completely. The Pythons and boas still retain pelvic girdles and the hind limbs in a reduced condition. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

1098.Which of the following is a non-poisonous snake: (a) Crotalus (b) Hydrophis (c) Zamenis (d) Ancistrodon UPPCS Pre 1994 Ans. (c) : Some non-venomous snakes are - Northern water snakes, four lined snake, Eastern Garter snake, Emerald Tree Boa, Rough green snake, Bull snake, Black rat snake, Milk snake, Python, Anaconda etc. Zamenis mucosus is also known as rat-snake. It is also a non-poisonous snake. 1099.Which one of the following, is a viviparous snake ? (a) Bungarus (b) Naja naja (c) Natrix piscicator (d) Vipera russelli UPPCS Pre 2007 Ans. (d) : The Vipera russelli is known as the viviparous snake. The Viper is easy to identify as the head is relatively small and is short, wide, pear-shaped and distinct from the neck and is covered with cephalic scales with serrated keels. Vivipary means development of the embryo inside the body of the mother eventually leading to live birth, as opposed to laying eggs. The members of the boidae family, which includes Boa constrictors and Anacondas, also give birth to live young. 1100. Viper venom is : (a) neurotoxic (b) Proteolytic (c) haemotoxic (d) none of the above UPPCS Pre 2009 Ans. (c) : Vipers-including rattle snakes, copperheads and cotton mouths- have primarily hemotoxic venom. Haemotoxicity is one of the common clinical signs in the victims of snakebite, particularly when viperid snakes are responsible for envenomings. Broadly speaking, haemotoxic venoms can have cardiovascular and/or haemostatic effects. 1101. Which of the following is a South Indian pitless viper? (a) Xanochrophis piscator (b) Echis carinatus (c) Lachesis strigatus (d) Ancistrodon himalayanus UPPCS Pre 2010 Ans. (b) : Echis carinatus is also known as saw scaled viper, Indian saw-scaled viper, little Indian viper. It is a venomous viper species found in parts of the middle east and central Asia and especially the Indian subcontinent. This is one of four common venomous snakes of medical importance in India. Echis carinatus is endemic to Asia. 1102.Haemolytic venom, which breaks down red blood corpuscles, is produced by which of the following snakes ? (a) Cobra (b) Krait (c) King Cobra (d) Viper UPPCS Pre 2007

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (a) : Snake neurotoxins are the main toxic Ans. (d) : Haemolytic venom, which breaks down red proteins of cobra, krait, tiger snake and sea snake blood corpuscles, is produced by viper snakes. Elapid venoms which block neuromuscular transmission and snakes - including, coral snakes, cobras, mambas, sea cause animals death of respiratory paralysis. snakes, and kraits - have primarily neurotoxic venom. In contrast, vipers - including rattles snakes, Even though snake venom is toxic to the human body, copperheads, and cottonmouths have primarily it is also used to treat disease. hemotoxic venom. 1107.Which one of the following snake is a poisonous 1103.In a snake, if the head scales are large shields one : with a loreal pit between the nostrils and the (a) Typhlops (b) Zamenis eye, then it is : (c) Hydrophis (d) Tropidonotus (a) Krait (b) Cobra UPPCS Pre 2000 (c) Viper (d) King Cobra Ans. (c) : Hydrophis is a sea-snake is poisonous. PGT Biology 2002 Hydrophis belcheri, belcher's sea snake is an UPPCS Pre 2007 extremely venomous species of elapid sea snake. Its bitten are fisherman handling net. Generally not very Ans. (c) : The loreal pit is a deep depression, or fossa, dangerous. Its LD50 toxicity in mice has been in the loreal area on other side of the head in vipers determined to be 0.24 mg/kg when delivered (Crotaline snakes). It is located behind the nostril and intramuscularly. in front of the eye, but below the line that runs between the centers of each. It is external opening to 1108. Consider the following statements: an extremely sensitive infrared detecting organ. The Assertion (A) : Venom of poisonous snake is loreal pit is bordered by lacunal scales. The loreal pit primarily a digestive juice. also functions as part of a thermal regulating system, Reason (R) : It is capable of digesting things enabling pit vipers to maintain their body temperature. like feathers, scales, hairs, horns, etc. 1104.The given diagram shows scales on the head of a Select the correct answer using the codes given snake, numbered 1 to 7. The scale numbered 3 is below: used as one the characters in the identification of : Codes: (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not a correct explanation of (A) (c) (A) is true but (R) is false (d) (A) is false but (R) is true. UPPCS Pre 2008 (a) Pitless-and pit vipers (b) Kraits Ans. (a) : (A) Venom of poisonous snakes is primarily (c) Python (d) Cobra and Coral snake a digestive juice. UPPCS Pre 2000 (R) It is capable of digesting things like feathers, scales, hairs, horns etc. Ans. (d) : 3rd supra touch eye and nostril out of 7 is the characteristic feature of Cobra and Coral snake. If Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct the third supra-labial shield touches the nostril and explanation of (A). eye, then it a poisonous snake, may be cobra, king- 1109. Poison glands of snakes are actually : cobra or coral snake. If the neck is without hood and (a) labial glands (b) tear glands coral spots are present on the belly, it is a coral snake. (c) sebaceous glands (d) salivary glands If the neck is with hood and markings, it is cobra. Both cobra and coral snakes are poisonous. UPPCS Pre 2002 UPPCS Pre 1999 1105.Cobra snake can be distinguished from other snakes by its : UPPCS Pre 2008 (a) Black colour (b) Agile habit Ans. (d) : Salivary glands of snakes are modified to act as poison glands to serve as protection against (c) Hood (d) Round tail predators. Snake venom contains a toxin that helps to UPPCS Pre 1996 defend a threat. The glands that secrete the toxins are a Ans. (c) : Cobra snake is characterized by hood and modification of the parotid salivary glands and are 3rd supralabial. usually situated on each side of the head, below and behind the eye and encapsulated in a muscular sheath. Cobra is any of various species of highly venomous snakes, which expand the neck ribs to form a hood. 1110.Flat and laterally compressed tail is the They are found from southern Africa, Asia and islands characteristic feature of : of south east Asia. (a) Land snakes 1106. The venom of Cobra is : (b) Sea snakes (a) Neurotoxic (b) Hemolytic (c) Non-Poisonous snakes (c) Cardiotoxic (d) Hepatotoxic (d) Both land and sea snakes UPPCS Pre 2005 UPPCS Pre 1995 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar 158 YCT

Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (b) : The laterally compressed & flat tail is 1115.Venom injected into a person by the bite of a rattle snake usually travels inside the body : feature of sea snake eg. Hydrophis. Terrestrial snakes have cylindrical tail. (a) through vascular circulation All sea snakes have paddle-like tails and many have (b) through lymphatic circulation laterally compressed bodies that give them an eel-like (c) through tissue directly appearance. They are venomous snake and live in (d) through muscles marine environment. UPPCS Pre 2004 1111.Which one of the following is a characteristic feature of sea snakes : Ans. (a) : Rattle snake are haemotoxic so venom travel inside the body through vascular circulation. (a) Round tail (b) Flat tail Hemotoxins target tissues and blood, causing (c) Tail with rattle (d) Tail without scales UPPCS Pre 2002 hemorrhaging and necrosis. Their venom is really a cocktail of chemical elements. Ans. (b) : Flat tail is the characteristic feature of sea 1116.Consider the following statements : snake. eg. Hydrophis. Assertion (A) : Snakes are well known for their 1112. Which is a wrong statement about the snakes ? lidless glassy stare. (a) Snakes are both oviparous and viviparous Reason (R) : Nictitating membranes are replaced (b) Snakes can eat other snakes. by a transparent fixed spectacle in snakes. (c) Snakes are fast swimmers. Select the correct answer using codes given below: (d) Sea snakes are non-poisonous Code : UPPCS Pre 2002 (a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct UPPCS Pre 2008 explanation of A. Ans. (d) : Sea snakes are very poisonous. They are a (b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the subfamily of elapid snakes, the Hydrophiinae that in correct explanation of A. habit marine environment and feeds on fish eggs. They (c) A is true but R is false are perhaps the most abundant reptiles on earth and all (d) R is false but A is correct 52 species are venomous, with several species capable of severe envenomation. Their venom is highly toxic UPPCS Pre 2004 but the actual bite may be painless. Ans. (a) : Snake are well known for their lidless 1113.Which one of the following sets is not correctly glassy stare is true but Nictitating membrane are matched : absent and it is replaced by transparent fixed spectacle (a) All snakes – lack of external ear in snake. So, both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (b) Poison glands – parotid glands snakes (c) Snake cast – epidermal 1117.Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer from the code given below the list : (d) All snakes – deaf List-I List-II UPPCS Pre 2003 (Common name) (Scientific name) Ans. (d) : All snakes are not deaf, snakes hear through the eye and feel the sensation by skin. (a) Krait 1. Crotalus Snakes, as a group, have the least developed sense of (b) Rattle Snake 2. Viper hearing, but they can hear. They lack visible ears, but (c) Russell's viper 3. Bungarus have vestiges ears located in the interior part of their (d) Common wolf snake 4. Lycodon head. That setup is connected up to their jawbones so that they sense vibrations thoroughly and can listen to Code : low frequency airborne noises. A B C D 1114.Given : (a) 1 2 3 4 1. poison gland 2. fangs (b) 3 1 2 4 3. associated muscles 4. associated bones (c) 2 3 4 1 In the biting mechanism of venomous snakes (d) 4 3 2 1 which of the above structures are involved? UPPCS Pre 2004 (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only Ans. (b) : The correct match of List-I and List-II is (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4 only given below : UPPCS Pre 2004 List-I List-II Ans. (c) : The biting mechanism of venomous snake (Common name) (Scientific name) involve the structure poison gland, fangs, associated Krait Bungarus muscles, associated bones. The poison apparatus consists of a pair of poison glands, their ducts, fangs Rattle snake Crotalus and muscles. Bones associated in activating the poison Russell's viper Viper apparatus are maxilla, pterygoid, ectopterygoid or Common wolf snake Lycodon trans-palatine and quadrate. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 1118.Which one of the following is not a poisonous snake: (a) Krait (b) Viper (c) Boa (d) Cobra UPPCS Pre 2002 Ans. (c) : Boa also called Eryx johnii is nonpoisonous snake. Thick and bearing a false resemblance to head hence the common name double headed snake. 1119.Which one of the following is not poisonous snake: (a) Naja naja (b) Vipera russelli (c) Bungarus bungarus (d) Ptyas mucosa UPPCS Pre 1999 Ans. (d) : Cobra – Naja naja Krait – Bungarus bungarus Russell's viper – Vipera russelli are poisonous snakes. Ptyas mucosa called Dhaman or Rat snake. It is non poisonous snake. 1120. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer from the code given below the list : List-I List-II A. Cobra 1. A row of hexagonal scales on the back B. Krait 2. Non-poisonous C. Pit-viper 3. 5th infralabial largest D. Python 4. 3rd supralabial touches orbit and nares 5. A double row of subcaudals Code : A B C D (a) 4 1 3 2 (b) 3 4 1 2 (c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 1 2 3 4 UPPCS Pre 1998, 1999 Ans. (a) List–I A. Cobra

1.

B. Krait

2.

C. Pit-viper D. Python

3. 4.

List–II 3rd supralabial touches orbit and nares A row of hexagonal scales on the back 5th infralabial largest Non-poisonous

1121. Zygantra and Zygosphenes are found in the vertebra of (a) snakes (b) birds (c) aquatic mammals (d) fishes UPPCS Pre 2009 Ans. (a) : Zygantra and Zygosphenes are found in the vertebra of snakes. They help in the movement of the snakes. 1122. Which of the following is not correctly matched? (a) Naja - neurotoxic venom (b) Bungarus - neurotoxic venom (c) Crotalus - neurotoxic venom (d) Ancistrodon - haemotoxic venom UPPCS Pre 2010 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (*) : Naja neurotoxic venom Bungarus neurotoxic venom Crotalus neurotoxic venom Ancistrodon haemotoxic venom All the options are correct match. 1123. Which of the following snakes is not poisonous? (a) Cobra (b) Python (c) Krait (d) Viper PGT Biology 2005 TGT Biology 2010 Delhi SSB PGT Biology 2015 Ans. (b) : Python is not poisonous or non venomous snakes found in Africa, Asia and Australia in the family phythonidae. They are some of the largest snakes in the world. All cobra or nag, viper and krait and sea snakes are poisonous snakes. 1124. Reason of death of patient of Cobra-bite is– (a) Destruction of R. B. C. (b) Permanent contraction of muscles (c) Inactivation of nerves (d) None of these TGT Biology 2002 Ans. (c) : Reason of death of patient of cobra bite is inactivation of nerves. Their venom is not the most potent among venomous snakes, but the amount of neurotoxin they can deliver in a single bite up to two tenths of a fluid ounce - is enough to kill 20 people or even an elephant. King cobra venom affects the respiratory centers in the brain, inactivation of nerves causing respiratory arrest and cardiac failure. 1125. Snakes are sensitive to (a) noise made by birds (b) earth borne vibrations (c) thunder (d) air borne vibrations PGT Biology 2013 Ans. (b) : Snake are sensitive to earth borne vibrations. Snakes do not have eardrums, but they do have inner ear structures complete with cochleas and are able to hear by feeling the vibrations alongside their jaws as they slither on the ground. As a result , snakes can sense vibrations from either the left side or the right helping to determine where sounds originate. 1126. Fresh water snakes are generally (a) non-poisonous (b) poisonous (c) both poisonous and non-poisonous (d) highly poisonous PGT Biology 2009 Ans. (a) : The freshwater snakes are found along Creeks, swamps, rivers. In general, the freshwater snakes are non-venomous, inoffensive Creatures. Freshwater snake might be on occasions be painful, but are harmless because these snakes neither had fangs or poison glands. But unlike freshwater snakes, sea snakes are highly poisonous.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 4

3. Animal Cells 4.

In eukaryotic cell, the arrangement of axonemal microtubules in_________ is referred to as the 9 + 2 array. (a) Cilia (b) Flagella The cell organelles of eukaryotic cells are 1. (c) Both moved by : (d) None (a) Actin filaments only TGT 07/08/2021 (b) Microtubules only Ans. (c) : The study of a cilium or the flagellum shows (c) Both actin filaments and microtubules that they are covered with plasma membrane. Their core (d) Both cilia and flagella is called axoneme, it possesses a number of TGT (2016) 31/07/2021 microtubules running parallel to the long axis. The Ans. (c) : The cell organelles of eukaryotic cells are axoneme usually has nine pairs of doublets of radially moved by both actin filaments and microtubules. arranged peripheral microtubules and a pair centrally Cytoskeletal filaments provide the basis for cell located microtubules. Such an arrangement of axonemal movement. For instance, cilia and (eukaryotic) flagella microtubules is referred as the 9 + 2 array. move as a result of microtubules sliding along each other. In fact, cross sections of these tail - like cellular extensions show organized arrays of microtubules. 2. A prokaryotic cell lacks ? (a) only histones in its DNA (b) only cytoskeleton (c) only sub-cellular organelles (d) all of the above UPPCS Pre 2001 UP PGT 17/08/2021 5. Both Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic cells have the Ans. (d) : A prokaryotic cell lacks sub-cellular common organelles, cytoskeleton, and histones in its DNA. The (a) Mitotic apparatus absence of all these structures differentiates prokaryotes (b) Histone from eukaryotes. Most prokaryotes carry a small amount of genetic material in the form of a single molecule, or (c) Genetic code chromosome, of circular DNA. Prokaryotic cells are (d) Mitochondria surrounded by a plasma membrane, but they have no GIC 19/09/2021 internal membrane bound organelles. 3. In Prokaryotes, of the following which is Ans. (c) : Both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells have the common genetic code. It is the sequence of absent? nucleotides in DNA and RNA that determines the (a) Nuclear membrane amino acid sequence of proteins. It is a set of rules (b) Mitochondria defining how the four letter code of DNA is translated (c) Chloroplast into the 20-letter code of amino acids. The genetic code (d) All of the above is universal. All known living organisms use the same TGT 07/08/2021 genetic code.

1.

Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic Cells

Ans. (d) : Prokaryotic cells lack nuclear envelope, 6. membrane-bound cell organelles like endoplasmic reticulum (ER), lysosomes, mitochondria etc. They have DNA as genetic material, cell wall, cell membrane and 70s ribosomes. Nuclear membrane, chloroplast, mitochondria, and microtubules are absent in prokaryotic cells. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Which of the following does not have cell wall? (a) Archaebacteria (b) Cyanobacteria (c) Mycoplasma (d) Nostoc RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) YCT

Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (c) : Mycoplasma does not have cell wall. It is a genus of bacteria that can be parasitic or saprotrophic. Cells walls are unnecessary in Mycoplasma because the cells only live in the controlled osmotic environment of other cells. Because of the absence of cell wall, Mycoplasma have a spherical shape and are quickly killed if placed in an environment with very high or very low salt concentrations. They are the smallest, disease causing organisms. 7.

Which of the following causes food poisoning due to consumption of raw eggs ? (a) Salmonella typhi (b) Escherichia coli (c) Bacillus megathrium (d) Clostridium Botullium UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (a) : Food poisoning due to consumption of raw eggs is caused by Salmonella typhi. Salmonella is a genus of rod-shaped, gram-negative bacteria. Raw and undercooked eggs contain may Salmonella, which contaminates the outside of the egg and penetrates through the shell membrane. Symptoms of Salmonella food poisoning include stomach cramps, diarrhea, vomiting, and fever. Salmonella typhi infect the intestinal tract and the blood.

8.

The type of bacteria that bear one flagellum at each end is known as – (a) Amphitrichous (b) Lophotrichous (c) Peritrichous (d) Cephalotrichous UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (a) : The bacteria that bear are flagellum at each end is known as Amphitrichous. Ex- Aquaspirillum. • Lophotrichous bacteria bear several flagella forming a tuft, that comes from one or both ends of the cell. Ex.- Pseudomonas fluorescens • Peritrichous bacteria bear multiple flagella attached all over the surface of bacterial cell. Ex. E.coli, Salmonella. • Cephalotrichous bacteria bears a group of flagella extending from both the ends.

9.

The gram positive bacteria is : (a) Escherichia coli (b) Staphylococcus (c) Salmonella enterica (d) Haemophilus influenzae UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020

TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (b) : The gram-positive bacteria is Staphylococcus. • Gram-positive bacteria retain the crystal violet colour even after they are washed with acetone or alcohol, and appear as purple-coloured when examined under the microscope after gram staining. ExampleStreptococcus, Staphylococcus, etc. • Gram-negative bacteria do not retain the stain colour even after they are washed with acetone or alcohol, and appear as pink-coloured when examined under the microscope after gram-staining. Example- Escherichia, Salmonella, etc. 10. Cry-I endotoxins obtained from Bacillus thuringiensis are effective against – (a) Nematodes (b) Boll worms (c) Mosquitoes (d) Flies UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (b) : Cry-I endotoxins obtained from Bacillus thuringiensis are effective against boll worms. These are pore-forming toxins. During spore formation the bacteria produce crystals of such proteins (hence the name cry toxins). A ball worm is a common term for any larva of a moth that attacks the fruiting bodies of certain crops, especially cotton. The proteins encoded by the genes cry Ac and cry Ab control the cotton boll worms. 11. The programmed cell death is also known as – (a) Totipotency (b) Autopsy (c) Apoptosis (d) Cladotopsis UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (c) : The programmed cell death is also known as apoptosis. It is a very orderly process during which the genome of the cell is broken down, the cell is fragmented into smaller pieces and the debris is consumed by nearby cells (phagocytes) that clean up the cell fragments. Apoptosis can be triggered by mild cellular injury and by various factors internal or external to the cell. 12. Physiologically induced cell death is : (a) Necrosis (b) Haemolysis (c) Osmosis (d) Apoptosis Bihar PGT 2019 Ans. (d) : Apoptosis is a physiological process of cell death by which a single cell may be eliminated from the living tissue. Since the process is mediated by specific proteins encoded in the host's genome, it is also a programmed cell death. 13. Most human cells are surrounded by an aqueous solution celled: (a) Lymph (b) Plasma (c) Interstitial fluid (d) Serum UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (c) : Most human cells are surrounded by aqueous 17. Which one of the following is an autotrophic bacterium ? solution called interstitial fluid. It is the fluid that fills (a) Nitrobacter (b) Clostridium the spaces between cells. It is composed of water, (c) Rhizobium (d) Azotobacter amino acids, sugars, fatty acids, coenzymes, hormones, neurotransmitters, salts and cellular products. UK SSSC L.T. (21/01/2018) • Lymph is the fluid that flows through the lymphatic Ans. (a) : Nitrobacter is an autotrophic bacterium. It is a genus comprising rod-shaped, gram-negative, and system and it is formed from, the interstitial fluid. • Plasma is clear, straw-colored liquid portion of blood chemoautotrophic bacteria. Chemoautotrophs are organisms that perform chemosynthesis. These that remains after the RBCs, WBCs and platelets are organisms use the energy released during the oxidation removed. process in the synthesis of ATP molecules. Nitrobacter • Serum is the portion of the plasma remaining after play an important role in the nitrogen cycle by oxidizing nitrite into nitrate in soil and marine systems. coagulation of blood. 14. Which one of the following is a free living ⇒Clostridium, Rhizobium and Azotobacter are heterotrophic bacteria, because they use organic nitrogen fixing bacteria? nutrients for growth. (a) Azotobactor (b) Rhizobium 18. Structure made up of sphingolipid is – (c) Streptococcus (d) Clostridium (a) Myelin sheath (b) Nissl's body UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 (c) Neurolemma (d) Dendrone Ans. (a) : Azotobacter is free-living nitrogen fixing RPSC School Lecturer 2011 bacteria. It is a gram negative, aerobic soil dwelling Ans. (a) : Structure made up of sphingolipid is myelin oval or spherical bacteria that from thick walled cysts. sheath. Sphingolipids are a complex family of Reduction of inert atmospheric nitrogen to ammonia by compounds produced by eukaryotes and some living organisms is called biological nitrogen fixation. prokaryotes and viruses to play structural role such as There is unique system of three distinct nitrogenase formation of lipoprotein. enzymes makes theses bacteria of particular interest in 19. The sedimentation coefficient of ribosomes understanding nitrogen fixation. Azotobacter have the found in bacteria is – highest metabolic rate of any organisms. (a) 70 S (b) 55 S 15. Which among the following is not an example (c) 80 S (d) 60 S of prokaryotic cell? RPSC School Lecturer 2011 (a) Bacteria (b) Chlorella Ans. (a) : Sedimentation coefficient found in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes. Eukaryotic ribosomes are (c) Mycoplasma (d) Nostoc RPSC School Lecturer (23/07/2016) called 80s (Svedberg) ribosomes while prokaryotes such as bacteria have a smaller version called 70s ribosomes. Ans. (b) : An organism that does not possess a true The eukaryotic ribosomes are made up of 60s and 40s nucleus (nucleus with nuclear membrane) and subunits. While the prokaryotic ribosomes are made up membrane- bounded organelles are called as of two subunits 50s and 30s. Prokaryotes. Monerans are Prokaryotes. E.g- bacteria 20. Most of the prokaryotic cells is not found: (Mycobacterium), Cyanobacteria (Nostoc and (a) cholesterol (b) cardiolipin Mycoplasama and Oscillatoria). Chlorella and (c) nucleic acid (d) ribosomes Chlamydomonas are genera of single - called algae and UP LT 2018 they are eukaryotic. Ans. (a) : Cholesterol is absent in prokaryotic cells. 16. Mesosomes are not associated with : Cholesterol is universally present in large amount (a) cell wall formation (b) DNA rreplication (20–40%) in eukaryotic plasma membranes, whereas it is universally absent in the membranes of (c) respiration (d) protein synthesis prokaryotes. Cholesterol plays an essential structural RPSC School Lecturer (23/07/2016) role in maintaining the fluidity of eukaryotic cell membranes. Ans. (d) : The Mesosomes are of two types based on position and function. 22. Sympatric speciation occurs due to : (a) Polyploidy (b) Aneuploidy ♦ Peripheral mesosome- situated near the cell (c) Isolation (d) None of the above membrane in the peripheral part and their main function is cell respiration and cell wall secretion. Which is UP LT 2018 analogous to mitochondria. Ans. (a) : Sympatric speciation occurs when ♦ Central mesosomes- Situated in the cytoplasm and populations of a species that share the same habitat become reproductively isolated from each other. This their main function is providing help in DNA speciation phenomenon most commonly occurs replication and cell division. through polyploidy, in which an offspring or group of Thereby, protein synthesis in not a function of offspring will be produced with twice the normal mesosome. number of chromosomes. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 22.

A prokaryotic cell contains : (a) Two linear DNA strands and histones (b) Single circular DNA strand without histones (c) Chromosomes inside the nucleus (d) Nucleoli and centrioles UPPCS Pre 2006 Ans. (b) : A prokaryotic cell contain single circular DNA strand without histone. It is prokaryotic characteristics. Double strand DNA and histone is eukaryotic character. Chromosome inside the nucleus is a eukaryotic character. Nucleoli present inside the nucleus and centriole outside the nucleus is a eukaryotic character. 23. Desmosome is the modification of : (a) Plasma membrane (b) Endoplasmic reticulum (c) Golgi bodies (d) ER-nucleus complex UPPCS Pre 2006 Ans. (a) : Desmosome is the modification of plasma membrane. Cells are connected with each other by desmosomes. Endoplasmic reticulum is associated with nucleus. Ribosome attached on E.R. take part in protein synthesis. Golgi complex, is traffic police of cell and take part in acrosome formation.

24. Desmosome is associated with (a) Cell division (b) Animal cell adhesion (c) Plant cell adhesion (d) Bacterial adhesion Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (b) : A desmosome or macula adherens can be defined as a specialized cellular structure which helps in cell-to-cell adhesion. It is formed from protein plaques which are present in the cell membranes and are linked by filaments. They are found in animals cell which acts like welds between adjacent epithelial cells and connects them. 25. Which of the following is devoid of nuclear membrane and mitochondria : (a) Bacteria (b) Bacteria and blue-green algae (c) Mammalian erythrocyte (d) All of the above UPPCS Pre 2001 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (d) : Nuclear membrane and mitochondria is absent in bacteria, blue-green algae and mammalian erythrocyte. All bacteria lack nuclear membrane and mitochondria. Though often referred to as algae, bluegreen algae are not algae at all, but types of bacteria called cyanobacteria. A mature erythrocyte lacks nucleus and mitochondria so as to make a place for the accomodation of more hemoglobin. 26. The dictum "Omnis cellula e cellula" (call cells arise from pre existing cells) was given by the following : (a) L. Pasteur (b) R. Virchow (c) M. Fleming (d) H.A. Krebs UPPCS Pre 2000 Ans. (b) : "Omnis cellula e cellula" was given by Rudolf Virchow in 1855. The complete quote is "Omnis cellula e cellula" he said again and again every cell is born of a previous cell. Life comes from life. This theory is also known as cell lineage theory. 27. First eukaryotes were : (a) monerans (b) protistans (c) protozoans (d) cyanobacteria UPPCS Pre 2002 UPPCS Pre 2008 Ans. (b) : First eukaryotes were protistans. The simple protist were similar to bacteria but they gradually evolved as eukaryotes wherein each cell is having a nucleus. They are not animal, plant or fungus but they may be closely related to plants. They may survive alone or may exist as groups as per the convenience. 28. The prokaryotic genetic system contains : (a) Both DNA and histones (b) DNA but no histones (c) Histones but no DNA (d) No DNA and no histones UPPCS Pre 1996 Ans. (b) : In prokaryotes, genetic system contain only DNA but no histones. In Eukaryotes, both DNA and histone formed genetic system. Genetic information in prokaryotic cells is carried on a single circular piece of DNA which is attched to the cell membrane and in direct contact with the cytoplasm. 29. The most abundant molecule of a cells is : (a) DNA (b) RNA (c) Protein (d) Water UPPCS Pre 1996 Ans. (d) : • Water is the most abundant molecule in cell, near about 70% or more of total cell mass. • Cells are composed of water, inorganic ions, and carbon-containing (organic) molecules. • Most of the organic molecules belong to carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, or nucleic acid. 30. Which of the following is in exception to Cell theory ? (a) Bacteria (b) Protists (c) Viruses (d) Protozoans UPPCS Pre 1995

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (c) : Cell theory is given by Schleiden and Schwann in 1839. The exception of cell theory is the virus. Virus are non-living crystalline entities which replicate in other living cells. They do not have a cellular structure. 31. The founder of cell theory was : (a) Wolff (b) Rudolf Virchow (c) Myer, Von Mohl and Raspail (d) Schleiden and Schwann UPPCS Pre 1999 TGT Biology 2009 UK PSC lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (d) : The cell theory was propounded by German biologist Schleiden (botanist) and Theodor Schwann (zoologist). The cell theory states that cells are fundamental structural units of plants and animals & all living organisms. A major expansion of the cell theory was expressed by Rudolf Virchow, a German pathologist in 1855. According to him, all cells arise from pre-existing cells "Omnis cellula e cellula" Viruses are the smallest acellular organisms and they are exception to cell theory. 32. Which of the following scientists gave final touch to cell theory ? (a) Schleiden and Schwann(b) Swammerdam (c) Rudolf Virchow (d) Leeuwenhoek TGT Biology 2011 Ans. (c) : The final touch to the cell theory was given by "Rudolf Virchow" in 1855. Rudolf Virchow gave the concept of "Omnis cellula - e- cellula" which means new cells arise from the pre-existing cells. He modified the hypothesis of Schleiden and Schwann to give the cell theory a final shape. Cell theory as understood today is – (1) All living organisms are composed of cells and products of cells. (2) All cells arise from pre-existing cells. 33. Prokaryotes differ from eukaryotes in : (a) absence of nuclear membrane (b) having chromosomes (c) having 9 + 2 fibrillar structure in their flagella (d) their DNA protein association UPPCS Pre 1999 Ans. (a) : Prokaryotes have 70s Ribosome and eukaryotes have 80s Ribosome. Nucleolus is not found in prokaryotes. In answer, given Prokaryotes differ eukaryotes in the absence of nuclear membrane is correct. 34. The nuclear equivalent of prokaryotic organism is known as prokaryon or nucleoid and it : (a) has one true chromosome (b) has a proper nuclear membrane (c) does not divide by regular mitosis (d) some times has a nucleolus UPPCS Pre 2005 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (a) : The nuclear equivalent of prokaryotic organism is known as Prokaryon or nucleoid and it has one true chromosome. Prokaryotic cells typically have a single, circular, chromosome located in the nucleoid. In fact, a prokaryotic cell can undergo two round of DNA replication before the cell itself has divided. This means that DNA replication can occur during cell division in Prokaryotes. 35. A mature human erythrocyte has the typical characteristics of : (a) an eukaryotic cell (b) a prokaryotic cell (c) both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell (d) neither prokaryotic nor eukaryotic cell UPPCS Pre 2005 Ans. (d) : Mature human erythrocytes are eukaryotic cells which have lost their nucleus and organelles. Initially, the RBCs have nucleus but lose it with maturation. Prokaryotic cells include bacteria and archaea bacteria. Prokaryotes are exclusively unicellular with a naked DNA, while erythrocytes (RBCs) are part of a multicellular organism. All eukaryotic cells has a nucleus, but RBC doesn't. So they have properties of neither Prokaryotes nor eukaryotes. 36. Nucleoplasm and cytoplasm are separated by : (a) single layered membrane (b) two layered membrane (c) three layered membrane (d) multi-layered membrane UPPCS Pre 2009 Ans. (b) : Surrounding every nucleus is a double (two) layered membrane called the nuclear membrane or nuclear envelope. This membrane separates the nucleoplasm from the cytoplasm. The nuclear membrane consists of two lipid bilayers - the inner nuclear membrane. It also has many small holes called nuclear pores that allow materials to move in and out of the nucleus. 37. Which one of the following is not a feature of prokaryotic cell ? (a) Absence of nuclear membrane and the nucleus (b) Absence of cell organelles (c) Absence of genetic material (d) Absence of histone protein in the chromosome TGT Biology 2009 Ans. (c) : Absence of genetic material is not a feature of Prokaryotic cell. Eukaryotic cells contain membrane - bound organelles, such as the nucleus, while prokaryotic cells do not. Prokaryotes are organism without a cell nucleus (= Karyon), or any other membrane - bound organelles. They are unicellular. 38. Which one of the following is neither a prokaryote nor an eukaryote ? (a) Oscillatoria (b) T.M.V. (c) Yeast (d) E. Coli TGT Biology 2004

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (b) : T.M.V. (Tobacco mosaic virus) is a virus and it can not be placed either in the eukaryotes or prokaryotes because a virus does not have any characters of living things. It requires a host body to complete its replication and without the host it is considered non-living. And it is well known that anything which doesn't have its independent existence cannot be considered a cell, prokaryotic or eukaryotic. 39. Which among the following is not an example of prokaryotic cell ? (a) Bacteria (b) Chlorella (c) Mycoplasma (d) Nostoc Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2015 Ans. (b) : Chlorella is not an example of Prokaryotic cell. Chlorella is a freshwater algae, a unicellular plant organism with a spherical shape. Appeared on earth about 2.5 billion years ago, chlorella is composed of a eukaryotic cell (which has a nucleus) whose size of 5 to 10 µm is close to that of a red blood cell. 40.

Physical basis of life is : (a) cell (b) Nucleus (c) Protoplasm (d) Food Delhi SSB PGT Biology 2015 Ans. (c) : Protoplasm is the living matter. It was called the sarcode by Dujardin in 1835. The term 'Protoplasm' was coined by Purkinje in 1839. Huxley called protoplasm as the 'Physical basis of life,' in 1868, because all the properties of life reside in the protoplasm.

41.

The cytoskeleton of eukaryotic cells is formed by: (a) protein filaments (b) carbohydrate molecules (c) long–chain fatty acids (d) CaCO3 molecules LT Biology 2015 LT Biology 2018 Ans. (a) : The cytoskeleton is much like the skeleton of the body, but for cells. It is made up of protein filaments and gives them shape and support as well as internal organization. In addition, the cytoskeleton is important for cell movement and cell division.

42.

Which of the following elements is found in highest concentration in the eukaryotic cells ? (a) Iron (b) Phosphorus (c) Calcium (d) Sulphur GIC Biology 15.09.2015 Ans. (c) : A cell requires several mineral elements for various structural and metabolic roles. The calcium is the most abundant element in eukaryotic cells. It is required for integrity of plant cell wall. In animals, calcium is important for membrane permeability, muscle activity, blood clotting and its role as second messenger.

TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

43.

Who discovered that all cells arise from preexisting cells by cell division? (a) Rudolf Virchow (b) Robert Brown (c) T. Schwann (d) M. Schleiden RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) Ans. (a) : Rudolf Virchow discovered that all cells arise from pre-existing cells by cell divison. The classical cell theory was proposed by Schwann and Schleiden in 1839. The first part of this theory states that all organisms are made of cell. The second part states that cells are the basic units of life. The third part, which asserts that cells come from Preexisting cells that have multiplied, was described by Rudolf Virchow in 1858 44. Who propounded the 'cell theory' ? (a) Robert Hooke (b) Leeuwenhoek (c) Schleiden and Schwaan (d) Mendal UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (c) : Cell theory was propounded by Schleiden and Schwann. It is one of the basic principles of biology. There are three parts to this theory. The first part states that all organisms are made of cells. The second part states that cells are the basic units of life. The third parts states that cells arise from pre-existing cells. 45. Who first time explained that cells are formed from pre-existing cells? (a) Robert Brown (b) Robert Hooke (c) Theodore Schwann (d) Rudolf Virchow RPSC PGT Biology 2015 RPSC School Lecturer (23/07/2016) Ans. (d) : Rudolph Virchow (1821-1902) was a German physician anthropologist, politician and social reformer, but he is best known as the founder of the field of cellular pathology. He stressed that most of the diseases of mankind could be understood in terms of the dysfunctions of cells.

♦ 1855 Virchow published a statement based on his observations.

♦ It was believed that new cells were created from a fluid called blastema.

♦ It was also accepted in the early 1850s that imbalances in blastema caused diseases.

♦ His work led to scientists being able to diagnose diseases more accurately. **46. Smallest size of the cell which can be seen with naked eye : (a) 1 micron (b) 100 micron (c) 10 micron (d) 1000 micron Delhi SSB PGT Biology 2015 Ans. : (b) Smallest size of the cell which can be seen with naked eye is 100 micron. The human eye has a convex lens, and the visibility of the eye depends on its resolving power. Generally, the size range of cells like egg cells, unusually large bacteria, some amoeba and squid nerve cells are of the range of 100 micron and these are visible to the naked eye.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 47.

Mitochondria are found in : (a) all prokaryotic cells (b) all eukaryotic cells (c) all bacteria (d) the nucleus of prokaryotic cells UPPCS Pre 2006 Ans. (b) : Mitochondria is a cell organelle. They are found in all eukaryotic cells. It is not a nuclear material. Mitochondria is absent in all bacteria. Mitochondria is also called as power house of the cell because ATP are formed in mitochondria and release the energy. ATP full form is Adenosine tri phosphate. Mitochondria have oxysomes.

2. 48.

Ultra-Structure of Animal Cell

Movement of cytoplasm inside the cell is known as : (a) Diffusion (b) Solufluction (c) Cyclosis (d) Gelifluction UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (c) : Movement of cytoplasm inside the cell is known as cyclosis. It is also called cytoplasmic streaming. It helps in the intracellular transport of proteins, water and O2. Cyclosis mainly takes place due to the interaction of two motor proteins known as actin and myosin. It is observed generally in large plant and animal cells. It was first discovered in 1830.

49.

Ans. (c) : Golgi complex is found in all the cells except prokaryotic cells and RBCs. It is also known as golgi body or golgi apparatus. It is a membrane bound organelle, involved in the processing of proteins usually, each cell has one golgi body, but some may have more than one. It is situated near the nucleus and consist of 5-8 flattened membranous sac called the cisternae. 50.

Svedberg's unit stands for the measurement of the following : (a) Plasma membrane (b) Nucleic acid (c) Fatty acid (d) Ribosome UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (d) : Svedberg's unit stands for the measurement of ribosome. The unit is named after the Swedish chemist Theoder Svedberg, who won the Nobel Prize in chemistry in the year 1926 for his works on colloids and the invention of the ultracentrifuge. The Svedberg unit (Symbol S) is a measure of the sedimentation rate of a particle when centrifuged Eukaryotic ribosomal subunits have densities of 60 S and 40 S Prokaryotic ribosomal subunits have densities of 50 S and 30 S.

51.

Which among the following cell organelles is not surrounded by any membrane? (a) Lysosome (b) Ribosome (c) Plastid (d) Endoplasmic reticulum RPSC School Lecturer (23/07/2016) Ans. (b) : Eukaryotic nucleus in enclosed by a double membrane called as the nuclear envelope. Chloroplasts have outer and inner membrane separated by a intra membranous space of 10 to 20 nm. Mitochondria too has inner and outer membrane. The inner membrane folds to from cristae. Ribosomes are the translational apparatus of the cell with two major components the small ribosomal subunit which reads the RNA, and the large subunit which joins amino acids to form a polypeptide chain. Each subunit is composed of one or more r RNA molecules and a variety of proteins. It is devoid of any membrane. 52. Endoplasmic reticulum was first observed by: (a) Fleming (b) Benda (c) Porter (d) Claude RPSC School Lecturer (23/07/2016) Ans. (c) : Endoplasmic reticulum was first observed by Porter. The endoplasmic reticulum (smooth and rough) is an interconnected network of flattened, membraneenclosed sacs or tube - like structure which are evenly distributed throughout the cytoplasm. Endoplasmic reticulum was first seen by Keith R. porter, Albert Claude and few others in the year 1945. It was discovered by Porter (1945) and Thompson (1945) independently.

Golgi complex is found in : (a) All the cells (b) All the cells except RBC (c) All the except prokaryotic cells RBCs (d) All the animal cells and bacterial cells UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar 167

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf During centrifugation which cell organelle will 58. Number of protofilaments present in microtubules are : sediment at lower speed ? (a) 11 (b) 12 (a) Mitochondria (b) Nuclei (c) 13 (d) 15 (c) Golgi complex (d) Ribosome UPPCS Pre 2003 RPSC School Lecturer (23/07/2016) Ans. (c) : The number of proto-filament present in Ans. (b) : During centrifugation nuclei of cell will microtubules are 13. Microtubules are eukaryotic sediment of lower speed. The first centrifugation at low cytoskeletal structures. They are unbranched hollow speed and short times, sediments will be unbroken cells, tubules of indefinite length, about 25 nm. of thickness and the nuclei because these are the largest and heaviest with 15 nm. core and boundary formed of 13 helically of sub-cellular structures. Therefore, a fraction of the arranged protofilaments of globular molecules of α homogenate in produced that is enriched in nuclei. and β tubulin proteins. 54. "Cart wheel" structure is exhibited by – (a) Ribosome (b) Lysosome (c) Centriole (d) Nucleolous RPSC School Lecturer 2011 Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (c) : "Cart wheel" structure is exhibited by centriole. The cartwheel is a striking structure critical for building the centriole, a microtubule - based organelle fundamental for organizing centrosomes. cilia and flagella. 53.

55.

Cristae are associated with which of the following? (a) Cytoplasm (b) Protoplasm (c) Mitochondria (d) Ribosomes Tubulin dimer, protofilament and microtuble (MT) Bihar PGT 2019 Ans. (c) : Cristae is the inner membrane foldings in 59. The 'Unit-membrane' concept for the structure of the plasma membrane was developed in mitochondria. It is the finger - like projection of the which of the following proposed models: inner mitochondrial membrane. The inner membrane as (a) Fluid mosaic model of 1972 well as cristae posses elementary particles or oxysomes. These oxysomes function as ATPase and thus provides (b) Robertson model of 1959 the site for ATP synthesis. (c) Garter and Grendel model of 1926 56. The cell wall is present in : (d) Danielli and Davson model of 1926 (a) Animal cell (b) Plant cell UPPCS Pre 2003 (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these Ans. (b) : Robertson proposed unit membrane Bihar PGT 2019 concept for biological membranes in 1959. According to this concept, the biological membrane is a lipid biAns. (b) : Cell wall is present in plant cell. Cell wall is layer surrounded on either side by proteins with a the characteristic feature of plant cells and not animal difference in their type for the outer and inner side. cells. This additional layer surrounding the cell The external layer is a hydrophilic layer made of membrane is required by plants for protection. Plant cell protein molecules of diameter 20Å-25Å. The middle need protection against variations in temperature, high layer is a light hydrophobic layer made of wind speed etc. They are exposed to these variations phospholipids of diameter 25Å-35Å. because they cannot move. 60. Macromolecules enter the plasma membrane of 57. Which of the following organelle is devoid of a cell by: DNA yet is capable of duplication ? (a) Diffusion (b) Facilitated diffusion (a) Plastid (b) Mitochondrion (c) Exocytosis (d) Endocytosis (c) Centriole (d) Nucleus UPPCS Pre 2002 UPPCS Pre 2008 Ans. (b) : Macromolecules enter the plasma Ans. (c) : Centriole does not contain DNA, but it is membrane of a cell by endocytosis. It is a type of capable of duplication in cytoplasm during cell division. active transport that moves particles, such as large Centrioles are paired barrel-shaped organelles located molecules, parts of cells and even whole cells, into a in the cytoplasm of animal cells near the nuclear cell. If the particle is solid, endocytosis is also called envelope. Centrioles play a role in organizing phagocytosis. If fluid droplets are taken in, the process is called pinocytosis. microtubules that serve as the cells skeletal system. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 61.

In metazoa, groups of cells similar in structure and function are called: (a) tissue (b) organ (c) system (d) body UPPCS Pre 1999 Ans. (a) : A group of cells similar in origin, structure and function is called tissue. Histology is the branch of studying the tissues. Bichat introduced the term 'tissue'. Marie Francois Xavier Bichat is the 'founder of histology'.

62.

The matrix of the cells was given the name protoplasm by : (a) H. Von Mohl (b) Schultz (c) J.E. Purkinje (d) Huxley UPPCS Pre 1999 Ans. (c) : Protoplasm is present in all living cells and performs all vital function of a cell. Hence, J. Huxley defined it as 'Physical basis of life'. Dujardin (1835) discovered it and named it as 'sarcode'. Purkinje (1839) renamed it as 'Protoplasm'.

63.

The term 'Plasmalemma' was given by : (a) C. Nageli & C. Cramer (b) J. Q. Plowe (c) Danielli & Davson (d) Robertson TGT Biology 2009 Ans. (b) : The plasma membrane is also called cell membrane or plasmalemma. The term 'cell membrane' was given by Nageli and Cramer in 1855, and the term 'plasmalemma' was given by J.Q. Plowe in 1931.

64.

Unit membrane concept for biological membrane was proposed by: (a) Robertson (b) Danielli and Davson (c) Porter (d) Singer and Nicolson UPPCS Pre 2004

Ans. (a) : Scientists Cell Membrane Model Robertson Unit membrane concept Danielli and Davson Bimolecular model Singer and Nicolson Fluid Mosaic Model *Porter discovered Endoplasmic reticulum.

66.

Who discovered cell for the first time ? (a) Robert Brown (b) Robert Hooke (c) Antonie Van Leeuwenhoek (d) Theodor Schwann Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2015 RPSC School lecturer 23/07/2016 Ans. (b) : Cell was first discovered by Robert Hooke in 1665. He discovered plant cells by viewing the cell walls in its cork tissue under a microscope. He described the cell as the basic unit of life. He observed that there was a honeycomb like structure and he named the parts of the structure as cells. 67. Which of the following structures is the functional unit in a Golgi complex ? (a) Cisternae (b) Thylakoid (c) Archoplasm (d) Cristae TGT Biology 2004 Ans. (a) : Golgi apparatus is an organelle found in the eukaryotic cell which forms a complex of vesicles and folded membranes within the cytoplasm that is involved in secretion and helps in intracellular transport. The folds of the golgi apparatus are called cisternae which are called the functional unit of the organelle. It helps in modifying, sorting and packaging of proteins for secretion and also helps in the transportation of lipid and forms lysosomes. 68. Inner mitochondrial membrane, forms folds. These are called: (a) Cisternae (b) Oxysomes (c) cristae (d) Plasmid TGT Biology 2011 Ans. (c) : The mitochondria is a double - membrane cell organelle, known as the power house of the cell which is present in all eukaryotic cells. It has an outer membrane and an inner membrane. The inner mitochondrial membrane has folds called cristae which helps in increasing the surface area. The enzyme ATP synthase is embedded in the inner mitochondrial membrane helps in the synthesis of ATP molecule (energy currency of the cell). It is also the site of the electron transport chain (aerobic respiration)

65.

Protein and RNA synthesis takes place at: (a) G1 Phase (b) G2 Phase (c) S Phase (d) Any Phase PGT Biology 2009 Ans. (a) : G1 or Gap1 phase is the very first phase of the cell cycle which immediately begins with the formation of new daughter cells. This phase is also known as the growth phase since the cell grows in size in this phase. Along with growth, desired RNA and protein is synthesized in this phase. G1 phase is followed by the S phase of the cell cycle.

TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 69.

Of the following, which type of cisternae make 72. Robert brown is known for his discovery of : up the Golgi complex ? (a) Chloroplast (b) Nucleus (a) Unpolarised (b) Reticulate (c) Mitochondria (d) Golgi Complex (c) Polarized (d) Rough TGT Biology 2013 UPPCS Pre 2006 Ans. (b) : Robert Brown, a British biologist discovered Ans. (b) : Reticulate cisternae make the Golgi complex, the nucleus in the year 1831. The cell organelle was polarized and unpolarised form smooth and rough Golgi named nucleus according to the Latin word complex. Rough cisternae not make the Golgi complex. It nucleus/nucleus meaning a seed. The study of the is found in animal & plant cell. Both, polorised and nucleus is called karyology. The nucleus is a double reticulate cisternae make up the Golgi complex. membrane - bound dense protoplasmic body, which controls all the cellular metabolism and encloses, the genetic information of the cell. The nucleus is considered the controller or director of the cell.

70.

The structure of ribosomes consist of : (a) D.N.A. and proteins (b) R.N. A. and proteins (c) R.N.A. and amino acids 73. The covering membrane of the vacuole is (d) R.N.A. and D.N. A. known as : TGT Biology 2010 (a) Tonoplast (b) Cell wall (c) Plasma layer (d) none of these Ans. (b) : Ribosomes are found in both Prokarytoes and Eukaryotes. The ribosome is the site for protein TGT Biology 2009 synthesis. Thus, it is also known as protein factory. Ans. (a) : A vacuole is covered by a membrane called They are complexes of proteins and three (Prokaryotes) tonoplast. Tonoplast (vacuolar membrane) refers to the or four (eukaryotes) rRNA molecules called subunits. cytoplasmic membrane surrounding the large vacuole The main function of ribosomes is the site of mRNA of a plant cell. Tonoplast separates the vacuolar translation; once the two subunits are joined by the contents from the cytoplasmic contents. It is a semimRNA from the nucleus, the ribosome translates permeable membrane. mRNA into a specific sequence of amino acids. 71. Of the following, subcellular structures which 74. Mitochondria in the human spermatozoa are found in its : can not be isolated intact : (a) Nucleus (b) Acrosome (a) Endoplasmic reticulum(b) Lysosomes (c) Middle piece (d) Tail (c) Mitochondria (d) Nucleus UPPCS Pre 2000 UPPCS Pre 2000 Ans. (c) : Mitochondria in the human spermatozoa Ans. (a) : Endoplasmic reticulum is the subcellular are found in middle piece. It has axial filament structures which can not be isolated. Endoplasmic surrounded by spiral turns of mitochondria and reticulum is a type of organelle found in eukaryotic cell bearing towards the end a ring centriole or annulus. Its that interconnected network of flattened, membranemitochondria provide energy for swimming. enclosed sacs or tube - like structures known as cisternae. 75. Centriole is found in : (a) animal cells (b) red algae (c) prokaryotes (d) flowering plants TGT Biology 2009 Ans. : (a) Centrioles are paired barrel-shaped organelles located in the cytoplasm of animal cells near the nuclear envelope. It plays a role in organizing microtubules that serve as the cells skeletal system, and help determine the location of the nucleus and other organelles within the cell. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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80.

Function of Cell Organelles

76.

Chloride secreting cells of fishes are found in their : (a) Gills (b) Kidneys (c) Liver (d) Posterior pituitary UP PGT 17/08/2021 Ans. (a) : Chloride secreting cells of fishes are found in their gills. These cells in the gills of marine bony fish remove chloride from the blood and secrete it into the sea, there by maintaining the osmotic composition of the body. These cells are also said to make their appearance in fresh-water fishes that have been experimentally subjected to a saline medium. These are mitochondrion rich cell involved in osmoregulation process is fishes.

77.

Nucleolus is the site for synthesis of : (a) Protein (b) Messenger RNA (c) Transfer RNA (d) Ribosomal RNA TGT 07/08/2021 Ans. (d) : Nucleolus was discovered by Fontana (1781) and given name by Bowman (1840). It does not have membrane and is attached to chromatin at nucleolar organiser region (NOR). Nucleolus is the site for elaboration of r-RNA and synthesis of ribosomes, hence called ribosomal factory.

78.

Enzymes present in lysosomes are : (a) Peroxidases (b) Hydrolases (c) Catalases (d) Dehydrogenases RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) Ans. (b) : Enzymes present in lysosomes are hydrolases. Lysosomes are membranous bags of hydrolytic enzymes including proteases, nucleases, glycosidases, lipases, phospholipases, and phosphatases. These hydrolytic enzymes are acid hydrolass, being optimally active in an acid environment. These enzymes can hydrolyze proteins, DNA, RNA, polysaccharides, and lipids.

79.

Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum is involved in the synthesis of : (a) Proteins (b) Lipids (c) Carbohydrates (d) Nucleic acids RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) Ans. (b) : Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (SER) is involved in the synthesis of lipids. Endoplasmic reticulum (ER) is a membrane - bound network extending from the nuclear membrane to the plasma membrane.

⇒ER with ribosomes attached to the surface are called Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (RER). It is involved in the synthesis of proteins.

⇒ER with no ribosomes attached are called smooth endoplasmic reticulum. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Which cell organelle is involved with detoxification of drug? (a) Endoplasmic reticulum(b) Ribosome (c) Golgi body (d) Lysosome UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (a) : Endoplasmic reticulum (ER) is involved with detoxification of drug. It is a network of tubular structures which are interconnected with one another, and forms the link between the nucleus and cell membrane. It is of two types, rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) and smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER). RER has ribosomes attached to its surface and it is involved in the synthesis of proteins. SER is without ribosomes and it is involved in lipid & steroids synthesis. SER is also involved in detoxification. 81. The cell organelle which do not have DNA is : (a) Nucleus (b) Golgi body (c) Mitocondria (d) Chloroplast UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (b) : The cell organelle which do not have DNA is golgi body. • Nuclear DNA (nDNA) is the DNA contained within each cell nucleus of a eukaryotic organism. • Mitochondrial DNA is the small circular chromosome found inside mitochondria, and are also known as extrachromosomal DNA. • Each chloroplast contains a single DNA molecule present in multiple copies. 82. Peroxisomes are rich in – (a) DNA (b) RNA (c) Catalytic enzymes (d) Oxidative enzymes UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (d) : Peroxisomes are rich in oxidative enzymes. It is a membrane bound organelle occuring in the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells. They contain enzymes that oxidize certain molecules normally found in the cell, notably fatty acids and amino acids. Those oxidation reactions produce hydrogen peroxide, which is the basis of the name peroxisome. Its main oxidative enzymes are catalase and urate oxidase. 83. Which cell organelle is site of aerobic respiration ? (a) Chloroplast (b) Ribosome (c) Mitochondria (d) Endoplasmic reticulum RPSC School Lecturer (23/07/2016) Ans. (c) : In the process of cellular respiration mitochondria function as the main organelle. Mitochondria are known as the powerhouse of the cell. They are rod-shaped organelles which convert nutrients into ATP. ATP is the energy currency of the cell which is produced by mitochondria. Aerobic respiration take place in the powerhouse of the cell i.e mitochondria. Ribosomes are involved in protein synthesis. Chloroplasts are concerned with the photosynthesis. Dictyosomes perform the packaging and modification of the biomolecules.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 84.

The site of Kreb cycle in the cell is : (a) Cytoplasm (b) Chloroplast (c) Mitochondria (d) Endoplasmic reticulum RPSC School Lecturer (23/07/2016) Ans. (c) : The Krebs cycle is also known as citric acid cycle or tricorboxylic acid (TCA) cycle. This cycle involves series of reactions in which the energy is released by the breakdown of the molecules like carbohydrates, proteins, and fats. The energy is released in the form of ATP. The reaction of this cycle is carried 87. out in the mitochondrial matrix. The enzymes for the pathway are present in the matrix of the mitochondria.

85.

Krebs cycles completed in : (a) Nucleus (b) Chloroplast (c) Cytoplasm (d) Mitochondria UK SSSC L.T. (21/01/2018) Ans. (d) : Krebs cycle completed in mitochondria. The Krebs cycle or Citric acid cycle or TCA cycle is a series of enzyme catalysed reactions occurring in the mitochondrial matrix, where acetyl-CoA is oxidised to form CO2 and coenzymes are reduced, which generate ATP in the electron transport chain. It is the common pathway for complete oxidation of carbohydrates, proteins and lipids. It is a series of eight-step process and was named after Hans Krebs, who postulated the detailed cycle and was awarded the Nobel Prize in 1953 for his contribution. 86. Which is called the 'suicidal bag of cell'? (a) Dictyosomes (b) Ribosomes (c) Lysosomes (d) Mitochondria UK SSSC L.T. (21/01/2018) Ans. (c) : Lysosome is called the 'suicidal bag of cell'. It is a membrane bound cell organelle that contains digestive enzymes. It works as the waste discarding structures of the cell. They are synthesized in the rough endoplasmic reticulum and consist of over 50 different enzymes. When lysosomes burst, the digestive enzymes released, start digesting its own cells. That is why they are known as suicidal bags. Christian de Duve, Belgian cytologist and biochemist, coined the term "suicidal bag of cell" to explain the lysosome. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Oxysomes are located inside the : (a) Mitochondria (b) Plastids (c) Lysosomes (d) Golgi body UK SSSC L.T. (21/01/2018) Ans. (a) : Oxysomes are located inside the mitochondria. They are also called elementary particles or F–1 particles (F stands for Ferdinand). These particles are present on the cristae of mitochondria. There are about 104 –105 oxysomes, regularly placed at the intervals of 10 nm. Oxysomes are responsible for oxidative phosphorylation, which involves the formation of ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate. 88. Non-living cell is known to be without: (a) Chloroplasts (b) Ribosomes (c) Mitochondria (d) Nucleus Bihar PGT 2019 Ans. (d) : Nucleus is basically the control center of the cells. They have the genetic material of the cell. It maintains the activities of the cell and also stabilizes the integrity of the gene. They support the cell into, whole some manner and also regulate the molecular transport. Since the nucleus forms the epicenter of the cell, without them a cell is called as dead cell. 89. Which of the following is responsible for the mechanical support, protein synthesis and enzyme transport? (a) Dictyosome (b) Cell membrane (c) Mitochondria (d) Endoplasmic reticulum Bihar PGT 2019 Ans. (d) : → Endoplasmic reticulum is responsible for the mechanical support, protein synthesis and enzyme transport. → Endoplasmic reticulum (ER) is involved in posttranslational modifications and transportation of proteins, Lipids to their target location. Thus ER stabilizes the cytoplasmic matrix and provides mechanical support to the cell. → Rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) possesses ribosomes on its outer surface and is actively involved in synthesis of proteins. 90. Lysozyme is found in: (a) tear (b) sweat (c) saliva (d) All of the above LT Biology 2018

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (d) : Lysozyme is an antimicrobial enzyme produced by animals that form part of the innate immune system. Lysozyme is abundant in secretions including tears, sweat, saliva, human milk and mucus. The action of lysozyme is physiological as it is an antimicrobial enzyme which kills the bacteria. The enzyme function by attacking, hydrolyzing, and breaking glycosidic bonds in peptidoglycan (cell wall) of bacteria. 91. Which of the following enzymes is an example of a hydrolases ? (a) Mitochondrial enzymes (b) Enzymes of DNA synthesis (c) Digestive enzymes (d) Enzymes of RNA synthesis UPPCS Pre 2006 Ans. (c) : Digestive enzymes : These digestive enzymes are found in lysosome called hydrolases enzymes. Mitochondrial enzymes are found in matrix of mitochondria and in outer and inner membrane of mitochondrial membrane take part in ATP synthesis. Enzymes of DNA synthesis : DNA synthesis phenomenon called DNA replication. 92. Fernandez - Moran particles are found in : (a) Golgi apparatus (b) Nucleus (c) Lysosome (d) Mitochondria UPPCS Pre 2007 Ans. (d) : Oxysomes refers to small round structures present within the folds of the cristae of the inner mitochondrial membrane. They are called elementary particles or Parson's or Fernandez - Moran Particle or F0F1 – Particles Mitochondria consists of about 104–105 oxysomes. So, the correct answer is "Mitochondria". 93. The cell organelle not possessing a membrane is : (a) ribosome (b) lysosome (c) golgi complex (d) mitochondrian UPPCS Pre 2008 Ans. (a) : Following are the cell organelles that are not bounded by the unit membrane. Ribosomes, cytoskeletal structures, centrioles, basal bodies, cilia and flagella. Ribosomes are not membrane bound and are made up of RNA and proteins. Ribosomes are present in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. 94. Secretory cells having abundant smooth endoplasmic reticulum indicate: (a) protein secretion (b) carbohydrate secretion (c) hormone secretion (d) lipid secretion UPPCS Pre 2003 Ans. (d) : Smooth endoplasmic reticulum is lack of Ribosomes. Because that surface is smooth. So protein does not synthesised. The smooth ER is characteristics of cell in which synthesis of non protein substances like lipid, phospholipid, glycolipid takes place. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

95.

The nucleosome : (a) surrounds nuclear pores (b) has only DNA and non-histone proteins (c) is fully responsible for packaging DNA into chromosomes (d) contains a core of histones with DNA wrapped around it UPPCS Pre 1997 Ans. (d) : When negatively charged DNA is wrapped around the positively charged histone octamer to form a structure called nucleosome. It contains 200 bp of DNA helix. Nucleosome repeating unit in nucleus is called chromatin. The nucleosome in chromatin looks like as 'beads on string.'

96.

A nucleosome consists of : (a) DNA + RNA + Histones (b) DNA only (c) DNA and Non- Histones (d) DNA + Histones

PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (d) : DNA molecules are composed of small bead like structure called as nucleosomes. The nucleosomes are composed of a core made up of positively charged basic histone proteins arround which is wrapped negatively charged molecule of DNA. 97.

The cell organelle which is rich hydrolytic enzyme is called : (a) Nucleus (b) Ribosome (c) Golgi body (d) Lysosome UPPCS Pre 1997 Ans. (d) : Lysosome are also called 'suicidal bags' of cell because they contain lytic enzyme or destructive enzyme and digestive enzymes used for digestion and removal of excess organelles, and engulfing of viruses and bacteria. Lysosomal enzyme works better under acidic condition, collectively termed as hydrolytic enzyme. 98. Lysosomes have high contents of : (a) Polyribosomes (b) DNA ligases (c) Hydrolytic enzymes (d) Lipid and proteins UPPCS Pre 1999 PGT Biology 2004

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (c) : Lysosomes have high contents of hydrolytic enzymes. Lysosomes are small vesicles containing hydrolyzing enzymes and surrounded by a single membrane of up to 100 nm in thickness. They were discovered by Christian de Duve in 1955 but were named and observed under an electron microscope by Novikoff (1956). They are formed by Golgi apparatus and contain some 60 different type of hydrolytic enzymes. 99.

Lysosomes are produced by : (a) Mitochondria (b) Centriole (c) Plasma membrane (d) Golgi apparatus UPPCS Pre 1994 Ans. (d) : Lysosomes are manufactured and budded into the cytoplasm by the Golgi apparatus with enzymes inside. The enzymes that are within the lysosome are made in the rough endoplasmic reticulum, which are then delivered to the Golgi apparatus via transport vesicles.

(2) Secondary lysosomes – secondary lysosomes occurs by the fusion of a primary lysosomes with a vacuole or a secretory granule. (3) Residual bodies – A secondary lysosomes containing indigestible matter is known as residual body. (4) Autophagic vacuole – Primary lysosomes fuse together about the damaged or unwanted organelles, forming a large sac known as Autophagic vacuole. 102. Most stable RNA is ? (a) r RNA (b) s RNA (c) t RNA (d) m RNA UPPCS Pre 1997 PGT Biology 2002 Ans. (a) : There are various forms of RNA in the cells like the rRNA, mRNA and the tRNA. The most stable form of RNA is the rRNA. These are the ribosomal RNA. They interact with the proteins to forms the ribosomes. The ribosomes are required for protein synthesis. They are synthesised and remain in the cells for very longer periods of time. The other forms like mRNA and tRNA are synthesised whenever there is a requirement of the specific protein. They are degraded after the synthesis of the protein. Soluble RNA is the other name for tRNA.

100. Which of the following cell organelles is rich hydrolases? (a) Ribosome (b) Golgi body (c) Nucleus (d) Lysosome UPPCS Pre 2001 UPPCS Pre 2010 Ans. (d) : Lysosomes are the smallest cellular 103. Nucleus as the basis of heredity was discovered by : organelles that contain acid hydrolases enzymes that (a) T.H. Morgan (b) Hertwig digest the waste materials and cellular debris. They can be described as the stomach of the cell. (c) T.H. Huxley (d) Russel Wallace Lysosomes digest excess or worn-out organelles, food UPPCS Pre 1997 particles, and engulfed viruses or bacteria. The Ans. (b) : Nucleus is the hereditary basis is called by membrane around a lysosome allows the digestive Hertwig. He demonstrated firstly that nucleus is a enzymes to work at the pH they require. controller of cell / brain of cell. He recognized the role 101. Of the following, which cell organelle exhibits of the cell nucleus during inheritance and polymorphism? chromosome reduction during meiosis. (a) Nucleus (b) Mitochondrion 104. In 80-S ribosome RNA Protein ratio is : (c) Lysosome (d) Ribosome (a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 PGT Biology 2005 (c) 1 : 1 (d) 1 : 3 UPPCS Pre 2007 UPPCS Pre 2001 Ans. (c) : Lysosomes are polymorphic cell organelle. Ans. (c) : The number of protein molecules is 73, They are rich in several hydrolytic digestive enzymes with 40 in larger subunits and 33 in smaller subunits. (hydrolases - lipases, proteases, carbohydrases, etc.) The rRNA to protein ratio is 1:1 . It is composed of 4 These are also called suicidal bags to the presence of molecules of RNA (ribonucleic acid) In 70s ribosome, hydrolytic enzymes. The lysosomes change the nature RNA protein ratio is 2:1( more RNA). of their contents at different times in the same cell. 105. The ribosome's are composed of proteins and : This variation is known as Polymorphism. (a) m-RNA (b) s-RNA The Polymorphism of lysosomes can be explained by (c) t-RNA (d) r-RNA the following four types of lysosomes – UPPCS Pre 1996 (1) Primary lysosomes → Primary lysosomes are Ans. (d) : The chemical composition of ribosome is membrane - bound organelles formed from the Golgi protein + rRNA. Polyribosome is group of ribosome's apparatus. associated with a messenger RNA molecule, involved A Newly formed lysosome contains enzymes only. in peptide synthesis. Protein + rRNA + mRNA = The enzymes of primary lysosomes are probably in an Polyribosome inactive state. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 106. Which one of the following is not a correct matching with regard to the pairing of structure with function? (a) Golgi complex and breakdown of complex molecules (b) Mitochondria and production of ATP (c) Endoplasmic reticulum and protein synthesis (d) Lysosomes and conversion of cellular polymers to monomers UPPCS Pre 1999 Ans. (a) : Golgi complex does not take part in the break down of complex molecule. Golgi complex possess many functions as – (i) Synthesis and secretion of polysaccharides. (ii) Packaging of protein (iii) Secretion of protein (iv) Regulation of fluid balance. (v) Formation of Plant cell wall, Plasma membranes Acrosome, Lysosome, Pigment, Yolk sac. 107. A Major function of Golgi bodies is : (a) light dependent photosynthesis (b) the transport of electrons (c) linkage of proteins with sugar (d) formation of spindle fibres UPPCS Pre 1999 Ans. (c) : Golgi body also called Dictyosome. It is discovered by Camillo Golgi. The main function of Golgi body is of synthesis, packaging and storage of materials. It also take part in the formation of cell wall, cell membrane, lysosome, and linkage of proteins with sugar. 108. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists : List-I List-II (Events) (Cell cycle stages) A. DNA replication 1. Ribosomes B. Growth 2. Somatotropin C. Mitosis 3. Mitogens D. Protein synthesis 4. Polymerase Code : A B C D A B C D (a) 4 2 3 1 (b) 1 3 4 2 (c) 2 4 1 3 (d) 1 2 4 3 UPPCS Pre 2002, 2004, 2005 Ans. (a) : Correctly matching – List - I List-II (Event) (Cell Cycle stage) DNA replication Polymerase Growth Somatotropin Mitosis Mitogens Protein Synthesis Ribosomes 109. If a mild toxin is introduced into a cell, which one of the following will mainly be responsible for the detoxification process? (a) Lysosomes (b) Golgi complex (c) Mitochondria (d) Endoplasmic reticulum UPPCS Pre 2009, 2010 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (d) : The detoxification process is performed by help of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum in liver cells. Liver cells are composed of enzymes that catalyse a number of reactions and can make lipid soluble drugs and metabolic wastes which are soluble in water so that these can easily be passed out from the body. 110. DNA of the mitochondria is : (a) naked (b) double stranded (c) circular (d) all of the above UPPCS Pre 1994 Ans. (d) : Mitochondrial DNA is double stranded, naked and circular. Mitochondrial DNA is the small circular chromosome found inside mitochondria. The mitochondria are organelles found in cells that are the sites of energy production. The mitochondria and the mitochondrial DNA, are passed from mother to offspring. 111. The place of formation of glyco-lipid & glycoprotein in cell is : (a) Ribosomes (b) Lysosomes (c) Plastid (d) Golgibody TGT Biology 2011 Ans. (d) : Camillo Golgi (1898) first observed densely stained reticular structures near the nucleus. These were later named Golgi bodies after him. They consist of many flat, disc-shaped sacs or cisternae of 0.5 µm to 1.0 µm diameter. These are stacked parallel to each other. A varied number of cisternae are present in golgi complex. The golgi cisternae are concentrically arranged near the nucleus with distinct convex cis or the forming face and concave trans or the maturing face. The golgi apparatus principally performs the functions of packaging materials, to be delivered either to the intracellular targets or secreted outside the cell. 112. F1 particles are found in: (a) lysosome (b) Mitochondria (c) Golgi Body (d) Endoplasmic reticulum TGT Biology 2009 Ans. (b) : The F0–F1 particles are small pin-head structure present on the inner mitochondrial membrane. They are also known by the name "Oxysomes" or Elementary Particles". The F1 headpiece is a peripheral membrane protein complex and contains the site for the synthesis of ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate. F0 is an integral membrane protein complex that forms the channel through which protons across the inner membrane. The passage of protons through the channel is coupled to the catalytic site of the F1 component for the production of ATP. For each ATP produced 2H+ passes through F0 from the intermembrane space to the matrix down the electrochemical proton gradient. 113. Ribosomes are sites for : (a) Protein synthesis (b) Photosynthesis (c) Fat synthesis (d) Respiration UPPCS Pre 2004 TGT Biology 2009

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (d) : In the process of cellular respiration mitochondria function as the main organelle. Mitochondria are known as the power house of the cell. They are rod – shaped organelles which convert nutrients into ATP. ATP is the energy currency of the cell which is produced by mitochondria. Aerobic respiration takes place in the powerhouse of the cell, i.e. mitochondria. Ribosomes are involved in protein synthesis. Chloroplast are concerned with the photosynthesis. Dictyosomes perform the packaging and modification of the biomolecules. 116. One of the following is the smallest organelle in a cell : (a) Lysosome (b) Spherosome (c) Peroxisome (d) Ribosome TGT Biology 2004 Ans. (d) : The smallest organelle in the cell is the ribosome. The diameter of the ribosome is about 20 nm. It is made up of small and large subunits. It is the site for the manufacture of proteins within the cell. The small subunit is involved in reading the codons on the m-RNA and the large sub-unit helps in the attachment of the amino acids to form a linear chain of the Protein. 117. During aerobic respiration, the substrate level phosphorylation takes place in : 114. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum performs : (a) Cytoplasm only (A) Synthesis of lipids (b) Mitochondria only (B) Glycogenolysis (c) Cytoplasm and Mitochondria (C) Sterol metabolism (d) Cytoplasm and Golgi complex (D) Detoxification TGT Biology 2003 Codes : Ans. (c) : Glycolysis does not require oxygen but (a) Only (D) is correct oxygen is an important part of ATP production inside the mitochondria. Substrate- level phosphorylation (b) (A) and (B) both are correct inside the mitochondria occurs during the Kreb's cycle, (c) (B) and (C) both are correct also referred to as the citric acid cycle. (d) All are correct Substrate - level phosphorylation in glycolysis TGT Biology 2009 takes place in the cytoplasm of all cells, whereas Ans. (d) : The smooth endoplasmic reticulum (smooth substrates - level phosphorylation in the citric acid ER) is a membranous organelle found in most cycle takes place in the cytoplasm of Prokaryotes and mitochondrial matrix in eukaryotes. eukaryotic cells. Its function includes – Synthesis of Lipids, including cholesterol and 118. Acrosome of sperm is derived from : (a) Lysosome (b) Peroxisome Phospholipids. (c) Centriole (d) Golgi body – Steroid Hormones. PGT Biology 2011 – Storage and metabolism of calcium ions within the Ans. (d) : The anterior portion of sperm head is covered cell. – Detoxification of harmful metabolic by products/toxic by a cap-like structure, called acrosome. Acrosome is formed from the Golgi complex. It contains digestive substances. enzyme hyaluronidase and protease. It is the capitis – Glycogenolysis i.e. the breakdown of the molecule covering above the nucleus. It is surrounded by double glycogen into glucose membrane. Acrosome and its membrane are together – Thus "all are correct". called Galea - capitis. Acrosome plays an important role 115. The organelles in which aerobic respiration in penetration of ovum by sperm during fertilization. 119. Acrosome is made up of : occurs in a cell are : (a) Golgi bodies (b) Mitochondria (a) chloroplasts (b) ribosomes (c) Ribosomes (d) Centrioles (c) dictyosomes (d) mitochondria TGT Biology 2013 TGT Biology 2004 Ans. (a) : See the explanation of the above question. RPSC PGT Biology 2015 Ans. (a) : Ribosomes are membranous granular structures present in the cytoplasm. They were first observed under an electron microscope as dense particles by George Palade in the year 1953. → Ribosomes are the site for "Protein synthesis" so they are also called the Protein factory of the cell. They are two types of ribosomes – (1) Eukaryotic ribosomes - 80s – occurs in the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cell. (2) Prokaryotic ribosomes – 70s – occur in the cytoplasm as well as are associated with the cell membrane of Prokaryotic cell.

TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 120. Sub-units of Ribosome connect with m-RNA: (a) In presence of F1 (b) In presence of F2 (c) In presence of F3W (d) In presence of F4 PGT Biology 2009 Ans. (*) : The small ribosomal subunit binds to the start of m-RNA sequence. Then a transfer RNA (tRNA) molecule carrying the amino acid methionine binds to what is called the start codon of the mRNA sequence. 121. Which of the following organelles is devoid of DNA yet is capable of duplication? (a) Plasmid (b) Mitochondria (c) Centriole (d) Nucleus PGT Biology 2009 Ans. (c) : Centriole does not contain DNA, but it is capable of duplication in cytoplasm during cell division. Centrioles are paired barrel shaped organelles located in the cytoplasm of animal cells and Protists near the nuclear envelope. Centrioles play a role in organizing microtubules that serve as the cells skeletal system. 122. Centriole takes part in : (a) initiation of plate formation (b) initiation of spindle formation (c) initiation of nucleus formation (d) initiation of cell division UPPCS Pre 2004 PGT Biology 2009 Ans. (b) : The centrosome is a cellular organelle which is the main microtubule organizing centre is an animal cell which also regulates the process of cell-cycle. They are made up of 2 centrioles which are right angled to each other and is composed of a protein known as tubulin. Its main function is to organize microtubules (spindle fibres) and pull chromatids apart during cell divison.) 123. Autophagic vacuoles are : (a) Lysosomes (b) Ribosomes (c) Centrosomes (d) Microsomes PGT Biology 2009 Ans. (a) : Autophagy (a greek words that means - "selfeating) is a catabolic process in eukaryotic cells that delivers cytoplasmic components and organelles to lysosomes for digestion. Lysosomes are specialized organelles that break up macromolecules, allowing the cell to reuse the materials. 124. Which scientist coined the term 'chromosome'? (a) Balbiani (b) Purkinje (c) Waldeyer (d) Sutton PGT Biology 2004 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (c) : Chromosomes can be defined as thread - like structure which contains DNA and Proteins which are found in the nucleus of most living cells. They carry the genetic information in the form of genes. The word chromosome is derived from the Greek word chroma meaning "Colour" and soma meaning "body". The term was coined by Von Waldeyer - Hartz in relation to the term chromatin which was introduced by Walther Flemming. So the correct answer is "Waldeyer". 125. A major function of Golgi bodies is : (a) Light dependent photo synthesis (b) The transport of electrons (c) Linkage of proteins with sugar (d) Formation of spindle fibers PGT Biology 2003 Ans. (c) : It is major organelle in most eukaryotic cells. It has the structure of membrane - bound sacs. Its function is to process and package the macromolecules such as proteins and lipids that are synthesized by the cell. Its functions also involve the transport of lipids around the cell and the creation of lysosomes. The sacs/folds of the Golgi apparatus are called cisternae. The golgi complex works jointly with the rough endoplasmic reticulum. When the endoplasmic reticulum makes a protein, a transition vesicle is also made, later it drifts through the cytoplasm to the Golgi apparatus where it gets absorbed. After the Golgi works on the molecules inside, it secretes a vesicle into the cytoplasm which then releases the protein molecule out of the cell. 126. Which among the following cell organelles is not surrounded by any membrane? (a) Lysosome (b) Ribosome (c) Plastid (d) Endoplasmic reticulum Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2015 Ans. (b) : Ribosomes are naked ribonucleoprotein protoplasmic particles which function as the sites for protein or polypeptide synthesis. A covering membrane is absent. Mitochondria, chloroplast and ER are double membrane bound organelles while vacuole is single membrane bound organelle. 127.Endoplasmic reticulum was first observed by : (a) Flemming (b) Benda (c) Porter (d) Claude Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2015 Ans. (c) : Endoplasmic reticulum (ER) is a system of membrane lined channels found in all eukaryotic cells except mature erythrocytes. Endoplasmic reticulum was discovered by Porter and Thompson (1945). The name endoplasmic reticulum was given by Porter in 1953.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 128. Which pair is not correct ? (a) Potassium ion (K+) pump - Passive transport (b) Fluid mosaic model - Singer and Nicolson (c) Movement of water - Osmosis across semipermeable membrane (d) Plant cell - Plasmodesmata Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2015 Ans. (a) : The Sodium - Potassium pump in a cell membrane work via active transport. It uses a carrier protein and utilizes ATP molecules. It transports the sodium ions to the extracellular space, increasing their concentration there and in turn moves potassium ions inside the cell. This pump moves three potassium ions inside the cell for every two sodium ions moved outside. So the not correct pair is potassium ion (K+) pump-passive transport. 129. During centrifugation which cell organelle will sediment at lower speed ? (a) Mitochondria (b) Nuclei (c) Golgi complex (d) Ribosome Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2015 Ans. (a) : Centrifugation of cells is a sedimentation process used to separate certain organelles for analysis of specific parts of cells. A sample of tissue is lysed to break the cell membranes and mix up the contents of the cell. However, while the procedures may break many of the membrane of the cell including the plasma membranes and endoplasmic reticulum, it leaves certain organelles such as mitochondria, nuclei, golgi apparatus, peroxisomes and lysosomes intact in a homogeneous extract. During the process, particles of different densities or size sediment at different rates. The largest and most dense particle sediments first followed by less dense and smaller particles. Mitochondria will sediment at lower speed due to its less density and small size. 130. The cell organelle responsible for cell plate formation at the time of cell division is : (a) Chloroplast (b) Endoplasmic reticulum (c) Golgi body (d) Mitochondria Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2013 Ans. (c) : Golgi body produces vesicles which fuse to form the cell plate, the Golgi product thus contributing part of the substance of this structure and the Golgi vesicle membranes contributing new plasma membrane. 131. Which of the following cell organelle possesses a single unit membrane? (a) Chloroplast (b) Lysosome (c) Mitochondria (d) Nucleus Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2013 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (b) : A single unit membrane organelle is lysosomes. A lysosome is a membrane - bound cell organelle found in most animal cell. They are structurally and chemically spherical vesicle containing hydrolytic enzymes, which are capable of breaking down virtually all kinds of biomolecules, including proteins, nucleic acids, carbohydrates, lipids and cellular debris. Lysosomes are interlinked with three intracellular processes namely Phagocytosis, endocytosois and autophagy. 132. Organelles which are found in the mid-piece of the sperm : (a) Golgi body and lysosome (b) Ribosome and ER (c) Mitochondria and Centriole (d) Mitochondria and ribosome Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (c) : The sperm cell consists of a head, a midpiece and a tail. The head contains the nucleus with densely coiled chromatin fibres, surrounded anteriorly by an acrosome, which contains enzymes used for penetrating the female egg. The mid piece has a central filamentous core with many mitochondria spiralled around it, used for ATP production for the journey through the female cervix, uterus and uterine tubes. The tail or flagellum executes the lashing movements that propel the spermatocyte. 133. The major function of contractile vacuole is : (a) Excretion (b) Circulation (d) All the above (c) Osmoregulation Delhi SSB PGT Biology 2015 Ans. : (c) Contractile vacuole plays a part in osmoregulation. It stores excess water in the cell and after a stage expells it to the exterior. It controls the intracellular water balance by accumulating and expelling excess water out of the cell, allowing cells to survive under hypotonic stress. 134. Cell secretion is done by: (a) ER (b) Plastids (c) Golgi complex (d) Nucleolus Delhi SSB PGT Biology 2015 Ans. : (c) Golgi body (Complex) has the main function of modifying, sorting and packaging of various cellular secretions. It packages materials synthesized in the cell and dispatches them either to intracellular targets such as plasma membrane and lysosomes or extracellular targets (e.g. zymogens). Golgi bodies form the part of the cellular endo-membrane system. 135. Which of the following cell organelle is in continuation with the outer membrane of nucleus? (a) Lysosomes (b) Endoplasmic Reticulum (c) Mitochondria (d) Peroxisomes Navoday Vidyalay PGT Biology 2014

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans : (b) Endoplasmic reticulum (ER) is a system of 4. Mitosis and Meiosis Cell membrane - lined channels found in all eukaryotic cells except mature erythrocytes. The endoplasmic reticulum Division is little developed in meristematic cells. Membranes of endoplasmic reticulum are thinner than most other cell membranes. ER is often connected with the outer 140. Which of the following does not happen in the prophase I of meiosis? membrane of the nuclear envelope and helps in the transportation of protein. (a) Condensation of chromosomes 136. DNA is not found in : (b) Pairing of Homologous (a) Nucleus (c) Chiasma formation (b) Ribosomes (d) Segregation (c) Plastids TGT (2016) 31/07/2021 (d) Mitochondria Ans. (d) : Segregation does not happen in the prophase Navoday Vidyalay PGT Biology 2014 I of meiosis. Meiosis is a type of cell division of the Ans: (b) DNA is mainly found in the nucleus, however, chromosome number and results in the haploid sets of chromosomes that occur in sexual reproduction. It extranuclear DNA is found in certain organelles. Mitochondrial DNA is significant in maternal happens twice in a cell as meiosis I and meiosis II. Each inheritance whereas chloroplast DNA consists of genes meiosis includes further four phases. They are prophase, important for photosynthesis Hence, DNA is not found metaphase, anaphase, telophase. The first Phase in meiosis 1 is referred to as Prophase - I. This phase in ribosomes. includes further five stages which are, Leptotene, 137. Assembly of two sub-units 40s and 60s of Zygotene, Pachytene, diplotene, Diakinesis. ribosome form : (a) 100 s ribosome (b) 80 s ribosome (c) 70 s ribosome (d) 90 s ribosome GIC Biology 14.06.2015 Ans. (b) : Assembly of two sub-units 40S and 60S of ribosome form produces 80S ribosome. It is the characteristic of a eukaryotic cell. The smaller subunit (40S) has an 18S RNA with 1900 nucleotides and 33 proteins. The larger, subunit (60S) has 5S RNA with 120 nucleotides, 28S RNA with 4700 nucleotides, a 5.8S RNA with 160 nucleotides and 46 proteins. 138. Membrane around vacuole is called : (a) Cytoplast (b) Tonoplast (c) Amyloplast (d) Elaioplast GIC Biology 14.06.2015 Ans. (b) : The tonoplast is the cytoplasmic membrane surrounding a vacuole, separating the vacuolar contents from the cell's cytoplasm. It is also known as vacuolar membrane. It is a semi-permeable membrane. 139. Oxidative enzymes occur mostly in : (a) lysosomes (b) golgi bodies (c) mitochondria (d) ribosomes UPPCS Pre 2007 Ans. (c) : Mitochondria are the organelles which carry out oxidative catabolism i.e. aerobic oxidation of food and synthesize ATP in the process. This process is called as oxidative phosphorylation. The pyruvate produced in glycolysis is feed in the Kreb's cycle and leads to the production of ATP. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

141. In prophase of meiosis chiasmata are due to : (a) Mutation (b) Crossing over (c) Translocation (d) inversion UP PGT 17/08/2021 Ans. (b) : In prophase of meiosis, chiasmata is formed in the diplotene phase of prophase-I. It is the point of attachment between non-sister chromatids of two homologous chromosomes. Crossing over is the exchange of genetic material between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes, which results in new allelic combinations in the daughter cells. 142. General life cycle has the sequence : (a) 1N → Meiosis → 2N → Fertilization → 1N (b) 2N → Meiosis → 1N → Fertilization → 2N (c) 1N → Mitosis → 2N → Fertilization → 1N (d) 2N → Mitosis → 1N → Fertilization → 2N TGT 07/08/2021

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 146. A biochemist measure the amount of DNA in cells growing in laboratory. The amount of DNA would be found to double in _______ . (a) Between prophase and anaphase of mitosis (b) After G2 phase of the cell cycle (c) During the 'M' phase of the cell cycle (d) Between prophase-I and prophase-II of meiosis UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (b) : The amount of DNA will be double after G2 phase of the cell cycle. G2 phase is a period of rapid cell growth and protein synthesis during which the cell prepares itself for mitosis. The cell cycle is divided into mitotic phase (M phase) and interphase. The interphase is divided into G1, S and G2 phase. During interphase the cell grows and rests between two consecutive cell division. 147. Mitosis promoting factor has two key sub-units one is catalytic and the other is regulatory. Which one of the following is the regulatory sub-unit ? (a) cdk (b) cyclin (c) dynein (d) dynactin UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (b) : Cyclin is the regulatory sub-unit of mitosis promoting factor. The mitosis promoting factor or maturation promoting factor (MPF) is a protein complex responsible for triggering mitosis in somatic cells and for maturation of oocytes into egg cells. Cyclin is a regulatory polypeptide. The other sub-unit, cyclin dependent kinase (cdk), contains the kinase enzyme active site. Both sub-units must be bound to make an active kinase. 148. In which phase of cell cycle multiplication of mitochondria and chloroplast take place? (a) G0 (b) S (c) G2 (d) M RPSC School Lecturer (23/07/2016) Ans. (c) : G2 phase of cell cycle- The period from the end of the S phase until mitosis is called G2 phase. It is usually the shortest part of interphase. In this phase intensive cellular synthesis occurs. Mitochondria and chloroplasts divide and energy stores increase. 149. In which stage, the colchicine inhibits mitosis ? (a) Prophase (b) Metaphase ⇒ Stages of mitotic cell divison are : Prophase → (c) Anaphase (d) Telophase Metaphase → Anaphase → Telophase → Cytokinesis. RPSC School Lecturer 2011 145. Cancer is : Ans. (b) : The colchicine inhibits mitosis in metaphase (a) Uncontrolled mitosis stage. (b) Uncontrolled DNA replication Colchicine works by decreasing swelling and lessening (c) Totipotency the build up of uric acid crystals that cause pain in the (d) Uncontrolled meiosis affected joints. UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 150. Synaptonemal complex is found in which stage Ans. (a) : Cancer is uncontrolled mitosis. It is a group of of Meiosis ? diseases characterized by uncontrolled cell growth. Cancer (a) Zygotene of Prophase I begins when a single cell mutates, resulting in a (b) Pachytene of prophase II breakdown of the normal regulatory controls that keep cell (c) Anaphase I divison in check. Cancer cells can divide without (d) Anaphase II appropriate external signals, and continue to replicate rapidly without the control systems that normal cells have. UP PGT 2016 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar 180 YCT Ans. (b) : In eukaryotic organisms, gamete, mother cells are diploid (2N) and have two complete sets of chromosomes. Meiosis in male and female gamete mother cells form haploid male and female gametes (N) respectively. This occurs since meiosis reduces the number of the chromosome to half in the daughter cells. The fusion of haploid male and female gametes during fertilization restores the diploid chromosome number of the species and forms diploid zygote (2N). Repeated mitotic divisions in the diploid zygote form the diploid organism. 143. Total number of mitochondria in a cell remains constant after division because : (a) De-novo synthesis of new mitochondria (b) Fragmentation of Mitochondria (c) Number is maintained due to fertilization (d) Mitochondria also divides by fission into two parts RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) Ans. (d) : Total number of mitochondria in a cell remains constant after divison because mitochondria also divides by fission into two parts. Mitochondria undergoes fragmentation during mitosis and are well distributed throughout the cell soma due to their interactions with the ER and cytoskeleton. As a result, cytokinesis can result in the partitioning of roughly equal amounts of mitochondria to daughter cells. 144. Which of the following statements is false ? (a) Cells at the end of prophase do not show golgi bodies and ER. (b) Small disc shaped structures at the surface of the centromeres are called kinetochores. (c) Metaphase plate is formed at the equator of the spindle. (d) Chromosome splitting and separation of chromatids occurs at telophase. RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) Ans. (d) : Chromosome splitting and separation of chromatids occurs during anaphase stage of mitosis. In this stage, the microtubules attached to the Kinetochores contract, which pulls the sister chromatids apart and toward opposite poles of the cell. At this point, each chromatid is considered a separate chromosome.

Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (a) Prophase I of meiosis I is comprised of leptotene, zygotene, pachytene, diplotene, and diakinesis stages. Synaptonemal complex is formed in zygotene stage and recombination nodules are observed in Pachytene stage. 151. Consider the following statements : Assertion (A) : Haploidy was the normal situation for all organisms before the origin of sex. Reason (R) : Origin of sex took place with the alternation of generation in life cycle of organisms, introducing meiosis. Select the correct answer using the Codes given below : Code : (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (d) (A) is false, but (R) is ture. UPPCS Pre 2006 Ans. (a) : Haploidy is necessary before origin of sex and meiosis is necessary for origin of sex. (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). 152. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below: List-I List-II (Helix Type) (Base pairs per turn of hellix) A. A 1. 9.33 B. B 2. 10 C. C 3. 11 D. Z 4. 12 Code : A B C D (a) 1 4 3 2 (b) 2 1 4 3 (c) 3 2 1 4 (d) 4 3 2 1 UPPCS Pre 2006 Ans. (c) : The correct match of List I and List II List I List II (Helix type) (Base pairs per turn of helix) A DNA 11 B DNA 10 C DNA 9.33 Z DNA 12 153. The cellular event that corresponds to Mendel's law of independent assortment is : (a) Anaphase I (b) Anaphase II (c) Metaphase I (d) Metaphase II UPPCS Pre 2006 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (c) : The cellular event the Mendel's law of independent assortment is seen of in metaphase I and segregation occur in Anaphase I. There is an arrangement of the homologous chromosomes at the equatorial plane in the metaphase I of meiosis. This random arrangement is due to the orientation of the chromosomes in different directions which separates at the anaphase and assort independently. 154. In humans, during cell cycle, G1 phase last for about : (a) 12 hours (b) 8 hours (c) 10 hours (d) 6 hours UPPCS Pre 2007 Ans. (c) : G1 is typically the longest phase of the cell cycle. This can be explained by the fact the G1 follows cell division in mitosis, G1 represents the first chance for new cells have to grow. Cells usually remain in G1 for about 10 hours of the 24 total hours of the cell cycle. 155. DNA replicates during: (a) G1 - phase (b) S-phase (c) G2-phase (d) G0-phase UPPCS Pre 2007 Ans. (b) : The cell cycle has 2 phases M-Phase and the Interphase. The interphase is made up of G1, S and G2 Phase. The G1 phase is present after the M phase where the cell divides and in G1 phase the cell is provided time to rest before it can start to prepare for another cell division. Here it performs the normal functions of the cell. The S- phase takes place after the G1 phase where the DNA/genetic material is replicated and it becomes 2 times of the genetic materials of the mother cell so that it can be equally distributed among the daughter cells in the cell division. The G2 phase is where the cell is prepared for the cell division where the protein and the enzymes required for the cell division are prepared or synthesized. 156. Given : 1. Prophase 2. Metaphase 3. Anaphase 4. Telophase Which one (s) of the above are involved in karyokinesis : (a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only UPPCS Pre 2003 Ans. (a) : The nuclear division is called Karyokinesis because karyo means nuclear, kinesis means division. The process of division i.e. mitosis or meiosis is divided in following phases: (1) Prophase, (ii) Metaphase, (iii) Anaphase, (iv) Telophase 157. The shortest stage of the cell cycle mostly is: (a) S (b) G1 (c) M (d) G2 UPPCS Pre 2003

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (b) : Meiosis take place in germ cells of haploid Ans. (c) : The shortest stage of cell cycle is M stage. individuals. Gametic meiosis occurs in animals. In The stage arranged according to the time period as gametic meiosis, instead of immediately dividing follows. meiotically to produce haploid cells, the zygote G1 (10 hours) > S (8 hours) > divides mitotically to produce a multicellular diploid G2 (5 hours) > M (1 hours) individual or a group of more unicellular diploid cells. 158. Mitosis and meiosis always differ in regard to Cells from the gametes, haploid cells may divide the presence of : again to form more haploid cells but in the haploid phase. In most diplonts, mitosis occurs only in the (a) chromatids (b) homologous diploid phase i.e., gametes usually form quickly and (c) bivalents (d) centromeres fuse to produce diploid zygotes. UPPCS Pre 2003 162. Germs cells formation in vertebrate gonads Ans. (c) : Bivalents occurs in meiosis cell divisions involves: only. Each bivalent thread like structure consist of (a) Only mitosis four chromatids. Each chromatids pair is united by a (b) Only meiosis centromere occurs during pachytene. (c) Both mitosis and meiosis (d) Amitosis UPPCS Pre 1996 Ans. (c) : Germ cells in vertebrate gonads are produced by mitosis and meiosis. The cells divides mitotically to produce diploid cells. The diploid cells undergo meiosis to produce haploid gametes. 163. Four chromatids are found during meiotic : (a) Prophase (b) Leptotene 159. Crossing over occurs in : (c) Zygotene (d) Pachytene (a) mitotic cells UPPCS Pre 1996 (b) meiotic prophase Ans. (d) : Four chromatids found in pachytene of (c) both mitotic and meiotic prophase Prophase-I. Two Chromatids united by two (d) mutating cells centromere called bivalent, Crossing over occurs in UPPCS Pre 1997 this stage. Synaptonemal complexes found during the Ans. (b) : The term ‘Crossing over’ was introduced zygotene. by Morgan and Cattell for the process of separation of 164. The function of centromere is: linked genes. (a) duplication of chromosomes The transference of gene from one chromosome to (b) movement of chromosomes another during synapsis is termed as crossing over. (c) formation of RNA Crossing over takes place at 4-strand stage in (d) duplication of DNA pachytene of meiosis prophase-I. UPPCS Pre 1995 160. Moses first discovered in 1956, synaptonemal complex, a configuration observed during cell Ans. (b) : During Anaphase, centromere of the chromosome contract and pull the chromosome division in : toward the opposite side. The centromere is the region (a) Meiotic prophase (b) Mitotic prophase of a chromosome to which the microtubules of the (c) Meiotic metaphase (d) Mitotic telophase spindle attach, via the kinetochore, during cell UPPCS Pre 2004 division. It facilitates proper segregation of chromosomes. Ans. (a) : Synaptonemal complex (SC) observed 165. Reduction in chromosomes occurs in: during the zygotene of meiotic prophase I. SC helps in proper pairing of homologous chromosomes and also (a) Anaphase (b) Pachytene in producing recombination. The SC is a meiosis (c) Zygotene (d) Leptotene specific structure formed between homologous UPPCS Pre 1995 chromosomes during prophase that promotes double Ans. (a) : There are four basic phase prophase, strand breaks (DSBs) and bases repair of DSBs to metaphase, anaphase and telophase. Reduction in the homologs over sister chromatids. chromosome occur during anaphase. The chromosome 161. Meiosis takes place in : are lined up on the equatorial plate for a short period. (a) Somatic cells of haploid individuals 166. In which stage of meiosis synapsis takes place : (b) Germ cells of haploid individuals (a) Leptotene (b) Pachytene (c) Both (a) and (b) (c) Zygotene (d) Metaphase I (d) None of the above UPPCS Pre 2002 UPPCS Pre 2001 TGT Biology 2010 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (c) : Synapsis is an event that occur during meiosis in zygotene Stage. Synapsis is side by side association of homologous paternal and maternal chromosomes to the exchange of genetic information. 167. In meiotic division, pairing of homologous chromosomes take place at : (a) Leptotene stage (b) Zygotene stage (c) Pachytene stage (d) Diplotene stage TGT Biology 2013 Ans. (b) : In meiotic division pairing of homologous chromosomes take place at zygotene stage. The Prophase I of meiosis I is marked by synapsis of homologous chromosomes and crossing over. Zygotene of Prophase I is marked by pairing of homologous chromosomes. Metaphase I is marked by movement of paired homologous chromosomes towards equator and their arrangement on it. The condensation of chromatin and appearance of chromosomes with sister chromatids takes place during prophase II. Metaphase II is marked by arrangement of chromosomes (each with two sister chromatids) on cell's equator which are then separated by splitting of centromere and move towards opposite poles during anaphase II. 168. Synaptonemal complex is observed during cell division in: (a) Meiotic prophase (b) Mitotic prophase (c) Meiotic metaphase (d) Mitotic telophase UPPCS Pre 2003, 2005 Ans. (a) : Synapsis occurs during the zygotene stage of Prophase I of meiosis. A fibrillar, ladder-like organelle called synaptonemal complex develops between the synapsed homologous chromosomes. It functions to stabilise the paired condition of Chromosomes till crossing over is completed. 169. Macronucleus of Paramecium during binary fission divided by: (a) mitosis (b) Meiosis (c) amitosis (d) none of the above UPPCS Pre 2009 Ans. (c) : The asexual reproductive process seen in Paramecium is binary fission. Paramecium contains a dual nuclear apparatus like any other ciliates and it consists of polyploid macronucleus and one or more diploid micronuclei. The micronucleus is the germline nucleus and contains genetic material whereas the macronucleus controls non-reproductive cell functions. During binary fission in Paramecium, the macronucleus splits by amitosis whereas the micronuclei undergo mitosis. After that, the cell divides transversally and the new offsprings obtain a copy of both macro and micronucleus. 170. During meiosis, Chiasma are observed at pachytene stage. Presence of one Chiasma reduces the possibilities of another occuring in near vicinity. This phenomenon is called. (a) Coupling and repulsion (b) Position effect (c) Cis- trans effect (d) Interference UPPCS Pre 2009 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (d) : During meiosis chiasma are observed at Pachytene stage. Presence of one chiasma reduce the possibilities of another occuring in near vicinity. This phenomenon is called Interference. 171. Kinetochores assembles on each chromosome during : (a) Early prophase (b) Late prophase (c) Prometaphase (d) Metaphase UPPCS Pre 1994 Ans. (a) : Kinetochore assemble to each chromosome during early prophase. Kinetochore also called centromere. The spindle starts to form during the prophase of mitosis. The spindles start to attach to the kinetochores of centromeres of sister chromatids during prometaphase. 172. In which stage of mitotic cell division, chromosomes loose their identity ? (a) Prophase (b) Metaphase (c) Anaphase (d) Telophase TGT Biology 2011 Ans. (d) : At the beginning of the final stage of mitosis i.e., telophase, the chromosomes that have reached their respective poles decondense and lose their Individuality. The Individual chromosomes can no longer be seen and chromatin material tends to collect in a mass in the two poles. This is the stage which shows the following key events– Chromosomes cluster at opposite spindle poles and their identity is lost as discrete elements. Hence in telophase, chromosome lost their identity. 173. Chromosomal Karyotype is prepared at which of these Phases. (a) Prophase (b) Metaphase (c) Anaphase (d) Telophase TGT Biology 2011 Ans. (b) : A karyotype is the complete set of chromosomes. Through a karyogram one can determine the karyotype of the individual. From karyotype, we can find out about the chromosomal abnormalities e.g. down syndrome. By the start of the metaphase phase, the condensation of chromosomes is completed and they can be observed clearly under the microscope that means we can study the karyotype. 174. Meiosis occurs in : (a) All somatic cells (b) All germ cells (c) Gametes (d) In sperms TGT Biology 2011

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (b) : The reproduction of offspring by sexual process includes the fusion of two gametes, each with a complete haploid set of chromosomes. → Gametes are formed from specialized diploid cells (germ cells) → This specialized kind of cell division that reduces the chromosome number by half results in the production of haploid daughter cells. This kind of division is called meiosis. → Meiosis ensures the production of the haploid phase in the life cycle of sexually reproducing organisms whereas fertilization restores the diploid phase. → Meiosis occurs in plants and animals germ cells. This leads to the formation of haploid gametes. There by meiois occurs in germ cells.

177. During mitosis nuclear membrane disappears at : (a) Early prophase (b) Late prophase (c) Metaphase (d) Anaphase TGT Biology 2005 Ans. : (b) During karyokinesis, the nuclear membrane disappears. Nuclear membrane starts disappearing at the start of mitosis and by the late prophase it disappears completely along with the major cell organelles. The nuclear membrane disappears presumably to allow more space for karyokinesis and proper separation of chromatids.

175. Mitosis and meiosis always differ in regard to 178. During the process of mitosis : the presence of : (a) two identical daughter cells are formed (a) Chromatids (b) four identical daughter cells are formed (b) Homologous chromosome (c) four identical nuclei are formed (c) Bivalents (d) two identical nuclei are formed (d) Centromeres TGT Biology 2004 UPPCS Pre 1994 TGT Biology 2010 Ans. : (a) Mitosis is the equational division where the mother cell is divided into 2 daughter cells. During the Ans. (c) : There are four stage in a mitosis cell S phase of the interphase, DNA or the genetic material division. of the cell is replicated and the amount of the genetic Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase. Meiosis materials is doubled in the mother cells. When the cell involves two sequential cycles of nuclear and cell enters the cell division, the cell will divided and the division called meiosis I and meiosis II. doubled genetic material during the S phase will be Phase-I have a five stage - Leptotene, Zygotene, equally distributed between the 2 daughter cells during Pachytene, Diplotene and Diakinesis. the anaphase of mitosis. In Meiosis, bivalents are formed in Prophase I. The At the end of the telophase i.e. the last stage of mitosis bivalent has a paired chromosome i.e., two the mother cell has divide to give rise to 2 daughter chromosomes in a tetrad. cells will each have a identical nucleus to the mother There by mitosis and meiosis always differ in regard to cells.Therefore, at the end of mitosis 2 daughter cell the presence of bivalent. each with identical nucleus is formed. The production of offspring by sexual reproduction 179. Chromosomes can be counted at: includes the fusion of two gametes, each with a (a) Prophase (b) Metaphase complete haploid set of chromosomes. (c) Anaphase (d) Telophase 176. In which stage does centromere divide into two ? TGT Biology 2004 (a) Metaphase I (b) Prophase I (c) Metaphase II

(d) Anaphase II TGT Biology 2009

Ans. (d) : Meiosis can be further divided into two stage. Meiosis I and meiosis II. → Meiosis I has 4 phases, prophase I, Metaphase I, Anaphase I and Telophase I. → Similarly, Meiosis II also has 4 Phases, Prophase, II Metaphase II, Anaphase II and telophase II. → Anaphase II is characterized by the simultaneous splitting of the centromere of each chromosome (which was holding the sister chromatids together), allowing them to move towards the opposite pole of the cell. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. : (b) Metaphase is the best stage to count the total number of chromosomes in any species and to establish a detailed study of the morphology of the chromosomes. As mitotic cells are easy to obtain, morphological studies are generally based on mitotic, metaphase chromosomes. In this stage, the centrioles are at opposite poles of the cell. The homologous chromosome pairs (the bivalents) are tightly coiled and condensed and become arranged on a plane called the metaphase plate or equatorial plate. This plate is equidistant from the poles. Discontinuous fibers radiate out from the two poles and get connected to kinetochores at the surface of the centromere.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 180. Meiosis and mitosis are unlike each other because in meiosis : (a) Homologous chromosomes pair and exchange parts (b) Chromosome number is halved (c) The four nuclei formed are not identical (d) All are correct TGT Biology 2002

Ans. : (c) DNA Polymerase is most active in S phase. The most important event occurring in S phase is the replication of DNA and activity is maximum during S phase. The cell cycle involves a four-stage process which consist of G1, S, G2 and M phase. The DNA replicates in the S phase using DNA polymerase enzyme.

184. Choose the code listed below depicting the correct sequence of meiotic prophase : Ans. : (d) Meiosis is the type of cell division in which (a) Diplotene homologous chromosomes separate after an exchange (b) Leptotene of fragments. As a result of meiosis four haploid cell (c) Diakinesis are produced which are all genetically different from each other. (d) Pachytene This is due to the process of Crossing over or exchange (a) b, a, c, d of segments between homologous chromosomes. (b) b, d, a, c 181. Spindle formation during cell division depends (c) a, b, c, d on : (d) d, a, b, c (a) Fe - and Fat PGT Biology 2003 (b) Ca - and protein Ans. : (b) Prophase 1 of meiosis is the first stage of (c) Na - and Protein meiosis and is defined by five different phase (d) K- and carbohydrate leptotene, zygotene, pachytene, diplotene and TGT Biology 1999 diakinesis. Leptotene is the first of five stage of Ans. : (b) Spindle formation during cell division prophase 1. Second stage is Zygotene, third and fourth depends on Ca++ and protein. The calcium and protein is pachytene, diplotene respectively. The last one is is required by meristematic and differentiating tissue. diakinesis. So, the correct answer is 'Leptotene → During cell division, it is used in the synthesis of cell Zygotene → Pachytene → Diplotene→ Diakinesis. wall, particularly as calcium pectate in the middle 186. In meiotic prophase I, there are five sub-stages: lamella. It is also needed during the formation of (i) Pachytene mitotic spindle. (ii) Zygotene 182. Synthesis of RNA and proteins takes place in : (iii) Diplotene (a) S-phase (iv) Diakinesis (b) G1-phase (v) Leptotene (c) G1 and G2 phase The correct sequence of these 5 sub-stages is : (d) M-phase (a) (i), (iii), (ii), (v), (iv) PGT Biology 2013 (b) (ii), (iii), (v), (iv), (i) Ans. : (b) In G1 cell accomplish most of their growth, (c) (iv), (i), (v), (ii), (iii) they get bigger in size and makes proteins and (d) (v), (ii), (i), (iii), (iv) organelles needed for normal function of DNA synthesis. Here proteins and RNA sare synthesized and, Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2013 more especially the centromere and the other Ans. : (d) In meiotic Prophase I, there are correct components of the centrosomes are made. sequence of these 5 sub-stages is : During G1 phase the cell grows in size and (1) Leptotene (2) Zygotene, (3) Pachytene (4) Diplotene synthesizes mRNA and Protein that are required for (5) Diakinesis DNA synthesis. 186. In which stage, the colchicines inhibits mitosis? 183. DNA Polymerase is highly active during : (a) Prophase (a) Prophase (b) Metaphase (b) Metaphase (c) Anaphase (c) S Phase (d) Telophase (d) G2 Phase Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2011 PGT Biology 2011 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. : (b) If a cell is treated with drugs such as colchicine, vincristrine, the assembly of the microtubules is inhibited, while the disassembly continues leading to continues disorganization of microtubules. Colchicine is an alkaloid. It can be extracted from corms of plant Colchicum autumnale and C. luteum. Colchicines prevent spindle formation during mitotic metaphase. Thus, it prevents separation of chromosomes during anaphase stage. The correct answer is "Metaphase".

190. Which of the following does not happen in the Prophase-1 of meiosis? (a) Segregation (b) Chromosome condensation (c) Pairing of homologous (d) Chiasmata formation GIC Biology 15.09.2015

Ans. (a) : In Prophase - 1 of meiosis segregation does not happen and homologous pairs of chromosomes align at the metaphase plate does not occur during 187. Duplication of mitochondrial DNA occur during : prophase I of meiosis. In meiosis there are usually two steps, meiosis I and II. (a) Go (b) G1 In Meiosis I, homologous chromosomes segregate, (c) G2 (d) S while in meiosis II sister chromatids segregate. Delhi SSB PGT Biology 2015 191. The G0 phase of cell cycle is found in the: Ans. : (b) During the G2 phase, the organelles are (a) cells of oral mucosa duplicated and the protein required for the division are (b) neurons synthesized. (c) cells of Malpighian layer Duplication of mitochondrial DNA occur during G1 (d) epithelial cells of intestine phase. In G1 phase, the machinery of proteins required LT Biology 2015 for DNA replication occurs. Ans. (b) : The G0 phase of cell cycle is found in the neurons. G0 phase is viewed as either an extended G1 phase, where the cell is neither dividing nor preparing to divide or a distinct quiescent stage that occurs outside of the cell cycle. Some types of cells such as nerve and heart muscle cells, become quiescent when they reach maturity i.e. when they are terminally old. Some cells is an adult animal do not divide e.g. nerve cells, whereas many cell divide occasionally just to replace the cell loss due to injury of cell death. Such type of cells remains in G0 phase. The G0 phase of the cell cycle is also known as the quiescent stage.

188. The regular sequence of cell cycle is : (a) S, G1, M, G2 (b) G1, S, M, G2 (c) G1, S, G2, M (d) G1, G2, S, M UPPCS Pre 1998, 2007 Navoday Vidyalay PGT Biology 2014 Ans: (c) The cell progresses through defined phase of the cell cycle during its division. First, the G1 in which some organelles starts their duplication then comes S phase, where DNA has doubled, then G2 phase and finally the M phase. so the correct sequence is "G1, S, G2, M". 189. Chiasmata are first seen during : (a) Leptotene (b) Pachytene (c) Zygotene (d) Diplotene

192. In mitosis, the number of chromosomal and nuclear divisions, respectively, are: (a) one and one (b) one and two (c) two and two (d) two and one Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2013

Ans. : (a) In mitosis, the number of chromosomal and Navoday Vidyalay PGT Biology 2014 nuclear division, respectively are one and one. Mitosis Ans: (d) During diplotene stage, the nucleoprotein is a single nuclear division that results in two nucleus fusion complex of the synapsed chromosomes dissolve that are usually partitioned into two new daughter cells. partially. Due to this, the points of attachment between The mitosis occurs in the somatic cells and it is meant the homologous chromosomes known as chiasmata are for the multiplication of cell number during distinctly seen. Chiasmata may be terminal or embryogenesis and blastogenesis of plants and animals. interstitial and depending upon their position, the Mitosis starts at the culmination point of inter phase. It homologous chromosomes appear cross-like, ring like is a short period of chromosomes condensation, segregation, and cytoplasmic division. or chain - like. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 4. Chromosomes 1.

Of the following who discovered polytene 5. Polytene chromosomes are found in : chromosome? (a) oocyte of frog (a) E.G. Balbiani (b) J.M. Mitchison (b) pancreatic cells of lizard (c) reticulocytes of rabbit (c) R. Von Hertwig (d) Daniel mazid (d) salivary gland cells of dipteran larvae TGT (2016) 31/07/2021 UPPCS Pre 2006 Ans.(a): Polytene chromosomes are giant chromosomes Ans. (d) : See the explanation of the above question. and are commonly found in the salivary glands of insects. E.G. Balbiani discovered polytene 6. Genophore is the name of : chromosomes in 1881. As they were discovered in the (a) DNA of Eukaryotes salivary glands so they are also known as salivary gland (b) DNA of Bacteria chromosomes. (c) Genes of Drosophila (d) Genes of Neurospora TGT (2016) 31/07/2021 Ans. (b) : Genophore is the name of DNA of bacteria and another name of nucleoid of prokaryotic cells. Genophore is the chromosome equivalent in viruses, prokaryotes, and certain organelles (e.g., the discrete, ringlike, structure occurring in some algal chloroplasts. Genophores contain nucleic acids but lack associated histones. 7. Polysome consists of : (a) Ribosome and t-RNA (b) Lysosome (c) Chromosome and centrosome Polytene chromosomes (d) Ribosome and m-RNA 2. Polytene chromosome is first observed in : UP PGT 17/08/2021 (a) Housefly (b) Honeybee (c) Drosophila (d) None of these Ans. (d) : Polysome consists of ribosome and mRNA. It TGT Biology 2010 is a group of ribosomes bound to an mRNA molecule Ans. : (d) Polytene chromosomes were originally like "beads' on a "thread". It is involved in the process observed in the larval salivary glands of 'Chironomus of actively translating mRNA into protein. Polysomes midges' by E.G. Balbiani in 1881. As they were are formed during the elongation phase when ribosomes discovered in the salivary glands, so they are also and elongation factors synthesize the encoded known as salivary gland chromosomes. These polypeptide. Polysomes allow many polypeptides to be chromosomes are a strongly amplified form of synthesized simultaneously, which makes the process interphase chromosomes. They arise through many more efficient. rounds of DNA replication without subsequent 8. In a trisomic, the polyploidy chromosome is : separation of daughter chromatids. (a) 2n – 1 (b) 2n – 2 The name 'polytene chromosome' was suggested by (c) 2n + 1 (d) 2n + 2 Kollar. TGT 07/08/2021 3. Balbiani rings found in: Ans. (c) : Aneuploidy is the presence of chromosome (a) Polytene chromosomes number that is different from the simple multiple of the (b) Lampbrush chromosomes basic chromosomes number. An organism which (c) Polysome chromosomes contains one or more incomplete chromosomes sets is (d) Heterosome chromosomes PGT Biology 2013 known as aneuploid. Monosomy is the phenomenon where an Ans. : (a) See the explanation of the above question. 4. The name 'polytene chromosome' was individual lacks one or a few non-homologous chromosomes of a diploid complement (2n-1). The suggested by : plant in which a chromosome pair is missing are called (a) E. G. Balbiani (b) Kollar (c) Heitz (d) Bauer nullisomic. The chromosome formula would be (2n-2). TGT Biology 2009 Trisomies are those organisms which have an extra chromosome (2n+1). Ans. : (b) See the explanation of the above question. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Trisomic condition is expressed as – (a) 2n – 1 (b) 2n + 2 (c) 2n + 1 (d) 2n – 2 UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (c) : Trisomic condition is expresses as 2n+1. Trisomy is a type of aneuploidy where there is a gain of an extra chromosome. A person with a trisomy has 47 chromosomes instead of 46. Down syndrome, Edward syndrome and Patau syndrome are the most common forms of trisomy. The addition of an extra chromosome usually occurs spontaneously during conception. The cause of this is unknown and prevention is not possible. 10. Which one is sex- linked disease? (a) Albinism (b) Beri - beri (c) Color-Blindness (d) Tylosis GIC 19/09/2021 Ans. (c) : Color-blindness is a sex-linked disease. It represents a group of conditions that affect the perception of color. Red green color vision defects are the most common form of color blindness, that is passed from mother to son on the 23rd chromosome, which is known as the sex chromosome. The gene which causes color blindness is found only on the X chromosome. So, for a male to be color blind the color blindness gene only has to appear on his X chromosome. Albinism is a group of inherited disorders where there is little or no production of the pigment melanin which determines the color of the skin, hair and eyes. Beri-beri is caused by vitamin B1 (Thiamine) deficiency. Tylosis is associated with esophageal cancer. 11. The number of chromosomes present in Klinefelter's syndrome are : (a) 45 (b) 46 (c) 47 (d) 44 GIC 19/09/2021 Ans. (c) : The number of chromosomes present in Klinefelter's syndrome are 47. It is a chromosomal variation in males, in which one extra X chromosome is present. The extra X chromosome affects physical neurodevelopmental, behavioral and neurocognitive functioning. Males born with this syndrome may have low testosterone and reduced muscle mass, facial hair and body hair. Most males with this condition produce little or no sperm. 12. Genes, which are situated on 'Y' chromosomes are called : (a) Polygenic genes (b) Holandric genes (c) Pleiotropic genes (d) Basic genes GIC 19/09/2021 Ans. (b) : Genes, which are situated on 'Y' chromosomes are called holandric genes. Because only males normally have Y chromosomes, these genes can only be transmitted from father to son. It is a form of sex-linkage. e.g. excessive hair in the ear (Hypertrichosis pinnae) ⇒ A pleiotropic gene is a single gene that control more than one trait. ⇒ A polygene is one whose phenotype is influenced by more than one gene. ⇒ Basic genes are small sections of the long chain of DNA. The are the basic physical and functional unit of heredity. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

13.

Genes present on-Y-chromosome are called: (a) Holandric (b) Basic (c) Pleiotropic (d) Polygenic UPPCS Pre 2005 UPPCS Pre 2006 Ans. : (a) See the explanation of the above question. 14. Terminal centromere is found in which of the following types of chromosomes? (a) Acrocentric (b) Metacentric (c) Sub-metacentric (d) Telocentric RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) Ans. (d) : Terminal centromere is found in telocentric chromosomes. These are I- shaped and centromere is located at the tip of chromosome. ⇒When the centromere is sub-terminal or located near the tip, it is known as acrocentric chromosome. These are J-shaped. ⇒When the centromere is located at the mid of the chromosome, it is called metacentric chromosome. These are V-shaped. ⇒In sub-metacentric chromosome, centromere is located near the centre of mid-point. These are Lshaped. 15. 'V' shaped chromosomes are : (a) Metacentric (b) Sub metacentric (c) Acrocentric (d) None of these TGT Biology 2013 Ans. : (a) V-shaped chromosomes are metacentric. L-shaped shaped chromosome are sub-metacentric. J-shaped chromosomes are acrocentric. I-shaped chromsome are telocentric.

Types of Chromosomes 16. Chromosomes of man are : (a) Metacentric (b) Submetacentric (c) Acrocentric (d) All of the above UPPCS Pre 2002, 2008 Ans. (d) : The shape of chromosome is determined on the basis of centromere position. In case of metacentric chromosome, the centromere is near the middle of the chromosome. Metacentric, submetacentric and acrocentric chromosomes are found in man. In acrocentric, the chromosome will appear L-shaped and centromere is situated near the end of chromosome. For futher explanation, see the above of the question. 17. When the position of centromere in a chromosome is in the middle part, the chromosome is termed as : (a) Acrocentric (b) Acentric (c) Metacentric (d) Telocentric Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2013

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. : (c) When the position of centromere in a chromosome is in the middle part, the chromosome is termed as metacentric. 18. Which of the following are correct about sexdetermination in Human beings ? A. Sex is determined by chromosomes B. 22 + XX is female and 22 + XY is male. C. 21+ XX is female and 21 + XY is male. D. 22 + X is female and 22 + YO is male The correct answer is – (b) A and C both (a) A and B both (c) A and D both (d) A only RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) Ans. (d) : Only statement (A) is correct.

⇒In humans, there are 23 pairs of chromosomes out of which 22 pairs are autosomes and one pair are allosomes or sex chromosomes. Females have two 'X' chromosomes in their cells, while males have both 'X' and a 'Y' chromosomes in their cell.

⇒44 + XX is female, and 44 + XY is male. The number 44 shows the number of autosomes and the XX or XY indicates the sex chromosomes. 19. Exchange of two non-homologous chromosomes is known as : (a) Crossing over (b) Reciprocal translocation (c) Inversion (d) Duplication UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (b) : Exchange of two non-homologous chromosomes is known as reciprocal translocation. • Crossing over is the exchange of genetic material between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes during meiosis. • An inversion is a 180-degree change in direction of a chromosomal segment. • Duplication is a type of mutation that involves the production of one or more copies of a gene or region of a chromosome. 20. Lampbrush chromosomes involved in the synthesis of : (a) DNA (b) RNA (c) RNA and Protein (d) Gene UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (c) : Lampbrush chromosomes involves in the synthesis of RNA and protein. These are a special form of chromosome found in the growing oocytes of most animals, except mammals. They are very transcriptionally active DNA, where loops of DNA emerging from an apparently continuous chromosomal axis are coated with RNA polymerase. The lampbrush chromosomes occur at the diplotene stage (meiosisprophase-I), and were first observed in salamander (amphibians) oocytes by Fleming (1882). TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

21.

Lampbrush chromosomes are formed as a result of: (a) mitosis lasting several days (b) meiosis lasting several days (c) mitosis lasting several months (d) meiosis lasting several months UPPCS Pre 2010 Ans. (b) : Lampbrush chromosomes are present in the nuclei of oocyte of vertebrates such as pisces, amphibians, reptiles and birds and absent in mammals. Chromosomes transform into the lampbrush form during the diplotene stage of meiotic prophase I due to an active transcription of many gene. These chromosomes are seen during the early prophase stage and are bivalent having two conjugating homologus joined at chiasmata. These chromosomes are special type of chromosomes found in developing oocytes of most animals. 22. Lampbrush chromosomes are special type of chromosomes found in : (a) Salivary gland cells of dipterans (b) Gonadal cells of reptiles (c) Amphibian oocytes (d) Brain stem cells TGT Biology 2003 Ans. : (c) Lampbrush chromosomes are special type of chromosome found in amphibian oocytes. 23. The lampbrush chromosomes are found in the oocytes of : (a) Amphibians (b) Reptiles and birds (c) Insects and starfish (d) All of the above UP LT 2018 Ans. (d) : → The lampbrush chromosomes are found in the oocytes of amphibians, reptiles, birds, insects and starfish. → Lampbrush chromosomes (LBCs) are transcriptionally active chromosomes found in the germinal vesicle of large oocytes of many vertebrate and invertebrate animals. They were first described by Walther Flemming and Ruckert in 1882. 24. Which of the following is the largest chromosome? (a) X chromosome (b) Polytene chromosome (c) Multibanded chromosome (d) Lampbrush chromosome UPPCS Pre 1998 Ans. (d) : Lampbrush chromosome is the largest chromosome. Lampbrush chromosome occurs in the diplotene stage of meiosis during oogenesis. Lampbrush chromosomes were discovered by Ruckert and Flemming in 1882. They are found in growing oocytes of most animals, except mammals.

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Which of the following is the largest chromosome? (a) X-chromosome (b) Polytene chromosome (c) Multibanded chromosome (d) Lampbrush chromosome TGT Biology 2010 Ans. : (d) See the explanation of the above question. 26. Polyploidy is induced through : (a) Colchicine (b) Ethylene (c) Irradiation (d) Mutagenic chemicals UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (a) : Polyploidy is induced through colchicine. It is the heritable condition of possessing more than two complete sets of chromosomes. Colchicine is a toxic chemical that is often used to induce polyploidy in plants. Colchicine induces polyploidy by preventing the segregation of chromosomes during meiosis that results into half of gametes (sex cells) containing double the chromosome number than usual. 27. A molecular alteration in chromosome that generally accompanies chromosomes condensation during mitosis is – (a) Phosphorylation of cdc-2 protein (b) Phosphorylation of cyclin B protein (c) Phosphorylation of histone H-I (d) Tangling of sister chromatids UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (c) : A molecular alteration in chromosome that generally accompanies chromosomes condensation during mitosis is phosphorylation of histone H1. Histone phosphorylation confers a negative charge to the histione, resulting in a more open chromatin conformation phosphorylation of H1 increases during the transition from G1 to S phase, reaching a limited maximum during S phase, Histone H1 is a linker between nucleosomes consolidating the nucleosomes binding with DNA and stabilizing the zig-zagged chromatin fiber. 28. The number of chromosome in 'Down syndrome' is : (a) 45 (b) 44 (c) 47 (d) 46 UK SSSC L.T. (21/01/2018) Ans. (c) : The number of chromosome in Down syndrome is 47. It is also known as trisomy-21. People with Down syndrome typically have three copies of chromosome-21 in each cell, for a total of 47 chromosomes per cell. This extra copy changes how the baby's body and brain develop, which can cause both mental and physical challenges. Trisomy 21 is caused by a meiotic nondisjunction event. It causes a distinct facial appearance, intellectual disability and developmental delays. 29. Down syndrome is due to: (a) Presence of an additional X-chromosome. (b) Absence of one of the X-chromosome. (c) Presence of an additional chromosome number-21 (d) None of the above RPSC School Lecturer (23/07/2016) Ans. (c) : See the explanation of the above question. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

30.

In human beings sex of the offspring is determined by – (a) Size of ovum (b) Size of sperm (c) Sex chromosome of mother (d) Sex chromosome of father RPSC School Lecturer 2011 Ans. (d) : The human beings sex of the offspring is determined by sex chromosome of father. Sex chromosome of male (father) is XY and female (mother) is XX. The male can contribute the X or Y chromosome while the female must contribute one of their X chromosome. 31. Y - chromosome comes in which group of human chromosomes – (a) C (b) G (c) B (d) D RPSC School Lecturer 2011 Ans. (b) : Y-chromosome comes in group G of human chromosomes. In humans 23 pair of chromosomes are found in which 22 pairs are same (alike) called autosomes and one pair chromosomes (XX in female and XY in male). They are divided into 7 groups - A, B, C, D, E, F and G groups. 32. How many sex chromosomes are present in human sperm? (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 44 (d) 46 UP LT 2018 Ans. (a) : In human sperm, 23 pairs of chromosomes are found in which 22 pairs are identical (all alike) called autosomes, while 23rd pair is known as sex chromosomes. It has one pair of chromosomes (XY). Human sperm contain one X-chromosome and one Ychromosome. The chromosomes which determine sex of human are called sex chromosomes. 33. The terminal end of chromosomes is called: (a) Centromere (b) Chromomere (c) Telomere (d) Metamere UPPCS Pre 2000 Ans. (c) : The terminal end of chromosome is called telomere. They consist of the same short DNA sequence repeated over and over again. * Centromere is the point or region on a chromosome to which the spindle attaches during mitosis and meiosis. * Chromomere is one of the small bead-shaped and heavily staining masses of coiled chromatin that are linearly arranged along the chromosome. * Any of longitudinal series of segments or parts into which the body of certain animals is divided is called metamere.

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How many combinations of chromosomes are Ans. (d) : Chromosomes are composed of DNA, possible in the gametes formed from a diploid RNA and proteins. The chromosome of eukaryotic cell having 10 chromosomes? cell consist primarily of DNA attached to a protein (a) 102 (b) 210 core. In the nucleus of each cell, the DNA molecule is (c) 25 (d) 223 packaged into thread like structures store genetic UPPCS Pre 2008 information in living organisms. Ans. (c) : The diploid chromosome number is 10. So, 38. Chromosomes contain : (a) Protein only the haploid chromosome number will be = 10/2 = 5. (b) DNA and protein The number of possible chromosome pairs is given, by (c) DNA, RNA and protein = 2n, where n is the haploid chromosome number. So, (d) DNA, RNA and histone and non-histone the number of chromosome pairs for having a diploid 5 protein chromosome number of 10 will be = 2 . UPPCS Pre 1994 35. An arrangement of homologous pairs of TGT Biology 2009 chromosomes is: Ans. : (d) Chromosomes contain DNA, RNA, histone (a) Idiogram and non-histone protein. It is found in the center (b) Karyogamy (nucleus) of cells that carry long pieces of DNA. DNA (c) Karyotype is a genetic material which is a carrier of hereditary (d) None of the above UPPCS Pre 2003 characteristics. Ans.(a) : Homologous pair of identified chromosomes 39. Chromatin contains : (a) DNA and RNA can be arranged in a series of decreasing length such (b) RNA and Histones arrangement is called an idiogram. (c) DNA and Histones • A set of chromosome of an individual is called a (d) DNA+ RNA+ Histones karyotype. TGT Biology 2011 • Karyogamy is the fusion of two gametic nuclei Ans. : (d) See the explanation of the above question. during fertilization. 40. The phenomenon in which a single gene influences more than one trait is called : (a) Penetrance (b) Polydactyly (c) Polyploidy (d) Pleiotropy UPPCS Pre 2004, 2005 PGT Biology 2009 Ans. (d) : The phenomenon in which a single gene influences more than one trait is called pleiotropy. These expressed traits may or may not be related. * Penetrance is a measure of the proportion of 36. Diagrammatic representation of chromosomes individuals in a populations who carry a specific gene is called: and express the related trait. (a) Karyotype * Polydactyly is a condition in which a person has (b) Idiogram more than 5 fingers per hand or 5 toes per foot. It may (c) Cardiogram result from genetic mutations or environmental (d) Chromograph causes. PGT Biology 2011 * Polyploidy is the heritable condition of possessing more than two complete sets of chromosomes. Ans: (b) Diagrammatic representation of chromosomes is called Idiogram. It represents the number of 41. Haemophilia is a hereditary disease and the chromosomes and their lengths, arm length ratio, gene for this disease is located in : (a) 21st chromosome centromere position, banding pattern etc. While (b) All autosomes preparing an idiogram, the homologous pair of (c) Cytoplasmic DNA chromosomes are arranged in the order of decreasing (d) Sex-chromosomes lengths. UPPCS Pre 2007 37. Chromosomes are composed of : Ans. (d) : Haemophilia is a genetic disease and the (a) DNA, histone and non-histone proteins gene for this disease is located in the sex(b) DNA and histone proteins only chromosome. In patients with hemophilia, for a long (c) DNA and non-histone proteins only time (1/2 to 24 hours) after injury, due to the lack of (d) DNA, RNA and proteins only UPPCS Pre 2003 clot and the blood continues to flow continuously. Therefore it is also called bleeder's disease. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Duplication of which region is expressed as bar-eye character in Drosophila? (a) 16 A of Y - Chromosome (b) 16 A of X - Chromosome (c) 18 A of Y - Chromosome (d) 18 B of Y - Chromosome UP PGT 2016 Ans. (b) Duplication of 16A of X-chromosome is expressed as bar-eye character in Drosophila. The eye of the fly is normally an elongated oval shape whereas the bar-eye phenotype is much thinner. A duplication in region 16A of the chromosome is observed when the chromosome of males with bar eyes are examined. 43. Barr body is formed by : (a) coiled sex-chromosome in girls (b) uncoiled autosome in girls (c) coiled autosome in boys (d) uncoiled sex-chromosome in boys UPPCS Pre 2007 Ans. (a) : Barr body is formed by coiled sexchromosome in girls. The inactivated X-chromosome in the somatic cell of the female is referred to as Barr body which is present as tightly coiled and visible heterochromatin. Dosage compensation in human is accomplished by the inactivation of one of the X chromosomes in females. It occurs in 200 celled embryo where in each cell independently select either maternal or paternal X-chromosome for inactivation. Once the selection is done, all lineages of that cell make the same selection during cell division and tissue differentiation. This random inactivation of maternal and paternal X-chromosome makes a human female mosaic for X gene. 44. Barr bodies are absent in: (a) Klinefelter syndrome (b) Turner’s Syndrome (c) Human female (d) Both a and b PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (b) : In normal females, number of Barr bodies is one less than the number of X chromosomes. One Barr body means the female has two X chromosome. Turner's syndrome (44+X0) is a genetic disorder that affects only female possess only one X chromosome, instead of two. Due to the presence of only one X chromosome, no Barr body is present in females suffering from Turner's syndrome. 45. DNA sequences which can change their positions are called : (a) exons (b) introns (c) transposons (d) cistrons UPPCS Pre 2004 Ans. (c) : DNA sequences which can change their positions are called transposons or jumping gene. It was discovered by Barbara McClintock in maize. * Exons are the segments of DNA and RNA that contain information coding for a protein or peptide sequence. * Cistron is the DNA segment that codes for a specific polypeptide in protein synthesis. * Intron is a portion of a gene that does not code for amino acids. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

46.

Heterochromatin is generally inert because : (a) It is found around nucleolus (b) It contains small amounts of both DNA and RNA. (c) It contains small amount of DNA and large amount of RNA. (d) It contains small amount of RNA and large amount of DNA UPPCS Pre 2002 Ans. (c) : On staining of nucleus from acetocarmine, two zone is visible. (i) Dark zone – known as heterochromatin (ii) Light zone – known as euchromatin Dark zone is metabolically inactive and less amount of DNA is present. This zone is also known as heterochromatin. Heterochromatin is generally inert because it contain small amount of DNA and large amount of RNA. 47. Find out the correct sequence of genes arranged in the lac operon from the following : (a) promoter, regulator, structural, operator (b) regulator, promoter, operator, structural (c) operator, regulator, promoter, structural (d) structural, operator, regulator, promoter UPPCS Pre 1999 Ans. (b) : Regulator → Promoter → Operator → Structural gene, is the correct sequence of genes in lac operon. Regulator gene produces a repressor and control the functioning of operator gene. Promoter gene is site for binding of RNA polymerase enzyme. Operator gene determines the functioning of structural genes. Structural gene is connected with transcription or formation of mRNA for synthesis of particular polypeptide. 48. The maximum number of Barr bodies in a cell from Down's syndrome female is : (a) zero (b) one (c) two (d) three UPPCS Pre 1998 Ans. (b) : A barr body is an inactive X chromosome present in a cell where the X chromosomes are more than one. Since, down syndrome does not affect the number of X-chromosome, a female with this syndrome will have 1 barr body. This is because the human female has two X-chromosome. 49. The major chemical components of chromosomes are - DNA, RNA, histones and non-histone protein. Besides, there is one very important inorganic chemical, which is : (a) iron (b) magnesium (c) chromium (d) calcium UPPCS Pre 2005 Ans. (d) : The major chemical components of chromosomes are – DNA, RNA, histones and nonhistone protein. Besides, there is one very important inorganic chemical which is calcium. In regulating the events of cellular divison, calcium plays a crucial role. Calcium ions function as a booster of chromosome condensation.

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The process of determination of the sequence of genes on a chromosome is termed: (a) gene localization (b) chromosomal mapping (c) Protein sequencing (d) DNA sequencing UPPCS Pre 2009 Ans. (b) : The process of determination of the sequence of genes on a chromosome is termed chromosomal mapping. In order to map DNA segments on specific chromosomes, it is necessary to test a number of close family relatives. 51. Chromatids joined together by a duplicated but unseparated centromere are called: (a) sister chromatids (b) homologs (c) alleles (d) bivalents UPPCS Pre 1994 Ans. (a) : A sister chromatid refers to the identical copies (chromatids) formed by the DNA replication of a chromosome, with both copies joined together by a common centromere. In other words, a sister chromatid may also be said to be 'one-half' of the duplicated chromosome. 52. When the centromere is located at the apex (tip) of the chromosome, the type of chromosome will be(a) Metacentric (b) Telocentric (c) Acrocentric (d) Sub metacentric PGT Biology 2011 Ans. : (b) When the centromere is located at the apex (tip) of the chromosome, the type of chromosome will be telocentric. 53. The chromosomes as thread like structures in nucleus, was first described by: (a) Mendel (b) Strasburger (c) Darwin (d) Levitzky TGT Biology 2003 Ans. : (b) The chromosomes as thread like structures in nucleus, was first described by Strasburger in 1875. 54. Chromosome theory of sex determination was propounded by: (a) Bridges (b) Balbiani (c) Goldschmidt (d) Mendel TGT Biology 2003 Ans. : (*) Chromosomal theory of sex determination was proposed by an American McClung in 1902 based on chromosomes study of grasshopper. A chromosomal theory of the sex determination system is a biological system that controls the event of sexual characteristic in an organism. Offsprings are produced by sexual reproduction having two sexes- male(XY) and female (XX). Y chromosome of male determine the sex of the child. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

55.

Edward's syndrome is to mental deficiency chromosome number : (a) 5 (c) 15

an abnormality leading caused by trisomy of

(b) 9 (d) 18 TGT Biology 2003 Ans. : (d) Edward's syndrome is an abnormality leading to mental deficiency caused by trisomy of chromosome number -18. Symptoms may be absence of one or both testis, low birth weight, hernia, kidney defects etc. Edward's syndrome was first identified by John Hilton Edwards in 1960. 56. Genome means– (a) Total number of genes present in a diploid cell (b) Genotype of the organism (c) Total number of chromosomes present in a gamete (d) Total number of chromosomes present in an organism TGT Biology 2002 Ans. : (a) Genome means total number of genes present in a diploid cell. It is the complete set of genetic information the organism requires to function. Genes codes for the RNA and protein molecules required by the organism. The study of the genome is called genomics. 57. A dark staining barr body found in the nucleus of certain cells is modification of : (a) X-chromosomes (b) Y-chromosomes (c) Nuclear membrane (d) Nucleolus TGT Biology 1999 Ans. : (a) A dark staining barr-body found in the nucleus of certain cells is modification of Xchromosomes. The barr or sex chromatin body is an inactive Xchromosome. The Lyon hypothesis states that in cells with multiple X-chromosomes, all but one are inactivated during mammalian embryogenesis. The presence of a female specific chromosome was first demonstrated in the nerve cells of the cat by Barr and Bertram (1949), leading to the term "Barr body". It's found in all mammals except Opossum. 58. The technique of insertion of a desired gene into DNA of Plasmid vector is : (a) Gene splicing (b) Gene dressing (c) Gene cloning (d) Gene drafting PGT Biology 2013 Ans. : (c) The technique of insertion of a desired gene into DNA of plasmid vector is gene cloning. The piece of DNA or gene of interest is cut from its original DNA source using a restriction enzyme and then pasted into the plasmid by ligation. The plasmid is introduced into bacteria via a process called transformation.

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‘Sat’ chromosomes in human genome are : (a) 13, 14, 15 (b) 13, 14, 15, 21 and 22 (c) 11, 12, 13, 16 and 17 (d) Absent PGT Biology 2011 Ans. : (b) 'Sat' chromosomes in human genome are 13, 14, 15, 21 and 22. Sat chromosomes have a secondary constriction and part of chromosomes beyond that, known as satellite. Secondary constriction is also called NOR (Nucleolar organizer region). The Y chromosome can also contain satellites, although these are thought to be translocations from autosomes.

63.

60.

64.

Characteristic dihybrid ratio for complementary genes is : (a) 9:3:4 (b) 12:3:1 (d) 1:4:6:4:1 (c) 9:7 PGT Biology 2011 Ans. : (c) Characteristic dihybrid ratio for complimentary genes is 9:7. Process Ratio Lethal gene 2:1 Supplementary gene 9:3:4 Duplicate gene 15 : 1 Inhibitory gene 13 : 3

'Chromosome theory' of inheritance was proposed by : (a) Bateson and Punnett (b) Britten and Davidson (c) Schleiden and Schwann (d) Sutton and Boveri Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2013

Ans: (d) 'Chromosome theory' of inheritance was proposed by Sutton and Boveri in 1902. It identifies chromosomes as the carriers of genetic material. It states that genes are found at specific locations on the chromosomes and that the behavior of chromosomes during meiosis, can explain, Mendel's laws of inheritance. Genes which permit identification of recombinant clones are known as: (a) Adapter gene (b) Expression gene (c) Linker gene (d) Reporter gene Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2013

Ans. : (d) Genes which permit identification of recombinant clones are known as Reporter gene. When reporter genes are introduced into target cells (e.g. brain tissues, cancer and circulating white cells), they produce a protein receptor or enzyme that binds, transports or traps a subsequently injected imaging probe. 65.

61.

Which of these is initiating codon? (a) AUG (b) UAA (c) UGA (d) GUG Delhi SSB PGT Biology 2015

discovered in certain retroviruses and were identified as 66. cancer-causing agents in many animals. Dr. Robert Weinberg is credited with discovering the first identified human oncogene in a human bladder cancer cell line.

Chromosomes prepared by: (a) Bridges (c) Morgan

Oncogenes were discovered by : (a) Sinsheimer (b) Enders Ans. : (a) AUG is an initiating codon which codes for (c) Bishop methionine amino acid. (d) Prusiner PGT Biology 2005 There are 3 stop codons UAG, UGA, UAA. The start or initiation codon marks the site at which translation Ans. : (c) Oncogenes were discovered by American into protein sequence begins and the stop codon marks microbiologists John Michael Bishop and Harold Varmus in the mid-1970s. Oncogenes first were the site at which translation ends.

62.

The function of centromere is: (a) Duplication of chromosomes (b) Movement of chromosomes (c) Formation of RNA (d) Formation of DNA PGT Biology 2003

Ans. : (b) Centromere is the site which connects two sister chromatids and is known to be the point of attaching spindle fibres. The function of centromere is to initiate movement of chromosomes during cell division and align and segregate the chromosomes. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

map

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was

(b) Watson (d) Holley Delhi SSB PGT Biology 2015

Ans. : (*) Chromosome maps were first prepared by Alfred H. Sturtevant. He is well known for his work on hereditary patterns. In 1911, he discovered the mapping of chromosomes by mapping the relative location of genes on chromosomes. It is a linear graphic representation of the sequence and relative distances of the various genes present in a chromosome. • T.H. Morgan and his student, Sturtevant, American geneticist who in 1913 developed a technique for mapping the location of specific genes of the chromosomes in the fruit fly Drosophila.

194

YCT

Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 5. Structure of Genes & Genetic Code 1.

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists. List–I List–II A. Termination 1. Amino-acyl tRNA B. Translation 2. Okazaki fragment C. Transcription 3. GTP dependent release factor D. DNA Replication 4. RNA polymerase Codes : A B C D (a) 2 3 1 4 (b) 1 4 2 3 (c) 3 1 4 2 (d) 4 2 3 1 UPPSC Ashram Paddhati 29/09/2021 Ans. (c) : Correct match is as follows– List-I List-II (A) Termination-GTP-dependent release factor (B) Translation-Amino-acyl tRNA (C) Transcription-RNA polymerase (D) DNA replication -Okazaki fragments

2.

Which of the following is NOT an application of PCR ? (a) Diagnosis of pathogens(b) Prenatal diagnosis (c) DNA fingerprinting (d) DNA repair UPPSC Ashram Paddhati 29/09/2021 Ans. (d) : DNA repair is not an application of PCR. → PCR means Polymerase Chain Reaction. It is a technique used to amplify small segments of DNA. It was developed in 1983 by Kary B. Mullis, an American biochemist who won the Nobel Prize in 1993 for his invention. It is one of the most widely used diagnostic tests for detecting pathogens. PCR is used as a tool in DNA fingerprinting and can identify one person from millions of others. It is also used in prenatal diagnosis of some selected chromosomal anomalies.

3.

Rho (ρ) factors involved in transcription of DNA of RNA molecule is a : (a) Nucleoside (b) Metallic ion (c) Hormone (d) Protein TGT (2016) 31/07/2021

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Ans. (d) : Rho (ρ) factors involved in transcription of DNA of RNA molecule is a protein. Escherichia coli protein Rho is required for the factor - dependent transcription termination by an RNA polymerase and is essential for the viability of the cell. It is homohexameric protein that recognizes and binds preferably to C-rich sites in the transcribed RNA. 4. Which of the following is called amber? (a) AUG (b) UAA (c) UAG (d) UGA TGT (2016) 31/07/2021 Ans. (c) : 'Amber' or UAG was discovered by Charles Steinberg and Richard Epstein. There are three codons UAA, UAG and UGA which signals the termination of the synthesis of a protein. UAG is amber. UGA is opal. UAA is ochre. 5. In Griffith experiment of transformation virulent strain is called as : (a) S- strain (b) R-strain (c) M-strain (d) k-strain UP PGT 17/08/2021 Ans. (a) : In Griffith experiment of transformation virulent strain is called as S-strain. Frederick Griffith reported this experiment in 1928, suggesting that bacteria are capable of transferring genetic information through a process known as transformation. He used two strains of pneumococcus (Diplococcus pneumoniae) bacteria which infect mice. S (smooth) strain was virulent and R (rough) strain was nonvirulent. Mice injected with S-strain developed pneumonia and died while that injected with the R strain stayed alive. 6. The genetic code is called degenerate code because: (a) One codon has many meanings (b) More than one codon has the same meaning (c) One codon has one meaning (d) There are 64 codons present UP PGT 17/08/2021 Ans. (b) : The genetic code is called degenerate code because more than one codon has the same meaning. There are many instances in which different codons specify the same amino acids. This results in two-fold degenerate sites in DNA coding regions where one possible nucleotide change is synonymous and the other two are non-synonymous, and four-fold degenerate sites where all nucleotide changes are synonymous.

195

YCT

Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 7.

Watson and Crick model of DNA is : (a) A Type (b) B Type (c) C Type (d) Z Type TGT 07/08/2021 Ans. (b) : James Watson and Francis Crick discovered the double helix structure of DNA in 1953. Watson and Crick model of DNA is B types. B DNA is the most common conformation of DNA. It is a right-handed helix and the diameter of the helix is 2.37 nm.

• The major difference between B DNA and Z DNA is that the B DNA is the commonest form of DNA, which is a right-handed helix while the Z DNA is the long and thin version of B DNA, which is a left-handed helix. 8. Which of the following codons usually codes for valine but can also code for formylatedmethionine as initiator codon ? (a) G U G (b) U G A (c) U G U (d) A G U TGT 07/08/2021 Ans. (a) : In DNA, the start codon initiates the translation of the first amino acid in the polypeptide chain. The most common start codon is AUG and codes for methionine. GUG is an efficient initiation codon or start codon and codes for valine. AUG is the start codon 83% of the time and GUG 14% of the time. 9. Which of the following is not a termination codon during protein synthesis ? (a) UAG (b) UGA (c) UAA (d) UUU GIC 19/09/2021 Ans. (d) : UUU is not a termination codon during protein synthesis. Termination codon or stop codon is a set of three adjacent bases in the DNA or their complementary bases in mRNA that specifies the end of a polypeptide chain. The three chain-termination codons are UAA, UAG and UGA. These codon are also known as nonsense codon, as they do not code for an amino acid. The codon UUU codes for amino acid phenylalanine. 10. Which one of the following codons is not a termination codon : (a) UAA (b) UAG (c) UGA (d) UGG UPPCS Pre 2003 Ans. (d) : UGG is a codon of Tryptophan. Tryptophan is an α – amino acid that is used in the biosynthesis of proteins. UAG is a stop codon. UAA and UGA is a termination codon. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

11.

In Genetic code, a 'codon' represents which of the following DNA segments? (a) a set of 2 bases (b) a set of 3 bases (c) a set of 4 bases (d) a set of 6 bases GIC 19/09/2021 Ans. (b) : In Genetic code, a 'codon' represents a set of 3 bases. A codon is a sequence of three DNA or RNA nucleotides that corresponds with a specific amino acid or stop signal during protein synthesis. Of the 64 codons, 61 represent amino acids and three are stop signals. For example, the codon CAG represents the amino acid glutamine and TAA is a stop codon. The genetic code describes the relationship between the sequence of DNA bases (A, C, G, and T) in a gene and the corresponding protein sequence that encodes. 12. A Codon represents : (a) a set of 3 bases in DNA segment (b) a set of 4 bases in DNA segment (c) a set of 5 bases in DNA segment (d) a set of 6 bases in DNA segment UPPCS Pre 2006 Ans. (a) : Codon is a set of 3 bases in DNA segment. UAA indicate termination codon. 4, 5, 6 base an a codon are not present. DNA segment also referred to as matching segment are the section of DNA that are identical between two individuals. 13. Albinism occurs due to one of the following reasons(a) Disorders of Pituitary gland only (b) Genetic disorders only (c) Lack of melanin only (d) Both genetic disorders and lack of melanin GIC 19/09/2021 Ans. (d) : Albinism occurs due to both, genetic disorders and lack of melanin. It is a rare group of genetic disorders that cause the skin, hair or eyes to have little or no colour. The cause of albinism is a defect in one of several genes that produce or distribute melanin, the pigment that gives skin, eyes and hair their coloring. For most types of albinism, both parents must carry the gene in order for their child to develop the condition. 14. Formation of DNA from RNA is called(a) Reverse transcription (b) Transcription (c) Translation (d) Transition GIC 19/09/2021 Ans. (a) : Formation of DNA from RNA is called reverse transcription. It is a technique used to generate a complementary strand of DNA from RNA. It is based on a retroviral mechanism, where the enzyme reverse transcriptase are RNA dependent DNA polymerases which binds to RNA templates and convert them to their complementary DNA sequence. ⇒ Transcription is the process by which the information in strand of DNA is copied into (mRNA). Enzyme responsible for this process is RNA polymerase.

196

YCT

Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 15.

The most stable RNA in the animal cell is : (a) t- RNA (b) s- RNA (c) r- RNA (d) m- RNA GIC 19/09/2021 Ans. (c) : The most stable RNA in the animal cell is rRNA. Three main types of RNA are : mRNA, tRNA and rRNA. Ribosomal RNA(rRNA) is the primary component of ribosome's. It is the predominant form of RNA found in most cells and makes up about 80% of cellular RNA. They interact with the proteins to form, the ribosome's and the ribosome's are required for protein synthesis. So, r-RNA are synthesized and remain in the cells for very longer periods of time.

16.

Acidic characters of DNA and RNA are due to(a) Purine bases (b) Sugar molecules (c) Pyrimidine bases (d) Phosphate group GIC 19/09/2021 Ans. (d) : Acidic characters of DNA and RNA are due to phosphate group. Both DNA and RNA are made from nucleotides, each containing a five-carbon sugar backbone, a phosphate group, and a nitrogen base. They are called nucleic acids because of the acidic nature of the phosphate group attached to them. The formation of phosphodiester bonds between adjacent nucleotides forms alternating sugar and phosphate group. The phosphodiester bond can easily lose the proton and result in acidic nature of DNA and RNA.

17.

Which one of the following is most common form of DNA in the cells ? (a) A- DNA (b) B- DNA (c) C- DNA (d) Z- DNA GIC 19/09/2021 Ans. (b) : B-DNA is the most common form of DNA in the cells. There are three different DNA types : A-DNA, B-DNA and Z-DNA. B-DNA is the term given for the canonical right handed DNA helix. It is a double helix made of two antiparallel strands that are held together via hydrogen bonding in the AT and GC base pairs. One helical turn of B-DNA contains about 10.5 base pairs that are buried inside the helix and are almost perpendicular to the helical axis. It was discovered by Watson and Crick based on the X-ray diffraction patterns.

18.

The double-helix DNA model of Watson and Crick is called : (a) C DNA (b) D DNA (c) Z DNA (d) B DNA UPPCS Pre 1998 Ans. (d) : The double helix DNA model was first given by Watson and Crick. DNA are five types. A DNA, B DNA, C DNA, D DNA and Z DNA. Z DNA is left handed . Z DNA has 12 base pair. Other DNA are right handed. The double helix DNA model of Watson and Crick is called B DNA.

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19.

With reference to cell cycle, which two transcriptional factors/proteins are called tumor suppressor proteins? (a) p53 and NOC (b) RAF Protein kinase and Rb (c) E2F and NOC (d) p53 and Rb GIC 19/09/2021 Ans. (d) : With reference to cell cycle, p53 and Rb transcriptional proteins are called tumor suppressor proteins. ⇒ Protein p53 is essential for the checkpoint control and it arrests the cell cycle in cells with damaged DNA in G1. The TP53 gene provides instruction for making p53. ⇒ Protein Rb (Retinoblastoma) blocks control of entry into S by helping to sequester E2F1 in a complex that contains a number of other protein important for the cell cycle. [Note :– Commission has given the answer of this question, (a)] 20. Extra chromosomal DNA of bacteria is called : (a) Mesosome (b) Plasmid (c) Bacteriophage (d) Ribosomes RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) Ans. (b) : Extra-chromosomal DNA of bacteria is called plasmid. It is a small, circular, double - stranded DNA molecule that is distinct from a cell's chromosomal DNA. Plasmids are separated from the bacterial chromosome and replicate independently of it. The number of identical plasmids in a single cell can range anywhere from one to thousands under some circumstances. Term ‘plasmid’ was first introduced by the American biologist Joshua Lederberg in 1952. 21. The tertiary structure of t-RNA takes the shapes of : (a) clover leaf (b) Inverted 'J' (c) Inverted 'T' (d) Inverted 'L' UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (d) : The tertiary structure of tRNA takes the shape of inverted 'L'. Transfer RNA or tRNA is a type of RNA, which helps in the synthesis of protein from mRNA. The tRNAs are generally 76-90 nucleotides long. the secondary structure of tRNA looks like a clover leaf and tertiary structure is like an inverted 'L' shape. The folded structure is formed due to hydrogen bonding between complementary bases.

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YCT

Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 22.

Point mutation involves : (a) Deletion (b) Insertion (c) Duplication (d) Change in single base pair UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (d) : Point mutation involves change in single base pair. It is a type of mutation in which one single nucleotide base is added, deleted or changed. Point mutations are of two types, i.e. base pair substitution and frame shift substitution. Point mutations are frequently the result of mistakes made during DNA replication, although modification of DNA, such as through exposure to X-rays or to ultraviolet radiation, also can induce point mutations. 23. Which of the following process in splicing converts pre mRNA mature mRNA ? (a) stitching of introns (b) stitching of exons together and excising of introns (c) stitching of exons and introns excising of introns (d) separating about 180 mbp of pre-mRNA UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (b) : In splicing, the process of stitching of exons together and excising of introns, converts pre-mRNA to mature mRNA. RNA splicing is a process in molecular biology where a newly-made precursor mRNA transcript is transformed into a mature mRNA. During splicing, introns are removed from the pre-mRNA by the spliceosome and exons are spliced back together. 24. The diameter of Z-DNA molecule is : (a) 20 Aº (b) 22 Aº (c) 16 Aº (d) 18 Aº UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (d) : The diameter of Z-DNA molecule is 18Å. ZDNA is a form of DNA that has a different structure from the more common B-DNA form. It is a left-handed double helix wherein the sugar-phosphate backbone has a zigzag pattern due to the alternate stacking of bases in anti-conformation and syn conformation. In Z-DNA only a minor groove is present and the major groove is absent. 25. The entire collection of expressed protein in an organism is known as – (a) Transcriptome (b) Proteome (c) Primosome (d) Palindrome UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (b) : The entire collection of expressed protein in an organism is known as proteome. • Transcriptome is the full range of mRNA molecules expressed by an organism. • Primosome is a protein complex responsible for creating RNA primers on single stranded DNA during DNA replication. • Palindrome is a DNA or RNA sequence that reads the same in both directions. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

26.

Which of the following is not directly involved in protein synthesis ? (a) t-RNA (b) m-RNA (c) Sn-RNA (d) r-RNA UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (c) : Sn-RNA is not directly involved in protein synthesis. Small nuclear RNAs (Sn-RNAs) are critical components of the splice some that catalyze the splicing of pre-mRNA. • Messenger RNA (mRNA) carries the genetic code of the amino acid sequence for synthesis of protein from the DNA to the cytoplasm. • Transfer RNA (tRNA) is responsible for decoding the genetic code present in mRNA and deliver amino acids to ribosomes. • Ribosomal RNA (rRNA) is present in the ribosomes and links amino acids together to form proteins.

27.

Within a gene recon is a unit of – (a) Function (b) Recombination (c) Mutation (d) Deletional unit of gene UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (b) : Within a gene, recon is a unit of recombination. This term was coined by Seymour Benzer for the smallest recombinant unit. Recon is a part or segment of the present cistron sequence. It is a region of a gene in which there can be no crossing over, now known to be a single nucleotide pair.

28.

Mitochondrial DNA differs from nuclear DNA in– (a) Being linear (b) Being circular (c) having A ≡ T and C = G (d) Being highly twisted UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020

Ans. (b) : Mitochondrial DNA • Double stranded and circular.

• Double stranded and linear.

• Not enveloped by membrane.

• Enveloped by a membrane.

• No binding of histones.

• Tight binding of histones.

• Semi-autonomous organelle

• Codes for all the proteins required for its function.

29.

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Nuclear DNA

Which one of the following is known as chemical 'knives of DNA' ? (a) Polymerases (b) Endonucleases (c) Ligases (d) Transferases UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 YCT

Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (b) : Endonucleases is known as 'chemical knives Ans. (a) : A gene whose expression helps to identify of DNA'. Endonuclease or restriction enzyme, cleaves transformed cell is known as selective marker. DNA into fragments at or near specific recognition sites Antibiotic resistant genes are commonly used as a within molecules known as restriction sites. These selective marker in recombinant DNA technology. enzymes cleave the phosphor-di-ester bond within a • Vectors are vehicles for delivering foreign DNA into polynucleotide chain. Traditionally, four types of recipient cells. restriction enzymes are recognized, designated I, II, III, • A plasmid is a small circular double stranded DNA and IV, which differ primarily in structure, cleavage molecule that is distinct from a cell's chromosomal DNA. site, specificity, and cofactors. 34. Which is an example of palindrome nucleotide sequence ? 30. Which of the following has anti-codon? (a) GAATTC (b) TAACGT (a) Sn-RNA (b) rRNA (c) CGGTAT (d) TAGCGT (c) tRNA (d) mRNA RPSC School Lecturer (23/07/2016) UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (a) : A palindromic sequence is a sequence of Ans. (c) : Transfer RNA (tRNA) has anti-codon. An nitrogen bases in a double stranded DNA or RNA, anti-condon is a unit of three nucleotides corresponding which when read from '5 end to 2' end in same as that to the three bases of an m-RNA codon. Anticodon is on the complementary strand read from '3 end to 5 end. found at one end of t-RNA molecule, and allow the Example- '5 - GAATTC - 3' tRNAs to bring the correct amino acid in line with an '3 - CTTAAG - 5'. mRNA during protein production. Anticodons are necessary to complete the process of turning the 35. Genes are the : (a) Structural component of DNA information stored in DNA into functional proteins. (b) Functional component of DNA 31. The functions of Topoisomerases is to – (c) Both (A) & (B) (a) Nick and seal a DNA strand (d) None of the above (b) Form the replication fork UK SSSC L.T. (21/01/2018) (c) Synthesis of RNA primer Ans. (b) : Genes are the functional component of DNA. (d) None of the above Genes are a section of DNA that are in charge of UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 different functions like making proteins. Long strands Ans. (a) : The function of topoisomerases is to nick and of DNA with lots of genes make up chromosomes. It is seal a DNA strand. Topoisomerases are nuclear the basic unit of heredity in a living organism, and enzymes that play essential roles in DNA replication, contains the information needs to build and maintain transcription, chromosome segregation, and cells and pass genetic information to offspring. The recombination. These enzymes helps in winding and genotype (genome) is a person's unique combination of unwinding of DNA and relieving strain in the DNA genes or genetic make-up. ahead of the replication fork caused by the untwisting of 36. Which of the following has no DNA ? the double helix. (a) Enucleated egg 32. SNP (snips) in DNA means – (b) Mature mammalian RBC (c) Both (1) and (2) (a) Single base pair variation (d) Sperm (b) Double base pair variation RPSC School Lecturer 2011 (c) Local transposition of gene Ans. (c) : The mature mammalian RBC do not contain (d) None of the above UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 DNA and cannot synthesize. Any RNA and consequently cannot divide and have limited repair Ans. (a) : SNP (Single Nucleotide Polymorphism, capabilities. An enucleated egg (ovum) cell from which pronounced as "SNIPS") in DNA means single base the nucleus is removed, so it will not have nuclear single DNA building block, called a nucleotide. They DNA. But a number of mitochondria will remain occur almost once in every 1000 nucleotides on average present in the ovum and, thus, it will have which means there are roughly 4 to 5 million SNPs in a mitochondrial DNA. Thus, option (3) is correct. person's genome. For example, a SNP may replace the 37. If two dominant or recessive non–allele genes nucleotide cytosine (c) with the nucleotide thymine (T) are found on same chromosome, the condition in a certain stretch of DNA. is known as : 33. A gene whose expression helps to identify (a) coupling or cis phase transformed cell is known as – (b) repulsion or trans phase (a) Selective marker (b) Vector (c) both cis and trans phase (c) Plasmid (d) Structural gene (d) None of the above UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 UP LT 2018 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (c) : If two dominant or recessive non-allele genes are found on same chromosome, the condition is known as both cis and trans. A. Cis- arrangement - two dominant alleles linked on one chromosome is called cis arrangement of genes. B. Trans- arrangement- two dominat alleles present on different chromosomes is called trans arrangement of genes. C. Partly cis partly trans- dominant alleles partly present on same chromosomes and partly present on different chromosomes. 38. A double stranded DNA has 18% cytosine, the percentage of other basess will be : (a) A -18%, T – 32%, G – 32% (b) A – 32%, T – 18%, G – 32% (c) A – 32%, T – 32%, G – 18 % (d) A – 18%, T – 32%, G – 32% RPSC School Lecturer 2011 Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2011 Ans. : (c) A double stranded DNA has 18% cytosine, the percentage of other bases will be A–32%, T – 32%, G–18%, A = Adenine, T = Thymine, G = Guanine and C = Cytosine A = T = 50%, G = C = 50% = 100%. According to Chargaff's rule, Number of purine (adenine + guanine) = Number of pyrimidine (cytosine + thymine). Hence, the amount of guanine should be equal to cytosine and the amount of adenine should be equal to thymine. As per the data given above, we can infer that, the percentage of G = the percentage of C = 18%. Now, total percentage of total A and T = 100 – 18 – 18 = 64, so the percentage of A is 64/2 = 32%. 39. Which is called as chimeric DNA ? (a) Recombinant DNA (b) Z - DNA (c) Satellite DNA (d) Palindromic DNA RPSC School Lecturer 2011 Ans. (a) : Recombinant DNA molecules sometimes called chimeric DNA, because they can be made of material from two different species, like the mythical chimera. 40. In Philadelphia chromosome, the translocation occurs between chromosomes : (a) 9 and 22 (b) 7 and 17 (c) 10 and 21 (d) 6 and 16 UP PGT 2016 Ans. (a) In Philadelphia chromosome, the translocation occurs between chromosomes 9 and 22. Translocation means a change in location when part of a chromosome is transferred to another chromosome. The Philadelphia chromosome forms when chromosome 9 and chromosome 22 break and exchange portions. This creates an abnormally small chromosome 22 and a new combination of instructions for your cells that can lead to the development of chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML). TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

41.

Which of the following blot procedures is used for the detection of DNA? (a) Northern blot (b) Southern blot (c) Western blot (d) South-western blot UP PGT 2016

Ans. (b) Southern blot procedure is used for the detection of DNA. It is a laboratory method used to detect specific DNA molecules from among a many other DNA molecules. It was invented by Edward Southern. A southern blot is a method used in molecular biology for detection of a specific DNA sequence in DNA samples. Southern blotting combines transfer of electrophoresis-separated DNA fragments to a filter membrane and subsequent fragment detection by probe hybridization. 42.

In Operon concept, regulator gene function as : (a) repressor (b) regulator (c) inhibitor (d) all of these Bihar PGT 2019

Ans. (a) : In Operon concept, regulator gene functions as repressor. Operon is defined as a set of genes transcribed under the control of an operator gene. It is a segment of DNA containing adjacent genes including structural genes, an operator gene, and a regulatory gene. Operon model involves a gene cluster that is under the influence of a single promoter. Regulator gene produces a repressor protein that binds to the operator. 43.

RL model of DNA was suggested by : (a) M. H. F. Wilkins (b) H. G. Khorana (c) Sasisekharan (d) Chargaff UPPCS Pre 1995

vAns. (c) During 1976 – 80, V. Sasisekharan, and his coworkers of Indian institute of science Bengaluru, emphasized that the right handed from (R) of double helical B-DNA cannot easily explain the unwinding the duplex due to topological difficulties RL model of DNA suggested by V. Sasisekharan. 44.

200

Which of the following molecules moves regularly from the nucleus to the cytoplasm? (a) Glycogen (b) RNA (c) DNA (d) Cholesterol UPPCS Pre 1999, 2007

Ans. (b) : RNA molecules moves regularly from the nucleus to the cytoplasm. RNA and RNA protein complex are continuously transported from nucleus to cytoplasm. The transport of RNA molecules from the nucleus to the cytoplasm is fundamental for gene expression. YCT

Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 45.

Which of the following properties of Type II restriction endonucleases make them very useful in the field of genetic engineering? (a) They cleave DNA within their recognition sequence. (b) They require no ATP. (c) They recognize a palindromic sequence of 4 to 6 bp long nucleotides. (d) All of the above UP PGT 2016 Ans. (d) The properties of type II restriction endonuclease make them very useful in the field of genetic engineering. (A) They cleave DNA within their recognition sequence. (B) They require no ATP. (C) They recognize a palindromic sequence of 4 to 6 bp long nucleotides. 46. A mutation that changes a codon specifying one amino acid to a termination codon is called as : (a) Missense mutation (b) Frame shift mutation (c) Transition mutation (d) Nonsense mutation UPPCS Pre 2000 Ans. (d) : Nonsense codon are the changes in specifying one amino acid to a termination codon is called as mutation. These three nonsense codon is UAA, UAG, UGA. The presence of this premature stop condon results in the production of shortened, and likely non-functional protein. 47. The codon for the initiation of protein synthesis in eukaryotes is : (a) AUG (b) UAA (c) AGU (d) UGA UPPCS Pre 2000 Ans. (a) : AUG codes for methionine and is initiation or start codon which starts the synthesis of polypeptide. UAA (ochre), UAG (amber) and UGA (opal) do not specify any amino acid so they are called termination codons. CUU, CUC, CUA and CUG codes for leucine whereas GCU, GCC, GCA and GCG codes for alanine. 48. The number of nucleotide pairs in a complete pitch of Z-DNA are : (a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 12 (d) 12.5 UPPCS Pre 2000 Ans. (c) : The number of nucleotide pairs in complete pitch of Z-DNA are 12 base pair per turn of spiral with 45 A0 length. The Z-DNA is left handed spiral with zigzag back alternate purine and pyrimidine bases. B- DNA is physiologically most important form of DNA. The double helical secondary structure model of DNA described by Watson and Crick was B- DNA. As per the original model, it contains 10 bp per turn but later measurements showed that it contains 10.5 base pairs per turn. Z-DNA is the zigzag DNA. It is left handed helix. There are 12 base pair per turn, with a rise of 0.38 nm per base pair. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

49.

Anticodon loop of t- RNA contains : (a) 5 unpaired base (b) 7 unpaired bases (c) 3 paired bases (d) 5 paired bases UPPCS Pre 2000 Ans. (b) : Anticodon loop has 7 unpaired base. The variable region usually has 4-5 nucleotides but can contain up to 24 nucleotides, finally the T-stem always has 5 base pair and T loop has 7 nucleotides. Anticodon stem has 5 nucleotides. 50. If one strand of DNA has the nucleotide sequence 5' GATCAA 3', its complementary strand will have the sequence : (a) 5' TTGATC 3' (b) 5' CTAGTT 3' (c) 5' TTCATC 3' (d) 5' TTGTTC 3' UPPCS Pre 2000 Ans. (b) : If one strand of DNA has the nucleotide sequence 5' GATCAA 3'. Its complementary strand will have the sequence 5' CTAGTT 3' because strand for DNA G to C and A to T will have an opposite and complementary strands. 51. A cells has 23 pairs of chromosomes just after completion of mitotic telophase. The number of chromatids at the preceding metaphase was : (a) 23 (b) 46 (c) 69 (d) 92 UPPCS Pre 2000 Ans. (d) : One pair of chromosomes at the preceding Metaphase has the 4 chromatids. If one chromosome has 2 chromatids, then 46 chromosomes will have 46 × 2 = 92 chromatids. If a cell contains 23 pairs of chromosomes just after completion of mitotic telophase, then 92 chromatids were present in metaphase as the number of chromatids is double the number of chromosomes present in the cell. 52. The process of DNA replication is : (a) dispersive (b) non-conservative (c) conservative (d) semi-conservative UPPCS Pre 2000 Ans. (d) : The process of DNA replication is semiconservative. The replication is the formation of exact replica or carbon copy. It is an autocatalytic function of DNA replication can occur by three methods 1. Conservative 2. Disruptive 3. Semi-conservative This process is semi-conservative because two copies of the original DNA molecule are produced. Each copy conserving (replicating) the information from one half of the original DNA molecule. 53. Which one of the following enzymes is not required for DNA replication? (a) DNA polymerase (b) DNase (c) Ligase (d) RNA polymerase UPPCS Pre 1996, 2000

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YCT

Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (b) : DNA synthesis is done with the help of Helicase, DNA polymerase, Ligase, and Primase enzymes. Ligase joins DNA strands called Okazaki fragments by catalyzing the formation of phosphodiester bond. Deoxyribonuclease or DNase is an enzyme that breaks the DNA into nucleotides, i.e. degrades the DNA. DNA polymerase is used to make DNA from nucleotides. RNA polymerase helps in replication. 54.

In a DNA double helix : (a) The single strands are not helical (b) Hydrogen bonds form between a purine and pyrimidine base on the same strand (c) Adenine on one strand is hydrogen bonded to thymine on the opposite strand. (d) Phosphodiester bonds are oriented towards the interior of the helix. UPPCS Pre 2000 Ans. (c) : In a DNA double helix, such deoxyribonucleotide is formed by a membered double ring purines of DNA as adenine (A) and guanine (G), while pyrimidines are cytosine (C) and thymine (T). Such DNA strand has a backbone of alternate deoxyribose and phosphoric acids groups. In a single deoxyriboncleic acid or DNA double helix structure, the hydrogen bonds are responsible for holding one strand against the other and thus keep them firmly attached. These bonds are broken or denatured by the impact of high temperature and convert the double stranded structure into a singlestranded structure. There are two hydrogen bonds between adenine-thymine pairs and three hydrogen bonds between guanine-cytosine pairs.

55.

In "Lac" Operon of E.coli repressor is synthesized through the activity of a gene called: (a) structural gene (b) operator gene (c) regulator gene (d) promoter gene UPPCS Pre 2008 Ans. (c) : In 'Lac' Operon of E. coli repressor is synthesized through the activity of a gene called regulator gene. Structural genes encode the synthesis of specific polypeptides. Operator genes contain the code necessary to begin process of transcribing the DNA. A promoter is a region of DNA where RNA polymerase begins to transcribe a gene.

56.

DNA contains 20,000 base pairs. How many nucleotides would be present in it ? (a) 2,000 (b) 40,000 (c) 200,000 (d) 20,000 UPPCS Pre 2008

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Ans. : (b) Base pair means two complementary nucleotides one of which is purine (Adenine or Guanine) and the other is pyrimidine (Thymine or Cytosine). Adenine always pairs with Thymine or vice versa and Guanine always pairs with Cytosine or vice versa. Hence 1 base pair has 2 nucleotides, so 20,000 nitrogenous bases will have 20,000×2 = 40,000 nucleotides. 57. Adenosine is a : (a) nitrogenous organic base (b) ribonucleoside (c) ribonucleotide (d) deoxynucleotide UPPCS Pre 2003 Ans. (b) : Adenosine is a naturally occuring purine nucleoside or ribo nucleoside that form the backbone of adenosine-tri-phosphate (ATP). Adenosine can bind to purinergic receptors in different types of cell and produce a number of different physiological action. Composed of molecule of adenine attached to a ribose moiety via a β - N9 glycosidic bond. 58. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer from the code given below the list : List-I List-II (a) Barr Body 1. Facultative heterochromatin (b) Centromere 2. Constitutive heterochromatin (c) Telomere 3. Euchromatin (d) Expressed gene Code : A B C D (a) 2 3 1 2 (b) 2 1 2 3 (c) 1 2 2 3 (d) 3 2 1 2 UPPCS Pre 2003 Ans. (c) : The correct match of list–I and List–II given below– List–I List–II A. Barrbody Facultative heterochromatin B. Centromere Constitutive Heterochromatin C. Telomere Constitutive Heterochromatin D. Expressed gene Euchromatin 59. Melting temperatures for four different double stranded DNA molecules A-D are : (A) 750C (B) 650C 0 (C) 84 C (D) 780C The correct sequential arrangement of the above molecules from lower to higher content of GC base pairs in them is : (a) BADC (b) ABCD (c) CDAB (d) DCBA UPPCS Pre 2003

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (a) : The melting temperature for four different double stranded DNA molecules of A-D in the correct sequential arrangement of molecules from lower to higher content of GC base pairs in them is: 65°C, 75°C, 78°C, 84°C. The DNA segment with the most GC base pairs will have the highest melting point. 60. For double stranded DNA, which one of the following base ratios is not present : (a) (A + T)/(G + C) (b) (A + G)/(C + T) (c) C/G (d) (G + T)/(A + G) UPPCS Pre 2003 Ans. (d) : G + T / A + G is not present in base because Chargaff's rules state that DNA from any species of any organism should have a 1:1 ratio of purine and pyrimidine bases (i.e., A+G = T+C) and, the amount of guanine should be equal to cytosine and the amount of adenine should be equal to thymine. 61. Change from purine to pyrimidine or from pyrimidine to purine is called : (a) Transition (b) Transversion (c) Reversion (d) Frame shift UPPCS Pre 2003 Ans. (b) : If a purine base is substituted by a pyrimidine, the substitution is called transversion. If purine base is replaced by another purine base (A by G or G by A) or a pyrimidine by another pyrimidine (T by C or C by T) the substitution is called transition. Deletion or insertion of one or few nucleotide is called a frame shift. 62. Which of the following are both purines? (a) Cytosine and thymine (b) Cytosine and guanine (c) Adenine and thymine (d) Adenine and guanine UPPCS Pre 1996, 2003 Ans. (d) : Adenine and guanine both are purines. Cytosine and thymine both are pyrimidines. Adenine always bond with Thymine (A = T). Cytosine always bond with guanine (G = C). 63. The distance between the two base pairs of a DNA strand is : (a) 3.4 Å (b) 10 Å (c) 20 Å (d) 34 Å UPPCS Pre 2004 Ans. (a) : The distance between the two base pairs of a DNA strand is 3.4 Å. The diameter of the B-DNA is 20 Angstroms, and the distance between base pairs is 3.4 Angstroms or 0.34 nm. The base pairing of opposite strands is stereo-chemically selective, adenine always pairing with thymine and guanine with cytosine. Two and three hydrogen bonds are formed in A-T and G-C base pairs, respectively. In ZDNA which is thinner than B-DNA, average distance per base pair along the DNA axis is 0.38 nm, and in A-DNA which is thicker it is 0.23 nm. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

64.

Synthesis of DNA is called : (a) Transduction (b) Replication (c) Transformation (d) Transcription UPPCS Pre 2004 Ans. (b) : Central dogma of protein synthesis given by Crick. Replication Transcription Translation DNA  → DNA  → RNA  →Protein

Synthesis of DNA is called replication or duplication. In a replication process, biosynthesis of DNA occurs when a cell divides. The process involves separation of the DNA- double helix and subsequent synthesis of complementary DNA strand, using the parent DNA chain as a template. The first step in gene expression is called transcription in which a particular segment of DNA is copied into RNA (especially mRNA) by the enzyme RNA polymerase. 65.

How many types of nitrogenous bases are found in nucleic acids? (a) Four (b) Three (c) Two (d) Five UPPCS Pre 2001 Ans. (d) : The nucleic acids like DNA and RNA are composed of nitrogenous bases, sugar and phosphorous. These nitrogenous bases are adenine (A), guanine (G), thymine (T) and cytosine (C). These nitrogenous bases have hydrogen bond between opposing DNA strands to form the rungs of the 'twisted ladder' or double helix of DNA or a biological catalyst that is found in the nucleotides. Adenine is always paired with thymine, and guanine is always paired with cytosine. These are known as base pairs. Uracil is only present in RNA, replacing thymine. Pyrimidines include uracil, thymine, cytosine. They have a single ring structure. Purines include adenine and guanine. They have a double ring structure.

66.

The termination signal for protein synthesis comes from : (a) AUU (b) GUG (c) UAA (d) CTT UPPCS Pre 1997 Ans. (c) : Termination signal begins with the arrival of one of the three stop codons, UAA called ochre, UAG Amber, UGA opal. UAA, UAG, UGA are called non sense codon.

67.

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Transfer of genetic information from one generation to the other is accomplished by : (a) DNA (b) Triplet codon (c) Transfer RNA (d) Messenger RNA UPPCS Pre 1996 Ans. (a) : Transfer of genetic information from one generation to the other is accomplished by DNA. The process by which genetic information is passed from one generation to the next generation is known as genetic inheritance. YCT

Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 68.

The enzyme DNA ligase : Ans. (b) : Each complete helix turn of B DNA is (a) Introduces superhelical twists o o 34 A not 45 A . Z-DNA have each complete helix turn (b) Connects the ends of two DNA chains o (c) Synthesizes RNA primers 45 A . Number of base pair in B DNA is 10 and 12 (d) Erases primers and fills gaps base pair found in Z-DNA. UPPCS Pre 1995 Salient features of B-DNA are as follows : Ans. (b) : DNA ligase is an enzyme which can The two strands of polynucleotides run anti-parallel. connect two strands of DNA by forming a bond The backbone of the double helical structure is formed between the phosphate group of one strand and deby the sugar-phosphate-sugar chain. The nitrogenous oxyribose group on another. Ligation can be bases lie perpendicular to the backbone of the performed on lengths of DNA which have 'blunt' or molecule. They lie on the inner side. There is a 'sticky' ends following restriction digests. complementary base pairing between two anti-parallel 69. For which discovery Watson and Crick are strands. Example : A pairs with T and G pairs with C. famous and got Noble Prize : A and T are paired by the formation of two hydrogen bonds, and G and C are paired by the formation of (a) Discovery of insulin three hydrogen bonds. Each step of the strand is (b) Restriction enzyme represented by a pair of bases. At each step the strand (c) Molecular structure of DNA turns 36°. One full turn of the strand involves 10 base (d) Synthesis of RNA pairs. The distance between two successive sugar UPPCS Pre 1995 o molecules is 3.4 A . Ans. (c) : Watson and Crick became popular and got Nobel Prize for discovery of molecular structure of 72. Termination codons are : DNA in 1962. According to Watson and Crick model, (a) U A G, A U G, G U G DNA molecule consists of two long, parallel chains (b) U A G, G U G, U U A which are spirally coiled around a common axis in a (c) U A G, U A A, U G A regular manner to form a double helix. Structure of (d) U G A, U A A, A U G DNA was explained by Waston and Crick as the molecule which contains heredity information for cells. UPPCS Pre 2002 70. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct Ans. (c) : The three termination codon are UAA, answer from the code given below the list : UAG, UGA. Termination codon called non sense List-I List-II codon. There are 64 codons in which 61 code for amino acid and three are terminating codon. (Helix type) (Base pairs per turn of helix) 73. Nucleic acids are polymers of : (A) A 1. 9.33 (a) purines (b) pyrimidines (B) B 2. 10 (c) nucleosides (d) nucleotides (C) C 3. 11 UPPCS Pre 1998 (D) Z 4. 12 Ans. (d) : Nucleic acids are two types– Code : 1. De-oxyribose Nucleic Acid A B C D 2. Ribose Nucleic Acid. Nucleic Acid is the (a) 1 4 3 2 polymer of nucleotides. Nucleotides = Sugar + (b) 2 1 4 3 Nitrogenous base + Phosphate. (c) 3 2 1 4 Sugar include – Deoxy-ribose and Ribose sugar (d) 4 3 2 1 Nitrogenous base include – Adenine, Guanine, UPPCS Pre 2002 Thymine, Cytosine and Uracil. Phosphate group absent in nucleoside. Ans. (c) : 74. A double stranded DNA molecule containing List–I List-II 10,000 base pairs will have a length of : (Helix type) (Base pair per turn) (a) 340 nm (b) 3,400 nm A → 3 - 11 (c) 6,800 nm (d) 34,000 nm B → 2 - 10 UPPCS Pre 1994 C → 1 - 9.33 Ans. (b) : Length of one base pair is 3.4 Å, hence Z → 4 - 12 3.4Å × 10,000 = 34,000 Å = 3400 nm. There are 10 71. Which of the following is not a feature of B-DNA? base pairs per turn of the helical DNA and so the helix (a) 10 base pairs per helix turn o o rises by 34 A per turn. As 10 base pairs = 34 A . (b) Each complete helix turn 45Å long So, 10,000 base pairs will be = (34x 10000)/10 (c) Chains of double helix anti-parallel (Angstroms). Since 1 Angstrom is 10–10 m. (d) Helical diameter 20 Å –5 UPPCS Pre 2002 So, the length of this DNA will be 0.34×10 m. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 75.

Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched? (a) Nucleoside - pentose sugar and base (b) Dipeptide - two peptide bonds (c) Triacylgycerol - ester linkages (d) Carbohydrates - glycosidic bond UPPCS Pre 2010 Ans. (b) : Nucleosides - Pentose sugar and base Dipeptide - Peptide composed of two amino acid residues. Triacylglycerol - Ester linkage Carbohydrates - Glycosidic bond

76.

80.

Which of the following statements about complementary bases pairing is not true ? (a) It plays a role in replication of DNA. (b) In DNA, A pairs with T. (c) The base pairs are of equal length. (d) Purines pair with purines. UPPCS Pre 2010 Ans. (d) : In complementary base pair, purine forms a pair with pyrimidine. Rests statements are correct. It plays a role in replication of DNA. Adenine, Cytosine and Guanine are found in both RNA and DNA. Thymine is found only in DNA; Uracil takes its (Thymine) place in RNA molecules. In 1949, Erwin Chargaff, a biochemist, reported that the amount of DNA and its nitrogenous bases varies from one species to another. He also found that the amount of adenine equals the amount of thymine, and the amount of guanine equals the amount of cytosine in DNA from every species. 81. The process of determination of the sequence of genes on a chromosome is termed : (a) gene localization (b) chromosomal mapping (c) protein sequencing (d) DNA sequencing UPPCS Pre 2010 Ans. (d) : The process of determination of the sequence of genes on a chromosome is termed DNA sequencing. DNA molecules in its nucleotide determine bases A, T, G, C. The DNA base sequence carries the information a cell needs to assemble protein and RNA molecules. The first DNA sequences were obtained in the early 1970s by academic researchers using laborious methods based on two-dimensional chromatography. 82. The genetic codon for 'formylated methionine' in a bacterium is : (a) UAA (b) AUG (c) AUU (d) GUA TGT Biology 2011

Which of the following bonds is not found in a nucleic acid molecule? (a) Phosphodiester bond (b) Glycosidic bond (c) Hydrogen bond (d) Disulphide bond UPPCS Pre 2010 Ans. (d) : All bonds glycosidic bond, phosphodiester and hydrogen bond are found in a nucleic acid molecule except disulphide bond. A disulfide bond is a covalent bond between two sulfur atoms (–S–S–) formed by the coupling of two thiol (–SH) groups. This bond is formed between thiol groups in two cysteine residues and are an important component of the secondary and tertiary structure of proteins. 77. The clover leaf model of t-RNA molecule was suggested by (a) Watson and Crick (b) Robert Holley (c) H.G.Khorana (d) Jacob and Monod UPPCS Pre 2010 Ans. (b) : The clover leaf model of t-RNA molecule was suggested by Robert Holley. It depicts the molecular structure of t-RNA. The functionally important portions of the model are anti-codon loop and the amino acid binding stem. 78. Translate of genetic information results in the synthesis of : (a) DNA (b) Polypeptide chain (c) m RNA (d) hn RNA UPPCS Pre 2005 Ans. : (b) The genetic code for formylated Ans. (b) : Translate of genetic information results in methionine in a bacterium is AUG. AUG is a start the synthesis of polypeptide chain. codon. The three stop codons encode a release factor, Polypeptide chains are formed by dehydration are UAA, UAG and UGA. AUG has dual functions, between the amino group of a L-amino-acid with the it codes for methionine (met). It also acts as an carboxyl group of another. initiator codon. There are three nonsense codons, 79. The diameter of DNA molecule is : called amber (UAG) ochre (UAA) and opal (UGA). (a) 20 Å (b) 50 Å They encode no amino acid. The ribosome pauses and falls off the mRNA. (c) 100 Å (d) 200 Å UPPCS Pre 2010 83. Nonsense codons are : Ans. (a) : The diameter of a DNA molecule is about (a) AUG, AAU, UAG 20Å while the distance between two base pairs is 3.4Å. (b) GGU, AGU, AUG There are 10 nitrogen base pairs in each twist of DNA. (c) UAG, UAA, UGA DNA is made of two de-oxyribose helical chains or (d) GAU, AAU, GUA strands coiled around an axis to form a double helix of 20Å of diameter. GIC Biology 15.09.2015 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. : (c) Non sense codons are UAG, UAA, UGA. AUG codon is known as start codon while non sense codon (UAG, UAA, UGA) are called stop codon. Nonsense codons are the codons for which no normal tRNA exists. They do not code for any amino acid and their presence leads to their termination of the translation. 84. Coliphage φ X174 contains : (a) Double-stranded RNA (b) Single- stranded RNA (c) Double-stranded DNA (d) Single- stranded DNA TGT Biology 2005 Ans. : (d) Coliphage φ× 174 contains single stranded DNA. The φ× 174 bacteriophage is a single-stranded DNA virus that infects Escherichia coli and the first DNA based genome to be sequenced. This was completed by Fred Sanger and his team in 1977. 85. Mongoloid condition is related to : (a) Monosomy (b) Trisomy (c) Nullisomy (d) None of the above TGT Biology 2005 Ans. : (b) Mongoloid condition is related to trisomy. It is also known as Down syndrome, is a genetic chromosome 21 disorder causing developmental and intellectual delays. The errors in chromosomes occur during meiosis. When non-disjunction results in half of the gametes containing N+1 chromosomes and half N1 chromosomes. During fertilization with normal gamete, the N+1 gamete will result in a zygote with a 2N+1 condition where a particular chromosome is present in three copies called trisomy. Down's syndrome in humans is due to trisomy of the 21st chromosome. 86. The similarity between DNA and RNA is that both: (a) are double stranded (b) have similar sugars (c) are polymers of nucleotides (d) have similar pyrimidines TGT Biology 2004 Ans. : (c) The similarity between DNA and RNA is that both are polymers of nucleotides. Both DNA and RNA are made up of five carbon pentose sugar, phosphate and nitrogenous bases. Deoxyribose sugar is found in DNA while in RNA ribose sugar is found. DNA bases are A, G, T, C & RNA A, G, C, U. DNA and RNA are similar to each other as both are polymers of nucleotides. DNA is a polymer of deoxynucleotides and RNA is a polymer of ribonucleotides. 87. Which one is DNA nitrogenous base with single ring structure : (a) Uracil (b) Thymine (c) Adenine (d) Guanine PGT Biology 2013 Ans. : (b) There are five different nitrogenous bases which are divided into two groups. Pyrimidine bases (single ring structures) are thymine, cytosine and uracil. Purine bases (double ring structure) are adenine and guanine. So, the DNA nitrogenous base with single ring structure is thymine. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

88.

Anticodon occurs in : (a) D N A (c) m R N A

(b) t R N A (d) r R N A PGT Biology 2013

Ans. : (b) Anticodon occurs in t-RNA at one end. tRNA molecules helps decoding a messenger RNA (mRNA) sequence to a protein. A codon or triplet of bases specifies a given amino acid. Most amino acids are specified by more than one codon. The conversion of codon information into proteins is conducted by transfer RNA. Each transfer RNA (t-RNA) has an anticodon which can base pair with a codon. Some anticodons have modified bases that can pair with more than one codon, specifying the same amino acid. 89.

During transcription the sequence of nucleotides of DNA strand is ATACG; then the sequence of nucleotides on m-RNA will be : (a) TATGC (b) TCTGC (c) UAUGC (d) UATGC PGT Biology 2009

Ans. : (c) During transcription, the sequence of nucleotides of DNA strand is ATACG, then the sequence of nucleotides on m-RNA will be UAUGC. DNA = A T A C G

↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ RNA = U A U G C because in RNA, the bases are adenine (A), cytosine(C), guanine (G), or uracil (U). Adenine and guanine are purines, cytosine and uracil are pyrimidines. Purines and pyrimidines form complementary base pairs and this process is also called as complementary base pairing.

90.

The distance between the two base pairs of a DNA strand is : (a) 3.4

(b) 10

(c) 20

(d) 34 PGT Biology 2009

Ans. : (a) The distance between the two base pairs of a DNA strand is 3.4Å. The diameter of a DNA molecule is about 20Å while the distance between two base pairs is 3.4Å. There are 10 nitrogen base pairs in each twist of DNA. 91.

Genetic code was deciphered by : (a) Nirenberg (b) Watson (c) Crick (d) Muller PGT Biology 2004 Ans. : (a) Genetic code is the sequence of nucleotides in DNA and RNA that determines the amino acid sequence of proteins. It is used for 4 bases of DNA-the A, C, G and T that are attach together. Genetic code was discovered by Marshall Nirenberg in 1961 & won Nobel Prize in 1968.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 92. A nucleoside is made up of : (a) Phosphate group+Pentose sugar+Nitrogenous base (b) Pentose sugar + Nitrogenous base (c) Nitrogenous base + Phosphate group (d) None of the above Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2015 RPSC School Lecturer (23/07/2016) Ans. : (b) A nucleoside is made up of pentose sugar and nitrogenous bases. A nucleotide consists of a nitrogenous base, a sugar (pentose i.e. ribose or deoxyribose) and one to 3 phosphate groups. They are the molecular building blocks of DNA and RNA. All living organisms store their genetic information in form of DNA/RNA. DNA is made of units called nucleotides. Each nucleotide is made of 3 components - deoxyribose sugar, a phosphate group and a nitrogen base. 93. Out of 64 possible codons, how many code for amino acids? (a) 59 (b) 61 (c) 60 (d) 63 Delhi SSB PGT Biology 2015 Ans. : (b) Out of 64 possible codons, 61 codes for amino acids while 3 codons does not code for any amino acids are called non-sense codon. Thes are also called stop codon-UAG, UGA, UAA. 94. The triplet UAG, UAAand UGA are called : (a) Non sense codes (b) Initiating codes (c) Terminating codes (d) Both (a) and (b) Delhi SSB PGT Biology 2015 Ans. : (a and c) The triplet UAG, UAA and UGA are called non-sense codons. Non sense codons are UAG, UAA, UGA. AUG codon is known as start codon while non sense codon (UAG, UAA, UGA) are called stop codon. Non-sense codons are the codons for which no normal tRNA exists. They do not code for any amino acid and their presence leads to their termination of the translation. 95. First artificial gene was synthesized by : (a) Nirenberg (b) Mendel (c) Morgan (d) Khorana Navoday Vidyalay PGT Biology 2014 Ans : (d) First artificial gene was synthesized by Har Gobind Khorana in 1972. It was first synthesized in yeast which coded for the enzyme involved in the transfer RNA or tRNA synthesis. (Yeast tRnA). It possesses 126 nucleotides. 96. Which of the following is a termination codon in Genetic code? (a) UGA (b) UCG (c) UUC (d) UCU GIC Biology 15.09.2015 Ans. (a) : UGA is a termination codon. It is also called stop codon or non-sense codon. There are 2 other codon UAA, UAG. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

97.

Re-arrangement of a group of genes in chromosome in such a way that their order in the chromosome is reversed is referred to as : (a) Inversion (b) Translocation (c) Deficiency (d) Interchange UPPCS Pre 1997 Ans. (a) : The order of gene in a chromosome is reversed end to end at 1800 called inversion. It occurs when a single chromosome undergoes breakage and rearrangement within itself. Inversion is chromosomal mutation where a segment of a chromosome is reversed end to end. It occurs by introduction of a break in a single chromosome, its rotation by 180° followed by its reinsertion in the same location. 98. The term gene was given by : (a) Morgan (b) Bateson (c) Johannsen (d) Mc Clung UPPCS Pre 1995 Ans. (c) : ‘Gene’ term given by Johannsen but term ‘Genetics’ given by Bateson in 1905. Chromosome theory of sex determination given by McClung. Wilhelm Johannsen was a Danish botanist, plant physiologist and geneticist. He was born in Copenhagen. In his book 'Elemente der exakten Erblichkeitslehre', the term 'gene' was first used. This term was coined in opposition to the then common pangene that stemmed from Darwin's theory of Pangenesis. He coined the terms 'genotype' and 'phenotype' as well. 99. Histone protein are rich in : (a) Arginine and Lysine (b) Glycine and Aspartic acid (c) Glutamic acid and Aspartic acid (d) Methionine and Glutamic acid Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2011 Ans. : (a) Negative DNA is surrounded by positive histone octamer which is called nucleosome core. Two copies of each histone protein (H2A, H2B, H3 and H4) are found in the histone octamer. Histone proteins are positive, alkaline and are rich in arginine and lysine. The histone proteins are rich in basic amino acids lysine and arginine which gives a positive charge to them. The positive charge of histone proteins helps in winding of negatively charged DNA around them. 100. A nucleic acid sequence that is extended by DNA synthesis is called : (a) a template strand (b) a primer strand (c) a leading strand (d) a lagging strand UPPCS Pre 2003 Ans. (d) : A nucleic acid sequence that is extended by DNA synthesis is called a lagging strand because Okazaki fragment present on it. A complete DNA fragment are formed on leading strand. As synthesis proceeds, an enzyme removes the RNA primer, which is then replaced with DNA nucleotides, and the gaps between fragments are sealed by an enzyme called DNA Ligase. 101. In DNA replication the helix is unwind by the enzyme: (a) Topoisomerase (b) Primase (c) DNA polymerase (d) Helicase UPPCS Pre 2007

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (d) : In DNA replication the helix is unwind by the enzyme helicase. DNA polymerase enzyme removes RNA primer and fill the gaps. Helicase are DNA remodelling enzymes that bind nucleic acid or nucleic acid protein complexes. There are DNA and RNA helicases. DNA helicases are essential during replication because they separate double - stranded DNA into single strands allowing each strand to be copied. 102. Genic balance theory of sex determination was proposed by : (a) Henking (b) J. Belling (c) C.B. Bridges (d) G.J. Mendel LT Biology 2015 Ans. (c) : The theory of genic balance of sex determination was proposed by Calvin Bridges (1926). From his study on Drosophila, he suggested that the X chromosomes carry factor for femaleness whereas autosomes 'A' carry genes for maleness. Y chromosome does not take part in sex determination. From the picture it is clear that the genic balance is governed by the ratio of the number of Xchromosomes to the number of sets of autosomes in the zygote at fertilization. If the ratio is 1.0, the offspring develops into female, but if it is 0.5, then the offspring develops into male. If the ratio is intermediate between 1.0 and 0.5, the resulting individual is neither a male or nor a female but an inter sex. Super females have a ratio of 1.5 and super males have a ratio 0.33. 103. The synthesis of DNA requires : (a) DNA polymerase (b) DNA ligase (c) reverse transcriptase (d) RNA polymerase LT Biology 2015 Ans. (c) : The synthesis of c DNA requires reverse transcriptase. In genetics, complementary DNA (cDNA) is DNA synthesized from a single-stranded RNA (e.g., messenger RNA (mRNA) or microRNA) template in a reaction catalyzed by the enzyme reverse transcriptase. cDNA is often used to clone eukaryotic genes in prokaryotes. When scientists want to express a specific protein in a cell that does not normally express that protein (i.e., heterologous expression), they will transfer the cDNA that codes for the protein to the recipient cell. cDNA is also produced naturally by retroviruses (such as HIV-1, HIV-2, simian immunodeficiency virus, etc.) and then integrated into the host's genome, where it creates a provirus. 104. Direct effect of radiation on DNA includes : (a) formation of pyrimidine dimers only (b) removal of purine or pyrimidine base only (c) cross linking of strands only (d) All of the above LT Biology 2015 Ans. (d) : Direct effect of radiation on DNA includes all of these – (I) Formation of pyrimidine dimers. (II) Removal of purine or pyrimidine base. (III) Cross linking of strands. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

105. Lampbrush chromosomes are not found in the oocytes of : (a) amphibians (b) birds (c) insects (d) mammals LT Biology 2015 Ans. (d) : Lampbrush chromosomes are present in the nuclei of oocyte of vertebrates such as pisces, amphibians, reptiles and birds. They are absent in mammals. These are the largest chromosomes characterized by the presence of loops having a brushy appearance. These chromosome are involved in DNA and yolk material synthesis. 106. The process of joining of stretches of functional genes is called as : (a) Splicing (b) Gene manipulation (c) Differentiation (d) Lysogene Delhi SSB PGT Biology 2015 Ans. (b) The process of joining of stretches of functional gene is called as gene manipulation. Genetic manipulation is a process of transferring (genes) characters that are desirable from one plant to another plant. Gene manipulation includes gene splicing, use of recombinant DNA, forming of the monoclonal antibodies or PCR (polymerase chain reaction). 107. The ultimate proof that DNA is the genetic material came from the experiments of : (a) Griffith (b) Avery (c) Hershey and chase (d) Mac Leod and Mc Carty UPPCS Pre 1998 Ans. (c) : Griffith make a experiment from Pneumococcus bacteria (Capsulated and Non capsulated) and mouse. This experiment is called Griffith transformation experiment. From this experiment Avery, C.M. Mac Leod and Mc Carty proved that DNA is genetic material and Griffith transforming was actually DNA. Hershey and Chase experiment proved DNA as a genetic material. They proved that bacteriophages inject their genetic material into the host cell leaving their protein coat outside the cell. 108. C-value paradox refers to the presence of which condition? (a) More DNA than needed for coding. (b) Less number of t-RNA than needed for polypeptide formation. (c) Large number of ribosomes than needed for polypeptide synthesis. (d) Less number of RNA polymerases than needed for RNA synthesis. UPPCS Pre 2009, 2010 Ans. (a) : The C-value paradox is that the amount of DNA in a haploid genome (the 1C value) does not seem to correspond strongly to the complexity of an organism. 1C values can be extremely variable. C-value paradox refers to the presence of more DNA than needed for coding. The C-value paradox is concerned with the presence of excessive amounts of DNA in eukaryotic cells and the difference of C-value between eukaryotic species having similar complexity.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 109. If m-RNA has the sequence 5' A U G A A U C C U A G A -3' Then what would be the template DNA strand for this sequence? (a) 5' - A T G A A A T C C T A G - 3' (b) 5' - T A C T T A G G A T C T - 3' (c) 5' - C T A G G A T T T C A T - 3' (d) 5' - T A C A A A T C C T A G - 3' UPPCS Pre 2009 Ans. (b) : If m-RNA has the sequence 5'AUGAAUCCUAGA-3', then the template DNA strand for this sequence would be 5'-TACTTAGGATCT-3'. m-RNA – 5' - AUGAAUCCUAGA -3' template – 5' – TACTTAGGATCT-3' DNA strand is the template strand that has nucleotide sequence on it which is read by RNA polymerases. The RNA polymerase reads the template strand and with the help of base pairing rule codes for m-RNA. According to the rule, adenine pairs with thymine and guanine pairs with cytosine. Thus if template DNA reads TAC GTT ACG the RNA polymerase will read it as AUG CAA UGC. As no thymine is present in RNA, so in place of T it will code U. 110. One complete turn of DNA has : (a) two base pairs (b) seven base pairs (c) five base pairs (d) ten base pairs UPPCS Pre 2009 Ans. (d) : One complete turn of DNA has ten base pairs. DNA has the double helical structure where the two strands are tightly coiled over each other. B-DNA has right-handed helix with the major and minor groove. The diameter of the DNA is 20 Å. The distance between base pairs is 3.4 Å. The total length of one turn of DNA is 34 Å. The total number of the base pair in each turn is 34/3.4 = 10. 111. Inducer in 'Lac operon' is : (a) Repressor molecule (b) Lactose (c) Lactase enzyme (d) None of the above TGT Biology 2011 Ans. (b) : Inducer in 'Lac operon' is Lactose. If lactose is present in the medium, then a small amount of it will be converted to allolactose by a few molecules of βgalactosidase that are present in the cell. Allolactose binds to the repressor and decreases the represor's affinity for the operator site. Operon = (Regulator gene + Promotor gene + operator gene + structural gene). 112. Which of the following is the smallest RNA? (a) m-RNA (b) r-RNA (c) t-RNA (d) hn-RNA UP PGT 2016 Ans. (c) The smallest RNA is t-RNA (transfer Ribonucleic Acid). It helps in decoding a messenger RNA (mRNA) sequence into a protein. When a t-RNA recognizes and binds to its corresponding codon in the ribosome, the t-RNA transfers the appropriate amino acid to the end of the growing amino acid chain. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

113. Genes are made by : (a) Histones (c) Hydrocarbons

(b) Lipoproteins (d) Polynucleotides UPPCS Pre 2002 TGT Biology 2009 Ans. (d) : Genes is a specific sequence of nucleotides in DNA that is located usually on a chromosome and that is the functional unit of inheritance, controlling the transmission and expression of one or more traits by specifying the structure of a particular polypeptide and especially a protein or controlling the function of other genetic material. 114. Genes are mainly made up of : (a) DNA (b) RNA (c) Lipid and protein (d) Protein only PGT Biology 2009 Ans. : (a) See the explanation of the above question. 115. Jumping genes are found in : (a) bacteria only (b) bacteriophages only (c) eukaryotes only (d) both prokaryotes and eukaryotes UPPCS Pre 2008 Ans. (d) : Jumping genes are the DNA sequence that can move (or jump) from one location in the genome to another. Barbara McClintock discovered jumping genes in zea mays. Their movement may cause mutations and also can duplicate or reduce the amount of DNA in the genome of the cell. If the duplication or deletion occurs in gametes, the change is inherited to offspring. Jumping genes are also called as transposons. Bacterial transposons are movable genetic elements and are somewhat similar to a Jumping gene. Unlike Jumping genes, they leave a copy of themselves in the original position when they move to a new site (replicative transposition). Bacteriophages are the viruses which infect and replicate within bacteria, they do not have transposon. So the correct answer is "Eukaryotes and Prokaryotes".

116. Jumping genes occur in : (a) Bacteria only (b) Bacteriophage only (c) Eukaryotes only (d) Eukaryotes and prokaryotes both GIC Biology 15.09.2015 Ans. (d) : See the explanation of the above question.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 6. Inheritance/Human Genetics 1.

Mendel's Law of Inheritance

Segregation of Mendel's factor takes place at : (a) Diplotene (b) Anaphase–I (c) Anaphase–II (d) Metaphase–I UPPSC Ashram Paddhati 29/09/2021 Ans. (b) : Segregation of Mendel's factor takes place at Anaphase - I. During Meiosis-I, the paired homologous chromosomes drift for each gamete to receive one chromosome from each of the homologous pairs. The chromosomes during the Anaphase-I split at the kinetochore or centromere. As a result, formation of two sister chromatids occurs, referred to as chromosomes. Mendel's factors are genes, or more specifically alleles. (Note - Commission has given the answer of this question (c).

1.

2.

The alleles of a gene do not show any blending and both the characters are recovered as such in the F2 generation. This statement is : (a) Law of Dominance (b) Law of Segregation (c) Law of Independent Assortment (d) Law of Natural Selection TGT 07/08/2021 Ans. (b) : According to the law of dominance, a heterozygous individual carries two contrasting alleles/factors of a gene. Here only one allele can express itself in the individual. It is called as dominant allele. The allele which does not show itself in a heterozygous individual is known as recessive allele. Each character in an organism is controlled by a gene which has two alleles. Hence this law suggest that each character of an organism is represented by at least two factors and that one allele (dominant allele) shows its effect in both homozygous and heterozygous condition while the other one (recessive) shows itself in homozygous condition only. The law of segregation states that two alleles for one gene do not blend with each other and both the characters are recovered as such in the F2 generation. 3. The cytological event that corresponds of Mendels law of independent assortment is seen in : (a) metaphase II (b) anaphase II (c) anaphase I (d) metaphase I UPPCS Pre 2005 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (c) : • The cytological event that corresponds to Mendel's law of independent assortment is seen in Anaphase-I. • The law of Independent Assortment describes how different genes independently separate from one another when reproductive cells develop. During meiosis, the pairs of homologous chromosome are divided in half to form haploid cells, and this separation, or assortment is random. Independent assortment of homologous chromosomes in anaphaseI, introduces genetic variability. 4. In a typical test cross, a plant showing dominant phenotype is crossed with a plant showing_______phenotype. (a) Recessive (b) Dominant (c) Any of the two (d) None TGT (2016) 31/07/2021 Ans. (a) : In a typical test cross, a plant showing dominant phenotype is crossed with a plant showing recessive phenotype. The zygosity of F1 generation can be checked by test cross method. In a test cross, the organism with the dominant trait is always crossed with an organism with the recessive trait. If any offspring show the recessive trait, the unknown genotype is heterozygous. If all the offspring have the dominant trait, the unknown genotype is homozygous dominant. Large numbers of offspring are needed for reliable results. 5. The lethal genes are largely recessive. Hence they produce effect in the ______ state. (a) Hemizygous (b) Heterozygous (c) Homozygous (d) None of the above TGT (2016) 31/07/2021 Ans. (c) : The lethal genes are largely recessive. Hence they produce effect in the homozygous state. This expression is in homozygous conditions only. Lethal gene is a gene that in some (such as homozygous) conditions may prevent development or cause the death of an organisms or its germ cells. It is also called lethal factor, lethal mutant or lethal mutation. 6. In incomplete dominance : (a) The phenotypic and genotypic ratios are same in F1 generation (b) The phenotypic and genotypic ratios are same in F2 generation (c) The phenotypic and genotypic ratio are different in the F1 generation (d) The phenotypic and genotypic ratios are different in F2 generation UP PGT 17/08/2021

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Codes : Ans. (b) : In incomplete dominance, the phenotypic and genotypic ratio are same in F2 generation. Incomplete a b c d dominance is a form of intermediate inheritance in (a) 3 2 4 1 which one allele for a particular trait is not expressed (b) 2 1 4 3 completely over its paired allele. It is also known as partial dominance. This results in a third phenotype in (c) 4 2 1 3 which the expressed physical trait is a combination of (d) 3 4 2 1 the dominant and recessive phenotypes. The phenotypic TGT 07/08/2021 and genotypic ratio in F2 generation will be, 1 : 2 :1. 7. If a colour blind female marries a normal male, Ans. (a) : The correct matched answer istheir children will be : List-I List-II (a) Colour blind sons and carrier, blind daughter Neomorph Prduce a phenotype (b) Colour blind sons and carrier daughter different from the wild (c) Normal sons and carrier daughter gene (d) Normal sons and normal daughter Epistatic gene Masking the action of UPPSC Ashram Paddhati 29/09/2021 another gene Ans. (b) : If a colour blind female marries a normal Codominance A character controlled male, their children will be colour blind sons and carrier by two genes. daughter. • Colour blindness is a X-linked recessive disorder. Translocation Interchromosomal Males just have one X-chromosome, so they can never rearrangement be carriers. 10. Development of supernumerary digits and toes in man is the example of : (a) Discontinuous Variation (b) Inheritance (c) Change in Chromosome Number (d) DNA replication GIC 19/09/2021 Ans. (a) : Development of supernumerary digits and 8. Mendel's work of genetics was based upon toes in man is the example of discontinuous variation. It is an abrupt variation in which there are few genes that which of the following? are responsible for this type of variation. It is a type of (a) Andalusian Fowl genetic variation which are caused by mutations and (b) Oenothera Lamarckiana genetic recombination. (c) Pisum Sativum ⇒ Continuous variation is the variation that has no limit (d) Drosophila on the value that can occur within a population. TGT 07/08/2021 11. A brown eyed couple has a blue- eyed child. Ans. (c) : Mendel studied inheritance in peas (Pisum The trait of brown eye (B) is dominant over sativum). He choose peas because they had been used blue eye (b).What is the genotype of the for similar studies, are easy to grow and can be sown couple? each year. Mendel is known as the father of modern (a) Bb × Bb (b) BB × BB genetic because of genetic experiments with pea or Pisum sativum. (c) BB ×Bb (d) BB ×bb GIC 19/09/2021 9. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below. Ans. (a) : A brown-eyed couple has a blue-eyed child. The trait of brown eye(B) is dominant over blue eye(b). List-I List-II The genotype of the couple will be, Bb × Bb. A Neomorph 1. Interchromosomal ⇒ B is the dominant gene for the brown coloured eye. rearrangement So, for the progeny to be blue eyes the recessive allele B. Epistatic gene 2. Masking the action of needs to be inherited from both the parents. another gene C. Codominance

3. Produce a phenotype different from the wild gene

D. Translocation

4. A character controlled by two genes

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When a certain character is inherited only through the female parent it, probably represents the case of : (a) Incomplete dominance (b) Cytoplasmic inheritance (c) Mendalian nuclear inheritance (d) Multiple plastic inheritance UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (b) : When a certain character is inherited only through the female parent, it probably represents the case of cytoplasmic inheritance. This inheritance is contained in the cytoplasm of a cell, rather than the nucleus. Only a very small number of genes are inherited in this way. Plasma genes present in the maternal cytoplasm are transmitted to offspring. The cytoplasm in egg is always much more than that of the sperm. 13. Extra chromosomal inheritance is exhibited by the following : (a) Lysosome (b) Golgi body (c) Endoplasmic reticulum (d) Mitochondria UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (d) : Extra chromosomal inheritance is exhibited by mitochondria. It is a non- Mendelian pattern of inheritance governed by the DNA present in the cytoplasm, and is also known as cytoplasmic inheritance, mitochondria is the only organelle other than nucleus. Which has its own DNA unlike nuclear genes, which are inherited form both parents, mitochondrial genes are inherited only from the mother. 14. How many true breeding varieties of pea plants were selected by Mendel ? (a) 7 (b) 4 (c) 14 (d) 8 Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2015 RPSC School Lecturer (23/07/2016) Ans. (c) : A true breeding line refers to the plant that has undergone continuous self-pollination and showed stable trait inheritance and expression for several generations. Mendel (father of genetics) selected 14 true breeding pea plant varieties, as pairs, which were similar except for one character with contrasting traits. 15. How many contrasting pair of characters used by Mendel in his experiment? (a) 8 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 11 UK SSSC L.T. (21/01/2018) Ans. (c) : Mendel used 7 pairs of contrasting characters in his experiment. A genetic study was made by Mendel on the pea plant to study the characters which are passed on to the progeny and how they are tranferred, and which progeny receives more parental characters and which receives the least. ⇒The characters selected were: (i) Pea shape - Round or Wrinkled (ii) Pea colour- Green or yellow (iii) Pod shape - Constricted or Inflated (iv) Pod colour - Green or yellow (v) Flower colour - Purple or White (vi) Plant size - Tall or Dwarf (vii) Position of flowers -Axial or Terminal TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

16.

A couple has four girls. What is the probability of fifth child to be a son? (a) 20% (b) 50% (c) 100% (d) 80% RPSC School Lecturer 2011 Ans. (b) : A couple which has 4 girls. The probability of fifth child to be a son will be 50%. The genders of the consecutive children does not depend on each other. So, there is equal chances of them having a girl or a boy. 17. A married couple adopted a male child. A few year later, twin boys were born to them. The blood group of the couple is AB positive and O negative. The blood group of the three sons is A positive, B positive and O positive. The blood group of the adopted son is___. (a) A positive (b) B positive (c) O positive (d) Cannot be determined on the basis the given data RPSC School Lecturer 2011 Ans. (c) : Here, the blood group of the couple is AB positive and O negative. Then their biological sons blood group must be A or B. Hence, we can say that the blood group of the adopted son is O positive. 18. In formulating the well–established 'law of inheritance', Mendel has used which of the following organisms? (a) Drosophila (b) Snapdragon (c) Garden pea (d) Sweet pea UP LT 2018 Ans. (c) : In formulating the well-established 'law of inheritance', Mendel has used garden pea. • By experimenting with pea plant breeding, Mendel developed three principles of inheritance that described the transmission of genetic traits. It includes law of dominance, law of segregation, and law of independent assortment. • Pea plant is selected for experiments because it can be easily grown and maintained, and they can also be cross pollinated. 19. A phenotypically normal couple has two normal daughters and a son affected with haemophilia. What is the probability that both the daughters are heterozygous carriers. (a) 25% (b) 50% (c) 100% (d) 0% UPPCS Pre 2000 Ans. (d) : A phenotypically normal couple has two normal daughters and a son affected with haemophilia. The probability that both the daughters are heterozygous carriers is 0%.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 20.

If the daughter of a colour-blind father and a normal visioned mother marries a normal visioned man, then the possibility of a colour blind child being born to her will be : (a) 1 in 4 (b) 2 in 4 (c) 3 in 4 (d) 4 in 4 UPPCS Pre 2008 Ans. (a) : If the daughter of a colour- blind father and a normal visioned mother marries a normal visioned man, then the possibility of a colour-blind child being born to her will be 1 in 4.

Ans. (d) : If a rare genetic disease is inherited on the basis of an X-linked dominant gene, one would expect to find that affected mothers have 100% affected sons.

23.

Phenotypic ratio of dihybrid test cross is : (a) 15 : 1 (b) 3 : 1 (c) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (d) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 UPPCS Pre 2003

Ans. (d) : Phenotypic ratio of dihydrid test cross is 1:1:1:1. Mendel introduced test cross that involves the breeding of an individual with a phenotypically recessive individual, in order to determine the zygosity of the former by analyzing proportions of offspring phenotypes.

21.

A haemophilic man marries a woman carrier (heterozygous) for haemophilia. What would be the possibility Genetics their daughter would be haemophilic? (a) 100% (b) 75% (c) 50% (d) 0% GIC Biology 14.06.2015 24. Ans. (c) : → If a haemophilic man marries a woman carrier (heterozygous) for haemophilia, then there is 50% possibility that their daughter is haemophilic.

22.

Ans. (b) : According to Mendels principles, a dihybrid cross between two heterozygous fruit flies with brown bodies and red eyes (BbEe × BbEe) should yield offspring with nine possible genotypes and four possible phenotypes. In this case, the ratio of phenotypes observed among the offspring is 9 (brown body, red eyes) : 3 (brown body, brown eyes) : 3 (Black body, red eyes) : 1 (black body, brown eyes).

If a rare genetic disease is inherited on the basis of an X-linked dominant gene, one would expect to find : 25. (a) affected fathers have 100% affected sons (b) affected mothers have 100% affected daughters (c) affected fathers have 100% affected daughters (d) affected mothers have 100% affected sons UPPCS Pre 2003

TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

The parents of offspring exhibiting a 9:3:3:1 ratio would be : (a) Two homozygous individuals (b) Two heterozygous individuals (c) Two homozygous individuals (d) One strong and one weak individual UPPCS Pre 1995

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Offspring's of which of the following crosses are all phenotypically alike : (a) Dd × Dd (b) Dd × dd (c) DD × Dd (d) Ww × Ww UPPCS Pre 2002 YCT

Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 28.

Ans. (c) : Offsprings from the cross, DD × Dd are all will be phenotypically same. It is based on Mendel's monohybrid cross. DD × Dd

X

D

D

D DD DD d Dd Dd All are phenotypically same but genotypically different. 26. Consider the following statements : Assertion (A) : T.H. Morgan during his studies on Drosophila concluded that Mendel's principle of independent assortment is not universally applicable. Reason (R) : Drosophila has 4 pairs of chromosomes only. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: Codes : (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A). (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (d) (A) is false, but (R) is true. UPPCS Pre 2010

In Mendelian dihybrid cross, how many types of genotypes and phenotypes will be present ? (a) 4 and 9 respectively (b) 9 and 4 respectively (c) 9 and 16 respectively (d) 4 and 12 respectively TGT Biology 2011

Ans. (b) : • In Mendelian dihybrid cross, 9 types of genotypes and 4 types of phenotypes are present. • Mendel performed dihybrid crosses on pea plant, that describes a mating experiment between two organisms that are identically hybrid for two traits.

Ans. (b) : • Law of independent assortment is applicable Phenotype ratio – 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 only for the traits which are located on different Genotype ratio – 1 : 2 : 2 : 4 : 1 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 1 chromosomes, and thus it is not universally applicable. 29. The phenomenon that defies independent • In Drosophila, there are 4 homologous pairs of assortment is : chromosomes, 2 pairs of large autosomes, 1 pair of very (a) Segregation small autosomes, and a pair of sex chromosomes (X, Y). (b) Linkage • Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct (c) Crossing over explanation of (A). (d) Dominance 27. Which of these is not a Mendelian disorder? TGT Biology 1999 (a) Haemophilia Ans. (b) : • The phenomenon that defies independent (b) Cystic fibrosis assortment is linkage. (c) Cri-du-chat syndrome • Independent assortment is how different genes (d) Sickle cell anaemia independently separate from one another when TGT Biology 2011 reproductive cells develop. In other words, during Ans. (c) : • Cri-du-chat syndrome is not a Mendelian gamete formation, one pair of trait segregates from another pair of traits independently. disorder. • Cri-du-chat syndrome is a rare genetic condition that • Linkage is exception to law of independent is caused by the deletion of genetic material on the assortment, because the genes present on the same small arm (the p arm) of chromosome 5. Symptoms chromosome may or may not show independent include a high-pitched cat-like cry, mental retardation, assortment and inherit together. delayed development, microcephaly, hypertelorism, 30. In case of incomplete dominance F2 generation and distinctive facial features. has : • Mendelian disorder is a type of genetic disorder due (a) Genotypic ratio equal to phenotypic ratio to alterations in one gene or as a result of abnormalities (b) Genotype ratio 3 : 1 in the genome. Ex- sickle cell anaemia, muscular (c) Phenotype ratio 3 : 1 dystrophy, cystic fibrosis, thalassemia, (d) none of the above phenylketonuria, colour blindness, skeletal dysplasia, PGT Biology 2013 and haemophilia. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (a) : • In case of incomplete dominance, F2 generation has genotypic ratio equal to phenotypic ratio. • In incomplete dominance, two true-breeding parents are crossed to produce an intermediate offspring (heterozygous).

Ans. (b) : • Crossing of F1 heterozygous with homozygous recessive parent is known as test cross. • A test cross is a way to explore the genotype of an organism. An organism's genetic makeup is called its genotype, and it reflects all of the alleles, or forms of the gene, that are carried by the organism. A test cross can help determine whether a dominant phenotype is homozygous or heterozygous for a specific allele. The first use of test crosses were in Gregor Mendel's experiments in plant hybridization. 34.

If a colour blind man marries a woman who is normal but carries this trait, the progeny would be : (a) all normal females but carrier of the trait. (b) all males and 50% females colour blind. (c) all females and 50% males colour blind. (d) 50% males and 50% females colour blind. UPPCS Pre 2005 Ans. (d) : If a colour blind man marries a woman who is normal but carries this trait, the progeny would be 50% males and 50% females colour blind.

Phenotypic ratio → Red : Pink : White (1 : 2 : 1) Genotypic ratio → RR : Rr : rr (1 : 2 : 1) 31. Who proposed the "Checker Board Method"? (a) Mendel (b) Punnett (c) Correns (d) Darwin Delhi SSB PGT Biology 2015 Ans. (b) : "Checker Board Method" was proposed by Punnett. • Reginald Crundall Punnett was a british geneticist and the creator of the Punnett square, a tool used to predict the probability of possible genotypes of offspring. It resembles a Checker board and used to calculate inheritance patterns. The possible gametes are written on two sides, usually the row and left columns. All possible combinations of gametes during fertilization are represented in boxes below in the squares, which generates a square output form. 32. Human blood group inheritance is which type of dominance ? (a) Complete dominance (b) Incomplete dominance (c) Codominance (d) Irregular dominance Navoday Vidyalay PGT Biology 2014 Ans: (c) • Human blood group inheritance is codominance. • Codominance is a form of inheritance where in the alleles of a gene pair in a heterozygous are fully expressed. So, the phenotype of the offspring is a combination of the phenotype of the parents. • Human ABO blood group is an example of codominance, where alleles A and alleles B are both expressed. So if an individual inherits allele A from their mother and allele B from their father, they have blood type AB. 33. Crossing of F1 heterozygous with homozygous recessive parent is known as : (a) Back cross (b) Test cross (c) Poly cross (d) Top cross GIC Biology 14.06.2015 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

35.

A woman with straight hairs marries a man with curly hairs, and who is known to be heterozygous for that trait. What are the chances that their first child will have curly hair? (a) 25% (b) 50% (c) 75% (d) 100% UPPCS Pre 2010

Ans. (b) : → A woman with straight hairs marries a man with curly hairs, and who is known to be heterozygous for that trait. The chances that their first child will have curly hair is 50%.

36.

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A couple has five daughters but no son. The probability of son the sixth child will be : (a) 0% (b) 50% (c) 25% (d) 100% UPPCS Pre 2001 Ans. (b) : All the haploid gametes produced by female (ova) have sex chromosome X, whereas in the male gamete (sperm) the sex chromosome could be either X or Y. Hence 50% sperm carries X and 50% carries Y. So, that the probability of son the sixth child will be 50%. YCT

Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 37.

The chromosome that determines the male sex in humans is called : (a) x-chromosome (b) y-chromosome (c) w-Chromosome (d) z-Chromosome UPPCS Pre 1996 Ans. (b) : There are two sex chromosomes. XX chromosomes in female and XY in male. So determination of sex is based on sex chromosome. Ychromosome determines male sex. So, Y-chromosome only transfers from father to son.

Ans. (b) : From a cross - AABb × aaBb

Genotypic ratio is - 1 : 2 : 1, and phenotypic ratio is 3 : 1. So, that option (b) is correct. **

2.

Linkage and Crossing Over

T.H. Morgan used which of the following for most of his work on genetics? (a) Drosophila (b) Neospora (c) Pisum (d) Oenothera TGT (2016) 31/07/2021 Ans. (a) : T.H. Morgan selected Drosophila melanogaster for his experiment because. • They could be grown on simple synthetic medium in the laboratory. • They complete their life cycle in about two weeks, and a single mating could produce a large number of progeny flies. • Clear differentiation of the sexes. The male and female flies are easily distinguishable. • It has many types of hereditary variations that can be seen with low power microscopes. 42. In a dihybrid test cross if parental types exceed the recombination types among the resultant progeny, it is due to : (a) Linkage (b) Complete linkage (c) Independent assortment (d) Crossing over UP PGT 17/08/2021 Ans. (a) : In a dihybrid test cross, if parental types exceed the recombination types among the resultant progeny, it is due to linkage. Linked genes occur on the same chromosome, therefore, tend to be inherited together. The only way to separate linked genes is through recombination. When two genes are linked, they do not follow the expected phenotypic ratio for a dihybrid cross between heterozygous parents. Linkage is of two types, complete and incomplete. 43. Which of the following is not correctly matched? (a) Translocation-Interchromosomal rearrangement (b) Epistatic gene- Stimulating the action of another gene (c) Codominance-A character controlled by two genes (d) Neomorphs-Produce a phenotype different from that of wild gene UP PGT 17/08/2021 41.

38.

In human being, following sex chromosomes are found (a) XX (b) XX and XY (c) XY (d) None of these Delhi SSB PGT Biology 2015

Ans. (b) : • In human being, XX and XY sex chromosomes are found. • Humans and most other mammals have two sex chromosomes, the X and the Y. Females have two X chromosomes (XX), while males have both X and Y chromosomes (XY) in their cells. Egg cells contain an X chromosome, while sperm cells contain an X or Y chromosome. In humans the sex chromosomes consist of one pair of the total of 23 pairs of chromosomes. The other 22 pairs of chromosomes are called autosomes. 39.

A normal woman is married to man having hypertrichosis condition. They got one daughter and one son. What is the possibility of this daughter to have hypertrichosis condition : (a) 0% (b) 25% (c) 50% (d) 75% UPPCS Pre 2002 Ans. (a) : The possibility of hypertrichosis is 0% in the daughter. Hypertrichosis is transmitted from father to son only. The gene of hypertrichosis is located on Y chromosomes. Hypertrichosis is an holandric inheritance, i.e., inheritance of genes on the Y chromosome. Hypertrichosis is an abnormal amount of hair growth over the body.

40.

From a cross AABb × aaBb, the genotypes AaBB : Aa Bb : AaBb : Aabb are obtained in a ratio of : (a) 1:1:1:1 (b) 1:2:1:0 (c) 0:3:1:0 (d) 1:1:1:0 UPPCS Pre 2002

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (b) : Incorrect match is : Epistatic gene stimulating the action of another gene. Epistatic gene determines whether or not a trait will be expressed. It is the action of one gene upon another. For example, if the expression of gene 'X' depends on the expression of gene 'Y', but gene 'Y' becomes inactive, then the expression of gene 'X' will not occur. In this example, gene 'Y' is said to be epistatic to gene 'X'. 44. Sometimes a single gene defect produces many secondary effects. This is called : (a) Polytropy (b) Pleiotropy (c) Homotropy (d) Heterotropy TGT 07/08/2021 Ans. (b) : When there are three or more alternative forms of a gene, it is called multiple allelism. Polygeny suggest that humans evolved from several different ancestors. When a single gene has more than one effect, it is called pleiotropy. In secondary pleiotropy, a primary phenotypic effect of gene leads to multiple secondary effects developed one for other, Examples of such conditions are sickle-cell anaemia phenylketonuria, galactosemia. 45. The concept of linkage was proposed by : (a) G.J. Mendal (b) Bateson & Punnett (c) Hardy Weinberg (d) Charles Darwin RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) Ans. (b) : The concept of linkage was proposed by Bateson and Punnett. Genetic linkage describes the way in which two genes that are located close to each other on a chromosome are often inherited together. William Bateson and Reginald Punnett were the founders of experimental genetics in Britain and the main advocates of Gregor Mendel's models of inheritance. In 1905, they cross-breed pea plants in experiments similar to Mendel's. Their experiment revealed linkage and it is the most prominent exception to Mendel's law of Independent Assortment. 46. Exchange of chromosome segments between maternal and paternal chromatids during meiosis is called (a) Synapsis (b) Linkage (c) Crossing over (d) Zygotene UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (c) : Exchange of chromosome segments between maternal and paternal chromatids during meiosis is called crossing over. It occurs during the pachytene stage of prophase-I of meiosis I. Crossing over results in new allelic combinations in the daughter cells. It is also known as genetic recombination. Crossing over maintains genetic diversity within a population. Genetic variability is very important to the long-term survival of a species. 47. When a pure recessive plant (tt) is crossed with F1 hybrid (Tt), it is called : (a) Test cross (b) Back cross (c) Double cross (d) Linkage RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (a) : When a pure recessive plant (tt) is crossed with F1 hybrid (Tt), it is called Test cross. It was first introduced by Gregor Mendel to identify the genotypes responsible for the phenotypes of the progenies after a cross. ⇒ Back cross is the method of mating a hybrid with one of its parents or a genetically identical individual in an attempt to develop infants with a genetic identity identical to that of the parent. ⇒ Crossing between two single cross hybrids is called double cross. 48. During which phase of meiosis does crossing over take place : (a) Zygotene (b) Leptotene (c) Pachytene (d) Diplotene RPSC School Lecturer (23/07/2016) Ans. (c) : Crossing over take place during the pachytene stage, during this stage, non-sister chromatics of homologous chromosomes may exchange segments over regions of homology. Sex chromosomes, however are not wholly identical and only exchange information over a small region of homology. At the sites where exchange happens, chiasmata from. The exchange of information between the non-sister chromatids results in a recombination of information, each chromosome has the complete set of information it had before, and there are no gaps formed as a result of the process. Becuse the chromosomes cannot be distinguished in the synaptonemal complex, the actual act of crossing over is not perceivable through the microscope and chiasmata are not visible untill the next stage. Process

Stage

Crossing over of the DNA

Chiasmata

(1) Condensation of the chromosomes

Prophase

(2) Spindle formation

Prophase

(3) Separation of sister chromatids

Anaphase

49.

The term linkage was coined by : (a) Walter Sutton (b) Theodore Boveri (c) Henking (d) Thomas Hunt Morgan RPSC School Lecturer (23/07/2016) Ans. (d) : Walter Sutton and Theodor Boveri were famous for their contribution to the chromosome theory of Inheritance' in the year 1902. ♦ Thomas Hunt Morgan T.H. Morgan (1911) proposed the chromosome theory of linkage' based on his experiments in Drosophila which states that(1) Linked genes are situated on the same chromosome and have the tendency to inherit together. (2) Inheritance of the linked genes or the strength of linkage is dependent upon the distance between location on a chromosome. Strength of the linkage is inversely proportional to the distance between the linked genes. (3) The genes are located linearly on the chromosome. linked genes on the same chromosome do not assort independently.

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DNA segment which participate in crossing over(a) Recon (b) Muton (c) Cistron (d) Operon RPSC School Lecturer 2011 Ans. (a) : DNA segment which participate in crossing over is recon. Recon is a term coined by Seymour Benzer. The smallest recombinable unit within a cistron. It is the distance between two points on a chromosome. It is the minimum distance in which the recombination is possible. 51. The sex linked gene in man is presented by : (a) Immunoglobulin gene (b) Eye-colour gene (c) Haemoglobin gene (d) Colour-blind gene UPPCS Pre 2000, 2006 Ans. (d) : The sex linked gene in man is presented by colour blind gene because of the X-linked gene and it’s a recessive character. A colour blind man is unable to clearly see or recognize the green and red colour. Only X-linked gene is affected in colourblindness and X-linked gene is a carrier of these disease. Colour blindness is a genetic disease that transfers from one generation to another generation. 52. Haemophilia is caused by (a) Extra autosome (b) Extra sex chromosome (c) Gene mutation in sex chromosome (d) Gene mutation in autosome adaptations Navoday Vidyalay PGT Biology 2014 Ans: (c) Haemophilia is a genetic disorder that was first discovered by John Conrad Otto in 1803. This disease was found in the Royal family of Europe due to which this disease is called royal disease. This disease is caused by a mutation in the X-chromosome of the sex chromosome. In this disease blood clotting is delayed due to which a person dies due to excessive bleeding even from a small wound. 53.

Turner's Syndrome is characterised by : (a) XO heterochromosomes (b) XXO heterochromosomes (c) XXY sex chromosomes (d) XXXY sex chromosomes UPPCS Pre 2007

Ans. (a) : → Turner's syndrome is characterised by XO heterochromosomes. → It is a condition that affects only females and results when one of the X chromosomes (sex chromosomes) is missing or partially missing. It can cause a variety of medical and developmental problems, including short height, underdeveloped breasts, short stature, absence of menstrual cycle and failure of the ovaries to develop. The error that leads to the missing chromosome appears to happen during the formation of the egg. → Ιt was first described by American endocrinologist, Henry Turner in 1938. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

54.

A human individual with XO chromosomal constitution will be (a) a male (b) an intersex (c) a gynandro morph (d) a female (sterile) UPPCS Pre 2010 Ans. (d) : See the explanation of the above question. 55. Turner's syndrome is represented by : (a) XYY (b) XXX (c) XO (d) XXXX Delhi SSB PGT Biology 2015 Ans. (c) : See the explanation of the above question. 56. DNA segment which participate in crossing over : (a) Recon (b) Muton (c) Cistron (d) Operon Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2011 Ans. : (a) Segment of DNA which participates in crossing over is termed as Recon. They are locations within a gene which participate in recombination. There is a minimum distance between recons within a gene, and recombination cannot occur within a recon. Cistron is the largest element in a gene which encodes a polypeptide during protein synthesis. The term cistron refers to a test called cis-trans test, which is similar to a complementation test. The term "muton" is a unit of mutation. They are elements within a gene that can undergo a mutation and lead to the production of mutant phenotype. Each recon may have several mutons within them, and many mutons within a recon may stay linked because of recombination. 57. Which one of the following factors does not affect the strength of linkage? (a) Temperature (b) X-rays (c) Age of animal (d) Salinity UPPCS Pre 2007 Ans. (d) : • Salinity does not affect the strength of linkage. • Linkage is the close association of genes or other DNA sequences on the same chromosome. • Factors affecting the strength of linkage are : (a) Distance– Genes widely located show weak linkage. (b) Age– With increase in age, chances of crossing over decreases which results in the increase linkage. (c) Temperature– Increasing temperature decreases the strength of linkage. (d) Radioactive rays, such as X-rays reduce the strength of linkage. 58. If a child having blood group 'O' is born to parents of blood group A and B, it is an example of (a) complete dominance (b) incomplete dominance (c) co-dominance (d) none of the above UPPCS Pre 2009, 2010

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (c) : If the blood group of a child is O, which is 62. Which one of the following is not a synonym of the jumping gene : derived from parents whose blood group are A and B respectively, it is an example of Co-dominance. In (a) Transposon addition to complete dominance and incomplete, some (b) Intervening sequence gene also show dominant gene in Co-dominant gene. F1 (c) Insertion sequence element hybrid both alleles show their respective expression and (d) Transposable genetic element both expression can be clearly seen in the Phenotype. UPPCS Pre 2000 Such gene are called Co-dominant gene. Intermediate character is not manifested by mixing the product of Ans. (b) : Intervening sequence is not a synonym of the both gene in uncommonly affected but in Cojumping gene. Intervening sequence is part of a gene that dominance there is no merging of properties. is initialy transcribed from the DNA into the primary 59. The trisomy of number 21 chromosome in man RNA transcript but then is excised (removed) from it when the so-called exons sequence on either side of it are results in the production of : spliced together. These are also called introns. (a) Down Syndrome 63. The reciprocal exchange of chromatids during (b) Klinefelter's Syndrome meiosis is called : (c) Patau Syndrome (a) Chiasma (b) terminalization (d) Turner's Syndrome (c) diakinesis (d) crossing over UPPCS Pre 2007 UPPCS Pre 2008 Ans. (a) : • The trisomy of number 21 chromosome Ans. (d) : • The reciprocal exchange of chromatids in man results in the production of Down syndrome. during meiosis is called crossing over. • Down syndrome is a genetic disorder caused when • During meiosis, it occurs as a part of recombination. abnormal cell divison results in an extra full or partial In this process, a region of one chromosome is copy of chromosome 21. It is associated with intellectual exchanged for a region of another chromosome, thereby disability, a characteristic facial appearance, producing unique chromosomal combinations that asymmetrical skull, slanting eyes, mild to moderate further divide into haploid daughter cells. It occurs in mental retardation and weak muscle tone (hypotonia). It the pachytene stage of prophase-I of meiosis. also commonly causes gastrointestinal disorders. 64. Consider the following statements : 60. A woman has a child with Klinefelter's Assertion (A) : There are more colour-blind syndrome. Number of barr bodies present in men than women. child is : Reason (R) : Colour-blindness is a sex-linked (a) 1 (b) 3 disease resulting from a recessive gene on the Y (c) 2 (d) None chromosome. Delhi SSB PGT Biology 2015 Select the correct answer using the codes given below : Ans. (a) : • A woman has a child with Klinefelter's Code : syndrome. Number of barr bodies present in child is 1. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct • Klinefelter is a genetic condition affecting males, born explanation of A. with an additional one or more X chromosome. It may adversely affect testicular growth, resulting in smaller (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. than normal testicles, which can lead to lower production of testosterone. (c) A is true but R is false. • Barr body is an inactive X-chromosome. (d) A is false but R is true. No. of Barr body = No. of X-chromosome –1 UPPCS Pre 2001 • So the number of barr body is always one less than the Ans. (c) : (A) is true but (R) is false. total number of X-chromosomes. • Colour blindness is inherited as a recessive trait on 61. Jumping genes occur in : the X chromosome. This is known as X-linked recessive inheritance. A male carrying such a (a) Bacteria only mutation will be affected because he carries only one (b) Bacteriophages only X chromosome. A female carrying a mutation in one (c) Eukaryotes only gene, with a normal gene on the other X chromosome, (d) Both eukaryotes and pokaryotes is generally unaffected. As a result, the condition UPPCS Pre 2000 tends to affect males more often than females. Ans. (d) : Jumping gene also called transposon or 65. Which one is a sex-linked disease? transposable genetic element is found in both (a) Albinism (b) Beriberi prokaryotes and eukaryotes. Jumping genes are the (c) Colour blindness (d) Tylosis DNA sequences that can move (or jump) from one TGT Biology 2005 location in the genome to another. Barbara Ans. (c) : See the explanation of the above question. McClintock discovered jumping genes in Zea mays. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 66.

The sex linked gene in man is represented by : (a) Haemoglobin gene (b) Colour-blindness gene (c) Eye colour gene (d) Cytochrome gene GIC Biology 15.09.2015 Ans. (b) : See the explanation of the above question.

67.

Which of the following traits in human is sex linked : (a) Colour blindness (b) Diabetes (c) Night blindness (d) None of the above UPPCS Pre 2001 Ans. (a) : See the explanation of the above question.

68.

Which of the following statement is not correct in respect of colour blindness? (a) The disorder does not occur in males. (b) It is transmitted through the female. (c) It is passed from mother to son. (d) Approximately 8% of all women are colour blindness carrier. UPPCS Pre 2009

Ans. (a) : • The statement that the disorder does not occur in males is not correct in respect of colour blindness. 69.

Breaking and reunion theory of crossing over was proposed by : (a) Robert Hooke (b) Stern and Hotta (c) Darlington (d) Farmer and Moore UPPCS Pre 2002 Ans. (c) : Darlington proposed ''Breaking and reunion theory'' of crossing over in 1935. This hypothesis represent the best explanation for the formation of recombinants. This theory states that crossing over takes place due to breakage and reunion of non-sister chromatids in pachytene stage. Chromatids break and form chiasmata which results in crossing over.

70.

Which of the following is a sex linked disease ? (a) Haemophilia alone (b) Eosinophilia alone (c) Night blindness alone (d) Both (a) and (c) UPPCS Pre 2009

Ans. (d) : • Haemophilia and Night blindness both are sex-linked diseases. • Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disorder. The abnormal gene responsible for haemophilia is carried on the X chromosome. It is a rare bleeding disorder only occuring in males. The blood doesn't clot in the typical way because it doesn't have enough clotting factors. • Night blindness is inherited in an X-linked recessive pattern. It is a disorder of the retina with difficulty seeing in low light. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

71.

In man, the number of chromosomes in a double monosomic cell would be (a) 44 (b) 45 (c) 46 (d) 48 UPPCS Pre 2010 Ans. (a) : • In man, the number of chromosomes in a double monosomic cell would be 44. • The number of chromosomes in man = 2n = 46 • The number of chromosomes in monosomic condition is one less than original number i.e., 2n–1 = 46 – 1 = 45. • The number of chromosomes in double monosomic condition is two less than original number i.e., 2n–1– 1=46–1–1 = 44. 72. Crossing over occurs in meiosis during : (a) Prophase I (b) Prophase II (c) Interphase (d) Interkinesis TGT Biology 2013 Ans. (a) : • Crossing over occurs in meiosis during phrophase-I. • Meiosis is a process where a single cell divides twice to produce four cells containing half the original amount of genetic information. In each round of divison, cells goes through four stages, prophase, metaphase, anaphase and telophase. • Crossing over is the exchange of genetic material between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes during prophase-I stage of meiosis, which results in new allelic combinations in the daughter cells. 73. Crossing over occurs in : (a) Meiotic cells (b) Mitotic cells (c) Both meiotic and mitotic cells (d) Mutating cells UPPCS Pre 1998 Ans. (a) : Meiosis takes place only in reproductive cell and crossing over occurs only in meiosis cell division. Crossing over occurs in pachytene stage of prophase-I. Pachytene is the third substage of meiosis, the chromosomes continue to condense. 74. Crossing over takes place between : (a) Gametes of two different organisms (b) Two non sister chromatids of a chromosome (c) Two sister chromatids of a homologous pair (d) Two non-sister chromatids of a homologous pair PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (d) : • Crossing over takes place between two nonsister chromatids of a homologous pair. 75. The hypothesis of 'Coupling and Repulsion' for linkage was formulated by : (a) Sutton and Boveri (b) Bateson & Punnett (c) T. H. Morgan (d) W. Sutton TGT Biology 2009

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (b) : • The hypothesis of 'Coupling and Repulsion' for linkage was formulated by Bateson and Punnett. • Coupling is the linkage of two dominant alleles of two genes in one chromosome and two recessive alleles of two genes in the other homologous chromosome. • In repulsion, dominant alleles or recessive alleles come from different parents, and they tend to remain separate. • It was proposed in 1906 by Bateson and Punnett. 76.

The term 'gene' refers to : (a) Sequence of amino acids in protein (b) A linkage group (c) A part of RNA (d) A portion of DNA TGT Biology 2005

Ans. (d) : • The term 'gene' refers to a portion of DNA. • These are segments of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) that contain the code for a specific protein that functions in one or more types of cells in the body. A gene is the basic physical and functional unit of heredity. The purpose of genes is to store information. Genes are arranged, one after another, on structures called chromosomes and they are passed from parents to offspring. • The term 'gene' was coined by Danish botanist and geneticist, Wilhelm Johannsen. 77.

Which of the following serves as a very good example of sex-linked in Drosophila? (a) White eye (b) Curled wing (c) Vestigial wing (d) Sepia eye UPPCS Pre 2003 PGT Biology 2009

Ans. (a) : • White eye serves as a very good example of sex-linked in Drosophila. • The fruit fly Drosophila melanogaster possesses disproportionately large, often vividly colored eyes. These range in color from red to sepia to white and indicate a great deal about the fly genetic makeup. Normal eye color is red and white eyed Drosophila was one of the first mutations. The eye color gene is located on the X chromosome. When a red eyed male mates with white eyed females, their daughters will have red eyes, but their sons will have white eyes. This is a clear demonstration of sex-linked inheritance. 78. The term linkage was coined by (a) Walter Sutton (b) Theodor Boveri (c) Henking (d) Thomas Hunt Morgan Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2015 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (d) : • The term 'linkage' was coined by Thomas Hunt Morgan. • T.H. Morgan was an American evolutionary biologist, geneticist, embryologist, and science author who proposed the chromosome theory of linkage in 1911. Linkage explain the inheritance of two genes together in offspring present on the same chromosome. • Walter Sutton provided the first conclusive evidence that chromosomes carry the units of inheritance and occur in distinct pairs. • Theodor Boveri proved that chromosomes are separate, continuous entities within the nucleus of a cell. • Henking first observed X-chromosome or X-body. 79. Barr body is formed by : (a) active X-chromosome in boys. (b) inactive X-chromosome in girls. (c) two active autosomes in boys. (d) once active autosome in girls UPPCS Pre 2006 Ans. (b) : The inactivated X-chromosome in the somatic cell of the female is referred to as Barr body which is present as tightly coiled and visible heterochromatin. Barr body is formed when an Xchromosome is compacted into a dense and small body where the genes remain inactivated. Inactivation of these chromosomes is known as lynization. Barr bodies are most commonly situated at the periphery of the nucleus. 80. Haemophilia is a disease caused by deficiency of: (a) Water in plasma (b) Red blood corpuscles (c) White blood corpuscles (d) Thromboplastin UPPCS Pre 2004 Ans. (d) : Haemophilia is a bleeding disorder that prevents blood from clotting properly. The person suffering with this disease lack a clotting factor. It is caused by deficiency of thromboplastin protein. Thromboplastin or thrombokinase is a mixture of both phospholipids and tissue factor found in plasma aiding blood coagulation through catalyzing the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin. 81. The female progeny of an attached X female Drosophila get their x chromosomes from their : (a) mother (b) father (c) both mother and father (d) mother or father UPPCS Pre 1998 Ans. (c) : In Drosophila melanogaster, male and female sex determination depends on the ratio of autosome and X chromosome. If X chromosome and autosome ratio is 1, then female is produced. So, female get X chromosome from both mother and father.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 82.

In which of the following genetic disorders the alkaline phosphatase is usually absent? (a) Mongolism (b) Philadelphia chromosome (c) Haemophilia (d) Phenylketonuria UPPCS Pre 2010 Ans. (d) : Alkaline phosphatase is usually absent in phenylketonuria. • Phenylketonuria (PKU) is an inherited disorder that increases the level of a substance called phenylalanine in the blood. Phenylalanine is a building block of proteins that is obtained through the diet. It is characterized by the absence of an enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase (PAH), responsible for processing phenylalanine. PKU can lead to brain damage, intellectual disabilities, behavioural symptoms or seizures. • Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) is a protein found in all body tissues, with higher amounts in liver, bile ducts, and bone. 83. A colour blind woman marries a normal man. Their children will be : (a) normal daughters and normal sons (b) both sons and daughters colour blind (c) colour blind daughters and normal sons (d) carrier daughters and colour blind sons UPPCS Pre 1995 Ans. (d) Colour blind women XcXc

Normal man XY

×

Xc

XcX Carrier daughter

X

Y

Note-According to question in option (c), affected father have 100% affected daughter and son is normal while in option (d) affected mother have 100% affected both son and daughter or 50% affected son and daughter and 50% unaffected son and daughter. So, that option (c) is correct. 85.

The possibility of which syndrome increases in a child with advanced age mother giving birth to a child : (a) Turner's (b) Klinefelters (c) Marfans (d) Down UPPCS Pre 2002 Ans. (d) : The possibility of down syndrome increases in a child with advanced age mother giving birth to a child. Down syndrome, also known as trisomy 21, is a genetic disorder caused by the presence of all or part of a third copy of chromosome 21. The chance of having a child with down syndrome increases over time. The risk is about 1 in 1250 for a woman who conceives at age 25. It increases to about 1 in 100 for a woman who conceives at age 40.

86.

Gamete

Ans. (b) : • Klinefelter's syndrome – XO sex chromosome is not a correct match. • Correct matches – (a) Down syndrome – Autosomal aneuploidy (b) Klinefelter's syndrome – XXY sex chromosome (c) Haemophilia – Sex-linked (d) Turner's syndrome – Female with retarded sexual development (XO sex chromosome)

XcY Colourblind son

Daughters will be carrier and sons will be colour blind. 84. If a rare genetic disease is inherited on the basis of an X-linked dominant gene, one would expect to find : (a) affected father have 100% affected sons (b) affected mothers have 100% affected daughters (c) affected father have 100% affected daughters 87. (d) affected mothers have 100% affected sons PGT Biology 2009 Ans. (c) : • If a rare genetic disease is inherited on the basis of an X-linked dominant gene, one would expect to find that affected father have 100% affected daughters. • A man passes on his Y chromosome to all of his sons and his X chromosomes to all of his daughters. Therefore, the sons of a man with an X-linked dominant disorder will not be affected, but all of his daughters will inherit the condition. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Which one of the following is not a correct match? (a) Down Syndrome - Autosomal aneuploidy (b) Klinefelter's syndrome - XO sex chromosome (c) Haemophila - Sex linked (d) Turner's Syndrome - Female with retarded sexual development UPPCS Pre 2007

222

Cris-Cross inheritance is a type of inheritance in which : (a) A dominant gene is transmitted from mother to daughter and from daughter to son (b) Dominant gene becomes recessive and recessive gene becomes dominant (c) Recessive gene is carried by mother from generation to generation (d) Recessive gene is carried from father to daughter and from daughter to son TGT Biology 1999

YCT

Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (d) : • Criss-Cross inheritance is a type of inheritance in which recessive gene is carried from father to daughter and from daughter to son. • It can also be said that the transmission is from the grandfather to his grandson through his daughter. • Inheritance of colour blindness show criss-cross pattern. Colour blind father transmits the disorder to his grandson through his carrier daughter.

88.

Discovery of Transposons is related with : (a) Barbara McClintock (b) G.J. Mendel (c) H.G. Khurana (d) T.H. Morgan Bihar PGT 2019 Ans. (a) : Transposons was discovered by Barbara Mc Clintock. They are also called 'Jumping genes'. Transposons are DNA sequences that move from one location on the genome to another. The Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine 1983 was awarded to Barbara McClintock for her discovery of transposons. 89. Which of the following is non-coding RNA? (a) mic RNA (b) Hn RNA (c) Sno RNA (d) All the above UP PGT 2016 Ans. (d) Mic RNA, HnRNA, Sno RNA are non-coding RNA. The non-coding RNA (nc RNA) is commonly employed for RNA that does not encode a protein. The translation of protein does not take place in noncoding RNA. 90. When two genes are located very close to each other in a chromosome : (a) there is no crossing over between them (b) hardly any cross over can be detected (c) the percentage of crossing is very high (d) only double cross overs can be detected TGT Biology 2004 Ans. : (b) When two genes are located very close to each other in a chromosome, hardly any cross over can be detected. Crossing over is the swapping of genetic material that occur in the germ line. When the genes are located very close to one another, genetic linkage is established. The closer the physical location of two genes on the DNA, the less likely they are to be separated by a crossing-over event. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

91.

When the expression of a gene is changed due to presence of another gene, it is called as (a) Overdominance (b) Lethal genes (c) Selfish gene (d) Epistasis UP PGT 2016 Ans. (d) When the expression of a gene is changed due to presence of another gene, it is called as, Epistasis. It describe a number of phenomena, including the functional interaction between genes outcome of mutation. 92. Gene for colour-blindness is located on the : (a) autosomes of man and woman (b) x chromosome of man and woman (c) x chromosome of man only (d) x chromosome of woman only UPPCS Pre 1998 Ans. (c) : Colour-blindness is discovered by Horner in 1876. Colour blindness in man is a sex linked abnormality caused by recessive X-linked gene. This red green colour blindness is located on x chromosome of male. 93. Turner's syndrome is characterized by chromosomes: (a) 46 (b) 45 (c) 47 (d) 48 TGT Biology 2013 Ans. : (b) Turner's syndrome is characterized by 45 chromosomes. Turner syndrome is a chromosomal disorder in which a female is born with only one X chromosome (XO). Symptoms may include osteoporosis, high blood pressure, delayed puberty, congenital heart defect, absence of menstruation, female infertility, kidney malformation, vision disorder etc. 94. Turner syndrome-a human abnormality in which the affected individuals are phenotypically females but have rudimentary sex organs and mammary glands, is caused by the absence of : (a) One X chromosome (b) One-Y chromosome (c) Both X chromosome (d) XY chromosome TGT Biology 2003 Ans. : (a) Turner syndrome is a human abnormality in which the affected individuals are phenotypically females but have rudimentary sex organs and mammary glands. It is caused by the absence of one X chromosome. 95. 'XO' chromosome abnormality is : (a) Down's Syndrome (b) Turner's Syndrome (c) Klinefelter's Syndrome (d) Edward's Syndrome PGT Biology 2013 Ans. : (b) 'XO' chromosome abnormality is known as Turner's syndrome.

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An abnormality in man who are always sterile 3. Eugenics due to improper development of testis, because of an additional X-chromosome (47-XXY) is known as : 100. When a foreign DNA segment is inserted into DNA molecules of a vector, it is called : (a) Huntington's disease (a) transposon (b) promoter (b) Marfan syndrome (c) chimeric DNA (d) shuttle vector (c) Klinefelter's syndrome RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) (d) Turner's syndrome Ans. (c) : When a foreign DNA segment is inserted into TGT Biology 2003 DNA molecules of a vector, it is called chimeric DNA. Ans. : (c) Klinefelter syndrome is a genetic condition It is the recombinant DNA molecule or hybrid DNA in which a male is born with an extra copy of the X that carries DNA segments from other sources. chromosome. It is not inherited, but occurs as a result ⇒Transposon (jumping gene) is a DNA sequence that of a random genetic error after conception. It is called can change its position within a genome. 47 XXY. Symptoms may include delayed puberty ⇒Promoter gene is a sequence of DNA needed to turn infertility, osteoporosis, breast enlargement in men, a gene on or off. small penis and flaccid muscles. ⇒Shuttle vector is a vector that can replicate in more

than one host organisms or two different cell types. 101. Polymerase chain reaction is usually used for DNA : (a) Hybridization (b) Gene transfer (c) Amplification (d) DNA fingerprinting RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) UPPCS Pre 1994 Ans. (c) : Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is usually used for DNA amplification. PCR was invented in 1983 Ans. (b) : See the explanation of the above question. by the American biochemist Kary Mullis at Cetus 98. Barbara McClintock discovered : Corporotion. He was awarded the Nobel prize in Chemistry in 1993 for his work using PCR, copies of (a) Transposons very small amounts of DNA sequences are (b) Cosmids exponentially amplified in a series of cycles of (c) Plasmids temperature changes. As PCR progresses, the DNA generated is itself used as a template for replication. The (d) Prions entire cycling process of PCR is automated and can be Delhi SSB PGT Biology 2015 completed in just a few hours. Ans. : (a) Barbara McClintock discovered transposons 102. Gel electrophoresis technique is used for : in maize. (a) Separation of DNA segments Transposons is a class of genetic elements that can jump to (b) Separation of RNA segments different locations within a genome. They are frequently (c) Separation of enzymes called 'jumping genes'. Most of the transposons eventually (d) None of the above become inactive and no longer move. UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (a) : Gel electrophoresis technique is used for 99. Down’s syndrome is caused by : th separation of DNA segments. Electrophoresis involves (a) Trisomy of 13 autosomes running a current through a gel containing the (b) Trisomy of 18th autosomes molecules of interest. Based on their size and charge the molecules will travel through the gel in different (c) Trisomy of 21st autosomes direction or at different speeds, allowing them to be (d) Trisomy of sex chromosomes separated from one another, shorter stands of DNA GIC Biology 15.09.2015 move more quickly through the gel than longer stands resulting in the fragments being arranged in order of Ans. (c) : Down syndrome is caused by trisomy of 21st size. autosome. It is also referred to as trisomy-21, in which a 103. Separated DNA fragment after electrophoresis person has an extra chromosome. This extra copy are visualized by the following stain : changes how the baby's body and brain develop, which (a) Eosin (b) Haematoxyline can cause both mental and physical challenges for the (c) Ethidium bromide (d) Orcin baby. UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar 224 YCT 97.

Klinefelter syndrome is caused by presence of : (a) 2Y and 1X chromosome (b) 2X and 1Y chromosome (c) 2X and 2Y chromosome (d) 2Y chromosomes only

Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (c) : Separated DNA fragments after electrophoresis are visualized by the ethidium bromide stain, The stained DNA fragments appear as orangecoloured bands. Ethidium bromide, when exposed to ultraviolet light, produces fluorescent effect. The separated bands of DNA are then cut from the agarose gel and extracted by using a technique called elution. The eluted DNA fragments are then used in recombinant DNA. 104. Which of the following are used in Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) ? (a) Ligase and EDTA (b) Restriction endonuclease and Agar (c) Ethidium bromide and a plasmid (d) Two sets of primers and DNA polymerase UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (d) : Two sets of primers and DNA polymerase are used in Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR). It is a technique used to amplify small segments of DNA first two short DNA sequences called primers are designed to bind to the start and end of the DNA target,. Then to perform PCR the DNA template that contains the target is added to tube that contains primers free nucleotides and an enzyme called DNA polymerase and the mixture is placed in a PCR machine. 105. Human insulin is produced biotechnologically from– (a) Saccharomyces (b) E.coli (c) Acetobactor (d) Thermus aquaticus UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (b) Human insulin is produced biotechnologically from E. Coli genes encoding human insulin were cloned and expressed in E. Coli in 1978. The first licensed drug produced using recombinant DNA technology was human insulin, which was developed by Genentech and licensed as well as marketed by Eli Lilly in 1982. Using E. Coli expression system the insulin precursors (IP) are produced as inclusion bodies and fully functional polypeptides are obtained finally by solubilization and refolding procedures. 106. Polymerase used for PCR is extracted from – (a) Escherichia coli (b) Homo sapiens (c) Thermus aquaticus (d) Saccharomyces cerevisiae UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (c) : Polymerase used for PCR is extracted from Thermus aquaticus. It is the source of the heat resistant enzyme Taq DNA polymerase, used in PCR Thermus aquaticus is a thermophilic bacterium that was isolated from hot spring, It's DNA polymerase is very heatstable and is most active around 70ºC. This heatstability makes Taq polymerase ideal for PCR DNA polymerase was first isolated from Thermus aquaticus in 1976. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

107. What are the three basic steps of conventional PCR ? (a) Denature, anneal, extension (b) Denature, anneal, strand\ displacement (c) Strand displacement, synthesis, release (d) Reverse, transcription, anneal, extend UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (a) : There basic steps of conventional PCR are denature anneal and extension. • Denaturing – When the double-stranded template DNA is heated to separate it into two single stands. • Annealing – When the temperature is lowered to enable the DNA primers to attach to the template DNA. • Extension – When the temperature is raised and the new strand of DNA is made by the taq polymerase enzyme. 108. What feature of DNA fragments causes it top move through agarose gel during electrophoresis ? (a) its nucleotide sequence (b) the electrical charges of its phosphate group (c) the hydrogen bonds between its base pair (d) its double helix shape UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (b) : The electrical charges of phosphate group of DNA fragments causes it to move through agarose gel during electrophoresis. The phosphate backbone of DNA is negatively charged due to the bonds created between the phosphorous atoms and the oxygen atoms DNA is negatively charged, Therefore when an electric current is applied to the gel DNA will migrate towards the positively charged electrode, shorted strands of DNA move more quickly than longer stands. 109. Software used alignment is : (a) WINDOW (b) Blast (c) MS-Office (d) Adobe

to

study

DNA

sequence

UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (b) : Software used to study DNA sequence alignment is BLAST (Basic Local Alignment Search Tool). BLAST is a computer algorithm that is available for use online at the National Center for Biotechnology Information (NCBI) website, and well as many other sites. BLAST can rapidly align and compare a query DNA sequence with a database of sequences, which makes it a critical tool in ongoing genomic research BLAST come from the 1990 stochastic model of Samuel Karlin and Stephen Altschul.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 110. Data can be quickly generated with Random 113. First transgenic cow is : Amplified Polymorphic DNA (RAPD) than the (a) Doly RFLP techniques because : (b) Poly (a) Molecular markers of RAPD are efficient (c) Moly (b) Fewer steps are involved in RAPD analysis (d) Rosie (c) DNA digestion is faster in RAPD RPSC School Lecturer (23/07/2016) (d) None of the above UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (d) : Rosie was the first transgenic cow and it was produced in 1997. The gene for human protein alphaAns. (b) : Data can be quickly generated with Random lactalbumin was introduced in this cow. Thus, the cow Amplified Polymorphic DNA (RAPD) than the could produce protein-enriched milk. This milk was Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism (RFLP) nutritionally more balanced than natural cow milk. technique because fewer steps are involved in RAPD analysis RAPD is performed with short and arbitrary 114. Visualization of DNA fragments is done after staining DNA with : oligonucleotide primers and it is based on the random amplification of the multiple locations throughout the (a) Ethidium bromide only template DNA of the organism. RFLP is performed (b) Ethidium bromide followed by white light with a specific restriction endonudease and it is based exposure on the polymorphism of resulted restriction fragments (c) Ethidium bromide followed by UV light and hybridization. exposure 111. In gel electrophoresis, separated bands of DNA (d) Ethidium fluoride followed by UV light are cut out from the agarose gel and extracted exposure from the gel piece. This step is known as: RPSC School Lecturer (23/07/2016) (a) Blotting (b) Elution (c) Cloning (d) Tagging

Ans. (c) : After Gel electrophoresis, the separated DNA is visualized after staining in ethidium bromide followed by exposure to UV light.

RPSC School Lecturer (23/07/2016) ♦ The stained DNA fragments after as orange- coloured bands. Ans. (b) : Elution is generally a process of extracting one materials from another by washing with a solvent It ♦ The process of extraction of separated DNA helps in the extraction of sample material into the fragments from the gel piece is called elution. solution so that is can be tested easily. DNA is ♦ These DNA fragments are then purified and used in separated by the process of agarose gel electrophoresis. recombinant DNA Technology as cloning vectors. When the sample DNA fragments are loaded on an agarose gel, being negatively charged it moves towards 115. Which genetically engineered microbe used in production of human insulin? the anode. The separated DNA fragments are stained with ethidium bromide and exposed to UV radiation. (a) Bacillus thuringiensis The separated bands of DNA are cut out from the (b) Rhizobium meliloti agarose gel and extracted from the gel piece. This step (c) Escherichia coli is known as elution. The DNA extracted from elution is (d) Pseudomonas putida amplified by PCR and can be used for several UP PGT 2016 techniques like DNA amplfied by PCR and can be used for several techniques like DNA fingerprinting etc. Ans. (c) Genetically engineered microbe used in 112. Polymerase chain reaction was discovered by: (a) J. Lederberg (b) A.E. Jacob (c) Cary Mullis (d) Barbara Mc Clintoc RPSC School Lecturer (23/07/2016) Ans. (c) : Polymerease chain reaction was discovered by Kary Mullis in 1985. Kary invented the process known as polymerase chain reaction (PCR) in which a small amount of DNA can be copied in large quantities over a short period of time. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

production of human insulin is Escherichia coli. • Escherichia coli, also known as E. coli, is a gram negative, facultative anaerobic, rod-shaped, coliform bacterium, that is commonly found in the intestines of healthy people and animals. It is the preferred organism for insulin production because it has the fastest reproduction rate. It is easy to handle and produces the highest yields of insulin. • Human insulin is the synthetic insulin which is laboratory grown to mimic the insulin produced in humans by pancreas.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 116. According to HGP, approximate number of Ans. (c) : • DNA fingerprinting requires only a minute genus in a human cell is : quantity of DNA sample such as WBC of blood stain because DNA can be amplified through PCR. (a) 10000 to 12000 • Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is an automated procedure that generates lots of copies of a specific sequence of DNA.

(b) 15000 to 20000 (c) 30000 to 32000 (d) More than 50,000

• DNA fingerprinting is a method used to identify an TGT Biology 2011 individual from a sample of DNA by looking at unique patterns in their DNA. It was invented in 1984 by Ans. (c) : • According to HGP, approximate number of professor Sir Alec Jeffreys. genes in a human cell is 30000 to 32000. 119. DNA fingerprinting is determined by : • Human Genome Project (HGP) was a 13-year (a) arrangement of phosphoric acid in nucleotides megaproject, coordinated by the U.S. Department of (b) sequence of pentose residues Energy and the National Institute of Health. It was (c) number of 'H' bonds between DNA bases closely associated with the rapid development of a new (d) sequence of bases in the DNA filament area in biology called Bioinformatics. It was an UPPCS Pre 2007 international scientific research project with the goal of Ans. (d) : See the explanation of the above question. determining the base pairs, and identifying, mapping and sequencing all of the genes of the human genome. 120. DNA finger print cannot be prepared from : The project was launched in 1990, and was declared (a) RBC complete on April 14, 2003. (b) WBC 117. If the DNA codons are ATG ATG ATG and a cytosine base is inserted at the beginning, then which of the following will result? (a) C ATG ATG ATG (b) C TAG TAG TAG (c) CAT GAT GAT G (d) a non-sense mutation Bihar PGT 2019

(c) Sperm (d) Inner lining of check UPPCS Pre 2002 Ans. (a) : DNA finger print cannot be prepared from RBC because nucleus is absent, so DNA is absent in it. The red blood cells (RBCs) contain haemoglobin and carry oxygen throughout the body, but it is true that they lack the DNAcontaining nuclei found in all other cells.

Ans. (c) : • If the DNA codons are ATG ATG ATG 121. Which one of the following organelles is presently related with Genetic Engineering ? and a cytosine base is inserted at the beginning, it will (a) Lysosome result in CAT GAT GAT G. (b) Mitochondria • Its complementary base pairs will be GTA CTA (c) Plastid CTAC. (d) Plasmid • A codon is a trinucleotide sequence of DNA or RNA UPPCS Pre 2007 that corresponds to a specific amino acid. The full set of Ans. (d) : • Organelle related with genetic codons is called the genetic code. engineering is plasmid. 118. DNA fingerprinting requires only a minute • Genetic engineering is the process of using quantity of DNA sample such as WBC of blood recombinant DNA (rDNA) technology to alter the stain because : genetic makeup of an organism. (a) Large quantity of DNA is available in WBC. (b) DNA contains nitrogen bases. (c) DNA can be amplified through PCR. (d) DNA determines the heredity. GIC Biology 14.06.2015 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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• Plasmid is a small, circular, DNA molecules, that is distinct from a cell's chromosomal DNA. It is extrachromosomal DNA found in bacteria and other cells, and can replicate independently. Due to this property plasmid holds great importance in genetic engineering. YCT

Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 7. Organic Evolution 1.

Organic Evolution

The phenomenon of Bradytely is exhibited by which of the following animal? (a) Neoceratodus only (b) Latimeria only (c) Sphenodon only (d) All of the above UP PGT 17/08/2021 Ans. (d) : The phenomenon of bradytely is exhibited by Neoceratodus, Latimeria and Sphenodon. Bradytely means arrested evolution or evolution at very slow rates, outside the rate distribution usual for a given group of plants or animals. The concept was introduced by the American zoologist and paleontologist G.G. Simpson (1944). Living fossils exhibit this phenomenon over geologically long time scales. 2. The first genetic material that originated on earth was – (a) RNA (b) DNA (c) Sn RNA (d) cDNA UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (a) : The first genetic material that originated on earth was RNA. It was the first molecule of heredity so is evolved all the essential methods for storing and expressing genetic information before DNA came onto the scene. According to the RNA world hypothesis RNA is the precursor to the every life form that exists today on the earth. It is a self replicating molecule and considered as a catalyst for certain biochemical reactions in the primitive cells. 3. In humans, which among the following is/are vestigial organ(s)? (a) Muscles of the external ears (b) Coccyx (c) Vermiform appendix (d) All of the above UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (d) : Vestigial organs are the organs which were functional in their past but lost its function during the course of evolution. Such vestigial structures typically are degenerate, atrophied, or rudimentary and tend to be much more variable than homologous non-vestigial parts. Example of vestigial organs are vermiform appendix, wisdom tooth, coccyx, nictitating membrane, tonsils, muscles of the external ears \etc. 4. What is called as "Reverse Genetics" approach? (a) From gene to enzyme (b) From DNA to phenotype (c) From phenotype to DNA (d) From RNA to DNA UP PGT 2016 1.

TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (b) Reverse genetics is an experimental molecular genetic technique that enables researchers to elucidate gene function by examining changes to phenotypes (of cells or organisms) caused by genetically engineering specific nucleic acid sequences (within DNA or RNA). 5. The process of determination of the sequence of genes on a chromosome is termed: (a) Gene localization (b) Gene sequencing (c) Chromosomal mapping (d) DNA sequencing UP PGT 2016 Ans. (c) The process of determination of the sequence of genes on a chromosome is termed as Chromosomal mapping. In order to map DNA segments on specific chromosomes it is necessary to test a number of close family relatives. 6. Mitochondrial DNA of human cells is not : (a) Naked (b) Double-stranded (c) Circular (d) Of paternal origin UP PGT 2016 Ans. (d) Mitochondria are structures within cells that convert the energy from food into a form that cells can use. Although most DNA is packaged in chromosomes within the nucleus but mitochondria also have a small amount of their own DNA (genetic material) called mt DNA. Mitochondrial DNA (mt DNA) has high rate of polymorphisms and mutations, maternal inheritance etc. 7. Evolutionary history of an organism is known as: (a) Ontogeny (b) Phylogeny (c) Ancestry (d) Palaeontology Bihar PGT 2019 Ans. (b) : Phylogeny is the study of relationships among different groups of organisms and their evolutionary development. It attempts to trace the evolutionary history of an organism or all life on the planet by the hereditary characteristics and DNA and protein molecule of them. 8. The unit of evolution is : (a) Population (b) Community (c) Group (d) Species PGT Biology 2010 Ans. (a) : The unit of evolution is population. Evolution refers to the change in the heritable characteristics of a biological population over successive generations. A population is a group of interbreeding individuals of the same species living in a geographical area. Every population has a pool of gene variants that acts as the raw material for evolutionary change.

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Analogous organs develop due to : (a) convergent evolution (b) divergent evolution (c) parallel evolution (d) progressive evolution

12.

UP LT 2018 Ans. (a) : → Analogous organs develop due to convergent evolution. The organs which have similar functions but are different in their structural details and origin are called analogous organs. → Convergent evolution is defined as the process where by distantly related organisms independently evolve similar traits. Ex- similar nature of the wings of insects, birds, pterosaurs, and bats.

10.

An example of a living fossil is a species of : (a) Archaeopteryx (b) Uromastyx (c) Latimeria (d) Columba UPPCS Pre 2008 Ans. (c) : Latimeria is an example of a living fossil species. Archaeopteryx is a connecting link between birds and reptiles. Uromastyx are commonly called spiny-tailed lizards. Columba comprises a group of medium to large pigeons. 11. Which one of the following includes all homologous organs? (a) Fore limbs of a frog, wings of a bird and fore limbs of rabbit. (b) Legs of a cockroach, hind legs of a frog and fore limbs of rabbit. (c) Wings of a butterfly, wings of a bird and wings of a bat. (d) Wings of a bird, wings of a bat and wings of a flying lizard. UPPCS Pre 2002, 2008 Ans. (a) : Homologous organs are those organs whose structure and origin are same but their functions are different. They have same or common ancestry. e.g.– Forelimb of man, whale, frog, bat etc.

TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Which of the following are homologous organs? (a) Eyes of man and eyes of squid (b) Gills of fish and lungs of man (c) Hand of man and wings of birds (d) None of these PGT Biology 2010 Ans. (c) : See the explanation of the above question. 13. Homologous structures are : (a) Similar in origin, but dissimilar or similar in function. (b) Similar in origin and function. (c) Dissimilar in origin but similar in function. (d) Dissimilar in origin and function. UPPCS Pre 2001 Ans. (a) : Homologous structures are similar in origin and structure but dissimilar or similar in function. Homologous organs are those organs whose structure and origin are same but their functions are different. They have same or common ancestry. e.g.– Forelimb of man, whale, frog, bat etc. 14. Which of the following is not the vestigial organ in man : (a) Ciliary muscle of the eye (b) Hair on the chest of man (c) Vermiform appendix (d) Muscles of ear pinnae UPPCS Pre 1996 Ans. (a) : Ciliary muscles of the eye is not the vestigial organs. Ciliary muscles are associated with suspensory ligament and it held the lens in position. Vermiform appendix is vestigial in man but functional in herbivores animal. Muscles of ear pinna are vestigial in man but functional in mammal and by its help, animals collect sound vibration.

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Which one is not a vestigial organ of man? (a) Nictitating membrane (b) Vermiform appendix (c) Coccyx (d) Epiglottis PGT Biology 2004 Ans. (d) : Organs that have no apparent function or use and appear to be residual parts from a past ancestor are called vestigial organs. Examples – Auricular or pyramidal muscle, nictitating membrane of eye, coccyx, vermiform appendix, hair of chest, earpinna etc. 16. Wings of butterfly, bird and bat are: (a) Homologous organs (b) Analogous organs (c) Unrelated organs (d) Vestigial organs UPPCS Pre 1995 TGT Biology 2009 PGT Biology 2003 Ans. (b) : Wings of butterfly, bird and bat are analogous organs. Those organs of different animals whose origin and structure are different but perform a common function, are called analogous organs. 17. Which of these are analogous organs ? (a) Wings of insects and feathers of birds (b) Forelimbs of horse and hands of human beings (c) Wings of bats and feathers of birds (d) Fins of fish and oars of penguins TGT Biology 2005 Ans. (a) : Wings of insects and feathers of birds are analogous organs. Wings of butterfly, bird and bat are analogous organs. Those organs of different animals whose origin and structure are different but perform a common function, are called analogous organs. 18. Wings of insects and wings of birds are the examples of : (a) Analogy (b) Homology (c) Serology (d) Mimicry TGT Biology 2003 Ans. (a) : Wings of butterfly, bird and bat are analogous organs. Those organs of different animals whose origin and structure are different but perform a common function, are called analogous organs. The study of analogous organs are called Analogy. 19. Wings of bat, locust and pigeon are an example of– (a) Homologous organ (b) Analogous organs (c) Vestigial organs (d) Exoskeletal structures TGT Biology 2002 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (b) : Wings of bat, locust and pigeon are an example of analogous organs. See the above explanation. 20. In a region if population of various species is small, which of the following will be strongest : (a) Natural Selection (b) Genetic drift (c) Hybridisation (d) Migration TGT Biology 1999 Ans. (b) : In a region if population of various species is small, genetic drift will be strongest. Genetic drift is a random fluctuations in the frequencies of alleles from generation to generation due to chance events. It can cause traits to be dominant or disappear from a population. The effects of genetic drift are most pronounced in small populations. 21. Genetic drift operates only in : (a) Smaller population (b) Larger population (c) Mendelian population (d) Island population Navoday Vidyalay PGT Biology 2014 Ans: (a) Genetic drift term was given by Sewall Wright (1935). Genetic drift is change in allele frequencies in a population from generation to generation that occurs due to change events. To be more exact, genetic drift is change due to 'sampling error' in selecting the alleles for the next generation from the gene pool of the current generation. A population's allele frequency is the fraction of the copies of one gene that share a particular form. Genetic drift may cause gene variants to disappear completely and thereby reduce genetic variation. It can also cause initially rare alleles to become much more frequent and even fixed. Although genetic drift happens in populations of all sizes, its effects tend to be stronger in small populations. 22. "Genetic drift" operates in : (a) Small population (b) Large population (c) Island population (d) Mendelian population PGT Biology 2013 Ans. (a) : See the explanation of the above question. 23. P and Q are gene frequencies of dominant and recessive alleles respectively. Which expression is correct for Hardy-Weinberg law? (a) P2 + Q2 = 1 (b) P + Q = 1 (c) P – Q = 1 (d) P2 – Q2 = 1 PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (b) : P and Q are gene frequencies of dominant and recessive alleles respectively. P + Q = 1 is correct for Hardy Weinberg law. This law states that the genetic variation in a population will remain constant from one generation to the next in the absence of disturbing factors.

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2.

Evidences of Organic Evolution

24.

Homologous structures found in some species have no clear function. These are called : (a) Underdeveloped organ (b) Dormant organ (c) Dwarf organ (d) Vestigial organ TGT (2016) 31/07/2021 Ans. (d) : Homologous structures found in some species have no clear function. These are called vestigial organ. The key difference between homologous structures and vertigial structures is that homologous structures are the anatomically similar structures found in different organisms that share a common ancestor, while vestigial structures are the anatomical structures which have lost their usefulness to an organism. Examples of vestigial structure include the human appendix, the pelvic bone of a snake, and the wings of flightless birds. 25. The existence of homologous structures suggests the occurrence of : (a) Divergent evolution (b) Convergent evolution (c) Microevolution (d) Macroevolution TGT 07/08/2021 Ans. (a) : Divergent evolution is the process whereby groups from the same common ancestor evolve and accumulate differences, resulting in the formation of new species. Divergent evolution may occur as a response to changes in abiotic factors, such as a change in environmental conditions or when a new niche becomes available. Whales, bats, cheetah and human share similarities in the pattern of bone of forelimbs, though here forelimbs perform different functions. Hence in these animals show divergent evolution. 26. Which of the following is a true statement? (a) Forelimbs of horse and flippers of whale are analogous structures (b) Analogous organs are not suggestive of any kinship (c) Homologous organs are not suggestive of kinship (d) Wings of insects are homologous to wings of birds GIC 19/09/2021 Ans. (b) : Analogous organs are not suggestive of any Kinship.

⇒ Analogous organs are those organs of different animals that although look different in structure but perform, a common function. These organs are evolved from a convergent evolution, i.e. the ancestors of these animals are not similar but they are now evolving in the same ecological niche as the other animal. Example of analogous organ is the wings of the insect and the wing of the bird. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

In man 'Atavism' means(a) Loss of some characters (b) Appearance of new characters (c) Change in existing characters (d) Reappearance of ancestral characters GIC 19/09/2021 Ans. (d) : In man 'Atavism' means reappearance of ancestral characters. It is the phenomenon in which a phenotypic trait reappears in an organism after a period of absence. This trait is not present in the immediate predecessors of an individual, although was existent in its ancestors. This is possible due to the way genes behave throughout the evolutionary process In human, babies born with vestigial tail or large teeth are example of atavism. 28. Atavism in man means : (a) Appearance of new characters (b) Loss of some pre existing character (c) Appearance of ancestral characters (d) Evolution of existing characters UPPCS Pre 2000 Ans. (c) : See the explanation of the above question. 29. Homology indicates : (a) Common ancestry (b) Divergent evolution (c) Both (d) None TGT (2016) 31/07/2021 Ans. (c): Homologous organs are similar in their morphology, anatomy, genetics and embryology but dissimilar in their function. Divergent evolution is the accumulation of differences between groups, which can lead to the formation of new species, usually a result of diffusion of the same species to different and isolated environments, which blocks the gene flow among the distinct populations allowing differentiated fixation of characteristics through genetic drift and natural selection. Primarily diffusion is the basis of molecular division and can be seen is some higher - level characters of structure and function that are readily observable in organisms. So homologous organs also indicate the divergent evolution. 30. The phenomenon of Industrial melanism demonstrates – (a) Induced mutation (b) Reproductive isolation (c) Natural selection (d) Geographic isolation UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (c) : The phenomenon of Industrial melanism demonstrates natural selection, Industrial melanism is a term that describes how some animals change color in response to environmental charges caused by pollution. The term was coined just after the Industrial Revolution when coal was used to power factories in cities such as London and New York. This phenomenon was discovered in 1900 by geneticist William Bateson, The increase in dark-colored math is an example of industrial melanism.

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Australian marsupials are best examples of : (a) Convergent evolution (b) Adaptive radiation (c) Parallel evolution (d) None of these RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) Ans. (*) : Australian marsupials are best examples of convergent evolution and adaptive radiation. ⇒Adaptive radiation is a process in which organisms rapidly diversify from an ancestral species into a multitude of new forms, particularly when a change in the environment makes new resources accessible, introduces new challenges, or creates new environmental niches. ⇒Convergent evolution is the mechanism by which species that are not closely related evolve together. It occurs when multiple adaptive radiations for different organisms occur in a given geographical region. [Note -Commission has deleted this Question] 32. The fossils are preserved in : (a) Igneous rocks (b) Sedimentary rocks (c) Metamorphic rocks (d) None of these Bihar PGT 2019 Ans. (b) : Fossils are important evidence for evolution because they show that life on earth was once different from life found on earth today. The fossils are preserved in sedimentary rocks. Paleontologists can determine the age of fossils using methods like radiometric dating and categorize them to determine the evolutionary relationships between organisms. 33. In a mammal living in water : (a) Lungs are smaller in size (b) Lungs are larger in size (c) Heart is smaller in size (d) Heart is larger in size GIC Biology 14.06.2015 Ans. (b) : In a mammal living in water lungs are larger in size. Lung cap a cities of marine nammals especially if they are compared on a lean weight basis. The importance of lung as an O2 store during dives is considered and it seems that it would be important only to those species that have a low breath-hold tolerance. O2 present in the fully inflated lung is from four times to equal that in the blood. 34. Assertion (A) : Evidence of evolution is also presented by animal distribution. Reason (R) : The three extant species of lung fishes are not found in the fresh water of the one and the same Continent. Select the correct answer from the codes given below : (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (c) (A) is true but (R) is false. (d) (A) is false but (R) is true. UPPCS Pre 2005 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (a) : • (A) : Evidence of evolution is also presented by animal distribution. (R) : The three extant species of lung fishes are not found in the fresh water of the one and the same continent. • Here, both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). 35. Who discovered the fossil of Archaeopteryx? (a) Andreas Wagner (b) Cuvier (c) Galton (d) Linnaeus Carl UP LT 2018 Ans. (a) : → The fossil of Archaeopteryx was discovered by Andreas Wagner. He was a German palaeontologist, zoologist and archaeologist. He discovered Archaeopteryx from upper Jurassic limestone rocks of solnhofen in Bavaria, Germany. Archaeopteryx is a transitional fossil between nonavian dinosaurs and birds. With its blend of avian and reptilian features, it was long viewed as the earliest known bird. 36. Species diversification represents : (a) Macro evolution (b) Mega evolution (c) Micro evolution (d) Mutation UPPCS Pre 1995, 2001 Ans. (c) : Species diversification represent the microevolution. It produce small change in the population. Mega evolution is defined as the formation of new species group. Microevolution is diversification with in a species and macroevolution is diversification between species. 37. Which one of the following is not a vestigial organ in man ? (a) Vermiform appendix (b) Plica semilunaris (c) Ear muscle (d) Epiglottis LT Biology 2018 Ans. (d) : Epiglottis is not a vestigial organ in man while all - vermiform appendix, plica semilunaris, ear muscle are vestigial organs. Vestigial organs is a parts of human, plant and animal bodies that do not have any clear function and are considered to be residual parts from their respective ancestors. 38. Analogous organs develop due to : (a) convergent evolution (b) divergent evolution (c) parallel evolution (d) progressive evolution LT Biology 2018 Ans. (a) : Analogous organs have a similar function but different in their origin and structure. e.g. Wings of birds, insects and bats etc. Analogous organs develop due to convergent evolution. 39. Important evidence of organic evolution is : (a) Occurrence of homologous and vestigial organs (b) Occurrence of analogous and vestigial organs (c) Occurrence of homologous and analogous organs (d) Occurrence of analogous organs only PGT Biology 2005

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (c) : Important evidence of organic evolution is Ans. (d) : Stanley Miller, in his experiment in 1953, to occurence of homologous and analogous structures or synthesize amino acids, used the mixture of methane, ammonia, hydrogen and water vapour. Miller performed organs. Homologous organs are similar in their origin and this experiment to explain what occured on primitive earth billions of years ago. He sent an electrical charge structure but they have different functions. through a flask of chemical solution of methane, e.g.– Hand of man, wings of birds & bats and flipper of ammonia, hydrogen and water vapour. This created whale etc. organic compounds including amino acids. For analogous organs see the above explanation 29. 43. If an allele has adaptive value of 0.55, what will be its selection coefficient? (a) 0.45 (b) 0.64 3. Theories of Organic Evolution (c) 0.1 (d) None of the above UPPCS Pre 2007 40. Of the following who started the study of Ans. (a) : Selection Coefficient (S) = 1-W Geographical distribution of animals? W = Adaptive value (a) P.L. Sclater (b) A.R. Wallace 1−0.55 = 0.45 (c) C. Darwin (d) H. Spencer TGT 07/08/2021 S = 0.45 recapitulates phylogeny-this Ans. (b) : Once proposed by Alfred Russel Wallace, 44. 'Ontogeny phenomenon is explained by : known to be the father of Zoogeography, phylogenetic (a) Mutation theory affinities can be quantified among zoogeographic regions, further elucidating the phenomena surrounding (b) Inheritance theory geographic distributions of organisms and explaining (c) Recapitulation theory evolutionary relationships of taxa. (d) Natural-selection theory Alfred Russel Wallace OM FRS, was a british UPPCS Pre 1994 naturalist, explorer, geographer, anthropologist, Ans. (c) : Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny, this biologist and illustrator. 41. Mammals from colder climates generally have phenomenon is explained by recapitulation theory. shorter ears and limbs to minimize heat loss. Recapitulation theory was given by Ernst Haeckel in 1866. It states that 'ontogeny repeats phylogeny'. This is called : Ontogeny is the life history of an organism while (a) Lamark's theory phylogeny is the evolutionary history of the race of (b) Mendel's law that organism. This means that an organism repeats its (c) Liebig's law ancestral history during its development. (d) Allen's rule 45. The first successful attempt to test in the theory that precursors of biomolecules could be RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) abiotically synthesised under presumed Ans. (d) : Mammals from colder climates generally primitive earth condition was made by : have shorter ears and limbs to minimize heat loss. This (a) Darwin (b) Huxley is called Allen's rule, and it is postulated by Joel Asaph Allen in 1877. (c) Miller (d) Oparin UPPCS Pre 1999 ⇒Lamarck's theory states that an organism can pass on to its offspring physical characteristics that the parent Ans. (c) : The theory of origin of life was propounded organism acquired through use or disuse during its by Oparin. lifetime. This theory was proposed by Jean- Baptiste de But experimented by Miller. Monet Lamarck. Miller take CH3, NH3, H2 and water vapour in 2:1:2 ⇒Gregor Mendel proposed three Laws, known as ratio in his experiment. Mendel's Law. These are law of dominance, law of 46. The statement "Nothing in Biology makes sense segregation, and law of independent assortment. except in the light of evolution" was given by : ⇒ Liebig's law is a principle developed in agricultural (a) Charles Robert Darwin(b) Aldous Huxley science by Carl Sprengel and later popularized by Justus (c) T.Dobzhansky (d) H.G.Wells von Liebig. UPPCS Pre 2010 42. Stanley Miller, in his experiment if 1953 to synthesize amino acids, used the mixture of Ans. (c) The statement "Nothing in Biology makes gases as : sense except in the light of evolution" was given by T. Dobzhansky. Theodosius Grygorovych Dobzhansky (a) Methane, Hydrogen, Nitrogen was a prominent Ukrainian- American geneticist and (b) Methane, Ammonia, Oxygen evolutionary biologist. He believed that some how (c) Methane Ammonia, Nitrogen mankind would eventually evolve into higher levels of (d) Methane, Ammonia, Hydrogen harmony and creativity. The above statement is a 1973 UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 essay first published in American Biology Teacher. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 47. Which of the following gases was not used by Stanley Miller and Urey in their experiment? (a) Hydrogen (b) Methane (c) Ammonia (d) Oxygen Navoday Vidyalay PGT Biology 2014 Ans: (d) In the primitive earth, the atmosphere was highly reduced. This means that the atmosphere had limited amount of oxygen. Such oxygen poor conditions would have resulted in an atmosphere filled with noxious methane, carbon monoxide, hydrogen sulfide, and ammonia. Stanley Miller and Harold Urey took a mixture of water vapour, methane, ammonia and hydrogen gases to create conditions similar to the primitive atmosphere of the earth. 48. Origin of life as a result of chemical evolution has been explained in detail by : (a) Miller (b) Oparin (c) Haldane (d) Fox UPPCS Pre 2006 Ans. (a) : Origin of life as a result of chemical evolution has been explained by Miller in detail through his experiment. The Miller – Urey experiment was a chemical experiment that stimulated the condition thought at the time to be present on the early earth and tested the chemical origin of life under those conditions. 49. Which mixture was used by Miller to solve the problem of origin of life : (a) methane + ammonia + oxygen + water (b) methane + ammonia + hydrogen + water (c) ethane + ammonia + oxygen + water (d) ethane + ammonia + hydrogen + water UPPCS Pre 2003 Ans. (b) : In Miller experiment they subjected CH4 – NH3 – H2 water mixture in ratio 2:1:2 + water of about 75,000, volts between two tungsten electrodes in a gas chamber for one weeks. The mixture is used by Miller to solve the problem of origin of life. 50. Being all mammals, whales, dolphins, bats, monkeys, and horses have some common characters but they also show conspicuous differences. This is due to the phenomenon of : (a) Normalization (b) Genetic drift (c) Convergence (d) Divergence UPPCS Pre 2007 Ans. (d) : Being all mammals, whales, dolphins, bats monkeys, and horses have some common characters but they also show conspicuous differences. This is due to the phenomenon of Divergence. The process by which groups from the same common ancestor evolve and accumulate differences, resulting in the formation of new species. 51. Which one of the following gases was not present in the free state when life orginated on earth : (a) H2 (b) NH3 (c) CH4 (d) O2 UPPCS Pre 2000 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (d) : Early atmosphere of earth, when free atoms combined to form molecules and compounds of H2, N2, NH3, CH4 and H2O. But there was no free oxygen. According to Oparin, the primitive atmosphere of the earth consisted of numerous hydrogen atoms that combined with all oxygen atoms to form water and leaving no free oxygen. 52. Which of the following was likely to be absent in the free form at the time of origin of life ? (a) Oxygen (b) Methane (c) Hydrogen (d) Ammonia UPPCS Pre 2008 Ans. (a) : See the explanation of above question. 53. According to widely accepted theory the earth's atmosphere, prior to origin of life, consisted of a mixture of : (a) Water vapour, hydrogen, ammonia and methane (b) Hydrogen, carbon dioxide, ammonia and methane (c) Oxygen, ammonia, methane and water vapour (d) Ozone, methane, oxygen and water vapour UPPCS Pre 1995 Ans. (a) : According to Miller theory, the earth's atmosphere, prior to origin to life, consisted of a mixture of water vapour, hydrogen, ammonia and methane. For futher see the explanation of the above question. 54. Which of the following characters shows that man is more close to chimpanzee than to other hominoid apes? (a) Evidence from only sex chromosomes DNA (b) Only comparison of morphology of chromosomes (c) Only fossil records and fossil DNA of mitochondria (d) Sex chromosomes, autosomes and DNA from mitochondria PGT Biology 2009 Ans. (d) : The characters that shows that man is more close to chimpanzee that to other hominoid apes are sex chromosomes, autosomes and DNA from mitochondria. Ever since researchers sequenced the chimpanzee genome in 2005, they have known that humans share about 99% of DNA with chimpanzees, making them our closest living relatives. 55. Which of the following animals has its blood composition similar to that of man? (a) Chimpanzee (b) Rhesus monkey (c) Gorilla (d) Baboon UPPCS Pre 2004 Ans. (a) : Chimpanzee has its blood composition similar to that of man. 56. The concept of 'Genetic drift' was presented by (a) Sewall Wright (b) G.G Simpson (c) Julian Huxley (d) Hardy Weinberg PGT Biology 2009

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (a) : The concept of 'Genetic Drift' was presented by Sewall Wright in 1929. Genetic drift is a mechanism of evolution. It refers to random fluctuations in frequencies of alleles from generation to generation due to chance events. It effects is seen in small populations. 57. Recapitulation theory was propounded by : (a) Darwin (b) Lamarck (c) Haeckel (d) Fischer UPPCS Pre 2000 Ans. (c) : The theory of recapitulation, also called the biogenetic law or embryological parallelism-often expressed using Ernst Haeckel's Phrase 'ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny'. It is a hypothesis that the development of embryo of an animal from fertilization to gestation or hatching (ontogeny), goes through stages resembling or representing successive adult stages in the evolution of the animals remote ancestors (phylogeny). 58. Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny is the brief diecription of : (a) Mutation theory (b) Abiogenesis (c) Darwinism (d) Biogenetic law UPPCS Pre 2004 Ans. (d) : Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny is the brief diecription of Biogenetic law. Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny, given by Ernst Haeckel. It states that an organism repeats it's evolutionary history during embryonic development. 59. During embryonic period, animals repeat embryonic stage of their ancestors. This law is called : (a) Florkin's Law (b) Anaximander's Law (c) Biogenetic Law (d) Hardy-Weinberg's Law UPPCS Pre 2001 Ans. (c) : → During embryonic period, animals repeat embryonic stage of their ancestors. This law is called biogenetic law. This law is also known as theory of recapitulation or embryological parallelism. It was proposed by Ernst Haeckel while working at the University of Jena in Germany, in his 1866 book Generelle Morphologie der Organismen. It is commonly stated as "Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny". 60. Animals repeating embryonic stages of their ancestors during embryonic period, are considered under : (a) Biogenetic law (b) Florkin law (c) Hardy-Weinberg law (d) Anaximander law UPPCS Pre 2007 Ans. (a) : See the explanation of the above question. 61. Haeckel's recapitulation theory was based on (a) genetic variation (b) embryonic development (c) fossil records (d) none of the above UPPCS Pre 2008 Ans. (b) : See the explanation of the above question. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

62. Who proposed the "Recapitulation Theory"? (a) Lamarck (b) Darwin (c) Hugo De Vries (d) Haeckel Navoday Vidyalay PGT Biology 2014 Ans: (d) See the explanation of the above question. 63. Which of the following interactions will not promote coevolution : (a) Interspecific competition (b) Commensalism (c) Mutualism (d) Parasitism UPPCS Pre 2003 Ans. (b) : Commensalism- an association between two organisms in which one benefits and the other derives neither benefit nor harm. It does not promote coevolution. e.g.- Orchid growing on branches of tree branches. • Coevolution, is the process of reciprocal evolutionary change that occurs between pairs of species as they interact with one another. • Interspecific cooperation or Mutualism occurs when two organisms from different species have a relationship such that the fitness of each of them benefits from the activity of the other. Promotes coevolution. 64.

Irreversibility of evolution was stated by : (a) Dollo (b) Cope (c) Gloger (d) Gause UPPCS Pre 2003 Ans. (a) : Irreversibility of evolution was stated by Louis Dollo in 1893. Dollo's law of irreversibility states that once a complex trait has been lost in evolution, it cannot be regained. An organism never gets back to its original state even if the conditions are favorable. Thus, the organism goes through an irreversible type of evolution.

65.

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Miller synthesized simple amino acids from one of the following mixtures in an experiment: (a) H2, O2, N2, (1 : 2 : 1) and water vapour (b) CH4, NH3, H2, (2 : 1 : 2) and water vapour (c) H2, O3, N2 (2 : 1 : 2) and water vapour (d) CH4, NH3, H2, (1 : 2 : 1) and water vapour UPPCS Pre 2001 Ans. (b) : Miller synthesized simple amino acids from mixtures of CH4, NH3, H2, (2 : 1 : 2) and water vapour in an experiment. Miller - Urey experiment was carried out in 1952, which showed that complex organic molecules could be synthesized from inorganic precursors. Miller took molecules of methane (CH4), ammonia (NH3), hydrogen (H2) and water (H2O) and put them into a closed system. Then, a continuous electric current was ran through the system, to stimulate lightning storms. At the end of one week it was observed that as much as 10-15% of the carbon was now in the form of organic compounds. 2% of the carbon had formed some of the amino acids, which are used to make proteins. YCT

Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 66.

Evolution also can mean : (a) Specialisation of race (b) Degeneration of race (c) Progressive embryonic development of race (d) History and development of race with variations UPPCS Pre 1996 Ans. (d) : A gradual change in the characteristics of population of animals or plants over successive generation accounts for the origin of existing species from ancestors unlike them. These phenomenon is involved in evolution. 67. The idea of spontaneous generation was first refuted by : (a) F.Redi (b) L. Spallanzani (c) L. Pasteur (d) S.L. Miller UPPCS Pre 1996 Ans. (a) : Theory of spontaneous life was not accepted by Francesco Redi first and Later by Lazzaro Spallanzani and Louis Pasteur. All these scientists supported 'biogenesis' and proved that new organism can only from pre-existing ones. 68. The mutation theory explaining organic evolution was proposed by : (a) Hugo de Vries (b) Louis Pasteur (c) Erasmus Darwin (d) William Harvey TGT Biology 2005 Ans. (a) : The mutation theory explaining organic evolution was proposed by Hugo de Vries. He was a Dutch botanist and one of the first geneticists. The theory of mutation suggested that living organisms can develop changes to their genes that greatly alter the organism. These changes are passed down to the next generation, and lead to the development of new species. These mutations serve as raw material for evolution as they may provide a selective advantage to an individual. 69. Modern theory of origin of life was propounded by: (a) Miller (b) Darwin (c) Khorana (d) Oparin UPPCS Pre 1997 Ans. (d) : Modern theory of origin of life was proposed by Oparin of Russia and Haldane of England. It states that the first form of life could have come from preexisting non-living organic molecules. Miller, an American scientist explained this by the experiment creating electric discharge in a closed flask containing CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapour at 8000C. Darwin gave the theory of origin of life by natural selection. 70. Foot in horse is : (a) Mesaxonic foot alone (b) Paraxonic foot alone (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above UPPCS Pre 2009 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (a) : • Foot in horse is mesaxonic foot. Horses and their relatives run on one toe. Because this is the middle toe of the five toes, it is referred to as a mesaxonic foot. The axis of the foot is formed by the middle digit. • When the axis of the foot is between the third and fourth digits, it is referred to as paraxonic foot. ex.– cattle, deer, camel, etc. [Note- In the book, the answer of the given question is (c)] 71. Haeckel's recapitulation theory was based on : (a) Genetic Variations (b) Germ layers (c) Germplasm (d) None of the above UPPCS Pre 2002 Ans. (d) : The theory of recapitulation, also called biogenetic law or embryological parallelism is often expressed using Ernst Haeckel's phrase, "Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny" - According to this, the development of the embryo of an animal, from fertilization to gestation, goes through stages resembling or representing successive adult stages in the evolution of the animals remote ancestors.

4.

Lamarckism

72.

Of the following which classical example was used by Lamarck to prove his Theory of Acquired Characters and Inheritance? (a) Goat (b) Giraffe (c) Horse (d) Elephant TGT (2016) 31/07/2021 Ans. (b) : Lamarck was a French biologist. Lamarckism is the theory that an organism can pass on its physical characteristics to its offspring that acquired through use or disuse in its lifetime. This idea is also known as the inheritance of acquired characteristics or soft inheritance. The most prevalent example for the theory of lamarckism is explanation behind the long necks of Giraffes. This explained that as stratification began and grasses were replaced with taller trees, over generations, giraffes shifted from grasses to tree leaves. This shift was faciliated by gradual lengthening of their neck to reach to the higher branches of the tree as compared to the grass or shrubs which were lower on the ground.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 73.

Of the following Lamarckian theory? (a) Charles Darwin (c) A. Weismann

who

challenged

the 78.

'Inheritance of Acquired characters' was the main point of : (a) Darwin's theory (b) H.De Vries's theory (c) Lamarck's Theory (d) Wallace's theory TGT Biology 2011 Ans. (c) : See the explanation of the above question. 79. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the appropriate code given below: List-I List-II A. Darwin 1. Inheritance of acquired characters B. Lamarck 2. Mutation C. Hugo de Vries 3. Origin of life D. Oparin 4. Natural selection Code : A B C D (a) 4 1 2 3 (b) 1 2 3 4 (c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 3 4 1 2 UPPCS Pre 2007 Ans. (a) : Correct Match– List-I List-II (A) Darwin Natural selection (B) Lamarck Inheritance of acquired characters (C) Hugo de Vries Mutation (D) Oparin Origin of life 80. Theory of acquired characters in living being are given by : (a) Mendel (b) Darwin (c) Lamarck (d) Linnaeus Bihar PGT 2019 Ans. (c) : Theory of acquired characters in living being was given by Lamarck. Inheritance of acquired characteristics are those changes in the structure or function of an organism that are the result of use, disuse, disease, environmental influences. 81. The theory of inheritance of acquired characters was given by : (a) A Weismann (b) J.B. Lamarck (c) Louis Pasteur (d) Charles Darwin UP LT 2018 Ans. (b) : See the explanation of above question.

(b) Hugo de Vries (d) H. Spencer TGT 07/08/2021 Ans. (c) : German biologist August Weismann (in the 1880 s) disapproved lamarckism by formulating the germplasm theory of inheritance. Weismann reasoned that reproductive cells (germ cells) were separate from the functional body cells (soma or somatic cells). Hence, change to the somatic cells would not affect the germplasm and would not be passed on to the offspring. In order to prove that the misuse or loss of somatic structure would not affect the subsequent offspring, he removed the tail of mice and then allowed them to breed. After twenty generations of this experimental protocol, he found that mice still grew tails of the same length as those who had never been manipulated. 74. Lamarck theory of organic evolution is usually known as : (a) Natural selection (b) Inheritance of acquired character (c) Descent with change (d) Continuity of germplasm UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (b) : Lamarck's theory of organic evolution is usually known as inheritance of acquired character. This theory states that modifications which the organism acquires in adaptation to the environments which it meets during its lifetime are automatically handed down to its descendants and so become part of heredity. Lamarckism is the first theory of evolution, which was proposed by Jean Baptiste de Lamarck, a French biologist. 75. Basis of lamarckism is : (a) Natural selection (b) Mutation (c) Variations (d) Inheritance of acquired charaters TGT Biology 2013 Ans. (d) : See the explanation of the above question. 76. Lamarck's theory of organic evolution is known as : (a) Natural selection (b) Inheritance of acquired characters (c) Theory of mutation (d) Artificial selection UPPCS Pre 2003 5. Ans. (b) : See the explanation of the above question. 77. The basis of Lamarckism is : 82. (a) development of organ (b) reduction of organ (c) effect of metabolism (d) effect of environment UPPCS Pre 2005 Ans. (d) : See the explanation of the above question. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Darwinism 'Camels' are found in Asia but related to 'Llamas' in the Andes. This is an example of : (a) Survival of the fittest (b) Emergent evolution (c) Isolation (d) Discontinuous distribution UPPSC Ashram Paddhati 29/09/2021 YCT

Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (d) : 'Camels' are found in Asia but related to 85. Evolution is best defined as : 'Lamas' in the Andes. This is an example of (a) Acquisition of desired characters discontinuous distribution. In this type of distribution, (b) Descent with modifications populations of related organisms are found in widely (c) Struggle for existence separated parts of the world. The continuity of (d) Like be gets like distribution of a species is broken by uninhabited areas. TGT (2016) 31/07/2021 Camels and Lamas both belongs to the Camelidae family, but camels live in hot and dry deserts of Asia, Ans. (b) : Descent with modification refers to the whereas Lama lives in cool and dry mountains of South passing on of traits from parent organisms to their offspring. This concept is one of the fundamental ideas America. behind Charles Darwin's theory of evolution. So, the correct answer is "Descent with modification". 86. The ship on which Charles Darwin travelled round the world is called : (a) H.M.S. Beagle (b) H.L. Hunley (c) The Mayflower (d) Titanic RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) Ans. (a) : The ship on which Charles Darwin travelled around the world is called H.M.S. Beagle. Darwin sailed around the world from 1831 - 1836 as a naturalist. His experiences and observations helped him develop the theory of evolution through natural selection. HMS Beagle was a Royal Navy ship. Charles Darwin wrote about his five-year expedition in his travel memoir, 'The Voyage of the Beagle'. 87. 'Galapagos Finches' what Darwin saw at Galapagos island are : (a) Birds (b) Frogs (c) Lizards (d) Rats UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 83. In the origin of species by Darwin the concept of competition was taken from which of the Ans. (a) : 'Galapagos Finches' that Darwin saw at following? Galapagos island are birds from, 1831 to 1836. Darwin travelled around the world, observing animals on (a) A. Wallace (b) H. Spencer different continents and islands on the Galapagos (c) H. de Vries (d) T.R. Malthus islands, Darwin observed several species of finches with TGT (2016) 31/07/2021 unique beak shapes. He observed that these finches Ans. (d) : In the origin of species by Darwin, the closely resembled another finch species on the mainland concept of competition was taken from T.R. Malthus. In of South America. Darwin imagined that the island 1798, Thomas Robert Malthus famously predicted that species might be all species modified from one original short - term gains in living standards would inevitably mainland species. Adaptive radiation in Galapagos finches be undermined as human population growth outstripped food production, and thereby drive living standards back toward subsistence. In the origin of species, Darwin guranteed that there was a constant "battle for presence in nature, In which just the fittest would endure''. This hypothesis came incompletely from his persuing of Thomas Malthus, essay on the Principle of Population. 84. Theory of origin of species by natural selection was given by : (a) Charles Darwin (b) A. Wallace (c) A. Weismann (d) H. Spencer TGT 07/08/2021 Ans. (a) : Charles Darwin was a British naturalist who proposed the theory of biological evolution by natural selection. More individuals are produced each generation that can survive. Phenotypic variation exists, among individuals and the variation is heritable. Those individuals with heritable traits better suited to the environment will survive. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 88.

_________was not given by Darwin. (a) Pangenesis theory (b) Mutation theory (c) Both (d) None TGT 07/08/2021 Ans. (b) : Mutation theory was not given by Darwin. Advanced at the beginning of the 20th century by Dutch botanist and geneticist Hugo de Vries in his Die mutations theorie (1901-03; the mutation theory), mutation theory joined two seemingly opposed traditions of evolutionary thought. 89. Mutation theory explaining organic evolution was proposed by : (a) Hugo de Vries (b) Louis Pasteur (c) E. Darwin (d) W. Harvey UPPCS Pre 1996 Ans. (a) : Mutation theory explaining organic evolution was proposed by Hugo de Vries. Hugo de Vries studied on Oenothera lamarckiana (Evening primrose). He observed that the original plant would occasionally have offspring with significant phenotypic differences such as leaf shape and plant sizes. 90. Consider: 1. Over production 2. Origin of species 3. Survival of the fittest 4. Struggle for existence 5. Natural selection Which one of the following sets represents the correct sequence of factors in the origin of species according to Darwin's Natural Selection Theory ? (a) 1 - 2 - 3 - 4 - 5 (b) 1 - 4 - 3 - 5 - 2 (c) 1 - 3 - 4 - 5 - 2 (d) 1 - 5 - 4 - 3 - 2 UPPCS Pre 2008 Ans. (b) : Correct sequence of factors in the origin of species according to Darwin's Natural Selection Theory is : (i) Over production (ii) Struggle for existence (iii) Survival of the fittest (iv) Natural Selection (v) Origin of species 91. In his theory of evolution by Natural Selection Darwin had not taken into account the phenomenon of : (a) adaptations (b) over-production of members of a species (c) variations (d) mutations UPPCS Pre 1995 Ans. (d) : Darwin Natural selection include following phenomenon; overproduction, struggle for existence, variation and heredity, survival of the fittest or natural selection (Adaptation) and origin of species. Mutation had not taken into account in theory of evolution by natural selection of Darwin. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

92.

Natural selection operated upon : (a) family (b) species (c) individual (d) population UPPCS Pre 1999 Ans. (c) : Darwin and Wallace jointly propound the 'Theory of Natural selection'. It operate upon individual level. Natural selection only acts directly on phenotype, not genotypee. It acts directly on an organism characteristics, not its alleles. 93. Evolution of animals takes place through natural selection was proposed by : (a) Darwin (b) Lamarck (c) Mendel (d) Huxley UPPCS Pre 1999 Ans. (a) : In 1859, Darwin published his detailed theory in his book titled 'On the Origin of Species' by means of natural selection. The theory of inheritance of acquired character was propounded by Lamarck. Mendel was the father of genetics. 94. Who published the book 'Origin of Species by Natural selection' in 1859 : (a) Lamarck (b) Wallace (c) Oparin (d) Darwin TGT Biology 2002 Ans. (d) : Darwin published the book 'Origin of Species by Natural selection' in 1859. The theory of evolution by natural selection was first formulated in this book. Darwin describes how organisms evolve over generations through the inheritance of physical or behavioral traits. This book is considered to be the foundation of evolutionary biology. The book presented a body of evidence that the diversity of life arose by common descent through a branching pattern of evolution. 95. Of the following, who is the author of the book, "Origin of Species" ? (a) Gregor Johann Mendel (b) August Weismann (c) Charles Darwin (d) Hugo de Vries UPPCS Pre 2007 Ans. (c) : Charles Darwin is the author of the book, "Origin of Species". For futher see the explanation of the above question. 96. Industrial melanism is an example of : (a) genetic drift in small population (b) natural selection in action (c) migration of a subspecies (d) reproductive isolation UPPCS Pre 2003 Ans. (b) : Industrial melanism is an evolutionary effect prominent in several arthropods. Industrial melanism is an example of Darwinian natural selection in action for half a century. It is the darkness of by a population of animals living in an industrial region where the environment is soot-darkened.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 97.

Who propounded the theory of "Natural selection"? (a) Erasmus Darwin (1731 to 1802 ) (b) Lamarck (1744 to 1829 ) (c) Charles Darwin (1809 to 1882 ) (d) De Vries (1848 to 1935) Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2011

Ans. (c) : • Charles Darwin propounded the theory of "Natural Selection". Darwin (1809–1882) was an English naturalist, geologist and biologist, best known for his contributions to the science of evolution. • Erasmus Darwin (1731–1802) was an English physician and one of the key thinkers of the Midlands Enlightenment. He was the grandfather of Charles Darwin. • Lamarck (1744–1829) was a French naturalist, who propounded the theory of evolution called as inheritance of acquired characters. • Hugo De Vries (1848–1935) was a Dutch botanist and geneticists who propounded the theory of mutation. 98. Co-discoverer of Darwinism was : (a) Malthus (b) Wallace (c) Ruskin (d) Robert Delhi SSB PGT Biology 2015 Ans. (b) : Co-discoverer of Darwinism was Wallace. Alfred Russel Wallace was a British naturalist, explorer, geographer, anthropologist, biologist and illustrator. He was a scientific contemporary of Darwin and codeveloped the theory of natural selection and evolution with him. Wallace wrote over 20 books and published more than 700 articles and letters on a wide variety of topics. He died in 1913 at the age of 90. 99.

In the early years of the study of physical basis of heredity, the concept of "pangenes" was given by : (a) J.B. Lamarck (b) Charles Darwin (c) A. Weismann (d) G.J. Mendel UPPCS Pre 2005, 2006

Ans. (c) : "Lederberg's replica" experiment explains Darwin's theory. Joshua Lederberg and Esther Lederberg performed an experiment on bacteria to demonstrate the genetic basis of a particular adaptation. They obtained a 'master plate' of a bacterial culture by inoculating a dilute suspension of bacteria on an agar plate. After a certain period, the master plate was found to contain several bacterial colonies. After that, they tried to grow bacteria on replica plates with an antibiotic. Most colonies of the master plate failed to grow on replica plates having antibiotics. Only a few colonies that could be formed were found to be resistant to penicillin. The experiment supported Darwin's theory that the adaptation in bacterial cells arose due to the selection of pre-existing mutant forms of bacteria. 101. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer from the code given below the list : List-I List-II (a) Darwin 1. Inheritance of acquired characters (b) Lamarck 2. Mutation (c) Hugo de Vries 3. Origin of Life (d) Oparin 4. Natural selection Code : A B C D (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 3 4 1 (c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 4 1 2 3 UPPCS Pre 1998 Ans. (b) : The correct match given below List–I

List–II

(a) Darwin

4.

Natural selection

(b) Lamarck

1.

Inheritance of characters

(c) Hugo de Vries

2.

Mutation

(d) Oparin

3.

Origin of Life

acquired

Ans. (b) : → In the early years of the study of physical basis of heredity, the concept of "Pangenes" was given by Charles Darwin. He proposed that each part of the body continually emitted its own type of small organic particles called gemmules that aggregated in the gonads, contributing heritable information to the gametes. Darwin's pangenesis has been largely thought to be wrong, owing to a lack of evidence supporting his hypothetical gemmules and a refusal to accept some phenomena that pangenesis supposedly explains.

102. The book 'Origin of Species' was published in : (a) 1809 (b) 1858 (c) 1859 (d) 1956 UP PGT 2016 Ans. (c) The book 'Origin of Species' written by Darwin was published in 1859. In this book with the help of data collected on animals in many islands located in the Atlantic and Pacific Oceans, Darwin has made a successful attempt to prove the origin of the species. 103. Darwin's finches provide evidence of evolution from : 100. "Lederberg's replica" experiment explains : (a) Anatomy (a) Lamarck's theory (b) Morphology (b) Mutation theory (c) Geographical distribution (c) Darwin's theory (d) all of the above (d) none of the above PGT Biology 2013 PGT Biology 2010, 2013 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (c) : Darwin's finches provide evidence of evolution from geographical distribution. Darwin's finches are a group of about 18 species of passerine birds. They were first collected by Darwin on the Galapagos islands. He observed that the Galapagos finches had a graded series of beak sizes and shapes and predicted that these species were modified from one original mainland species. Darwin called differences among species natural selection, which is caused by the inheritance of traits, competition between indivudals, and the variation of traits.

Ans. (c) : According to Neo-Darwinism, mutation and natural selection are responsible for evolution of organisms. Neo-Darwinism connected Charles Darwin's theory of evolution by natural selection with Gregor Mendel's theory of genetics. Organism more fittest to the environmental conditions and having useful mutations are selected in nature. Natural selection is the core creative agent in evolution. Mutations, variations, are also factors leading to the development of new species.

7. 6.

Mutation

Neo-Darwinism

104. The latest theory which explains evolution is : (a) Lamarckism (b) Darwinism (c) Mutation theory (d) Synthetic theory PGT Biology 2002 Ans. (d) : The latest theory which explains evolution is synthetic theory. The modern synthetic theory of evolution describes the evolution in terms of genetic variations in a population that leads to the formation of a new species. This theory is also referred to as the Neo-Darwinian theory and its merges the concept of Darwinian evolution with Mendelian genetics. It was introduced by a number of evolutionary biologist such as T. Dobzhansky, J.B.S. Haldane, R.A. Fisher, Sewall Wright, G.L. Stebbins and Ernst Mayr. 105. Most convincing in Darwin's theory is : (a) Malthus essay (b) Population (c) Survival of the fittest (d) Formation of species TGT Biology 2005 Ans. (c) : Most convincing in Darwin's theory is survival of the fittest. According to Darwin, the most suitable and fit individuals are successful in the struggle for existence, and only those members survive which possess useful variations. This was called Natural selection. Note- In the book, answer of given question is (d). 106. Natural selection means : (a) Better adaptability (b) Better survival (c) Elimination of less adapted (d) All of the above Delhi SSB PGT Biology 2015 Ans. (d) : Natural selection means better adaptability, better survival and elimination of less adapted. It is a mechanism of evolution. Organisms that are more adapted to their environment are more likely to survive and pass on the genes that aided their success. This process causes species to change and diverge over time. 107. According to Neo-Darwinism which one is responsible for evolution of organisms? (a) Mutation (b) Natural selection (c) Both of these (d) None of these TGT Biology 2010 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

108. It is possible to induce mutations artificially by means of the following: (a) Certain chemicals (b) Radiations (c) Chemicals and Radiations both (d) None of the above UPPSC Ashram Paddhati 29/09/2021 Ans. (c) : It is possible to induce mutations artifically by means of chemicals and radiations. A mutation is a change in a DNA sequence, that result from DNA copying mistakes made during cell divison, exposure to ionizing radiation, exposure to chemicals called mutagens, or infection by viruses. Most of the chemical mutagens includes alkylating agent and azide. Radiation mutagens includes gamma rays, X-rays, and UV-light. 109. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is affected by : (a) Mutation (b) Natural selection (c) None (d) Both TGT 07/08/2021 Ans. (d) : If a population is in a state called HardyWeinberg equilibrium, the frequencies of alleles, or gene versions, and genotypes, or sets of alleles, in that population will stay the same across generations (and will also satisfy the Hardy-Weinberg equation). Formally, evolution is a change in allele frequencies in a population over time, so a population in HardyWeinberg equilibrium is not evolving. The 5 major factors that effect Hardy Weinberg equilibrium are (A) New mutations (B) Recombinations during sexual reproduction (C) genetic drift (D) Gene migration (Gene flow) (E) Natural selection. Hence Hardy Weinberg equilibrium is affected by natural selection, new mutation and genetic drift. 110. Mutation is essential for evolution, because(a) It causes recombination (b) It produces new variations (c) It brings a balance in the nature (d) It stops the struggle for existence UP LT 2018 GIC 19/09/2021 Ans. (b) : Mutation is essential for evolution because it produces new variations. A mutation is a change in a DNA sequence. It can result from DNA copying mistakes made during cell division, exposure to ionizing radiation, exposure to chemicals called, mutagens, or infection by viruses. They are a main cause of diversity among organisms. Mutation creates slightly different versions of the same genes, called alleles.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 111. Mutation was described by : (a) de Vries (b) Lamarck (c) Darwin (d) None of these UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (a) : Mutation was described by de Vries. A mutation occurs when a DNA gene is damaged or charged in such a way as to alter the genetic message carried by that gene Hugo de Vries bought the idea of mutations that mutations are random and directionless and also believed that mutation caused speciation and hence know as saltation or single step large mutation. The theory of mutation by de Vries was put forward in 1901. 112. Mutation is : (a) Transfer of genes (b) Change of sex (c) Inheritable change in the sequences of genomic DNA (d) Variation from the ancestral type UPPCS Pre 1995 Ans. (c) : Mutation is sudden change in genetic material. The term mutation was introduced by Hugo De Vries. Mutations can result from DNA copying mistakes made during cell division, exposure to ionizing radiation, exposure to chemicals called mutagens, or infection by viruses. 113. Sudden inheritable genetic change is : (a) Natural selection (b) Variation (c) Mutation (d) All of these Bihar PGT 2019 Ans. (c) : Sudden inheritable genetic change is mutation. A mutation is a change in a DNA sequence. These changes occur at many different levels, and they can have widely differing consequences. Mutations can result from DNA copying mistakes made during cell divison, exposure to ionizing radiation, exposure to chemicals called mutagens, or infection by viruses. 114. Ultimate source of genetic variability is : (a) Mutation (b) Genetic drift (c) Gene flow (d) Gene exchange Delhi SSB PGT Biology 2015 Ans. (a) : See the explanation of the above question. 115. For evolutionary success, a mutation must occur in which of the following? (a) Somatic RNA (b) Germplasm DNA (c) Somatic DNA (d) None of the above UPPCS Pre 2007, PGT Biology 2005 Ans. (b) : For evolutionary success, a mutation must occur in germplasm DNA. Germplasm are germ cells and their precursors, serving as the bearers of heredity. For mutations to affect an organism's descendants, they must occur in cells that produce the next generation, and affect the hereditary material. Not all mutations are heritable and they are passed down to offspring only if the mutations occur in the gametes. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

116. For entry in gene Pool, a mutation must occur in (a) Somatic cells (b) Germ cells (c) Plasma proteins (d) Somatic DNA TGT Biology 2009 Ans. (b) : See the explanation of the above question. 117. Mutation by radiation was first experimentally demonstrated by : (a) H.J. Muller (b) Hugo de Vries (c) James Watson (d) Hargovind Khurana UPPCS Pre 1995, 2001 Ans. (a) : Mutation by radiation was first experimentally demonstrated by, H.J. Muller. Hermann Joseph Muller was an American geneticist who studied the hereditary characteristics of fruit flies and, in 1927, discovered that the number of genetic mutations observed in fruit flies increased when they were exposed to X-rays. In 1946, Muller was awarded the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine, "for the discovery that mutations can be induced by X-rays." 118. When a gene mutates from a mutant allele back to the original form, such mutation is called : (a) Frame-shift mutation (b) Substitution mutation (c) Reverse mutation (d) Recombination UPPCS Pre 1998 Ans. (c) : Mutations are mainly responsible for variation in organism. Mutation are called the fountain head of evolution because they add new variation. When mutation converts the mutant back to its original form it is called reverse mutation. It is also called reversion. 119. Destruction of the nucleolus of a cell will : (a) stimulate cell division (b) kill the cell (c) cause gene mutation in the cell (d) inhibit cell division UPPCS Pre 1998 Ans. (c) : Nucleolus is a part of nucleus. Inside the nucleolus, r-RNA synthesis takes place. Destruction of the nucleolus causes gene mutation in the cell. If not properly repaired, rDNA damage may contribute to premature disease onset and aging. 120. Mutations are mainly (a) Harmful (b) Beneficial (c) Recessive (d) Dominant TGT Biology 2011 Ans. (a) : Mutations are mainly harmful. Harmuful mutation means a genetic alteration that increases an individual's susceptibility or predisposition to a certain disease or disorder. It may cause genetic disorders or cancer. Most harmful mutations are recessive, implying that their harmful nature will only be exposed in homozygous state. Only a small percentage of mutations are beneficial and increase the possibility that an organism will thrive and pass on its genes to the next generation.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 124. Which of the following era is called age of mammal? (a) Proterozoic era (b) Paleozoic era (c) Mesozoic era (d) Cenozoic era TGT (2016) 31/07/2021 Ans. (d) : Cenozoic era is known as the age of mammals because the largest land animals existing during that time were mammals. The extinction of many group allowed mammals to greatly diversify and dominate in that era. Cave lions, sabre - toothed cats, cave bears, giant deer, woolly rhinoceroses, and wooly mammoths are some of the animals of cenozoic era. 125. Which era is regarded as the 'Age of Mammals'? (a) Precambrian (b) Palaeozoic (c) Mesozoic (d) Coenozoic UP PGT 2016 Ans. (d) Cenozoic era is regarded as the 'Age of Mammals'. Cenozoic is the third major eras of Earth's history, beginning about 66 million years ago and extending to the present. It is divided into Paleogene, Neogene and the Quaternary period. The extinction of the dinosaurs allowed mammals to diversify and grow in size during the cenozoic. Mammals are the largest land animals surviving at this time. 8. Evolution Through Ages 126. Which of the following is called ‘Age of Mammals’? 123. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct (a) Paleozoic era (b) Mesozoic era answer using the codes given below the lists. (c) Coenozoic era (d) Azoic era List–I List–II PGT Biology 2011 (Animal/Era) (Characteristic of Ans. (c) : Cenozoic Era is called 'Age of Mammals'. It evolutionary is the third of the major eras of Earth's history, beginning about 66 million years ago and extending to significance) the present. It is marked by global cooling. The A. Sphenodon 1. Age of reptiles extinction of the dinosaurs allowed mammals to B. Bird 2. Galapagos Island diversify and grow in sizes during this era. Mammals C. Darwin finches 3. Living fossil are the largest land animals surviving at this time. D. Mesozoic 4. Glorified reptiles 127. Age of fishes is : Codes : (a) Ordovician period (b) Proferozic Era A B C D (c) Silurian period (d) Devonian period (a) 4 2 1 3 TGT Biology 2013 (b) 3 4 2 1 Ans. (d) : Age of fishes is Devonian period. The (c) 2 3 4 1 Devonian is a geologic period and system of the Paleozoic era, spanning 60.3 million years, from the (d) 1 3 2 4 end of the Silurian period to the beginning of the UPPSC Ashram Paddhati 29/09/2021 carboniferous period. In this period, fishes of many Ans. (b) : Correct match – different types swam and hunted in the seas. Lobefinned fishes (amphibians ancestors) and the early List-I List-II sharks made their appearance by this time. (Animal/Era) (Characteristic of 128. Which of the following is called the Age of evolutionary significance) Fishes? (A) Sphenodon Living fossil (a) Devonian (b) Carboniferous (B) Bird Glorified reptiles (c) Jurassic (d) Pleistocene (C) Darwin finchesGalapagos island Navoday Vidyalay PGT Biology 2014 (D) Mesozoic Age of reptiles Ans: (a) See the explanation of the above question. 121. Point mutation is : (a) loss of gene (b) change in a base of gene (c) addition of a gene (d) deletion of a segment of gene TGT Biology 2004 Ans. (b) : Point mutation is change in a base of gene. These are a large category of mutations that describe a change in single nucleotide of DNA. These are frequently the result of mistakes made during DNA replication. There are two types of point mutations, transition mutations and transversion mutations. Point mutations can have three effects. It can be a silent mutation, missense mutation or nonsense mutation. 122. Mutation in viruses was first observed by– (a) Delbruck (b) Delbruck and Luria (c) Pasteur (d) Plotz TGT Biology 2002 Ans. (a) : Mutation in viruses was first observed by Delbruck in 1938. Max Delbruck (1906-1981) was a German-American biophysicist, recognised for his contribution to molecular genetics. He won the 1969 Nobel Prize for Physiology or Medicine for his work on bacteriophages viruses that infect bacterial cells.

TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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YCT

Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 129. According to Geological Time scale which one is the oldest period among the following? (a) Cambrian (b) Carboniferous (c) Ordovician (d) Permian UP PGT 17/08/2021 Ans. (a) : According to Geological Time scale, Cambrian is the oldest period. Cambrain period is the earliest time divison of the Paleozoic era, extending from 541 million to 485.4 million years ago. It marked a dramatic burst of evolutionary changes in life on Earth. Cambrian rocks have a special biological significance, because they are the earliest to contain diverse fossils of animals. 130. Match the statement of I with II, according to geological time scale : I II A. Age of Man i. Cretaceous period B. Extinction Dinosaurs ii. Ordovician period C. Dominance of fish iii. Quaternary period D. Rise of Armoured fish iv. Devonian period A B C D (a) iii i ii iv (b) iii ii iv i (c) iii i iv ii (d) ii iii iv i UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (c) : Correct Match :List I List II A. Age of Man Quaternary period B. Extinction of Dinosaurs Cretaceous Period C. Dominance of the fish Devonian period D. Rise Armoured fish Ordovician period 131. Dinosaurs disappeared from the earth about – (a) 100 million years ago (b) 200 million years ago (c) 10 million years ago (d) 65 million years ago UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (d) : Dinosaurs disappeared from the earth about 65 million year ago. The Mesozoic Era is the age of dinosaurs, that lasted from 245 to 65 million years ago. The Era is divided into Triassic period (245-200 million years ago), Jurassic period (200-145 million years ago) and cretaceous period (145-65 million years ago) Dinosaurs went extinct at the end of the cretaceous period. 132. Which one of the following period is called the 'Age of Fishes' ? (a) Cambrian (b) Devonian (c) Triassic (d) Tertiary UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (b) : Devonian period is called the 'Age of fishes'. The Devonian period occurred from 419.2 million to 358.9 million years ago. It was the fourth period of the Paleozoic Era. It was preceded by the Silurian Period and followed by the Carboniferous period. Evolution of several vapour groups of fish took place during this period fishes of many different types swam and hunted in the seas Lobe finned fishes (amphibians ancestors) and the early sharks made their appearance by this time. 133. The Eohippus lived in – (a) Eocene (b) Oligocene (c) Pleistocene (d) Pliocene UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (a) : The Eohippus lived in Eocene Epoch (56 million ot 33.9 million years ago). Eohippus or Dawn horse are an extinct group of mammals that were the first known horse. They flourished in North America and Europe during the early part of the Eocene Epoch. The first fossils of this tiny horse were found in England by the famous paleontologist Richard Owen in 1841 and named Hyracotherium. 134. Which of the following era is called 'Golden Age of Reptiles'? (a) Palaeozoic (b) Proterozoic (c) Cainozoic (d) Mesozoic UK SSSC L.T. (21/01/2018) Ans. (d) : Mesozoic era is called 'Golden age of Reptiles'. It is the second to last era of Earth's geological history, lasting from about 252 to 66 million years ago and comprising the Triassic, Jurassic and Cretaceous period. In this era, reptiles became dominant on earth. In the Jurassic period, giant reptiles like dinosaurs and toothed birds like Archaeopteryx dominated Earth. The climate during the mesozoic era was generally warm and the continents began to move into their present day configurations. 135. Which of the following is said to be the Golden Age of Reptiles? (a) Archaeozoic era (b) Palaeozoic era (c) Mesozoic era (d) Coenozoic era UPPCS Pre 2006 Ans. (c) : Mesozoic era is the Golden Age of reptiles. No recognizable fossil occurs. Coenozoic era is the age of mammals. The Mesozoic era is a interval of geological time from about 252 to 66 millions years ago. It is also called the age of Reptiles, a phrase introduced by the 19th century paleontologist Gideon Mantell. 136. Golden age of dinosaurs was : (a) Archaeozoic (b) Cenozoic (c) Mesozoic (d) Palaeozoic UPPCS Pre 2002, 2008

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (c) : Golden age of dinosaurs was Mesozoic. The Mesozoic era began 252.2 million years ago, following the conclusion of the Paleozoic era, and ended 66 million years ago, at the dawn of the Cenozoic era. Different dinosaur species lived during Triassic, Jurassic and Cretaceous periods. 137. Tetrapod originated during : (a) Proterozoic era (b) Palaeozoic era (c) Mesozoic era (d) Both (a) and (c) Bihar PGT 2019 Ans. (b) : Tetrapods originated during Paleozoic era. The evolution of tetrapods began about 400 million years ago in the Devonian period of the Paleozoic era. The Devonian period extended from 417 million to 354 million years ago. Tetrapods includes all limbed vertebrates, constituting the classes Amphibia, Reptilia, Aves, Mammalia and their direct ancestors. The earliest tetrapods evolved from lobe-finned fishes. 138. Oviparous mammals originated in the period : (a) Permian (b) Triassic (c) Jurassic (d) Cretaceous UP LT 2018 Ans. (b) : Oviparous mammals originated in the Triassic period. The Triassic is a geologic period which spans 50.6 million years from the end of the Permian period, to the beginning of the Jurassic period. It was the first period of Mesozoic era. It marked the beginning of major changes, particularly in the distribution of continents, the evolution of life, and the geographic distribution of living things. The first mammals was tiny, fur-bearing, shrewlike animals derived from reptiles. 139. First amphibian appeared during the period : (a) Permian (b) Carboniferous (c) Devonian (d) Silurian UPPCS Pre 1997 Ans. (c) : The earliest amphibians evolved in the Devonian period from Sarcopterygian fish with lungs and bony-limbed fins, features that were helpful in adapting to dry land. The earliest amphibian discovered to data is Elginerpeton, found in late Devonian rocks of scotland dating to approximately 368 million years ago. 140. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer from the code given below the list : List-I List-II (a) Coenozoic 1. Lifeless earth (b) Mesozoic 2. Age of fishes (c) Palaeozoic 3. Age of mammals (d) Archaeozoic 4. Age of reptiles Code : A B C D (a) 1 3 2 4 (b) 3 4 2 1 (c) 4 1 3 2 (d) 2 3 4 1 UPPCS Pre 2004 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (b) : Correct match are given below : List-I List-II A. Coenozoic – Age of mammals B. Mesozoic – Age of reptile C. Palaeozoic – Age of fishes D. Archaeozoic – Lifeless earth 141. Which one of the following is regarded as the most primitive horse : (a) Hyracotherium (b) Mesohippus (c) Merychippus (d) Pliohippus UPPCS Pre 1994 Ans. (a) : Fifty five million years ago, there was an animal of the size of small dog, called Hyracotherium (some time incorrectly called Eohippus). It is most primitive horse. Fossils of Hyracotherium are found at many Eocene localities in the western US and Europe. 142. The correct sequence of stages in the evolution of horse is : (a) Eohippus, Orohippus, Mesohippus, Pliohippus (b) Orohippus, Eohippus, Pliohippus, Mesohippus (c) Pliohippus, Mesohippus, Orohippus, Eohippus (d) Eohippus, Mesohippus, Orohippus UPPCS Pre 1994 Ans. (a) : Sequence of stages in horse evolutions. Eohippus → Orohippus → Mesohippus → Miohippus → Parahippus → Merychippus → Pliohippus → Equus. 143. Which of the following group belongs to the category of great apes? (a) Hylobates, Gorilla, Pongo (b) Gorilla, Pan, Pongo (c) Gorilla, Pan, Hylobates (d) Pan, Pongo, Hylobates. UPPCS Pre 2009 UPPCS Pre 2010 Ans. (b) : Gorilla, Pan, Pongo belongs to the category of great apes. The Hominidae, whose members are known as great apes or hominids are a taxonomic family of primates that includes eight extant species in four genera. It includes, Pongo (Orangutan), Gorilla, Pan (Chimpanzee and Bonobo), and Homo of which only modern human remain. 144. Man originated in which period? (a) Paleocene (b) Miocene (c) Pliocene (d) Pleistocene GIC Biology 2015, UPPCS Pre 1995 Ans. (c) : Man originated in Pliocene period. The Pliocene epoch is the geological timescale that extends from 5.333 million to 2.58 million years BP. It is the upper most subdivision of the long Tertiary period which began 64 million years ago. Biogeographically this epoch is characterized by the dramatic modernization of mammals.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 145. First man originated in : (a) Eocene age (b) Pliocene age (c) Miocene age (d) Pleistocene age UPPCS Pre 1995 Ans. (b) : First man originated in Pliocene called Primitive man. The first is the appearance of the hominin Australopithecus anamensis in the early Pliocene, around 4.2 million years ago. The second is the appearance of Homo, the genus that includes modern humans and their closest extinct relatives, near the end of the Pliocene at 2.6 million years ago. 146. Origin of all forms of metazoa from a single stock is called : (a) Monophyletic origin (b) Diphyletic origin (c) Polyphyletic level (d) Oligophyletic origin PGT Biology 2009

149. Homo sapiens evolved during : (a) Pleistocene (b) Pliocene (c) Oligocene (d) Miocene Delhi SSB PGT Biology 2015 Ans. (a) : Homo sapiens evolved during pleistocene epoch. This is the geological epoch that lasted from about 2,58,0000 to 11,700 years ago. The pleistocene epoch is best known as time during which extensive ice sheets and other glaciers formed repeatedly on the landmasses. Modern humans or Homo sapiens, evolved during this epoch and spread across most of earth before the period ended.

9.

Evolution of Human

150. Earliest evidences of social life are attributed to: (a) Cro-Magnon man (b) Neanderthal man (c) Peking man (d) Java man TGT (2016) 31/07/2021 Ans. (a) : Earliest evidences of social life are attributed to Cro-Magnon man. Cro-Magnon are tall, upper 147. The first life forms which develop on early Paleolithic race of humans, possibly the earliest form of modern Homosapiens. Cro-Magnon people settled in earth are called : Europe 35,000 years ago. They manufactured a variety (a) Mycobiont of sophisticated flint tools, as well as bone, shell and (b) Phycobiont ivory jewellary and artifacts. Cro-Magnon artists (c) Protobiont produced cave paintings in France and Spain. Cro(d) None of the above Magnon remains were first found in 1868 in a rock Delhi SSB PGT Biology 2015 shelter in Les Eyzies Dordogne, France. Ans. (c) : The first life form which develops on early earth are called Protobionts. A protobiont is defined as an aggregate of abiotically produced organic molecules surrounded by non unit membrane. Formation of protobionts is related to biological evolution. They are also known as Protocells or primitive cells. The term protobionts is used for describing the first formed cells. Ans. (a) : • Origin of all forms of metazoa from a single stock is called Monophyletic origin. • Taxonomic group of organisms derived from two separate ancestral lines is called Diphyletic origin. • Taxonomic group of organisms derived from more than one ancestor is called Polyphyletic origin. • All metazoans originated from a single common ancestor who may be called urmetazoan.

148. First vertebrates on earth were(a) Ostracoderm (b) Cephalochordates (c) Urochordates (d) Placodermi PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (a) : First vertebrates on earth were Ostracoderm. Ostracoderm are the armored jawless fish of the 151. The cranial capacity of Cro-Magnon man was : Palaeozoic Era. They are represented by marine and (a) 800 cubic centimeters fresh water deposits of the Devonian period. Their (b) 900 cubic centimeters fossils are found in the North American and European (c) 1600 cubic centimeters strata of the Ordovician, Silurian and Devonian periods (d) 600 cubic centimeters of the Palaeozoic Era, approximately 400 million years ago. UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (c) : The cranial capacity of Cro-Magnon man was 1600 cubic centimeters, Cro-Magnon man is a name applied to the earliest known European examples of Homo sapiens sapiens, modern human beings CroMagnons lived from about 40,000 to 10,000 year ago in the upper Paleolithic period of the Pleistocene epoch. They were the first humans of have a prominent chin. Their brain capacity was larger than the modern human. 152. Which of the following is the closest relative of man? (a) Orangutan (b) Java Man (c) Cro–Magnon Man (d) Heidelberg Man UP LT 2018 Ans. (c) : Closest relative of man is Cro-magnon man. Cro-magnon is an early Homo sapiens that lived about 40000 years ago. It is the nearest ancestor of humans and has close relations and similarities with present day human beings. After Cro-Magnon man, modern man was discovered. They were 1.8 metres tall, with wellbuilt body, face was orthognathous and a welldeveloped chin. 153. Coloured rock paintings were presumably first made by : (a) Java ape man (b) Peking man (c) Neanderthal (d) Cro-magnon UPPCS Pre 2008 Ans. (d) : See the explanation of above question. 154. The successors of Neanderthal man were : (a) Java man (b) Cro-magnon man (c) Peking man (d) Australian bushman UPPCS Pre 2004, 2008 Ans. (b) : See the explanation of the above question. 155. The skeleton of which of the following early man is almost indistinguishable from that of modern man? (a) Peking man (b) Cromagnon man (c) Neanderthal man (d) Java man UPPCS Pre 2010 Ans. (b) : See the explanation of the above question. 156. The most recent, or nearest and direct prehistoric ancestor of present man was possibly– (a) Neanderthal (b) Cro-magnon (c) Java ape man (d) Homoerectus pekinensis TGT Biology 2002 Ans. (b) : The most recent or nearest and direct prehistoric ancestor of present man was possibly cromagnon. 157. Cro-magnon was : (a) frugivore (b) carnivore (c) herbivore (d) omnivore UPPCS Pre 2005 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (b) : Cro Magnon were carnivorous and not herbivorous, frugivorous and sanguivorous. Like Neanderthals, the Cro-Magnons were primarily biggame hunters, killing mammoth, cave bears, horses and reindeer. They hunted with spears and with javelins and atlatl. Bow and arrow had not yet been invented. 158. A phenomenal increase in the brain size occurred in : (a) Ramapithecus and Australopithecus (b) Australopithecus and Cromagnon (c) Homo erectus and Homo sapiens (d) Homo neanderthelensis and Homo sapiens UPPCS Pre 2006 Ans. (b) : A Phenomenal increase in the brain size occurred in Australopithecus and Cromagnon. Brain size of following mans : Neanderthalensis 1400 c.c. Homo sapiens 1300-1400 c.c. Austrolopithecus 350-450 c.c. Cromagnon 1600 c.c. Homoerectus 950 c.c. 159. Homo erectus-erectus is the scientific name of : (a) Peking and Java man (b) Neanderthal man (c) Solo man (d) Java man UPPCS Pre 2006 Ans. (d) : Homo erectus erectus is the scientific name of Java man. Homo erectus pekinensis is the scientific name of Peking man. Homo sapiens Neanderthalensis is the scientific name of Neanderthal man. 160. Cromagnon man appeared in : (a) lower pleistocene (b) middle pleistocene (c) upper pleistocene (d) palaeocene UPPCS Pre 2000 Ans. (b) : Cromagnon man appeared in middle Pleistocene. Pleistocene is divided into four stages, the Gelasian, Calabrian, middle Pleistocene (Chibanian) and with upper pleistocene. The Cromagnon, height is 180cm and cranial cavity is 1650cm3. broad fore-head arched. 161. The following are some of the well known fossils in the evolution of modern man : 1. Neanderthal 2. Homo erectus 3. Cromagnon 4. Australopithecus What is the correct chronological sequence in which the above appeared : (a) 1-2-3-4 (b) 4-2-1-3 (c) 3-1-2-4 (d) 2-4-1-3 UPPCS Pre 2000

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (b) : Australopithecus originated in era of coenozoic, period tertiary and epoch is pleistocene, 2– 13 million years ago. Homo erectus originated in era of coenozoic, period quaternary and epoch is pleistocene, 0.6–2 million years ago. Neanderthal originated in era of coenozoic, period quaternary and epoch is holocene 0.1 million years ago. Cro–magnon is a modern man originated 35–50 thousand years ago. It is directly connected to homo sapiens (modern man). 162. The Hominid fossil 'Lucy' belongs to : (a) Australopithecus robustus (b) A. afarensis (c) A. Africanus (d) A. biosei UPPCS Pre 2000 Ans. (b) : Lucy is common name of AL 288-1. It is a collection of several hundred pieces of bone fossilized representing 40% of a female of the hominin species Australopithecus afarensis. In Ethiopia, the assembly is also known as Dinkinesh, which means "you are marvelous" in the Amharic language". 163. "Lucy" and "WT 1500" are : (a) Name of dog and aeroplane (b) Connecting link between bird and mammal (c) Fossil of Hominid ancestor (d) Living fossil TGT Biology 1999 Ans. (c) : "Lucy" and "WT 1500" are fossil of Hominid ancestor. Lucy is a collection of several hundred pieces of fossilized bone representing 40% of a female of the hominin species Australopithecus afarensis. It was discovered in 1974 in Africa and acquired her name from the 1967 song "Lucy in the sky with Diamonds", which was played loudly and repeatedly in the expedition camp all eventing after the excavation term's first day of work on the recovery site. WT 1500, also called Turkana Boy or Nariokotome Boy, is a nearly complete skeleton of a Homo ergaster youth who lived 1.5 to 1.6 million years ago. It was discovered in 1984 in Kenya. 164. Given : 1. Ability of tool making 2. habit of hunting 3. Endowed with artist's ability 4. Brain capacity c. 1350 c.c. Which features characterize cromagnon man : (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only UPPCS Pre 2003 Ans. (c) : The brain capacity of cromagnon man was 1600 C.C. Cro-magnon man was a good artist, done colour painting on the rocks good hunter, carnivorous and has the ability of tool making. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

165. Which of the following is the correct sequence in the evolution of modern man? (a) Pithecanthropus - Peking man modern Australopithecus man (b) Neanderthal man - Java man modern Pithecanthropus man (c) Australopithecus - Neanderthal man man-Cromagnon man modern (d) Cro-Magnon man - Peking man Neanderthal man modern man UPPCS Pre 2004 Ans. (c) : The correct sequence of evolution of modern man given below. Australopithecus → Neanderthal man → Cromagnon man → modern man 166. Which one of the following sets represents the correct sequence of the evolution of modern man : (a) Neanderthal man → Australopithecus → Cromagnon → Homoerectus → Modern man. (b) Australopithecus → Homoerectus → Neanderthal man → Cromagnon → Modern man. (c) Homoerectus → Australopithecus → Neanderthal man→Cromagnon→Modern man. (d) Australopithecus → Neanderthal man → Cromagnon →Homoerectus → Modern man. UPPCS Pre 2002 Ans. (b) : Correct Sequence : Australopithecus → Homoerectus → Neanderthal man → Cromagnon → Modern man. 167. First mammal appeared in : (a) Permian period (b) Triassic period (c) Jurassic period (d) Cretaceous period UPPCS Pre 1996, 2005 Ans. (c) : First mammal appeared during triassic period. * Age of mammals are cenozoic. * Age of fishes is devonian. Triassic period, in geologic time, the first period of the Mesozoic era. It began 252 million years ago. Reptiles increased in diversity and number, and the first dinosaurs appeared during this period along with the appearance of first mammals. 168. Java man was discovered by : (a) W.C. Pei (b) Eugene Dubois (c) Darwin (d) Robert Brown UPPCS Pre 1996 TGT Biology 2010 Ans. (b) : Java man, extinct hominin (member of the human lineage) known from fossil remains found on the island of Java, Indonesia. A skullcap and femur thighbone) discovered by the Dutch anatomist and geologist Eugene Dubois in the early 1890s were the first known fossils of the species Homo erectus.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 169. Java ape man was discovered by : 173. Another name of Java man is : (a) Leakey (b) Dubois (a) Pithecanthropus erectus (c) Lucy (d) Davidson Black (b) Homo erectus UPPCS Pre 2001 (c) Homo habilis (d) Both (a) and (b) Ans. (b) : See the explanation of the above question. TGT Biology 2013 170. Fossils of the Neanderthal man were first found in : Ans. (d) : Another name of Java man is Homo erectus and Pithecanthropus erectus. It is an early human fossil (a) France (b) China discovered in 1891 on the island of Java, Indonesia. (c) Germany (d) Egypt Java man was about 173 cm tall and his thighbones UPPCS Pre 1995 show that he walked erect like modern humans. They Ans. (c) : The first human fossil assemblage have a cranial capacity averaging 900 cm3, flat skull, described as Neanderthal was discovered in 1856 in powerful jaw muscles with no chin. the Feldhofer cave of the Neander Valley, near Dusseldorf, Germany. The fossils, discovered by lime 174. Zoological name of Pithecanthropus (java ape man) is : workers at a quarry, consisted of a robust cranial vault (a) Homo erectus with a massive arched brow ridge, minus the facial skeleton and several limb bones. (b) Sinanthropus (c) Australopithecus 171. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer from the code given below the list : (d) Homo sapiens List-I List-II TGT Biology 2005 (age in years) (Human ancestor fossils) Ans. (a) : See the explanation of the above question. 1. 1 million (A) Homo Sapiens 175. Homo erectus differs from cro-Magnon man in 2. 2 million (B) Australopithecus (a) having protruded jaws 3. 10 million (C) Pithecanthropus (b) having receding jaws 4. 4.50 thousands (D) Sinanthropus (c) being able to draw pictures of animals Code : (d) all of these 1 2 3 4 TGT Biology 2010 (a) C B D A Ans. (a) : Homo erectus differs from Cro-magnon man (b) B C D A in having protruded jaws. (c) D A C B Homo erectus are the direct ancestor of homo sapiens, (d) A B C D with chin absent and jaw prognathous means UPPCS Pre 1999 protruded. Cro-magnon are the direct ancestor of modern man, Ans. (a) with semi-circular, orthognathous jaw. List–I List–II 176. Homo erectus is the scientific name of : (Human ancestor (Age in years) (a) Java and Peking man fossils) (b) African man A. Homo Sapiens 4.50 thousands (c) Peking man B. Australopithecus 2 million (d) Java man C. Pithecanthropus 1 million TGT Biology 2005 Ans. (a) : Homo erectus is the scientific name of Java D. Sinanthropus 10 million and Peking man. Homo erectus (upright man) is an 172. The only ape which is found in Indo-malayan extinct species of archaic human from the pleistocene, belt is : with its earliest occurrence about 2 million years ago. It (a) Gorilla (b) Orangutan was the first of our relatives to have human-like body (c) Chimpanzee (d) Gibbon proportions, with shorter arms and longer legs relative UPPCS Pre 2005 to its torso. Ans. (d) : The only ape which is found in Indo- 177. Primates include : malayan belt is Gibbon. They live in subtropical and (a) Apes and Man tropical rainforest from eastern Bangladesh to (b) Monkeys, Apes and Man Northeast India to Indonesia and southern China. (c) Lorises, Lemurs, Tarsiers Gibbons are also called lesser apes or small apes, (d) Lorises, Lemurs, Tarsiers, Monkeys, Apes because of being smaller than great apes. They are and Man tailless, exhibiting low sexual dimorphism, and not making nests. TGT Biology 2005 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (d) : Primates include lorises, lemurs, Tarsiers, Monkeys, Apes and Man. A primate is a eutherian mammal that arose 85-55 million years ago first from small terrestrial mammals, which adapted to living in the trees of tropical forests. Primates are classified as the strepsirrhines (lemurs, galagos and lorisids), and haplorhines. Haplorhines include the tarsiers and the simians (apes and monkeys). 178. Homo sapiens appeared on the scene, only : (a) 20,000 years ago (b) 10,000 years ago (c) 40,000 years ago (d) None of the above TGT Biology 2005 Ans. (b) : Homo sapiens appeared on the scene, only 10,000 years ago. All people living today belong to the species Homo sapiens. Homo is the Latin word for 'human' or 'wise man' and sapiens is derived from a latin word that means 'wise' or 'astute'. Homo sapiens is one of several species grouped into the genus Homo, but it is the only one that is not extinct. 179. Highest cranial capacity is found in (a) Homo sapiens sapiens (b) Neanderthal man (c) Peking man (d) Cromagnon man PGT Biology 2013 Ans. (d) : Highest cranial capacity is found in Cromagnon man. Cranial capacity of cro-magnon was 1600 CC. The cranial capacity of Java man (Homo erectus) is 900 CC. The cranial capacity of Peking man (Homo erectus pekinensis) is 1075 CC. The cranial capacity of Homo habilis (Handy man) is 700 CC. The cranial capacity of modern man (Homo sapiens) is 1400 – 1450 CC. 180. In the evolutionary history of man, the ankle bone was well developed first in: (a) Homosapiens fossills (b) Homosapiens neanderthalensis (c) Homoerectus (d) Homohabilis PGT Biology 1998, 2003 Ans. (b) : In the evolutionary history of man, the ankle bone was well developed first in Homosapiens neanderthalensis. They are an extinct species of archaic humans who lived in Eurasia until about 40,000 years ago. They had more robust build than modern humans with proportionally shorter forearms and forelegs. They had tall heel bones that put a less energy- efficient spring in their steps while running. 181. Fossils of the neanderthal man were first found in : (a) France (b) China (c) Germany (d) Egypt PGT Biology 2002 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (c) : Fossils of the neanderthal man were first found in Germany. It was discovered in 1856 in the Feldhofer Cave of the Neander Valley near Dusseldorf, Germany. The fossils, discovered by lime workers at a quarry, consisted of a robust cranial vault with a massive arched brow ridge and several limb bones. 182. Which of the following is closest relative of man? (a) Chimpanzee (b) Orangutan (c) Gorilla (d) Gibbon PGT Biology 2010 Delhi SSB PGT Biology 2015, Ans. (a) : Chimpanzee is closest relative of man. Humans, chimpanzees, gorillas, organgutans and their extinct ancestors form a family of organisms known as the Hominidae. Humans and chimpanzees share a surprising 98.8% of their DNA, and both descended from a single ancestor species that lived six or seven million years ago. 183. How many pairs of chromosomes do chimpanzees carry? (a) 23 (b) 46 (c) 24 (d) 48 Jharkhand Daite PGT Biology 2014 Ans. (c) : Chimpanzees carry 24 pairs of chromosomes. Humans carry 23 pairs (46) chromosomes. This major karyotype difference was caused by the fusion of two ancestral chromosomes to form human chromosome 2 and subsequent inactivation of one of the two original centromeres. 184. Peking man belongs to genus (a) Australopithecus (b) Sinanthropus (c) Pithecanthropus (d) Homo sapiens GIC Biology 15.09.2015 Ans. (b) : Peking man belongs to genus Sinanthropus. It is an archaic genus in the scientific classification system to which the early hominid fossils of peking man were once assigned. It is now been reclassified as Homo erectus, and the genus sinanthropus is disused of the four species placed within sinanthropus, peking man were first to be found. 185. Who is the father of Green Revolution? (a) P. Maheshwari (b) Norman Ernest Borlaug (c) Mendel (d) None of them Bihar PGT 2019 Ans. (b) : Norman Ernest Borlaug is the Father of Green Revolution. He was an American agronomist who led initiatives worldwide that contributed to the extensive increase in agricultural production. The Green Revolution was an endeavour initiated by Borlaug in the 1960s. It led to him winning the Nobel Peace prize in 1970 for his work in developing high yielding varieties of wheat.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 8. Nutrition and Digestion 1.

Consider the following statements. 1. Saliva acts as a lubricant. 2. Salivary amylase converts starch into glucose. 3. The pH of saliva is about 3.4 4. Chloride ions are essential for the activity of salivary amylase Of these statements : (a) 1 and 4 are correct (b) 2 and 3 are correct (c) 3 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 2 are correct TGT (2016) 31/07/2021 Ans. (a) : 1 and 4 are correct statements. • Saliva acts as a lubricant. • Chloride ions are essential for the activity of salivary amylase. • It contains many electrolytes, amylase, enzyme, and immunoglobulin's. It has following functions. • Chemical digestion of the starch in food through the action of amylase enzyme. • Moistening the food for easy swallowing. • Allows the tongue to taste the food by dissolving the food. 2. The digestive tract of human adult lacks_____enzyme. (a) Pepsin (b) Lipase (c) Rennin (d) Trypsin TGT 07/08/2021 Ans. (c) : Rennin is the enzyme present in the gastric juice of only infants and not of adult human. In adults, it is replaced by prorennin that is activated by H+ ions to form rennin. Its function is to coagulate milk. The optimal pH for the enzyme is 1.8 3. Rennin is an enzyme that digests : (a) milk proteins (b) carbohydrates (c) lipids (d) proteins UPPCS Pre 1997 Ans. (a) : Rennin is the enzyme that digest milk protein. Carbohydrate digested by amylase and fat digested by lipase and pepsin digest protein. 4. Rennin is found in the : (a) stomach of infants (b) stomach of adults (c) pancreatic juice (d) saliva UPPCS Pre 2010 Ans. (a) : Rennin is found in the stomach of children. It is important that rennin is not secreted in adult cow and human. Rennin is secreted by the gastric gland and convert the milk soluble protein casein into the insolubles protein calcium paracaseinate. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

5.

Meissner's plexus is found in : (a) Liver (b) Lungs (c) Kidney (d) Intestinal wall GIC 19/09/2021 Ans. (d) : Meissner's plexus is found in intestinal wall. It is also known as submucosal plexus, and is situated in the submucosal region between the circular muscle and mucosa. It was named after the German anatomist and physiologist, Georg Meissner. This plexus regulates the configuration of the luminal surface, controls glandular secretions, alters electrolyte and water transport and regulates local blood flow. ⇒ Plexus is the branching and networking of vessels or nerves in a particular region.

6.

Meissner's-plexus is found in : (a) gastro-intestinal tract (b) liver (c) kidney (d) heart UPPCS Pre 2007 UPPCS Pre 1997 Ans. (a) : Meissner's plexus occur in the intestinal wall. The myenteric plexus are also known as Auerbach's plexus, is located between the longitudinal and circular layer of esophagus, stomach and wall of small and large intestine. The submucosal plexus also known as Meissner's plexus. Auerbach's plexus is found in the gastrointestinal tract. They help in the peristaltic movement. 7. Meissner’s plexus is found in (a) gastrointestinal tract (b) liver (c) kidney (d) heart PGT Biology 2002 Ans. (a) : See the explanation of the above question.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 8.

Auerbach's plexus are found in : (a) gastro-intestinal tract (b) liver (c) kidney (d) heart UPPCS Pre 2007 Ans. (a) : See the above of explanation. 9. Major site of water absorption is : (a) Stomach (b) Duodenum (c) Small intestine (d) Large intestine GIC 19/09/2021 Ans. (c) : Major site of water absorption is small intestine. Of all the ingested food,80% of electrolytes, and 90% of water are absorbed in the small intestine. The inner wall or mucosa of the small intestine is covered in wrinkles or folds called plicae circulares that project microscopic finger like pieces of tissue called villi, which in turn have finger like projections known as microvilli. The function of villi and microvilli is to increase the surface area available for the absorption. 10. Bile is produced by : (a) Liver (b) Gall bladder (c) Pancreas (d) Intestine GIC Biology 14/06/2015 GIC 19/09/2021 Ans. (a) : Bile is produced by liver. It is a fluid that is made and released by the liver and stored in the gall bladder. It breaks down fats into fatty acids and helps in digestion. It is dark green to yellowish brown in colour. Bile is composed of water (97-98%), bile salts (0.7%), bilirubin (0.2%), fats (0.51%) and 200 meq/l inorganic salts, about 400-800 ml of bile is produced per day in adult human beings. 11. Brunner's glands are present in : (a) Oesophagus (b) Liver (c) Stomach (d) Duodenum GIC 19/09/2021 Ans. (d) : Brunner's glands are present in duodenum. These glands are located in the submucosa of the duodenum and secrete an alkaline fluid containing mucin which protects the mucosa from the acidic stomach contents entering the duodenum. These glands also provide an alkaline condition for the intestinal enzymes to be active and lubricate the intestinal walls. They are the distinguishing feature of the duodenum and are named for the Swiss physician who first described them, Johann Conrad Brunner. [Note :– Commission given the answer of this question (b).] 12. 'Brunner's glands are found in the submucosa of ? (a) Oesophagus (b) Stomach (c) Duodenum (d) Rectum TGT Biology 1999 Ans: (c) : See the explanation of the above question. 13. Which of the following is not present in the bile juice? (a) Digestive enzymes (b) Cholesterol (c) Phospholipids (d) Bile salts RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (a) : Digestive enzymes are not present in bile juice. Bile is a digestive fluid produced by the liver. It is stored and concentrated in the gall bladder. Bile contains numerous solutes, including bile acids, phospholipids and cholesterol. It also contain bile salts and bile pigments (bilirubin and biliverdin). Its main function is to convert fats food into fatty acids, which are absorbed in the gut. 14. Secretin and cholecystokinin are digestive hormones. They are secreted in – (a) Pyloric stomach (b) Duodenum (c) Ileum (d) Oesophagus UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (b) : Secretin and cholecystokinin are digestive hormones. They are secreted in duodenum. These hormones are secreted in response to acidity and helps in digestion of fat and protein. Cholecystokinin (CCK) stimulate gall bladder contraction and thus, increases the flow of bile salts into the intestine. Secretin stimulates the release of an alkaline pancreatic fluid that neutralizes stomach acid as it enters the intestine. 15. Most of the enzymatic hydrolysis occurs in which part of the alimentary canal and from which digestive gland ? (a) stomach and salivary gland (b) small intestine and pancreas (c) large intestine and Brunner gland (d) oral cavity and liver UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (b) : Most of the enzymatic hydrolysis occurs in small intestine and pancreas. Enzymatic hydrolysis is a process in which enzymes facilitate the cleavage of bonds in molecules with the addition of the elements of water. During digestion, carbohydrates are broken down into monosaccharides, proteins are broken down into amino acids, and triglycerides are broken down into glycerol and fatty acids. Pancreatic enzymes include trypsin, chymotrypsin, lipase, hydrolase, and amylase. 16. 'Oxyntic cells' secrete : (a) Pepsin (b) HCl (c) Trypsin (d) Bile RPSC School Lecturer 2011 UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (b) : Oxyntic cells secrete HCl. These cells are also known as parietal cells, and are located in the gastric glands found in the lining of the fundus and body regions of the stomach. These cells are responsible for gastric acid secretion, which aids in the digestion of food, absorption of minerals, and control of harmful bacteria. The hydrochloric acid (HCl) is secreted into the large canaliculi, which are continuous with the lumen of the stomach. 17. Which of the following stimulates the gall bladder to release bile ? (a) Enterocrinin (b) Duocrinin (c) Cholecystokinin (d) Vaso active intestinal peptide UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (c) : Cholecystokinin stimulates the gall bladder to 21. The most abundant steroid found in the body is release bile. Cholecystokinin (Pancreozymin) is a (a) cortisol (b) testosterone peptide hormone of the gastrointestinal system (c) aldosterone (d) cholesterol responsible for stimulating the digestion of fat and UPPCS Pre 2010 protein. It is secreted from mucosal epithelial cells in the first segment of the small intestine (duodenum) and Ans. (d) : The most abundant steroid in the body is stimulates delivery into the small intestine of digestive cholesterol. Cholesterol produces Vitamin D, hormone enzymes from the pancreas and bile from the gall and bile in body which help in digestion of fat found bladder. Cholecystokinin is also produced by neurons in inside the body. Cholesterol is important for a healthy the enteric nervous system and is widely and abundantly life but when its amount exceed normal, clots form in the blood which is fatal for the heart. distributed in the brain. 18. In which part of alimentary canal symbiotic 22. Which of the following vitamins is essential for the healing of a wound? micro-organisms are found? (a) Cobalamin (b) Ascorbic acid (a) Colon (b) Ileum (c) Tocopherol (d) Nicotinamide (c) Caecum (d) Rectum UPPCS Pre 2006 Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2015 RPSC School Lecturer (23/07/2016) Ans. (b) : Vitamin plays very important role, vitamin C which is also known as ascorbic acid is essential for Ans. (c) : Caecum, a part of large intestine, is a small healing of a wound. Cobalamin called the vitamin B12. blind sac which hosts some symbiotic micro-organisms It is essential for R.B.C. (Red blood corpuscles) which helps in synthesis of vitamin- B12 and helps in formation. Tocopherol – It is antisterile vitamins digestion. Symbiotic microorganisms helps in the break called vitamin E. Nicotinamide called vitamin B3 and down of complex foods into simple food. its deficiency cause pellagra. 19. Which cells of gastric gland secrete 23. Synthesis of prothrombin occurs in : Hydrochloric acid (HCl) ? (a) Blood platelets (b) Blood plasma (a) Mucus neck cells (b) Chief cells (c) Liver (d) Bone-marrow (c) Oxyntic cells (d) Salivary cells UPPCS Pre 2006 RPSC School Lecturer (23/07/2016) Ans. (c) : Synthesis of prothrombin occur in liver. Ans. (c) : Oxyntic cells (Parietal cells) are large and Prothrombin of blood plasma is converted to thrombin most numerous on the sidewalls of the gastric glands. in the presence of thromboplastin and calcium ion They are called oxyntic cell because they stain strongly during blood clotting. Prothrombin found in blood with eosin dye. They are called parietal as they lie plasma R.B.C. and W.B.C. are formed in bone against the basement membrane. They secrete marrow. hydrochloric acid and castle's intrinsic factor. 24. Which of the following ions is essential for the activity of salivary amylase ? (a) Cl− (b) Na+ ++ (c) Fe (d) SO4− UPPCS Pre 2006 Ans. (a) : Chloride ion is essential for the activity of salivary amylase. Na+ ion control heart beat. Fe++ found in the hemoglobin. SO4- ion does not play any role in the body. Salivary amylase or ptyalin catalyzes the hydrolysis of starch into sugars. Chloride is the allosteric effector of salivary amylase. 25. 20.

From the point of ontogeny liver is : (a) ectodermal (b) endodermal (c) mesodermal (d) both (a) and (b) UPPCS Pre 2006 Ans. (b) : From the point of ontogeny, liver is endodermal. Some other derivative of endoderm germ layer are parathyroid, thyroid, gastric and intestinal glands, trachea and lungs etc. Hepatocytes are the principal cell type in the liver and these along with biliary epithelial cells are derived from the embryonic endoderm.

TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Kupffer cells of liver are concerned with : (a) poisonous substances (b) blood clotting (c) phagocytosis (d) pinocytosis UPPCS Pre 2007 Ans. (c) : Kupffer cells are the phagocytes of the liver, because the harmful bacteria present in the blood are eaten by the Kupffer cell of the liver and destroy them, this process is called phagocytosis. The Kupffer cell of the liver breakdown the inactive and dead red blood cell and convert their haemoglobin into bile pigments which reach duodenum along with bile. The iron of hemoglobin get stored in the liver.

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Kupffer cells are : (a) absorptive cells of ileum (b) phagocytic cells of liver

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(c) α - cell of Islets of Langerhans (d) secretory cells of sebaceous glands PGT Biology 2009 UPPCS Pre 2004 Ans. (b) : See the explanation of the above question. 27. Night-blindness in man is caused by the deficiency of : (a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin B (c) Vitamin C (d) Vitamin D UPPCS Pre 1994 UPPCS Pre 1999 Ans. (a) : Vitamin A is required for proper vision. Night blindness is most often caused by vitamin A deficiency. Vitamin deficiency disease Vitamin A Night-blindness Vitamin B1 Beri-beri Vitamin C Scurvy Vitamin D Rickets 28. Kupffer cells are involved in : (a) sensory activity (b) toxin secretion (c) enzyme synthesis (d) phagocytosis UPPCS Pre 1997 Ans. (d) : Kupffer cell are found in the liver. It is phagocytic in nature. Kupffer cell are resident liver macrophages and play a critical role in maintaining liver function under physiological condition. They are the first innate immune cell and protect the liver from bacterial infection. 29. Which are phagocytes in liver : (a) Kupffer cells (b) Acinar cells (c) Deiters cells (d) Hensen's cells UPPCS Pre 1994 TGT Biology 2009 Ans. (a) : Kupffer cells also known as stellate macrophages and Kupffer-Browicz cells, are specialized macrophages located in the liver, lining the walls of the sinusoids. They form part of the mononuclear phagocyte system. 30. The pH of the HCl secreted in the human stomach is about. (a) 6.5 to 7.5 (b) 6.0 to 6.5 (c) 1.5 to 3.5 (d) 0.0 to 0.5 UPPCS Pre 2006 Ans. (c) : The pH of the HCl secreted in the human stomach is about 1.5 to 3.5 pH 6.5 to 7.5 Bile juice (found in gallbladder) pH 6.0 to 6.5 Saliva (found in the mouth in tongue) pH 1.5 to 3.5 HCl (Hydrochloric acid) TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Night blindness is caused due to the deficiency of: (a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin B (c) Vitamin C (d) Vitamin D Bihar PGT 2019 Ans. (a) : Night blindness is caused due to the deficiency of vitamin A. • Vitamin A, also called retinol, plays a role in transforming nerve impulses into images in the retina. The retina is a light-sensitive area in the back of eye. • Main source of vitamin A is beta-carotene in diet. The main food sources of beta-carotene are yellow, red and green (leafy) vegetables, such as spinach, carrots, sweet potatoes and red peppers. Dairy products, liver, fish and fortified cereals are also good source of Vitamin A. 32. Pyloric extract contains the hormone : (a) gastrin (b) secretin (c) pancreozymin (d) cholecystokinin UPPCS Pre 1994 Ans. (a) : Gastrin is a peptide hormone that stimulates secretion of gastric acid (HCl) by the parietal cells of the stomach and helps in gastric motility. It is released by G cells in the pyloric antrum of the stomach, duodenum, and the pancreas. Its release is stimulated by peptides in the lumen of the stomach. 33. Liver performs several functions. One of these functions is : (a) histolysis (b) digestion of proteins (c) glycogenesis (d) maintaining salt balance UPPCS Pre 1994 TGT Biology 2009 Ans. (c) : The conversion and storage of an extra amount of glucose into glycogen from the digested food is called glycogenesis. The main stored food in the liver is glycogen. The liver performs a multiple functions in our body. Some of the critical functions of liver include secretion of bile juice for lipid and vitamin decomposition, preparation of blood plasma proteins that enable blood clotting and also detoxification. 34. Intestine of carnivorous fish is : (a) smaller than that of herbivorous fish (b) larger than that of herbivorous fish (c) same as that in herbivorous fish (d) very long UPPCS Pre 1994 Ans. (a) : At a given size, intestine lengths of herbivores were longer than those of omnivores, and these were longer than those of carnivores. Herbivores consumes producers like plants which contain cellulose in the cell wall of their cells. Digestion of cellulose in the gut takes a longer time and hence, the gut of herbivores is longer than gut of carnivores.

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Bile helps in the digestion of fat because : (a) it activates fat digesting enzymes (b) it degrades fat into fatty acids and glycerol (c) it emulsifies fat (d) it makes the medium alkaline UPPCS Pre 1994 UPPCS Pre 2003 Ans. (c) : Bile helps in the digestion of fat because it emulsifies fat. They breakdown the larger fat molecules into smaller ones for effective digestion. Bile contain two types of salts(I) Inorganic Salt- Bile juice contain NaCl, Na2CO3 NaHCO3 etc. Inorganic salt neutralize the acidity of the food and make the medium basic. (II) Organic Salt- Organic salt like Na-glycolate and Na-taurocholate are found in bile juice. Main function of these salts is emulsification of fat because pancreatic lipase can act only on emulsified fats. 36. Which one of the following is required for the maturation of erythrocytes ? (a) Vitamin D (b) Vitamin A (c) Vitamin B12 (d) Vitamin C Bihar PGT 2019 Ans. (c) : For maturation of erythrocytes, Vitamin B12 is essential. It is known as Cyanocobalamin. It is coenzyme of enzyme involved in nucleic acid (DNA, RNA) synthesis and formation of blood cell. Hence, it is necessary for growth of RBC. Its injection is used in the treatment of anemia. Due to its deficiency the physiology of nervous system also gets disturbed. It is found in meat, fish, liver egg, milk, cheese etc. It is also synthesized by bacteria. 37. Diastema is : (a) type of tooth (b) a part of tooth (c) a structure in eye (d) a gap between teeth UPPCS Pre 1994 Ans. (d) : A diastema (plural diastemata) is a space or gap between two teeth. Many species of mammals have diastemata as a normal feature, most commonly between the incisors and molars. Diastemata are common for children and can exist as well in adult teeth. 38. Duct of Wirsung is associated with : (a) Gall bladder (b) Pancreas (c) Salivary gland (d) Urethra UPPCS Pre 2007 Ans. (b) : Duct of Wirsung is related to pancreas. It is also called pancreatic duct. It connects the pancreas to the common bile duct. This supply pancreatic juices from the exocrine pancreas to the duodenum which aids in digestion.

TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Which of the following enzymes helps in the digestion of milk ? (a) Pepsin (b) Rennin (c) Trypsin (d) Lipase UPPCS Pre 2007 Ans. (b) : Rennin is a milk digestive enzyme, it is found in the pro-rennin state, it is an inactive stage, which is activated by HCl, then rennin stage come. Both trypsin and pepsin are protein digestive enzyme. * Lipase is a fat digestive enzyme. 40. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below the list : List-I List-II (A) Carbohydrate metabolism (i) β-oxidation (B) Fatty acid oxidation (ii) Insulin (C) Keratin (iii) Anticoagulant (D) Heparin (iv) Hair Code : A B C D (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 3 2 1 (c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 2 1 4 3 UPPCS Pre 2007 Ans. (d) : Correctly Match List-I List-II A. Carbohydrate 1. Insulin Metabolism B. Fatty acid oxidation 2. β -oxidation C. Keratin 3. Hair D. Heparin 4. Anticoagulant 41. During the process of digestion, the raw starch present in the diet is digested : (a) by salivary amylase only (b) by pancreatic amylase only (c) by both the salivary and pancreatic amylases (d) not digested at all UPPCS Pre 2000 Ans. (c) : The process of digestion of the raw starch present in the diet is digested first in mouth in presence of enzyme salivary amylase and by pancreatic amylase in small intestine to break down starch, glycogen & dextrins. 42. Which one of the following amino acids is not found in proteins : (a) Ornithine (b) Aspartic acid (c) Arginine (d) Tryptophan UPPCS Pre 2000 Ans. (a) : Ornithine is a non-proteinogenic amino acid that play a role in the urea cycle. Ornithine is abnormally accumulated in the body in ornithine transcarbamylase deficiency. Ornithine is one of the intermediate metabolites of the urea cycle that is not incorporated into natural proteins.

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Cholagogues stimulate the secretion of : (a) Saliva (b) Gastric juice (c) Bile (d) Intestinal Juice UPPCS Pre 2000 Ans. (c) : Cholagogues is a drug or other substance that has the specific effect of stimulation of the flow of bile from the liver. Cholagogues work by stimulating the flow of bile from the liver and causing the gallbladder to contract, squeezing the bile into the intestinal tract. 44. In man the speed of recognition of a particular taste with a protruded tongue compared to the tongue in situ, is : (a) Slower (b) Faster (c) Unchanged (d) Initially faster than slower UPPCS Pre 2000 Ans. (d) : In man, the speed of recognition of a particular taste with a protruded tongue compared to the tongue in situ is initially faster than slower. Taste buds are sensory organs that are found on tongue and recognize tastes that are sweet, salty, sour and bitter. Taste bud appear at the apex of fungiform papillae on the anterior tongue and along trench walls of foliate and circumvallate papillae on the posterior tongue. 45. Riboflavin deficiency causes which of the following diseases ? (a) Beri Beri (b) Pellagra (c) Cheilosis (d) Scurvy UPPCS Pre 2002 UPPCS Pre 2008 Ans. (c) : Vitamin B2 chemical name is riboflavin and its deficiency cause a disease called cheilosis. * Deficiency of Vitamin B1 cause a disease called beriberi. * Deficiency of Vitamin C cause a disease called scurvy. * Deficiency of vitamin B3 (Niacin) cause a disease called pellagra. 46. The blood capillaries of intestinal villi can not absorb : (a) Fatty acid and glycerol (b) Glucose (c) Salts (d) Amino Acids UP PGT 2016 Ans. (a) The blood vessels of intestinal villi do not absorb fatty acid and glycerol. Glucose and amino acid diffuse into the mucosal or epithelium level of the blood cell and enter the intestinal cell of blood. There should be more area in this intestine for complete absorption of digested food. For this, innumerable annular villi are found, in the inner wall of the small intestine, whose function is to provide more surface for absorption. 47. Cholecystokinin excites : (a) the pancreas (b) the intestinal glands (c) the gastric glands (d) the gall bladder UPPCS Pre 2008 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (a) : Cholecystokinin stimulates the pancreas to secrete pancreatic juice. * It produce contractions in the gall bladder for the secretion of bile Juice. * Gastric system is found in the stomach. It secretes gastric enzyme like renin, pepsin, gastric lipase, gastric amylase etc. 48. Animals usually store energy supplying nutrients in the form of : (a) carbohydrates and lipids (b) protein (c) nucleic acid (d) vitamins UPPCS Pre 2008 Ans. (a) : Animal often store and supply energy in the form of carbohydrates and fats. * Carbohydrates are a type of macronutrient found in certain food and drink. Sugar, starch and fiber are carbohydrates. * Body use fat as a fuel source and fat is the major storage form of energy in the body. 49. Symptoms of diabetes mellitus include : (a) hyperphagia only (b) Hyperglycemia only (c) Glucosuria only (d) all of the above UPPCS Pre 2008 Ans. (d) : Diabetes mellitus (hyposecretion of insulin) Symptom Hyperglycemia - Due to hyposecretion of insulin Hyperphagia - Excessive hunger Glucosuria - Glucose is excreted through urine. 50. Which of the following inhibits gastric secretion: (a) Gastrin (b) Secretin (c) Enterogastrone (d) Cholecystokinin UPPCS Pre 2003 Ans. (c) : Enterogastrone inhibits gastric secretion. It is a hormone secreted by the duodenal mucosa when fatty food is in the stomach or small intestine. Enterogastrone hormones are responsible for inhibiting the gastric secretion and mobility of the stomach. Its main function is to block the secretion and activity of gastrin. Note- Secretin and Cholecystokinin are examples of enterogastrone hormone. 51. Which of the following secretions associated with digestion does not have enzymes : (a) Bile (b) Gastric juice (c) Saliva (d) Pancreatic juice UPPCS Pre 1997 Ans. (a) : Bile secreted by liver does not contain enzyme but take part in fat digestion. Pancreatic juice contain enzyme for the digestion of carbohydrate, fat, protein. Bile contain bile salts which emulsifies fats and helps in digestion. 52. Cystic duct comes out from the : (a) gall-bladder (b) hepatic lobes (c) pancreatic lobes (d) kidney UPPCS Pre 1997

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Ans. (a) : Cystic duct arise from gall bladder, hepatic duct arise from the liver lobes. Cystic duct conducts bile to gall-bladder. Cystic duct and hepatic duct conjugated and form common bile duct.

53.

The hormone which is responsible for the release of bile from the gall bladder is called : (a) secretin (b) gastrin (c) cholecystokinin (d) enterocrinin UPPCS Pre 1997 Ans. (c) : CCK (Cholecystokinin) Stimulates the contraction in smooth muscles of the gall bladder to release of bile into the duodenum. Cholecystokinin is an important hormonal regulator of the digestive process. Cholecystokinin causes relaxation of the sphincter of oddi, allowing bile release in to duodenum. 54. Find out the correct matching pair from the following : (a) Thyroxine-Rickets (b) Vitamin D-Cretinism (c) Calcitonin- Parathyroid (d) Hyperglycemia- Glucagon UPPCS Pre 1997 Ans. (d) : Glucagon secreted by α cell of islets of Langerhans. Increase blood sugar level called hyperglycemia. Rickets is a skeletal disorder that's caused by lack of vitamin-D, calcium or phosphate. Calcitonin is a hormone that plays a role in regulating the level of calcium in our blood by decreasing it. Cretinism is deficiency of thyroid hormones during early pregnancy. 55. Rhodopsin is found in : (a) Skin (b) Brain (c) Eye (d) Liver UPPCS Pre 1996 Ans. (c) : Rhodopsin is the visible pigment of eye. It is made by Retinal and opsin protein. Rhodopsin is the light receptor in rod photoreceptor cells of the retina that initiates scotopic vision. It is a G-protein coupled receptor. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Vitamin-A combines with a protein in the retina to produce : (a) Glaucoma (b) Night blindness (c) Rhodopsin (d) Colour blindness UPPCS Pre 1997 Ans. (c) : (I) Glaucoma- If canal of Schlemm is blocked in eyeball. (II) Nightblindness- Due to deficiency of vitamin A (Retinol) (III) Rhodopsin- Rods contain a purplish red protein called-rhodopsin or visual purple-which is a derivative of vitamin A. (IV) Colourblindness- Due to X-linked recessive genetic disorder. 57. Vitamin K is required for : (a) conversion fibrinogen to fibrin (b) conversion prothrombin to thrombin (c) synthesis of prothrombin (d) synthesis of haemoglobin UPPCS Pre 2005 Ans. (c) : Vitamin K is required in the synthesis of prothrombin. In the presence of calcium ion, prothrombin is converted into thrombin. In the presence of thrombin, fibrinogen is converted to fibrin. 58. Which one of the following is a vestigial organ in man : (a) cochlea (b) hair (c) eye lid (d) vermiform appendix UPPCS Pre 1997 Ans. (d) : Vestigial organ is a rudimentary structure in human being corresponding to functional structure in ancestral animals but functional in Ruminants. In humans, the appendix is a good example of a vestigial organ. This is non-functioning organ eventually degenerates, shrinking is size and disappearing ultimately. 59. In mammals, carbohydrates are stored as : (a) glycogen in liver and spleen (b) lactic acid in muscles (c) glycogen in liver and muscles (d) glucose in liver UPPCS Pre 2004, 2005 Ans. (c) : Carbohydrate stored in the form of glycogen in liver and muscles. In plants it is stored in the form of starch. Glycogen in the liver is released into the bloodstream when your blood sugar is low, such as between meals or during exercise. 60. Which air pollutant gas is released by ruminants during belching? (a) CO2 (b) NO2 (c) CFC (d) CH4 UPPCS Pre 2004 Ans. (d) : At the time of belching, air pollutant gas released by ruminant is CH4. Ruminant animals release methane (CH4), a greenhouse gas, when the fibrous matter breaks down and undergoes fermentation in their stomach.

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Mammals may drink water and also get it from: Ans. (a) : Both A and R are correct and R is the (a) breakdown of glycogen into glucose correct explanation of A. (b) secretion of saliva Herbivores can digest cellulose is true. (c) oxidation of glucose Cellulose of herbivorous animal could be digested (d) conversion of oxyhaemoglobin to haemoglobin because caecum has special type of bacteria. UPPCS Pre 2004 Therefore both are correct. UPPCS Pre 2005 65. Amino acids are absorbed in : (a) blood capillaries of villi Ans. (c) : Mammals may drink water and also get it from oxidation of glucose. Glucose reacts with (b) wall of rectum molecular oxygen to produce carbon dioxide (CO2) (c) lacteals and blood capillaries of villi and water (H2O). Metabolic water refers to water (d) Lacteals of villi created inside a living organism through their metabolism, by oxidizing energy-containing UPPCS Pre 2004 substances in their food. In mammals, the water Ans. (a) : Amino acid, glucose and salt absorbed in produced from metabolism of protein roughly equals blood capillaries of villi present in small intestine. The the amount needed to excrete the urea which is a digestion is completed here and the final products of byproduct of the metabolism of protein. digestion such as glucose, fructose, fatty acids, 62. Lacteals are associated with : glycerol and amino acid are absorbed through the (a) secretion of lactic acid mucosa into the blood stream and lymph. (b) absorption of fats 66. In colon, constrictions of its wall form a series of (c) production of milk small pockets, called : (d) all the above (a) Haustra (b) Crypts of Lieberkuhn UPPCS Pre 2004 (c) Zymogen cells (d) Taeniae Ans. (b) : Lacteals are associated with absorption of UPPCS Pre 2004 fat and glycerol. Lacteals are lymphatic capillaries Ans. (a) : In colon constriction of its wall form a found in the villi of the small intestine. They absorb series of small pocket called haustra. A thin elongated and transport large molecules, fats or lipids in the structure in colon called taeniae. Vermiform appendix digestive system mainly in the form of lipoproteins. is also present in colon. The colon reabsorb salt and 63. Lacteals are associated with : water. Due to the presence of taeniae, pouch like (a) secretion of lactic acid structure develops in lumen of colon called as haustra. (b) absorption of long chain fatty acids (c) absorption of short chain fatty acids (d) production of lymph UPPCS Pre 2005 Ans. (c) : Lacteals is a lymphatic capillary which absorbs fatty food in the villi of small intestine. Fat molecules are first incorporated into small droplets called micelles which then move into intestinal mucosa where they are re-formed into small protein coated globules, chylomicrons. Chylomicrons then mixed with the lymph forms chyle which is transported by lacteals to the larger lymphatic vessels which ultimately drains it to the blood stream. 64. Consider the following statements : Assertion (A) : Herbivorous animals can digest cellulose. Reason (R) : Caecum of such animals carries 67. In colon constriction of its wall form a series of special type of bacteria. small pocket called : Select the correct answer using codes given below: (a) haustra (b) crypt of Lieberkuhn Code : (c) zymogen cells (d) taeniae (a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct UPPCS Pre 2005 explanation of A. Ans. (a) : Small pocket like structure which is found (b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the in the colon is called haustra. correct explanation of A. * Crypts of Lieberkuhn are found in the intestine (c) A is true but R is false which secrete the intestinal juice. (d) R is false but A is true UPPCS Pre 2004, 2005 * Taeniae is a tube like structure. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Blood glucose level in man is regulated by : (a) insulin (b) glucagon and insulin (c) adrenaline (d) all of the above UPPCS Pre 2001 Ans. (b) : The level of glucose in human blood is regulated by glucagon and insulin. Insulin decrease the level of glucose in the blood. If the glucose level in the blood become high, insulin than lower the level of glucose in the blood. The normal level of glucose in the blood is 80-100 mg in 100 ml of blood. Glucagon increase the level of glucose in the blood. 69. Lysozymes are found in : (a) Saliva (b) Tears (c) both (a) and (b) (d) Mitochondria UPPCS Pre 2001 Ans. (c) : Lysozyme is an antimicrobial enzyme produced by animals that form part of the innate immune system. Lysozyme is abundant in secretion including tears, sweat, saliva, human milk and mucus. The action of lysozyme is physiological as it is an antimicrobial enzyme which kills certain types of bacteria. The enzyme functions by attacking, hydrolyzing and breaking glycosidic bonds in peptidoglycan of bacteria. 70. Ductus choledochus in mammal carries : (a) bile (b) saliva (c) milk (d) sweat UPPCS Pre 2001 Ans. (a) : Cystic duct of gallbladder is connected to common hepatic duct to form a common bileduct also called ductus choledochus. Ductus choledochus or common bile duct is responsible for carrying the bile from the liver and gallbladder. 71. Study pertaining to anus and rectum is known as : (a) Myrmecology (b) Stomology (c) Proctology (d) Analogy UPPCS Pre 1996 Ans. (c) : Branch of science which deals with the study of anus and rectum is called proctology. Proctology is the branch of medicine that focuses on diseases of the colon, rectum and anus. 72. Dentine of the teeth are developed from : (a) ectoderm and mesoderm both (b) mesoderm (c) ectoderm (d) endoderm UPPCS Pre 1995 Ans. (b) : Dentine is main part of tooth that surrounds a cavity called-pulp cavity. Dentine secreting cell is called-odontoblast cells. All part of teeth develop from mesoderm-except enamel. Enamel develop from ectoderm. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

73.

In mammals, coronoid process is a part of the : (a) Axis vertebra (b) Atlas vertebra (c) Pelvic girdle (d) Lower jaw UPPCS Pre 1996 Ans. (d) : Coronoid process infront of the condyle is much less prominent and provide attachment to temporal muscles. In human anatomy, the mandible's coronoid process is a thin, triangular eminence, which is flattened from side to side and varies in shape and size. Its anterior border is convex and is continuous below with the anterior border of the ramus.

74.

Goblet cells are characteristic of : (a) intestinal epithelium of mammals mucus (b) permanent epithelium of frog and produce glucagon (c) Islets of Langerhans and produce glucagon (d) epithelium of lower intestine and absorb fatty acids UPPCS Pre 1995 Ans. (a) : Goblet cell is the characteristics of intestinal epithelium of mammal that secretes mucus. Goblet cells are mucin producing cells found scattered among other cells of the intestinal villi and crypts in lesser numbers than the absorptive cells. Overall, they are found in greater numbers in the large intestine and distal ileum than in the rest of the intestine. 75. Regular inclusion of citrus fruits and tomatoes in one's diet would prevent the occurrence of : (a) beri-beri (b) scurvy (c) pellagra (d) rickets UPPCS Pre 1995 Ans. (b) : Citrus fruits are the best source of vitamin C called anti scurvy vitamin. Deficiency of vitamin C causes a disease called Scurvy. Vitamin Deficiency disease Vitamin B1 – Beri-beri Vitamin B3 – Pellagra Vitamin D – Rickets 76. Which one of the following enzyme will not be able to break the peptide linkage. (a) pepsin (b) trypsin (c) rennin (d) ptyalin UPPCS Pre 1999

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 82. Which of the following vitamins is not stored in Ans. (d) : (i) Pepsin- Protein digestive enzyme. the body? (ii) Trypsin- Protein digestive enzyme. (a) A (b) C (iii) Ptyalin- Carbohydrate digestive enzyme. (c) D (d) E (iv) Renin- It is secreted from JG cells of kidneys. UPPCS Pre 2005 (v) Rennin- Proteolytic endopeptidase enzyme help in Ans. (b) : The chemical name of vitamin C is digestion of milk protein casein. ascorbic acid. It is a water soluble vitamin that cannot 77. Lacteals of the intestinal villi receive : be stored in the body. It passes out with urine and its deficiency causes scurvy. It is obtained from lemon, (a) fatty acid and glucose amla and pulses. (b) glucose and amino-acid 83. Which of the following is a lactogenic hormone? (c) amino acids and fatty acids (a) Prolactin (b) Oxytocin (d) glycerol and fatty acids (c) FSH (d) Progesterone UPPCS Pre 1999 UPPCS Pre 2005 Ans. (d) : Mucous membrane of small intestine is Ans. (a) : Prolactin is a lactogenic hormone which thrown into many finger-like projections known as increase milk production. villi-absorption of glycerol and fatty acid take place in * Oxytocin is secreted form the posterior pituitary and lacteals of the intestinal villi. its main function is to expel milk. 78. The rise of blood sugar above the normal level is * FSH participates in egg production. known as : * The progesterone is secreted by the corpus luteum. (a) Glycemia (b) Hypoglycemia It stimulates the enlargement of the mammary gland and breast during labour. (c) Aglycemia (d) Hyperglycemia UPPCS Pre 1999 84. Rennin is an enzyme which : (a) converts casein into paracasein Ans. (d) : The rise of blood sugar above the normal (b) converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I level is called hyperglycemia. (c) converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II Presence of sugar in urine is known as glycosuria. Hyperglycemia or high blood sugar (glucose), is a (d) stimulates angiotensinase serious health problem for those with diabetes. UPPCS Pre 2005 79. Insulin producing organ in the human body is : Ans. (a) : Rennin is an enzyme present in gastric juice. Rennin is also called chymosin. Rennin is a (a) liver (b) kidney proteolytic enzyme related to pepsin that is (c) spleen (d) pancreas synthesized by chief cells in the stomach of some UPPCS Pre 1999 animals. Its role in digestion is to curdle or coagulate milk in the stomach, a process of considerable Ans. (d) : Pancreas is the second largest gland. It is importance in the very young animal. In the presence mixocrine gland. Three type of cells found in of calcium, rennin changes irreversibly the casein of pancreas. β cells produce insulin hormone. milk to paracasein which is then acted upon by pepsin. * α cells produce glucagon hormone. 85. Which part of tooth is covered with enamel? * δ cells produce somatostatin hormone. (a) crown (b) root 80. The sphincter of Oddi is found at the end of : (c) dentine (d) all the above (a) bile duct (b) cardiac stomach UPPCS Pre 2005 (c) pyloric stomach (d) sacculus rotundus Ans. (a) : Human teeth are divided into three part on UPPCS Pre 1998 the basis of their structure Ans. (a) : Bile is secreted by liver and is stored in the (i) Crown (ii) Neck (iii) Root gallbladder. Conjugation of cystic duct and hepatic The crown part of the tooth is covered with enamel. duct form bile duct. The valve in the common bile duct is called sphincter of Oddi. The sphincter of Oddi 86. Zymogen cells of gastric glands secrete : (a) Pepsinogen (b) Pepsin is found at the end of bile duct. (c) Chymotrypsin (d) Trypsin 81. Pancreas secrete : UPPCS Pre 2009 (a) Pancreozymin (b) Angiotensin I Ans. (a) : The zymogen cell of the gastric gland (c) Somatostatin (d) Angiotensin II secretes pepsinogen. Pepsinogen converted into pepsin. UPPCS Pre 2005 This is a protein digestive enzyme. * Trypsin is secreted by the pancreas. It is a protein Ans. (c) : δ or γ cell of pancreas secrete a hormone digestive enzyme. known as somatostatin which controls the function of α and β cell. α cell secrete glucagon hormone and β * The second protein of chymotrypsin is a protein digestive enzyme. cell secrete insulin hormone. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Tocopherol is mainly stored in : (a) Adipose tissues (b) Liver (c) Skin (d) Lymphocytes UPPCS Pre 2009 Ans. (a&b) : Tocopherol is the chemical name of vitamin E. It is also called beauty vitamin. It is antisterility vitamin. Tocopherol is a fat-soluble vitamin and it is mainly stored in adipose tissue (fatty tissue) and liver. Alpha-tocopherol is the most common form of vitamin E, that makes up around 90% of the vitamin E in the blood. 88. Which of the following vitamins is essential for normal vision ? (a) Retinol (b) Folic acid (c) Riboflavin (d) Niacin UPPCS Pre 2010 Ans. (a) : Retinol is essential for normal vision. * Vitamin A is the name of group of fat-soluble retinoids, including retinol, retinal, and retinyl esters. * It is a component of the protein rhodopsin, which allows the eye to see in low-light conditions. * Deficiency of vitamin A can lead to night blindness. Source– Its main source is milk, butter, egg yolk, liver, fish oil etc. 89. Vitamin A is responsible for : (a) rhodosim (b) night blindness (c) pellagra (d) cirrhosis TGT Biology 2004 Ans: (b) : See the explanation of the above question. 90. The chemical nature of bile salts is : (a) steroid (b) peptide (c) polysaccharide (d) Lipoprotein UPPCS Pre 2010 Ans. (a) : The chemical nature of bile salts is steroid. The bile released from the gall-bladder into the duodenum contain about 92% water, 6% bile salt, 0.3% bile pigment bilirubin and bile acid 0.3%, 0.9% cholesterol, 0.3% lecithin and 0.3 to 1.2% fat. Bile salt contain inorganic salt called sodium chloride and sodium bicarbonate and organic salt called sodium glycolate and sodium taurocholate. 91. A molecule of sucrose consists of : (a) two glucose molecules (b) two fructose molecules (c) one glucose and one fructose molecule (d) two galactose molecules UPPCS Pre 2010

Ans. (a) : Gastric enzyme pepsin is secreted in inactive form pepsinogen. The pepsinogen is activated to pepsin on exposure to gastric hydrochloric acid. The pancreatic juice contains trypsinogen, chymotrypsinogen and procarboxypeptidase as the proteolytic enzymes. * The trypsinogen is activated to trypsin by the action of enzyme enterokinase. Activated trypsin then inturn activates chymotrypsin and procarboxypeptidase. 93.

Hormone which stimulates the secretion of pancreatic juce : (a) Enterogastrone (b) Secretin (c) Gastrin (d) Enterocrinin TGT Biology 2013 Ans. (b): Secretin is a hormone stimulating pancreatic juice. Gastrin hormone is secreted from the wall of the stomach. Enterogastrone reaches the stomach and controls the secretion of gastric gland. Enterocrinin stimulates the bowel wall to secrete intestinal juice.

94.

Which of these are not digested in buccal cavity? (a) Glucose (b) Proteins (c) Fatty acids (d) All of these TGT Biology 2011 Ans. (d) : The digestion of food starts in the buccal cavity or mouth. It takes place mechanically by the teeth and enzymatically with the help of enzyme. The digestive juice present in the buccal cavity is saliva, that contains enzyme salivary amylase (Ptyalin), maltase and lingual lipase. Ptyalin acts on starch, maltose acts on maltase and lingual lipase acts on lipids (fats). There is no enzyme for the digestion of proteins in saliva. Glucose and fatty acids are breakdown products of starch and fat.

95.

At which place, digestion of glucose starts : (a) Buccal cavity (b) Stomach (c) Small intestine (d) None of these TGT Biology 2011 Ans. (a) : Digestion of glucose starts from the buccal cavity. It begins and is completely absorbed in the small intestine passing through various phases. Glucose is a simple sugar. The digestion of starch starts in mouth and carbohydrates breaks down into sugar, called glucose. The stomach and small intestine absorb the glucose.

96. Cirrhosis is caused by taking excess of : (a) Cocaine (b) Nicotine Invertase Ans. (c) : Sucrose  → Glucose + Fructose (c) Alcohol (d) Opium A molecule of sucrose consists of one glucose and one Navoday Vidyalay PGT Biology 2014 fructose molecule. Ans: (c) Cirrhosis is a condition in which the liver does 92. Just as HCl is to pepsinogen, so is : not function properly, this disease does not show any (a) enterokinase to trypsinogen symptoms before coming, the patient is tired, weak (b) hemoglobin to oxygen irritable. Swollen leg, scorpion-like blood vessels appear on the skin. This disease can often be caused by drinking (c) bile juice to fat alcohol, having hepatitis B and hepatitis C, having high (d) glucagon to glucose blood pressure. UPPCS Pre 2010 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Of the following the hardest tissue in the 102. Fats in our body are formed when : human body is : (a) there is little glycogen in the body (a) Enamel of teeth (b) Cartilage (b) blood sugar level becomes constant (c) glycogen storage in liver and muscles is (c) Tendon (d) Bone completed GIC Biology 15.09.2015 (d) intake of protein is high Ans. (a) : The hardest tissue of the human body is the TGT Biology 2009 enamel of the upper layer of the tooth. Ans: (c) : Fat is formed in our body when the storage * The strongest bone in the human body is the jaw. of glycogen in the liver and muscles becomes full. * Tendon-serve to connect the bone to muscle. Mostly in our body carbohydrates are the fuel for * Ligament serve to connect bone to bone. respiration. Unused carbohydrates are stored in the liver and muscles as glycogen, that is stored for only a short 98. Cancer of stomach, liver and lungs is known as : time. Long-time storage of carbohydrates occurs as (a) Sarcoma (b) Carcinoma fats. Firstly glycogen storage occurs then extra carbohydrates convert into fats for long-term storage. (c) Leukemia (d) Myeloma Navoday Vidyalay PGT Biology 2014 103. Dental formula in adolescent girl of age below 17 years is : Ans: (b) There are three type of cancer 2132 2123 (1) Carcinoma – Skin cancer, breast cancer, stomach (a) (b) cancer, liver cancer, lung cancer etc. 2132 2123 (2) Sarcoma :- Cancer of mesodermal connective tissue 2120 2122 (c) (d) such as cancer of the lymph node, bone cancer. 2122 2120 (3) Leukemia - Cancer of the blood cell (WBCs). Delhi SSB PGT Biology 2015 99. Pyruvic acid before combining with oxaloacetic Ans: (d) : Dental formula of adolescent girl of age acid of citric acid cycle becomes : 2122 below 17 years is because third molar or wisdom (a) Lactic acid (b) Aceto-acetic acid 2122 (c) Cis-acotinic acid (d) Acetyl Co-A teeth erupt between age 17-25. TGT Biology 2010 212 3 ⇒ 16 × 2 = 32 Ans: (d) : Pyruvic acid is converted to acetyl co-A 212 3 before the adding of oxaloacetic acid to the citric acid 2102  cycle. Before entering the Krebs cycle, one molecule of  Milk teeth − 2102 total 10 × 2 = 20 CO2 and two hydrogen atom are released from pyruvic In children −  acid.  Permanent teeth − 2123 total 16 × 2 = 32 100. Zymogen cells of gastric glands produce :  2123 (a) Chymotrypsin (b) Trypsin 104. Synthesis of urea in liver takes place by : (c) Pepsin (d) Pepsinogen (a) nitrogen cycle (b) Krebs cycle (c) glycolysis (d) ornithine cycle Navoday Vidyalay PGT Biology 2014 TGT Biology 2005, 2009 Ans: (d) Gastric gland secrete gastric juice. There are four type of cell in each of the gastric gland. Ans: (d) : Urea is synthesized in the liver by the ornithine cycle. It reaches the blood stream through the (1) Mucous neck cell - secretes mucus kidneys and is excreted as urine. Glycolysis is a process (2) Parietal or oxyntic cell - secretes the HCl and in which two molecule of pyruvic acid are formed from intrinsic factor molecule of glucose. The Krebs cycle is found in the mitochondria, due to which citric acid is formed. (3) Chief or Zymogen cell :- It secretes the proenzyme of pepsin which is called pepsinogen. (4) Enteroendocrine cells→secrete the gastrin hormone. 97.

101. Which of the following secretions associated with digestion does not have enzymes ? (a) Bile (b) Gastric juice (c) Saliva (d) Pancreatic juice TGT Biology 2009 Ans: (a) : Digestive enzymes are not found in bile. It is a greenish, yellowish, alkaline (pH-7.6 - 7.7) liquid which makes the acidic medium of food alkaline. It does not contain any digestive enzymes, yet it is of great importance in digestion. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 105. The cell's water-drinking phenomenon is termed as : (a) Circumfluence (b) Ingestion (c) Circumvallation (d) Pinocytosis TGT Biology 2005 Ans: (d) : The process of taking water by the cell is called pinocytosis. Water absorption occurs through the invagination of the general body surface. It is believed that on coming in contact with colloidal material, the plasmamembrane move inside the cytoplasm and with it the substance. At this place the cytoplasm shrink to form a sac. The fluid fill in this sac, now this sac dissociates and fall into the endoplasm and take the form of a vacuole endoplasm and these vacuoles are called pinocytic vesicle or pinosomes. The process of absorption of colloidal substance is called pinocytosis. 106. Saliva has the enzyme : (a) pepsin (b) ptyalin (c) trypsin (d) rennin TGT Biology 2004 Ans: (b) : Ptyalin enzyme is found in saliva which convert cooked starch (polysaccharide) into oligosaccharides. Pepsin – It convert the proteins of food into peptones and polypeptide. Rennin – It converts milk soluble (Casein) into solid and insoluble curd. Trypsin and chymotrypsin – It converts the remaining proteins and peptones of the chyme into soluble amino acid. 107. The lacteals are found in the : (a) liver (b) spleen (c) villi (d) pancreas TGT Biology 2004 Ans: (c) : The lacteal vessels are found in the villi. Lacteals are a lymphatic capillary. It is responsible for the absorption of dietary fat in the villi of the small intestine. 108. Cholesterol is synthesised in (a) Brunner's (b) Pancreas (c) Liver (d) Spleen TGT Biology 2004 Ans: (c) : Cholesterol is synthesized in liver. The liver makes the cholesterol a human body needs. The remainder of cholesterol comes from foods from animals. About 70% of the cholesterol is synthesized in the liver and rest 30% comes from the diet. Cholesterol is synthesized via a cascade of enzymatic reactions known as the mevalonate pathway. 109. Which of the following is essential for DNA Synthesis and cell division ? (a) Vitamin D (b) Vitamin E (c) Vitamin K (d) Folic Acid TGT Biology 2003 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans: (d) : Folic acid is essential for DNA synthesis and cell division. Source – It is found in green leafy vegetables (Spinach), soybean, yeast, kidney beans and liver etc. Their deficiency lead to reduced growth and anemia. Deficiency of vitamin D cause - dry disease (rickets). Due to deficiency of Vitamin E, there is a decrease in the productive abilities, the genital muscle are weak. Injuries due to deficiency of vitamin K cause excessive bleeding due to non clotting of blood. 110. Glissons's capsules are found in : (a) Liver (b) Kidney (c) Pancreas (d) Intestinal wall TGT Biology 2003 Ans: (a) : Glisson's capsules are found in the liver structurally. The liver is made up of many lobes. Glisson's capsules is a covering of connective tissue found around each of the lobes. Glisson's capsule is composed of the fibrous connective membrane and helps in providing a cover to the hepatic artery, portal vein and also the bile ducts present within the liver.

111. Which is correct? Glisson's capsules are found in: (a) liver of frog (b) pancreas of frogs (c) liver of mammals (d) pancreas of mammals TGT Biology 1999 Ans: (c) : Glisson's capsule is found in the liver of the mammal. See the explanation of the above question. 112. The longitudinal muscular folds of inner wall of stomach are called : (a) Papilla of vater (b) Rugae (c) Villi (d) Fissure TGT Biology 2003 Ans: (b) : The longitudinal muscular fold of the inner wall of the stomach is called rugae. It form small finger like growth. It is found in abundance in the wall of small intestine by which the digested food is absorbed. Rugae is a series of ridges produced by folding of the wall. The gastric rugae in the stomach increases the surface area for more nutrient absorption. It is formed by mucosa and submucosa layer. 113. Succus entericus is secreted by : (a) Pancreas (b) Crypts of Lieberkuhn (c) Fundic glands (d) Salivary glands TGT Biology 2002

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans: (b) : The succus entericus is secreted from the Ans: (c) : crypts of Lieberkuhn in the mucus membrane of the Vitamin Chemical Name small intestine. Brunner's gland and the cavities of VitaminA Retinol Lieberkuhn secrete alkaline (pH 8.3) juice. This is VitaminD Calciferol called intestinal juice or succus entericus. Water, alkali Vitamin C Ascorbic acid and mucus of the intestinal juice are released from the Vitamin K Phylloquinone Brunner's gland and digestive enzyme from the cavity of the Lieberkuhn. 117. Scurvy disease is caused by the deficiency of : The following enzyme are found in the intestinal juice (a) vitamin C (b) vitamin D (1) Enterokinase (2) Erepsin (3) Arginase (4) Maltase (c) vitamin A (d) vitamin E (5) Sucrase (6) Lactase (7) Limit dextrin (8) Lipase etc. UPPCS Pre 1996 114. Which of the following does not belong to PGT Biology 2002 vitamin B group? PGT Biology 2010 (a) Riboflavin (b) Nicotine PGT Biology 2013 (c) Cyanocobalamin (d) Tocopherol Ans. (a) : Vitamins are two type. TGT Biology 2003 Fat soluble - A, D, E, K Ans: (d) : Vitamin B complex is composed of eight B Water soluble - B, C vitamins. B complex - water soluble Vitamin B-1 (thiamine), Vitamin B-2 (riboflavin), Thiamine B1 - Beri-beri Vitamin B-3 (niacin-also known as nicotinic acid), Vitamin B-5 (pantothenic acid), Vitamin B-6 Riboflavin B2 – Cheilosis (pyridoxine), Vitamin B-7 (biotin), Vitamin B-9 (folic Cyanocobalamin B12 - Pernicious anemia acid), Vitamin B-12 (cyanocobalamin). Vitamin C ascorbic acid – Scurvy Vitamin E (alpha-tocopherol) is a fat-soluble vitamin Disease Caused by deficiency of fat soluble Vitamin and a potent anti-oxidant, protecting cells from Vitamin A – night blindness oxidative stress, regulating immune function. Hence, Vitamin D (Calciferol) – Rickets tocopherol does not belong to the vitamin B group. Vitamin E – (Tocopherol) – infertility 115. The end products of carbohydrate digestion Vitamin K – (Naphthoquinone) –Blood does not clot are– 118. Secretin stimulates production of : (a) Glucose, Fructose & Galactose (a) saliva (b) gastric juice (b) Maltose, Glucose & Lactose (c) bile juice (d) pancreatic juice (c) Fructose, Glucose & Lactose PGT Biology 2013 (d) Glucose, Sucrose & Fructose PGT Biology 2002 Ans. (d) : Hormone Source of Stimulates Target/Action Ans: (a) : The end product of carbohydrate digestion Secretion are glucose, fructose and galactose. Carbohydrates are compound of carbon, hydrogen, oxygen (CH2O)n in the Secretin Duodenum Food and (i) Secretion ratio 1:2:1. The proportion of hydrogen in it is the same strong acid of water and in stomach bicarbonate which is of water. Hence chemically they are and from pancreas hydrolyzed carbon compound i.e. aldehyde ketone or intestine alcohol. On the basis of chemical organization there are (ii) Inhibition three categories of carbohydrates : of gastric motility (a) Monosaccharide → These are six carbon organic (iii) It stimulate sugars such as glucose, fructose and galactose etc. liver for the They are high in sweet fruit and honey. Among the five secretion of carbonic sugars ribose and deoxyribose are the most bile juice important. (b) Disaccharide → This sugar are also sweet, it is 119. Largest oesophagus is found in : formed from two monosaccharides for example (a) dog fish (b) frogs maltose sugar, lactose etc. (c) giraffe (d) sparrow (c) Polysaccharides → Like glycogen, starch, PGT Biology 2013 cellulose etc. Ans. (c) : The largest esophagus is found in the giraffe, whose length is about 3m. The esophagus is also known 116. Ascorbic acid is : as the gullet. It is part of the gastrointestinal system (a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin D and is present between the mouth and stomach. It (c) Vitamin C (d) Vitamin K connects the pharynx and the stomach. The length of TGT Biology 1999 the esophagus in humans is 25 cm. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 120. Chymotrypsin is a component of : (a) bile (b) pancreatic juice (c) saliva (d) gastric juice PGT Biology 2013 Ans. (b) : Chymotrypsin is a component of pancreatic juice. Pancreatic juice contain sodium carbonate and enzyme such as trypsin, chymotrypsin, carboxypeptidase, elastase, amylase, pancreatic lipase etc. Chymotrypsin is excreted in the inactive state as Zymogen Chymotrypsinogen ↓ Trypsin π − Chymotrypsinogen ↓ α − Chymotrypsin

121. Deficiency of vitamin B12 causes which of the following disorders : (a) cheilosis (b) beri beri (c) pernicious anemia (d) scurvy PGT Biology 2013 Ans. (c) : Deficiency of Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) cause a disease called beri-beri. Vitamin B2 (Riboflavin) is involved in the metabolism of carbohydrate and other substance. Vitamin B3 (Niacin) cause a disease called pellagra Vitamin C whose chemical name is ascorbic acid, causes scurvy. Vitamin B12 (Cyanocobalamin) cause pernicious anemia. 122. Propioni bacterium yield : (a) vitamine B12 (b) lactic acid (c) citric acid (d) vitamine B6 PGT Biology 2013 Ans. (a) : Vit K essential for blood clotting. Vitamin B12 (Cyanocobalamin) is commercially produced by Propioni bacterium. Deficiency of vitamin B-12 cause pernicious anemia. Propioni bacterium are commonly used in the cosmetic, pharmaceutical and food industries. 123. Ebner’s glands are located in/on : (a) Pancreas (b) Oesophagus (c) Tongue surface (d) Ascending colon PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (c) : The Ebner gland are present on the surface of the tongue. This is an exocrine gland. This gland also called von Ebner gland. A special type of fluid secreted by the Ebner gland initiates lipid hydrolysis. Von Ebner's glands secrete lingual lipase, beginning the process of lipid hydrolysis in the mouth. 124. ‘Calcium paracaseinate’ formation is the function of : (a) Steapsin (b) Cymotrypsin (c) Enterokinase (d) Rennin PGT Biology 2011 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (d) : The formation of calcium paracaseinate is done by rennin. It convert the soluble protein (Casein) of milk into solid and insoluble curd. Pepsin converts food proteins into peptone and polypeptides. 125. ‘Cori cycle’ establishes relation between (a) Muscle glycogen and liver glycogen (b) Muscle glycogen and liver glucose (c) Muscle glycogen and blood glucose (d) Muscle lactic acid and pyruvic acid PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (b) : The Cori cycle establishes the relationship between muscle glycogen and hepatic glucose. The Cori cycle is also called the lactic acid cycle. The Cori cycle consist of two organs, muscle and liver. The Cori cycle was discovered by Carl Ferdinand Cori. The Cori cycle can be clearly understood with the help of a diagram.

126. On being hungry, man uses first : (a) fat (b) glycogen (c) blood protein (d) muscle protein PGT Biology 2010 Ans. (b) : When a person is hungry, first glycogen (carbohydrate) is used. Carbohydrates are the primary source of energy in organisms. Glycogen is storage carbohydrates in animals. Under conditions of starvation, glycogen is used to provide energy. After exhausting the glycogen reserve, fats and proteins are used. 127. Which ion is needed in absorption of food? (a) Ca++ (b) Mg++ + (c) Na (d) K+ PGT Biology 2005 Ans. (c) : Food are absorbed after digestion in different part of the alimentary canal in which the substance reach the circulatory medium. These absorption are simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion. Osmosis and activation transport take place by means of active transport. It contain sodium rich pump which are present on the cell membrane. 128. Which of these cannot be obtained from its solution in fats? (a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin C (c) Vitamin D (d) Vitamin E PGT Biology 2005 Ans. (b) : Fat soluble vitamins are A, D, E, K while water soluble vitamins are B and C. Therefore only fat soluble vitamins can be obtained from fatty acid.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 129. Pancreatic juice secretion is stimulated by the Hormone: (a) Secretin (b) Pancreozymin (c) Gastrin (d) Both (a) and (b) PGT Biology 2003 Ans. (d) : Secretin act on the exocrine pancreas only and stimulate secretion of water & bicarbonate ions. CCK (Cholecystokinin) or pancreozymin act on both, pancreas & gall bladder and stimulate pancreatic enzyme and bile juice respectively. Gastrin act on gastric gland and stimulate the secretion of HCl and pepsinogen. 130. Dental formula of adult human is : (a)

2123

(b)

2123 (c)

2133 2133

2122

(d)

2122

2123

2132 Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2015

Ans. (a) : A dental formula of adult human is

2123 2123

2

1

Incisors,

2 2

Canine

1 3

Premolars

2

Molar

3 8

×2 =

16

= 32 8 16 131.The endocrine portion of pancreas secretes : (a) Insulin and Pancreatic juice (b) Glucagon and Pancreatic juice (c) Insulin and Glucagon (d) Insulin, Glucagon and Pancreatic juice Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2015 Ans. (c) : Pancreas is mixed gland which is divided into endocrine and exocrine part. The endocrine part of pancreas secretes the following hormone, insulin from βcell, α-Cell secretes glucagon and somatostatin secreted from λ-cell, while pancreatic juice is released from the exocrine part. 132.Which cells of gastric gland secrete Hydrochloric acid (HCL)? (a) Mucus neck cells (b) Chief cells (c) Oxyntic cells (d) Salivary cells Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2015 Ans. (c) : Acidic cell (Oxyntic cell); gastric system mainly consist of the following 3 types of cell. 1. Mucus neck cell – These cell secrete mucus 2. Chief cell – These cell secrete the proenzyme pepsinogen 3. Oxyntic cell – These cell secrete hydrochloric acid (HCl) =

TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

133. The pH in the healthy human stomach and intestine are respectively : (a) Acidic and alkaline (1.8 and 7.8) (b) Alkaline and acidic (7.8 and 1.8) (c) Acidic in both (1.8) (d) Alkaline in both (7.8) Rajasthan PSC 2013, PGT Biology 2013 Ans. (a) : Stomach is a biphasic Sac-like structure located on the left side in the abdominal cavity. The value of stomach pH is between 1-2. The entire human intestine is divided into two part. (i) Small intestine (ii) Large intestine HCl present in the stomach is acidic with a pH of 1.8. The enzyme come out of the intestine is alkaline in nature. The pH gradually increases in the small intestine from pH 6 to about 7.4 in the terminal ileum and 6.7 in the rectum. 134. Which cells of islets of Langerhans secrete hormone Gastrin? (a) α - cells (b) β - cells (c) δ - cells (d) Goblet cells Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2013 Ans. (*) : The secretion of the hormone gastrin is not in the Langerhans islets but in the gastric mucosa which induces the secretion of pepsin by the stomach. The following type of cell are found in Langerhans islets : α - cells - Glucagon β - cells - Insulin δ - cells or γ - Somatostatin 135. "Golden Rice" is enriched with precursor of which vitamin? (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) K Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2013 Ans. (a) : Golden rice is a type of rice from which beta carotene is obtained through genetic engineering, this beta carotene is precursor of vitamin A. Research on golden rice was started in 1982 by the Rockefeller foundation. Golden rice was created by replacing rice with two beta-carotene biosynthetic gene. 1. Daffodil (Narcissus pseudonarcissus) P.S.Y. Phytoene synthase. 2. CRTL (Phytoene desaturase) from soil bacteria Erwinia Uredovora. 136. Salient feature of bile juice is (a) It is without enzyme (b) It has trypsin (c) It is acidic in nature (d) It has lipase Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2011

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (a) : It does not contain enzyme. The main function of the liver is to secrete bile juice, it is a greenish brown alkaline liquid. It contain bile salt, bile dyes, cholesterol. Bile juice does not contain enzyme, yet bile salt digest special fats in food, prevent food from rotting and destroyed by bacteria. 137. Oxyntic cells secrete (a) Intestinal juice in ileum (b) Bile juice in duodenum (c) HCl in stomach (d) Insulin in duodenum Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (c) : There are three type of cell found in the stomach. (1) Mucus neck cell → secrete mucus (2) Zymogen or peptic or chief cell → These secrete prorennin and pepsinogen. (3) Oxyntic or parietal cell → These cell secrete intrinsic factor which helps in the absorption of Vit-B12 and synthesis of hemoglobin, and secrete HCl. 138. one of the following has been proved a good tool for de-addiction (a) Vitamin K (b) Teratogen (c) Vitamin C (d) None of these Delhi SSB PGT Biology 2015 Ans. (c) : The chemical name of vitamin C is ascorbic acid. It is a water soluble vitamin. Its deficiency in the human body cause a disease called scurvy. It is found in citrus fruit. The use of this vitamin has proved to be the best remedy for addiction. 139. Vitamin A is necessary for the synthesis of : (a) Haemoglobin (b) DNA (c) Visual purple (d) RNA Delhi SSB PGT Biology 2015 Ans. (c) : The work of receiving visual sensation is done with the help of rods and cones cell of retina. Its chemical name is rhodopsin which is made from pigment called retinene and glycoprotein. The major component of retinene is vitamin A. Therefore, due to deficiency of this vitamin reduced synthesis of rhodopsin occurs and vision stop in dim light. This condition is called night blindness. 140. Vitamin A is a precursor for the synthesis of : (a) somatostatin (b) retinene (c) scotopsin (d) the pigment of the iris LT Biology 2018 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (b) : Vitamin A is a precursor to the synthesis of retinene. * Vitamin A are highly unsaturated alcohol that are fat soluble. * Its main source is milk, butter, egg yolk, liver, fish oil etc. 141. After a meal rich in carbohydrates is ingested, insulin secretion is probably stimulated by (a) GLP–1 (7–36) amide (b) CCK (c) serotonin (d) Interleukin–5(IL–5) LT Biology 2018 Ans. (b) : After ingestion of carbohydrate rich food, insulin secretion is stimulated by CCK. CCK (Cholecystokinin) is a hormone secreted by the I-cells of the upper small intestine in response to fat, protein and some non-nutrients. It plays a role in digestion and appetite. 142. Consider the following statements: 1. Saliva acts as a lubricant. 2. The pH of human saliva is 3.4. 3. Salivary amylase frees sugars from starch molecules. 4. Some drugs and ions are excreted in saliva. Of these statements : (a) only 1 and 2 are correct. (b) only 2 and 3 are correct (c) only 3 and 4 are correct. (d) only 1 and 4 are correct. LT Biology 2015 Ans. (d) : Saliva contains the enzyme amylase, also known as ptyalin and can break down starch into simpler sugars such as maltose (disaccharide) and dextrin. Breaking down the large macromolecules into simpler components helps the body to digest starchy foods, like potatoes, rice or pasta. Drugs excreted in saliva include caffeine, phenytoin, and theophylline. Transfer of drugs from plasma into saliva appears to be largely dictated by passive diffusion. Because of this, only drugs in plasma that are not bound to proteins will be able to diffuse into saliva. 143. Substance that can be absorbed without digestion are the : (a) Minerals (b) Proteins (c) Carbohydrates (d) Vitamins Delhi SSB PGT Biology 2015 Ans. (d) : Vitamin are simple organic compound that are needed in small amount in the body. Vitamin them selve either act as metabolic catalyst that is co-enzyme of enzyme. In this way, they control the actions of catalyst in metabolic reaction. It is absorbed by the cell undigested.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 9. Respiration 1.

The rate of oxygen consumption of an animal is equal to x at 00C. If Q10 is equal to 2, at which of the following temperatures the rate will be 8x? (a) 50C (b) 100C 0 (c) 30 C (d) 350C UP PGT 17/08/2021 Ans. (c) : The rate of oxygen consumption of an animal is equal to X at 00C. If Q10 is equal to 2, the rate will be 8x at 300C. The Q10 defines the temperature coefficient, that explains the factor by which the rate of a reaction (R) increases for every 10-degree rise in temperature. Q10 = 2 means the rate of the reaction doubles for each 100C rise in temperature. 2. Which of the following is responsible for the vibrations of the vocal cords during speech? (a) Ligaments (b) Tendon (c) Inspired air (d) Expired air TGT 07/08/2021 Ans. (d) : Expired air is responsible for the vibration of the vocal cord during speech. Vocal cord, latin Plica vocal is either of two fold of mucous membrane that extend across the interior cavity of the larynx and are primarily responsible for voice production. Sound is produced by the vibration of the folds in response to the passage between them of air exhaled from the lungs. The frequency of these vibration determines the pitch of the voice. The vocal cords are shorter and thinner of women and children, accounting in part for their higher pitched voices. 3. Volume of air inspired or expired during a normal respiration is termed as (a) Tidal volume (b) Residual volume (c) Vital capacity (d) Inspiratory reserve volume TGT 07/08/2021 Ans. (a) : Tidal volume is the lung volume that measures the amount of air that is inspired and expired during a normal breath, extra effort is not applied. The average human has a tidal volume (TV) of approximately 500 ml. 4. For a healthy man, the tidal volume of lungs is: (a) 200 ml (b) 650 ml (c) 500 ml (d) 1100 ml PGT Biology 2011 RPSC School Lecturer 2011 Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2011 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (c) : Tidal volume is the lung volume representing the normal volume of air displaced between normal inhalation and exhalation when extra effort is not applied. In a healthy, young human, tidal volume is approximately 500 ml. 5. The normal volume of air inspired and expired involuntarily in each breath is called : (a) tidal volume (b) residual volume (c) vital capacity (d) total lung capacity UPPCS Pre 1995 Ans. (a) : See the explanation of the above question. 6. Respiratory Quotient (RQ) of organic acid is (a) Zero (b) One (c) Less than one (d) More than one TGT 07/08/2021 Ans. (d) : RQ is the ratio of the volume of carbon dioxide evolved and oxygen consumed in respiration. In Inorganic acids, the evolution of carbon dioxide is more than the oxygen require, that is the reason organic acids has R.Q. more than 1. Respiratory Quotient or respiratory ratio. Volume of CO 2 evolved RQ = Volume of O 2 consumed Carbohydrates: C6H12O6+6O2→6CO2+6H2O + Energy (Glucose) 6 RQ = = 1 6 Fats : 2C5H98O6+145O2→102CO2 + 98H2O + Energy (Tripalmitin) 102 RQ = = 0.7 145 Proteins : 2C3H7O2N+6O2→CO(NH2)2 +5CO2 + 5H2O + Energy (Alanine) (Urea) 5 RQ = = 0.83 (Depending on the amino acid 6 sequences) Organic acids:C4H6O5+3O2 → 4CO2 + 3H2O + Energy (Malic acid) 4 RQ = = 1.3 3 Anaerobic respiration : C6H12O6 → 2C2H5OH + 2CO2 + Energy (Glucose) (Alcohol) 2 RQ = = ∞ 0

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For malic acid the respiratory Quotient (RQ) will be : (a) 1 (b) More than 1 (c) Less than 1 (d) Zero PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (b) : The respiratory coefficient (RQ) of malic acid is more than one. RQ is the ratio of the volume of carbon dioxide evolved to that of oxygen consumed by an organism, tissue or cell in a given time. Generally organic acids have their R.Q. value greater than 1. Oxidation of malic acid is as C4H6O5 + 3O2 → 4CO2 + 3H2O 4CO 2 R.Q. = = 1.33 3O 2 8. Volume of air inspired or expired during a normal respiration is called (a) Total lung capacity (b) Tidal volume (c) Inspiratory reserve volume (d) Vital capacity RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) Ans. (b) : Volume of air inspired or expired during a normal respiration is called Tidal volume (TV). Its normal value is 500 ml (0.5L). ⇒ Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) is an additional volume of air that can be inspired forcefully after the end of normal inspiration. Its normal value is 3300 ml (3.3L). ⇒ Vital capacity (VC) is the maximum volume of air that can be expelled out forcefully after a deep (maximal) inspiration. It includes TV, IRV, and ERV (Expiratory Reserve Volume). VC = IRV+TV+ERV=3300+500+1000=4800ml (4.8L) ⇒ Total lung capacity (TLC) is the volume of air present in lungs after a deep (Maximal) inspiration. It includes all the volumes. TLC = IRV + TV+ERV+RV (Residual Volume) = 3300 + 500 + 1000 + 1200 = 6000 ml (6L) 9. R. Q. is less than one when : (a) Glucose is oxidised (b) Organic acids are oxidised (c) Fats are oxidised (d) Sucrose is oxidised UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (c) : R.Q. is less than one when fats are oxidised. Respiratory Quotient (RQ) is the ratio of the volume of carbon dioxide produced over the volume of oxygen consumed during cellular respiration. The instrument used for measuring RQ is Respirometer. ⇒ RQ for carbohydrates is 1. ⇒ RQ for proteins is less than 1. ⇒ RQ for organic acids is more than 1. 10. The ratio in the steady state of the volume of CO2 produced to the volume of O2 consumed per unit of time is termed as – (a) Respiration (b) Respiratory Quotient (RQ) (c) Respiratory exchange ratio (RER) (d) None of the above UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (b) : The ratio in the steady state of the volume of CO2 produced to the volume of O2 consumed per unit of time is termed as Respiratory Quotient (RQ). The respiratory quotient depends on the type of respiratory substrate used during the act of respiration. RQ for carbohydrates is approximately 1, for fats is approximately 0.7 and for protein is approximately 0. volume of CO 2 eliminated RQ = Volume of O 2 consumed 11. Respiratory rhythm centre is situated in which portion of the brain? (a) Medulla region (b) Cerebellum (c) Corpus Callosum (d) Cerebrum RPSC School Lecturer (23/07/2016) Ans. (a) : The respiratory center is located in the medulla oblongata and pons, in the brainstem. The respiratory center is made up of three major respiration groups of neurons, two in the medulla and one in the pons. It is responsible for generating and maintaining the rhythm of respiration. Hence Respiratory rhythm center is present in Medulla and Pons. 12. Pneumotaxic centre is found in : (a) Pons (b) Cerebrum (c) Hypothalamus (d) Diencephalon RPSC School Lecturer 2011 Ans. (a) : Pneumotaxic centre is found in the pons. It provides inhibitory impulses on inspiration and prevents over distension of the lungs and helps to maintain alternately recurrent inspiration and expiration.

13.

The RQ of oxalic acid is (a) 0.8 (b) 1.0 (c) 4.0 (d) 0.7 RPSC School Lecturer 2011 Ans. (c) : The respiratory quotient is defined as the ratio of the volume of carbon di-oxide evolved to that of oxygen consumed by an organism, tissue, or cell in a given time. Reaction of oxidation of oxalic acid is as follows 2C2H2O4 + O2  → 4 CO2 + 2 H2O R.Q = CO2/O2 = 4/1 = 4 So, the correct answer is option (3).

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Pettenkofer's apparatus is used to determine the rate of : (a) Transpiration (b) Photosynthesis (c) Respiration (d) Photo-respiration UP PGT 2016 Ans. (c) The Pettenkofer instrument is used to determine the rate of respiration. The Pettenkofer apparatus can be used to compare the rate of respiration of various whole plants or to investigate change in respiratory rate during plant growth or senescence for instance, during germination. The apparatus can also be used to measure the effect of various factors, such as temperature or oxygen availability, on the rate of the process. 15. The ventilation movement of the lungs in mammals are governed by (a) diaphragm (b) costal muscles (c) muscular walls of lungs (d) both (a) and (b) Bihar PGT 2019 Ans. (d) : In mammals, Ventilation of the lung is controlled by diaphragm and costal Muscle. The relaxation and contraction of the diaphragm and the movement of the costal muscles present in the thorax of an individual are responsible for the ventilation movements of the lungs that facilitate respiration. 16. During exercise panting is due to : (a) fatigue (b) shivering (c) oxygen debt (d) muscular atrophy UPPCS Pre 2006 Ans. (c) : Due to the exercise man pant because O2 lost during exercise, sufficient oxygen not supplied to man by R.B.C. at the time of exercise, so man starts panting and during exercise pyruvic acid convert into the lactic acid. Fatigue – Lactic acid formed in the muscles generate pain in muscles. Shivering - Due to less Oxygen supply to muscles, contraction start in the muscles. Muscular Atrophy – Oxygen supply to muscles stops. Therefore muscle undergoes death. 17. Haemocyanin is a respiratory pigment which contains: (a) Iron (b) Copper (c) Magnesium (d) Manganese UPPCS Pre 2006 Ans. (b) : Haemocyanin is a respiratory pigment which contain copper. Copper colour is blue that's why haemocyanin provide colours that is blue due to the presence of copper. Hemoglobin – It contain iron. Magnesium – It is present in chlorophyll. Manganese– It is not present in respiratory pigment. 18. What is the net gain of ATP molecules when one molecules of glucose is broken down into two molecules of pyruvic acid during glycolysis with in a cell : (a) two (b) four (c) thirty-eight (d) forty UPPCS Pre 1994 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (a) : Cellular respiration uses energy in glucose to make ATP. Aerobic ("oxygen-using") respiration occurs in three stages : glycolysis, the Krebs cycle, and electron transport. In glycolysis, glucose is split into two molecules of pyruvate. This results in a net gain of two ATP molecules. 19. Embden-Meyerhof pathway represents : (a) Stepwise degradation of glucose into pyruvic acid (b) Formation of glucose from non-carbohydrate (c) Conversion of acetaldehyde to ethyl alcohol (d) Beta oxidation UPPCS Pre 1994 TGT Biology 2010 Ans. (a) : Glycolysis is the metabolic pathway that converts glucose (C6H12O6), into pyruvate. The most common type of glycolysis is the Embden Meyerhof ‒ Pathway (EMP pathway). 20. The process by which ATP molecules are formed from ADP is called : (a) Fermentation (b) Transmethylation (c) Phosphorylation (d) Hydrogenation UPPCS Pre 1994 Ans. (c) : The conversion of ADP to ATP in the inner membranes of mitochondria is technically known as chemiosmotic phosphorylation. * In hydrogenation H+ ion is formed. * The fermentation takes place in anaerobic condition. 21. During body activity or exercise the burning of glucose or the expenditure of energy increases excessively due to the following: (a) Fatigue (b) Shivering (c) Oxygen debt (d) Muscular atrophy UPPCS Pre 2004 UPPCS Pre 2008 PGT Biology 2009 Ans. (c) : During physical activity or exercise, the expenditure of glucose or energy increases greatly, this action occurs during oxygen intake. Occurs when the body reaches a state of anaerobic respiration during intense exercise. 22. The intermediate compound, that connects glycolysis to Krebs' cycle is : (a) Oxalic acid (b) Citric acid (c) Pyruvic acid (d) Acetyl Co-A Bihar PGT 2019 Ans. (d) : The intermediate compound, that connects glycolysis to Kreb's cycle is Acetyl-CoA. • Glycolysis is an anaerobic process, which occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell. In glycolysis, Partial oxidation of glucose occurs, which yields two molecules of pyruvic acid. • Kreb's cycle is an aerobic process that takes place in the mitochondria of the cell. It gives carbon dioxide after complete oxidation of pyruvic acid formed during glycolysis. • Acetyl - CoA delivers the acetyl group to the Kreb's cycle to be oxidized for energy production.

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26.

The end product of glycolysis is– (a) Citric Acid (b) Fructose (c) Pyruvic Acid (d) Amino Acid TGT Biology 2002 Ans. (c) : See the explanation of the above question. 27. The end product of Glycolysis is : (a) Ethyl alcohol (b) Pyruvic acid 23. Which of the following processes makes direct (c) Glucose (d) CO2 use of oxygen : GIC Biology 15.09.2015 (a) Glycolysis Ans. (b) : See the explanation of the above question. (b) Fermentation 28. What is the end product of glycolysis ? (c) Kreb's Citric acid Cycle (a) Pyruvic acid (b) Acetyl coenzyme-A (d) Electron Transport chain (c) Lactic acid (d) Citric acid UPPCS Pre 2003 TGT Biology 2013 Ans. (d) : The electron transport chain (ETC) also known GIC Biology 15/09/2015 as a respiratory chain is the final pathway in aerobic cells by which the electrons are transferred to oxygen. Ans. (a) : See the explanation of the above question. ETC contains a series of oxidation, reduction enzyme, 29. Metabolic-water is a by product of the process Co-enzymes and electron carrier cytochromes. of: The ETC chain is present in inner membrane of (a) digestion (b) excretion mitochondria. (c) muscle activity (d) tissue respiration UPPCS Pre 1997 Ans. (d) : Metabolic water is a by product of the process of tissue respiration. In the presence of O2, glucose hydrolyzed and form energy and two by product, CO2 and H2O. Respiration 24. The cellular mechanism which makes direct use shows by equation as given belowC6 H12 O6 + 6O 2 → 6CO 2 + 6H 2 O + 673Kcal. of oxygen in the energy production is : Energy Oxygen Carbondioxide Water Glucose (a) glycolysis (b) fermentation 30. Metabolic water is a by-product of the process of (c) Krebs cycle (a) Digestion (b) Excretion (d) electron transport chain (c) Muscle activity (d) Tissue respiration UPPCS Pre 1999 TGT Biology 2010 Ans. (d) : See the explanation in above question. UPPCS Pre 1998 25. End product of glycolysis is : PGT BIO 2003 (a) acetic acid (b) pyruvic acid Ans. (d) : Metabolic water is a by product of tissue (c) fumaric acid (d) lactic acid respiration, the biochemical process related to the UPPCS Pre 2003 oxidation and release of glucose etc. With the help of Ans. (b) : Glycolysis is the process in which oxygen in the cell for the production of energy is called oxidation of one molecule of glucose take place and Cellular respiration. It is a complex biochemical as the end product, 2 molecules of pyruvic acid are processes c onsisting of two major step (a) formed. Glycolysis means break down of Glucose and glycolysis (b) the krebs cycle or the citric cycle. conversion into pyruvic acid. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Most of the CO2 in blood is carried as : 34. Breathing is controlled by : (a) biocarbonate (a) lungs (b) trachea (b) sodium bicarbonate (c) medulla oblongata (d) ribs (c) carbonic acid UPPCS Pre 2004 (d) carbamino-haemoglobin Ans. (c) : Breathing is controlled by medulla UPPCS Pre 2004 oblongata. It is part of hind brain connected by pons Ans. (a) : Most of the CO2 in blood is carried in the to the midbrain and is continuous posteriorly with form of bicarbonate (70%) and only about 23% of spinal cord. Lungs, ribs and trachea involved in CO2 is transported as carbaminohaemoglobin, 5% of respiratory organs and helps in breathing for the total carbon dioxide production is carried as exhalation and inhalation. carbonic acid. 35. ATP is : 32. Most of the CO2 in blood is carried as : (a) an enzyme which brings about oxidation (a) Bicarbonate (b) a hormone (b) Sodium bicarbonate (c) a molecule with high energy phosphate bond (c) Carbonic-acid (d) a protein (d) Carbamino-haemoglobin UPPCS Pre 2004 UPPCS Pre 2004 Ans. (c) : ATP is a molecule with high energy PGT Biology 2009 phosphate bond. ATP is hydrolyzed to ADP and Ans. (a) : Most of the CO2 in the blood is carried in the inorganic phosphate (P ). The full form of ATP is i form of bicarbonate. Most of the CO2 is released during Adenosine Triphosphate. cellular respiration and is carried by the blood as bicarbonate from one place to another. 33. During which of the following reactions ATP is consumed? (a) Glucose → Glucose 6 Phosphate (b) Citric acid → Isocitric acid (c) Pyruvic acid → Acetyl Co ‒ A (d) Isocitric acid → Cis aconitic acid 36. Cytochrome oxidases are found : UPPCS Pre 2004 (a) On cristae of mitochondria Ans. (a) : In a Glycolysis, Glucose oxidized into (b) On outer wall of mitochondria glucose - 6 phosphate, one molecule of ATP (c) in the matrix of mitochondria consumed, then ATP changed into ADP. Glucose (d) in the Iysosomes ultimately breaks down into pyruvate and energy; a UPPCS Pre 1996 total of 2 ATP is derived in the process (Glucose + Ans. (a) : Cytochrome oxidase and cytochrome 2NAD + 2ADP + 2Pi → 2 pyruvate + 2NADH + 2H reductase found in cristae of mitochondria. + 2ATP + 2H2O). This process is called The cristae is the fold of inner mitochondrial phosphorylation. The specific form of glucose used in membrane. The inner membrane has fewer glycolysis is glucose 6-phosphate. phospholipids and cholesterol as compared to the outer membrane. The phospholipid in the inner membrane is mainly phosphatidylglycerol and the inner membrane has more proteinaceous substances. 37. In animal cell energy-rich substance is produced in: (a) Nucleus (b) Ribosome (c) Mitochondria (d) Cell membrane UPPCS Pre 1996 Ans. (c) : In animal, all energy-rich substance (A.T.P.) is produced in inner membrane of mitochondria during cellular respiration. Hence mitochondria is called the power house of cells. Glycolysis, krebs cycle and Electron transport system are involved in cellular respiration.

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Pyruvic acid before combining with oxaloacetic Ans. (a) : Glycolysis is also known as EMP pathway acid of citric acid cycle becomes : after the names of three German scientists, i.e. (a) Lactic acid (b) Aceto-acetic acid Embden, Meyerhof and Parnas who discovered (c) Cis-acotinic acid (d) Acetyl Co-A different reaction of glycolysis. UPPCS Pre 1995 Two molecules of NADH2 compound is formed at the 5th step in presence of Triose phosphate Ans. (d) : Pyruvic acid (C3H4O3) is last product of dehydrogenase. glycolysis. Pyruvic acid before combining with Net gain of ATP is 2 molecule at the end of Oxaloacetic acid (OAA) in Tricarboxylic acid (TCA) glycolysis. cycle called acetyl Co-A. OAA acid combined with acetyl Co-A form citric acid in presence of citrate 43. Which one of the following pair is correctly Synthetase. matched : (a) Glucagon - hypoglycemia (b) Glycolysis -Pyruvic acid (c) Insulin -Hyperglycemia (d) Parathormone - Bone formation UPPCS Pre 1999 Ans. (b) : Glycolysis is an anaerobic cellular respiration. One molecule of glucose changed into 2 molecules of pyruvic acid in glycolysis. Pyruvic acid is the end product of glycolysis. 39. Schneiderian epithelium is found in : (a) Trachea (b) Nasal passage (c) Bowman's capsule (d) Henle loop UPPCS Pre 1995 Ans. (b) : Schneiderian epithelium found in the nasal passage. The schneiderian membrane is also called the mucosa of the nose. It is the lining of the nasal cavity. It is made up of basal cells, supporting cells and elongated neurosensory cells. It is continuous with the skin in the vestibule of the nose, with the mucosa of the nasopharynx, the paranasal sinuses and the nasolacrimal duct contains globet cells. 40. The total lung capacity is represented by the : 44. Which of the following occurs in mitochondria: (a) Tidal volume + residual volume (a) Glycolysis (b) Vital capacity + residual volume (b) Glycogenolysis (c) Tidal volume + vital capacity (c) Tricarboxylic acid cycle (d) Inspiratory and expiratory reserve volumes (d) Histolysis of tissues UPPCS Pre 2002 UPPCS Pre 1999 Ans. (b) : Total lung capacity Ans. (c) : Cellular respiration is divided into two part– ⇒ Vital capacity + residual volume 1. Glycolysis, 2. Tricarboxylic acid cycle ⇒ 4800ml+1200ml = 6000ml = 6 litre Glycolysis occur in cell cytoplasm in the absence of 41. In a new born baby breathing is wholly carried O2. Tricarboxylic acid cycle called TCA cycle or out by : krebs cycle occur in mitochondria. (a) Contraction of intercostal muscles 45. Which of the following condition will shift the (b) Contraction and relaxation of diaphragm and oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve to the intercostal muscles. right in a bohr effect : (c) Contraction and relaxation of diaphragm (a) high pO2 (b) low pH (d) Contraction and relaxation of intercostal (c) low pO2 (d) low temperature muscles UPPCS Pre 1998 UPPCS Pre 2002 Ans. (b) : Oxygen dissociation curve is sigmoid. Ans. (b) : In a new born baby breathing is carried out When temperature rise, pH low or High CO2 than by contraction and relaxation of diaphragm and oxygen haemoglobin dissociation curve shift to the intercostal muscles. During breathing, the action and right side. At the high pH or low CO2, oxygen relaxation of muscles acts to change the volume of the haemoglobin dissociate curve shift to the left side. thoracic cavity. 46. At high CO2 tension, oxyhaemoglobin 42. Through EMP pathway, in addition to two ATP dissociation curve : molecules, two molecules of one more compound (a) shifts to left side only is formed. This compound is : (b) shifts to any side (a) NADH2 (b) NADPH2 (c) shifts to right side only (c) ADP (d) CO2 (d) does not shift UPPCS Pre 2009 UPPCS Pre 2002 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (c) : In the high CO2 stress phase, the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve shift to the right, while in the low CO2 stress phase it shifts to the left.

47.

How many molecules of O2 can bind to four molecules of myoglobin ? 50. How many ATP can be formed from one acetyl (a) Four (b) Eight co-A in Kreb's cycle? (c) Sixteen (d) Zero (a) 15 (b) 36 UPPCS Pre 2009 (c) 12 (d) None of these Ans. (a) : Four molecule of myoglobin are bind to four TGT Biology 2011 molecule of oxygen (O2). Where as four molecule of Ans. (c) : In the krebs cycle a total of 12 ATP are heamoglobin. Oxygen (O2) is bind to 16 molecule. Thus formed from one acetyl Co-A. one molecule of myoglobin bind to O2 and one 38 ATP formed from the oxidation of one molecule of glucose in the cell or 36 ATP are formed by incomplete molecule of heamoglobin bind four molecules. oxidation of one molecule of glucose, releases 28 kcal 48. Final acceptor of electrons in aerobic of energy. respiration In glycolysis 2NADPH2 is formed (a) Water (b) Molecular O2 A total of 8 ATP are produced in the process of (c) Cytochrome a3 (d) FMN glycolysis. The basic advantage of 4-2=2 molecule in TGT Biology 2011 the complete glycolysis reaction. Ans. (b) : The final acceptor of electrons in aerobic respiration is molecular O2. In aerobic respiration, the final electron acceptor at the end of electron transport system (ETS) is an oxygen molecule that becomes reduced to water (H2O) by the final ETS carrier. The electrons move through a series of electron donors and carriers that lead to the formation of a potential gradient. This gradient helps in ATP synthesis. 49. Main method of fatty acid oxidation in a cell is (a) Calvin cycle (b) PPP (c) β- oxidation (d) EMP TGT Biology 2011 Ans. (c) : Fatty acid oxidation is the mitochondrial aerobic process of breaking down a fatty acid into acetyl-CoA units. Fatty acids move in this pathway as 51. Which of the following occurs in mitochondria? (a) Glycolysis CoA derivatives utilizing NAD and FAD. (b) Glycogenolysis Fatty acids are activated before oxidation, utilizing (c) Tricarboxylic acid cycle ATP in the presence of CoA-SH and acyl-CoA (d) Histolysis of tissues synthetase. TGT Biology 2010 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (c) : The TCA cycle or tricarboxylic acid cycle occurs inside the Mitochondria. Krebs Cycle – This process was invented in 1937 AD. It was invented by the British Scientist Hans Krebs. All its reaction take place in the Mitochondria of eukaryotic organisms and on the cell membrane of prokaryotic organisms. In this, both the molecules of Pyruvic acid obtained from glycolysis are completely oxidized in the presence of oxygen. 52. The source of oxygen in glucose formed in photosynthesis is : (a) Water (b) Water and carbon dioxide (c) Air (d) Carbon dioxide GIC Biology 14.06.2015 Ans. (d) : Photosynthesis is an oxidation reduction process in which water is oxidized to form oxygen (O2) and carbon dioxide (CO2) is reduced to form sugar (glucose). The oxygen in glucose comes from carbon dioxidelight 6CO 2 + 12H 2 O  → C6 H12 O 6 + 6H 2 O + 6O 2 ↑ Chlorophyll, Enzymes

53.

Number of oxygen required during glycolysis of one glucose molecule is : (a) zero (b) one (c) six (d) four TGT Biology 2010 Ans. (a) : Glycolysis of one molecule of glucose does not require oxygen. This action is anaerobic. The first stage of cellular respiration in which pyruvic acids formed from glucose is called glycolysis. The glycolysis stage of respiration is the common state of both oxy and anoxy, that is pyruvic acid is formed from glucose in both oxy and anoxy respiration. and it doesn't require oxygen for glucose. 54. The amount of energy given by one molecule of ATP is : (a) 7.3 K cal (b) 7600 K cal (c) 721 K cal (d) 1000 K cal Delhi SSB PGT Biology 2015 Ans. (a) : Three molecules of ATP are synthesized from NADH2 molecules. It takes 7.3 kcal of energy to make each ATP molecule. In all living cells, energy is temporarily packaged within a remarkable chemical compound called adenosine triphosphate (ATP), which holds readily available energy for very short periods. ATP hydrolysis produces about 28 to 37 kJ/mol or 6.8 to 8.7 kcal/mol. 55. Which is common between aerobic respiration and anaerobic respiration ? (a) Similar substrate (b) Glycolysis (c) Pyruvic acid (d) All of these TGT Biology 2009 Ans. (b) : Glycolysis is common pathway because it is common step between aerobic and anaerobic respiration. In anaerobic organisms, only process in respiration, glycolysis occurs in cytoplasm of cell and present in all living organism, while most aerobic respiration (with oxygen) takes place in the cells mitochondria. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Doesn't need oxygen Happens in the cytoplasm

Also known as fermentation 2 ATP for every glucose molecule Lactic acid is produced

Needs oxygen Happens in the cytoplasm and mitochondrioa 38 molecules of ATP

Occurs in plant and animal cells CO2 and water produced 56. The other name of glycolysis is : (a) Carbon cycle (b) TCA pathway (c) EMP pathway (d) HMS pathway TGT Biology 2005 Ans. (c) : Another name of glycolysis is E.M.P. Pathway. Glycolysis was discovered by three german scientist, Embden, Meyerhof and Parnas, so it was named after EMP pathway, the entire process of glycolysis take place in the cytoplasm of the molecular cell. glycolysis produce 2 molecules of pyruvic acid from one molecule of glucose. 57. Number of NADH2 produced in kreb's cycle : (a) 2 (b) 6 (c) 4 (d) 8 Delhi SSB PGT Biology 2015 Ans. (c) : The krebs cycle was discovered by Kreb's in 1937. This action take place in the Matrix of Mitochondria. In this process a total of 4 molecules of NADH2 are produced from each NADH molecule, two electron' and two hydrogen atom are removed and 3ATP molecule are synthesized in order to reach oxygen. 58. The percentage of alveolar air exchange with each breath is : (a) 5 percent (b) 10 percent (c) 10 percent (d) 95 percent Delhi SSB PGT Biology 2015 Ans. (a) : The air cell exchange with each breath is 5% of the air. At the end of each expiration about 20002500 ml of air remain in the lung. with each cycle of breathing, about 15 percent of alveolar air is renewed, thus maintaining the necessary gas gradient between alveolar air and the blood. 59. What is C2 cycle ? (a) Glycolate cycle (b) Calvin cycle (c) Krebs cycle (d) TCA cycle TGT Biology 2005

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (a) : The C2 Cycle is also called the glycolate cycle. Photorespiration take place in choloroplasts, but completed in oxysomes and mitochondria. Glycolic acid acts as a base in all three, it is a 2C compound so this cycle is also called C2 Cycle or oxidative photosynthetic carbon cycle.

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The capacity of lungs for air in a healthy man is about : (a) 500 ml (b) 1,000 ml (c) 1,500 ml (d) 3,000 ml TGT Biology 2005 Ans. (d) : The capacity of the lung for air in a healthy person is about 3000 ml. Note-The average total lung capacity of an adult healthy man is about 6000 ml (6l), but it is not in option. 61. Asthma, is a respiratory disease, is caused due to: (a) Infection of trachea (b) Infection of lungs (c) Bleeding into pleural cavity (d) Spasm in bronchial muscles TGT Biology 2005 Ans. (d) : Asthma is a respiratory disease caused by spasm in the bronchial muscles. The attack of asthma Usually start at night. Asthma is a long term disease of the lungs. It cause your airways to inflamed and narrow and it makes it hard to breathe. The peculiar symptoms of the disease are coughing, chest tightness and shortness of breath.

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Pyruvic acid before combining with oxaloacetic acid of Krebs cycle produces : (a) Lactic acid (b) Acetoacetic acid (c) Cis-aconitic acid (d) Acetyl CoA TGT Biology 2003 Ans. (d) : Pyruvic acid forms acetyl Co-A before the addition of oxalo acetic acid in the kreb's cycle. Acetyl CoA combines with oxaloacetic acid to form acetic acid. Citric acid is gradually decomposed through a series of reaction in the krebs cycle. Many intermediate acid are formed as a result of these reaction, such as oxalosuccinic acid, alpha-keto glutaric acid; succinic acid, fumaric acid and malic acid. During these change, CO2 molecules and 8 hydrogen atom are liberated ultimately the conversion of malic acid into oxaloglyceric acid take place. It again combines with another pyruvic acid molecule and reenters the krebs cycle. 63. O2-content in the air we expire is : (a) 16% (b) 18% (c) 20% (d) 25% TGT Biology 2002 Ans. (a) : The amount of (O2) in the air of our exhalation is 16%. This expired air typically composed of 78.04% nitrogen, near about 13.6-16% oxygen, 45% carbon dioxide and 1% other gases. In inhalation, filling of air into lungs is called inspiration and exhalation of air from the lungs is called expiration. 64. Link reaction in respiration involves : (a) formation of Pyruvic acid (b) formation of Acetyl Co A (c) formation of Succinic acid (d) formation of isocitric acid PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (b) : Acetyl coenzyme-A is formed in the link reaction of respiration. * One molecule of CO2 and two hydrogen atom are released from pyruvic acid before entering the krebs cycle. The remaining molecule combines with coenzyme A to form acetyl coenzyme A. * Acetyl coenzyme-A now reacts with oxaloacetic acid and water present in the cell to form citric acid. 65. The function of KOH contained in the U-tube in demonstration of aerobic respiration is : (a) to absorb CO2 from the incoming air (b) to absorb oxygen (c) to absorb moisture (d) to clean the air from dust particles PGT Biology 2009

Ans. (a) : The function of KOH place in the U tube to perform the action of oxygen is to absorb CO2 from the incoming air. When KOH absorbs CO2, it creates a vacuum in the flask. The air present in the bent glass tube moves into the conical flask. They pulls the water in the bent tube further up. 66. The irregularity of Respiration is : (a) Dyspnea (b) Hyperpnea (c) Eupnea (d) Apnea PGT Biology 2009

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Irregularity of respiration , pain during exhalation Hyperpnea Breathing at a higher rate than normal Eupnea Normal breathings Apnea There are no breathing. 67. The number of water molecules evolved in one krebs cycle through electron transport chain is: (a) Four (b) Three (c) One (d) Two PGT Biology 2004 Ans. (c) When citric acid converts into cis aconitic acid Krebs cycle complete in mitochondria FADH ⇌ PAD + 2 H + + 2C 2 1 O2 + 2n + + 2C → H 2 O 2 The end of the electron transport system one molecule of 1 water is liberated by taking up H+ and electron by O 2 . 2 68. In man, expired air contains oxygen about : (a) 4% (b) 10% (c) 20% (d) 16% PGT Biology 2004 Ans. (d) : Inhaled air contains more oxygen used to create energy and less CO2. It contains 21% O2, 0.04% CO2 and 79% Nitrogen. Exhaled air contains 16% O2, 4% CO2 and 79% Nitrogen. 69. Which one of the following is the connecting link between glycolysis and krebs cycle ? (a) Pyruvic acid (b) Isocitric acid (c) Acetyl Co-A (d) Phosphoglyceric acid PGT Biology 2004 Ans. (c) : Before entering the kreb cycle, one molecule of CO2 and two hydrogen atom are released from pyruvic acid. The remaining molecule combines with coenzyme-A to form acetyl coenzyme which is the link between glycolysis and the krebs cycle. Pyruvate + NAD+ + Co-A → POH – Acetyl-Co-A + NADH + CO2

Ans. (c) : This reaction was discovered by Hans Krebs in 1937. As a result of a series of different reaction in the process the complete oxidation of acetyl coenzyme A occurs in one cycle, this complete action take place in the matrix of mitochondria, krebs cycle are present in the matrix of mitchondria.

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In Krebs cycle, a 6-carbon compound is formed by the combination of acetyl co A and (a) Succinic Acid (b) Oxaloacetic Acid (c) Citric Acid (d) Malic Acid Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2013 Ans. (b) : In the krebs cycle, acetyl co-enzyme A combines with a 4-carbon compound oxaloacetic acid to form a 6-carbon compound acid. Krebs cycle is the second stage of aerobic respiration. It occurs in the mitochondria of the cell. Pyruvic acid is completely oxidised to carbon dioxide and water and large amount of energy is released, this process is completed in several stages. The cycle was first studied by Hans krebs and after him, this process is called krebs cycle. 72. Which one of the following molecules, connects glycolysis and Kreb's cycle? (a) Acetyl CoA (b) Citric acid (c) Oxalo acetic acid (d) Pyruvic acid Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2013 Ans. (a) : Acetyl co-A is considered to be the link between glycolysis and krebs cycle. This serve to connect the both. It is produced from pyruvic acid (which is the end product of glycolysis) by an enzyme called pyruvic dehydrogenase. In this process 1 mole of Pyruvic acid gains 3 ATP.

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How many molecules of CO2 are produced in TCA cycle from one molecule of glucose ? (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 6 GIC Biology 15.09.2015 Ans. (d) : One molecule of glucose is made up of a 6 molecule CO2 in the TCA cycle. CO2 has 15 molecule of 5 molecule of water and 5 molecule of ATP from full 70. The site of Kreb cycle in the cell is : oxidation of a molecule of pyruvic acid in kreb's cycle. (a) Cytoplasm (b) Chloroplast Since there are two molecule of pyruvic acid from a (c) Mitochondria (d) Endoplasmic reticulam glucose therefore, with full oxidation of glucose, CO2, Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2015 6H2O, 10 and 30 molecule of ATP are formed. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below. List–I List–II A. Neutrophils 1. Production of antibody B. Eosinophils 2. Kidney shaped Nucleus C. Monocytes 3. Diapedesis D. Lymphocytes 4. Number increase in allergy Codes : A B C D (a) 1 4 2 3 (b) 4 2 3 1 (c) 3 2 1 4 (d) 3 4 2 1 UP PGT 17/08/2021 UPPSC Ashram Paddhati 29/09/2021 Ans. (d) : Correct match – List-I List-II (A) Neutrophils Diapedesis (B) Eosinophils Number increase in allergy (C) Monocytes Kidney-shaped nucleus (D) LymphocytesProduction of antibody

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Heart beat is under the control of the following (a) Nerves (b) Hormones (c) Enzymes (d) Both nerves and hormones UPPSC Ashram Paddhati 29/09/2021 Ans. (d) : Heart beat is under the control of both nerves and hormones. Heart rate is controlled by the two branches of the autonomic (involuntary) nervous system, the sympathetic nervous system and the parasympathetic nervous system. The sympathetic nervous system releases the hormones, epinephrine and norepinephrine to accelerate the heart rate. The parasympathetic nervous system releases the hormone acetylcholine to slow the heart rate.

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Electroneutrality of blood is maintained by the (a) Hamburger's phenomenon (b) Hering-Breuer's reflex (c) Haldane effect (d) Pneumotaxic centre TGT (2016) 31/07/2021 Ans. (a) : Electroneutrality of blood is maintained by the Hamburger's phenomenon. Chloride shift is also known as the Hamburger Phenomenon. This is a process which occurs in a cardiovascular system and refers to the exchange of bicarbonate and chloride across the membrane of red blood cells. The phenomenon of chloride ion diffusing into the erythrocytes to maintain the ionic balance is called as chloride shift or Hamburger's Phenomenon.

4.

Hamburger's phenomenon is also called (a) Bicarbonate Shift (b) Chloride Shift (c) Hydrogen shift (d) Sodium shift PGT Biology 2009 Ans. (b) : The Humburger process is called chloride shift. The exchange of Chloride and bicarbonate between plasma and erythrocytes is called chloride shift. This process takes place when oxygen is released from the blood and carbon dioxide is received. This method help in establishing an equilibrium between the cell and the fluid found around it. 5. Chloride ion content is higher in : (a) Arterial RBC (b) Venous RBC (c) Equal RBC (d) RBC of all veins and one artery PGT Biology 2005 Ans. (d) : Chloride ion (Cl–) in deoxygenated blood move from plasma to RBCs during CO2 transport. This phenomenon is called chloride shift or Hamburger phenomenon. Due to this reason, the amount of chloride in the RBCs containing oxygen free blood is more than the RBCs of arterial blood. There would be deoxygenated blood in all the veins and one artery, i.e., pulmonary artery, therefore, the amount of chloride ion is more here.

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10.

'Hamburger shift' is also called : (a) HCO 3– shift (b) Chloride shift (c) Hydrogen shift

(d) None of the above UK SSSC L.T. (21/01/2018) Ans. (b) : 'Hamburger shift' is also called chloride shift. It describes the movement of chloride into RBCs which occurs when the buffer effects of deoxygenated haemoglobin increase the intracellular bicarbonate concentration, and the bicarbonate is exported from the RBC in exchange for chloride. Loss of bicarbonate ions from RBC causes positive charge inside RBC which is balanced by diffusion of chloride (Cl–) ion from plasma into the RBC. This phenomenon of chloride shift maintain the electrical neutrality of cell. It is named after Dutch physiologist, Hartog Jacob Hamburger. 7. If human blood mixed with an anticoagulant is centrifuged, which of the following will settle first at the bottom of the centrifuge tube? (a) Erythrocytes (b) Leucocytes (c) Platelets (d) Plasma TGT (2016) 31/07/2021 Ans. (a) : If human blood mixed with an anticoagulant is centrifuged, erythrocytes will settle first at the bottom of the centrifuge tube. A dose of whole donor blood is placed in a large centrifuge and is spun for a preset time (usually about 15 minutes) at a preset speed. The red blood cells precipitate to the bottom of the bag, with the platelets above them, then the white blood cells and the plasma at the very top. 8. If human blood mixed with an anticoagulant is centrifuged, its various components (starting from the bottom of the centrifuge tube) will separate in which of the following sequences? (a) Red cells → white cells → platelets → plasma. (b) Plasma → red cells → platelets → white cells. (c) Platelets → plasma → white cells → red cells (d) White cells → red cells → platelets → plasma. GIC Biology 14.06.2015 Ans. (a) : Red cells → White cells → Platelets → Plasma, will be the sequence when human blood is mixed with an anticoagulant is centrifuged. 9. Oxygen dissociation curve of Haemoglobin is (a) Hyperbolic (b) Hypobolic (c) Sigmoid (d) Linear Navoday Vidyalay PGT Biology 2014 Ans: (c) The percentage of hemoglobin that has taken up oxygen is called its percentage saturation. It depends on the partial presure of oxygen in the blood i.e. PO2. This relationship between the partial pressure of oxygen (PO2) and the percentage saturation of hemoglobin is graphically depicted by a curve called the oxygen hemoglobin dissociation curve. It is always of the shape of sigmoid i.e. S- shaped. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Dissociation curve of Hemoglobin is (a) Hyperbolic (b) Straight line (c) Parabolic (d) Sigmoid TGT (2016) 31/07/2021 Ans. (d) : Dissociation curve of Hemoglobin is sigmoid shape. • In the dissociation curve, the partial pressure of oxygen is taken on the X-axis and the oxygen saturation is taken on the Y-axis. It helps us in understanding how our blood carries and releases oxygen. It determines the oxygen affinity of haemoglobin. • The standard dissociation curve is sigmoid shape or Sshaped. This is due to the haemoglobin. The haemoglobin travels from the lungs to the tissue due to which the partial pressure becomes high. • The surrounding pH value decreases and the amount of CO2 that it reacts with increases. As the first oxygen molecule binds with the haemoglobin, the affinity for the second molecule increases as a result of which more oxygen binds with the haemoglobin. 11. Which one of the following is NOT correctly matched ? Character Class (a) 2-Chambered Heart - Aves (b) 3-Chambered Heart - Amphibia (c) 3-Chambered Heart - Reptilia (d) 4-Chambered Heart - Mammalia UPPSC Ashram Paddhati 29/09/2021 Ans. (a) : Incorrect match is : 2-chambered heart- Aves. • Aves and Mammals, have a 4-chambered heart (2 atria and 2 ventricles), with complete separation of oxygenated and de-oxygenated blood. • Amphibians and most reptiles have a heart with 3 chambers (2 atria and 1 ventricle). • Fish have 2-chambered heart (1 atrium and 1 ventricle). 12. Purkinje fibers are found in (a) Lungs (b) Brain (c) Heart (d) Liver TGT (2016) 31/07/2021 Ans. (c) : Purkinje fibres conduct impulse from the AV node to the ventricles. They are situated on the lateral ventricular walls. Purkinje fibers allow the heart's conduction system to create synchronized contractions of its ventricles and are, therefore, essential for maintaining a consistent heart rhythm.

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Which of the following immunoglobulin molecules is largest ? (a) lgA (b) lgD (c) lgM (d) lgE UP PGT 17/08/2021 Ans. (c) : IgM is largest immunoglobulin. Immunoglobulin M (IgM) is one of several isotypes of antibody that are produced by vertebrates. It is a pentamer which has 10 antigen binding sites, therefore it is more efficient and gives strong immune response. IgM is the first antibody to be synthesized in response to an antigen, accounting for 5% of all immunoglobulins present in the blood. 14. Renal portal system is absent in(a) Amphibians (b) Reptiles (c) Birds (d) Mammals GIC 19/09/2021 Ans. (d) : Renal portal system is absent in mammals. It is a second route by which blood moves from the back half of the body through the kidneys before returning to the heart. This system is found in birds, amphibians, reptiles and fish. In mammals, the heart is four-chambered and hence there is a total separation of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood. So mammal do not require renal portal system. 15. The normal pH of arterial blood is : (a) 6.8 (b) 7.8 (c) 7.0 (d) 7.4 GIC 19/09/2021 Ans. (d) : The normal pH of arterial blood is 7.4. The pH measure hydrogen ions (H+) in blood. A pH of less than 7.0 is called acid and a pH greater than 7.0 is called basic (alkaline). So, blood is slightly basic. Generally the pH of blood in the arteries is in the range of about 7.35 and 7.44 for the body's metabolic processes and other systems to work well. Bicarbonate (HCO3) is a chemical buffer that keeps the pH of blood from becoming too acidic or too basic. 16. pH of blood plasma is : (a) Slightly acidic (b) Strongly acidic (c) Slightly alkaline (d) Neutral RPSC School Lecturer (23/07/2016) Ans. (c) : The first is red blood cell i.e. red blood corpuscle. ♦ The second is white blood cell i.e. white blood corpuscle. ♦ The third is platelets and the fourth is plasma. ♦ Human blood plasma has a pH range of 7.35 - 7.45 which makes blood slightly basic or alkaline. ♦ About 55 percent of the total blood of the body is plasma ♦ This plasma also contains about 92 percent water. 17. The normal systolic blood pressure of a healthy adult human being is : (a) 120-140 mm Hg (b) 90-120 mm Hg (c) 60-80 mm Hg (d) 160-180 mm Hg GIC 19/09/2021 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (b) : The normal systolic blood pressure of a healthy adult human being is 90-120 mm Hg. ⇒ Systolic blood pressure is the pressure of the blood in the arteries when the heart contracts or beats. A systolic pressure that is above 90 mm Hg and less than 120 mm Hg is considered normal. ⇒ Diastolic blood pressure is the pressure of the blood in the arteries between beats, when the heart relaxes. A diastolic that is between 60-80 mm Hg, is considered normal. [Note :– Commission has given the answer of this question, (a).] 18. In healthy adult man, the smallest type of leucocytes are : (a) Lymphocytes (b) Basophils (c) Monocytes (d) Eosinophils GIC 19/09/2021 Ans. (a) : In healthy adult man, the smallest type of leucocytes are lymphocytes. White blood cells (WBCs) or leukocytes are of two types, granulocytes and agranulocytes. Neutrophils, eosinophils and basophils are different types of granulocytes, while lymphocytes and monocytes are the agranulocytes. Monocytes are the largest leukocytes (15-18 µm in diameter). Lymphocytes form the lymphoid cell line within the bone marrow, and their diameter is 6.15 µm. 19. Which of the following cells secrete antibodies? (a) All leucocytes (b) All lymphocytes (c) B-lymphocytes (d) T-lymphocytes RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) Ans. (c) : B-lymphocytes secrete antibodies. Lymphocytes are white blood cells and one of the main types of immune cells. They are made in the bone marrow and found in the blood and lymph tissue. There are two main types of lymphocytes, B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes. The B-cells produce antibodies that are used to attack invading bacteria, viruses, and toxins. Tcells are direct fighters of foreign invaders. 20. Member of which class possess the ' Bundle of His' in the heart (a) Reptilia (b) Mammals (c) Amphibia (d) None of these UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (b) : 'Bundle of His' is present in the mammalian heart. It is a part of the conductive system of the heart. It is a groups of fibers that carry electrical signals from the AV node to the bundle of His branches into the left and the right bundle branches, which run along the inter ventricular septum. It was named after the Swiss cardiologist Wilhelm His Jr., who discovered them in 1893. Heart conduction system : SA node (Pacemaker) → AV node → Bundle of His → Bundle branches → Purkinje fibers 21. Bundle of His is found in : (a) Kidney (b) Brain (c) Lung (d) Heart Bihar PGT 2019

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (d) : The bundle of His is found in the heart. The vascular fibre going from the AV node to the wall of the ventricles are called Purkinje fibre. From the AV node a dense bundle of these fibre - the atrioventricular bundle or the bundle of his spilt into two clusters at the apex of the interventricular plate. 22. The first heart sound "lub" heard during cardiac cycle through stethoscope is associated with: (a) closure of bicuspid valve only (b) closure of tricuspid valve only (c) closure of bicuspid and tricuspid both the valves (d) closure of semi lunar valves RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) Ans. (c) : The first heart sound 'Lub'', heard during cardiac cycle through stethoscope is associated with closure of bicuspid and tricuspid, both the valves. It is a long, soft and low-pitched sound. Duration of this sound is 0.01 to 0.03 second.

24.

Which of the following is called the 'pace maker of heart' of heart beat ? (a) Atrio- ventricular node(b) Bundle of HIS (c) Sinoatrial node (d) Cardiac ganglion UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (c) : Sinoatrial node (SA node) is called the 'pacemaker' of heartbeat. Pacemaker is the structure of heart from which the impulses for heartbeat are produced. It is formed by the pacemaker cells called P-cells. SAnode is modified cardiac muscle, situated in the superior part of lateral wall of right atrium, just below the opening of superior vena cava. The rate of production of impulse is more in SA node than in other parts of heart. It was Lewis Sir Thomas, who named SA node as pacemaker of heart in 1918.

25.

The pacemaker in mammalian (human) heart is (a) Sympathetic fibres (b) Parasympathetic fibres ⇒ The second heart sound 'Dub' is produced by the (c) A-V Node closure of the semilunar valves. It is a short, sharp and (d) S-A Node high -pitched sound. Duration of this sound is 0.10 to 0.14 second. UK SSSC L.T. (21/01/2018) 23. The hepatic portal vein drains blood from – Ans. (d) : The pacemaker in mammalian (human) heart (a) Heart is SA node. The sinoatrial (SA) node is a small mass of the specialized cells in the top of the right atrium (upper (b) Stomach chamber of the heart). It produces the electrical (c) Kidneys impulses that cause the heart to beat. SA node is known (d) Gastro-intestinal tract as the pacemaker of the heart because the rate at which UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 these cells send out electrical impulses determines the Ans. (d) : The hepatic portal vein drains blood from rate at which the entire heart beats (heart rate). gastro-intestinal tract (GIT). It is a vessel that moves blood from the spleen and GIT to the liver. Generally, 26. Pace-maker is : (a) SA Node (b) AV node the hepatic portal vein is about 8 cm (3 inches) long in adults and is located in the upper right quadrant of the (c) SV node (d) VA node abdomen. The main function of this vein is to transport Bihar PGT 2019 deoxygenated blood to the liver where it gets detoxified Ans. (a) : See the explanation of the above question. and then returns to the heart. 27.

The pace-maker of the human heart is located in the : (a) Right atrium (b) Left atrium (c) Ventricle (d) Vena cava UPPCS Pre 2000

Ans. (a) : See the explanation of the above question. 28.

Which of the following is called the pacemaker of the heart? (a) A.V. Node (b) Bundle of His (c) Purkinje system (d) S.A. Node LT Biology 2015 Ans. (d) : See the explanation of the above question.

29.

The pace-maker in the vertebrate heart is : (a) S.A. node (b) A.V. node (c) Purkinje fibre (d) Bundle of His UPPCS Pre 1996

Ans. (a) : See the explanation of the above question. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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The Pacemaker of heart is (a) Ranvier's node (b) Sino-auricular node (c) Auriculo-ventricular node (d) All of these

PGT Biology 2009 Ans. (b) : See the explanation of the above question. 31. In mammals the sino atrial node which generates the electrical impulse that coordinates heart muscle contraction, is located in the : (a) medulla oblongata (b) posterior venacava (c) right atrium (d) left ventricle UPPCS Pre 1999 Ans. (c) : Sinoatrial (SA) node is located in the right atrial wall below the opening of the superior venacava. Sinoatrial node is called pacemaker. It influence the heart beat. Pacemaker is a bundle of modified cardiac muscles. 32. Tricuspid valve in the heart of eutherians is present between (a) Left auricle and left ventricle (b) Right and left auricle (c) Right auricle and right ventricle (d) Right and left ventricle Navoday Vidyalay PGT Biology 2014 Ans: (c) In the heart of eutherians, the tricuspid valve is found between the right atrium and the right ventricle. The bicuspid valve is found between the left atrium and left ventricle. Semilunar valve is found at the opening of aorta and pulmonary artery. 33. Given : 1. SA node 2. AV node 3. Nodes of Aschoff and Tawara 4. Bundles of His Which component(s), given above, of the special conducting system in the human heart act(s) as pace maker : (a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 1, 2, 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1 only UPPCS Pre 2003 Ans. (d) : SA node (Sino-atrial node) in the human heart act as pacemaker. It is present in the right atrium and initiates the impulse for heart beat. * AV node (atrioventricular node) is also present in right atrium and conducts electrical impulse to the ventricles. * Bundle of his is a part of conductive system of heart. * AV node is also called nodes of Aschoff and Tawara. 34. CD4 - T-cells are called (a) Killer T-cells (b) Histiocytes (c) Helper T-cells (d) Phagosomes UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (c) : CD4-T-cells are called helper T-cells. It is a type of T cell that provides help to other cells in the immune response by recognizing foreign antigens and secreting substances and are key cells of the adaptive immune system that use T cell antigen receptors to recognize peptides that are generated in endosomes or phagosomes and displayed on the host cell surface bound to major histocompatibility complex molecules. 35. Hybridoma is a cell formed by the fusion of : (a) Plasma cell with a plasma cell of another species (b) T cell with a myeloma cell (c) Macrophage with a myeloma cell (d) Plasma cell with a myeloma cell UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (d) : Hybridoma is a cell formed by the fusion of plasma cell with a myeloma cell Hybridoma technology produces hybridomas. The technique involves fusing certain myeloma cells (cancerous B cells) which can multiply indefinitely but cannot produce antibodies with plasma cell (noncancerous B cells) which are short-lived but produce a desired antibody. Hybridomas grow at the rate of myeloma cells but also produce large amount of the desired antibody. 36. Human heart is – (a) Neurogenic (b) Myogenic (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Venous UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (b) : Human heart is Myogenic. In myogenic heart, the muscles present in the heart initiates cardiac movement. The human heart's contraction is activated by a specially modified heart muscle known as sinoatrial node (SA node) that is located in the right atrium. SA node is known as the pacemaker because it initiates a wave of contraction and controls the heart beat. 37. The heart of man is (b) myogenic (a) neurogenic (c) digenic (d) monogenic TGT Biology 2004 Ans. (b) : See the above of explanation. 38. Which pair is not correct? (a) Opening between right atrium and right ventricle - Tricuspid valve (b) Opening between left atrium and left ventricle - Mitral valve (c) Opening between right ventricle and pulmonary artery - Semilunar valve (d) Opening between left ventricle and aorta Bicuspid valve RPSC School Lecturer (23/07/2016) Ans. (d) : (A) The primary function of the heart valves is to ensure the unidirectional flow of blood from the atria to the ventricles or from the ventricles to the aorta or pulmonary trunk. The tricuspid valve is present between the right atrium and the the right ventricle. It prevents the backflow of blood from the right ventricle into right atrium.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf (B) Bicuspid valve (Mitral valve) is present in between the 42. The deficiency of platelets is called : left atrium and left ventricle. It prevents the backflow of (a) Polycythaemia (b) Thrombocytopenia blood from the left ventricle into the left atrium. (c) Thalassemia (d) None of the above (C) The semilunar valves are present between the right UK SSSC L.T. (21/01/2018) ventricle and pulmonary artery and between the left Ans. (b) : The deficiency of platelets is called ventricle and the aorta. Thrombocytopenia. Platelets or thrombocytes, are small, colorless blood cells that forms clots and stop or prevent bleeding. Thrombocytopenia is a condition with low blood platelet count, that might occur as a result of a bone marrow disorder such as leukemia or an immune system problem. Sign and symptoms may include easy or excessive bruising, superficial or prolonged bleeding from cuts, bleeding from gums or nose, blood in urine or stools, heavy menstrual flow, fatigue, and enlarged spleen. Polycythemia is a type of blood cancer which causes bone marrow to make too many red blood cells (RBCs). Thalassemia is a blood disorder in which amount of oxygen carrying protein decreases. 43. The cells secreting histamine – (a) Adipocytes (b) Mast cells (c) Fibrocytes (d) Phagocytes RPSC School Lecturer 2011 Ans. (b) : The cells secreting histamine is mast cells or mastocyte. Histamine is generated in white blood cells (leukocytes). Mast cells are especially numerous at sites of potential injury like the nose, mouth and feet, internal body surfaces and blood vessels. 39. Which of the following sets is correct for the two 44. Which of the following are anticoagulants ? A names of the same structure? Heparin, B - Hirudin, c - Histamine, D (a) atlas/second cervical vertebra Serotonin : (b) bicuspid valve/mitral valve (a) A and C (b) B and D (c) diocoel/fourth ventricle (c) A and B (d) C and D (d) pace maker/bundle of His RPSC School Lecturer 2011 UPPCS Pre 2004 Ans. (c) : Heparin and hirudin are anticoagulants. Ans. (b) : Bicuspid valve also called mitral valve is Anticoagulants or blood thinners is that which stop situated between left auricle and left ventricle. blood clotting or blood thickening. Examples of Bicuspid name it gets because of having two flaps or conditions where anticoagulants may be used- Ischemic cusps. The valve between atria & ventricles is called stroke, Atrial fibrillation, Pulmonary embolism, Deep atrio-ventricular valve. Tricuspid and bicuspid are two vein thrombosis (DVT) etc. AV-valves. 45. One of the following is a diagnostic technique : 40. The other name for mitral valve is : (a) TEM and SEM (b) ELISA (a) tricuspid valve (b) bicuspid valve (c) Both (1) and (2) (d) None (c) semilunar (d) valve RPSC School Lecturer 2011 UPPCS Pre 2009 Ans. (b) : ELISA stands for enzyme-linked Ans. (b) : See the explanation of the above question. immunosorbent assay. It is a commonly used laboratory test to detect antibodies in the blood. 41. Blood is a : It was first described by Eva Engvall and Peter (a) Areolar Tissue Perlmann in 1971. (b) Connective Tissue ELISA test may be used to diagnose HIV, Syphilis, (c) Liquid Connective Tissue rotavirus, pernicious anemia, lyme disease and Zika (d) Reticular connective Tissue virus etc. UK SSSC L.T. (21/01/2018) 46. Which of the following will be the cardiac Ans. (c) : Blood is a liquid connective tissue. As a output (in litre/minute) of a heart that has a connective tissue, it consists of cells and cell fragments stroke volume of 0.07 litre/minute and is beating (Formed elements) suspended in an intercellular matrix at a rate of 90/ minutes? (plasma). Blood is considered as a connective tissue (a) 00.63 (b) 06.30 because it has the same mesodermal origin as the other (c) 63.00 (d) 63. 30 connective tissue types. It connects the body systems together bringing the needed oxygen, nutrients, hormones UPPCS Pre 2000 and other signaling molecules, and removing the waste. UPPCS Pre 2006 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Ans. (b) : Cardiac output = Stroke volume of heart × Breathing rate/minute. = 0.07 × 90 = 6.30 So, the cardiac output is 6.30 litre/minute 47.

Ventricular systole is stimulated by (a) SA Node (b) AV Node (c) Pulmonary valve (d) AV aperture UP PGT 2016 Ans. (b) Ventrical Systole is induced by the atrioventricular node (AV Node). The AV node is some what small and thin and is situated at the base of the interatrial septum towards the right atrium. Every pulse in the heart begins with SA node. It is caused by spontaneous contraction in the node fibers.

48.

Which artery supplies blood to the diaphragm? (a) Phrenic (b) Splenic (c) Caudal (d) Renal UP LT 2018 LT Biology 2018 Ans. (a) : Phrenic artery supplies blood to the diaphragm. The phrenic artery originate from the neck and passes through the lung and heart to reach the diaphragm. The blood supply to the diaphragm is from the superior phrenic, musculophrenic, inferior phrenic, pericardiophrenic and lower internal intercostal arteries.

49.

The aged erythrocytes are destroyed by (a) Spleen and liver (b) Heart and lung (c) Kidney (d) Gallbladder UP LT 2018 Ans. (a) : Blood cells are destroyed by the spleen and liver. Old and defective erythrocytes are consumed by macrophages (by Phagocytosis). The life span of red blood cell is 120 days in human. Human RBCs are normally phagocytized by macrophages of splenic and hepatic sinusoids at 120 days of age. 52. Under normal conditions red blood cells are continuously destroyed and new ones produced at which of the following rates? (a) 120 m/minute (b) 180 m/minute (c) 70m/minute (d) 35 m/minute UPPCS Pre 2010 Ans. (a) : 2 million RBC in one second under normal condition is generated. So, in 60 Second 60× 2 million = 120 million/minute. 53. The tension of CO2 in the arterial blood is : (a) 20 mm Hg (b) 40 mm Hg (c) 60 mm Hg (d) 100 mm Hg UPPCS Pre 1999 Ans. (b) : The tension of CO2 in the arterial blood is between 35 mm Hg to 45 mm Hg. The partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PCO2) is the measure of carbon dioxide within arterial or venous blood. PaCO2– Partial pressure of CO2 in arterial blood is between 35 mm Hg and 45 mm Hg. PvCO2– Partial pressure of CO2 in venous blood is between 40 mm Hg and 50 mm Hg. 54. Enzyme carbonic anhydrase is found in : (a) lymphocytes (b) erythrocytes (c) blood plasma (d) leucocytes UPPCS Pre 2005 Ans. (b) : Carbonic anhydrase enzyme is found in red blood cell, Gastric Mucosa, Pancreatic cells and renal tubules. The carbonic anhydrase enzyme work to catalyze the conversion of carbon dioxide and water to the dissociated ions of carbonic acid. This produces bicarbonate anions which get dissolved in the blood plasma.

Double circulation of blood in mammals refer to : (a) Paired arteries (b) Paired veins (c) The blood circulates twice in heart as quickly (d) The process is completed in two turns, one from heart to lung and back to the rest of body from heart UP PGT 2016 Ans. (d) In mammals, the whole Process Occurs twice in the blood double circuit, first from the heart to the lungs and then there is a closed and double circulation in the human body. (i) Pulmonary Circuit- between heart and lungs. (ii) Systemic Circuit-between heart and other organs. Carbonic anhydrase CO + H O H CO HCO + H The blood Circulatory system is also called the (Carbon (Water) (Carbonic (Bicarbonate (Hydrogen cardiovascular system because the heart plays the most dioxide) acid) ion) ion) important role in the circulation of blood throughout the 55. The wall of the artery is thicker than the wall of body. a vein because the artery has : 50. Intercalated disc are found in : (a) a thicker layer of striped muscles (a) visceral muscle (b) skeletal muscle (b) a thicker layer of smooth muscles (c) cardiac muscle (d) All of the above (c) alternating layers of smooth and striped muscles. UP LT 2018 (d) a thicker layer of connective tissue Ans. (c) : Intercalated discs or lines of Eberth are UPPCS Pre 1995 microscopic identifying features of cardiac muscle. These are unique structural formations found between Ans. (b) : The artery has thicker layer of smooth the myocardial cells of the heart. They play vital roles muscles so they are non-collapsible. The internal in transmitting signals between cells. valve are absent in artery and deep in location. −

2

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Most of the CO2 in blood is carried : (a) within erythrocytes (b) dissolved in plasma (c) as bicarbonate acid (d) in combination with plasma proteins UPPCS Pre 2005 Ans. (c) : Transport of CO2 is maximum through bicarbonate. Nearly 20-25% carried out through RBCs, about 7% CO2 carried out in dissolved state through plasma. 57. CO2 is mostly carried by blood in the form of : (a) bicarbonate (b) in solution (c) carbonic acid (d) free CO2 UPPCS Pre 1994 Ans. (a) : Carbon dioxide molecules are transported in the blood from body tissues to the lungs by one of three methods: Transport of CO2 mainly in the form of bicarbonate (nearly 70%), 20-25% CO2 transport by RBCs and nearly 7% CO2 transport is dissolved through plasma. 58. Heparin, which prevents the formation of clots in the circulatory system, is produced by (a) lymphocytes (b) neutrophils (c) basophils (d) eosinophils PGT Biology 2003 UPPCS Pre 2008 Ans. (c) : Heparin, which prevents the formation of clots in the circulatory system, is produced by basophils. Heparin was the first anticoagulant agent to be discovered and isolated for medical use. Basophils are granulocytes that contain large cytoplasmic granules in the nucleus of the cell. → Heparin is made by the liver, lungs and other tissues in the body and can also made in the laboratory. 59. Which one of the following is the largest lymphatic vessel of the human body : (a) Throracic duct (b) Lacteal duct (c) Cysterna chyli (d) Right lymphatic duct UPPCS Pre 2000 Ans. (a) : The largest lymphatic vessel of the human body is thoracic duct. The lymph flows away from the tissues to lymph node and eventually to either the right lymphatic duct or the largest lymph vessel in the body (Thoracic duct). 60. Methaemoglobinemia is caused by : (a) Nitrate fertilizers (b) Lead toxicity (c) Fluorides in drinking water (d) Oxytocin UP PGT 2016 Ans. (a) Due to the presence of nitrogen fertilizers in the red blood cells of the body, disease called methaemoglobinemia occurs. Methaemoglobinemia is a blood disorder caused by the presence of methaemoglobin in red blood cell at levels greater than 1%. Under this disease, the iron (haem) present in the blood is present in abnormal ferric form instead of normal ferrous form, due to which the availability of oxygen in the tissues decreases. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

61.

One Haemoglobin (Hb) molecule carries : (a) 4 molecules of O2 (b) 3 molecules of O2 (c) 2 molecules of O2 (d) 1 molecule of O2 UP PGT 2016 Ans. (a) One molecule of hemoglobin carries 4 molecules of oxygen. Blood plasma has a very low O2 carrying capacity because the solubility of O2 in water is low, so hemoglobin has a special coloring matter for the transport of O2 in the blood. It is an iron-containing combined protein. Its molecule has four subunits. Each subunit consist of a long and coiled polypeptide chain attached to an iron-containing porphyrin ring. Therefore hemoglobin is called O2 carrier or respiratory pigment.

62.

The symptom of sickle-cell anemia is : (a) inadequate healthy RBCs (b) rigid and sticky RBCs (c) sickle-shaped RBCs (d) all of these Bihar PGT 2019 Ans. (c) : The symptom of sickle-cell anemia is sickleshaped RBCs. It is a condition in which RBCs are not shaped as they should be. RBCs look like sickles or crescent moons, instead of flat biconcave or discshaped. These sickle shaped cells get stuck together and block small blood vessels. Sickle-cell anemia is a common inherited blood disorder.

63.

Sickle cell anaemia is a disease of : (a) Red blood cells (b) Basophils (c) Platelets (d) Lymphocytes UPPCS Pre 2006 Ans. (a) : See the explanation of the above question.

64.

The colour of RBC is red due to the presence of: (a) Calcium ion (b) Potassium ion (c) Ferric ion (d) All of these Bihar PGT 2019 Ans. (c) : The colour of red blood cell is red due to the presence of ferric ion present in hemoglobin. These cells are spherical and their nucleus is absent. Its main function is to supply oxygen to the body. Its life span is 120 days. Red blood cells are red because of the heme group in hemoglobin.

65.

The neurogenic heart is the characteristic feature of : (a) rabbit (b) rat (c) human (d) lower invertebrate Bihar PGT 2019 Ans. (d) : Neurogenic heart is found in the lower invertebrate, in this the pulsation is nervous. Whereas in vertebrates the heart beat is myogenic. The neurogenic heart is a feature of most arthropods and some annelids. In this the heart beat start with the nerve charge coming from the neural gland located near the heart. The myogenic heart is a feature of mollusca and vertebrates.

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A person having antigen A and B but no Ans. (a) : Fibrinogen is the protein found in blood antibody, belongs to the blood group– plasma and is synthesized in liver. Bile is secreted by liver and it does not contain any protein and enzyme. (a) O (b) AB Fibrinogen is found in blood plasma but not produced (c) B (d) A by lymph node. RBC (Red blood corpuscles) and TGT Biology 2002 W.B.C. (White blood corpuscles) are synthesized in bone narrow. Ans. (b) : A person of AB blood group has antigens A and B, but antibodies are not found. That is why blood 70. In coagulation of blood, the enzyme converting group AB is called 'Universal recipient' and blood fibrinogen into fibrin is : group O is called 'Universal donor'. (a) thrombin (b) prothrombin Donor

Group A (a Antibody)

Group B (b Antibody)

Group AB (No Antibody)

Group O (a and b Antibody)

(c) maltase

(d) pepsin UPPCS Pre 2008 Ans. (a) : Two processes are found in blood coagulation.

Group A Antigen (A)

+

Ca Prothrombin   → Thrombin

Group B Antigen(B)

Thrombin Fibrinogen  → Fibrin

Group AB Antigen (A+B) Group O (No antigen)

67.

Universal donor persons have the blood group. (a) A (b) B (c) AB (d) O UPPCS Pre 2006

Ans. (d) : In blood group O, both antigens are absent. So it is called 'Universal donor'. Blood group A has antigen a and antibody b and it can donate blood to same group and AB. Blood group B has antigen b and antibody a. Blood group AB has both antigen a and b and antibody absent. So, it is called 'Universal recipient'. Blood group

Antibody

Antigen

Donate Blood

Specific

A

b

a

A, AB



B

a

b

B, AB



AB

absent

ab

AB

Universal Recipient

O

ab

absent

A, AB, O,B

Universal Donor

68.

The person having the following blood group is called a universal recipient : (a) A (b) B (c) O (d) AB UPPCS Pre 1995 Ans. (d) : See the explanation of the above question. 69. Fibrinogen is found in : (a) Blood plasma and is synthesized in liver (b) Bile and is produced in liver (c) Blood plasma and produced in lymph nodes (d) Bone and synthesized in bone marrow UPPCS Pre 2006 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

* In the presence of Ca+ ion, prothrombin is converted to thrombin and in the presence of thrombin, fibrinogen is converted to fibrin. 71. Innervation of heart is primarily meant for : (a) Initiation of heart beat (b) regulation of heart beat (c) activation of pace maker (d) release of acetylcholine UPPCS Pre 2005 UPPCS Pre 2006 Ans. (b) : Innervation of heart is primarily meant for regulation of heart beat. The innervation of the heart refers to the network of nerves that are responsible for the functioning of the heart. The heart is innervated by sympathetic and parasympathetic fibres from the autonomic branch of the peripheral nervous system. Heart beat is initiated by the Sino-atrial node (SA node), which is called the pacemaker. 72. Which of the following blood factors enters the clotting sequence after the formation of clot ? (a) LLF (b) PTC (c) PTA (d) SPCA UPPCS Pre 2006 Ans. (d) : SPCA – Serum Prothrombin Conversion Accelerator enter after blood clotting. LLF-Also known as Laki-Lorand factor, is factor number XIII. PTC – It is a factor IX, plasma thromboplastin component and not enter after blood clotting, also called Christmas factor. PTA (plasma thromboplastin antecedent) is factor number XI. 73. If spleen is removed the platelet count will : (a) decrease (b) increase (c) remain unaffected (d) be reduced to zero UPPCS Pre 1994 Ans. (b) : The spleen is responsible for removing the damaged platelets and therefore removal of the spleen can help to keep more platelets circulating in the body. If platelets are being destroyed elsewhere in the immune system, a splenectomy is unlikely to raise the platelet count.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 74.

Carbonic anhydrase is found in high concentrations in : (a) Plasma (b) Erythrocytes (c) Leucocytes (d) Lymph UPPCS Pre 2000

Ans. (b) : RBCs contain very high concentration of enzyme carbonic anhydrase and minute quantities of the same is present in plasma too. Carbonic anhydrase, which is found within RBCs, catalyzes a reaction converting CO2 and water into carbonic acid, which disssociates into protons and bicarbonate ions. 75.

The birth of child with blood group AB is not possible. Mother blood group is not found. 79.

Mature human erythrocytes contain : (a) Both DNA and RNA (b) RNA but no DNA (c) Neither DNA nor RNA (d) DNA but no RNA UPPCS Pre 1994

Ans. (c) : As red blood cells contain no nucleus, protein biosynthesis is currently assumed to be absent in these cells. Because of the lack of nuclei and organelles, mature red blood cells do not contain DNA and cannot synthesize any RNA, and consequently cannot divide and have limited repair capabilities. 77.

80.

The cation of the following element is necessary for coagulation : (a) Sodium (b) Calcium (c) Potassium (d) Zinc UPPCS Pre 1994 Ans. (b) : Calcium ions are required for the promotion or acceleration of blood clotting. In the presence of calcium ions and other clotting factors, factor X activates an enzyme called prothrombin activator. This enzyme then converts the plasma protein prothrombin into thrombin. Thrombin is an enzyme that, in turn, converts fibrinogen to fibrin which causes the blood to clot.

81.

The ion essential for the conversion of prothrombin into thrombin during blood clotting is : (a) Mg++ (b) Fe++ (d) Ca++ (c) Zn++ UPPCS Pre 1996, 1997 Ans. (d) :

Man gets killed by cyanide because it affect the function of : (a) Cytochrome oxidase (b) haemoglobin (c) Immunoglobin (d) Thrombin UPPCS Pre 1994

Ans. (a) : When cyanide enters the body, either through inhalation or ingestion, it interferes with the body's ability to distribute oxygen. The cyanide ions react irreversibly with the iron atoms in the enzyme cytochrome c oxidase and the oxygen transporter molecule, hemoglobin. 78.

B'Lymphocyte cells are produced in : (a) Thymus gland (b) Lymph nodes (c) Bone marrow (d) Liver UPPCS Pre 1994 Ans. (c) : A lymphocyte is a type of white blood cell that is part of the immune system. There are two main types of lymphocytes B cells and T cells. The B cells produce antibodies that are used to attack invading bacteria, viruses, and toxins. A type of immature white blood cell that forms in the bone marrow.

Carbonic anhydrase is found in : (a) Blood plasma (b) Erythrocytes (c) Lymphocytes (d) Leucocytes UPPCS Pre 1999 UPPCS Pre 2001

Ans. (b) : Carbonic anhydrase is found in RBCs (erythrocytes) in very high concentration and minute quantities is found in blood plasma too. 76.

Ans. (d)

Ca ++

Thromboplastin + Prothrombin  → Thrombin  → fibrin → Clot fibrinogen blood cells Ca++ ion is necessary for blood clotting. 82.

If a child's blood group is 'A B' and his father's blood group is 'O', what would be the blood group of his mother : (a) 'A' (b) 'B' (c) 'O' (d) None of these UPPCS Pre 1994 UPPCS Pre 2003 PGT Biology 2009

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Which of the following is a defensive protein produced by lymphocytes ? (a) Haemoglobin (b) Flavoprotein (c) Biliprotein (d) Immunoglobulin UPPCS Pre 2007 Ans. (d) : Immunoglobulin is a protective protein which is produced by lymphocytes and plasma. Bilirubin is produced by the liver. Hemoglobin is found in the blood due to which the blood gets red colour. Its is an iron rich protein. YCT

Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Which of the following forms an irreversible 88. Ninety-eight percent of haemoglobin found in adult humans : complex with haemoglobin of the blood? (a) Haemoglobin A (b) Haemoglobin A2 (a) Carbon dioxide (c) Haemoglobin F (d) haemoglobin S (b) Pure Nitrogen gas UPPCS Pre 1994 (c) Carbon monoxide Ans. (a) : Some normal haemoglobin types are; (d) A mixture of Carbon dioxide and Helium Haemoglobin A (Hb A) which is 95-98% of UPPCS Pre 2007 haemoglobin found in adults. Hemoglobin A2 (Hb Ans. (c) : Hemoglobin in blood forms irreversible A2), which is 2-3% of haemoglobin found in adults, complex with carbon monoxide to form carboxyand Haemoglobin F (Hb F), which is found in adults hemoglobin which is denoted as CoHb or HbCo. up to 2.5% and is the primary haemoglobin that is Carboxyhemoglobin is a stable complex of carbon produced by the fetus during pregnancy. monoxide that forms in RBCs when carbon monoxide 89. Which of the following is not a plasma protein? is inhaled. (a) Haemoglobin (b) Prothrombin 84. Which of the following receives blood through (c) Fibrinogen (d) Globulin Circle of Willis ? UPPCS Pre 2007 (a) Hypophysis (b) Thyroid gland Ans. (a) : Prothrombin, Fibrinogen, globulin etc. are (c) Pancreas (d) Adrenal gland all plasma proteins as they are all found in plasma. UPPCS Pre 2010 Hemoglobin is found in Corpuscles. It is a globular protein. Haemoglobin (Hb) is a protein in RBCs that Ans. (a) : The Circle of Willis is the circle of arteries carries O2 to the body's organs and tissues and which supplies blood to the brain. It was named after transports CO2 from organs and tissues back to lungs. the scientist Thomas Willis (1621-1675). At the Circle of Willis, the internal carotid arteries branch into 90. If the vagus nerve supply to the heart is cut off, smaller arteries that supply oxygenated blood to over its rate of beat will : 80% of the cerebrum. (a) Increase 85. How many molecules of O2 (oxygen) can bound (b) Decrease to one molecule of myoglobin : (c) Remain unaffected (a) One (b) Two (d) Initially increase and then return to normal (c) Four (d) None UPPCS Pre 2000 UPPCS Pre 2001 Ans. (a) : If the vagus nerve or parasympathetic nerve Ans. (a) : One molecule of O2 can bind to one supply to the heart is cut off, it will result in increased heart beat because parasympathetic system works to molecule of myoglobin. Myoglobin is a lowlower the heart rate. The vagus nerve sends signals to molecular weight protein that contains one heme and the sinoatrial node to decrease heart rate. Damage to binds one molecule of O2 per molecule of protein. the vagus nerves, providing the parasympathetic Myoglobin is a monomer and binds O2 more tightly innervation of the heart, will affect the ability to than does hemoglobin. The binding of O2 to decrease the heart rate. myoglobin is a simple equilibrium reaction. 91. Heme of the haemoglobin molecule is called its: Mb + O 2 MbO 2 (a) Apoenzyme (b) Coenzyme 86. How many molecules of oxygen bound to one (c) Inorganic cofactor (d) Prosthetic group molecule of myoglobin : UPPCS Pre 2000 (a) 1 (b) 2 Ans. (d) : Haemoglobin is a protein made up of four (c) 3 (d) 4 polypeptide chain. Each chain is attached to a heme UPPCS Pre 2000 group composed of porphyrin attached to the iron atom. The prosthetic group containing an iron Ans. (a) : See the explanation of the above question. molecule centered in the porphyrin ring. It is a non87. Which of the following has maximum affinity proteinous part. for haemoglobin as compared to oxygen : 92. How much oxygen is transported by one gram (a) Carbon monoxide (b) Carbon dioxide of haemoglobin in blood? (c) Nitrogen (d) Nitric oxide (a) 20 ml (b) 1.34 ml UPPCS Pre 2001 (c) 4 ml (d) 2.23 ml Ans. (a) : Carbon monoxide has maximum affinity UPPCS Pre 2008 for haemoglobin as compared to oxygen. When Ans. (b) : 15 gm of hemoglobin is found in 100 ml of hemoglobin binds with carbon monoxide, it forms blood which transport 20ml of O . 2 carboxyhaemoglobin (CoHb or HbCo). The reason of Transport of O2 by 1gm of hemoglobin = 20/15 = 1.33 higher affinity is the electron coordination between or 1.34ml. So transport of 1.34 ml of O2 is transported the heme iron and carbon monoxide is perpendicular by one gram of hemoglobin. to the heme plane. 83.

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One litre of blood carries how much oxygen to the body tissues (a) 200 ml (b) 50 ml (c) 100 ml (d) 500 ml TGT Biology 2011 Ans. (a) : 1 gram Haemoglobin transport 1.34 ml O2. Q 100 ml blood contain normally 15 gram of haemoglobin, so, 100 ml blood transport approximately 20 ml oxygen. So, 1 liter (1000 ml) blood transport approximately 200 ml O2. 94. At normal levels the amount of O2 per 100ml in human blood is : (a) 10 ml (b) 20 ml (c) 30 ml (d) 40 ml UPPCS Pre 1999 Ans. (b) : 100 ml of human blood carry 20 ml O2. 100 ml blood of human contain 15 gm haemoglobin. 1gm haemoglobin carry 1.34 ml O2. So 15 × 1.39 = 20.10 mlO2 95. In healthy adult man, 100 ml of blood transports approximately (a) 20 ml of oxygen (b) 10 ml of oxygen (c) 1.34 ml of oxygen (d) 4.00 ml of oxygen UPPCS Pre 2009 Ans. (a) : In a healthy adult person 100 ml of blood carries about 20 ml of oxygen. One gram of hemoglobin carries 1.34 ml of oxygen. 96. How much oxygen is transported by one gram of haemoglobin in blood : (a) 20 ml (b) 1.34 ml (c) 4 ml (d) 2.34 ml UPPCS Pre 2002 Ans. (b) : 15 gm hemoglobin is found in 100ml blood. 15 gm blood carry 20 ml O2

99.

Which of the following is a primary lymphoid organ? (a) Lymph nodes (b) Lymphoid nodules (c) Thymus (d) Spleen UPPCS Pre 2008 Ans. (c) : There are two primary lymphoid organs. The red bone marrow and the thymus gland. Secondary lymphoid tissue are lymph nodes, tonsils, spleen, Peyer's patches and mucosa associated with lymphoid tissue.

100. Spleen produces (a) lytic enzymes (c) erythropoietin

(b) lysozymes (d) lymphocytes UPPCS Pre 2008 Ans. (d) : The spleen is a lymphoid organ that produces lymphocytes and is the largest lymphatic gland. It destroys RBC that is why it is called the 'graveyard of RBC'. * Erythropoietin is a protein that participates in the formation of RBCs. * Lysozyme is an enzyme found in saliva and it is antibacterial in nature. The secretion of lytic enzyme occurs from the lysosome.

101. Between which of the following pairs marriage will be incompatible? (a) Rh+ and Rh+ (b) Rh- and Rh+ (c) Rh- and Rh+ (d) Rh+ and RhUPPCS Pre 1995, 1996, 2002, 2008 Ans. (d) : When there is marriage between Rh+ male and Rh– female, a Rh– related disease called erythroblastosis fetalis disease occurs in babies before birth in pregnancy. It is a very rare but fatal disease in which the affected baby dies in pregnancy or soon after birth. In this case, the baby is always RH+. Their mother is Rh– and father is RH+ they get this quality in the inheritance from their father.

20 = 1.34ml O2 15 97. How much oxygen is transported by 1 gm of 102. Under what circumstance does agglutination occur during blood transfusion even if the donor haemoglobin in blood? and the recipient both have the same blood (a) 20 ml (b) 10 ml group : (c) 2.34 m (d) 1.34 ml (a) Donor is RH+ and recipient is Rh− PGT Biology 2010 (b) Donor is RH‒ and recipient is Rh+ Ans. (d) : 1.34 ml of oxygen is carried by 1 gm of hemoglobin in the blood, similarly 100 ml of pure blood (c) Donor and recipient both are Rh+ carried 20 ml of Oxygen. (d) Donor and recipient have different kinds of 98. How much O2 is carried by 1gm of hemoglobin. haemoglobin: UPPCS Pre 2003 (a) 20.0cc (b) 2.0cc Ans. (a) : The agglutination is the clumping of (c) 1.34cc (d) 100.0cc particles. Agglutination occurs optimally when UPPCS Pre 2001 antigen and antibodies react in blood. Agglutination Ans. (c) : Normally 100 ml of blood contain 15 gm of occurs during blood transfusion even if the donors is hemoglobin, 100 ml blood carries 20 cc of oxygen Rh+ and the recipient is Rh–. First time blood transfusion is safe but in case of second time, 15gm = 20cc. agglutination occurs. 1 gm = 20/15 = 1.34 c.c. ∴ 1 gm =

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 103. Under a given oxygen concentration in blood, Ans. (a) : Colloidal osmotic pressure in blood plasma dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin will increase if: is mainly due to albumin. Osmotic pressure or colloid osmotic pressure is a form of osmotic pressure (a) pH of blood rises induced by the proteins, mainly albumin in a blood (b) pH of blood falls vessel's plasma that causes a pull on fluid back into (c) CO2 concentration in blood falls the capillary. Albumin is the most abundant circulating protein found in plasma. (d) free fatty acid concentration in blood falls UPPCS Pre 2003 108. The colloid osmotic pressure of blood is mainly due to : Ans. (b) : Under a given oxygen concentration in (a) fibrinogen (b) globulin blood, dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin will increase if (c) albumin (d) non-protein factors pH of blood falls. A decrease in pH or increase in H+ ion concentration decreases the haemoglobin's affinity UPPCS Pre 1999 for oxygen and favours the dissociation of Ans. (c) : See the above of explanation. oxyhaemoglobin. It shifts the oxygen dissociation 109. In the mammalian heart, ventricular filling of curve to the right. blood takes place due to : 104. The average life span of RBC is : (a) relaxation of right ventricle (a) 90 days (b) 100 days (b) a higher blood pressure in right auricle (c) 110 days (d) 120 days (c) adequate blood in the right auricle UPPCS Pre 2003 (d) all the above actions Ans. (d) : Average life span of R.B.C. is 120 days in UPPCS Pre 1997 man, 100 days in frog and 80 days in rabbits. Human Ans. (d) : In the mammalian heart, ventricular filling red blood cells (RBCs), after differentiating from of blood takes place due to relaxation of right erythroblasts in the bone marrow, are released into the ventricle, adequate blood in right auricle and a higher blood and survive in the circulation for approximately blood pressure in right auricle. The majority of 120 days. Due to the loss of nucleus and other ventricular filling occurs during the first phase of organelles, red blood cells carnot repair themselves diastole, the rapid ventricular filling phase. The when damaged. This limits their lifespan. remainder of ventricular filling occurs at the very end 105. Average life span of human red blood of diastole. corpuscles is : 110. Consider the following statements : (a) 100 hours (b) 120 hours Assertion (A) : Lymph nodes are of great importance in human system. (c) 2880 hours (d) None of the above Reason (R) : Pathogens are collected and UPPCS Pre 2009 destroyed in them. Ans. (c) : The average life span of red blood cell is 120 Select the correct answer using codes given below: days or 2880 hours. The life span of white blood cell is Code : 10 to 13 days. (a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct The life of blood platelets is 7-10 days. explanation of A. 106. Given : (b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the 1. Kupffer cells 2. T-lymphocytes correct explanation of A. 3. B-lymphocytes 4. Megakaryocytes (c) A is true but R is flase Which one(s) of the above are tissue (d) R is false but A is true macrophages : UPPCS Pre 2004 (a) 1 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only Ans. (a) : A lymph node are of great importance in (c) 1, 2, 3, 4 (d) 4 only human system is true. UPPCS Pre 2003 Pathogen are collected and destroyed in them because it produced antibody. Both (A) and (R) is correct and Ans. (b) : Kupffer cells found in liver and phagocytic R is correct explanation of A. in function makes macrophages. T-lymphocytes and B – lymphocytes both are macrophages. Megakaryocyte 111. If all the nerves supply the heart are cut, the called platelet are involved in the blood clotting. heart will : Macrophages are distributed in tissues throughout the (a) beat rhythmically (b) stop beating body and contribute to both homeostasis and disease. (c) beat arythmically (d) shrink 107. Colloidal osmotic pressure in blood plasma is UPPCS Pre 2004 mainly due to : Ans. (a) : If all the nerve supplying the heart are cut (a) albumin (b) globulin the heart will beat rhythmically. In the human heart, contraction is initiated by a specially modified heart (c) fibrinogen (d) sodium chloride UPPCS Pre 1997 muscle known as SA node. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 112. Consider the following statements : Assertion (A) : Blood and lymph are a special kind of connective tissue. Reason (R) : There matrix is fluid which travels in all parts of the body. Select the correct answer using codes given below: Code : (a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A). (c) (A) is right but (R) is wrong. (d) (R) is wrong but (A) is right. UPPCS Pre 2004 Ans. (b) : Blood connects the body system together bringing the needed oxygen, nutrients and same is for lymph that help in binding and supporting the blood vessel. They also carry wasteful things to the kidney for filtration. It flows in lymphatic vessels. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A). 113. Which of the following will not coagulate : (a) Plasma (b) Lymph (c) Serum (d) Lymph and serum UPPCS Pre 2001 Ans. (d) : Lymph and serum are part of the fluid part of the blood. Both these part do not coagulate (clotting) because no clotting factor is present in it. Serum can be defined as blood plasma without clotting factors. 114. Antisera used to detect Rh-factor is called : (a) Anti A (b) Anti B (c) Anti D (d) both (a) and (b) together UPPCS Pre 2001 Ans. (c) : Antisera are used to detect the Rh factor. It is called Anti-D. If clotting is found on mixing blood with Anti-D, then it is Rh+ and if coagulation is not found then it is Rh– . 115. Iron is not found in : (a) Haemoglobin (b) Haemocyanin (c) Nissl's granules (d) both (b) and (c) UPPCS Pre 2001 Ans. (d) : Iron is not found in haemocyanin and Nissl's granules. * Haemocyanins are proteins that transport oxygen throughout the bodies of some invertebrate animals. * Nissl's granules are the substances found in the neurons which are large granular type of body. 116. During systole of heart : (a) auricles and ventricle contract separately (b) auricles and ventricles contract simultaneously (c) only ventricles contract (d) only auricles contract UPPCS Pre 2001 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (a) : During systole of heart, auricles and ventricles contract separately. During systole, the auricles contract before the ventricles. The blood from the auricles reach the ventricles during contraction. After this, the ventricles contract. While the auricles are relaxing from the contraction, blood flows into them from the veins as the contraction of the ventricles is initiated. 117. Unlike frog the human red blood cells are : (a) Oval (b) Non-nucleated (c) Biconvex (d) Suspended in plasma UPPCS Pre 1996 Ans. (b) : Human RBCs are non-nucleated, biconcave and life span of RBCs is 120 days. While in frog, the red blood cells have nucleus as seen by the purple pigment.

118. An injured person of unknown blood group needing immediate blood transfusion can be given the following blood group : (a) A (b) B (c) AB (d) O UPPCS Pre 1996 Ans. (d) : Blood group O is the universal donor and could be given to any person during blood transfusion. Because blood group AB has both type of antibody absent, it is called universal acceptor. 119. The blood cell which shows phagocytosis is : (a) Monocytes (b) Basophil (c) Eosinophil (d) Platelet UPPCS Pre 1996 Ans. (a) : Monocytes called macro policeman of blood. Monocytes are phagocytic in nature. The nucleus is horse shoe shaped. These are largest type of leucocytes. 120. The largest corpuscles in mammalian blood are: (a) Monocytes (b) Lymphocytes (c) Erythrocytes (d) Basophils UPPCS Pre 1999 Ans. (a) : Monocytes are the largest corpuscles and phagocytic in nature, size 22µ. Basophils are nonphagocytic with 2–3 lobes of nucleus. Monocytes are a type of white blood cell which are agranular white blood cells because they do not contain granules.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 121. Which one of the following is not a granulocyte: (a) Monocyte (b) Basophil (c) Eosinophil (d) Neutrophil UPPCS Pre 1999 Ans. (a) : Leucocytes (white blood corpuscles or WBC) are devoid of haemoglobin and so colourless. Leucocytes fall into two major groups : Granulocytes – with cytoplasmic granules Agranulocytes – without granules Granulocytes are of three types–neutrophils, eosinophils and basophils. Agranulocytes are of two types–lymphocytes and monocytes. Total leucocyte count is normally 5000/cubic mm of blood, ratio of RBC : WBC is 600 : 1. 122. Erythroblastosis fetalis affects infants born of : (a) parents dissimilar for one particular gene (b) Parents similar for that gene (c) both parent old (d) one old, one young parent UPPCS Pre 1995 Ans. (a) : Parents dissimilar for one particular gene. When Rh+ man married to Rh− woman, then antibody formation start in woman's body. The first pregnancy is normal but in second pregnancy a disease is caused called erythroblastosis fetalis. 123. The blood does not coagulate in blood vessels because it contains : (a) fibrin (b) thrombin (c) heparin (d) prothrombin UPPCS Pre 1995 Ans. (c) : Heparin is anticoagulant present in blood plasma. It is a naturally occuring anticoagulant that prevents the formation and extension of blood clots. Heparin is obtained from liver, lung, mast cells and others cells of vertebrates. 124. Heparin, which prevents the formation of blood clots in the circulatory system is produced by : (a) Lymphocytes (b) Neutrophils (c) Basophils (d) Eosinophils UPPCS Pre 2002 Ans. (c) : Heparin, prevents the blood clotting in circulatory system. It is produced by basophils and mast cell. Histamine and serotonin are also produced by basophils. 125. Heparin is a : (a) Polypeptide (b) Lipid (c) Fatty acid (d) Proteoglycan UPPCS Pre 2002 Ans. (d) : Heparin is an anticoagulant that prevent blood clotting. Heparin is synthesized by mast cells as a proteoglycan with very high molecular weight GAG chains that are then depolymerized by endoglycosidases to obtain the final product. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

126.The cells secreting histamine (a) Adipocytes (b) Mast cells (c) Fibrocytes (d) Phagocytes Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (b) : Mast cell are round or elliptical. They are found in connective tissue and secrete the following three type of active substance : (i) Histamine (Protein) – It dilates the blood vessels (ii) Heparin – It is carbohydrate which helps in blood clotting. (iii) Serotonin (Protein) – It cause contraction of blood vessels. Adipocytes (Fat cell) are found in connective tissue. Fibrocytes are essential for wound healing, repair and growth. Phagocytes have the ability to feed on bacteria. 127. Heparin is secreted by certain specialized cell known as : (a) Plasma cells (b) Mast cells (c) Chloragogen cells (d) Goblet cells UPPCS Pre 1995 Ans. (b) : See the explanation of the above question. 128. Mast cells secrete (a) Thromboplastin (b) Heparin (c) Endorphin (d) γ-Amino acid Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2013 Ans. (b) : See the explanation of the above question. 129. Histamine is released from(a) Basophil and Neutrophil (b) Monocyte and Mast cell (c) Basophil and Mast cell (d) Lymphocytes and Mast cell TGT Biology 2011 Ans. (c) : Histamine is secreted by basophils and mast cell. Mast cell secretes three active substance. Histamine, heparin and serotonin. Histamine is a protein. It participates in the body's reaction related to allergic irritation etc. by dilating the blood vessels (vasodilator). Heparin is anticoagulant of blood. It prevent blood from clotting in the blood vessels and increase the permeability of finer blood vessel. Serotonin (Protein) is a very effective blood vessel constrictor. 130. If thymus is removed in the newly born baby which cells will not be formed : (a) Monocytes (b) T-lymphocytes (c) B-lymphocytes (d) Eosinophils UPPCS Pre 1995 Ans. (b) : When thymus gland is removed, T. lymphocytes are not formed in newly born baby. Thymus is a specialized organ that directs the development and selection of T-lymphocytes. 131. Which of the following proteins has the highest molecular weight : (a) Insulin (b) Bovine serum albumin (c) Albumin of hen's egg (d) Myosin UPPCS Pre 1995

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (b) : Bovine serum albumin is highest in molecular weight and insulin is lightest in molecular weight. Sequence given in ascending order areInsulin — Myosin — Albumin of hen's egg — Bovine Serum albumin 132. In which animal the red blood corpuscles are nucleated : (a) horse (b) man (c) camel (d) whale UPPCS Pre 1995 Ans. (c) : RBCs of mammal are non-nucleated except family camelidae eg. Camel, Llama. In mammal largest RBC is found in elephant. Camel RBC are oval and nucleated. 133. In mammals, the erythrocytes are produced in: (a) Kidney (b) thyroid (c) bone marrow (d) in all the above UPPCS Pre 1995 Ans. (c) : RBC or erythrocyte produced in Red bone marrow by a process known as erythropoiesis. Yellow bone marrow produces W.B.C. Stem cells in red bone marrow are called hemocytoblasts. They give rise to all of the formed elements in blood. 134. A, B and O antigens are reactive sites situated on the surface of : (a) blood platelets (b) erythrocytes (c) thrombocytes (d) monocytes UPPCS Pre 1995 Ans. (b) : Blood contains antigen and antibody. Antigens are found in RBC or erythrocyte and antibody are found in blood plasma. Antigens are protein molecules found on the surface of RBCs. 135. Which of the following leucocytes is nonphagocytic : (a) Neutrophils (b) Lymphocytes (c) Eosinophils (d) Monocytes UPPCS Pre 2002 Ans. (c) : Eosinophils (2.8%) are non-phagocytic in nature. These are also known as acidophils. Neutrophils (65%) are phagocytic in nature. Monocytes are known as macro police man of blood. It is also phagocyte. 136. Which one of the following is in the highest concentration in the plasma : (a) Albumin (b) Fibrinogen (c) Fibrin (d) Globulin UPPCS Pre 2002 Ans. (a) : 7% protein is found in blood plasma in which, albumin is in highest concentration in plasma (4.4%) and fibrinogen in least concentration (0.3%). 137. Production of blood platelets is controlled by one of the following : (a) Erythropoietin (b) Thrombopoietin (c) Plasmin (d) Heparin UPPCS Pre 2002 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (b) : Blood platelets are referred as thrombocytes. Its production is controlled by thrombopoietin. It is a glycoprotein hormone produced by the liver and kidney which regulates the production of platelets. It is also known as megakaryocyte growth and development factor. 138. Production of blood platelets is controlled by which one of the following? (a) Erythropoietin (b) Thrombopoietin (c) Plasmin (d) Heparin PGT Biology 2009 Ans. (b) : The production of blood platelets is controlled by thrombopoietin. Blood platelets help the blood to clot. 139. What is the percentage possibility of a child with blood groups 'O' being born to a mother and father having blood groups 'O' and 'B' respectively : (a) 25% (b) 50% (c) 75% (d) 100% UPPCS Pre 2002 Ans. (b) : Mother blood group is O. Father blood group is B. The possibility of blood group in children's. ⇒ Genotype of blood group 'O' = ii ⇒ Genotype of blood group B = IBi Father × Mother (IBi) ↓ (ii) I Bi ii (Blood group B) (Blood group O) 50% blood group 'O' 50% blood group 'B' 140. Mitral valve in Mammals guards the opening between : (a) Stomach and intestine (b) Pulmonary vein and left auricle (c) Right auricle and right ventricle (d) Left auricle and left ventricle UPPCS Pre 2002 Ans. (d) : Mitral valve is also known as bicuspid valve because it consist of two flaps. It prevents the back flow or mixing of blood. The valve is the opening between left auricle and left ventricle. 141. Haemoglobin A Which is the principal haemoglobin in human adults consists of : (a) two beta chains and two gamma chains (b) two alpha chains and two gamma chains (c) two alpha chains and two beta chains (d) two alpha chains and two delta chains UPPCS Pre 1998 Ans. (c) : Hemoglobin A(HbA) makes up about 95%98% of haemoglobin found in adults. It contains 2 alpha (α) and 2 beta (β) protein chains. ∗ Haemoglobin A2 (HbA2) makes up about 2%-3% of haemoglobin found in adult. It has two alpha (α) and 2 delta (δ) protein chain.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 142. If the blood group of mother is B and that of father A. What will be the likely blood group of the children : (a) B and AB (b) O and A (c) A, AB, B and O (d) A and B UPPCS (Pre) 1998 Ans. (c) : Mother blood group B, genotype BO Father blood group A, genotype AO

143. On genetic basis, marriage is incompatible between : (a) man Rh+ and woman Rh+ (b) man Rh+ and woman Rh(c) man Rh- and woman Rh+ (d) man Rh- and woman RhUPPCS Pre 1998 Ans. (b) : Person with Rh factor is called Rh+ and without Rh factor is Rh–. On genetic basis, marriage is incompatible between Rh+ man and Rh– women, because the disease erythroblastosis fetalis in human embryo is caused due to disadjustment of Rh factor. Erythroblastosis fetalis can occur when father is Rh+ and mother is Rh–. An Rh negative women can be sensitized when she bears an Rh+ child, and future Rh+ children may have erythroblastosis fetalis. In developing foetus, erythroblastosis fetalis is caused by haemolysis. 144. Thromboplastin or thrombokinase is secreted by (a) Monocytes (b) Thrombocytes (c) Blood platelets (d) Both (b) and (c) UPPCS Pre 2009 Ans. (d) : Thromboplastin or thrombokinase is secreted by blood platelets or thrombocytes. It is a plasma protein which aids in blood coagulation through catalyzing the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin. It is a mixture of both phospholipids and tissue factor found in plasma. 145. In mammals erythrocyte are : (a) nucleated (b) non-nucleated (c) multinucleated (d) none of the above UPPCS Pre 2009 Ans. (b) : In mammals, erythrocytes (red blood cell) are small, flat, round and biconcave buried in the middle on both side. It does not have a nucleus, the only exception are the camel and the llama, the two mammals whose R.B.C. has nucleus. Nucleus is present in white blood cell in which hemoglobin is absent and it is white in colour. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

146. Collagen is found in : (a) Tendon (c) Bone

(b) Cartilage (d) All of the above UPPCS Pre 2009 Ans. (d) : Collagen is found in tendon, cartilage, bone etc. All these are found in the form of bundles. There are two type of collagen fibre (I) white (II) yellow. Collagen is a protein found in connective tissue and provides structural support. It is the most abundant protein in the body. 147. Of the following fibrinogen is found in : (a) plasma alone (b) lymph alone (c) both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above UPPCS Pre 2009 Ans. (a) : The blood is divided into two part. I. Corpuscles II. Plasma All proteins are found in plasma. Fibrinogen is a protein found in plasma. Lymph is a fluid in which WBC is found whereas RBC is absent. 148. The opening of coronary sinus into right atrium is guarded by (a) bicuspid valve (b) semilunar valve (c) thebesian valve (d) eustachian valve UPPCS Pre 2009 Ans. (c) : The coronary sinus open in the right atrium which is controlled by the Thebesian valve. The bicuspid valve is present in the left auricular valve ventricular orifice which is called the Mitral valve. Semilunar valve is present in the orifice of the aorta from the ventricle. Eustachian valve is an embryological remnant of the inferior vena cava valve. 149. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists: List - I List- II (Blood Cells) (Life Span) A. Agranulocytes 1. Nine to 18 months B. Neutrophils 2. Three to 5 days C. Basophils 3. Twelve hours to 3 days D. Eosinophils 4. Three to 10 months Codes: A B C D (a) 4 3 1 2 (b) 4 1 2 3 (c) 3 2 1 4 (d) 1 3 4 2 UPPCS Pre 2010 Ans. (*) : The life span of agranulocyte ranges from a few hour to several days. Eosinophil – life span approximately – 2-5 days Basophils – life span of basophils is approximately 8 hours–2 days Neutrophils – The life span of Neutrophils is 8–12 hour or 3-5 days.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 150. Which of the following is not found in lymph? (a) Water (b) Solutes (c) Leucocytes (d) Red blood cells UPPCS Pre 2010 Ans. (d) : Lymph is a colorless fluid found in the spaces between tissue and blood vessels. It is the fraction of blood plasma that is formed by diffusion from thin wall of blood capillaries with this, white blood cell (WBCs) come out, but red-blood cell (RBC) do not come out in it, but they contain similar lymphatic corpuscles and small amount of calcium and Phosphorus ion are found in them. 151. Acetylcholine will decrease the rate of heart beat if it is applied to the : (a) left auricle (b) S.A.node (c) A.V.node (d) tip of the ventricle UPPCS Pre 2010 Ans. (b) : Although the cardiac cycle are initiated at a normal constant rate only by the SA node. The fibre that carry the impulse to the heart to reduce the pulse rate are in the parasympathetic nerve. The fibers of the right vagus mainly affect the SA Node to reduce the pulse rate. In order to affect the node in this way, a substance called acetylcholine is secreted on the heart end of these nerve fibre. Acetylcholine reduces the heart beat rate by affecting the sinoauricular node. 152. The number of amino acid residues in the beta chain of haemoglobin molecule is : (a) 114 (b) 146 (c) 164 (d) 241 UPPCS Pre 2010 Ans. (b) : Hemoglobin molecule is made up of two αchain and β chain. The α - chain consist of 141 amino acid and β-chain consist of 146 amino acid. The first six of these amino acids are : valine, histidine, leucine, threonine, proline and glutamic acid. 153.A couple having blood group AB and O , adopted a son. Later on, they gave birth to twins. The blood group of the adopted son is (a) A (b) B (c) O (d) None Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (c) : The blood group of the adopted child can be A, B, AB or O.

Ans. (b) : Chloride Shift is related to CO2 transport. The chloride shift is called the Hamburger's shift or the Hamburger's phenomena. It is named after the prominent scientist Hartog Jakob Hamburger. It is a process found in the Cardiovascular system in which bicarbonate (HCO3–) and Chloride (Cl–) are exchanged across the RBC membrane. 155. The blood cells which show phagocytosis in human are (a) Monocytes (b) Platelets (c) Eosinophils (d) Basophils GIC Biology 15.09.2015 Ans. (a) : The blood cell that show phagocytosis in human are monocytes. It eat harmful bacteria and microbe while traveling in the body. It makes up 2 to 6% of the white blood cell. Monocytes are agranulocytes and the largest cells of the blood. 156. O2 dissociation curve of Hb is : (a) Hyperbolic (b) Linear (c) Sigmoid (d) Stationary TGT Biology 2005 Ans. (c) : See the above of explanation. 157. Duration of a cardiac cycle in healthy man is (a) 72 sec (b) 0.7 sec (c) 0.8 sec (d) 1.2 dec UPPCS Pre 2010 TGT Biology 2011 Ans. (c) : The duration of the cardiac cycle of a healthy human is 0.8 second. There is a heart cycle from the end of one pulse to the end of the next. In different mammals its timing is in the inverse proportion. The heart rate in human is about 72-75 per minute. Therefore the time of the heart cycle is 60/70 = 0.8 second. In this the contraction and dilation phase of the atria are 0.1 and 0.7 second respectively and the ventricles are 0.3 and 0.5 second respectively. Thus, our heart pump 5-6 liters of blood per minute by vibrating 72-75 time. Therefore in an average life span of 50 years, our heart pump about 130 million liters (1 Lakh 30 thousands of tons) of the blood by pulsating about two billion time. 158. The function of yellow bone marrow is(a) Formation of RBC (b) Formation of blood cells (c) Storage of Glycogen (d) Storage of fat TGT Biology 2011 The blood group of a twin born child will be A and B, therefore in addition to the given blood group A and B, Ans. (d) : Yellow bone marrow performs the function the blood group of the adopted child can be AB or O so of storing fat. In a normal bone, the head or epiphysis are swollen and there is a long shaft or diaphysis the above option (c) will be according to the question. between them. Its cavity is called marrow or medullary 154. Chloride Shift is related with cavity, filled with a solid, soft adipose tissue called (a) O2 transport in blood bone marrow. The marrow contains many fat cell, (b) CO2 transport in blood nerve and blood vessels. Due to the abundance of fat (c) O2 transport in lungs cell in the stomatal part of bone marrow it is yellow but near the end due to abundance of blood vessels, the (d) CO2 transport in air TGT Biology 2011 bone marrow is red. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 159. For ABO blood group how many genotypes are possible in human population? (a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 6 (d) Infinite TGT Biology 2011 Ans. (c) : ABO blood group is controlled by I gene. ABO blood group Allele from parent I

Allele from parent II

Genotype of offspring

Blood type of offspring

IA

IA

IA I A

A

I

A

B

A B

I I

AB

I

A

I

A

I I

A

I

B

A

A B

AB

I

B

B B

I

I I

I I

B

I I

B

B

i

B

I i

B

i

i

ii

O

I

Since there are three different alleles, there are six different combination of three allele that are possible and a total six genotype and three phenotype of human blood ABO group is possible. 160. 'Stroke volume' in a healthy adult man is (a) 50ml (b) 504ml (c) 72ml (d) 70ml TGT Biology 2011 Ans. (d) : The stroke volume in a healthy adult human is 70 ml. The term stroke volume is used for both ventricles of the heart although it is commonly used for the left volume. The stroke volume of each ventricles is usually equal. In a healthy person, both stroke volume is usually about 70 ml.

Ans. (a) : The smallest blood vessel in the body is the capillary. Blood cell are very fine, the thickness of its wall is only that of one cell. The wall of cell is permeable to water, small molecule, dissolved food substance and waste materials, carbon dioxide and oxygen. Therefore all the above mentioned substance are exchange between blood capillary and tissue cell and essential substance are circulated through the blood cell. Exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide in the lung. 163. In human blood the normal number of blood platelets (Thrombocytes) per cubic mm is : (a) 100,000-200,000 (b) 200,000-300,000 (c) 500,000-700,000 (d) 200,000-400,000 TGT Biology 2005 Ans. (d) : Blood platelets or thrombocytes are found in human blood. Its number is 3 lakh (2 Lakh to 4 Lakh) in one cubic mm of blood. Their size is uncertain and diameter is 2-4 micron. The nucleus is absent in them. They are produced in the bone marrow. Its life span is 7-10 days. Function – It form blood clots due to which blood flow stop and the torn area is covered with blood clot and becomes safe from bacteria and dust etc. 164. Blood group AB contains : (a) No antigen (b) No antibodies (c) No coagulant property(d) All of the above TGT Biology 2005 Ans. (b) : There are no antibodies in blood group AB. Blood group

Blood cell Antigen

Serum Antibodies

A

A

Anti-b

B

B

Anti-a

AB

A and B

None

O absent Anti-a, b 161. Which of the following is false for arteries? 165. Coagulation of blood in blood vessels is (a) Have thick wall prevented by : (b) Have valves (a) Albumin (b) Heparin (c) High rate of blood flow (c) Globulin (d) Fibrinogen (d) All of these TGT Biology 2005 TGT Biology 2011 Ans. (b) : The clotting of blood in the blood vessel is not Ans. (b) : The vessels which distribute blood from the caused by heparin. Due to which blood keeps flowing heart to different part of the body are called arteries. through different arteries and veins. Heparin is an Normally pure blood flow in them but impure blood anticoagulant that prevent blood from clotting in the flow from the heart to the lungs in the pulmonary blood vessel. Heparin is produced in liver and mast cell. artery. The wall of arteries are relatively thick, 166. Sphygmomanometer measures– muscular and flexible. (a) Heart beat rate (b) Blood pressure Hence, its cavity is thin. This is the reason why arteries (c) Both of these (d) None of these bear the pressure of the blood from inside while TGT Biology 2002 pumping for the growth of the heart. Ans. (b) : Blood pressure is measured by 162. The smallest blood vessel in the body is : sphygmomanometer. The sound of 'lub' and 'dub' are (a) Capillary (b) Artery produced by heart beat. This sound can be heard with a (c) Vein (d) Vena cava stethoscope. The pressure with which the blood flow in TGT Biology 2005 the arteries is called blood pressure. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 167. The most important factor regulating glomerular blood flow is : (a) Parasympathetic and Sympathetic nerves (b) NaCl concentration in filtrate (c) Anti diuretic hormone (d) Muscles in the wall of arterioles TGT Biology 1999 Ans. (d) : Osmoreceptors in the body are activated by change in blood volume, body fluid volume and ionic concentration. An excessive loss of fluid from the body can activate these receptors which stimulate the hypothalamus to release ADH (Anti-diuretic hormone) or vasopressin from the neuro hypophysis. ADH facilitates water reabsorption from latter parts of the tubule, thereby preventing diuresis. The most important factor regulating glomerular blood flow is muscles in the wall of arterioles. 168. In embryonic stage erythrocytes develop from (a) bone marrow (b) liver and kidney (c) spleen and kidney (d) liver and spleen PGT Biology 2013 Ans. (d) : In the early embryonic stage, RBCs are produced in the yolk but in the latter embryonic stage it is mainly produced in the liver and spleen and after birth RBCs are produced in the bone marrow. 169. Which salt is necessary for the blood clotting (b) iron (a) magnesium (c) phosphorus (d) calcium PGT Biology 2013 Ans. (d) : When blood comes out from a cut part then it freeze in the form of jelly in a few minutes, this is called clotting. When blood start flowing from a place and when it comes in contact with air, the thrombocytes present in the blood break down and release a specific chemical substance which reacts with protein of the blood and turn into a substance called prothromboplastin. This prothromboplastin reacts with calcium ion (Ca++) of blood to form thromboplastin that interacts with calcium ion and an enzyme called tryptase to convert inactive prothrombin to a substance called active thrombin. Fibrin binds to form a blood clot. Vitamin K (naphthoquinone) also plays an important role in this process. 170. Cardiac cycle starts with : (a) Auricular diastole (b) Ventricular systole (c) Auricular systole (d) None of these PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (c) : The cardiac cycle starts with auricular systole. It represents the contraction of the myocardium of the left and right atria (auricle) by which blood is forced into the ventricles. It progress to ventricular systole, in which the ventricles contract and blood forced into the aorta and pulmonary artery. After that auricular diastole occurs which means the relaxation of atria. The cardiac cycle ends with ventricular diastole. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

171. Which leucocyte has a bean shaped nucleus ? (a) Basophil (b) Monocyte (c) Neutrophil (d) Eosinophil PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (b) : Structure of the nucleus of monocyte is bean shaped. They are less in number (2 to 10% of the total number of white blood cell per cubic mm of blood) but the largest blood cell of 12 to 20 µm diameter. They do active travel and phagocytosis i.e. these monocytes go into the tissue and turn into macrophages and protect the body by feeding on bacteria etc. 172. What happens to Hb- O2 dissociation curve, if pH of blood is decreased? (a) Shifts to Right side (b) Shifts to left side (c) Remains unaltered (d) Becomes negative PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (a) : The Hb-O2 dissociation curve shift to the right side as the pH of blood decreases. Body temperature and blood pH have a significant effect on the Oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve. It shift to the right as the temperature increases and H+ increases. In such a situation the attraction of hemoglobin towards O2 decreases and for it to accept any one given amount of oxygen, it is necessary to have a higher amount of O2. Conversely, with a decrease in temperature or increase in pH, the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve shift to the left. 173. ‘Pace setter’ of heart is (a) SA Node (b) AV Node (c) Bundle of His (d) Purkinje fibres PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (b) : The AV Node in the heart is called Pace Setter. This is a dense mass of transmission fibers, slightly smaller than the SA node which is located in the lower part of the interatrial septum on the right atrium side of the heart or near the opening of the coronary sinus. The fibers from the SA node establishes an intracircular circuit for transmission fibre to come out from the AV Node which carry the Contraction impulses in the ventricles. 174. If heart beats 120/min. then the duration of a cardiac cycle will be…..seconds. (a) 0.5 (b) 0.6 (c) 0.8 (d) 2 PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (d) : If the heart beat is 120 per minute the duration of the cardiac cycle will be 2 second. Heart rate = 120 beats per minute Time = 60 sec.

120 = 2 Second. 60 175. Which one of the following organs can be called a sort of 'blood bank'? (a) Heart (b) Liver (c) Spleen (d) Lungs PGT Biology 2010 ∴

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (c) : The blood bank is the spleen. The spleen is present in the upper left part of the abdomen. It is of different size in different people, generally it is 4 inches long and in purple color. Spleen is also known as 'graveyard of RBC' as old RBC are destroyed here. 176. Which of the following blood vessels in mammals would normally carry largest amount of urea ? (a) Hepatic vein (b) Hepatic portal vein (c) Renal vein (d) Hepatic artery PGT Biology 2010 Ans. (a) : The hepatic vein usually carries the highest amount of urea in mammals because urea is produced in liver cell. The lowest amount of urea is present in the renal vein. 177. An adult human has systolic and diastolic pressures as (a) 50 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg (b) 120 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg (c) 80 mm Hg and 120 mm Hg (d) 80 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg PGT Biology 2010 Ans. (b) : The systolic and diastolic pressures in adult human are 120 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg respectively. * Due to ventricular systolic pressure, the pressure by which blood flow in the arteries is the systolic pressure. During the resting phase or diastolic phase of the heart pressure is called diastolic pressure. A sphygmomanometer instrument is used to measure the systolic and diastolic pressures of the blood. 178. When both parents are of blood type AB, they can have children with : (a) A, B, AB and O blood group (b) A, B, and AB blood group (c) A and B blood group (d) A, B and O blood group PGT Biology 2010 Ans. (b) : Blood group of parents Possible blood group of children O×O O O×A O, A O×B O, B O × AB A, B A×A A, O A×B A, B, O, AB A × AB A, B, AB B×B B, O B × AB A, B, AB AB × AB A, B, AB 179. Which cells are involved in immune response? (a) Erythrocytes (b) Lymphocytes (c) Eosinophils (d) Thrombocytes PGT Biology 2009 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (b) : Lymphocytes cells are associated with the immune system. Lymphocyte cell produce antibodies in which B and T lymphocytes are found, there are two type of T cell (i) Killer T-cell and (ii) helper T-Cell. Killer T-cell help in the formation of immune cell. There is another type of T-Cell called Suppressor TCell Which prevent it from killing its own cell. When attacked by an antigen, B and T cell are stimulated to form memory cell in addition to numerous fighter cell. Attacked twice, these memory cell re-form fighter cell. Memory cell live for a long time. It is stored in the spleen and lymph node. This is the reason that many disease do not reappear. This is called active immunization. 180. How many total ploypeptide chains are found in the antibody ? (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 1 (d) 3 PGT Biology 2009 Ans. (b) : An antibody consists of a total of 4 polypeptide chains. Each molecule of immunoglobin G (IgG) is Y-shaped with 4 polypeptide chain linked by disulfide bond. Antibodies typically have 4 chains, two large heavy chains and two small light chains. 181. Peyer's patches in mammals are (a) Excretory (b) Digestive (c) Secretory (d) Lymphoid PGT Biology 2009 Ans. (d) : In mammals, Peyer's patches are produced by lymphocytes, spleen, thymus and tonsils. Peyer's patches are an important component of mammalian gutassociated lymphoid tissues (GALT) and are important sites for homeostatic and pathogenic secretory immunoglobulin A (sIgA) response in the gut.

182. Humoral immunity is due to (a) B-lymphocytes (b) T- lymphocytes (c) L- lymphocytes (d) P- lymphocytes PGT Biology 2005 Ans. (a) : Both type of method are adopted in the immunity of the living beings, thus the immune system is of two type : (i) Humoral Immune system (ii) Cell mediated imune system. The most special thing in this system is that it has the ability to differentiate between self and foreign cell. B lymphocytes are transformed into plasma cell and produce different type of antibody for different type of antigen.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 183. What amounts of blood is pumped by ventricles during cardiac output? (a) 2 liters (b) 5 liters (c) 7 liters (d) 10 liters PGT Biology 2005 Ans. (b) : The stroke volume in a healthy person is about 70 ml and the heart rate is 72 times per minute The total amount of blood pumped by each ventricle in 1 minute is called cardiac output. Cardiac output = Stroke volume × heart rate = 70 × 72 ml = 50 40 ml = 5 litres Approx. 184. In man, each heart beat lasts for approximately (a) 0.5 second (b) 0.8 second 187. The heart beat is regulated by : (c) 1.0 second (a) Pacemaker (d) 1.2 second (b) Vagus nerve PGT Biology 2005 (c) Sympathetic nerve Ans. (b) : The human heart beats about 72 time in (d) All above minute, so the time of each cardiac cycle is about 0.8 UPPCS Pre 1996 second. The contraction and systole of the atrial and ventricle are 0.3 second to 0.8 second respectively. This Ans. (d) : Sympathetic nerve is an accelerator nerve, is a beating time. it secretes chemical called sympathetin, thus, 185. The condition, in which the numbers of white increasing the rate and force of heart beat. Pacemaker blood corpuscles are increased very much and regulate or initiate the heart beat. immature white blood corpuscles are released Vagus nerve interferes with parasympathetic control of the heart, lungs and digestive tract. in circulation, is called : 188. Regulation of heart beat in mammals is due (a) Leucopenia to– (b) Leucopoiesis (a) Presence of excess O2 in blood (c) Leukaemia (b) Presence of Pacemaker in heart (d) Leukocytosis (c) Presence of Thyroxine in blood PGT Biology 2004 (d) Presence of less CO2 in blood Ans. (c) : Leukemia – When the number of white TGT Biology 2002 blood cell increases is known as blood cancer. In this, immature WBCs are released in circulation. Ans. (b) : The regulation of heart beat in mammals occurs in the presence of Pacemaker or S.A. Node. It is Leukopenia – When the amount of WBCs is reduced a small crescent shaped dense mass of self-excitable Leukopoiesis – The process of formation of WBCs fibers, which is situated near the opening of the Leukocytosis – In this also the number of WBCs superior venacava in the wall of right atrium. increases Its fibers are called Nodal fibre. In these fibers without 186. Chordae tendineae are found in : any external stimulus, 70 to 80 time in a minute, the rhythmic impulse of heart-pulsing by self-excitation (a) ventricle of heart continue throughout life without getting tired. That's (b) atria of heart why SA node is called the pulse centre or pacemaker of (c) joints the heart. (d) ventricles of brain 189. Role of pacemaker in heart is : PGT Biology 2002 (a) to initiate heartbeat Ans. (a) : Chordae tendineae are found in ventricle of (b) to decrease heartbeat heart. Chordae tendineae commonly called the (c) to increase heartbeat heartstrings are fibrous cords (threads) of connective (d) to control blood supply to heart tissue that resemble the tendon. It connects the PGT Biology 2010, 2013 papillary muscles to the tricuspid & bicuspid valves of the heart. Ans. (a) : See the above of explanation. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 190. A normal ECG (Electrocardiogram) is composed of : (a) P, Q and T waves (b) P wave, QRS complex and T wave (c) PQ, RS complex and T wave (d) T wave, SR complex, QP complex Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2013 Ans. (b) : The doctor detects irregularities of heart pulsation by electrocardiography. It is in the form of a wavy graph in which a straight line is raised at three places, P-Wave, QRS complex and T-wave. P-wave is indicative of atrial contraction, QRS complex is indicator of the normal state of the ventricles.

191. Immunoglobulins are produced by : (a) Natural killer cells (N K Cells) (b) Memory cells (c) Cytotoxic cells (d) Plasma cells Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2013 Ans. (d) : It is a B cell/ B lymphocytes cell that makes antibodies which are called immunoglobulins. Plasma cell that produce immunoglobulin are also called B cell. Immunoglobulins are molecules produced by activated B cells and plasma cells in response to exposure to antigens. 192. Which of the following cells are most numerous in immune system ? (a) Killer T cells (b) Helper T cells (c) Cytotoxic T Cells (d) Memory cells GIC Biology 14.06.2015 Ans. (d) : Memory cell are mostly found in the immune system. When attacked by an antigen, B and T cell are stimulated to form memory cell in addition to numerous fighter cell. They are stored in the spleen and lymph node. This is the reason that many disease do not recur once they occurs. 193. Coronary artery disease is most often found in person suffering from (a) anaemia (b) hemophilia (c) high blood pressure (d) low blood pressure LT Biology 2015 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (c) : Coronary artery disease is mainly found in that person who suffers from high blood pressure. High blood pressure can lead to coronary artery disease (CAD), because it adds force to the artery walls. Over time, this can damage the blood vessels and lead to more plaque buildup. 194. The prevention of blood loss is called (a) Homeostasis (b) Kubernetes (c) Haemostasis (d) None of these LT Biology 2015 Ans. (c) : The process of prevention of blood loss is called Haemostasis. It is a process that is caused by the bleeding of blood. This is first stage of wound healing, in which the blood change from a liquid to a gel. Hemomeaning blood, and stasis meaning stopping. 195. The term renal threshold denotes the plasma concentration above which a given substance spills over in the urine, in man, the renal threshold for glucose varies between. (a) 0-0.5 mg (b) 75-90 mg (c) 80-100 mg (d) 125-160 mg UPPCS Pre 1995 Ans. (c) : Normal threshold of glucose 80 − 100mg/100 ml plasma. The plasma glucose concentration above which significant glucosuria occurs is called the renal threshold for glucose. 196. Chordae tendineae are a part of the : (a) Heart (b) Notochord (c) Tendon (d) Lung UPPCS Pre 1994 Ans. (a) : The chordae tendineae (tendinous cords), commonly known as the heart strings, are cord-like tendons that connect the papillary muscles to the tricuspid valve and the bicuspid valve in the heart. Chordae tendineae are approximately 80% collagen, while the remaining 20% is made up of elastin and endothelial cells. 197. Chordae tendineae are found in : (a) ventricle of heart (b) atria of heart (c) joints (d) ventricles of brain UPPCS Pre 2004 UPPCS Pre 2005 Ans. (a) : The chordae tendineae is cord-like tendons emerge from small stacks of muscles tissue called papillary muscles that inwardly project from the walls of the ventricle. The chordae tendineae are group of string-like tendinous band found within both ventricles of the heart. 198. Hamburger's phenomenon is also called. (a) Bicarbonate shift (b) Chloride shift (c) Hydrogen shift (d) Sodium pump UPPCS Pre 2007 Ans. (b) : Hamburger's phenomenon is also called as chloride shift. This is a process which occurs in cardiovascular system and refers to the exchange of bicarbonate and chloride across the membrane of red blood cells. The phenomenon of chloride ion diffusing into the erythrocytes to maintain the ionic balance is called as chloride shift or hamburger's phenomenon.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 11. Excretion *

1.

About 80% of the glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed in the : (a) Proximal convoluted tubules (b) Distal convoluted tubules (c) Descending limb of loop of Henle (d) Ascending limb of loop of Henle TGT (2016) 31/07/2021 Ans. (a) : About 80% of the glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed in the Proximal convoluted tubules. Proximal convoluted tubule helps in the reabsorption of most electrolytes and water from the glomerular filtrate, independent of hormones. They are reabsorbed mostly by Na+K+ transport and water is reabsorbed due to the Presence of many aquaporins. The loop of Henle is responsible for reabsorption of Na+ and Cl– only 15% water is reabsorbed from the loop of Henle. Distal convoluted tubule regulates water and electrolyte absorption only in presence of the hormones, Aldosterone and Vasopressin. So, only fewer amounts of electrolyte and water are reabsorbed. 2. Which one is an important constituent of reninangiotensinogen-aldosterone system? (a) JGA cells (b) Plasma cells (c) Macular cells (d) Erythropoietin UP PGT 17/08/2021 Ans. (a) : JGA cells is an important constituent of renin- angiotensinogen - aldosterone system. Juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA) or Juxtaglomerular cells (JG Cells) are present in the kidney that synthesize, store, and secrete the enzyme renin. It is located near the vascular pole of the glomerulus and its main function is to regulate blood pressure. Renin increases blood pressure via the renin-angiotensin aldosterone system.

TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

3.

Which of the following parts of the mammalian nephron is found in renal medulla ? (a) Glomerulus (b) Distal convoluted tubule (c) Proximal convoluted tubule (d) Loop of Henle TGT 07/08/2021 Ans. (d) : Kidneys are made up of millions of basic functioning units called nephrons. The region of nephron found in the renal medulla is Henle's loop. Henle's loop is a hairpin-shaped area of the tubule with a descending limb and an ascending limb. The distal convoluted tubule, which is a highly coiled tube-like region is continuation of the ascending limb. The glomerulus and the renal tubule are two major parts of the nephron. Efferent arterioles carry blood from the glomerulus. The glomerulus is enclosed by a double- layered cup-like structure known as bowman's capsule. Malpighian body or renal corpuscle is a constituent of glomerulus and Bowman's capsule. So the correct answer is "Henle's loop". 4. Urinary bladder in birds is(a) One (b) Two (c) Well developed (d) Absent GIC 19/09/2021 Ans. (d) : Urinary bladder in birds is absent. Birds have kidneys that are involved in the removal of nitrogen, but do not have urinary bladder. Birds release waste through an organ, called cloaca. Urine and feces both drain into the cloaca, where they mix together before being expelled. Liquid waste is sent straight from the kidneys to the cloaca. Birds like ostrich and American rhea are exceptions that secretes urine separated from feces. 5. Which of the following has the highest amount of urea ? (a) Hepatic artery (b) Hepatic vein (c) Renal artery (d) Renal vein GIC 19/09/2021 Ans. (b) : Hepatic vein has the highest amount of urea. Liver has the highest urea concentration as it is the primary site for urea production. From the liver, the hepatic vein carry oxygen depleted blood to the inferior vena cava. These veins emerge from the core vein of the liver lobule. ⇒ Kidneys excrete urea, hence the blood vessels or renal veins that exit from the kidneys have the least concentration of urea and other nitrogenous waste.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 6. A. B. C. D.

Which of the following statements are correct. Hilum is a notch at the inner surface of the kidney of mammals. Nephridia are found in Annelida only. Large loop of Henle is present in cortical nephrons of mammalian kidney. Malpighian body includes Bowman's capsule and glomerulus both. The correct answer is (a) A and B (b) B and C (c) C and D (d) A and D RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020)

Ans. (d) : Statement (A) and (D) are correct. (A)- Hilum is a notch at the inner surface of the kidney of mammals. It is the point at which the renal arteries and nerves enter the kidney, and renal veins and ureter leave the kidney. (B)- Nephridia are found in annelids, arthropods, and mollusca (Bojanus organ) (C)- large loop of Henle is present in juxtamedullary nephrons of mammalian kidney. Cortical nephrons have short loop of Henle. (D)- Malpighian body includes Bowman's capsule and glomerulus both. [Note - Commission has deleted this question] 7.

Which of the following are correctly matched? A.

Proximal Convoluted Tubule

-

Resorption water electrolytes

of and

B.

Henle's loop

-

Maintenance of high osmolarity

C.

Distal Convoluted Tubule

-

Conditional resorption of Na+ and water

D.

Collecting duct

-

Maintenance pH

of

The correct answer is : (a) A, B only (b) A, B, C only (c) B, C, D only (d) A, B, C & D RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) Ans. (d) : All the pairs are correctly matched. A.

Proximal Convoluted Tubule

-

Resorption of and electrolytes

B.

Henle's loop

-

Maintenance of high osmolarity

C.

Distal Convoluted Tubule

-

Conditional resorption of Na+ and water

D.

Collecting duct

-

Maintenance of pH

TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

water

8.

Drinking alcohol causes more frequent urination because (a) Alcohol contain caffeine and theobromine (b) Alcohol inhibits ADH secretion which increases water absorption in uriniferous tubules (c) Alcohol enhances ADH secretion that causes non- absorption of water in nephron (d) Alcohol cause increased ultrafilteration in Malpighian corpuscles UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (b) : Drinking alcohol causes more frequent urination because alcohol inhibits ADH secretion, which increases water absorption in uriniferous tubules. Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH) or vasopressin is a hormone made by the hypothalamus in the brain and stored in the posterior pituitary gland. ADH constantly regulates and balances the amount of water in the body. The ADH signals the kidneys to absorb water. By suppressing ADH, alcohol can make the kidneys release more water. 9. Urea formation takes place in the body in : (a) Liver (b) Kidney (c) Urinary bladder (d) Urethra UPPCS Pre 1996 UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (a) : Urea formation takes place in the body in liver. In humans almost 80% of the nitrogen excreted is in the form of urea which is produced through a series of reactions occurring in the cytosol and mitochondrial matrix of liver cells. These reactions are collectively called the urea cycle or the Krebs Henseleit cycle. This cycle converts excess ammonia into urea. Overall reaction : 2 Ammonia + CO2 + 3ATP → Urea + Water + 3 ADP 10. The animals excreting urea are called : (a) Ammonotelic (b) Ureotelic (c) Uricoletic (d) None of these UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (b) : The animals excreting urea are called ureotelic. Example include cartilaginous fish, few bony fishes, adult amphibian and mammal including humans.An ammonotelic organism excretes nitrogenous waste as soluble ammonia, Example- Most of the aquatic animals including protozoans, crustaceans, Platyhelminths, cnidarians, poriferans, echinoderms, fishes, larvae of amphibians. The species that excrete uric acid waste are called uricotelic organisms Examples - terrestrial arthropods (including insects) lizards, snakes and birds. 11. Podocyte cells are found in : (a) Kidney (b) Testis (c) Pancreas (d) Ovary UPPCS Pre 2004 PGT Biology 2009 RPSC PGT Biology 2011 RPSC School Lecturer 2011

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (a) : Podocytes cells are found in kidney. It is 15. Which one of the following foetal membranes functions as embryonic urinary bladder ? found in glomerulus (kidney) that wrap around capillaries and the neighbour cells of the Bowman's (a) Allantois (b) Yolk sac capsule. Podocytes play an active role in preventing (c) Amnion (d) Chorion plasma proteins from entering the urinary ultra filtrate UP PGT 2016 by providing a barrier comprising filtration slits between foot processes, which in aggregate represents a Ans. (a) The embryonic membrane called allantois dynamic network of cellular extensions. performs the function of embryonic urinary bladder and embryonic respiratory organ. The yolk sac protects, maintains digestion and absorption of the yolk in its proper condition thus it is the primary part of the nutrition of the fetus. The chorion is the outer membrane of the embryo that helps in the formation of the placenta. The Chorion Serve for respiration along with the allantois. Amnion relieves dehydration by providing a water source around the fetus and the amnion fluid acts as a protective cushion. 16. Glucose reabsorption occurs in the : (a) Proximal tubule (b) Loop of Henle (c) Distal tubule (d) Medullary collecting duct UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 12. Podocytes are : Ans. (a) : Glucose reabsorption occurs in the proximal (a) cells of bone marrow tubule. Tubular reabsorption is the process by which (b) blood corpuscles of insects water, electrolytes and other substances are transported (c) found in gall bladder of mammals from renal tubules back to the blood. It is also known as (d) epithelial cells of Bowman's capsule selective reabsorption because the tubular cells UPPCS Pre 1994 reabsorbs only the essential substances such as glucose, amino acids and vitamins. Substances reabsorbed from Ans. (d) : Podocytes are cell in the Bowman's capsule proximal convoluted Tubule (PCT) are glucose, amino in the kidneys that wrap around capillaries of the acids, Na, K, Ca, Bicarbonates, Chlorides, Phosphates, glomerulus. The Bowman's capsule filters the blood, urea, uric acid and H2O. retaining large molecules such as proteins while smaller molecules such as water, salts and sugars are 17. Malpighian tubules are meant for : filtered as the first step in the formation of urine. (a) Respiration (b) Digestion 13. Podocytes are found in : (c) Reproduction (d) Excretion (a) Ascon canal system (b) Sycon canal system UPPCS Pre 1994 (c) Leucon canal system (d) None of the above Ans. (d) : The Malpighian tubule system is a type of UPPCS Pre 2009 excretory and osmoregulatory system found in some Ans. (d) : Podocytes is found in the kidney Bowman's insects, myriapods, arachnids, and tardigrades. capsule is a cup-like structure which is the layer of Malpighian tubules branch off from the intestinal tract squamous epithelium, it is made up of podocyte cell on and actively uptake nitrogenous wastes and water the inside. The ascon type canal system is found in from the hemolymph (circulating fluid). Leucosolenia, sycon type canal system is found in 18. Podocytes are found in : Scypha and the Leucon type canal system is found in spongilla. (a) Porifera (b) Ctenophora (c) Mammalia (d) Echinodermata 14. How much urea is excreted by a healthy person per day ? UPPCS Pre 2001 (a) 100 gm (b) 120 gm Ans. (c) : Podocytes are cell found in the bowmans (c) 40 gm (d) 80 gm capsule of the kidney of mammals and it help in RPSC PGT Biology 2011 excretion. RPSC School Lecturer 2011 19. In insects uric acid and urates are stored in : Ans. (c) : On an average, 30-40 gm of urea is excreted (a) cells of the distal part of Malpighian tubules out per day. (b) cells of the proximal part of Malpighian The urea and water are released from the liver cells to tubules the blood stream and transported to the kidneys where (c) fat bodies the blood is filtered and the urea is passed out of the (d) corpora cardiaca body in the urine. An ordinary human excrete urine 1.5 liters a day, the pH of urive is 6.0. UPPCS Pre 1994 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (c) : Fat bodies contribute to the insect's excretory system. These consist of groups of cells distributed throughout the insect's body. They primarily store glycogen & fat and are also involved in the uric acid synthesis. The fat body has some specialized cells called the Urate cells which stores Uric acid during the life of the insect. Thereby In insects, uric acid is temporarily stored in the fat bodies. 20. Consider the following statements : Assertion (A) : In descending loop of henle, the filtrate is hypertonic while in ascending loop the filtrate is hypotonic. Reason (R) : Descending loop is impermeable to Na+ while ascending loop is impermeable to water. Select the correct answer using the codes given below : Codes : (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (b) (A) and (R) both are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A). (c) (A) is true but (R) is false. (d) (A) is false but (R) is true. UPPCS Pre 2007 Ans. (a) : (A) : In descending loop of henle, the filtrate is hypertonic while in ascending loop the filtrate is hypotonic. (R) : Descending loop is impermeable to Na+ while ascending loop is impermeable to water. A and R both are correct R is the correct explanation of A. 21. Which one of the following is not an intermediate product in the biosynthesis of Urea : (a) Arginine (b) Argininosuccinate (c) N-acctyl glutamate (d) Citrulline UPPCS Pre 2000 Ans. (c) : N-acctyl glutamate is not an intermediate product in the biosynthesis of urea. The urea cycle is a cycle of biochemical reactions that produces urea from ammonia. In the mitochondrial stage of urea cycle, carbamoyl phosphate is formed from ammonia and bicarbonate, by carbamoyl phosphate synthetase (CPS). Ornithine transcarbamoylase (OTC) condenses carbamoyl phosphate and ornithine to form citrulline. In the cytosolic stage of urea cycle, orginiosuccinate synthetase (As) condenses citrulline and aspartate to form argininosuccinate. Argininosuccinate is broken down into arginine and fumarate by argininasuccinate lyase (AL). Arginine is broken down into urea and ornithine by arginase. 22. The loop of Henle is found in the kidneys of : (a) Fishes and birds (b) Amphibians and mammals (c) Birds and mammals (d) Fishes and mammals UPPCS Pre 2000 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (c) : The loop of Henle is found in the kidneys of birds and mammals. Birds are only group of vertebrates other than mammals that have capability of elaborating a urine more concentrated than plasma. The main function of loop of henle is to the recovery of water and sodium chloride from urine. 23. Which one of the following metabolic wastes does not require ATP for its excretion : (a) Uric acid (b) Urea (c) Guanine (d) Ammonia UPPCS Pre 2000 Ans. (a) : Uric acid is a metabolic wastes. That it does not require ATP in the excretion. Uric acid is also less toxic than ammonia or urea. Only a small amount of water is needed for its excretion. Birds, reptiles and most terrestrial arthropods, such as insects are uricotelic. 24. Which one of the following organs of vertebrates contain mesangial cells : (a) Brain (b) Kidney (c) Ovary (d) Testis UPPCS Pre 2000 GIC Biology 15/09/2015 Ans. (b) : In the glomerulus of the kidney, the mesangium is a structure associated with the capillaries. It is continuous with the smooth muscles of arterioles. Mesangial cells lie close to the capillary lumen and play an important role in glomerular hemodynamics and immune complex clearance. 25. In 24 hours the filtrate in human kidney is approximately : (a) 5.0 litres (b) 1.8 litres (c) 18.0 litres (d) 180.0 litres UPPCS Pre 2002 Ans. (d) : In 24 hours, the filtrate in human kidney is approximately 180.0 litre. The water and salts that are forced out of the glomerular capillaries, pass into the Bowman's capsule and is called the glomerular filtrate. 26. Mammalian kidneys serve to excrete : (a) excess salts, urea and excess water (b) excess salts, water and amino acids (c) excess water, urea and amino acids (d) none of these TGT Biology 2010 Ans. (a) : The main function of kidney in mammals is to excrete excessive salt, water and Urea. The main excretory organ in human is a paired kidney which is well adapted to remove the excretory material in the blood structure as well as retain the beneficial element in the blood. The nephron is the functional unit of kidney. The nephrons control the chemical composition of the blood. 27. Renin, which is a part of RAAS system is secreted from(a) liver (b) JGA apparatus (c) DCT (d) Spleen PGT Biology 2011

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (b) : Renin is the part of RAAS system that is 30. The synthesis of urea in liver takes place by : secreted from the JG cell. The juxtaglomerular (a) Ornithine cycle (b) Nitrogen cycle apparatus (JGA) is a specialized structure formed by the (c) Krebs cycle (d) Glycolysis distal convoluted tubule and the glomerular afferent TGT Biology 2005 arteriole. Renin catalyzes the conversion of a plasma Ans. (a) : Synthesis of Urea in the liver take place protein called angiotensinogen into a decapeptide through the ornithine cycle. The liver breaks down (consisting of 10 amino acids) called angiotensin I. protein and amino acid into ammonia, which is then 28. Urea is produced by which enzyme? converted into urea. (a) Urease (b) Glutaminase 31. Urea is produced by : (c) Arginase (d) Aspartase (a) Krebs cycle (b) Ornithine cycle UPPCS Pre 1998 (c) Calvin cycle (d) Nitrogen cycle UPPCS Pre 2005 UPPCS Pre 2008 Ans. (b) : The urea cycle, also known as the ornithine Ans. (c) : Urea is produced by the liver through urea cycle is found in the liver, In which urea is formed by cycle. It starts with the condensation of ammonium ion deamination of amino acid. with bicarbonate ion which results the formation of carbamoyl phosphate in the presence of enzyme 32. The organ in human body where urea is carbamoyl phosphate synthase. Carbamoyl phosphate synthesised is : combines with ornithine to form citrulline in presence (a) kidney (b) liver of enzyme citrulline synthase or ornithine (c) spleen (d) pancreas transcarbamoylase. Citrulline diffuses into the cytosol. UPPCS Pre 1999 Citrulline combines with the amino acid aspartate and Ans. (b) : Urea synthesized in liver through a cycle argininosuccinate catalyzed by the enzyme called ornithine cycle. argininosuccinate synthase. The enzyme Ornithine cycle removes two waste products from the argininosuccinase acts reversibly to cleave blood in liver, these are NH3 and CO2. argininosuccinate into arginine and fumarate. Arginine is lysed into ornithine and urea under the influence of the enzyme arginase.

33.

Production of urea is a result of : (a) Kreb's cycle (b) Calvin's cycle (c) Ornithine cycle (d) Nitrogen cycle UPPCS Pre 2006 Ans. (c) : Urea produce in Ornithine cycle in the presence of Arginase enzyme. Ornithine cycle found in liver. Citric Acid is formed in Kreb's cycle by combination of oxaloacetic acid and acetyl CoA in the presence of citrate synthase. Calvin cycle take place in plant also called dark reaction or Blackman reaction. Nitrogen cycle-Atmosphere nitrogen fixed in the form of nitrate. 29. Urea formation take place in which organ of body 34. The part of the nephron impermeable to water is : (a) kidney (b) liver (a) proximal tubule (c) lungs (d) large intestine (b) distal tubule UPPCS Pre 2003 (c) collecting duct PGT Biology 2013 (d) ascending limb of Henle's loop Ans. (b) : The chemical formula of Urea is UPPCS Pre 1997 NH2CONH2. Urea is produced in the liver by ornithine Ans. (d) : Ascending limb of loop of Henle is cycle or Urea cycle. In this cycle ammonia and CO2 impermeable to water and permeable for ions. It is U react with each other resulting in the formation of Urea, Shaped Structure Connecting Proximal convoluted some amino acids such as citrulline and ornithine are tubule to the distal tubule parallel to the collecting formed in this cycle. Liver cell synthesize Urea with the duct. The ascending limb does not reabsorb water, help of enzyme like arginase urease etc. This Urea is rather sodium, potassium, magnesium and chloride are excreted by the kidneys from the blood along with reabsorbed and therefore the filtrate becomes Urine. hypotonic to blood plasma. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 35.

Kidneys are vital organs of the body because they help in : (a) regulation of body fluids (b) regulation acid base balance (c) removal of metabolic wastes (d) all the above functions UPPCS Pre 1997 TGT Biology 2009 Ans. (d) : Kidney is not only excretory in function but also homeostatic organ means regulation of temperature of body and acid-base balance. Removal of nitrogenous or metabolic waste is also done by kidney. 36. A series of reactions resulting in the production of Urea are included in the : (a) Kreb's cycle (b) Calvin's cycle (c) Ornithine cycle (d) Nitrogen cycle UPPCS Pre 2004 Ans. (c) : A series of reactions for urea formation is called as Ornithine cycle or urea cycle. The urea cycle is a cycle of biochemical reactions that produces urea (NH2)2CO from ammonia. This cycle occurs in ureotelic organisms. The urea cycle converts highly toxic ammonia to urea for excretion. This cycle was the first metabolic cycle to be discovered five years before the discovery of the TCA cycle. 37. The yellow colour of urine of vertebrates is because of : (a) Cholesterol (b) Urochrome (c) Uric acid (d) Melanin UPPCS Pre 2004 Ans. (b) : The yellow colour of urine of vertebrates is because of urochrome. This Pigment is derived from the break down of haemoglobin. Urochrome and the degradation product of bilirubin (urobilin) make urine yellow coloured. 38. Na+ ions are actively expelled from the Henle's loop in the kidney of mammals in the region of : (a) Ascending limb of Henle's loop (b) Descending limb of Henle's loop (c) Collecting duct (d) Distal tubule UPPCS Pre 1996 + Ans. (a) : Na ions expelled from ascending limb of loop of Henle. 99% of water reabsorbed in loop of Henle. Na+ ion reabsorbed in proximal convoluted tubules. The ascending limb of the loop of Henle is a direct continuation from the descending limb of loop of Henle and one of the structure in the nephron of the kidney. 39. Metanephric kidneys are found in : (a) Reptiles only (b) Birds only (c) Mammals only (d) Reptiles, birds and mammals UPPCS Pre 1995 UPPCS Pre 1996 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (d) : This is the third type of kidney. The embryonic mesonephros is replaced by metanephric which is highly organised and branched with one extra segment loop of Henle So reptile, Bird and mammals use metanephric kidney. 40. What kind of kidney is found in fishes : (a) Pronephros (b) Mesonephros (c) Metanephros (d) Pronephros and Metanephros UPPCS Pre 1995 Ans. (b) : Kidney found in fish is mesonephric kidney. Pronephric kidney found in Tadpole larva and metanephric kidney type found in Reptile, bird and mammals. 41. Cloaca is found in : (a) Frog (b) Lizard (c) echidna (d) all the above UPPCS (Pre) 1999 Ans. (d) : Frog-Lizard and echidna all have cloaca. But anus is absent. Cloaca possess both function excretion and reproduction. Cloaca is a common chamber and outlet into which the intestinal, urinary and genital tracts open. It is present in amphibians, reptiles, birds, elasmobranch fishes and monotremes. 42. Fluid with in the loop of Henle is most concentrated in the : (a) ascending limb (b) descending limb (c) hair pin bend (d) bend between the ascending limb and the distal tubule UPPCS Pre 1999 Ans. (c) : Loop of henle is long in mammals and birds which secrete hyperosmotic urine. Fluid within the loop of Henle is most concentrated in the hair pin bend. The descending limb of the loop of Henle is permeable to water but almost impermeable to electrolytes. This concentrates the filtrate as it moves down. The ascending limb is Impermeable to water but allows transport of electrolytes actively or passively. Therefore as the concentrated filtrate pass upward, it gets dilute due to the passage of electrolytes. Thus, the filterate is maximum concentrated in the hairpin bend between descending and ascending limb. 43. Green gland is the excretory organ of : (a) mollusca (b) urochordata (c) cephalochordate (d) crustacea UPPCS Pre 1999 Ans. (d) : In crustacean excretory organs are green glands. It is present in the coxa of each antenna. Major excretory product is uric acid. These glands have characteristic green due to which they are called green glands. Each green gland is made up of a sac, labyrinth and bladder.

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Cockroach is : (a) aminotelic (c) uricotelic

(b) ammonotelic (d) ureotelic UPPCS Pre 1998 Ans. (c) : Animal which excrete uric acid are called uricotelic. Its excretion not need water So cockroach is uricotelic. Cockroaches are reptile insects. Excretion is performed by malpighian tubules. Uric acid is excreted out through hindgut. 45. The ascending limb of the loop of Henle is permeable to : (a) glucose (b) ammonia (c) potassium (d) water UPPCS Pre 1998 Ans. (c) : Ascending limb of Henle is loop actively reabsorbs the remaining 25% of the filtered K+ and some amounts of cl–. But no water is reabsorbed with solutes because the ascending limb is impermeable to water. 46. Which one of the following contains the maximum amount of nitrogen : (a) Ammonia (b) Guanine (c) Urea (d) Uric acid UPPCS Pre 1998 Ans. (c) : Urea (NH2CONH2) contain maximum amount of Nitrogen – 46%. In mammals Urea formed in liver through ornithine cycle.

47.

Solenocytes are associated with : (a) nutrition (b) respiration (c) reproduction (d) excretion UPPCS Pre 2005 Ans. (d) : Solenocytes are also called flame cell or protonephridia. This association is found in the animal of Platyhelminthes. Its main function is excretion Example-Taenia fasciola, Schistosoma. 48. If a person has consumed a large amount of meat, his urine will eliminate greater amount of (a) Ceratine (b) Urea (c) Sodium chloride (d) Amino acid UPPCS Pre 2009 UPPCS Pre 2010 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (b) : If a person consumes meat in large quantities, then a large amount of Urea comes out through his urine. Meat is a rich source of protein. The end product of protein metabolism (transamination and deamination) is ammonia. This ammonia is toxic to the body, so it is detoxified in the liver and converted into urea (by the ornithine cycle), which is then excreted in the urine. 49. Accumulation of breakdown products of protein metabolism in the blood is called : (a) Anuria (b) Oliguria (c) Uremia (d) Renal tubular acidosis UPPCS Pre 2009 Ans. (d) : In the blood, during protein metabolism, the accumulation of waste is called renal tubular acidosis. Anuria is sometime called anuresis. It Occurs in the case of Non-functioning of Kidney. Renal tubular acidosis (RTA) occurs when the kidneys do not remove acids from the blood into the urine as they should. So the acid level in the blood becomes too high. 50. Brush border is found in : (a) Proximal convoluted tubule (b) collecting tubule (c) distal convoluted tubule (d) none of the above UPPCS Pre 2009 PGT Biology 2009 Ans. (a) : The brush border is found in the proximal convoluted tubule. This brush border increase the area of the proximal convoluted tubule. Absorbs 65% to 80% of its cell filtrate. Brush border is a stria of microvilli on the plasma membrane of an epithelial cell (as in a kidney tubule) that is specialized for absorption. 51. Which one of the following is ureotelic ? (a) Sharks (b) Teleosts (c) Protozoans (d) Annelids UPPCS Pre 2009 Ans. (d) : Excretion in annelida is Ureotelic. Ureotelic are those animals which excrete Urea e.g. annelida, adult amphibians and mammals. Ammonotelic – The main excretory substance in these animal is ammonia Ex-Some fishes, some crustaceans and some protozoa etc. Uricotelic – The main excretory substance in these animals is Uric Acid. Example all reptile (lizard and snakes) and bird etc. 52. Which of the following is the excretory organ in a fresh water mussel : (a) Organ of Bojanus (b) Organ of Cord (c) Organ of Henle (d) Organ of Cuvier UPPCS Pre 1994 Ans. (a) : Excretory organs are a pair of kidneys collectively known as organ of Bojanus that lies below the pericardial cavity. Organs of Bojanus are the excretory organs present in the animal of phylum Mollusca. These are metanephridia of molluscs.

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The process of tubular reabsorption from the nephron may– (a) Be passive (b) Be active (c) Involves camer molecules (d) A and C Delhi SSB PGT Biology 2015 Ans. (b) : The nephron is made up of a connective tissue that is the structural and functional unit of the kidney. It is divided into four part (1) Bowman's capsule (2) Proximal convoluted tubule (3) Loop of henle (4) Distal helix tube. These structure often reabsorbs glomerular filtration, which requires Na+, ATP. So this action is an active action. 54. Phenylketonuria disease shows : (a) accumulation of phenylalanine in tissues (b) less amount of phenylalanine in tissue (c) discharge of sugar in urine (d) accumulation of sugar in tissues UPPCS Pre 1994 Ans. (a) : Phenylketonuria was discovered by the Norwegian physician Ivar Asbjorn Folling in 1934. PKU results when there is a deficiency of the liver enzyme that converts phenylalanine into tyrosine. Increased phenylalanine in the blood interferes with brain development, the muscles and cartilages of the legs may be defective and the patients cannot walk properly. 55. Uricotelic animals excrete which of the following in their urine ? (a) Uric acid (b) Urea (c) Ammonia (d) None of the above UPPCS Pre 2010 Ans. (a) : The animal which mainly excretes Uric acid is called Uricotelic Example are reptiles (lizard and Snakes) and bird etc. Urea excreting animals is called ureotelic. Example-Frog mammals etc. Animal in which ammonia is the main excretory substance are called ammonotelic eg. Some fishes, some crustaceans and Protozoa. 56. Glomerular filtrate will not contain normally : (a) Glucose (b) Sodium chloride (c) Creatinine (d) Albumin TGT Biology 2013 Ans. (d) : Glomerular filtrate normally does not contain albumin. Glomerular filteration involves filteration of amino acid, Urea, Glucose, Uric acid water etc. Whereas Sodium filtration take place in the proximal Convoluted tubules. Although it contains amino acids, Albumin is not normally present in urines if kidneys are functioning properly. If protein Albumin is detected in the urine it indicates malfunctioning of kidneys. 57. The reabsorption of Na+ and water together occurs in : (a) Bowman capsule (b) PCT (c) DCT (d) Ascending limb of Henle's loop TGT Biology 2011 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (c) : The nephron is the structural and functional unit of the kidney. A nephron is divided into the following regions. Bowman's capsule - The first step of urine formation is filtration which is done by glomerulus present in bowman's capsule. Proximal convoluted tubule (PCT)-Nearly all the essential nutrients and 70%-80% of electrolytes and water are reabsorbed by PCT. Loop of Henle-This hairpin-like loop has a descending limb, followed by an ascending limb. Distal convoluted tubule (DCT)- The DCT of different nephrons opens into a straight tube called a collecting duct. In the presence of aldosterone hormone in DCT salt (Na+) are reabsorbed actively. Due to the presence of ADH in DCT water is reabsorbed passively. Thereby Conditional reabsorption of Na+ and water takes place in DCT. Na+ - K+ exchange pump involves : (a) Diffusion (b) Deplasmolysis (c) Osmosis (d) Active transport Delhi SSB PGT Biology 2015 Ans. (d) : The Na+ - K+ exchange pump mainly Occurs in the convoluted tubule of the kidney. This process is active because energy is require for its absorption and movement. By active movement the ions go back into the blood.

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59.

Number of uriniferous tubules in man are about : (a) 1 million (b) 2.4 million (c) 5.4 million (d) None of these TGT Biology 2011 Ans. (a) : The number of Uriniferous tubules in human is about 1 million. The main tissue of each kidney i.e. parenchyma is a complex and solid mass of about one million long fine and highly coiled tubules, Which are called renal tubules or nephrocytes. They are intertwined in a small amount of Connective tissue. They are the Structural and functional Unit of the kidney, therefore Urine is formed in them in which the excretory substance remain dissolved. Each kidney contain 1.25 million quiescent tubules called Ureteric tubule, these are also called nephrons.

60.

Main excretory product in birds and reptiles is: (a) Urea (b) Uric acid (c) Ammonia (d) Guanine TGT Biology 2010 Ans. (b) : The main excretory substance in bird and reptiles is Uric acid. Ammonotelic, the main excretory substance in these animal is ammonia Ex- some fish. Some Crustaceans and some Protozoa. Uricotelic, the main excretory substance in these animal is Uric acid. Ex-reptiles (lizard and snake) and bird etc. Ureotelic the main excretory substance in these animal is Urea for ex-frog, mammals etc.

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Flame cells are : (a) Reproductive (c) Sensory

64.

(b) Excretory (d) Inflammatory TGT Biology 2009 TGT Biology 2010 Ans. (b) : Flame cell act as excretory organ which is the main feature of class platyhelminthes. Renette cell – Aschelminthes Nephridia – Annelida Keber's organs – Mollusca Malpighian tubules – Arthropoda Coxal gland – Crustacean Chloragogen cell – Earthworm

TGT Biology 2002 Ans. (b) : The Ultrafiltration is contained in the glomerulus, a cell found the bowmans capsule and the process of filtration take place in the glomerulus. Every minute about one liter of blood contain 500 ml of plasma flow through these glomerulus filtration about 100 ml (10%) of it. The diameter of the afferent arteriole is greater than that of the afferent arteriole. That's why the blood pressure in the glomerulus increases. due to which the filtration process take place at this high pressure. The process of filtration under high pressure is called ultrafiltration. 65.

Filtration pressure in human kidneys is about : (a) 15 mm Hg (b) 75 mm Hg (c) 45 mm Hg (d) None of these TGT Biology 2005 Ans. (a) : Filtration pressure in human kidneys is about 15 mm Hg. Effective filtration pressure that causes glomerular filtration is determined by three pressure (1) glomerular hydrostatic pressure (2) colloid osmotic pressure of blood and (3) capsular hydrostatic pressure. EFP = GHP – (BCOP + CHP) = 60 – (32 + 18) So the EFP is about 15 mm Hg. 63. The conversion of protein waste, the ammonia into urea occurs mainly in : (a) kidney (b) lungs (c) liver (d) intestine TGT Biology 2004 Ans. (c) : The conversion of protein waste ammonia into urea take place in the liver which is called the ornithine cycle or Urea cycle. In the liver cell, Nonessential amino acid are broken down in the presence of oxygen. This action is called oxidative deamination. Ammonia is formed in this as two molecule of alanine combine with one molecule of oxygen to form two molecule of ammonia and pyruvic acid latter pyruvic acid reach the krebs cycle and produce energy. Other type of organic reaction can be converted into fatty acid, glycogen etc. Apart from this ammonia and CO2 combine in ornithine cycle.

Uric acid is excreted by : (a) pigeon (b) frog (c) rabbit (d) man PGT Biology 2013

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TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ultrafiltration occurs in : (a) Blood capillaries (b) Bowman's capsule (c) Tissue fluid (d) Henle's loop

Ans. (a) : In Animal mainly three major nitrogenous wastes emit for example Uric acid, ammonia and Urea. Animal that excrete Uric acid are called Uricotelic animal such as insects, Moth. desert dwellers, snakes birds etc. In these excretory substance in the form of Uric acid and Urates, the body conserves water. 66.

Osmotic pressure of blood is mainly due to : (a) O2 (b) CO2 (c) Urea (d) various proteins PGT Biology 2013

Ans. (d) : The osmotic pressure of blood is mainly due to the various protein that are present in the blood plasma, albumin, globulin and other protein are retained in the water and maintained the osmotic pressure. The blood plasma of earthworm is soluble blood is liquid connective tissue. 67.

Kidney stones are crystals of : (a) Silica (b) Sodium chloride (c) calcium oxalate (d) calcium carbonate PGT Biology 2010 Ans. (c) : Kidney stone are formed by the precipitation of calcium oxalate crystal. Uric acid and accumulation of oxalate crystal, these crystal block the renal tubules. There is a lot of pain in coming down in the Urinary vessels and the Urinary vessels also get blocked.

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The snakes living in deserts are mainly : (a) Aminotelic (b) Ureotelic (c) Ammonotelic (d) Uricotelic PGT Biology 2010 Ans. (d) : Snakes found in the desert are mainly Uricotelic. Classification of animals on the basis of excretory substance. (i) Ammonotelic – The main excretory substance in these animal is ammonia example are some fish, Crustacea and some protozoa etc. (ii) Uricotelic – The main excretory substance in these animal is Uric acid Example are reptile (lizards and snakes) and bird etc. (iii) Ureotelic – The main excretory in these animal is Urea for example- frog, mammals etc.

71.

Uric acid is chief nitrogenous waste in : (a) Insects (b) Birds (c) Both insects and birds (d) Amphibians PGT Biology 2005 Ans. (c) : Uric acid is the main nitrogenous excretory substance of insects and bird. * The main excretory substance in ammonotelic animal is ammonia. Example some fish, some crustaceans and some protozoa. * Uricotelic - the main excretory substance in these animal is Uric acid, example are reptile (lizards and snake) and bird etc. * Ureotelic- The main excretory substance in these animal is Urea Example- frogs mammals etc.

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Excretory system in Phylum Arthropoda is : (a) by Nephridia 69. Functional unit of kidney is : (b) by Green Glands (a) Neuron (c) by Kidneys (b) Nephron (d) None of these (c) Glomerulus PGT Biology 2009 (d) Pelvis Ans. (b) : Excretion in phylum arthropoda is done by PGT Biology 2010 green gland. Ans. (b) : The functional unit of the kidney is the Flame cell – Platyhelminthes Nephron. Renette cell – Aschelminthes The removal of all excretory substance from the blood Nephridia – Annelida and the retention of essential nutrient in the blood, both Mollusca (Unio) these function are performed by Nephrons with in the Keber's organ – insect (Arthropoda) kidneys. Excretory substance are removed from the Malpighian tube – blood in two step. (A) Filtration (B) Reabsorption Coxal gland – Prawn Chloragogen cell – Earthworm 73.

Trimethylamine oxide (TMO) is excreted by : (a) Marine fishes (b) Spiders (c) Butterfly (d) Marine birds UPPCS Pre 2001

Ans. (a) : Trimethylamine oxide (TMO) is excreted by marine fish. * Guanine is secreted by spiders. * Uric acid is excreted by birds and butterflies.

70.

Which contains lessquantity of urea ? (a) Pulmonary veins 74. In human beings the capsular urine entering the (b) Renal artery proximal convoluted tubule is : (c) Hepatic portal veins (a) Isotonic to blood (d) Renal veins (b) Hypotonic to blood PGT Biology 2009 (c) Hypertonic to blood Ans. (d) : The lowest amount of Urea is found in the (d) Isotonic to sea water renal vein and the highest amount of Urea is found in UPPCS Pre 1996 the hepatic vein in the liver. Urea produced by the Ans. (a) : When urine enter the proximal convoluted ornithine cycle passes from the liver to the kidney + tubule from capsule, urine is isotonic, Na reabsorbed through the hepatic vein. Therefore the amount of Urea through active transport, when Urine reaches in the is high in the hepatic vein and the least amount of Urea loop of Henle it become Hypotonic. in the renal vein.

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Renal portal system is absent in 79. (a) frog (b) rabbit (c) lizard (d) reptile LT Biology 2018

Kidney tubules originate from : (a) Ectoderm (b) Mesoderm (c) Endoderm (d) None of the above LT Biology 2015

Ans. (b) : The renal portal system is absent in mammals whereas present frog, lizards and reptile. Blood from the posterior part of the body flows into the renal portal veins, which pass into the caudal vena cava. 76.

Ans. (b) : Kidney tubules originate from mesoderm. Intermediate mesoderm forms the kidneys, ureters and the vasculature. Human kidney development begins as The percent of glucose present in normal urine early as the third week of embryonic development, with formation of the pronephros, followed by the is : mesonephros at 4 weeks and the metanephros at 5 (a) 0.1% weeks gestation. The development of the urinary system (b) 2% involves the transient formation and remodeling of the (c) 95% intermediate mesoderm. (d) 0% LT Biology 2015 80. Loss of large quantities of plasma proteins with

Ans. (a) : The percentage of glucose in normal Urine is 0.1%. Urine contain about 95% water, the most important nitrogenous organic substance presents in Urine are urea, Uric acid and creatine and other organic substances include oxalic acid and lactic acid. The major constituent in Urine are sodium chloride, potassium chloride, sulphate and phosphate. 77.

Excretory product of spider is : (a) Ammonia (b) Uric acid (c) Urea (d) Guanine LT Biology 2015

urine is known as : (a) Down's syndrome (b) Diabetes insipidus (c) Ketonuria (d) Nephrotic syndrome PGT Biology 2004 Ans. (d) : Loss of large quantities of plasma proteins with urine is known as nephrotic syndrome. It causes scarring or damage to the filtering part of the kidneys (glomeruli), which causes too much protein to be lost from the blood into the urine. The condition causes swelling, particularly in the feet and ankles, infection, and increases the risk of other health problems.

Ans. (d) : The excretory substance of spider is guanine it is insoluble in water. Compounds of carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen and oxygen are found in it. Arachnids like scorpions and spiders excrete their waste 81. product in the form of guanine. Hence, they are said to be guanotelic. 78.

In human body, the salt is eliminated mainly by (a) liver (b) Kidney (c) skin (d) blood LT Biology 2015

Ans. (b) : The salt in the human body are mainly released from kidney. Increasing salt intake increased sodium excretion, but also caused the kidney to conserve water. Excess sodium was thus released in concentrated urine. Excess water, electrolytes and wastes are transported to the kidneys and excreted, helping to maintain osmotic balance. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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The normal brownish colour of faeces results from the presence of the following : (a) stercobilin (b) mesobilirubin (c) urobilinogen (d) biliverdin UPPCS Pre 1995

Ans. (a) : Brownish colour of faeces result from the presence of Stercobilin. Biliverdin is present in the bile juice. It is excretory product derived by the disintegration of haemoglobin of the dead RBCs. Stercobilin is a tetrapyrrolic bile pigment and product of heme catabolism. YCT

Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 12. Nerve Conduction 1.

Node of Ranvier are found on : (a) Cyton (b) Axon (c) Dendrite (d) Synapse TGT 07/08/2021 Ans. (b) : Nodes of Ranvier are found in axon. Node of Ranvier is the microscopic gap between the glial cells of myelin sheath. Nodes of Ranvier are commonly known to be the non-myelinated areas of the myelinated nerve fibre. The node of Ranvier will be for sure interrupting the insulation at intervals, and due to this discontinuity, the impulses have to jump from one node to another node in a process that is commonly known as saltatory conduction.

2.

Ranvier's nodes are found in : (a) Cardiac muscle fibre (b) Striated muscle fibre (c) Medullated nerve fibre (d) Non-medullated nerve fibre

UPPCS Pre 1996 Ans. (c) : Node of Ranvier's found in medullated nerve fibre. It is periodic gap in the myelin on the axon of certain neurons that serves to facilitate the rapid conduction of nerve impulses called saltatory conduction. 3. The parasympathetic nervous system does not (a) Slow heart beat (b) Constrict bronchioles (c) Stimulate salivary secretion (d) Stimulate peristalsis TGT 07/08/2021 Ans. (b) : The parasympathetic nervous system does not constrict bronchioles. The parasympathetic nervous system decreases respiration and heart rate and increases digestion. Stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system results in the constriction of pupils, decreased heart rate and blood pressure. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

4.

The special neurosensory mechanism that releases the behaviour in response to sign stimulus is called (a) Innate releasing mechanism (b) Action specific energy (c) Instinct (d) Memory RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) Ans. (a) : The special neurosensory mechanism that releases the behaviour in response to sign stimulus is called Innate Releasing Mechanism (IRM). An IRM has stimulus recognition and localization properties at its input side and behaviour- releasing properties at its output side. It is an important concept in ethology (study of animal behaviour). It results in the production of fixed action pattern (FAP). 5. The nervous system develops from which germinal layer ? (a) Ectoderm (b) Mesoderm (c) Endoderm (d) None of these UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (a) : The nervous system develops from ectoderm. Following fertilisation the nervous system begins to form in the 3rd week of development. Gastrulation leads to the formation of three germ layers, ectoderm (outer), mesoderm (middle) and endoderm (inner). The ectoderm develops into the surface ectoderm, neural crest and the neural tube. The neural tube of ectoderm develops into brain and spinal cord. After gastrulation, the embryo goes through a process called neurulation which starts the development of nervous system. 6. Which part of brain is associated with regulation of sexual behaviour and expression of emotional reactions? (a) Cerebrum (b) Corpora quadrigemina (c) Pons (d) Hypothalamus RPSC School Lecturer (23/07/2016) Ans. (d) : The part of the brain which is involved in the regulation of sexual behavior, expression of emotional reaction (eg. excitement, pleasure, rage, fear and motivation) is hypothalamus. Hypothalamus is a very small portion of brain which is situated at the base of the brain. It is present near the pituitary gland. It plays various important role in our body. It helps in regulating sexual behavior as well as expressing and controlling various emotional response like fear, excitement etc. This part also regulates our body temperature.

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Which part of brain is associated with regulation of sexual behaviour and expression of emotional reactions? (a) Corpora quadrigemina(b) Cerebrum (c) Pons (d) Hypothalamus Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2015 Ans. (d) : Hypothalamus is a part of the forebrain which controls sexual behavior, affective action motivation etc. Four enlarged circular chamber of the middle brain are called corpora quadrigemina. The pons is a thin thread like structure that connect different part of brain. The brain controls the thinking understanding, love etc. 8. Brain originates from (a) Ectoderm (b) Mesoderm (c) Endoderm (d) Ectomesoderm PGT Biology 2010 Bihar PGT 2019 Ans. (a) : The origin of the brain is made by the exogenous layer (Ectoderm). It is located in the cranium of skull. In frog, the brain and spinal cord are surrounded by two meninges and in mammals, cerebrospinal fluid is found in and around the brain and spinal cord. In meningitis, the meninges becomes infected resulting in headache, vomiting, pain etc. 9. Breathing in humans is controlled by : (a) lungs (b) trachea (c) medulla oblongata (d) ribs UPPCS Pre 2006 Ans. (c) : Medulla oblongata present in the hindest part of the hind brain. It controls involuntary action such as respiration, digestion, circulation and excretion. Breathing in humans is controlled by medulla oblongata. 10. Blind-spot in human eye is located : (a) in fovea centralis (b) in middle of the lens (c) where optic nerve leave the retina (d) in center of the pupil UPPCS Pre 2004, 2006 Ans. (c) : Blind spot in human eye is located in the spot where all the nerve fibre converge and the optic nerve passes the optic disc. There are no retinal cells present and no image is formed, so this spot is called blind spot. Fovea centralis, a spot near the blind spot known as yellow spot or macula lutea. Only cone cell are present there so brightest image formed on this spot.

TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

11.

In vertebrate eyes on blind spot– (a) There are neither rods nor cones (b) There are no cones (c) There are no rods (d) Rods and cones both present TGT Biology 2002 Ans. (a) : The eyes of vertebrates do not have both cone and rod at the blind spot. Rod give knowledge of dim light and darkness. Conversely, the cone of vision detects objects and colour in bright light. 12. In the eyes blind spot (optic disc) is called so, because : (a) It is insensitive to light (b) It is a spot at which the optic nerve leaves the retina (c) No image is formed on it (d) All of the above TGT Biology 2005 Ans. (d) : The blind spot in the eye is called so because (1) It is insensitive to light. (2) It is the spot at which the eye nerve leaves the retina. (3) It does not form an image. 13.

The region of the vertebrate eye where the optic nerve passes out of the retina is called. (a) Iris (b) Fovea (c) Optic chiasma (d) Blind spot UPPCS Pre 2010 Ans. (d) : The area of the eyes of vertebrates where the optic nerve passes outside the retina is called a blind spot. Due to absence of rods and cones, it does not participate in the vision. Hence it is called blind spot.

14.

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Which one of the following set of cranial nerve is totally motor ? (a) Olfactory, trochlear, facial (b) Oculomotor, abducens, trochlear (c) Trigeminal, vagus, glossopharyngeal (d) Facial, trigeminal, abducens UPPCS Pre 2005 UPPCS Pre 2006 Ans. (b) : (i) Olfactory (ii) Optic (iii) Oculomotor (iv) Trochlear (v) Trigeminal (vi) Abducens (vii) Facial (viii) Vestibulocochlear (Auditory) (ix) Glossopharyngeal (x) Vagus (xi) Spinal accessory (xii) Hypoglossal Note Serial number - 3, 4, 6, 11, 12 cranial nerve are motor Serial number - 1, 2, 8 cranial nerve are sensory Serial number - 5, 7, 9, 10 cranial nerve are mixed YCT

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Which one of the following cranial nerve is Ans. (a & c) : The membranous labyrinth is a mixed (sensory and motor both) ? continuous system of ducts filled with endolymph. It lies within the bony labyrinth, surrounded by (a) Oculomotor (b) Auditory perilymph. It is composed of the cochlear duct, three (c) Trochlear (d) None of the above semicircular ducts, saccule and the utricle. The UPPCS Pre 2004 cochlear duct is situated within the cochlea and is the Ans. (d) : See the explanation of the above question. organ of hearing. So, the internal ear is filled with 16. Which part of mammalian brain controls the both, endolymph and perilymph. muscular co-ordination? (a) Cerebrum (b) Cerebellum (c) Corpus Callosum (d) Medulla oblongata UPPCS Pre 2006 PGT Biology 2013 Ans. (b) : Cerebellum is the part of mammalian brain. It controls the muscular co-ordination. It is the part of hind brain. Cerebellum control equilibrium and voluntary muscular movement. Cerebrum : It is also called cerebral hemisphere, comprises of forebrain. It is associated with thought, reasoning, memory. Corpus callosum : It is a connection of two cerebral 19. Membranous structure separating the scala vestibuli and scala media of mammalian ear is hemisphere internally. called : Medulla oblongata : It is the hindest part of hind (a) Tectorial membrane (b) Otolith membrane brain. It is associated with the involuntary activities in the body like respiration, digestion. (c) Reissner's membrane (d) Basilar membrane UPPCS Pre 1994 Ans. (c) : Membranous structure separating the scala vestibuli and scala media of mammalian ear is called Reissner's membrane. Reissner's membrane (vestibular membrane) is a membrane inside the cochlea of the inner ear. Together with the basilar membrane, it creates a compartment in the cochlea filled with endolymph, which is important for the function of the organ of Corti. It functions as a diffusion barrier, allowing nutrients to travel from the perilymph to the endolymph of the membranous labyrinth. 20. Membranous Structure separating the scala vestibuli and scala media of mammalian ear is called : (a) Tectorial membrane (b) Reissner's membrane 17. The cranial nerves responsible for taste in (c) Basilar membrane (d) Tympanic membrane human beings are : UPPCS Pre 2001 (a) I and II (b) III and IV Ans. (b) : Reissner's membrane (vestibular (c) III and IX (d) IX and XII membrane) is a membrane inside the cochlea of the UPPCS Pre 1994 inner ear. It separates scala media from scala vestibuli. Ans. (d) : Together with the basilar membrane, it creates a ▪ Sensory function : formed by the cranial nerves I, compartment in the cochlea filled with endolymph, II and VIII. which is important for the function of the organ of Corti. It functions as a diffusion barrier, allowing ▪ Associated with ocular mobility and eyelids: nutrients to travel from the perilymph to the cranial nerve III, IV and VI. endolymph of the membranous labyrinth. ▪ Related to neck and tongue muscle activation: cranial nerves IX and XII. 21. Which structure separates scala vestibuli and scala media of mammalian ear? ▪ Considered mixed function : cranial pairs V, VII, IX and X. (a) Reissner membrane (b) Tectorial membrane ▪ As parasympathetic fibers : III, VII, IX and X. (c) Basilar membrane (d) Tympanic membrane UPPCS Pre 2007 18. Internal ear is filled with : (a) Endolymph (b) Aqueous humour Ans. (a) : The Reissner's membrane separate the scala vestibuli and the scala media. The basilar membrane (c) Perilymph (d) Vitreous humour UPPCS Pre 1994 separates the scala media and scala tympani. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Stimulation of sympathetic nerve of heart accelerates the heart beat due to which of the following ? (a) Release of acetylcholine (b) Inhibition of acetylcholine esterase (c) Release of noradrenaline (d) Inhibition of dopamine UPPCS Pre 2007 Ans. (c) : The sympathetic nerve secretes noradrenaline which increase the heart rate. The parasympathetic nerve secretes acetylcholine which regulates the heart rate. Catecholamines (epinephrine and norepinephrine) accelerate the heart rate. Hormone acetylcholine slows the heart rate. 23. In vertebrate brain, respiratory centres are located in : (a) hypothalamus (b) medulla oblongata (c) cerebrum (d) cerebellum UPPCS Pre 2007 Ans. (b) : The respiratory center in the vertebrate's brain is located in the medulla oblongata. Cerebrum is the centre of intelligence, consciousness and memory power. The main function of the cerebellum is to maintain the balance of the body. It controls the contraction of the voluntary muscle of the body. 24. Which pigment does help some nocturnal animals to see at night? (a) Haemoglobin (b) Porphyrin (c) Guanine (d) Heparin UPPCS Pre 2007 Ans. (c) : The choroid cell with guanine crystals forms the photoreflecting surface called tapetum lucidum. In dim light this causes the light to return from the retina and increase the excitability so nocturnal animal are able to see at night. 25. The reflex action is a function of : (a) Crebrum (b) Cerebellum (c) Spinal cord (d) Medulla oblongata UPPCS Pre 2000 Ans. (c) : Reflex action is a function of spinal cord. A receptor is stimulated when it sends a signal to the central nervous system where brain co-ordinates the report. A reflex action is an involuntary and nearly instantaneous movement in response to a stimulus. Stimulation occurs through the peripheral nervous system and the response to this peripheral nerve stimulation is involuntary. 26. Reflex action is governed by : (a) Central nervous system (b) Autonomic nervous system (c) Sympathetic nervous system (d) None of these TGT Biology 2010 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (a) : The reflex action is controlled by the spinal cord of the central nervous system. Some activities in daily life of human being take place suddenly as result of some external stimulus without take knowledge of the brain. Ex-Suddenly jumping back on seeing a snake. Here the snake acts as an external stimulus and jumping out of sight was such as involuntary action. For which the brain did not inspire. In this the delay in sending the message to the brain and considering it and giving order to the brain, the snake could have bitten the human. The work of executing such action of man immediately is done by spinal cord. 27. The occurrence of reflex action requires the existence of an intact : (a) cerebellum (b) medulla oblongata (c) spinal cord (d) optic lobes UPPCS Pre 1995 Ans. (c) : Occurrence of reflex action requires the existence of spinal cord. The spinal cord has two root dorsal root and ventral root ganglion. 28. Myelin sheath is produced by : (a) neurons (b) astrocytes (c) neurosecretory cells (d) glial cells UPPCS Pre 2008 Ans. (d) : Myelin sheath is produced by glial cells. Myelin sheath is also known as medullary sheath. It is an insulating layer which covers the axon and helps to maintain a constant membrane potential. In the central nervous system (CNS), myelin sheath is formed by glial cells called oligodendrocytes. In the peripheral nervous system (PNS), myelin sheath is formed by glial cells called schwann cells. 29. Myelin sheath covers : (a) muscle fibre (b) collagen fibre (c) tendon (d) nerve fibre UPPCS Pre 2004 Ans. (d) : Myelin sheath covers the nerve fibre called myelinated nerve fibre. Myelin surrounds an axon that is discontinuous at the node of Ranvier, and that increase the speed of nerve impulse. 30. Foramen of Monro is an aperture between (a) Diocoel and metacoel (b) Rhinocoel and diocoel (c) Lateral and third ventricle (d) Third and fourth ventricle UPPCS Pre 2002 UPPCS Pre 2008 Ans. (c) : Foramen of Monro is an opening found in the cavity of the brain. It is a crescent shaped interventricular foramina. This is an aperture which is located in the middle and lateral ventricles. They are held by the fornix and thalamus. These help to connect the lateral ventricles with the third ventricle of the brain. These apertures allow the CSF produced in the lateral ventricles to reach the third ventricle. * Rhinocoel is the cavity of the Ist ventricle, diocoel is the cavity of the IIIrd ventricle and metacoel is the cavity of the IVth ventricle.

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Aqueous humor is secreted by : (a) choroids (b) retina (c) ciliary body (d) lacrymal gland UPPCS Pre 2008

Ans. (c) : Aqueous humor is secreted through the ciliary body. The aqueous humor nourishes the cornea and lens. It is filled between the cornea and lens. Aqueous humor is the clear liquid inside the front part of the eye. It nourishes the eye and keeps it inflated. Imbalance of aqueous humor can lead to high intraocular pressure (IOP or eye pressure) and it is a major cause of glaucoma and can damage vision. 32.

Find out the right matching from the following pairs : (a) Accommodation - pupil (b) Colour perception - cones (c) Night blindness - rods (d) Binocular vision - iris UPPCS Pre 1997

Ans. (b) : Colour perception is due to presence of cones. Night blindness is due to deficiency of vitamin A. Iris regulate the entry of light. Rod cell active in dim light. Accommodation is ability to adjust the focal length of lens. 33.

Which of the following cells does not divide once it is differentiated : (a) Interstitial cells (b) Nerve cells (c) Blood cells (d) Glial cells UPPCS Pre 1997

Ans. (b) : Nerve cell does not divide once it is differentiated because nerve cell do not have centriole. The basic unit of communication in the nervous system is the nerve cell (neuron). Each nerve cell consists of cell body, a major branching fiber (axon) and numerous smaller branching fibers (dendrites). TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Absolute refractory period during nerve impulse conduction is the period of : (a) repolarisation (b) depolarisation (c) both reploarisation and depolarisation (d) neither repolarisation nor depolarisation UPPCS Pre 1997 Ans. (a) : Absolute refractory period during nerve impulse conduction is the period of repolarization. The period of time during which another stimuli is given to neuron will not lead to a second action potential is called absolute refractory period. It takes 1 - 2 ms. 35. Sympathetic stimulation : (a) inhibits heart beat (b) Accelerates heart beat (c) performs both the above functions under different conditions (d) does neither of the above functions UPPCS Pre 1997 Ans. (b) : Sympathetic nervous system increase the heart beat and parasympathetic nervous system inhibit heart beat. 36. Synaptic fatigue is due to : (a) exhaustion of neurotransmitter (b) release of excess acetylcholine (c) release of excess of adrenaline (d) none of these UPPCS Pre 2004 Ans. (b) : Synaptic fatigue is due to release of excess acetylcholine. Synaptic fatigue occurs when there is a drastic decrease in the postsynaptic response, due to excess acetylcholine. Synapses are stimulated repetitively at a higher rate and the amount of discharge gradually reduces. When a neurotransmitter is exhausted it leads changes in the energy levels but it has nothing to do with synaptic fatigue. 37. Meibomian glands are integumental gland found: (a) in arm pit (b) on the lips of vagina and glans penis (c) in the passage of external ear (d) on the edges of eyelids UPPCS Pre 2004 Ans. (d) : Meibomian glands also called tarsal glands at the rim of the eyelids inside the tarsal plate. It is responsible for the supply of meibum, an oily substance that prevents evaporation of the eye's tear film and lubricate the eyelid and cornea. 38. Which one of the following is correctly matched: (a) Tympanic - Articular (b) Malleus - Angular (c) Stapes - Hyomandibular (d) Incus - Columella UPPCS Pre 2004 UPPCS Pre 2005

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (c) : Stapes is the modification of hyomandibular is correctly matched. Malleus, incus and stapes are three ear ossicles. Malleus – Articular Incus – Quadrate Stapes – Hyomandibular 39. Purkinje cells are found in : (a) Cerebellum (b) Ganglia (c) Hypothalamus (d) Pituitary gland UPPCS Pre 2002 UPPCS Pre 2004 Ans. (a) : Purkinje cells are found in cerebellum. These are large neuron with many branching extensions that is found in the cortex of the cerebellum of the brain and that plays a fundamental role in controlling motor movement. Most purkinje cells release a neurotransmitter called GABA (gamma-aminobutyric acid) which exerts inhibitory actions. These cells were first discovered by Czech physiologist Jan Evangelista Purkinje in 1837. 40. Muscular coordination in mammals is controlled by : (a) Cerebrum (b) Cerebellum (c) Corpus callosum (d) Medulla oblongata UPPCS Pre 2004 Ans. (b) : Cerebellum control equilibrium and coordination of voluntary muscular movement. Corpus callosum is characteristic feature of mammalian brain found in cerebrum hemisphere. 41. Corpus callosum connects : (a) Two cerebral hemispheres (b) Diencephalon and mid brain (c) Pons and medulla (d) Medulla and spinal cord TGT Biology 2011 Ans. (a) : The corpus callosum connects both the cerebral hemisphere. The brain is the center of the intellect. There fore, in comparison to all other animal in humans it is about 80 percent of the whole brain and it separate over almost the entire brains. A deep vertical fissure (longitudinal fissure) divided in to the right and left cerebral hemisphere but a thick bundle of connective fibre in the white matter keeps the two hemispheres together from within. This cluster is called the corpus callosum. In the vertical fissure, the fraction of dura mater of the brain extends within which is falx cerebri. 42. Which one of the following cranial nerve is not a motor nerve : (a) II (b) III (c) IV (d) XII UPPCS Pre 2001 Ans. (a) : IInd cranial nerve is called optic nerve, it is of sensory nature. Sensory cranial nerve = 1, 2, 8 Motor cranial nerve = 3, 4, 6, 11, 12 Mixed cranial nerve = 5, 7, 9, 10 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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The small region of retina having mainly cones, is called : (a) fovea centralis (b) blind spot (c) bipolar neuron (d) iris UPPCS Pre 2001 Ans. (a) : The fovea centralis is called the yellow spot, only the cone is present on the yellow spot. * Cone work in bright light. The iris acts like a camera, it controls the diameter of pupils. Blind spot is a small region of the retina where fibres of optic nerve emerge from the eyeball. It has no cones or rods cell. Bipolar neuron or cell is a type of neuron which has two extensions (one axon and one dendrite). 44. Which of the following is purely a motor nerve : (a) Olfactory (b) Abducens (c) Trigeminal (d) Auditory UPPCS Pre 2001 Ans. (b) : Abducens is the 6th cranial nerve and it is purely motor nerve. Olfactory is the first cranial nerve, trigeminal is mixed sensory nerve. 45. Ependymal cells are found is : (a) Brain (b) Kidney (c) Liver (d) Epididymis UPPCS Pre 2001 Ans. (a) : Ependymal cells are found in the brain. All these cell are found around C.N.S. It secretes the cerebrospinal fluid. Ependymal cells are ciliated-epithelial glial cells that develop from radial glia along the surface of the ventricles of the brain and spinal canal. 46. Eustachian tube connects : (a) Pharynx with middle ear (b) Middle ear with external ear (c) Middle ear with internal ear (d) None of the above UPPCS Pre 2001 Ans. (a) : The eustachian tube is called auditory tube or pharyngotympanic tube. It connects the middle ear to the lateral wall of the nasopharynx. The eustachian tube extends from the anterior wall of the middle ear to the lateral wall of the nasopharynx, approximately at the level of the inferior nasal concha. They help drain fluid and equalize the air pressure inside ears.

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Indicate the correct match in the following : (a) II-cranial nerve-vagus (b) V-cranial nerve-heart (c) VIII-cranial nerve-lower jaw muscle (d) VI-cranial nerve-external rectus muscle of eye UPPCS Pre 1996 Ans. (d) : VI cranial nerve called abducens distributes to the external rectus muscles of eye ball. Cranial nerve II called optic nerve. Cranial nerve V is trigeminal nerve is the largest cranial nerve. It is a sensory and a motor nerve. Cranial nerve VIII is auditory vestibular nerve that transmits sound and equilibrium (balance) to brain. 48. The hollow interior of the cerebrum is called : (a) Third ventricle (b) Fourth ventricle (c) Lateral ventricle (d) Second ventricle UPPCS Pre 1996 PGT Biology 2002 Ans. (c) : The hollow interior of the cerebrum is called lateral ventricles. The ventricles consist of four hollow, fluid-filled spaces inside the brain. A lateral ventricle lies inside each hemisphere of the cerebrum. Each lateral ventricle is connected to the third by the interventricular foramen (Foramen of Monro). 49. The sixth cranial nerve in vertebrates is : (a) Oculomotor (b) Trigeminal (c) Abducens (d) Glossopharyngeal UPPCS Pre 1996 Ans. (c) : The sixth cranial nerve is a motor nerve called abducens. Abducens goes in external rectus muscles of eye ball from brain. 50. Area of retina in human eye containing only cone cells is called : (a) Pecten (b) Tapetum (c) Macula lutea (d) Fovea centralis UPPCS Pre 1996 Ans. (c) : Area of retina in human eye containing only cone cells is called macula lutea or yellow spot. Bright image are formed on yellow spot. The fovea centralis is located in the center of the macula lutea of the retina. It is a small, central pit composed of closely packed cones in the eye. 51. The area of mammalian eye closely packed with cones is called : (a) optic disc (b) macula lutea (c) Fovea centralis (d) scala media UPPCS Pre 1998, 1999 Ans. (b) : Macula lutea called yellow spot. Only cones are present in macula lutea which formed bright and coloured image. 52. Aqueduct of Sylvius occurs in : (a) Eye (b) Heart (c) Brain (d) Ear UPPCS Pre 1996 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (c) : Aqueduct of Sylvius occurs in brain, contains cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) and connects the third ventricle to the fourth ventricle in the brain within the system of four communicating cavities, that are continuous with the central canal of the spinal cord. The ventricles are filled with cerebrospinal fluid, which is carried by the aqueduct of Sylvius. 53. Which of the following lenses is used when a person feels difficulty in seeing a distant object: (a) Convex (b) Concave lens (c) Both convex and concave lenses (d) None of the above UPPCS Pre 1995 Ans. (b) : Myopia can be removed by using the concave lens. Myopic person feel difficulty in seeing a distant object and near object is clear. In myopia, light rays are focused in front of the retina, so that a minus concave lens is needed to diverge the rays. Myopia or nearsightedness occurs when the eye loses its ability to focus on far-off objects as the lenses do not possess a long focal length. 54. In myelinated nerve fibres, the speed of nerve impulse conduction is faster than in nonmyelinated fibre because the action potential jumps from one node to another instead of moving smoothly. This type of conduction is known as : (a) saltatory conduction (b) excitatory conduction (c) active transport (d) inhibitory conduction UPPCS Pre 1995 Ans. (a) : Saltatory conduction take place in myelinated nerve fiber. The charge leave from one node to another node. Saltatory conduction describes the way an electrical impulse skips from node to node down the full length of an axon, speeding the arrival of the impulse at the nerve terminal. 55. Light sensitive pigment of the human eye is known : (a) Troponin (b) Rhodopsin (c) Vitamin-A (d) Melanin UPPCS Pre 1994 Ans.(b): Troponin is a complex contractile protein found in muscles. Rhodopsin-found in eye in rods(photoreceptor cells). Rhodopsin or visual purple-which are derivatives of vitamin A- found in rods. Melanin-found in skin pigmented tissue in Iris. 56. In sympathetic nerves, terminal neurotransmitters are : (a) adrenaline and noradrenaline (b) acetylcholine and cholinesterase (c) cholinesterase and adrenaline (d) noradrenaline and acetylcholine UPPCS Pre 1995 UPPCS Pre 2005

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (d) : Noradrenaline and acetylcholine both are neurotransmitter that carry impulse and make synapse. Norepinephrine or noradrenaline, substance that is released predominately from the ends of sympathetic nerve fibres and acts to increase the force of skeletal muscle contraction and the rate and force of contraction of the heart. 57. The trigeminal nerve of vertebrates is the : (a) 1st Cranial nerve (b) 3rd Cranial nerve (c) 5th Cranial nerve (d) 7th Cranial nerve UPPCS Pre 1995 Ans. (c) : 5th cranial nerve called trigeminal. It is mixed type cranial nerve distributed to eye, eyelids, snout, upper jaw and lower jaw. 1st Olfactory - Sensory, 7th facial - mixed. 58. Stapes is the name of : (a) a tissue (b) a scientist (c) a bone (d) an animal UPPCS Pre 1995 Ans. (c) : Stapes is the smallest bone of body found in middle ear. It is one of the three bones located in the middle ear, which together make up a sort of chain called the ossicles. The name stapes actually means stirrup in latin and it is shaped like a stirrup. Along with malleus and incus, the stapes bone is essential to the function of hearing. 59. 2nd, 4th and 12th cranial nerves are named as: (a) Oculomotor, trigeminal, abducens and vagus (b) Olfactory, trochlear, auditory and hypoglossal (c) Optic, trochlear, abducens and spinal accessory (d) Optic, trochlear and hypoglossal UPPCS Pre 2002 Ans. (d) : The name of the 2nd, 4th and 12th cranial nerves is optic, trochlear and hypoglossal. 60. The part of the human ear where sound is transduced is : (a) Tympanic membrane (b) ear ossicles (c) semicircular canals (d) cochlea UPPCS (Pre) 1999 Ans. (d) : The part of the human ear where sound is transduced is cochlea. The transformation of the vibration into nerve impulses for relay to the brain takes place in cochlea. It is a spiral-shaped cavity in the bony labyrinth that is part of the inner ear. The function of the outer and middle ear was to conduct sound energy to the inner ear where the actual transduction takes place. 61. At the neuro-neuronal junctions the acetylcholine after reaching the post synaptic membrane and transmitting the impulse is removed : (a) by the action of acetylcholinesterase only (b) by diffusion back into the presynaptic fibres only (c) by diffusion in the surrounding tissues only (d) by all the above methods UPPCS Pre 1999 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (a) : The impulse is removed by the action of acetylcholinesterase. Acetylcholinesterase is an enzyme that break the activity of acetylcholine. Acetylcholinesterase (AChE) is a cholinergic enzyme primarily found at postysynaptic neuromuscular junctions especially in muscles and nerves. 62. Vitreous humor is a colourless fluid present in the: (a) ears (b) eyes (c) nose (d) heart UPPCS Pre 1999 Ans. (b) : The large space between the lens and the retina is filled with a viscous matrix called vitreous humor. The human eye is divided into two segments, the anterior (front) segment and the posterior (back) segment. The vitreous humor is located in the posterior segment and fills the vitreous chamber, which takes up about 80% of the eye. The vitreous humor is not to be confused with the aqueous homor, which is a clear watery fluid that fills the anterior segment. 63. The hormone adrenaline is the same as neurotransmitter : (a) ACh (b) GABA (c) epinephrine (d) norepinephrine UPPCS Pre 1999 Ans. (c) : The hormone adrenaline is the same as neurotransmitter epinephrine. It is a neurotransmitter in the sense that, within the brain, it help neurons to communicate with one another. However, because adrenaline is mainly produced by the adrenal glands and has functions peripherally (i.e., outside the brain), it can also be considered a hormone. It plays an important role in body's 'fight-or-flight' response. 64. The number of cranial nerves in mammals is : (a) 8 (b) 10 (c) 14 (d) 12 UPPCS Pre 1999 Ans. (d) : Fishes and amphibian have 10 pair cranial nerve. Reptile, birds and mammals have 12 pair of cranial nerve. These are three types – 1. Motor nerve, 2. Sensory nerve, 3. Mixed nerve. 65. Ventricles of the vertebrate brain are lined by cells called : (a) ependymal cells (b) neurons (c) neuroglia (d) Schwann cells UPPCS Pre 1998 Ans. (a) : Four ventricles are found in vertebrate mammals brain, I and II ventricle in cerebral hemisphere, III ventricle in diencephalon and IV ventricle found in hindbrain. Ependymal cell make the ventricles of brain and secretes cerebrospinal fluid for filling the ventricle. 66. Stimulation of sympathetic nerve of heart accelerate the heart beat as a result of : (a) release of acetylcholine (b) inhibition of acetylcholine esterase (c) release of noradrenaline (d) inhibition of dopamine UPPCS Pre 1998

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Cochlear canal of human ear is divided into how many compartments ? (a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Not divided UPPCS Pre 2009 Ans. (c) : The cochlear canal found in the human ear is divided into three section : (I) Scala tympani (II) Scala vestibuli (III) Scala media These three compartments are separated from each other by two membranes, basilar membrane and Reissner's membrane. 72. Fovea centralis of human retina is characterized by: (a) accumulation of rods only (b) accumulation of cones only (c) accumulation of both rods and cones (d) absence of photo receptors UPPCS Pre 2007 Ans. (b) : The fovea centralis is a small, central pit composed of closely packed cones in the eye. It is located in the center of the macula lutea of the retina. Fovea centralis is the central cavity of macula lutea which is a yellow pigmented spot in the eye present laterally to the eye. Visual resolution is maximum at fovea because only cones are present. 73. Part of eye which is devoid of blood vessels is : (a) Cornea (b) Retina (c) Choroid (d) Uvea UPPCS Pre 2007 Ans. (a) : Retina–The retina is the light-sensitive innermost layer of tissue in most vertebrates and some mollusks eyes. * Photoreceptor cells, which come in two types: rods and cones, are the retina's basic light-sensing cells. Choroid–The choroid is the eye's middle layer. It is made up of loose connective tissue and has a lot of blood vessels in it. Because it contains pigment cells, it appears bluish in colour. Cornea–The cornea is the transparent front component of the eye that protects the eyes by covering the iris, pupil and anterior chamber. The retina is the screen on which the images of the things are projected. The optic nerve is the nerve that connects the eye to the brain's optical cortex. There are no blood vessels in this area of the eye. Uvea–The uvea also called the uveal layer, uveal coat, uveal tract, vascular tunic or vascular layer is the pigmented middle of the three concentric layers that make up an eye. 74. Which of the following cranial nerves are pure sensory ? (a) I, V and VII (b) I, II and IV (c) I, II and VIII (d) II, V and VII UPPCS Pre 2007 320 YCT

Ans. (c) : Noradrenaline is a hormone of adrenal medulla. It works under control of sympathetic neuron. So, sympathetic nerve release noradrenaline to accelerate the heart beat. The sympathetic nervous system releases the hormones adrenaline and noradrenaline to accelerate the heart rate. 67. Cranial nerve which is responsible for bringing information from internal ear is called : (a) VIII (b) III (c) VI (d) VII UPPCS Pre 2005 Ans. (a) : VIII Cranial nerve is called auditory nerve. It is a sensory nerve and supplied the inner ear. Its Nerve cells are located into two place. * IIIrd Cranial nerve is called oculomotor nerve, it is the motor nerve of the eyeballs. * The VIth Cranial nerve is called the abducens nerve, it is the motor nerve which supplied the rectus muscle of the eyeball. * VIIth Cranial nerve is called facial nerve, it is a mixed nerve. 68. Cornea has : (a) arteries only (b) veins only (c) both arteries and veins (d) normally no blood vessels UPPCS Pre 2005 Ans. (d) : The cornea normally does not contain any blood vessels rather it consist of a network of nerve. It is the substance that nourish it, which form tears and other transparent fluid of eye. The cornea is the transparent part of the eye that receive outside light. It is the two third part of the eye which includes the colored part of the outer eye, the pupil and the lightgiving part of the lens. The cornea is only part of the eye that is exchanged. 69. Rods are abundant in the eyes of : (a) diurnal vertebrates (b) migratory birds (c) diurnal and crepuscular vertebrates (d) nocturnal vertebrates UPPCS Pre 2009 UPPCS Pre 2010 Ans. (d) : Owl or many nocturnal vertebrates do not have cone in their retina. Rods are found in abundance in these. Rods give knowledge of light and darkness in dim light, conversely cone gives knowledge of object and different colors in bright light. 70. Of the following, tympanum is present in : (a) Anguis (b) Python (c) Typhlops (d) All of the above UPPCS Pre 2009 Ans. (d) : Tympanum is found in Anguis, Python and Typhlops. The tympanum is the external hearing organ which is mainly present in mammals, birds, some reptiles, some amphibians and insects. The reptilian auditory apparatus is typically made up of a tympanum, which is a thin membrane located at the rear of the head. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

71.

Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (c) : Cranial nerve 1, 2, 8 are purely sensory and 3, 4, 6, 11, 12 are motor nerve. 5, 7, 9, 10 mixed cranial nerve. A sensory nerve is a nerve that carries sensory information toward the central nervous system from sense organs. There are total 12 cranial nerves out of which there are 3 sensory nerves-Olfactory (1st), Optic (2nd) and vestibulocochlear nerve (8th) 75. In human eyes, colour perception is done by : (a) Cone cells only (b) Rod cells only (c) Both cone and rod cells (d) Choroid layer cells UPPCS Pre 2000 Ans. (a) : In human eyes, colour perception is done by cone cells only. The neurosensory layer of eye is the layer on which images is formed, this consists of retina, which includes rods and cones in it. Rods are helpful for visualization in dim light and is responsible for black and white vision, while cone cells produce sharp, coloured image in bright light. So, cones are helpful in perception and differentiation of colours. 76. The cavity of vitreous humor is : (a) between lens and retina (b) in front of lens (c) between cornea and lens (d) between choroid and sclera UPPCS Pre 2009 Ans. (a) : The cavity between the retina and the lens is called the vitreous humor, the chamber of the cavity is called vitreous chamber. The cavity is filled with a fluid called humour fluid. It is a clear, colourless fluid. 99% of it consists of water and the rest is a mixture of collagen, proteins, salts and sugars. The vitreous performs a vital role in protecting eye and helps it to hold its spherical shape. 77. Membranous structure separating the scala media and scala tympani of mammalian ear is called. (a) Reissner's membrane (b) Tympanic membrane (c) Basilar membrane (d) Tectorial membrane UPPCS Pre 2009 Ans. (c) : The membranous wall of the cochlear duct is attached to its cavity on the sides in such a way that the cavity is divided into dorsal (posterior) and ventral (anterior chamber). The dorsal chamber is called scala vestibuli and the ventral chamber is called the scala media. The fine dorsal wall of the cochlear canal is called the vestibular or Reissner's membrane and the thick ventral wall is called the basilar membrane. The basilar membrane separates scala tympani from scala media and Reissner's membrane separates scala media from scala vestibuli. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

78.

During depolarization the permeability of neuron increases towards. (a) Mg++ (b) Na+ + (c) H (d) ClUPPCS Pre 2009, 2010 Ans. (b) : The permeability of the neuron increases during depolarization. Na+ enters inside so positive ion (+Ve charge) are formed inside the plasma membrane. In case of depolarization, negative ion (–Ve charge) build up on the out side. Sodium ions (Na+) move inside the cell due to the opening of the voltage-gated sodium channels resulting in action potential (+40mV) and higher positive charge in the interior side of the membrane. 79. Neurohormones are synthesized in : (a) hypothalamus (b) anterior pituitary (c) posterior pituitary (d) adrenal cortex UPPCS Pre 2010 Ans. (a) : On the surface of diencephalon are found neurosecretory cell along with nuclei of gray matter (hypothalamic nucleus) which produces neurohormone. The neurohormones in most mammals include oxytocin and vasopressin, both of which are produced in the hypothalamic region of the brain and secreted into the blood by the neurohypophysis (posterior pituitary). 80. System controlling the involuntary actions of internal organs is : (a) Cerebrospinal (b) Parasympathetic (c) Autonomic (d) Peripheral TGT Biology 2013 Ans. (c) : The system that controls the involuntary action of the organs is the autonomic nervous system that has two part, sympathetic system and parasympathetic system, its effects on the body are mutually opposite. Organ

Sympathetic System

Parasympathet ic System

1. Heart

Increasing the Pulse rate

Decreasing the Pulse rate

2.Blood vessels

Contraction

Relaxation

3. Wind Pipe

Dilation

Contraction

4. Eye

Dilation of Pupil

Contraction of Pupil

5. Digestion System

Slow

Stimulates

6. Urethra

Relaxation

Contraction

81.

321

The membranous labyrinth contains a fluid called : (a) Perilymph (b) Haemolymph (c) Lymph (d) Endolymph TGT Biology 2013 YCT

Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (d) : The fluid filled in the articular cavity is called endolymph. It is connected to the helicotrema by a tube near the surface of scala vestibuli. The membranous labyrinth is attached to the fenestra ovalis. In fact, the membranous labyrinth made of semitransparent membrane is the inner ear. In these three are some nerve organs related to the hearing and control of the body. 82. Where we can find apolar neurons in human body? (a) Amacrine cells of retina (b) Dorsal root ganglion of spinal cord (c) Optic nerve (d) In all of these TGT Biology 2011 Ans. (a) : In the human body, non polar neurons are found in retinal amacrine cell. Non polar neuron is also found in Hydra. Apolar/Nonpolar Neuron-No definite dendron/axon. Cell process is either absent or if present is not differentiated in axon and dendrons. Nerve impulses radiate in all directions. Example-Amacrine cell of retina. 83. Which of the following cells, never undergoes 'S' phase of cell cycle ? (a) Human nerve cells (b) Epithelial cells (c) Stem cells (d) None of these TGT Biology 2011 Ans. (a) : Human nerve cell never enter the 'S' phase. 'S' phase is 30-40 percent of the total time of the cell cycle and is about 8 hours. In this, the duplication of DNA molecule take place. Therefore, the amount of DNA in the nucleus doubles at the end of this stage. Along with this the synthesis of histone and non histone proteins related to DNA take place. Human nerve cells (neurons) are incapable of divison because of the absence of centriole. Therefore human nerve cells never undergoes 'S' phase of cell cycle. 84. Which one of the following parts is injured if memory of a man weakens ? (a) Medulla (b) Cerebellum (c) Cerebrum (d) Hypothalamus TGT Biology 2010 Ans. (c) : Due to damage to the cerebrum part, the memory of person becomes weak. It is the centre of intelligence, consciousness and memory power, the information receive from the sense organ are analyzed and coordinated here and transmit sensation for proper response of voluntary muscle. 85. Drinking of alcohol affects : (a) Cerebrum (b) Cerebellum (c) Medulla oblongata (d) Diencephalon TGT Biology 2005 Ans. (a) : The drinking of alcohol affects the brain (cerebrum). The cerebrum is the centre of intelligence, consciousness and memory. Here the sense are analyzed and coordinated and the sensation is transmitted to the voluntary muscle for proper response. So all the activity are affected by the consumption of alcohol, its excessive consumption lead to liver cirrhosis. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

86.

Which is the longest body cell ? (a) RBCs (b) Neurons (c) Osteocytes (d) Sperms TGT Biology 2005 Ans. (b) : The longest cell in the body is the nerve cell. The nerve cell or neuron is formed from ectoderm of the embryo. These are the structural and functional unit of the nervous tissue. The nerve cell is divided into three part, cyton, dendron, axon. Note-The egg cell or ovum is the largest body cell. Neuron is the longest cell in the body. 87. Vagus nerve is : (a) Spinal nerve (b) Sympathetic nerve (c) X cranial nerve (d) Parasympathetic nerve TGT Biology 2005 Ans. (c) : The tenth cranial nerve is called the vagus nerve. This is the longest cranial nerve. It is also mixed and emerges from the side of the medulla. Its conducting fibres go to the airways lungs, esophagus, heart, stomach, intestines, gall bladder etc. Sensory fibre bring the sensation from almost all these organs to the medulla and pons. 88. Vagus nerve is number : (a) IX (b) X (c) VII (d) V Navoday Vidyalay PGT Biology 2014 Ans: (b) There are 12 pair of cranial nerve in humans, out of which the vagus nerve are the 10th pair. Vagus nerve are mixed nerve and come out from the side of the medulla. Their conducting fibre go to the airways, lungs, esophagus, heart, stomach, intestine, gall bladder etc. Sensory fibre bring the sensation from almost all these organs to the medulla and pons. 89. How many pairs of cranial nerves in mammals are purely sensory ? (a) Five (b) Four (c) Three (d) Two TGT Biology 2005 Ans. (c) : In mammals, three pairs of cranial nerve are pure sensory which are 1, 2 and 8. 12 pair of cranial nerve are found in mammals, in which three pair are sensory, 5 pairs are motor and the remaining 4 pairs are of mixed type. 90. The friction between the eyelids and the cornea is avoided by the secretion of : (a) Lacrimal glands (b) Conjunctiva and eyelids (c) Harderian glands (d) Meibomian glands TGT Biology 2005 Ans. (d) : Meibomian gland is a modified form of sebaceous gland which is secreted from the base of the eyelids. Due to this, there is no rubbing between the eyelids and the cornea. In amphibians and bird, they are called harderian gland. There are approximately 2030 meibomian glands on the lower lid and 40-50 on the upper lid.

322

YCT

Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 91.

The respiratory centres which control inspiration and expiration are located in the (a) medulla oblongata (b) hypothalamus (c) spinal cord (d) cerebellum TGT Biology 2004 Ans. (a) : The medulla oblongata present in the brain controls respiration and exhalation. In addition, the medulla oblongata regulates metabolic blood pressure, peristalsis of the esophagus, gland secretion and heart beat. There are three important brainstem respiratory centers : the pneumotaxic center or pontine respiratory group (PRG) and the dorsal (DRG) and ventral respiratory groups (VRG) in the medulla. 92. Hearing is controlled by : (a) temporal lobes (b) cerebrum (c) hypothalamus (d) parietal lobe TGT Biology 2004 Ans. (a) : Hearing is controlled by the temporal lobe of brain. The cerebrum is divided into four part, frontal lobe, parietal lobe, temporal lobe and occipital lobe. The temporal lobe is located in the bottom section of the brain and sitting close to the ear level within the skull. Its vital functions are hearing, language recognization, speaking and understanding writing, memory acquisition etc. 93. GABA, a neurotransmitter, opens up which type of ionic channels in post synaptic membrane during impulse conduction ? (a) Na + VGC (b) Na + LGC -(c) Cl LGC (d) Ca2 + VGC PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (c) GABA stand for Gamma Amino Butyric Acid. It spread in the cortex of neuron. GABA present as.

The posterior synaptic phase opens the chloride ion channel during GABA impulse transmission. Receptors for GABA are embedded in the post-synaptic membrane. The GABA-binding site is directly responsible for opening the Cl– LGC (ligand gated channel). 94. Respiratory rhythm centre is situated in which portion of the brain? (a) Medulla region (b) Cerebellum (c) Corpus Callosum (d) Cerebrum Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2015 Ans. (a) : Medulla is a part of the posterior brain (hind brain) which controls respiration, gastric secretion and Cardiovascular reflex. Cerebellum provides additional space for nerve cell. Corpus callosum is a part of the fore brain. Cerebrum is the part of the fore brain that controls the decision making such as love, hate, etc, to think about something. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

95.

Hunger centre is located in : (a) Medulla (b) Hypothalamus (c) Cerebrum (d) Cerebellum PGT Biology 2005 Ans. (b) : Hunger centre is found in the hypothalamus. The hypothalamus controls many function of the body and is of great importance in homeostasis. The sensory information of stimuli from the external and internal environments of the body ultimately comes in this. Apart from this, there are centers sensitive to osmotic pressure, temperature and amount of hormone. Thus, it is necessary for both existence and use of life. Its main function are follows : 1. It regulates and controls the autonomic nervous system thus controlling the activities of all the internal organs. 2. The hormones secreted by its nervous secretory cell control the auditory function of the pituitary gland. 3. It regulate the feeling of anger, aggression, entrepreneurship, enthusiasm, pain, pleasure and luxuries. 4. It contain the centers of hunger, thirst and satiety. 5. It has centers of temperature controls. 96. The trigeminal nerve of vertebrates is the: (a) 1st Cranial nerve (b) 3rd Cranial nerve th (c) 5 Cranial nerve (d) 7th Cranial nerve PGT Biology 2003 Ans. (c) : Nerves are of two types, cranial related to brain and spinal nerve related to the spinal cord. Humans mainly have 12 pair of cranial nerve in which the fifth nerve is called trigeminal nerve, it is mixed and originate from the lower part of the pons. Split itself into three part. 1. Ophthalmic Nerve 2. Maxillary Nerve 3. Mandibular Nerve 97. Pneumotaxic centre is found in (a) Pons (b) Cerebrum (c) Hypothalamus (d) Diencephalon Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (a) : Pons is in the form of a round protrusion about 2.5 cm long on the lower plane of the brain. It contains both sensory and conductive fibre, in the nuclei of its grey matter there is an important nucleus pneumotaxic centre which regulate our breathing. The hypothalamus is the centre of control of anger, excitement, pain, hunger, thirst, pleasure and heat. Diencephalon receives sensory information like hearing, taste, touch, pressure, vibration, pain temperature etc. The brain is the centre of our will, knowledge, learning, memory, speech and thought. 98. Merkel’s disk are : (a) Chromatophores (b) Melanophores (c) Nerve endings (d) Skin scales GIC Biology 15.09.2015 Ans. (c) : Merkel's disk are nerve ending. Merkel's cell is found in each nerve ending. The touch or tactile receptors on your skin are also called tangoreceptors. These are further classified into six types which include free nerve endings, root hair plexus, Merkel's discs, Meissner's corpuscles, Pacinian corpuscles and Ruffini corpuscles. Merkel's discs and Meissner's corpuscles, both are related to touch reception.

323

YCT

Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 99.

The nerve cells transmit impulses from central nervous system to the effector organs are called: (a) Interneurons (b) Sensory neurons (c) Motor neurons (d) Dendrons UPPCS Pre 1996 Ans. (c) : Nerve carry impulses from CNS to effector organ called motor nerves and from effector organs to CNS called sensory neurons i.e. of motor nerveOculomotor, trochlear, abducens, spinal accessory, Hypoglossal. i.e. of sensory nerve-Olfactory, Optic, Auditory. 100. When the intensity of light is low during night the light is detected by : (a) Rods (b) Cones (c) Lens (d) Both rods and cones TGT Biology 2003 Ans. (a) : When the intensity of light is less at night, then the light is detected by the rod but if the light intensity is more then the cone is active and towards the shadows the cone is active. 101. Amacrine cells are located in : (a) cornea of eye (b) lens of eye (c) retina of eye (d) occipital area of brain PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (c) : Amacrine cell are present in the retina of the eye. Inner plexiform layers is the zone of apical nerve cell and cluster cell, it also contains horizontal cell which are called amacrine cell. Amacrine cells lie in the inner retina and make connections with bipolar cells and ganglion cells. They are inhibitory neurons. 102. In human eye the space between lens and retina is called. (a) Aqueous chamber (b) Vitreous chamber (c) Blind spot (d) Macula lutea Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2015 Ans. (b) : The part between the lens and the retina in the human eye is called the vitreous chamber. The area between the lens and cornea in the human eye is called the aqueous chamber. A place in the middle near the retina where the photoreceptor cell is absent, is called blind point. 103. The number of nerve cells present in human brain is : (a) 10 billion (b) 1 billion (c) 100 billion (d) 200 billion Delhi SSB PGT Biology 2015 Ans (c) : Neurons or nerve cells are found in the human brain which is about 100 billion during pregnancy whereas 85 billion neurons are found in an adult man, Out of which 16 billion are found in the cerebral cortex and 69 billion are found in the cerebellum. 104. Which of the following is called “emotional brain”? (a) RAS (b) Cerebellum (c) Limbic lobe (d) Corpus Callosum PGT Biology 2011 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (c) : The limbic system of the hypothalamus that connects it with the cerebral cortex is the centre of emotions, drives and instincts including appetite and satiate. It is also called the emotional brain. Corpus callosum is a bridge of white matter that connects two cerebral hemispheres. Epithalamus is the biological clock of the body. Broca's area is associated with the ability of an individual to understand the written and spoken words and to communicate with others. 105. The junction of an axon and dendrite is called (a) Relay (b) Synapse (c) Conduction zone (d) Cyton PGT Biology 2010 Ans. (b) : The function of a messengers from one neuron to another neuron is called axon. Its end is divided into thin branches which are called synaptic knobs. These knobs establish a special relationship with the knob of the second neurons dendrites which is called synapse. 106. Hering-Breuer's reflex is affected by : (a) Temperature (b) P4 (c) CO2 (d) Vagus nerve PGT Biology 2009 Ans. (d) : The Hering Breuer reflex is affected by the vagus nerve. Bronchi and bronchioles are located in the lung. The stress sensitive structure found in their wall are sensitive to the air pressure in the lung. These sense organs are connected to the respiratory centre by the vagus nerve. The Hering Breuer reflex is activated only when the alveoli of the lung are overfilled, otherwise normally inactive. 107. Of the following which glands are associated with eyelashes ? (a) Preen glands (b) Meibomian glands (c) Zeis glands (d) Ceruminous glands GIC Biology 15.09.2015 Ans. (c) : The gland of Zeis are small oil gland that opens in the follicles of the eyelashes. When these gland gets infected hordeolum disease occurs. Meibomian gland have hole on the inner edge of both the eyelids they secrete an oil-like liquid that lubricates the conjunctiva. 108. Which part of the brain in mammals controls the muscular co-ordination ? (a) Cerebrum (b) Cerebellum (c) Medulla (d) Corpus callosum PGT Biology 2004 Ans. (b) : The part of the brain in mammals that controls the muscular coordination is cerebellum. It is located in the back of the brain. It helps with the coordination and movement related to motor skills, especially involving the hands and feet. It also helps maintain posture, balance and equilibrium.

324

YCT

Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 13. Muscles and Skeleton 1.

Matrix of mucoid connective tissue that surrounds the two arteries and one vein of the umbilical cord is : (a) Barton's jelly (b) Wharton's jelly (c) Lymph (d) Karton's jelly UPPSC Ashram Paddhati 29/09/2021 Ans. (b) : Matrix of mucoid connective tissue that surrounds the two arteries and one vein of the umbilical cord is Wharton's jelly. It was first described by Wharton (1656), and is primarily made of collagen and proteoglycans. It is a gelatinous substance that provides insulation and protection within the umbilical cord. It contains some fibroblasts and macrophages, and is derived from extra embryonic mesoderm. It also contains mesenchymal stem cells. 2. Which of the following is NOT a flight muscle? (a) Pectoral muscle (b) Coraco-brachialis longus (c) Gastrocnemius (d) Tensor longus UPPSC Ashram Paddhati 29/09/2021 Ans. (c) : Gastrocnemius is not a flight muscle. → Flight muscles in birds are of three types : Pectoral muscles, Accessory muscles, and Tensor muscles. Pectoral muscles maintain the upstroke and downstroke of the wings during flight. Accessory muscles (Coracobrachialis longus, Coracobrachialis brevis, Biceps and Triceps) helps to elevate or depress the wings during flight. Tensor muscles (Tensor longus, Tensor brevis, Tensor accessorius) keep the prepatagium fully stretched when the wing is extended in flight. Gastrocnemius is the chief muscle of the leg which is responsible for normal walking and running actions. 3. Of the following which is not a vestigial organ? (a) Wisdom tooth (b) Appendix (c) Tail bone (d) Bones TGT (2016) 31/07/2021 Ans. (d) : Bones is not a vestigial organs. Vestigial organs are those that are no more in use to the possessor but is still carried over generations in its reduced form : few such organs are the pinna, vermiform appendix, wisdom teeth and tailbone in human. 4. Which type of joints are found in the pectoral and pelvic girdle of frog from the following? (a) Hinge (b) Pivot (c) Saddle (d) Ball and Socket TGT (2016) 31/07/2021 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (d) : Ball and socket type of joints are found in the pectoral and pelvic girdle of frog. In a ball and socket joint, a ball - like structure on the one bone fits into a socket like structure in another bone. Shoulder and hip joints are the examples of ball and socket joint (between glenoid cavity of the pectoral girdle and head of the humerus and between acetabulum of pelvic girdle and head of the femur). 5. Regular exercise can increase the size of muscles by 60%. This is mainly the result of an increase in the : (a) Diameter of muscle cells only (b) Number of muscle cells only (c) Number of myofibrils within muscle cells only (d) All of the above UP PGT 17/08/2021 Ans. (d) : Regular exercise can increase the size of muscles by 60%. This is mainly the result of an increase in the diameter of muscle cells, number of muscle cells, and number of myofibrils within muscle cells. Muscle size increases when a person continually challenges the muscles to deal with higher levels of resistance or weight. This process is known as muscle hypertrophy. 6. Hinge joint is found in(a) Scapula and Humerus (b) Femur and Acetabulum (c) Humerus and Ulna (d) Skull and Atlas GIC 19/09/2021 Ans. (c) : Hinge joint is found in humerus and ulna. It is a type of synovial joint that function much like hinge on a door allowing bones to move in one direction back and forth with limited motion along other planes. This is achieved by a concave surface articulating with a corresponding convex surface. Hinge joints allow straightening, bending and flexing of joints. Fingers, toes, elbow, knees and ankles contain hinge joints.

325

YCT

Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 7.

Cartilaginous joints are found in which part of the human body ? (a) Between two vertebrae (b) knee (c) Between the carpels (d) Between metacarpels RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) Ans. (a) : Cartilaginous joints are found between two vertebrae. In this type of joints, the bones are entirely joined by cartilage, either hyaline cartilage or fibrocartilage. These joints generally allow more movement than fibrous joints but less movement than synovial joints. ⇒Intervertebral discs lies between adjacent vertebrae in the spine. Each disc forms a cartilaginous joint to allow slight movement of the vertebrae and acts as a ligament to hold the vertebrae together. 8. Match the following from Group –I and II : Group – I Group – II (i) Radius-ulna (a) Supratrochlear Foramen (b) Cnemial crest (ii) Humerus (c) Glenoid cavity (iii) Tibiofibula (d) Sigmoid notch (iv) Pectoral girdle Correct answer is : (a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (b) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) (c) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) (d) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii) RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) Ans. (a) : Correct Match :Group -I Group -II (a) Supratrochlear foramen Humerus (b) Cnemial crest Tibio-fibula (c) Glenoid cavity Pectoral girdle (d) Sigmoid notch Radius-ulna 9. Which of the following types of muscles are found in blood vessels ? (a) Smooth muscles (b) Skeletal muscles (c) Cardiac muscles (d) Smooth & striated muscles RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) Ans. (a) : Smooth muscles are found in blood vessels. Smooth muscle cells are the most abundant cell type in blood vessel walls. Vascular smooth muscle contracts or relaxes to change both the volume of blood vessels and the local blood pressure. Smooth muscle are nonstriated and act involuntarily. ⇒Skeletal muscle are attached to bones by tendons. They are striated and act voluntarily. ⇒Cardiac muscles are involuntary, striated muscles that constitutes the main tissue of the wall of the heart. 10. Protein ossein is present in : (a) matrix of bone (b) matrix of ligaments (c) matrix of cartilage (d) matrix of tendon RPSC School Lecturer (23/07/2016) TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (a) : Ossein is the organic extracellular matrix of bone, which is made of 96% collagen. Matrix protein in bone is type I collagen. It can be isolated by treating bones with hydrochloric acid, which dissolves the inorganic matrix (calcium phosphate and calcium carbonate). In addition to collagen, several acidic proteins are present as minor components. 11. Which of the following pumps is responsible for initiating muscle contraction through depolarization of muscle cell membrane ? (a) Na+ pump (b) K+ pump (c) Ca+ pump (d) Mg+ pump UP LT 2018 Ans. (c) : Ca+ pump is responsible for initiating muscle contraction through depolarizatin of Muscle cell membrane. Calciumions initate the movement of troponin and tropomyosin on their thin filament called actin filament. This allows the myosin heads to grab and rotate through their path along this thin filament. 12. During relaxation of a muscle the ions pumped back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum are that of(a) Ca++ (b) Mg++ + (c) K (d) Mn++ Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2013 Ans. (a) : During relaxation of a muscle the ions that are pumped back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum are Ca++ . Relaxation occurs when stimulation of the nerve stops. Ca++ is then pumped back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum breaking the link between actin and myosin. Actin and myosin return to their unbound state causing the muscle to relax. 13. In the region of sarcomere where the actin and myosin filaments overlap, which of the following number of actin filaments surrounds each myosin filament? (a) 3 (b) 6 c) 9 (d) 12 LT Biology 2015 UP PGT 2016 Ans. (b) In the region of sarcomere where actin and myosin filaments overlap, 6 actin filaments surrounds each myosin filaments. This arrangement of actin and myosin filaments gives skeletal muscles its striated appearance.

14.

326

Keratinocytes are found in : (a) Kidney (b) Skin (c) Lungs (d) Brain UPPCS Pre 2006 YCT

Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (b) : Arytenoid cartilage, cricoid cartilage, Ans. (b) : Keratinocytes are found in skin called the thyroid cartilage, and cartilage of santernin found in epidermis. Keratinocyte are developed by stratum larynx (voice producing organ). The arytenoid corneum. It is a protein form on the skin. It is not cartilages are a pair of pyramid-shaped structures found in the kidney, lungs, and brain. found in the voice box (larynx). These are located 15. Mast cells are found in : lateral to the upper border of the lamina of Adam's (a) glandular tissues (b) connective tissues apple. (c) epithelial tissues (d) none of then UPPCS Pre 1994 Ans. (b) : Mast cells are located in connective tissue, including the skin, the linings of the stomach and intestine, and other sites. They play an important role in helping defend these tissues from disease. Mast cell produce three product– (i) Histamine–Vaso-dilator– protein (ii) Serotonin–Vaso-constrictor–protein (iii) Heparin–Anti coagulant–Carbohydrate 16. Sarcosomes are : (a) muscle fibers (b) muscle mitochondria (c) muscle proteins (d) myofibrils UPPCS Pre 2000 19. Striations in the striated muscles are due to : Ans. (b) : Sarcosomes are muscle mitochondria. (a) absence of myofilaments These are large specialised mitochondria found in the (b) presence of myofilaments striated muscle which generates energy during muscle (c) specialised arrangement of myofilaments (d) Projections of myosin contraction. It is mainly present in the sarcomere of UPPCS Pre 1997 muscles. It helps in the binding of the contractile protein. Ans. (b) : Sarcomere is the repeating unit of skeletal myofilaments. The striations are the specialized arrangement of myofilaments, namely actin and myosin. Sarcomere is present between 2Z lines. It is bordered between z lines. This gives striated appearance to the skeletal muscle. Striated muscle is a muscle that is made up of long fibers characterised by transverse or oblique striations or alternating light and dark bands. 20. Blood vessels are internally lined by : (a) squamous epithelium (b) columnar epithelium (c) sensory epithelium (d) ciliated epithelium UPPCS Pre 1997 Ans. (a) : Blood vessel internally lined by squamous epithelium. Simple squamous epithelium is a single layer of flat scale-shaped cells. Both the endothelial lining of blood vessels and the mesothelial lining of the body cavities are simple 17. Myofibrils are made up of : squamous epithelium. (a) Myosin and actin (b) Myosin and troponin 21. Which of the following bone is not a part of (c) Actin and tropomyosin appendicular skeleton : (a) Pterygoid (b) Pubis (d) All the above components (c) Clavicle (d) Femur UPPCS Pre 1997 UPPCS Pre 1994 Ans. (a) : Myofibrils constitute the contractile Ans. (a) : Pterygoid is the bone of visceral skeleton system, which consist of four complex proteins, actin, hence it is not a part of appendicular skeleton. myosin, tropomyosin and troponin. These four The appendicular skeleton include limb bones, girdle proteins are arranged into a functional unit called a bone, pubis is a bone of pelvic girdle and clavicle is sarcomere. 18. In mammals arytenoid cartilages are found the bone of pectoral girdle. Femur is the bone of legs. 22. Vocal cords occur in : associated with : (a) pharynx (b) glottis (a) Trachea (b) Larynx (c) bronchial tube (d) larynx (c) Internal ear (d) Nasal region TGT Biology 2004 UPPCS Pre 1996 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (d) : → Vocal cords occur in larynx. → Vocal cords are present in the top area of the larynx. It is also called vocal folds, and are two bands of smooth muscle tissue.The vocal cords vibrate and air passes through the cords from the lungs to produce the sound of voice. 23. Most of the energy for muscular contraction stored in the muscle tissue is in the form of : (a) ATP (b) phosphoenol pyruvate (c) eyclic AMP (d) phosphoenol pyruvate UPPCS Pre 1998 Ans. (a) : A.T.P. source of energy for muscle contraction stored in the muscles tissue. Ca++ and K+ ion is also needed for muscles contraction. Muscle contraction occurs when the thin actin and thick myosin filaments slide past each other. 24. Find out the correct sequence of the event, during muscle contraction from the answer code given below : A. Ca++ link bridge formation B. Release of Ca++ions from the sarcrplasmic reticulum C. Hydrolysis of ATP D. Shortening of myosin heads. Code : (a) A B C D (b) D C A B (c) C A B D (d) B A C D UPPCS Pre 1997 Ans. (d) : Correct sequence of events during muscle contraction are : • Release of Ca++ ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. • Ca++ link bridge formation • Hydrolysis of ATP • Shortening of myosin heads. 25. The cation essential in the final contractions muscle is : (a) Ca++ (b) Na+ ++ (c) Mg (d) Fe++ UPPCS Pre 2004 Ans. (a) : Ca++ ion essential in the final contraction of muscles. Muscle contraction ends when calcium ions are pumped back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum, allowing the muscle cell to relax. 26. The essential ion for muscle contraction is (a) Sodium (b) Chloride (c) Potassium (d) Calcium Navoday Vidyalay PGT Biology 2014 Ans: (d) The essential ion for muscle contraction is calcium ion (Ca2+). Calcium is released into the fibre upon nervous system excitation for a contraction. It binds with troponin and stimulates it to move tropomyosin which exposes the binding site for the myosin crossbridge. Because of the presence of calcium, the muscle can now contract. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Number of subunits in a microtubule is : (a) 2 (b) 10 (c) 11 (d) 12 Bihar PGT 2019 Ans. (d) : The number of subunits in the cross section of a microtubule is 13 these subunits are 5.7 n.m. They have circular structures of diameter and are called primitive filaments, these primitive fibers are arranged in a coiled form on a central axis. Their structure is different in the cell for example in each axonemata of cilia and flagella 972 microscopic tubules are found in a special arrangement.

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Light and dark bands present in myofibrils of muscles are : (a) Dark - A and light - Z Bands (b) Dark - A and light - I Bands (c) Dark - D and light - A Bands (d) Dark - D and light - L Bands UPPCS Pre 2004 Ans. (b) : A-dark band and I-light band in myofibrils of muscles. The light bands are called I-bands and contain only thin filaments. The dark bands are called A-bands and contain thick and thin filaments.

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The correct order of arrangement of ear ossicles from tympanum onwards is : (a) Incus, malleus, stapes (b) Malleus, incus, stapes (c) Stapes, malleus, incus (d) Incus, stapes, malleus UPPCS Pre 2002 UPPCS Pre 2008 YCT

Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (b) : The systematic order of the ossicles from the tympanum to the ear is MIS whose expanded form is malleus, incus, stapes. These bones are attached to each other in a chain-like manner. Malleus is attached to tympanic membrane whereas stapes is attached to oval window of cochlea. 30. The joint between incus and stapes is : (a) Ball and socket joint (b) Hinge joint (c) Gliding joint (d) Pivotal joint UPPCS Pre 2000 Ans. (a) : The ball and socket joint is found in incus and stapes and saddle joint found between malleus and incus. The malleus, the incus and the stapes are the three ossicles of the middle ear. The malleus articulates with the incus through the hinge joint and is attached to the tympanic membrane (eardrum), from which vibrational sound pressure motion is passed. The incus is connected to both the other bones. The stapes articulates with the incus through ball and socket joint and is attached to the membrane of the fenestra ovalis (opening between the middle ear) and the vestibule of the inner ear. 31. The correct sequence of bones in middle ear of man is (a) SIM (b) IMS (c) MIS (d) MSI PGT Biology 2009 Ans. (c) : The correct sequence of bones in middle ear of man from outside to inside is Malleus → Incus → Stapes 32. The number of ossicles in the ear of a mammal is : (a) two (b) three (c) four (d) five UPPCS Pre 2007 Ans. (b) : There are 3 ossicles found in the ear of mammals which are called malleus, incus and stapes, respectively which is called MIS in short. 33. The quadrate bone of the reptilian upper jaw is phylo-genetically related to which ear ossicle of mammals : (a) Malleus (b) Columella (c) Stapes (d) Incus UPPCS Pre 2003 Ans. (d) : The quadrate bone of the reptilian upper jaw is phylogenetically related to incus. Articular bones related to malleus. Hyomandibular bones related to stapes. They give the sensation of hearing in reptiles. 34. Lacrimal bone is situated : (a) Infront of the eye orbit close to the frontal bone (b) behind the cye orbit close to the post orbital bone (c) above the eye orbit close to the supra orbital (d) below the orbit UPPCS Pre 1997 Ans. (c) : Lacrimal bone is situated above the eye orbit close to the supra orbital. Its main function is to provide support to the structures of the lacrimal support which secretes tears to lubricate the eye as well as act as a site for orbicularis oculi muscle attachment. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer from the code given below the list : List-I List-II (Bones) (Ear Ossicle) (a) Angular 1. Incus (b) Articular 2. Malleus (c) Hyomandibular 3. Stapes (d) Quadrate 4. Tympanic Code : A B C D (a) 1 3 4 2 (b) 2 4 1 3 (c) 3 1 2 4 (d) 4 2 3 1 UPPCS Pre 2001 Ans. (d) : Correct match (a) Angular – Tympanic (b) Articular – Malleus (c) Hyomandibular – Stapes (d) Quadrate – Incus 36. The three ear ossicles in mammals are formed from which bones ? (a) Squamosal, jugal and pterygoid (b) Jugal, hyomandibular and articulate (c) Quadrate, pterygoid and jugal (d) Quadrate, articulate and hyomandibular TGT Biology 1999 Ans. (d) : The three ear ossicles in mammals are formed from quadrate, articular and hyomandibular bones. Malleus – Articular Incus – Quadrate Stapes – Hyomandibular The ear ossicles (auditory ossicles) are three bones in either middle ear that are among the smallest bone in the human body. 37. In mammals the lower jaw joins the squamosal directly to form an autostylic suspension because : (a) Quadrate bone is absent (b) Articular bone is absent (c) Both quadrate and articular bones are absent (d) Pterygoid is absent UPPCS Pre 1996 Ans. (c) : Articular and quadrate both bone are absent in upper jaw in mammals. So dentary join with squamosal of upper jaw. The dentary of lower jaw make two process called coronoid and angular process. Craniostylic jaw suspension is mainly present in the mammals which is a modification of autostylic suspension. 38. Melanin is secreted by : (a) Erythroblasts of blood (b) Chromatophores of skin (c) Cells of stratum compactcum (d) Ganglia of sensory nerves UPPCS Pre 2004 Ans. (b) : Melanin is secreted by chromatophores of skin which is found in wide range of animals including amphibians, fish, reptiles and Crustaceans. Mammals and birds have a cells called melanocyte cells for coloration.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 39.

Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer from the code given below the list : List-I List-II (a) Proteomics 1. rhythmic activity (b) Chronobiology 2. complete muscle starvation (c) Ischaemia 3. expressed proteins (d) Infarction 4. partial muscle starvation Code : A B C D (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 3 1 4 2 (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 2 4 1 3 UPPCS Pre 2004 Ans. (b) : The correct match of List I and List II given below. (List-I) (List-II) A. Proteomics Expressed protein B. Chronobiology Rhythmic activity C. Ischaemia Partial muscles starvation D. Infarction Complete muscles starvation 40. Volkmann’s canals are connected to (a) 4th ventricle and central canal (b) Bonemarrow (c) Haversian canal (d) 3rd and 4th ventricle of brain PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (c) : Volkmann's canals is also known as perforating holes or channels are anatomic arrangements in cortical bones. Volkmann's canals are inside osteons. They interconnect the Haversian canals with each other and the periosteum. It is named after Volkmann Alfred Wilhelm. 41. Haversian canals are connected with one another by : (a) Canal of Schlemm (b) Canal of Cloquet (c) Canal of Volkmann (d) Canal of Hering UPPCS Pre 2006 Ans. (c) : Haversian canal found in the bones that are connected with one another by Volkmann canal. Canal of Schlemm found in the eye of mammals. Canal of Cloquet is also found in the eye of mammals. Canal of Hering found between the bile canaliculi and interlobular bile ducts near the liver lobule. 42. Troponin is a : (a) Muscle protein (b) Digestive enzyme (c) High energy reservoir (d) Water soluble vitamin UPPCS Pre 1996 Ans. (a) : Troponin is muscles protein which control muscles contraction. Troponin is a type of protein found in the muscles of the heart. Troponin isn't normally found in the blood. When heart muscles become damaged, troponin is sent into the blood stream. As heart damage increases, greater amounts of troponin are released in the blood. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

43.

Which one of the following is called inspiratory muscle in mammals : (a) Radial muscle of diaphragm (b) External intercostal muscle (c) Internal intercostal muscle (d) Pleural muscle UPPCS Pre 1996 Ans. (b) : Inspiratory muscles in mammal is external inter-costal muscle and expiratory muscles in mammal is internal intercostal muscles. Mammals are also provided with costal muscles. Which can move the rib cage. There are two setsexternal and internal intercostal muscles. The intercostals cause movements decreasing volume of air tight thoracic cavity, thus bringing about breathing movements. 44. Muscle fibers of the following organ are multinucleated : (a) heart (b) urinary bladder (c) stomach (d) limbs UPPCS Pre 1995 Ans. (d) : Muscle fibers of limb are multinucleated. It is also called striped/striated muscles. Heart muscles are called cardiac muscles. It is uninucleated muscles. Fibers of urinary bladder called unstriped muscles. 45. Muscles surrounding the pupil of human eye are: (a) unstriated and involuntary (b) striated and in voluntary (c) unstriated and voluntary (d) striated and voluntary UPPCS Pre 1998 UPPCS Pre 1999 Ans. (a) : Pupil is the aperture that controls the light entering into the eye. Pupil of human eye is surrounded by unstriated and involuntary muscles. Muscles surrounding the pupil of the human eye are unstriated and involuntary e.g. Iris of eye. 46. Assertion (A) : Outermost layer of human skin has dead cornified cells. Reason (R) : Bacteria and other microbes are to be stopped from entering freely into the inner tissue. Select the correct answer from the codes given below : Code : (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (d) (A) is false, but (R) is true. UPPCS Pre 2004, 2005 Ans. (b) : Outermost layer of human skin has dead cornified cells, because bacteria and other microbes are to be stopped from entering freely into the inner tissue. If uppermost layer of skin is living than harmful microbe grow and multiply upon the skin. So Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

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M-line in striped muscle fiber is located in : (a) A-band (b) H-zone (c) I-band (d) Z-line PGT 2005 UPPCS Pre 2010 Ans. (b) : M-line is located in the H-zone of striped muscle fiber. It is a vertical line in the middle of the Hzone at which accessory proteins hold together thick filaments. The I-band is the region containing only thin filaments and the A-band contains both thick and thin filaments. 48. All muscles which are attached to bones are : (a) Unstriped muscles (b) Unstriped and striped muscles (c) Cardiac muscles (d) Only Striped muscles TGT Biology 2013 Ans. (d) : All muscles which are attached to bones are only striped muscles. Human body consist of about 400 striped muscles. These muscles act voluntarily. Most of these muscles are attached to bones at both ends with the help of tendons, so they are called skeletal muscles. * Unstriped muscles are present in walls of hollow internal structures (digestive tract, urinary tract, gall bladder, stomach, respiratory tract, uterus etc). They have no relation with bones and they act involuntarily. Due to its involuntary action, they do not get fatigue. * Cardiac muscles are present in heart muscular wall. It has got characters of both striped and unstriped muscles. 49. The functional unit of muscle contraction is : (a) A Band (b) Myofibril (c) Sarcomere (d) Myofibre TGT Biology 2011 Ans. (c) : Sarcomere is the functional unit of muscle contraction. It is the part of myofibril between two successive Z-lines, which consists of two I-band halves, and an A-band between them. The region contains a bundle of two types of protein filaments, actin and myosin. Upon contraction, the actin filaments slide towards the centre of the myosin filaments, and overall sarcomere length get smaller. 50. Creatine phosphate is found in : (a) Epithelial tissues (b) Neural tissues (c) Muscular tissues (d) Bone marrow TGT Biology 2011 Ans. (c) : Creatine phosphate is found in muscular tissue. It is the main high-energy, phosphate storage molecule of muscle. It helps make a substance called adenosine triphosphate (ATP). ATP provides the energy for muscle contractions. 51. The innermost layer of skin epidermis is : (a) Stratum corneum (b) Stratum malpighi (c) Stratum spinosum (d) Stratum lucidum TGT Biology 2011 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (b) : The innermost layer of skin epidermis is stratum malpighi. It consist of single layer of cells. It is also called stratum basale. It plays a vital role in the skin as it protects the skin from pathogens and prevents the excessive water loss.

52.

Cardiac muscle apart from the myocardium is also present in (a) Pericardium (b) Endo cardium (c) Proximal portion of aorta and venacava (d) Epicardium Delhi SSB PGT Biology 2015 Ans. (b) : Apart from the myocardium, cardiac muscles are also present in endocardium. The endocardium represents the inner layer of the cardiac wall and covers the inner surface of the cardiac chambers and the superficial surface of the cardiac valves. It consists of endothelial cells, connective tissue, elastic fibers and smooth muscle cells. 53. The length of a muscle does not change in : (a) Isotonic contraction (b) Isometric contraction (c) Titanic contraction (d) Rapid contraction PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (b) : The length of a muscle does not change in Isometric contraction. It is also known as static exercise. This is typical of muscles found in the hands and forearm, the muscles do not change length and joints are not moved. 54. Sarcomere is the area between two : (a) A bands (b) H bands (c) I bands (d) Z bands UPPCS Pre 2000 PGT Biology 2009 Ans. (d) : Sarcomere is the area between two Z bands and it is the relationship between the protein. The area of Z band that period during each myofibril are filaments of the protein myosin and actin. In one of each myofibril, regularly occurring dark band is called Z-band. It consist of primary structural and functional unit of muscle tissue. 55. Quadriceps and Gastrocnemius muscles lie in (a) hands (b) legs (c) shoulder (d) wrist PGT Biology 2010

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (b) : Quadriceps and Gastrocnemius muscle lie in legs. The quadriceps muscle consists of four individual muscles, three vastus muscle and the rectus femoris. It is located in the anterior compartment of the thigh and form the main bulk of the thigh. The gastrocnemius muscle is a muscle located on the back portion of the lower leg. It is one of the two major muscles that make up the calf, the other being the soleus muscle. 56. The thin filaments of the myofibril are constituted by which protein ? (a) Actin (b) Troponin (c) Tropomyosin (d) All of these PGT Biology 2005 Ans. (d) : The thin filaments of the myofibril are composed of actin, tropomyosin and troponin proteins. Myofibrils are composed of smaller structures called myofilaments. There are two main types of myofilaments thick, filaments and thin filaments. Thick filaments are composed primarily of myosin proteins. 57. During muscle contraction calcium binds to (a) Actin (b) Myosin (c) Tropomyosin (d) Troponin PGT Biology 2005 Ans. (d) : During muscle contraction calcium binds to troponin protein. The muscle contraction cycle is triggered by calcium ions binding to the protein complex troponin, exposing the active-binding sites on the actin. ATP then binds to myosin, moving the myosin to its high-energy state, releasing the myosin head from the actin active site. 58. After prolonged work muscles fatigue, During muscular fatigue: (a) Citric acid is formed (b) Pyruvic acid formed (c) Glucose is converted into glycogen (d) Lactic acid is formed PGT Biology 2004 Ans. (d) : After prolonged work muscles fatigue due to the formation of lactic acid. Lactic acid is formed and accumulated in the muscles under conditions of high energy demand, rapid fluctuations of the energy requirement and insufficient supply of O2. It is a by product of anaerobic metabolism. 59. Muscles fibers of the following organ are multinucleated. (a) Heart (b) Urinary bladder (c) Stomach (d) Limbs PGT Biology 2003 Ans. (d) : Muscle fibers of limbs are multinucleated. These are skeletal muscle fibers and are cylindrical, striated and under voluntary control. The cells are multinucleated as a result of the fusion of the many myoblasts (embryonic cells) that fuse to form each long muscle fiber. 60. How many bones are there in human skull ? (a) 24 (b) 22 (c) 14 (d) 8 Bihar PGT 2019 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (*) : 29 bones are found in the human skull while 8 in the cranial, 14 in the face and in the ear (3 + 3 = 6) bone. Note-The commission has considered the number of bone in the human brain to be 22. Skull (a) Cranial Occipital 1 29 Parietal 2 Frontal 1 8 Temporal 2 Sphenoid 1 Ethmoid 1 (b) Facial Nasal 2 Vomar 1 Turbine 2 Lacrimal 2 14 Zygomatic 2 Palatine 2 Maxilla 2 Mandible 1 (c) Ear Malleus 2 Ossicles Incus 2 6 Stapes 2 (d) Hyoid Hyoid 1 1 Body 61. What is actin ? (a) Myofilament (b) Myosin (c) Muscle fibre (d) Myofibrils Navoday Vidyalay PGT Biology 2014 Ans: (a) Actin is a myofilament. Myofibrils are composed of smaller structures called myofilaments. There are two main types of myofilaments, thick filaments and thin filaments. Thin filaments are composed of actin, tropomyosin and troponin and thick filaments are composed primarily of myosin proteins. 62. Which of the following is associated with the thin filament of skeletal muscle? (a) Myosin (b) Rhodopsin (c) Myoglobin (d) Troponin GIC Biology 14.06.2015 Ans. (d) : A skeletal muscle is made up of different types of proteins. The thick filaments are made up of myosin while the thin filament is made up of three proteins actin, troponin and tropomyosin. 63. Organs of equilibrium in man's ears are : (a) three-semi circular canals (b) utriculus (c) cochlea canal (d) sacculus UPPCS Pre 1995 Ans. (a) : Organs of equilibrium in man is the three semicircular canal present in the internal ear. Sacculus and cochlea involve in hearing. The semicircular canals and the otolith organs are filled with fluid. 64. Which one of the following vertebrate tissues would be an excellent source of collagen : (a) Liver (b) Muscle (c) Tendon (d) Nerve UPPCS Pre 2000

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (c) : Collagen is the most abundant protein in the human body. In the dense regular connective tissue, the collagen fibres are present in rows between many parallel bundles of fibers, tendons which attach skeletal muscles to bones and ligaments which attach one bone to another are examples of dense regular connective tissue. 65. During impulse conduction the cause of depolarization of axolemma is (a) Rapid efflux of K+ (b) Influx of K+ (c) Influx of Na+ (d) Efflux of Na+ TGT Biology 2011 Ans. (c) The cause of depolarization of axolemma during impulse conduction is the influx of Na+. Depolarization of a nerve cell membrane occurs during the passage of an action potential along the axon where the nerve is transmitting an impulse. During depolarization the activation gates of Na channels open and the K channels remain closed. Na+ rush into the axon which leads to depolarization. 66. Bones formed by ossification of a tendon is called: (a) Membrane bone (b) Sesamoid bone (c) Dermal bone (d) Cartilage TGT Biology 2003 Ans. (b) : Bones formed by ossification of a tendon is called sesamoid bone. Sesamoids are found in several joints in the body. Their functions include modify pressure, to diminish friction and occasionally to change the direction of a muscle pull. Cartilage like other tissues is formed from the mesoderm germ layer. It is a non-vascular type of flexible, supporting connective tissue. A membrane bone or dermal bone is a bony structure derived from intramembranous ossification forming components of the vertebrate skeleton. 67. Sesamoid bone is formed by ossification of – (a) Ligament (b) Cartilage (c) Adipose tissue (d) Tendons TGT Biology 2002 Ans. (d) : See the explanation of the above question. 68. Main bone of mammalian pectoral girdle is : (a) Ilium (b) Coracoid (c) Pubis (d) Scapula TGT Biology 1999 Ans. (d) : Main bone of mammalian pectoral girdle is scapula. The pectoral girdle or shoulder girdle is the set of bones in the appendicular skeleton which connects to the arm on each side. In humans it consists of the clavicle and scapula and in those species with three bones in the shoulder, it consists of the clavicle, scapula and coracoid. 69. The function of ear ossicles in middle ear cavity is: (a) to increase frequency (b) increase amplitude (c) to increase wavelength(d) All of these PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (d) : The function of ear ossicles in middle ear cavity is (i) To increase frequency (ii) To increase amplitude (iii) To increase wavelength The three ear ossicles connect the tympanic membrane to the inner ear allowing for the transmission of sound waves. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Total number of bones in right arm of man is : (a) 28 (b) 30 (c) 32 (d) 34 PGT Biology 2010 Ans. (b) : Total number of bones in right upper limb of man is 30. Part of upper limb Bones Arm 1 Humerus Forearm 1 Radius and 1 Ulna Wrist 8 Carpals Hand 5 Metacarpals Fingers 14 Phalanges (2 in thumb and 3 in each fingers) So total number of bones in both upper limbs is 60. 71. Otoliths are present in (a) Stomach (b) Internal ear (c) Bone marrow (d) Liver PGT Biology 2009 Ans. (b) : Otoliths is a structure in the saccule or utricle of the inner ear, specifically in the vestibular labyrinth of vertebrates. They are sensitive to gravity and linear acceleration. It is also called statoconium or otoconium and is composed of a combination of a gelatinous matrix and calcium carbonate (CaCO3) in the endolymph of the saccule and utricle. 72. Ischiopubic symphysis is present in the pelvic girdle of (a) Rabbit (b) Frog (c) Lizard (d) Flying Fish PGT Biology 2003 Ans. (c) : Ischiopubic symphysis is present in the pelvic girdle of Hemidactylus (Lizard). Hemidactylus is a small lizard species, native to South East Asia. Its common name is common house geeko, due to their readiness to adapt to and coexist with humans and can be easily encountered in human habitations. 73. Protein ossein is present in (a) matrix of bone (b) matrix of ligaments (c) matrix of cartilage (d) matrix of tendon Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2015 Ans. (a) : Protein ossein is present in the matrix of bone. It is the organic extracellular matrix of bone, which is made of 95% collagen. The bone matrix forms most of the mass of the bone and is composed of organic and inorganic substances. Protein chondrin is present in the matrix of cartilage. The matrix also contains glycosaminoglycans, proteoglycans and sometimes elastin. 74. Haversian system is a salient feature of : (a) bones of chordates (b) bones of aves and mammals (c) bones of only mammals (d) cartilages of mammals Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (c) : Haversian system is a salient feature of bones of mammals. It is one of the diagnostic features of mammalian bones. These are microscopic tubes situated in the outermost region of bones. These are also called osteons. It consists of a central canal called the osteonic (haversian) canal, which is surrounded by concentric rings (lamellae) of matrix.

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Haversian system is associated with : (a) Liver (b) Bone (c) Spleen (d) Kidney UPPCS Pre 1996 Ans. (b) : Haversian system is a characteristic feature of mammals bone. Haversian system contain two canal (i) Haversian canal, (ii) Volkmann canal. The Volkmann canal connect one haversian canal to another haversian canal. Haversian canals are a series of microscopic tubes in the outermost region of bone called cortical bone that allow blood vessels and nerves to travel through them. Haversian canals are found in animals like dogs, cow, sheep and humans. Each haversian canal generally contains one or two capillaries and nerve fibres. Hence, Haversian canals are found in mammalian bone. 76. Knee cap, Patella, is a : (a) heterotopic bone (b) membrane bone (c) replacing bone (d) sesamoid bone UPPCS Pre 2010 Ans. (d) : Patella or knee cap is a sesamoid bone. It is triangular in shape, with the apex of the patella facing downwards. It is the largest sesamoid bone in the human body and is located anterior to knee joint within the tendon of the quadriceps femoris muscle. Sesamoid bones are usually short or irregular bones, embedded in a tendon. 77. Synovial fluid is found in : (a) Cranial cavity (b) Immovable joints (c) Freely movable joints (d) Spinal cord UPPCS Pre 2009 Ans. (c) : Synovial fluid is found in freely movable joints. Synovial fluid, also known as joint fluid, is a thick liquid located between joints. The fluid cushions the ends of bones and reduces friction during movement of joints. The cranial cavity is the space formed inside the skull. Spinal cord is a column of nerve tissue that runs from the base of skull down the center of the back. 78. The zygomatic arch of mammals is formed by : (a) Jugal, squamosal and maxilla (b) Quadratojugal, pterygoid and nasal (c) Squamosal, palatine and vomer (d) Squamosal, maxilla and vomer UPPCS Pre 1998 Ans. (a) : Jugal is a narrow wavy bone connects zygomatic processes of squamosal and maxilla forming 'zygomatic arch' Zygomatic arch surrounds the eye orbit from outer side. 79. Largest of the three in the middle ear of mammals is : (a) collumella auris (b) incus (c) Malleus (d) stapes UPPCS Pre 1998 Ans. (c) : Malleus, incus and stapes are the three bones of middle ear. Malleus is the longest and stapes smallest in them. Together they (all 3 ear bones) form a short chain that crosses the middle ear and transmits vibrations caused by sound waves from the eardrum membrane to the liquid of the inner ear. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

80.

Fibrous immovable joints are found in the bones of: (a) vertebral column (b) skull (c) girdles (d) limbs UPPCS Pre 1999 Ans. (b) : Fibrous immovable joints are found in the bones of skull. Fibrous immovable joints are a connection between bones and held together by fibrous connective tissues including collagen fibers. Examples of fibrous joints are skull, pelvic bone, backbone, rib cage and upper jaw. 81. Muscles attached to the bones or tendons are : (a) Striated muscles (b) Non striated muscles (c) Cardiac muscles (d) Catch muscles UPPCS Pre 1995 Ans. (a) : Connection of muscles to bone called tendons. Striated/Skeletal muscles take part in tendon formation. Ligament is bone to bone connection. 82. Osteoblast cells are responsible for : (a) bone digestion (b) bone formation (c) bone diseases (d) bone protection UPPCS Pre 1995 Ans. (b) : Osteoblast cells are called bone forming cells. Bone digesting cells called Osteoclast and Osteoporosis is bone disease. Osteoblasts are specialized mesenchymal cells that synthesize bone matrix and coordinate the mineralization of skeleton. 83. Mastoid bone is found in : (a) Ocular region (b) Nasal region (c) Occipital region (d) Auditory region UPPCS Pre 1996 Ans. (d) : Mastoid bone are found in the auditory region. The auditory capsule enclose the membranous labyrinths of internal ear and include periotic and tympanic bones. The mastoid bone is the back part of the temporal bone of the skull located just behind the inner ear. 84. Ethmoid bone is associated with the cranial cavity of mammals, find out correct explanation about this bone : (a) it is situated on the floor of the cranial cavity (b) it is a plate perforated with several pores (c) it is also called cribriform plate (d) all the above are correct UPPCS Pre 1996 Ans. (d) : The ethmoid bone is an anterior cranial bone located between the eyes. It is made up of three parts cribriform plate, perpendicular plate and the ethmoidal labyrinth. The ethmoid bone forms the central part of the floor of the cranial cavity. It is a plate perforated with several pores. 85. At the articular surface of the bones, synovial fluid serves to : (a) Seal (b) Lubricate (c) Keeps distance (d) Join UPPCS Pre 1996 Ans. (b) : Synovial fluid present at the articular surface of the bone. It serve to lubricate the bones to reduce the friction between the joint. Synovial fluid is a viscous, non Newtonian fluid found in the cavities of synovial joints. With its yolklike consistency, its principal role is to reduce friction between the articular cartilage of synovial joints during movement.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 86.

Chevron bone is found in the vertebrae of : (a) Varanus (b) Ophisaurus (c) Crotalus (d) All of the above UPPCS Pre 2001 Ans. (a) : Chevron bone is found in the vertebrae of Varanus. It is the most characteristic feature of anterior caudal vertebrae. It is Y-shaped bone and is attached to the ventral surface of the centrum. It is also known as haemal arch. The canal formed by the space between the arch and the vertebral body is the haemal canal. 87. Which of the following bone(s) is/are found in the brachium region : 90. Fibrous tissue connecting two bones is called : (a) Femur (b) Tibia and fibula (a) connective tissue (b) tendon (c) Radius and ulna (d) Humerus (c) ligament (d) muscles UPPCS Pre 2001 UPPCS Pre 2004 Ans. (d) : Bone present in the brachium region is Ans. (c) : Fibrous tissue connecting bone to bone humerus. The brachium refers to the upper arm or the called ligaments. Bones connecting with muscles portion of the human arm between the shoulder and called tendon. They are very elastic and have the elbow. The humerus is a long cylindrical bone considerable strength. which articulates with the scapula above and with the 91. Which of the following muscles are under radius and the ulna below. voluntary nervous control? 88. Olecranon fossa is found in : (a) smooth muscles (a) Ulna (b) Humerus (b) skeletal muscles (c) cardiac muscles (c) Radius and ulna (d) Pelvic girdle (d) both smooth and cardiac muscles UPPCS Pre 2001 LT Biology 2015 Ans. (b) : Olecranon fossa is found in humerus. It is Ans. (b) : Skeletal muscles are under voluntary located on the posterior surface of the distal humerus, nervous control. These are attached to bones by where it receives the proximal ulna during full tendons and they produce all the movements of body extension of the arm. It is a large depression on the parts in relation to each other. They are striated in posterior aspect of humerus which receives olecranon appearance. The somatic nervous system operates process of ulna in extension of elbow. muscles that are under voluntary control. Smooth muscles and cardiac muscles are not under voluntary control. 92. Tendon connects : (a) muscle to muscle (b) muscle to bone (c) ligament to bone (d) bone to bone UPPCS Pre 2008 Ans. (b) : Tendon connects muscles to bones. It is a fibrous connective tissue and are capable of withstanding high tensile loads. A tendon serves to move the bone or structure. A ligament is a fibrous connective tissue that attaches bone to bone. 93. Which of the following develops the hair in mammals ? (a) Stratum corneum (b) Stratum granulosum (c) Stratum compactum (d) Stratum germinativum Bihar PGT 2019 Ans. (d) : Stratum germinativum develops the hair in mammals. Hair is the threadlike outgrowths of the outer layer of the skin (epidermis) that form an animals coat, or pelage. The most important function of hair in mammals is that of insulating against cold by conserving body heat. 89. Cnemial crest is found in : 94. Microtubules are made up of : (a) Femur (b) Tibia (a) Fibrin (b) Actin (c) Humerus (d) Fibula (c) Tubulin (d) Myosin UPPCS Pre 2001 UPPCS Pre 2004 Ans. (b) : Cnemial crest is found in tibia. It is a crest Ans. (c) : Microtubules are tube like, unbranched like prominence located at the front side of the head of cylindrical structure having diameter of 200-300 Å. the tibiotarsus or tibia in the legs of many mammals T.S. of microtubules shows array of 13 rows of and reptiles. The main extensor muscle of the thigh is subunits. Chemically these filaments are made up of attached to this ridge. tubulin protein. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 14. Endocrine Systems 1.

Endocrine Glands and Their Function

In mammalian testis, androcytes are produced by: (a) Spermatocytes (b) Spermatogonia (c) Interstitial cells (d) Sertoli cells UPPSC Ashram Paddhati 29/09/2021 Ans. (c) : In mammalian testis, androcytes are produced by interstitial cells. These cells are located adjacent to the seminiferous tubules in the testes and are also called leydig cells. These cells are the primary source of testosterone or androgens in males and play a crucial role in many vital physiological processes in males, including sperm production or spermatogenesis, controlling sexual development, and maintaining secondary sexual characteristics and behaviors. Leydig cells are polyhedral in shape, and have a large prominent nucleus, an eosinophilic cytoplasm and numerous lipid filled vesicles. 2. The D-cells and D2F-cells of pancreas respectively secrete : (a) Pancreatic polypeptide and somatostatin (b) Pancreatic somatostatin and polypeptide (c) Insulin and somatostatin (d) Glucagon and somatostatin TGT (2016) 31/07/2021 Ans. (b) : The D-cells and D2 F-cells of Pancreas respectively secrete pancreatic somatostatin and polypeptide. The endocrine portion of the pancreas taken from many small clusters of cells called islets of Langerhans or, more simply, islets. Delta cells (D-cells) secrete the hormone somatostatin and polypeptide, which is also produced by a number of other endocrine cells in the body. 3. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the listsList-I List-II (A) Pancreas 1. Epinephrine (B) Thyroid 2. Aldosterone (C) Adrenal medulla 3. Glucagon (D) Adrenal cortex 4. Calcitonin Code : A B C D (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 3 2 1 (c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 2 1 4 3 GIC 19/09/2021

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Ans. (c) : Correct match :– List–I List–II (A) Pancreas Glucagon (B) Thyroid Calcitonin (C) Adrenal medulla Epinephrine (D) Adrenal cortex Aldosterone 4. The following endocrine glands are present in the human body: A. Adrenal gland B. Pancreas C. Pineal gland D. Pituitary gland E. Thymus Arrange them in descending sequence of their location i.e. from head to foot: (a) DECBA (b) ACDEB (c) CDEBA (d) DEABC Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2015 RPSC School Lecturer (23/07/2016) Ans. (c) : The following endocrine glands are present in the human body-descending sequence of their location i.e. from head to foot: Pineal gland, pituitary gland, thymus, pancreas, Adrenal gland.

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The endocrine portion of pancreas secretes: (a) Insulin and Pancreatic juice (b) Glucagon and pancreatic juice (c) Insulin and Glucagon (d) Insulin, Glucagon and Pancreatic juice RPSC School Lecturer (23/07/2016) Ans. (c) : The Pancreas is a mixed gland, having both an endocrine and an exocrine function. As an endocrine gland, it secretes into the blood several important hormones, including insulin, glucagon, somatostatin, and pancreatic polypeptide. The endocrine portion of the pancreas takes the form of many small clusters of cells called islets of Langerhans. 6. Which secretes calcitonin ? (a) C - cells of parathyroid (b) C - cells of thyroid (c) B - cells of pancreas (d) Adrenal medulla RPSC School Lecturer 2011 Ans. (b) : C-cells of thyroid secretes calcitonin to regulate calcium levels in the blood by decreasing it. It opposes the action of the parathyroid hormone which is a hormone that increases the blood calcium levels. 7. Which of the following hormones is not made up of α and β subunits ? (a) LH (b) FSH (c) TSH (d) Prolactin UP LT 2018 Ans. (d) : Prolactin hormone is not made up of α and β subunits. Pituitary glycoprotein hormones are composed of two different subunits, the alpha (α) and beta (β) subunits. The alpha-subunit is common to all FSH, LH, TSH, while the beta-subunit is specific for each of these hormones. So FSH, LH, and TSH are made up of α and β subunit. 8. Renin is secreted by : (a) cells in the macula densa (b) cells in the proximal tubules (c) cells in the distal tubules (d) juxtaglomerular cells UP LT 2018 Ans. (d) : Renin is secreted by the juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney. These cells are located in the walls of renal afferent arterioles at the entrance of the glomerular capillary network. Renin is released in response to a decrease in GFR (Glomerular Filtration Rate) or a decrease in blood pressure. Renin stimulates the formation of angiotensin in blood and tissues, which in turn stimulates the release of aldosterone from the adrenal cortex. 9. Most of the injected radioactive iodine in a mammal would accumulate in : (a) bone (b) liver (c) thymus (d) thyroid UP LT 2018 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (d) : Most of the injected radioactive iodine accumulate in thyroid gland. The thyroid gland accumulates iodine from the food we eat. The thyroid gland uses this iodine to perform its normal function, which is to make thyroid hormone. Radioactive iodine is used to treat overactive thyroid glands and certain kinds of thyroid cancer. 10. Maximum absorption of iodine in the body of vertebrates occurs in : (a) Pancreas (b) Liver (c) Thyroid (d) Adrenal UPPCS Pre 1996 Ans. (c) : Maximum absorbtion of iodine in the body of vertebrate occurs in the thyroid gland by the production of thyroxine hormones. 11. Castration cells are found in the : (a) anterior pituitary (b) hypothalamus (c) uterus (d) prostate UP LT 2018 Ans. (a) : Castration cells are found in the anterior pituitary. It is a basophilic cell with a large vacuole found in the anterior pituitary after castration, effective (drug) castration or long-term use of alcohol. The large vacuole displaces the nucleus to the periphery, giving the cell a resemblance to a signet ring, it is also known as signet ring cells. 12. Nor- epinephrine is a vasoconstrictor but it has no effect on(a) Systemic (b) Coronary artery (c) Both of these (d) None of these PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (c) : Nor-epinephrine is a vasoconstriction but it does not affect systemic arteries and coronary arteries although its affect is also somewhat similar to that of adrenaline. It acts on only a receptors of the effector organs but due to this the heart rate does not increase and the blood pressure does not increase in its pressure the blood vessels dilate. 13. Rathke's pouch is related to : (a) pituitary (b) adrenal (c) gonad (d) urinary bladder UP LT 2018 Ans. (a) : Rathke's pouch is related to pituitary gland. It is an evagination at the roof of the developing mouth in front of the buccopharyngeal membrane and gives rise to the anterior pituitary (adenohypophysis). It is also known as hypophyseal diverticulum.

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Rathke's pouch is related to : (a) pituitary (b) adrenal (c) gonad (d) urinary bladder LT Biology 2018 Ans. (a) : See the explanation of the above question. 15. Secretions of progesterone by corpus luteum is initiated by : (a) MSH (b) LH (c) Testosterone (d) Thyroxine Bihar PGT 2019 Ans. (b) : Secretion of progesterone by corpus luteum is initiated by LH. Luteinizing hormone (LH) is secreted by the anterior lobe of pituitary gland. It induces/triggers ovulation and maintains the corpus luteum and is essential for maintaining luteal function for the next two weeks after ovulation. 16. Steroidogenesis takes place in : (a) Sertoli cells (b) Leydig cells (c) Germ cells (d) none of these Bihar PGT 2019 Ans. (b) : Steroidogenesis takes place in Leydig cells. It is a biological process of steroid hormone production. The major classes of steroid hormones are progesteron, corticosteroids, androgens and estrogens. Leydig cells or interstitial cells are located in the connective tissue surrounding the seminiferous tubules. Adrenal cortex, testes, ovaries and placenta synthesize steroid hormones. 17. Tunica dartos is located in the : (a) testis (b) ovary (c) vagina (d) scrotum LT Biology 2018 Ans. (d) : Tunica dartos is located in the scrotum. The Dartos Tunic Tunic (tunica dartos) is a thin layer of non-striped muscular fibers, continuous, around the base of the scrotum, with the two layers of the superficial fascia of the groin and the perineum. The tunica dartos acts to regulate the temperature of the testicles, which promotes spermatogenesis. 18. Which is amino acid derived hormone? (a) Thyroxin (b) Epinephrine (c) Melatonin (d) All of these Bihar PGT 2019 Ans. (d) : Amino acid derived hormone are thyroxine, epinephrine and melatonin. The amino acid derived hormones are relatively small molecules from tyrosine and tryptophan. Thyroxine is produced by the thyroid gland, epinephrine is synthesized by the adrenal glands and melatonin is secreted by the pineal gland. 19. Bowman's glands are found in : (a) External auditory canal (b) Cortical nephrons (c) Juxtamedullary nephrons (d) Olfactory epithelium Bihar PGT 2019 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (d) : Bowman's glands are found in olfactory epithelium. These are a type of nasal gland situated in the olfactory mucosa, beneath the olfactory epithelium, in the lamina propria, a connective tissue also containing fibroblasts, blood vessels and bundles of fine axons from the olfactory neurons. It is also known as olfactory glands.

20.

Parathyroid gland is essential for the maintenance of : (a) Normal sugar level (b) Normal magnesium level (c) Normal calcium level (d) Normal sodium level UPPCS Pre 1994 Ans. (c) : Parathyroid glands control blood calcium and bone calcium from the brain demands a normal steady-state calcium level, so any change in the maintaining calcium (and parathyroid hormone) in a very narrow "normal" range. Calcium is the most important element for the nervous system. 21. Basal metabolic rate is controlled by which of the following ? (a) Pituitary gland (b) Pancreas (c) Liver (d) Thyroid gland UPPCS Pre 2007 Ans. (d) : Basal metabolic rate (BMR) is controlled by thyroid gland. The BMR of the body is regulated by the hormones T3 and T4, produced by the thyroid gland in response to the thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH), produced by the anterior pituitary. BMR refers to the rate of use of energy by a resting body to maintain its vital functions. 22. The secretion of hormones from anterior pituitary are regulated by : (a) factors from the brain (b) factors from the kidney (c) factors from the posterior pituitary (d) factor from the hypothalamus UPPCS Pre 1997

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (d) : The secretion of hormones from anterior pitutary is regulated by growth hormones releasing factor secreted from hypothalamus. Inhibiting hormones that are synthesized in the arcuate, paraventricular, periventricular and supraoptic nucleus of the hypothalamus control anterior pituitary hormone secretion. 23. Hormone that causes the milk ejection from the breasts when the baby begins to suckle is called : (a) prolactin (b) estrogen (c) progesterone (d) oxytocin UPPCS Pre 1997 TGT Biology 2010 Ans. (d) : Oxytocin is hormone that cause the ejection of milk from breast progesterone secreted by corpus luteum called antiabortion hormones. Prolactin secreted from anterior pituitary and initiates process of lactation. Estrogen hormone secreted by corpus luteum is known as beauty hormone. 24. Hormone that causes the milk ejection from the breasts when the baby begins to suckle is called? (a) Prolactin (b) Estrogen (c) Progesterone (d) Oxytocin TGT Biology 2010 Ans. (d) : Hormone that causes the milk ejection from the breasts when the baby begins to suckle is oxytocin. It is produced by the hypothalamus and secreted by the posterior pituitary gland. It stimulates the uterine muscles to contract, so labor begins. Once the baby is born, it promotes lactation. 25. Which of the following is known as emergency gland: (a) Thymus (b) Thyroid (c) Pituitary (d) Adrenal UPPCS Pre 2004 PGT Biology 2009 Ans. (d) : Adrenal gland known as emergency gland. There are two part of adrenal gland adrenal medulla and adrenal cortex. It is also known as suprarenal gland. Adrenal gland is called as the emergency gland because it secretes adrenaline hormone during stress and adrenaline initiates a quick response to the stress and emergency. 26. Which of the following glands is called 4 'S' gland: (a) Pituitary (b) Adrenal cortex (c) Adrenal medulla (d) Placenta UPPCS Pre 2001 Ans. (b) : Adrenal cortex is called 4 'S' gland. S‒ Sugar S– Salt retaining 4 'S'

S‒ Sex hormone S‒ Sources of energy

→ The adrenal glands are located at the top of each kidney. Two of the most important adrenal hormones are cortisol and aldosterone. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

27.

If thymus gland is removed from the newborn baby, the cells which will not formed are : (a) Monocytes (b) B-lmphocytes (c) T-lymphocytes (d) Eosinophils UPPCS Pre 1996 Ans. (c) : T. lymphocytes formed from thymus gland in new born baby. T. lymphocyte formation stopped after removal of thymus gland. T. lymphocytes responsible for immunity in the child's body. So removal of thymus damage immunity in newborn baby. 28. The hypothalamic releasing factors reach the anterior pituitary gland by way of : (a) axons (b) blood vessels (c) lymphatic vessels (d) tissue fluids UPPCS Pre 1999 Ans. (b) : Pituitary regulates other endocrine glands hence called 'master gland'. Anterior pituitary controlled by hypothalamus. So hypothalamus called 'master of master gland'. Hypothalamic releasing and inhibitory factor secreted within hypothalamus and then controlled the anterior pituitary through the minute blood vessels called hypothalamic-hypophyseal portal vessels. 29. Cretinism is caused by : (a) hypersecretion of adrenal (b) hyposecretion of adrenal (c) hyposecretion of thyroid (d) hypersecretion of parathyroid UPPCS Pre 2005 Ans. (c) : Cretinism is caused by hyposecretion of thyroid hormones. It is a condition of severe physical and mental retardation due to iodine deficiency, and specifically due to deficiency of thyroid hormones during early pregnancy. Iodine plays a critical role in the synthesis of thyroid hormones. 30. Calcitonin regulate : (a) Na/K level (b) Cholesterol level (c) Plasma phosphate level (d) Ca++ level UPPCS Pre 2005 Ans. (d) : Calcitonin regulate Ca++ level. It is produced by the thyroid gland. It reduces the concentration of blood calcium level when it has risen to an above normal level. Calcitonin opposes the effects of parathyroid hormone (PTH) which acts to increase the blood calcium level. Calcitonin lowers blood calcium levels by suppressing osteoclast activity and increasing the amount of calcium excreted in the urine. 31. Which secretes calcitonin ? (a) C– cells of parathyroid (b) C – cells of thyroid (c) B – cells of pancreas (d) Adrenal medulla Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (b) : See the explanation of the above question.

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Calcitonin hormone is secreted by : (a) Thyroid (b) Ultimobranchial glands (c) Parathyroid (d) both (a) and (b) UPPCS Pre 2001 Ans. (d) : Calcitonin hormone is secreted by thyroid. The ultimobranchial gland or ultimobranchial body (UBB) is an outpocketing of the fourth pharngeal pouch that fuses with the thyroid diverticulum, give rise to calcitonin-producing C-cells. 33. Thyroid gland is homologous to : (a) trachea (b) endostyle (c) oesophagus (d) none of the above UPPCS Pre 2001, 2006, 2009 Ans. (b) : Thyroid gland is homologous to endostyle. Endostyle is present in urochordates, cephalochordates, and in the larvae of lampreys. It is a longitudinal ciliated groove on the ventral wall of pharynx and produces mucus to gather food particles. It is regarded as being homologous to the thyroid gland in vertebrates due to its iodine-concentrating activity. 34. Which of the following is a catecholamine? (a) Adrenaline (b) Serotonin (c) Acetylcholine (d) All of the above UPPCS Pre 2009 Ans. (a) : Adrenaline is a catecholamine. Catecholamines are hormones produced by the brain, nerve tissues and adrenal glands. The body releases catecholamines in response to emotional or physical stress. Adrenaline (Epinephrine) is a hormone produced by adrenal glands and neurons in the medulla oblongata. It plays an important role in the fight-or-flight response. → Serotonin is a monoamine neurotransmitter that stabilizes mood, feeling of well-being and happiness. → Acetylcholine is the chief neurotransmitter of the parasympathetic nervous system. 35. Adrenaline hormone increases : (b) blood pressure (a) heartbeat (c) both of these (d) none of these TGT Biology 2010 Ans. (c) : Adrenaline hormone increases both heart beat and blood pressure. Adrenaline (Epinephrine) is a hormone produced by adrenal glands and neurons in the medulla oblongata. It plays an important role in the fight-or-flight response. Adrenaline is released in response to a stressful, exciting, dangerous or threatening situation. 36. 'Diabetes insipidus' is due to deficiency of hormone: (a) Adrenaline (b) Insulin (c) Vasopressin (d) Somatotrophic TGT Biology 2013 Ans. (c) : Diabetes insipidus is due to deficiency of vasopressin or antidiuretic hormone (ADH). It is produced by the hypothalamus and stored in the posterior pituitary. Diabetes insipidus occurs when the body can't properly balance the body fluid levels. Conditions that cause a deficiency of ADH or block the effect of ADH result in production of excess urine. → Deficiency of insulin hormone causes diabetes mellitus. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

37.

Which of the following glands receives blood through "Circle of Willis" (a) Hypophysis (b) Thyroid gland (c) Pancreas (d) Adrenal gland UPPCS Pre 2009 Ans. (a) : Hypophysis receives blood through the "Circle of Willis". Hypophysis is also known as Pituitary gland. The circle of Willis encircles the stalk of the hypophysis and provides important communications between the blood supply of the forebrain and hindbrain. It is an important junction of arteries at the base of the brain. 38. Testosterone is secreted from : (a) Sertoli cells (b) Leydig cells (c) Follicle cells (d) None of these TGT Biology 2010, 2011 Ans. (b) : Testosterone is secreted by leydig cells. Leydig cells are interstitial cells located adjacent to the seminiferous tubules in the testes. Testosterone is the primary sex hormone and anabolic steroid in males, that regulates fertility, muscle mass, fat distribution and responsible for the development of male sexual characters. 39. Leydig's cells produce : (a) Thyroxine (b) Growth hormone (c) Testosterone (d) Progesterone UPPCS Pre 2003, 2008 Ans. (c) : Leydig's cell of testis produce testosterone hormone. Thyroxine produced by thyroid, growth hormone produced by anterior pituitary. Progesterone is produced by corpus luteum. 40. Leydig's cells secrete : (a) Estrogen (b) Progesterone (c) Testosterone (d) Aldosterone UPPCS Pre 2002 LT Biology 2015 Ans. (c) : See the explanation of the above question. 41. Leydig cells are present in : (a) Liver (b) Testis (c) Kidney (d) Duodenum UPPCS Pre 1994 Ans. (b) : See the explanation of the question. 42. Leydig cells are present in the mammalian : (a) liver (b) testis (c) kidney (d) duodenum UPPCS Pre 1997 Ans. (b) : See the explanation of the question. 43. Exophthalmic goiter occurs due to : (a) Hyposecretion of T4 (b) Hypersecretion of T4 (c) Less iodine in diet (d) Excess iodine in diet TGT Biology 2011

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (b) : Exophthalmic goiter occurs due to hypersecretion of T4. It is an endocrine disorder that causes excess thyroid hormone action in tissue. It is also called Grave's disease. It is characterized by enlargement of the thyroid gland, protrusion of the eyeballs, increased basal metabolic rate, and weight loss. 44. Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) is produced by (a) hypothalamus (b) Anterior pituitary gland (c) Posterior pituitary gland (d) Middle lobe of pituitary gland TGT Biology 2010 Ans. (b) : Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) is produced by anterior pituitary gland. FSH is synthesized and secreted by the gonadotropic cells of the anterior pituitary and regulates the development, growth, pubertal maturation and reproductive processes of the body. FSH and luteinizing hormone (LH) work together in the reproductive system. 45. Neurohypophysis secretes : (a) Vasopressin and estrogen (b) Oxytocin and estrogen (c) Oxytocin and vasopressin (d) Vasopressin and growth hormone TGT Biology 2005 Ans. (c) : Neurohypophysis secretes oxytocin and vasopressin. Pituitary gland is divided into two parts, anterior pituitary (adenohypophysis) and posterior pituitary (neurohypophysis). → Oxytocin causes contraction of uterus during labor and milk ejection. → Vasopressin or anti-diuretic hormone (ADH) conserve the fluid volume of body by reducing the amount of water passed out in the urine. 46. Glucagon hormone is secreted by : (a) Pituitary (b) Adrenal (c) Beta cells of islets of Langerhans (d) Alpha cells of islets of Langerhans TGT Biology 2005 Ans. (d) : Glucagon hormone is secreted by alpha (α) cells of islets of Langerhans, in the pancreas. Glucagon is a peptide hormone which elevates the glucose level in the blood. It stimulates the conversion of stored glycogen to glucose, which can be released into the bloodstream. Glucagon is antagonist to insulin hormone which is secreted by beta (β) cells of islets of Langerhans. 47. Vasopressin is related with : (a) Quick digestion (b) Slow heart rate (c) Concentration of urine (d) Dilution of urine TGT Biology 2005 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (c) : Vasopressin is related with concentration of urine. Vasopressin or anti-diuretic hormone (ADH) conserve the fluid volume of the body by reducing the amount of water passed out in the urine. It is synthesized as a peptide prohormone in neurons in the hypothalamus. It then travels down the axon terminating in the posterior pituitary and is released from vesicles into the circlation in response to extracellular fluid hypertonicity. 48. Hormone controlling calcium level is : (a) Thyroxine (b) Corticosteroid (c) Parathormone (d) Oxytocin TGT Biology 2005 Ans. (c) : Hormone controlling calcium level is parathormone. It is also known as parathyroid hormone or parathyrin. It is produced and secreted by the parathyroid glands that regulates serum calcium concentration. This hormone regulates calcium levels in the blood, largely by increasing the levels when they are too low. It does this through its actions on the kidneys, bones and intestines. 49. Ovulation in mammals is caused by : (a) FSH and TSH (b) FSH and LH (c) FSH and LTH (d) LTH and LH TGT Biology 2005 Ans. (b) : Ovulation in mammals is caused by FSH and LH. Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteininzing hormone (LH) are secreted by the anterior pituitary gland. These hormones promote ovulation and stimulate the ovaries to produce, estrogen and progesterone. Ovulation is the release of the egg (ovum) from a woman's ovary. 50. On removing the thyroid gland from the tadpole, it will (a) die immediately (b) remain a tadpole throughout life (c) grow into a dwarf frog (d) none of the above TGT Biology 2004 Ans. (b) : On removing the thyroid gland from the tadpole, it will remain a tadpole throughout life. Thyroid gland secretes thyroxine hormone, which is responsible for the metamorphosis of frog, so removing the thyroid gland stops the process of metamorphosis. 51. Spermatogenesis in mammalian testes controlled by (a) luteinizing hormones (b) growth hormones (c) follicle stimulating hormones (d) estrogen TGT Biology 2004 Ans. (c) : Spermatogenesis in mammalian testes is controlled by follicle stimulating hormone (FSH). Spermatogenesis is the process of transformation of spermatids into sperms. FSH stimulates sertoli cells to secrete factors involved in spermatogenesis. FSH is secreted from the anterior part of pituitary gland.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 52.

The mammalian thymus is mainly concerned with (a) regulation of body temperature (b) regulation of body growth (c) immunological functions (d) secretion of adrenaline TGT Biology 2004 Ans. (c) : Mammalian thymus is mainly concerned with immunological functions. Thymus is a bilobed lymphoid organ located in front of the heart in the upper part of the sternum. Thymus produces hormones that are essential for the development and maturation of T-Lymphocytes and adaptive immune responses. 53. Intense contraction in uterine wall during parturition is regulated by the action of(a) Anterior pituitary (b) Adrenal gland (c) Posterior pituitary (d) Prolactin PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (c) : Intense contraction in uterine wall during parturition is regulated by the action of posterior pituitary. It stimulates the uterine muscles to contract and help to thin and open (dilate) the cervix, move the baby down and out of the birth canal. Posterior pituitary secretes oxytocin hormone which regulates this action. 54. Pineal is : (a) an exocrine gland (b) an endocrine gland (c) a digestive gland (d) a fat body PGT Biology 2010 Ans. (b) : Pineal is an endocrine gland. It is a pea-sized conical mass of tissue behind the third ventricle of the brain. It is also called pineal body, conarium or epiphysis cerebri. It is the source of melatonin hormone that plays a central role in the regulation of circadian rhythm. 55. Grave's disease is due to problems in which gland ? (a) Thyroid gland (b) Pituitary gland (c) adrenal gland (d) Pancreas PGT Biology 2004 Ans. (a) : Grave's disease is due to problem in thyroid gland. It is an autoimmune disorder that results in the overproduction of thyroid hormones (hyperthyroidism). The condition is named after Irish surgeon Robert Graves, who described it in 1835. 56. Adrenal gland is derived from : (a) Ectoderm (b) Both ectoderm and endoderm (c) Mesoderm (d) Both ectoderm and mesoderm Delhi SSB PGT Biology 2015 Ans. (d) : Adrenal gland is derived from both ectoderm and mesoderm. Adrenal gland is present above the kidneys, and it is divided into two parts, adrenal cortex and adrenal medulla. The adrenal cortex is derived from the mesoderm and the adrenal medulla is derived from ectoderm. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

57.

The "master gland" of the endocrine system, located at the base of the brain, is the : (a) Apical (b) Bartholin gland (c) Pituitary gland (d) Thyroid gland Jharkhand Daite PGT Biology 2014 Ans. (c) : The 'master gland' of the endocrine system, located at the base of the brain, is the pituitary gland. It is called 'master gland' because it controls the functions of many of the other endocrine glands. → Hypothalamus is called the 'master of master gland' because it regulates the activity of pituitary gland. 58. Which type of gland secretes hormones directly into the bloodstream rather than into ducts leading to the exterior of the body? (a) Endocrine gland (b) Exocrine gland (c) Serous gland (d) Target gland Jharkhand Daite PGT Biology 2014 Ans. (a) : Endocrine glands secretes hormones directly into the bloodstream rather than into the ducts. e.g. Thyroid gland. → Exocrine glands secretes substances into the ducts leading to the exterior of the body, e.g., Salivary glands. 59.

Which of the following prevents the metamorphosis and prolongs the larval life of frog’s tadpole? (a) T4 (b) Antithyroid drugs (c) TSH (d) T3 GIC Biology 15.09.2015 Ans. (b) : Antithyroid drugs prevents the metamorphosis and prolongs the larval life of frog's tadpole. Hormones released from the thyroid gland brings the developmental changes during the metamorphosis. Antithyroid drugs are directed against the action of thyroid.

60.

Melanin is secreted by : (a) erythroblasts of blood (b) chromatophore of skin (c) cells of stratum compactum (d) ganglia of sensory nerves

UPPCS Pre 2005 Ans. (b) : Melanin is secreted by chromatophores of skin. Chromatophores are cells that produce colour, of which many types are pigment-containing cells, or group of cells found in a wide range of animals. Melanin is a type of pigment that gives colour to the hair, skin and eyes in humans and animals. 61.

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Which of the following secretes a maximum number of hormones ? (a) Gastro-intestinal tract (b) Anterior pituitary (c) Adrenal (d) Kidney UPPCS Pre 2006 YCT

Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (d) : Disease caused by under secretion of adrenal cortex is Addison's disease. It is also known as adrenal insufficiency which occurs when there are underactive adrenal glands which do not produce enough of the cortisol hormone. Symptoms include decreased blood sodium, increased blood potassium, low blood glucose level (hypoglycemia), dehydration, low blood pressure, and increased skin pigmentation. 66. Secretin is a : (a) Hormone (b) Vitamin (c) Enzyme (d) Excretory product UPPCS Pre 1995, 1996 PGT Biology 2002, 2013 Ans. (a) : Secretin is a hormone released into the bloodstream by the duodenum. Secretin is important for the regulation of gastric acid, regulation of pancreatic bicarbonate, and osmoregulation. It is a polypeptide made up of 27 amino acids. It was discovered in 1902 by British physiologists Sir William M. Bayliss and Ernest H. Starling. This hormone normally stimulates the pancreas to secrete a fluid with a high concentration of bicarbonate. It stimulates the pancreas to secrete pancreatic juice. 67. Secretin hormone stimulates : (a) Gastric glands (b) Pancreas (c) Gall bladder (d) Crypts of Lieberkuhn TGT Biology 2003 Ans. (b) : See the explanation of the above question. 68. Secretin hormone stimulated digestive secretion of : (a) Stomach (b) Salivary glands (c) Intestine (d) Pancreas PGT Biology 2005 Ans. (d) : See the explanation of the above question. 69. Collips' hormone is secreted by : (a) thyroid gland (b) thymus gland (c) parathyroid gland (d) adrenal gland UPPCS Pre 2009 Ans. (c) : Collip's hormone is secreted by parathyroid gland. It is also known as parathormone or parathyroid hormone. This hormone maintains calcium and phosphate balance between the tissues and blood. It was discovered by Phillips Collip (1925). 70. Life-saving hormones are secreted by : (a) Pituitary (b) Thymus 64. Which is called as 3F hormone ? (c) Thyroid (d) Adrenals (a) Adrenaline (b) Prolactin TGT Biology 2002 (c) Follicular hormone (d) Pituitary hormones Ans. (d) : Life-saving hormones are secreted by Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2011 adrenals. The adrenal gland secretes the hormone which saves lives. The gland secretes three main Ans. (a) : See the explanation of the above question. hormones, epinephrine, norepinephrine and cortisol. 65. Which disease is caused by under secretion of These three hormones are regarded as the major stress adrenal cortex ? hormones which help to escape a stressful situation. (a) Cretinism (b) Dwarfism Epinephrine and norepinephrine are referred as 'fight or (c) Sterility (d) Addison's disease flight' hormone during emergency. Cortisol helps TGT Biology 2003 preserve fluid balance and blood pressure under stress. Ans. (a) : Gastro-intestinal tract secretes maximum number of hormones. Anterior pituitary secretes 6 hormones. Gastro – intestinal tract include stomach and intestine-Stomach secrete 6 hormone. (1) Secretin (2) Cholecystokinin (3) Pancreozymin (4) Enterogastrone (5) Enterocrinin (6) Enterokinse Total 7 hormones produced by adrenal. Adrenal gland divided in two part : (a) Adrenal medulla -2 hormones secreted by this (1) Epinephrine (2) Nor epinephrine (b) Adrenal cortex – 5 hormones secreted by this (1) Aldosterone (2) Cortisol (3) Cortisone (4) Androgen (5) Estrogen Kidney – Only hormones – renin secreted by this. 62. Which of the following hormone is not secreted by pancreas? (a) Somatostatin (b) GH (c) Insulin (d) Glucagon UPPCS Pre 2006 Ans. (b) : G.H. (Growth hormone) Name of hormones Secretion of Organs Somatostatin (Delta) δ cells of pancreas Insulin β (Beta) cells of Islets of Langerhans Glucagon Alpha cells (α) of pancreas. * GH (Growth hormone) – Anterior lobe of pituitary 63. Which of the following endocrine organ is involved in fighting emergency situations by their active secretion? (a) Thyroid (b) Pancreas (c) Adrenal cortex (d) Adrenal medulla UPPCS Pre 2005 Ans. (d) : Adrenal medulla is involved in fighting emergency situations by their active secretion. The main hormone secreted by adrenal medulla include adrenaline (epinephrine) and noradrenaline (norepinephrine). It is also known as 'emergency gland' or '3F gland'.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 71.

Secretion of estrogen hormone is controlled by: (a) F.S.H. (b) Progesterone (c) Testosterone (d) none of the above PGT Biology 2013 Ans. (a) : Secretion of estrogen hormone is controlled by FSH. Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) is released from the anterior pituitary. Gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH) from the hypothalamus stimulates the anterior pituitary to produce FSH. FSH is responsible for starting follicle (egg) development and causing the level of estrogen to rise. 72. Pituitary gland is under the control of : (a) Adrenal gland (b) Pineal gland (c) Thyroid gland (d) Hypothalamus PGT Biology 2010 Ans. (d) : Pituitary gland is under the control of hypothalamus. Hypothalamus is present in the forebrain and secretes hormones that regulate the synthesis and secretion of hormones of pituitary gland. So hypothalamus is known as 'master of master gland'. 73. The pancreas secretes : (a) Pancreozymin (b) Angiotensin-I (c) Somatostatin (d) Angiotensin-II PGT Biology 2010 Ans. (c) : Pancreas secretes digestive enzymes from exocrine part. Pancreatic hormones are released from islets of Langerhans. Each islets of Langerhans has 4 type of cells Cells Hormone Function α-cells Glucagon Hyperglycemic factor β-cells Insulin Hypo glycemic factor δ-cells somatostatin regulate activities of α & β cells PP cell Pancreatic Reabsorption of food in polypeptide intestine 74. Corpus luteum secretes (a) LH (b) Estrogen (c) Progesterone (d) FSH Navoday Vidyalay PGT Biology 2014 Ans: (c) Corpus luteum secretes progesterone. Corpus luteum is formed by the remaining tissue of the ruptured graafian follicle after ovulation. Progesterone is a steroid hormone responsible for the decidualization of the endometrium and for maintaining pregnancy. 75. Interstitial cells produce : (a) Insulin (b) Male hormone (c) Collips hormone (d) Female hormone UPPCS Pre 2004 Ans. (b) : Interstitial cells called cells of Leydig produce testosterone hormone. It is responsible for the development of secondary sexual character in male. 76. Oxyntic cells are located in : (a) islets of Langerhans secrete glucagon (b) gastric epithelium and secrete pepsin (c) gastric glands and secrete HCl (d) kidneys secrete renin UPPCS Pre 2004 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (c) : Oxyntic cells are located in gastric glands and secrete HCl. Oxyntic cells is also known as parietal cell or Delomorphous cell secretes HCl and it is the source of most of the water in the stomach juices. The cells are located in glands in the lining of the fundus, the part of the stomach. 77. If pituitary gland is removed and transplanted in the kidney. (a) Prolactin secretion will increase. (b) Prolactin secretion will decrease. (c) Growth hormone secretion will increase. (d) Growth hormone secretion will decrease. GIC Biology 14.06.2015 Ans. (d) : If pituitary gland is removed and transplanted in the kidney, growth hormone secretion will decrease. Pituitary is a pea-sized gland at the base of the brain and produces a number of hormones. The pituitary gland makes growth hormone, which stimulates the growth of bone and other tissues. 78. Addison's disease is due to : (a) hyper secretion of adrenal gland (b) hypo secretion of adrenal gland (c) hypo secretion of pituitary gland (d) hyper secretion of pituitary gland UPPCS Pre 2006 Ans. (b) : Addison's disease also known as primary adrenal insufficiency and hypo cortisolism is a long term endocrine disorder in which the adrenal gland do not produce enough steroid hormones. In Addison's disease your adrenal gland produce too little cortisol and often insufficient level of aldosterone as well.

2.

Hormones

79.

Of the following which is the phenolic hormone? (a) Adrenaline (b) Testosterone (c) Parathormone (d) Prolactin TGT (2016) 31/07/2021 Ans. (a) : Adrenaline is the phenolic hormone. Adrenaline is a hormone derived from tyrosine an amino acid. Epinephrine (also called adrenaline) is a hormone and a neurotransmitter in the central nervous system. Phenol are common in nature, examples include tyrosine, one of the standard amino acids found in most proteins. Epinephrine, a stimulant hormone, produced by the adrenal medulla, serotonin, a neurotransmitter in the brain and urushiol, an irritant secreted by poison ivy to prevent animals from eating this. 80. Which of the following stimulates the exocrine pancreas? (a) Secretin and pancreozymin (b) Enterocrinin (c) Insulin (d) Glucagon UP PGT 17/08/2021

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (a) : Secretin and pancreozymin stimulates the exocrine pancreas. Secretin is a digestive hormone secreted by the intestinal wall in the duodenum. It targets on the pancreas secretory cells. Pancreozymin (Cholecystokinin) is a digestive hormone which is released with secretin. It is secreted by cells of the duodenum and it targets pancreas to secrete pancreatic juice. 81.

Which of the following hormones is not correctly matched ? (a) Melatonin-Epiphysis (b) Melanotropin-Middle lobe of pituitary (c) Leptin-Adipocytes (d) Renin-Stomach of infants UP PGT 17/08/2021 Ans. (d) : Incorrect match is, renin-stomach of infants. → Renin is a hormone secreted by the juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney. It is also considered as an enzyme that is part of a physiological system that regulates blood pressure. In the blood, renin acts on a protein known as angiotensinogen, resulting in the release of angiotensin I. Its primary function is to cause an increase in blood pressure.

82.

Of the following who coined the word hormone? (a) Charles Darwin (b) A. R. Wallace (c) E. H. Starling (d) A. Weismann TGT 07/08/2021 Ans. (c) : The word "hormone" was coined by the English physiologist Ernest H. Starling in connection with the discovery of secretin the first hormone in 1902. Hormone was first used by E. H. Starling while delivering a lecture on the topic on the chemical correlation of the functions of the body at Royal college of physicians in London in 1905. E.H. Starling was a professor of physiology at the university college of London (United Kingdom)

83.

Which of the following hormones does not bind to cell-surface receptors ? (a) T S H (b) P T H (c) F S H (d) Testosterone TGT 07/08/2021 Ans. (d) : Testosterone hormones does not bind to cellsurface receptors. The molecules of hormones that are amino acid derivatives, peptides or proteins are, large and insoluble in lipids, and cannot enter the molecules located on the surface of the cell membrane. On the other hand, steroid hormones like testosterone being hydrophobic molecules, diffuse freely into all cell and act within the cell. Thus they do not need cell membrane bound receptors, instead they have mobile receptor proteins in the cytoplasm.

84.

Which of the hormone? (a) Progesterone (c) Cortisol

Ans. (d) : Testosterone is a C19 steroid hormone. ⇒ A steroid hormone is a steroid that acts as a hormone. They are secreted by the adrenal cortex, testes, and ovaries. C18 steroids consist of estrogen derivatives. C19 steroids consist of androgens derivatives, and C21 steroids consist of progesterone derivatives. ⇒ Androgens are a group of sex hormones, and testosterone is the most common androgen. Testosterone is the primary sex hormone in males and plays a key role in the development of secondary sexual characters. 85. Luteal phase of primate sexual cycle is controlled by (a) Estrogen only (b) Progesterone only (c) Luteinizing hormone only (d) Estrogen and progesterone both RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) Ans. (b) : Luteal phase of primate sexual cycle is controlled by progesterone. The luteal phase, or second half of the menstrual cycle, begins with ovulation and lasts approximately 14 days. During this period, changes occur that will support the fertilized egg. The hormone responsible for these changes is progesterone, which is produced by the corpus luteum. Progesterone plays an important role in the menstrual cycle and in maintaining the early stages of pregnancy. [Note – Commission has given the answer of this Question, (3)] 86. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ? (a) Ovary – Progesterone (b) Testes – Androgens (c) Islets of Langerhans – Glucagon (d) Atrial valve of heart – Secretin RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) Ans. (d) : Incorrect match : Atrial valve of heart – Secretin.

⇒ Secretin is a digestive hormone secreted by the wall

of the upper part of the small intestine (duodenum). It is a polypeptide made up of 27 amino acids. Secretin regulates gastric acid secretion and pH levels in the duodenum. It is produced in the S Cells of the duodenum, which are located in the intestinal glands. Secretin also regulates water homeostasis throughout the body. 87. Which of the following statement is not correct? (a) Parathyroid hormone increases blood calcium levels. (b) Corticoides involved in carbohydrate metabolism are known as mineralocorticoids. following is C19 steroid (c) Cortisol produces anti-inflammatory reactions. (b) Estrogen (d) Catecholamines are also called as emergency hormones. (d) Testosterone RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) GIC 19/09/2021

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (b) : Corticoides involved in carbohydrate metabolism are known as glucocorticoids. These are steroid hormones produced by the adrenal gland. Cortisol (hydrocortisone) is the most important human glucocorticoid that is essential for life and produces anti-inflammatory reactions.

⇒ Corticoides involved in minerals, electrolyte and fluid balance are known as mineralocorticoides. The primary example of mineralocorticoid is aldosterone. 88. Which among the following hormone is synthesised by hypothalamus but released by pituitary gland? (a) Oxytocin (b) Prolactin (c) Follicle stimulating hormone (d) Melanocyte stimulating hormone RPSC School Lecturer (23/07/2016) Ans. (a) : The pituitary gland in called the master gland of the endocrine system, because it controls the functions of the other endocrine gland. Though pituitary produces several hormones, the posterior stores and releases certain hormones synthesized by hypothalamus into the blood. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and oxytocin are produced in the hypothalamus and transported by axons to the posterior pituitary from where they are dumped into the blood. So the hormones though synthesized elsewhere, is stored and released by master gland in ADH. 89. Which hormone is responsible for regulation of growth and development of an organism? (a) Thyroxine (b) Somatotropin (c) Progesterone (d) Estrogen RPSC School Lecturer (23/07/2016) Ans. (b) : Somatotropin hormone is responsible for regulation of growth and development of an organism. Growth hormone (GH), also known as somatotropin, is a peptide hormone that is synthesized and secreted by the somatotrophs of the anterior pituitary gland. 90. Hormone responsible for lactation is: (a) Relaxin (b) Oxytocin (c) Oestrogen (d) Prolactin RPSC School Lecturer (23/07/2016) Ans. (d) : Prolactin (PRL) released from lactotrophs of the anterior pituitary gland in response to the suckling by the offspring is the major hormonal signal responsible for stimulation of milk synthesis in the mammary glands. 91. Precursor of steroid hormone is: (a) Amino acid tyrosine (b) Cholesterol (c) Dopamine (d) Adenosine monophosphate UK SSSC L.T. (21/01/2018) TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (b) : Precursor of steroid hormone is cholesterol. A steroid hormone is a steroid that acts as a hormone. These group of hormones are secreted mainly by three steroid glands, adrenal cortex, testes, ovaries, and placenta during pregnancy. They are mainly grouped into corticosteroids (includes glucocorticoides and mineralocorticoids), and sex steroids (includes progesterone, androgens and estrogens). All types of steroid hormones are derived from cholesterol, and they are transported through the bloodstream to the cells of various target organs. 92. Hormone responsible for uterine contraction during childbirth is: (a) Oxytocin (b) Prolactin (c) Calcitonin (d) All of the above UK SSSC L.T. (21/01/2018) Ans. (a) : Hormone responsible for uterine contraction during childbirth is oxytocin. It is a peptide hormone normally produced in the hypothalamus and released by the posterior pituitary. It is both a hormone and a neurotransmitter. It starts labor by causing contractions in uterine muscles and also plays a role in milk ejection during breastfeeding. ⇒Prolactin hormone is secreted from the anterior pituitary and is responsible for milk production. ⇒ Calcitonin hormone is secreted from the thyroid gland and acts to reduce blood calcium level. 93. Ovulation in female is under the control of : (a) LTH (b) ADH and LH (c) FSH and LH (d) LTH and TSH UK SSSC L.T. (21/01/2018) Ans. (c) : Ovulation in females is under the control of FSH and LH. ⇒ Ovulation is the process in which a mature egg is released from the ovary. After it's released, the egg moves down the fallopian tube and stays there for 12 – 24 hours, where it can be fertilized. ⇒ Luteinizing hormone (LH) and Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) stimulates follicular growth and ovulation. These hormones are secreted by anterior pituitary. 94. Androgen hormone is secreted by (a) Follicular cell (b) Leydig's cell (c) Corpus luteum (d) Sertoli cell RPSC School Lecturer 2011 Ans. (b) : Androgen hormone is secreted by Leydig's cells. They are a group of sex hormones. They help start puberty and play a role in reproductive health and body development. Testosterone is the most common androgen. 95. The cause of labour pains is (a) Vasopressin (b) Oxytocin (c) Vasopressin and oxytocin (d) Progesterone and estrogen RPSC School Lecturer 2011

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (b) : The cause of labour pain is oxytocin. Oxytocin play an important role in sexual arousal, trust, recognition, mother-infant bonding, romantic attachment. It is called the love hormone. 96. The hormone which stimulates heart beat is : (a) Thyroxine (b) Glucagon (c) Adrenaline (d) Gastrin PGT Biology 2010 LT Biology 2015 Ans. (c) : The hormone that stimulates the heartbeat is adrenaline. This hormone controls the action controlled by the Sympathetic Nerve System. It affects the affector organ, due to this effects on the working organs adrenaline stimulates the smooth muscle, which cause the wall of blood vessels and cell in the skin and intestine to constrict. This increases the blood pressure the heart beat slow down. The pupil dilate the eye wide open the breathing rate becomes rapid and sweating start profusely. 97. Hormone helps in parturition is A - oxytocin, B - LH, C - Relaxin, D - FSH (a) B and D (b) A and D (c) A and B (d) A and C RPSC School Lecturer 2011 Ans. (d) : Parturition is the act of giving birth to the young ; child birth. Fully developed foetus and placenta send signals for parturition which induces mild uterine contractions by stretching cervix referred to as foetal ejection reflex. Stretching of cervix exerts positive feedback on the posterior pituitary to secrete oxytocin, Oxytocin exhibits both direct and indirect (via prostaglandins) effect on the uterus to facilitate uterine contractions to push the foetus downward which stretches cervix and leads to child birth. Relaxin is secreted by corpus luteum at the end of pregnancy. It serves to relax the pelvic ligament and cervix to facilitate the birth of young one. 98. Which stimulates milk secretion from the mammary glands after parturition? (a) Prolactin (b) FSH (c) LH (d) Estrogen RPSC School Lecturer 2011 Ans. (a) : Prolactin hormone is secreted by pituitary gland it stimulates the secretion of milk from mammary glands after parturition. 99. Long term management of hypercalcemia does not include : (a) Bisphosphates (b) Hydration (c) Calcitonin (d) Loop diuretics Jharkhand Daite PGT Biology 2014 Ans: (c) : Calcitonin is a hormone secreted from the parafollicular cell of thyroid. It is a polypeptide of 32 amino acid which acts opposite to the PTH (Para thyroid hormone) i.e. it reduce the level of calcium. But this hormone is not used in long term management. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

100. Hormone for pregnancy test is (a) ADH (b) FSH (c) PRL (d) HCG UP LT 2018 Ans. (d) : Hormone for pregnancy test is HCG. Human Chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) is a hormone produced during pregnancy. It appears in the blood and urine of pregnant women as early as 10 days after conception. HCG level above 25 mIU/mL is considered positive for pregnancy. 101. Milk protein casein is coagulated by (a) Pepsin (b) Trypsin (c) Rennin (d) Renin UP PGT 2016 Ans. (b) Milk protein casein is coagulated by trypsin. Trypsin also known as chymotrypsin, is a proteolytic enzyme related to pepsin. Its role in digestion is to curdle or coagulate milk in the stomach. → Renin is a hormone produced by the juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney and is responsible for the regulation of the blood volume and the blood pressure. 102. Glucagon stimulates : (a) Increase of breakdown of glycogen to blood sugar (b) Formation of glucose from amino acids (c) Rise of blood sugar level (d) All of these UP PGT 2016 Ans. (d) Glucagon is a hormone secreted from the alpha (α) cells of islets of Langerhans in pancreas. This hormone stimulates the formation of glucose from amino acids, increases breakdown of glycogen to blood sugar and raises blood sugar level. 103. Which one is called a birth hormone? (a) Vasopressin (b) Pancreozymin (c) Oxytocin (d) Progesterone UP PGT 2016 Ans. (c) Oxytocin is called "birth hormone'. It is an important hormone in labor and birth, and helps the labouring woman's uterus to contract and birth her baby. It is secreted from the posterior pituitary. It stimulates forceful contraction of the uterus and cervix, facilitates childbirth. 104. Insulin is a : (a) Polysaccharide (b) Protein (c) Fat (d) Carbohydrate Bihar PGT 2019 Ans. (b) : Insulin is a protein chain or peptide hormone. It is composed of two chains, an A chain (21 amino acids) and a B chain (30 amino acids), which are linked together by sulphur atoms. It is produced in the beta (β) cells in the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas. 105. Placenta helps to maintain pregnancy by secreting a hormone called. (a) estrogen (b) testosterone (c) thyroxine (d) progesterone UPPCS Pre 2004, 2006

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (d) : Progesterone is a type of hormone secreted by placenta which help to maintain pregnancy. Estrogen secreted by ovary. Testosterone secreted by Leydig cell of testes. Thyroxine secreted by thyroid gland. 106. Menstrual cycle in females is controlled by : (a) FSH and LH (b) estrogen (c) progesterone (d) all of the above UPPCS Pre 2006 Ans. (d) : Menstrual cycle in female is controlled by FSH and LH, estrogen and progesterone. FSH and LH take part in the maturation of graafian follicle. Estrogen – It reduce the secretion of FSH so final maturation of graafian follicle take place by L.H. and progesterone. It is secreted by corpus luteum. It causes thickening of uterus. 107. Calcitriol is : (a) 1- hydroxy cholecalciferol (b) 24-hydroxy cholecalciferol (c) 25- hydroxyl cholecalciferol (d) 1, 25-dihydroxy cholecalciferol Bihar PGT 2019 Ans. (d) : Calcitriol is the active form of vitamin D, normally made in the kidney. It is also known as 1, 25dihydroxycholecalciferol. It is a hormone which binds to and activates the vitamin D receptor in the nucleus of the cell, which then increases the expression of many genes. 108. Consider the following features : 1. help in the digestion of sugar 2. help in maintaining blood pressure 3. help in development of body 4. help in development of secondary sexual characters. The features typical of hormones would be : (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 2 and 3 only UPPCS Pre 2004, 2006 Ans. (b) : Hormone maintain blood pressure such as e.g. insulin, epinephrine, nor-epinephrine, glucagon hormones. Insulin help in the carbohydrate metabolisms. Growth hormones helps in the development of body. Estrogen and testosterone help in the development of secondary sexual characters. 109. The receptor of steroid hormones is found : (a) on the cell surface only (b) in the cytoplasm or nucleus (c) in the cytoplasm only (d) in the nucleus only UPPCS Pre 2006 Ans. (a) : The receptor of steroid hormone is found on the cell surface only. It is not present in any type of liquid medium and absent in cytoplasm and nucleus. They are generally intracellular receptors and initiate signal transduction for steroid hormones which leads to change in gene expression over a time period of hours to days. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

110. ADH is stored in the : (a) Posterior pituitary (c) Anterior pituitary

(b) Hypothalamus (d) Kidney UPPCS Pre 2006 Ans. (a) : ADH basically are not produced by posterior pituitary. Posterior pituitary is also called neuro hypophysis. ADH is a neurosecretion produced in hypothalamus, stored in herring body of posterior and pituitary released by posterior pituitary. Anterior pituitary also called adenohypophysis, secretes large number of hormone, such as : 1. Somatotropic hormones (STH) or growth hormones. 2. Thyroid – Stimulating hormone (TSH) 3. ACTH (Adreno cortico tropic hormones). 4. GTH – Gonado Tropic Hormones 1. FSH 2. LH 5. MH– Metabolic hormones. 6. MSH– Melanocytes Stimulating hormones. 7. PTH – Pancreo Tropic hormones. 8. Lactotropic hormones. Kidney – It produce Renin hormone which regulate erythropoiesis or haemopoiesis. 111. The neuroendocrine control center of vertebrates consists of : (a) Pituitary (b) Hypothalamus (c) Hypothalamus and posterior pituitary (d) Hypothalamus and pituitary UPPCS Pre 2000 Ans. (c) : The neuroendocrine control center of vertebrates consists of hypothalamus and posterior pituitary, because the pituitary is the master of Endocrine gland as well as maximum hormones to secrete in the body and feed back support. 112. Of the following, absence of which hormone is responsible for diabetes insipidus : (a) Insulin (b) Aldosterone (c) Glucagon (d) ADH UPPCS Pre 2000 Ans. (d) : The absence of ADH hormone causes diabetes insipidus. The hormone responsible to reabsorption of water from nephric filtrate, in distal convoluted tubules and collecting tubules, so that hypertonic and water loss from body is minimized. 113. Over secretion of GH during childhood results in : (a) Acromegaly (b) Gigantism (c) Midget (d) Cretinism UPPCS Pre 2000 Ans. (b) : Over secretion of GH during childhood result in Gigantism. The G.H. hormones is secreted by anterior lobe of pituitary and other hormones in anterior lobe of pituitary are TSH, LH, FSH etc.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 114. Cytokines are : (a) polypeptide hormones (b) steroid hormones (c) proteolytic enzymes (d) lipases UPPCS Pre 2003 Ans. (a) : Cytokines are small, secreted protein released by cell, have a specific effect on the interaction and communication between cells. Cytokines are polypeptides hormone. Cytokines are crucial in controlling the growth and activity of other immune system cells and blood cells. 115. Which of the following set of hormones prevent precocious metamorphosis in frog and insect respectively? (a) Juvenile hormone and Prolactin (b) Prothoracic gland hormone and thyroxine (c) Prolactin and juvenile hormone (d) Thyroxine and Prothoracic gland hormone UPPCS Pre 2004 Ans. (c) : Prolactin prevent precocious metamorphosis in frog and juvenile hormones in insect. Prolactin is widely considered to be the juvenile hormone of anuran tadpoles and to counteract the effects of thyroid hormone. Juvenile hormones prevent precocious metamorphosis in isects and allow the larva to undergo multiple rounds of moulting until it attains the proper size for metamorphosis. 116. Thyroxine hormone has the active inorganic ingredient : (a) Chlorine (b) Sulphur (c) Bromine (d) Iodine UPPCS Pre 2004 Ans. (d) : Thyroxine hormone has the active inorganic ingredient iodine. Thyroxine hormone is secreted by the thyroid gland into the blood stream. It is converted to its active form of triiodothyronine in the liver and kidneys etc. 117. Hormones secreted by adrenal medulla are : (a) Steroids (b) Proteins (c) Catecholamines (d) Steroids and catecholamines UPPCS Pre 2001 Ans. (c) : • Hormones secreted by adrenal medulla are catecholamines. Epinephrine and nor-epinephrine are the main catecholamines. • Adrenal cortex hormones and sex hormones are steroids in nature. • Oxytocin, vasopressin, secretin, relaxin hormones are protein. 118. 'Ecdysone', moulting hormone in insects is secreted by : (a) Prothoracic gland (b) Corpus Cardiaca (c) Corpus allatum (d) Phallic gland UPPCS Pre 2001 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (a) : Prothoracic gland - Secreted a hormone (moulting hormone) called ecdysone. Corpus cardiaca secrete by neurosecretory cells of brain. These enhance the rate of pulsation of heart and peristalsis of hindgut, but retard peristalsis of foregut. Corpora allata stimulate growth and maturation of oocytes during growth period. Corpora allata secretes a juvenile hormone called neotenin. Phallic gland or conglobate gland -associated with reproductive system of insect (Cockroach). 119. In insects ecdysone is produced by : (a) Ovary (b) Brain (c) Prothoracic gland (d) Salivary gland UPPCS Pre 2000 Ans. (c) : Ecdysone is a steroidal prohormone of the major insect molting hormones 20-hydroxyecdysone, which is secreted from the prothoracic gland. Insect molting hormones are generally called ecdysteroids. 120. Blood sugar in the body is regulated by : (a) Adrenaline alone (b) Insulin alone (c) Glucagon alone (d) All the above UPPCS Pre 1996 Ans. (d) : Blood sugar in the body is regulated by adrenaline that act as vasodilator. Insulin and glucagon secreted by β cell and α cell of islet of Langerhans both regulate the glucose level in blood. 121. The hormone important in the glucose metabolism is produced by : (a) Liver (b) Thyroid (c) Pituitary (d) Pancreas UPPCS Pre 1996 Ans. (d) : Hormones important for glucose metabolism are produced by pancreas. β cells of pancreas secretes insulin hormone and α cell of pancreas glucagon. Both hormone regulate glucose level in to the blood. 122. The hormone that promotes the reabsorption of water from the collecting duct of the nephron is: (a) Parathormone (b) Corticosterone (c) Vasopressin (d) Oxytocin UPPCS Pre 1996 Ans. (c) : Posterior pituitary secretes two hormone. 1. Oxytocin, 2. Vasopressin. Vasopressin is called ADH (Anti Diuretic hormone). It promotes reabsorption of water from the collecting duct of the nephron. 123. Vasopressin is produced in the : (a) neuro hypophysis and regulates bloodpressure (b) adrenal cortex and regulates blood pressure (c) adrenal medulla and regulates ultrafiltration of urine. (d) neurohypophysis and regulates contraction waves in the heart. UPPCS Pre 1995

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (a) : Vasopressin is called ADH (Anti Diuretic Hormone). It is secreted by neurohypophysis or posterior pituitary and regulate blood pressure. ADH make proper concentration of water in urine. 124. FSH (Follicle stimulating hormone) is produced by : (a) hypothalamus (b) anterior pituitary (c) posterior pituitary (d) middle lobe of pituitary UPPCS Pre 1995 Ans. (b) : F.S.H. produced by anterior pituitary gland. Vasopressin (ADH) and oxytocin is produced by posterior pituitary gland, middle lobe of pituitary does not secrete any type of hormones. 125. Which of the following is an example of negative feedback. (a) Hair erection due to low body temperature (b) Sucking reflex (c) Uterine contractions during labour (d) Secretion TRH in response to ACTH UPPCS Pre 2002 Ans. (d) : The diminution or counter action of an effect by its own influence on the process giving rise to it, as when a high level of particular hormone in the blood may inhibit further secretion of that hormone, or where the result of a certain action may inhibit further performance of that action. Secretion of TRH in response to ACTH is an example of negative feedback.

128. Which one is the second messenger in action of many hormones : (a) AMP (b) d AMP (c) ATP (d) cyclic AMP UPPCS Pre 1998 Ans. (d) : Hormone act as primary messenger. Cyclic AMP act as II messenger and Ca++ is a IIIrd messenger. Cyclic AMP (cAMP) is a derivative of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) and used for intracellular signal transduction in many different organisms, conveying the cAMP-dependent pathway. 129. The hormone whose absence produces the disease diabetes mellitus is secreted by : (a) Pituitary gland (b) Thyroid gland (c) Islets of Langerhans (d) Liver UPPCS Pre 1998 Ans. (c) : Insulin hormone secreted by the β cells of 'Islet of Langerhans of pancreas. Deficiency of insulin hormone causes excess amount of glucose into blood called diabetes mellitus. 130. Oxytocin is responsible for the : (a) expulsion of milk from the mammary glands (b) excessive glomerular filtration (c) increased heart beat (d) constriction of blood capillaries UPPCS Pre 1998 Ans. (a) Posterior pituitary secrete two hormone vasopressin or ADH (antidiuretic hormone) and oxytocin. Oxytocin responsible for expulsion of milk from the mammary gland.

is 131. In mammals, after the ovulation, the remaining part of follicles becomes : (a) corpus luteum (b) corpus callosum (b) Parathormone (c) corpora cavernosa (d) corpus albicans (d) Glucagon UPPCS Pre 1998 UPPCS Pre 2002 Ans. (d) : Due to effect of LH hormone, 14th day of Ans. (d) : Glucagon secreted by cells of islets of menstruation cycle ovulation takes place. After Langerhans of pancreas. It is antagonistic to insulin. ovulation remaining part of corpus luteum (follicles) Glucagon increase the blood sugar level called corpus albicans. The corpus albicans is the (hyperglycemic) and insulin lowers the blood sugar regressed form of the corpus luteum. It is a scar on the level. surface of the ovary that is a remnant of ovulation. 127. Growth hormone works properly : 132. Which of the following hormones increases Na+ (a) with adrenaline (b) without adrenaline resorption in the kidney? (c) with thyroxine (d) without thyroxine (a) Aldosterone (b) ADH UPPCS Pre 1999 (c) Atrial natriuretic peptide (d) Thyroxine Ans. (c) : Growth hormone called somatotropic UPPCS Pre 2009 hormones, which regulate growth in childhood. + Ans. (a) : Hormone increasing Na reabsorption in the It secreted from anterior pituitary. kidney is aldosterone. Aldosterone is often called the G.H. works properly with thyroxine secreted by "salt-retaining hormone" and is released from the thyroid. adrenal cortex. It promotes Na+ reabsorption by the nephron, promoting the retention of water. The hyposecretion of GH during the growth years results in the pituitary dwarfism. → Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is released from the posterior pituitary and acts on the collecting ducts of the The hypersecretion of GH during childhood results in kidney and promotes reabsorption of water. gigantism. 126. Which of the hyperglycemic : (a) Oxytocin (c) Aldosterone

TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 133. Glucocorticoids are secreted by (a) Zona glomerulosa (b) Zona fasciculata (c) Zona reticularis (d) all of the above UPPCS Pre 2009 Ans. (b) : Glucocorticoids are secreted by zona fasciculata. Zona fasciculata is the middle layer of the adrenal cortex, responsible for producing glucocorticoids such as cortisol. The cells of zona fasciculata synthesize and secrete glucocorticoids in response to ACTH secreted by the anterior pituitary. • Zona glomerulosa is the outermost layer of adrenal cortex responsible for producing mineralocorticoids such as aldosterone. • Zona reticularis is the innermost layer of adrenal cortex, responsible for producing androgens such as DHEA. 134. Erythropoietin is produced by : (a) bone marrow (b) spleen (c) kidney (d) megakaryocytes UPPCS Pre 1998 Ans. (c) : Erythropoietin is a hormone stimulates formation of RBC in bone marrow. It secreted by kidney. Erythropoietin is a glycoprotein hormone that is produced predominantly by specialised cells called interstitial cells in the kidney. 135. Gonadotropic hormones are : (a) Estrogen and progesterone (b) LH and FSH (c) Testosterone and androsterone (d) Prolactin and luteotropin TGT Biology 2003 Ans. (b) : Gonadotropic hormones are LH and FSH. Luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) are produced and secreted by the anterior pituitary in response to the gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH) from the hypothalamus. These hormones regulate ovarian and testicular function and are essential for normal growth, sexual, development and reproduction. 136. Parathormone induces : (a) Increase in blood sugar level (b) Decrease in serum calcium level (c) Increase in serum calcium level (d) Decrease in blood sugar level TGT Biology 2003 Ans. (c) : Parathormone induces increase in serum calcium level. It is secreted by the parathyroid glands. When the calcium level in the blood decreases, parathormone is released in order to increase the calcium level in the blood. It acts on bones and other skeletal structure and mobilizes the calcium from the bones into the blood. 137. Blood calcium level can be increased by administration of : (a) Glucose (b) Parathormone (c) Thyroxine (d) Calcitonin Delhi SSB PGT Biology 2015 Ans. (b) : See the explanation of the above question. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

138. Due to deficiency of ADH hormone rate of urination : (a) decreases (b) increases (c) remains same (d) none of the above PGT Biology 2013

Ans. (b) : Due to deficiency of ADH, rate of urination increases. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH), also known as conserve body water by reducing the loss of water in urine. ADH binds to receptors on cells in the collecting ducts of the kidney and promotes reabsorption of water. In the absence of ADH, the collecting ducts are virtually impermieble to water, and it flows out as urine. 139. The hormone that promotes reabsorption of water from glomerular filtrate is : (a) Vasopressin (b) Acetylcholine (c) Relaxin (d) Calcitonin Navoday Vidyalay PGT Biology 2014 Ans: (a) The hormone that promotes reabsorption of water from glomerular filtrate is vasopressin. 140. First hormone produced artificially by culturing bacteria is : (a) Insulin (b) thyroxine (c) testosterone (d) adrenaline PGT Biology 2013

Ans. (a) : First hormone produced artificially by culturing bacteria is insulin. Human insulin is created by growing insulin proteins within E. coli bacteria in the laboratory. Insulin was discovered by Sir Frederick G Banting, Charles H Best, and JJR Macleod and was subsequently purified by James B Collip. → Secretin is the first hormone discovered by Starling in collaboration with W.M. Bayliss in 1902. 141. Hormone erythropoietin is secreted by : (a) adrenal cortex (b) adrenal medulla (c) renal cortex (d) renal medulla UPPCS Pre 2003 Ans. (d) : Hormone erythropoietin is secreted by renal medulla. It is responsible for increase the synthesis of R.B.C. in bone marrow. They formed the R.B.C. (Red Blood Corpuscles) in blood. 142. Trigger for ovulation in human female is (a) Rise in the oxytocin level (b) Rise in LH level (c) Formation of corpus luteum (d) Rise in progesterone level PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (b) : Trigger for ovulation in human female is rise in LH level. Luteinizing hormone (LH) acts on preovulatory follicles to stimulate specific molecular and cellular events that mediate the release of a mature female germ cell, the oocyte (egg). Ovulation is a physiological process defined by the rupture and release of the dominant follicle from the ovary into the fallopian tube where it has the potential to become fertilized.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 143. Which of the following hormones acts as an Ans. (d) : Aquaporin formation in DCT is the function immuno suppressor and anti inflammatory? of ADH. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) or vasopressin stimulates water reabsorption by stimulating insertion of (a) Aldosterone (b) Insulin "Water Channels" or aquaporins into the membranes of (c) Cortisol (d) Estradiol kidney tubules. ADH is secreted by the posterior PGT Biology 2011 pituitary and helps regulate the amount of water in the Ans. (c) : Cortisol hormone acts as an immunosuppressor and anti-inflammatory. Cortisol is a body. glucocorticoid secreted from the adrenal cortex. It 148. “Primary messengers” in animal body are : prevents the widespread tissue and nerve damage (a) Enzymes associated with inflammation. Cortisol is essential for (b) Coenzymes life and is released during stress condition. It helps to (c) Hormones maintain blood pressure, immune function and the body's anti-inflammatory processes. (d) CAMP 144. Which of these is the most potent PGT Biology 2011 vasoconstrictor in our body ? Ans. (c) : "Primary messengers" in animal body are (a) Angiotensins-I (b) Cortisol hormones. A hormone is a chemical released by a cell or a gland in one part of the body that sends out (c) Angiotensins-II (d) Acetylcholine PGT Biology 2011 message that affect cells in other parts of the organism. Ans. (c) : Angiotensin II (ATII) is the most potent It is a chemical messenger that transports a signal from vasoconstrictor in the body. It acts on two types of one cell to another. Hormones mediate changes in target receptors, the AT1 and the AT2 receptor subtypes of the cells by binding to specific hormone receptors. afferent and efferent arterioles. It elevates blood 149. The hormone which is very important is pressure through its direct vasoconstrictor, supporting pregnancy is : sympathomimetic and sodium retaining activities. (a) Oxytocin Angiotensin is a peptide hormone derived from the (b) FSH precursor molecule angiotensinogen, a serum globulin produced in the liver. (c) Progesterone (d) Testosterone 145. A hormone, released from heart wall to lower the blood pressure. PGT Biology 2011 (a) ACE (b) ANF Ans. (c) Progesterone hormone is important in (c) GIP (d) Melatonin supporting pregnancy. It is also known as "pregnancy PGT Biology 2011 hormone". It helps the fertilized egg be implanted in the Ans. (b) : ANF is a hormone released from heart wall to uterus to establish a pregnancy and help maintain a lower the blood pressure. Atrial natriuretic factor (ANF) healthy pregnancy. Women naturally produce or atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) is a natriuretic progesterone in the ovaries, the placenta, and the peptide hormone secreted from the cardiac atria. ANF is adrenal glands during pregnancy. a 28-amino acid polypeptide protein hormone that 150. A person passes much urine and drinks much dilates the blood vessels (vasodilation) and thus, water but his blood glucose level is normal. decrease the blood pressure. This condition may be the result of : 146. Pancreatic juice secretion is stimulated by the (a) a reduction in insulin secretion from pancreas hormone : (b) a reduction in vasopressin secretion from (a) secretin (b) pancreozymin posterior pituitary (c) gastrin (d) both (a) and (b) (c) a fall in the glucose concentration in urine UPPCS Pre 2001 (d) an increase in secretion of glucagon Ans. (d) : Pancreatic juice secretion is stimulated by PGT Biology 2010 hormones, secretin and pancreozymin Ans. (b) : A person passes much urine and drinks much (Cholecystokinin). These two hormones stimulates the pancreas to produce and secrete pancreatic juice. water but his blood glucose level is normal. This Secretin stimulates the secretion of non-enzymatic condition is may be the result of a reduction in part of pancreatic juice, while pancreozymin promotes vasopressin secretion from posterior pituitary. the secretion of enzymatic part of the pancreatic juice. Vasopressin or anti-diuretic hormone (ADH) acts to 147. ‘Aquaporin formation in DCT is the function maintain blood pressure, blood volume and tissue water content by controlling the amount of water and hence ofthe concentration of urine excreted by the kidney. (a) Aldosterone (b) Cortisol Reduction in vasopressin leads to a condition known as (c) Renin (d) ADH diabetes insipidus with high amount of urine. PGT Biology 2011 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 151. Which hormone increase the blood pressure in human ? (a) Vasopressin (b) Thiessen (c) Angiotensin (d) Oxytocin PGT Biology 2009 Ans. (c) : Vasopressin act mainly at the kidney and stimulate reabsorption of water and electrolytes in DCT and collecting duct of nephrons and thereby reduces loss of H2O through urine. Vasopressin is capable of causing vasoconstriction and increasing blood pressure. 152. Aldosterone hormone maintains the concentration of : (a) Minerals (b) Water (c) Both Minerals and water (d) Enzymes PGT Biology 2005 Ans. (c) : Aldosterone hormone maintains the concentration of both minerals and water. It regulates the salt and water balance of the body by increasing the retention of sodium and water and the excretion of potassium by the kidneys. It is a steroid hormone synthesized in and secreted from the outer layer of the adrenal cortex, the zona glomerulosa. 153. Steroid hormones bind to : (a) Receptors present on the cell membrane (b) Receptors present on the nuclear membrane (c) DNA inside the nucleus (d) Intracellular receptor proteins PGT Biology 2004 Ans. (d) : Steroid hormones bind to intracellular receptor proteins. The steroid hormone binds with a specific receptor in the cytoplasm. The receptor bound steroid hormone travels into the nucleus and binds to another specific receptor on the chromatin. Steroid hormones are derived from cholesterol and therefore can readily diffuse through the lipid bilayer of the cell membrane to reach the intracellular receptor. 154. Which among the following hormone is synthesized by hypothalamus but released by pituitary gland ? (a) Oxytocin (b) Prolactin (c) Follicle stimulating hormone (d) Melanocyte stimulating hormone Rajsthan PSC PGT Biology 2015 Ans. (a) : Oxytocin is a hormone synthesized by hypothalamus but released by pituitary gland. Oxytocin and vasopressin are neuropeptides synthesized in the hypothalamus and secreted from the posterior pituitary. It is a neurohormone that function to stimulate contractions of the uterus during labour and to stimulate the ejection of milk. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

155. Select correct pair : (a) Sertoli cells - Testosterone (b) Prostate gland - Testosterone (c) Corpus luteum - Progesterone (d) None of above Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2015 Ans. (c) : Corpus luteum – Progesterone • Corpus luteum secretes estrogens and progesterone. Progesterone causes changes in the uterus that make it more suitable for implantation of the fertilized ovum and the nourishment of the embryo. • Sertoli cells produce and secrete the peptide hormone inhibin B. • Testosterone is secreted by leydig cells. 156. Which hormone is responsible for regulation of growth and development of an organism? (a) Thyroxine (b) Somatotropin (c) Progesterone (d) Estrogen Rajsthan PSC PGT Biology 2015 Ans. (b) : Hormone responsible for regulation of growth and development of an organism is somatotropin. Somatotropin or growth hormone is a peptide hormone that stimulates growth, cell reproduction, and cell regeneration. It is secreted from the anterior pituitary and is also known as somatotropic hormone. 157. Hormone responsible for lactation is: (a) Relaxin (b) Oxytocin (c) Oestrogen (d) Prolactin Rajsthan PSC PGT Biology 2015 Ans. (d) : The two primary hormones that are needed for lactation are prolactin and oxytocin. • Prolactin stimulates milk biosynthesis within the alveolar cells of the breast. It is secreted by the anterior pituitary. • Oxytocin stimulates contraction of the myoepithelial cells that surround the alveoli, causing the milk to be ejected into the ducts leading to the nipples. It is secreted by the posterior pituitary. 158. Identify the milk ejection hormone? (a) Vasopressin (b) Luteinizing hormone (LH) (c) Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) (d) Prolactin and oxytocin Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2013 Ans. (d) : See the explanation of the above question. 159. Antidiuretic hormone is synthesized by (a) Pars distalis (b) Pars intermedia (c) Pars nervosa (d) Neurosecretory cells of hypothalamus Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2013

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (d) : Antidiuretic hormone is synthesized by neurosecretory cells of hypothalamus. Specialized neuron clusters called neurosecretory cells in the hypothalamus produce the hormones antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and oxytocin, and transport them to the posterior pituitary, where they're stored for later release. 160. Hyper secretion of growth hormone in humans after puberty is the cause of (a) Giantism (Gigantism)(b) Dwarfism (c) Being a eunuch (d) Acromegaly Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2013 Ans. (d) : Hypersecretion of growth hormone (GH), in humans after puberty is the cause of acromegaly. In acromegaly, GH hypersecretion usually starts between the age of 20 and 40. When GH hypersecretion begins after epiphyseal closure, the earliest signs are coarsening of the facial features and soft-tissue swelling of the hands and feet. • Gigantism occurs when growth hormone hypersecretion occurs before the fusion of the long bone epiphysis and is characterized by tall stature. 161. Gigantism and Acromegaly develop due to (a) Hypothyroidism (b) Hyperthyroidism (c) Hyper secretion of growth hormones (d) Hypo secretion of growth hormones GIC Biology 15.09.2015 Ans. (c) : See the explanation of the above question. 162. The first human hormone produced successfully, using biotechnology, was : (a) Adrenaline (b) Calcitonin (c) Human Growth Hormone (d) Humulin Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2013 Ans. (d) : The first human hormone produced successfully using biotechnology was humulin (human insulin). Humulin is an amorphous, crystalline suspension of human insulin with zinc as intermediate insulin. It was developed by Genentech, the first American biotechnology company, and was licensed to Eli Lilly. 163. Which of the following is not a male hormone? (a) Androstenedione (b) Dihydroxytestosterone (c) 17 β-estradiol (d) Testosterone Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2013 Ans. (c) : 17 β-estradiol is not a male hormone. It is a steroid hormone produced primarily by the ovaries during the reproductive lifespan and is responsible for the development of female secondary sexual characteristics and maintenance of the female reproductive tract. • Androstenedione, dihydroxytestosterone and testosterone are all male hormones. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

164. In human males the synthesis and secretion of androgen hormones from testis is stimulated by : (a) MSH (Melanocyte Stimulating Hormone) (b) LH (Luteinizing Hormone) (c) TSH (Thyroid Stimulating Hormone) (d) ACTH (Adreno Corticotrophic Hormone) Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2013 Ans. (b) : LH and FSH stimulate gonadal activity and hence called Gonadotropins. In males, LH stimulates the synthesis and secretion of hormone called androgen from testis. 165. The secretory function of the corpus luteum is maintained by : (a) Prolactin (b) Estrogen (c) Progesterone (d) Oxytocin Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2013 Ans. (c) : Ovary is composed of ovarian follicles and stromal tissues. The estrogen synthesised and secreted by mainly the growing ovarian follicles. After ovulation, the rupture follicle converted to a structure called corpus luteum which secretes mainly progesterone which is essential for maintenance of endometrium. 166. Identify the set of hormones that induce(s) proliferative endometrial changes in mammalian uterus that prepare it for blastocyte implantation. (a) Corticoids and somatotropins (b) Estrogen and progesterone (c) Relaxin and Oxytocin (d) T.S.H. and thyroxine Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2013 Ans. (b) : Estrogen and progesterone hormones induces proliferative endometrial changes in mammalian uterus that prepare it for blastocyte implantation. Estrogen causes the endometrium lining to grow and thicken to prepare the uterus for pregnancy. Progesterone helps the fertilized egg be implanted in the uterus to establish a pregnancy. 167. Androgen hormone is secreted by (a) Follicular cell (b) Leydig’s cell (c) Corpus luteum (d) Sertoli cell Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (b) : Androgen hormone is secreted by leydig cell. These cells are located in the connective tissue surrounding the sperm producing tubules of the testes, and are responsible for the production and secretion of androgens. Testosterone is the main androgen hormone. • Follicular cells secrete estrogen hormone in females. • Corpus luteum mainly secretes progesterone. • Sertoli cells secrete inhibin hormone.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 168. The cause of labor pains is (a) Vasopressin (b) Oxytocin (c) Vasopressin and oxytocin (d) Progesterone and estrogen

Ans. (a) : Estrogen hormone is active during proliferative phase of menstrual cycle in women. In the proliferative phase there is rapid regeneration of myometrium and maturation of graafian follice. It is the second phase of the menstrual cycle when estrogen Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2011 causes the lining of the uterus to grow and proliferate.

Ans. (b) : The cause of labor pains is oxytocin. Oxytocin is secreted from the posterior pituitary. It contracts the uterus and promotes the progress of labour. The hormone stimulates the uterine muscles to contract, so labor begins. It also increases the production of prostaglandins, which move labor along and increases the contractions even more. Hence it is also known as 'birth hormone'. 169. Hormone helps in parturition isA- oxytocin, B- LH, C- Relaxin, D- FSH (b) A and D (a) B and D (c) A and B (d) A and C Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (d) : Oxytocin acid Relaxin hormone helps in parturition.

172. Albinism is due to absence of : (a) haemoglobin (b) chlorophyll (c) carotene (d) melanin PGT Biology 2013 Ans. (d) : Albinism is due to absence of melanin. Albinism is a congenital, inherited disorder of melanin pigment. It is due to absence or defect of tyrosinase, a copper-containing enzyme involved in the production of melanin. Melanin is a type of pigment that gives colour to the hair, skin, and eyes in humans and animals.

• Oxytocin is secreted from the posterior pituitary. It 173. Hypophysectomy leads to stimulates the uterine muscles to contract so labor begins. (a) heart attack It is also known as 'birth hormone'. (b) increased digestion • Relaxin is produced by the ovary and placenta. In (c) death preparation for childbirth, it relaxes the ligaments in the (d) regression of reproductive functions pelvis and softens and widens the cervix. PGT Biology 2009 170. Which stimulates milk secretion from the mammary glands after parturition? Ans. (d) : Hypophysectomy leads to regression of (a) Prolactin (b) FSH reproductive functions. (c) LH (d) Estrogen → Hypophysectomy is the term which refers to surgical Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2011 removal of the pituitary gland. The anterior pituitary is Ans. (a) : Prolactin stimulates milk secretion from the mammary glands after parturition. It is a hormone produced and secreted by the anterior pituitary. Prolactin causes the breasts to grow and make milk during pregnancy and after birth. → Oxytocin hormone is secreted by the posterior pituitary and it also helps in the process of lactation. It is also known as milk ejecting hormone.

responsible for the secretion and release of follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH). These two hormones are called as gonadotropins because they are responsible for the growth and development of gonads, testes in males and ovaries in females. The reproductive characters are not well developed in the absence of pituitary gland.

171. Which of the following hormones is active 174. Which of the following hormones does not bind during proliferative phase of menstrual cycle in to intra cellular receptor? women? (a) T3 and T4 (a) Estrogen (b) Estrogens (b) Progesterone (c) ACTH (c) Testosterone (d) Glucocorticoids (d) All the above LT Biology 2015 GIC Biology 15.09.2015 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (b) : Adenohypophysis does not include Pars nervosa. Adenohypophysis is formed by development of pars distalis, Pars tuberalis and Pars intermedia. Pars nervosa is part of neurohypophysis. Pituitary anterior and intermediate part is called Adenohypophysis.

Ans. (c) : Estrogen, glucocorticoids, T3 and T4 hormones bind to intracellular receptor, whereas ACTH does not bind to intracellular receptor. • Intracellular receptors are located inside the cell rather than on its cell membrane. Thyroid and steroid hormones use intracellular receptors. • Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) is made by the pituitary gland and it controls the production of another hormone cortisol in the adrenal glands. 175. Pancreatic somatostatin is secreted from (a) α-cells (b) D-cells (c) B-cells (d) D2F-cells LT Biology 2015 Ans. (b) : Pancreatic somatostatin is secreted from δ – cells (delta cells). Somatostatin is a powerful paracrine inhibitor of both insulin and glucagon hormone. • Alpha-cells (α-cells) of pancreas secrete glucagon. • Beta – cells (β-cells) of pancreas secrete insulin.

179. Select correct pair : (a) Sertoli cells - Testosterone 176. Mammary glands are : (b) Prostate gland - Testosterone (a) Holocrine (b) Merocrine (c) Corpus luteum - Progesterone (c) Apocrine (d) Endocrine (d) None of above UPPCS Pre 2001 Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2015 Ans. (c) : Mammary glands are example of apocrine Ans. (c) : • Correct pair is Corpusluteum – gland. In apocrine type of gland, the apical part of the Progesterone. cells and a part of the cytoplasm are lost in the secretion. Mammary glands are considered apocrine • The primary hormone produced from the corpus sweat glands that secrete milk. luteum is progesterone, but it also produces inhibin A 177. In chromaffin cells, the conversion of dopamine and estradiol. to norepinephrine occurs: (a) in the plasma membrane

• Sertoli cells produce and secrete the peptide hormone inhibin B.

(b) Within mitochondria

• Prostate gland secrete prostate fluid which is component of semen.

(c) in the secretion granules

180. Deficient production of STH in early life leads to : UPPCS Pre 2010 (a) Gigantism (b) Acromegaly Ans. (a) : In chromaffin cells, the conversion of (c) Dwarfism (d) Cretinism dopamine to norepinephrine occurs in the plasma TGT Biology 2005 membrane. Chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla contain and secrete epinephrine, norepinephrine, Ans. (c) : Deficient production of STH in early life leads to dwarfism. Somatotrophic hormone (STH) or dopamine and the Peptides, Enkephalin and growth hormone is secreted by the anterior pituitary neuropeptide Y. gland. STH helps children grow taller, increases 178. Adenohypophysis does not include : muscle mass, and decreases body fat. Dwarfism is a condition that is characterized by short stature. (a) Pars distalis (b) Pars nervosa Increased secretion of STH leads to Gigantism and (c) Pars tuberalis (d) Pars intermedia UPPCS Pre 2000 Acromegaly. (d) in the microfilaments

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 15. Embryonic Development

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Gametogenesis

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The tail of the sperm is made from which of the following? (a) Microtubule (b) Microfilament (c) Spindle tubule (d) Centriole TGT (2016) 31/07/2021 Ans. (d) : The tail of the sperm is made from centriole. The male gamete or sperm has 4 parts, head, neck, body and tail. Nucleus of spermatid becomes condense and forms the head of the spermatozoa along with the acrosome. Apical cap is formed by the golgi complex. It contains lysosomal enzymes. Flagellum formation results in the formation of tail. The axonemal structure of flagellum arises from distal centriole. During spermatozoa development the flagellum lies on the opposite side of the acrosome. 2. Formation of gametes in the gonads is known as (a) Spermatogenesis (b) Oogenesis (c) Gametogenesis (d) Genesis TGT 07/08/2021 Ans. (c) : Formation of gametes in the gonads is known as gametogenesis. Gametogenesis refers to the process of male and female gametes production. It takes place in the reproductive organs known as gonads. The male gametes are known as sperm and the female gamete is known as ovum or egg. Oogenesis takes place in the female gonad known as ovaries. In male, the process of formation of sperm is known as spermatogenesis. 3. During spermatogenesis, spermatids transform into spermatozoa by the process of – (a) Apoptosis (b) Spermiogenesis (c) Cleavage (d) Multiplication UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (b) : During spermatogenesis, spermatids transform into spermatozoa by the process of spermiogenesis. Spermatids is haploid cells formed by meiotic divison of spermatocytes and develops into a spermatozoon after maturational events. Spermiogenesis is the process by which haploid round spermatids complete an extraordinary series of events to become streamlined spermatozoa capable of motility. It is comprised of four phases : (1) Golgi phase, (2) Cap phase, (3) Tail phase, and (4) Maturation phase. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

The correct sequence in the process of development is (a) Fertilization→zygote→blastula→morula→ cleavage→gastrula (b) Cleavage→zygote→fertilization→morula→ blastula→ gastrula (c) Fertilization→zygote→cleavage → morula→ blastula →gastrula (d) Cleavage→fertilization→zygote→blastula→ morula→gastrula RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) Ans. (c) : The correct sequence in the process of development is : Fertilization → Zygote → Cleavage → Morula → Blastula →Gastrula. ⇒The embryonic development occurs through several developmental stages. The sperm and ovum fuse (Fertilization) to form the zygote. The zygote undergoes mitotic cleavage to form morula which is a 16 celled stage. Morula further divides to form blastula which is 128 celled stage. The blastula differentiates into gastrula which is cup-shaped and has three germ layer cells which further forms an embryo. 5. Sperm capacitation occurs in – (a) Rete testis (b) Epididymis (c) Vas deferens (d) Female reproductive tract UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (d) : Sperm capacitation occurs in female reproductive tract. Sperm capacitation refers to the physiological changes spermatozoa must undergo in order to have the ability to penetrate and fertilize an egg. It is an important process that is required for the acrosomal exocytosis and interaction with the oocyte. If the process of capacitation does not occur, it will lead to inactivation of the sperm and fertilization will not occur. 6. The force/power of propulsion of sperm is provided by: (a) Dynein (b) Sub-fiber A (c) Sub-fiber B (d) Nexin UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (a) : The force/power of propulsion of sperm is provided by dynein. It is a family of cytoskeletal motor proteins that move along microtubules in cells. Sperm swim by means of a prominent flagellum, composed of a core of microtubules, whose sliding is powered by flagellar dynein. This array of microtubules and associated motor and linker proteins is known as an axoneme.

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Select correct pair : (a) Sertoli cells - Testosterone (b) Prostate gland - Testosterone (c) Corpus luteum - Progesterone (d) None of above RPSC School Lecturer (23/07/2016) Ans. (c) The correct pair - corpus luteum - progestrone. The corpus luteum is responsible for producing the hormone progesterone which stimulates the uterus to thicken even more in preparation for implantation of a fertilized egg. The hormone estrogen is also elevated during this time to prepare uterus for implantation. 8. First polar body is formed at which stage of oogenesis? (a) Second Meiosis (b) First Mitosis (c) First Meiosis (d) Differentiation UK SSSC L.T. (21/01/2018) Ans. (c) : First polar body is formed during first meiosis (Meiosis-I) stage of oogenesis. The process of oogenesis takes place in the ovaries by which the female gamete or the ovum is formed. During the maturation phase of oogenesis, primary oocyte undergoes first meiotic division and forms two haploid daughter cell, a large secondary oocyte and a small first polar body are small cytoplasmic exclusion bodies that form to enclose excess DNA. The first polar body divides again to produce two more polar bodies. Hence, three polar bodies are produced during oogenesis.

9.

Oogonium is : (a) Haploid (c) Triploid

(b) Diploid (d) Euploid UPPCS Pre 2001 Ans. (b) : • Oogonium is diploid. • An oogonium is a small diploid cell which upon maturation, forms a primordial follicle in a female fetus. It is equivalent to spermatogonium in males. Oogonia are formed in large numbers by mitosis early in fetal development from primordial germ cells. Oogonium → diploid/46 (2N) Primary Oocyte → diploid /46 (2N) Secondary oocyte → haploid/23 (1N) Ootid → haploid / 23(1N) Ovum → haploid/23 (1N) TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

10.

What is the function of prostate gland ? (a) Collection of semen (b) To produce mobility to sperm (c) Formation of semen (d) Release to hormone UK SSSC L.T. (21/01/2018) Ans. (b) : The function of prostate gland is to produce mobility to sperm. The prostate gland is located just below the bladder in men and surrounds the top portion of the tube that drains urine from the bladder. Its primary function is to produce the fluid that nourishes and transports sperm. During ejaculation, millions of sperm move from the testes through tubes called the vas deferens into the area of the prostate. At this point, the prostate contracts, closing off the opening between the bladder and the urethra, releasing fluid into the urethra and pushing semen on through. 11. Which of the following membrane that protects the developing embryo from desiccation? (a) Amnion (b) Chorion (c) Allantois (d) Yolk sac UP LT 2018 Ans. (a) : • Amnion or amniotic sac protects the developing embryo from desiccation. It contains amniotic fluid which cushions the embryo from shocks. It is a thin ectodermal membrane lined with mesoderm, that grows to enclose the embryo like a balloon. • The yolk sac, amnion, Chorion, and allantois are the four extraembryonic membranes that lie outside of the embryo and are involved in providing nutrients and protection to the developing embryo.

12.

Sertoli cells are found in : (a) Ovary (b) Testis (c) Kidney (d) Liver RPSC School Lecturer 2011 Ans. (b) : Sertoli cells are found in testis. Spermatogenesis takes place in the semeniferous tubules. Sertoli cells are the epithelial supporting cells of the seminiferous tubules. 13. The correct statement for fertilizing is (a) a fat which is found on the surface of sperm. (b) a glycoprotein which is found on sperm. (c) a glycoprotein which is found on the surface of ovum (d) a fat which is found in the ovum. RPSC School Lecturer 2011

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (c) : Fertilizin is a glycoprotein which is found on the surface of ovum. The sperm contain antifertilizin which is basically acidic amino acid. This reaction of fertilizin and antifertilizin ensure that the sperm of the same species is fused with the ovum. 14. The polar body formed during oogenesis is – (a) Haploid (b) Diploid (c) Without chromosomes (d) Polyploid RPSC School Lecturer 2011 Ans. (a) : A polar body is a small haploid cell that is formed at the same time as an egg cell during oogenesis, but generally does not have the ability to fertilized. 15. Pseudocoelom is the condition when: (a) there is no coelomic cavity (b) coelomic cavity is lined by mesoderm (c) coelomic cavity is not lined by mesoderm (d) coelomic cavity is filled with muscles UP LT 2018 Ans. (c) : • Pseudocoelom is the condition when coelomic cavity is not lined by mesoderm. • A pseudocoelom (False coelom) is a body cavity that lies between mesodermal and endodermal tissue and is, therefore, not completely surrounded by mesodermal tissue. • A true coelom is completely surrounded by mesodermal tissue, and can thus be subdivided into compartments. 16. Tunica dartos is located in the : (a) testis (b) ovary (c) vagina (d) scrotum UP LT 2018 Ans. (d) Tunica dartos is located in the scrotum. It is a thin layer of non-striped muscular fibers, continuous, around the base of the scrotum, with the two layers of the superficial fascia of the groin and the perineum. In the scrotum, it acts to regulate the temperature of the testicles, which promotes spermatogenesis.

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17.

Basic principles of embryonic development were stated by : (a) Von Baer (b) Haeckel (c) Darwin (d) Weismann Bihar PGT 2019 Ans. (a) • Basic principles of embryonic development were stated by Von Baer in 1828. He is known as 'Father of embryology'. • The theory of evolution by natural selection, first formulated in Charles Darwin's book "On the Origin of species" in 1859. • Weismann proposed germ plasm theory in 1883. • Ernst Haeckel proposed biogenetic law in 1860s. which is a theory of development and evolution. 18. Blastodisc is constituted by: (a) hypoblast and mesoderm (b) epiblast and hypoblast (c) epiblast and mesoderm (d) epiblast and trophoblast LT Biology 2018 Ans. (b) : • Blastodisc is constituted by epiblast and hypoblast. • The blastodisc is a round single-cell layer of cells inside the blastula from which the embryo is going to form. The epiblast layer is composed of a layer of columnar cells adjacent to the amniotic cavity. The hypoblast layer is adjacent to the blastocyst cavity and is composed of small, cuboidal cells. 19. Fertilizin is a chemical substance produced from: (a) mature eggs (b) acrosome (c) polar bodies (d) middle piece of sperm Bihar PGT 2019 Ans. (a) : Fertilizin is a chemical substance secreted by the mature egg (Ovum). It is composed of glycoproteins. i.e. monosaccharides and amino acids. It ensure fertilization by allowing the sperm adhere to the egg. It further clumps other sperms around the egg to avoid polyspermy i.e. avoid entry of additional sperms. 20. Gametogenesis is formed during : (a) Spermatogenesis (b) Gametogenesis (c) Oogenesis (d) Embryogenesis Bihar PGT 2019 Ans. (d) : • Gametogenesis is formed during embryogenesis. • Embryogenesis is the process of initiation and development of an embryo from a zygote. • Gametogenesis is the process by which gametes or germ cells are produced in an organism. Spermatogenesis and oogenesis are both forms of gametogenesis, in which a diploid gamete cell produces haploid sperm and egg cells, respectively. 21. Mitochondrial sheath in sperm is present in : (a) Tail (b) Middle piece (c) Acrosome (d) Head PGT Biology 2011

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (b) : • Mitochondrial sheath in sperm is present in 26. The correct sequence in spermatogenesis is : (a) Spermatocytes, spermatids, spermatogonia and middle piece. spermatozoa. • Mitochondrial sheath is the spirally arranged (b) Spermatogonia, spermatozoa, spermatocytes mitochondria in the middle piece of a sperm that and spermatids. provides energy for the movement of the tail. In the (c) Spermatocytes, spermatogonia, spermatids and human sperm, approximately 50-75 pieces of the spermatozoa mitochondria are helically wrapped to the outer dense fibers of the tail, and they are arranged end to end in the (d) Spermatogonia, spermatocytes, spermatids and midpiece region. spermatozoa. UPPCS Pre 2006 22. Peritoneum is derived from the : (a) ectoderm (b) mesoderm Ans. (d) : Spermatogonia → Spermatocytes → spermatid → spermatozoa. These phases occurs in (c) endoderm (d) ectomesoderm UPPCS Pre 1999 spermatogenesis : (1) Multiplication phase (2) Growth phase Ans. (b) : The peritoneum is the serous membrane that (3) Maturation phase. lines the abdominal cavity. It is composed of Spermatogonia is first formed in multiplication phase, mesothelial cells that are supported by a thin layer of second spermatocyte is formed and at last spermatid fibrous tissue and is embryologically derived from the and spermatozoa are formed. mesoderm. As the mesoderm differentiates, one region known as the lateral plate mesoderm splits to form two layers separated by an intraembryonic coelom. 23. Polar bodies are formed during : (a) oogenesis (b) spermatogenesis (c) fertilization (d) regeneration UPPCS Pre 1999 Ans. (a) : Polar bodies are formed during maturation phase of oogenesis. Oogenesis is the process of maturation of reproductive cell in ovary. It includes phase of multiplication, phase of growth and phase of maturation. 24. The zone of invagination is : (a) prospective ectoderm (b) prospective mesoderm 27. How many spermatids are formed from a (c) prospective endoderm secondary spermatocyte? (d) None of the above (a) 1 (b) 2 LT Biology 2018 (c) 4 (d) 8 Ans. (c) : • The zone of invagination is prospective UPPCS Pre 2005 endoderm. Invagination consists of the internal Ans. (b) : • 2 spermatids are formed from a movements of a sheet of cells (The endoderm) based on secondary spermatocyte. changes in their shape. • Each primary spermatocyte divides into two • In developmental biology, invagination is a secondary spermatocytes and each secondary mechanism that takes place during gastrulation. spermatocyte into two spermatids or young spermatozoa. These develop into mature spermatozoa, 25. Spermiogenesis means : (a) production of spermatozoa from primary also known as sperm cells. spermatogonia 28. Spermiogenesis refers to : (a) spermatogoneal division (b) transformation of spermatids into spermatozoa (b) spermatocyte division (c) release of spermatozoa from sertolicells (c) spermatid differentiation (d) agglutination of spermatozoa (d) all the above UPPCS Pre 1998 UPPCS Pre 2004 Ans. (b) : Spermatozoa are produced in the seminiferous tubules of the testes. Spermiogenesis Ans. (c) : includes two stages : Spermatogenesis – formation of spermatozoa / sperm. (i) formation of spermatids Spermiogenesis– Spermatids are transformed into spermatozoa. (ii) metamorphosis of spermatids Spermiation– sperm finally release from seminiferous Transformation of spermatids into spermatozoa is tubules. called spermiogenesis. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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At the end of first meiotic division the male germ cells differentiate into : (a) Spermatid (b) Spermatogonium (c) Secondary spermatocyte (d) Primary spermatocyte UPPCS Pre 2001 Ans. (c) : • At the end of first meiotic division the male germ cell differentiate into secondary spermatocyte. • Each male germ cell or primary spermatocyte undergoes meiosis I to produce two equal, haploid secondary spermatocytes. Each of the two secondary spermatocytes further undergoes meiosis II to produce two haploid spermatids. • A spermatogonium is an undifferentiated male germ cell that undergoes spermatogenesis to form mature spermatozoa. 30. How many sperms are formed from a secondary spermatocyte : (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8 UPPCS Pre 2003 Ans. (a) : One secondary spermatocyte forms 2 sperm. A primary spermatocyte divides into two secondary spermatocytes, which in turn divide to form spermatids. The spermatids are transformed into spermatozoa (sperm) by the process of spermiogenesis. 31. Match list-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the appropriate code given below : List-I List-II A. Vagina 1. Corpus Luteum B. Ovary 2. Reception C. Testis 3. Corpus spongiosum D. Penis 4. Leydig's cells Code : A B C D (a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 1 2 3 4 (c) 3 1 4 2 (d) 4 3 1 2 UPPCS Pre 2006 Ans. (a) : The correct sequence of match : List I List II A. Vagina 2. Reception B. Ovary 1. Corpus luteum C. Testis 4. Leydig's cell D. Penis 3. Corpus spongiosum 32. After fertilization, vitelline membrane gets separated from plasma membrane to : (a) prevent polyspermy (b) facilitate cleavage (c) maintain osmotic tension (d) allow free cell movement during gastrulation UPPCS Pre 2006 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (a) : After entry of sperm, some 'cortical reaction' takes place due to which vitelline membrane get separated from the plasma membrane of the egg and a space called perivitelline space is established between the two. This membrane is prevent polyspermy. • Wolf et al, (1976) was of opinion that this membrane checks the polyspermy. 33. In female amniotes oviduct is modified into : (a) Cuvier's duct (b) Gartner's duct (c) Wolffian duct (d) Mullerian duct UPPCS Pre 1994 Ans. (d) : In female amniotes, oviduct is modified into Mullerian duct. Paramesonephric ducts or Mullerian ducts are present on the embryo of both sexes. Only in females do they develop into reproductive organs. They degenerate in females. They differentiate to form the fallopian tubes, uterus, the uterine cervix, and the superior aspect of the vagina. 34. What are primordial sperm cells called? (a) Spermatogonia (b) Spermatocytes (c) Spermatids (d) Sertoli cells UPPCS Pre 2007 Ans. (a) : • Primordial sperm cells are called spermatogonia. • Spermatogonia are cells produced at an early stage in the formation of spermatozoa, formed in the wall of a seminiferous tubule and giving rise by mitosis to spermatocytes. • Spermatid is the haploid male gamete that results from division of secondary spermatocytes. • Sertoli cells are a type of somatic cell around which spermatids develop in the tubules of the testis. 35. The embryonic membranes of mammalian embryo are derived from– (a) Inner cell mass (b) Trophoblast (c) Formative cells (d) Folicle cells UPPCS Pre 2007 Ans. (a) : • The embryonic membranes of a mammalian embryo are derived from inner cell mass. Four embryonic membranes form to support the growing embryo, the amnion, the yolk sac, the allantois, and the chorion. These membranes protect the embryo and provide nutrition, respiration and excretion. • Inner cell mass, also known as the embryoblast or pluriblast is the mass of cells inside the primordial embryo that will eventually give rise to the definitive structures of the foetus. 36. Foetal membranes of mammalian embryo are derived from : (a) Granulosa cells (b) Corona radiata cells (c) Trophoectoderm (d) Inner cell mass Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2013 Ans. (d) : See the explanation of the above question.

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In mammals, acrosomal reaction is initiated by: (a) Influx of Na+ and H+ (b) Efflux of Na++ and influx of H+ (c) Influx of Ca++ and protein of ZP3 of zona pellucida. (d) ZP1 and ZP2 of zona pellucida UPPCS Pre 2007 Ans. (c) : The acrosome reaction that occurs after sperm capacitation, is an exocytotic event induced by a Ca++ influx. It plays an essential role during fertilization, and sperm penetrating the zona and capable of fusing with the egg plasma membrane. Zona pellucida is the natural inducer of the acrosome reaction. Binding of the sperm receptor to ZP3, a zona glycoprotein acting as ligand, triggers the molecular events leading to acrosomal exocytosis. G-proteins may be involved in the singnal- transduction pathway during the acrosome reaction. 38. Stem cells are derived from : (a) endometrium (b) foetal placenta (c) gland cells of embryo (d) mucous epithelium of mother UPPCS Pre 2007 Ans. (c) : Stem cells are derived from gland cells of embryo. Stem cells are cells with the potential to develop into many different types of cells in the body. Embryonic stem cells are found in the inner cells mass. These cells can become blood cells, skin cells, and all the other cell types that a body needs. 39. In mammals, decidua basalis is a part of : (a) endometrium (b) chorion (c) myometrium (d) chorion frondosum UPPCS Pre 2007 Ans. (a) : • Decidua basalis is a part of the endometrium in the pregnant human female that participates with the chorion in the formation of the placenta. It is the specialized layer of endometrium that form the base of the placental bed. Vessels in this part supply maternal arterial blood to the lacunae between the fetal chorionic villi and receive venous blood from the lacunae. 40. Which one of the following pairs is diploid: (a) Primary and secondary spermatocytes (b) Spermatid and sperm (c) Spermatogonia and spermatid (d) Spermatogonia and primary spermatocyte UPPCS Pre 2000, 2003 Ans.(d) : Spermatogonia and primary spermatocyte are diploid (2n). * Spermatid, secondary spermatocyte and sperm are haploid(n). * Spermatogonia are primitive diploid germ cells, located on the basement membrane of the seminiferous tubules. * Primary spermatocyte is a diploid cell that has been derived from a spermatogonia and can subsequently begin meiosis and divide into two haploid secondary spermatocytes. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

41.

Blastopore is present in: (a) blastula (b) gastrula (c) planula (d) amphiblastula UPPCS Pre 2008 Ans. (b) : • Blastopore is present in gastrula. It is the opening by which the cavity of the gastrula communicates with the exterior. Gastrula is developed by the invagination of endodermal cells into ectodermal cells. The gastrula contains archenteron cavity, which opens through blastopore. • Planula is a larval type common in many species of the phylum Cnidaria. • Amphiblastula is a free-swimming larva of certain sponges. • Blastula is the stage before gastrula. 42. Blastopore is found in the following : (a) Blastula (b) Gastrula (c) Planula (d) Amphiblastula UPPCS Pre 2002 Ans. (b) : See the explanation of the above question. 43. Middle piece of a mammalian sperm contains (a) mitochondria only (b) centriole only (c) both nucleus and mitochondria (d) both mitochondria and proximal centriole UPPCS Pre 2008 Ans. (d) : Middle piece of a mammalian sperm contains both mitochondria and proximal centriole. Sperm has : (i) Head, in which acrosome and nucleus are present. (ii) Middle piece, which contains many mitochondria. (A short neck is also present between middle piece and head which has centrioles and may sometimes regarded as a part of middle piece). (iii) A long and highly motile tail, which contains cytoplasm and axoneme. 44. Mitochondria in sperm is : (a) found in its head (b) found in its acrosome (c) found in its middle piece (d) not found at all UPPCS Pre 1995 Ans. (c) : Mitochondria and centrosome are present in the middle part of sperm. Mitochondria provide energy for motility of sperm, acrosome found at the tip of sperm. The spermatozoon contains approximately 50-75 pieces of mitochondria in its midpiece. 45. Orgenelles which are found in the mid-piece of the sperm (a) Golgi body and lysosome (b) Ribosome and ER (c) Mitochondria and Centriole (d) Mitochondria and ribosome RPSC School Lecturer 2011

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (c) : Mitochondria are the cell organelle that is present in the middle piece of the sperm. Mitochondria are considered as the "power house" in the cell", it gives energy to the sperm to move, centriole is present at the neck region.

46.

Middle piece of mammalian sperm contains : (a) Mitochondria only (b) Centriole only (c) Nucleus and mitochondria (d) Mitochondria and proximal centriole UPPCS Pre 2002 Ans. (d) : See the explanation of the above question.

47.

The function of allantoic chorion in mammals is: (a) respiratory alone (b) excretory alone (c) respiratory and excretory (d) excretory, respiratory and nutritive UPPCS Pre 1997 Ans. (c) : Chorion is the outermost extra-embryonic membrane in reptiles, birds and mammals. It is respiratory and excretory in function. The main function of allantois of mammalian embryo is nutrition. It also helps in respiration and excretion. Allantoic chorion in mammal is respiratory and excretory in function.

48.

Which one of the following is in correct sequence : (a) zygote, cleavage, blastula, gastrula (b) zygote blastula, gastrula, cleavage (c) zygote, cleavage, gastrula, blastula (d) cleavage, zygote, blastula, gastrula UPPCS Pre 1997 Ans. (a) : Correct sequence is zygote, cleavage, blastula, gastrula. The development of multi-cellular organisms begins from a single-celled zygote, which undergoes rapid cell division to form the blastula. The rapid, multiple rounds of cell division are termed cleavage. After the cleavage has produced over 100 cells, the embryo is called a blastula.

49.

The evolutionary change that enabled land vertebrates to completely free themselves from water habitat, was the development of : (a) lungs (b) 4 legs (c) 4 chambered heart (d) shelled eggs and internal fertilization UPPCS Pre 1997

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Ans. (d) : The evolutionary change that enabled land vertebrates to completely free themselves from water habitat, was the development of shelled eggs and internal fertilization. The distinguishing characteristic of amniotes, a shelled egg with an amniotic membrane, allowed them to venture onto land. Internally fertilizing animals grow their eggs and offspring inside themselves. This offers protection from predators and from dehydration on land. 50. Spiral cleavage is observed in : (a) Frog (b) Fish (c) Turbellaria (d) Pydra UPPCS Pre 1997 Ans. (c) : Cleavage is a process of rapid mitotic division of the zygote. Swammerdam observed the first cleavage of frog. Arrangement of blastomeres in a spiral manner is known as spiral cleavage. e.g., platyhelminthes Annelida and most mollusca. Turbellaria is a class of platyhelminthes. 51. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer from the code given below the list : List-I List-II (a) Chorion 1. Nourishment (b) Allantois 2. Protection (c) Yolk sac 3. Fluid environment (d) Amnion 4. Excretion Code : A B C D (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 3 4 1 (c) 2 4 1 3 (d) 3 4 1 2 UPPCS Pre 2004 Ans. (d) : The correct match of List - I and List - II given below. List - I List - II Chorion Fluid environment Allantois Excretion Yolk Sac Nourishment Amnion Protection 52. In hydrolysis, a small amount of energy is released as : (a) kinetic energy (b) potential energy (c) photic energy (d) metabolic energy UPPCS Pre 2004 Ans. (d) : In hydrolysis a small amount of energy is released as metabolic energy. Hydrolysis is a chemical reaction of the interaction of chemicals with water, leading to the decomposition of both the substance and water. Reactions of hydrolysis are possible with salts, carbohydrates, proteins, fats etc. 53. Cumulus oophorus is found in : (a) testis (b) ovary (c) testis and ovary both (d) kidney PGT Biology 2003 UPPCS Pre 2004

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (b) : Cumulus Oophorus is found in ovary. It is Ans. (b) : • Clitoris of female is homologous to the also known as cumulus ovaricus continue. It is a penis of male. group of cell that arises from the granulosa cells and • Clitoris is a small erectile organ, that lies at the forms a solid layer surrounding the oocyte. These anterior junction of the Labia minora. It is very small cluster of cell appear in the mature follicle. They help and solid, having no passage through it. in the maturation of the oocyte and protect the oocyte • Homologous organs are those structures that are during ovulation. similar in morphology, embryology, and anatomy, but 54. In humans, ovum, with its surrounding are dissimilar in their functions. membranes is called(a) Graafian follicle (b) Corpus albicans (c) Cumulus oophorus (d) Antrum PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (c) : In humans, ovum, with its surrounding membranes, is called cumulus oophorus. See the explanation in above question. 55. The chemical substance found in the surface layer of cytoplasm of spermatozoa is : (a) Antifertilizin (b) Fertilizin 58. Mullerian ducts form : (c) Agglutinin (d) Hyaluronidase (a) Oviducts (b) Urinary ducts UPPCS Pre 2001 (c) Fallopian tube (d) Wolffian ducts Ans. (a) : • The chemical substance found in the UPPCS Pre 2001 surface layer of cytoplasm of spermatozoa is Ans. (c) : • Mullerian ducts form fallopian tube. antifertilizin. • Mullerian ducts are paired ducts of the embryo that • Antifertilizin is a protein that attracts sperm towards run down the lateral sides of the urogenital sinus. It is egg by chemotaxis. Along with hyaluronidase enzyme also known as Paramesonephric duct. In females they secreted by the acrosome, it helps in fertilizing the develop into reproductive organs. egg. • Fertilizin is a sperm agglutinating agent that is 59. How many secondary spermatocytes will be produced by an egg and plays a part in the required to form hundred spermatozoa : preliminaries of fertilization. (a) 400 (b) 200 56. How many ova and sperms will be formed from (c) 100 (d) 50 100 secondary oocytes and 50 secondary UPPCS Pre 1996 spermatocytes : Ans. (d) : In the process of spermatogenesis, single (a) 100 ova and 200 sperms secondary spermatocyte produces two spermatozoa or (b) 100 ova and 50 sperms sperm. So, 50 secondary spermatocytes will be required to form 100 spermatozoa. (c) 100 ova and 100 sperms (d) 25 ova and 200 sperms 60. Vasectomy causes the loss of : (a) Estrogen (b) Testosterone UPPCS Pre 2001 (c) Androgens (d) None of the above three Ans. (c) : • 100 secondary oocytes will form 100 ova, and 50 secondary spermatocytes will form 100 UPPCS Pre 1996 sperms. Ans. (c) : Man's vasa deferentia are cut and tied • In the process of oogenesis, single secondary oocyte permanently blocking sperm release is known as produces one ova and one polar body. Thus 100 will vasectomy. Vasectomy causes the loss of a male sex produce 100 ova. hormone known as Androgen. Production of seminal fluid, the major component of semen, by the accessory • In the process of spermatogenesis, single secondary sex glands is unaffected by vasectomy. Man who has spermatocyte produces two sperms. Thus 50 will a vasectomy still makes semen. produce 100 sperms. 61. The epithelial tissue acts as a covering on the 57. Clitoris of female is : external surface of body and on the exposed (a) analogous to the penis of male internal and external surface of internal organs. (b) homologous to the penis of male During embryonic development it is formed by : (c) analogous to scrotal sac (a) Ectoderm (b) Mesoderm (d) homologous to scrotal sac (c) Endoerm (d) By all these UPPCS Pre 2001 UPPCS Pre 2002 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (d) : Epithelial tissues are derived from all of the embryological germ layers : from ectoderm (e.g., the epidermis); from endoderm (e.g., the lining of the gastrointestinal tract); from mesoderm (e.g., the inner linings of body cavities). Epithelial tissues are the types of tissues that line the cavities and surfaces of structures throughout the body. 62. Assertion (A) : In pregnant women enlargement of uterus muscles place due to the effect of hormones. Reason (R) : If the muscles have to work hard then gradually their fibers become thickened which is known as hypertrophy of muscles. Select the correct answer using the codes given below : Code : (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) Both A and R are incorrect. (c) A is false but R is true. (d) A is true but R is false. UPPCS Pre 2002 Ans. (a) : Pregnant women experience sudden and dramatic increases in estrogen and progesterone. During pregnancy, estrogen hormone helps the uterus grow, maintains the uterine lining and helps fetal organs develop. It also promote breast development in preparation for lactation. Muscular hypertrophy refers to an increase in muscle mass. This usually manifests as an increase in muscle size and strength. Both A and R correct but R is not the correct explanation of A. 63. Gill slits formed during the embryonic development of mammals : (a) help foetal respiration (b) function as haemopoietic organ (c) secrete growth hormone (d) indicate phylogenetic relation UPPCS Pre 1999 Ans. (d) : Gill slits formed during the embryonic development of mammals indicate phylogenic relation. Haeckel proposed 'The theory of recapitulation' or 'Biogenetic law' which states that an individual organism in its development (ontogeny) tends to repeat the stages passed through by its ancestors (phylogeny) i.e., 'Ontogeny repeats phylogeny'. 64. Extra embryonic membranes are present in : (a) fishes, mammals and birds (b) amphibia, reptiles and birds (c) reptiles, birds and mammals (d) fishes amphibia and reptiles UPPCS Pre 1999 Ans. (c) : Reptiles, birds and mammals are called amniota, because extra embryonic membranes are present. Fishes and amphibia are called anamniota. The extraembryonic membranes consist of the chorion, amnion, yolk sac and allantois. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

65.

Among goat, man, pig and cow, the placental barrier between the maternal and foetal blood is minimum in : (a) goat (b) man (c) pig (d) cow UPPCS Pre 1998 Ans. (b) : Man has haemochorial placenta with 3 barriers. Pig has epitheliochorial placenta with 6 barriers. Cow and goat has syndesmochorial placenta with 5 barriers. So, the placental barrier between the maternal and foetal blood is minimum in man. 66. The term 'polyembryony' means : (a) embryonic stages multiply asexually (b) larval stages reproduce sexually (c) larval stages start producing eggs (d) adult gives rise to many larvae UPPCS Pre 1998 Ans. (d) : Mostly one embryo developed from one fertilized egg. When many embryo are produced from a adult in same time it is called polyembryony. Thus adult give rise to many larva. This phenomenon is found both in plants and animals. In the case of humans, it results in forming two identical twins. 67. A primary spermatocyte is : (a) polyploidy (b) haploid (c) diploid (d) aneuploid UPPCS Pre 2005 Ans. (c) : • A primary spermatocyte is diploid. • Primary spermatocyte are formed from immature germ cells called spermatogonia by the process of spermatogenesis. • Primary spermatocytes are diploid (2n) in nature. They undergo a meiotic division and forms secondary spermatocytes which are haploid (n) in nature. 68. The mid gastrula of frog characterized by the presence of : (a) Blastopore and yolk plug (b) Newly formed Archenteron (c) Black ectodermal cells (d) Blastocoel and archenteron UPPCS Pre 2005 Ans. (b) : • The mid gastrula of frog is characterized by the presence of newly formed archenteron. • Archenteron is a primitive digestive cavity of the embryo at the gastrula stage of development in frog. It is formed by invagination of mesoderm and endoderm cells, opens to the outside by a blastopore, and finally develops into the gut cavity. 69. Archenteron is formed in : (a) Morula (b) Blastula (c) Gastrula (d) Neurula Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2013 Ans. (c) : Archenteron is formed in gastrula. It is considered as the primitive digestive cavity of the embryo. It is formed by invagination of mesoderm and endoderm cells opens to the outside by a blastopore.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 70.

Fertilizin produced : (a) By immature egg (c) By mature egg

(b) By sperm (d) By ovary UPPCS Pre 2005 Ans. (c) : Fertilizin is produced by mature egg. • Fertilizin is a sperm - agglutinative agent that is produced by an egg and reacts with antifertilizin and plays a part in fertilization. • Antifertilizin is a protein that attracts sperm towards egg by chemotaxis. Along with hyaluronidase enzyme secreted by the acrosome, it helps in fertilizing the egg. 71.

Ans. (a) : • Estrus is not a phase of menstrual cycle. • Estrus cycle are cyclical changes during reproduction in non-primate mammals like cows, sheep, deer, dog, tiger, etc. • Cyclical changes during reproduction in primate mammals including humans is known as menstrual cycle. The four phases of the menstrual cycle are menstrual, follicular, ovulatory and luteal. 75.

Alecithal eggs are found in : (a) birds and mammals (b) mammals (c) frog (d) frog and chicks UPPCS Pre 1994 Ans. (b) : The human egg is alecithal as it consists of the negligible amount af yolk in it as the embryo develops into the egg and remains connected to the mother by obtaining nutrition. Humans are viviparous. 76. If some larval characters are retained in the adult, it is called (a) Paedomorphosis (b) Neoteny (c) Metamorphosis (d) Gerantomorphosis UPPCS Pre 2010

Extra-abdominal testes in most homeotherms are because: (a) abdomen is packed with other organs (b) proper spermatogenesis requires temperature below the body temperature. (c) spermatogenesis may interfere with renal function. (d) testosterone cannot be synthesized at higher abdominal temperature. UPPCS Pre 2005 Ans. (b) : • If some larval character are retained in the UPPCS Pre 2006 adult, it is called Neoteny. It is also called juvenilization. Ans. (b) : • Extra abdominal testes in most • Paedomorphosis and neoteny represent two homeotherms are because proper spermatogenesis qualitatively different phenomena. Neoteny is an requires temperature below the body temperature. adaptive modification of ontogeny, whereas • The testes of a great majority of mammals are paedomorphosis is its transformation in the course of typically enclosed in an extra-abdominal sac,the evolution. scrotum. Scrotum has a temperature 1-3ºC (degree Celsius) lower than the normal body temperature, 77. Mare, cow and bitch secrete pheromones which is essential for the production of sperm or male during : gametes. (a) anestrous (b) estrus 72. Which of the following organs is covered with (c) diestrus (d) metestrus tunica albuginea? UPPCS Pre 2010 (a) Testis (b) Spleen Ans. (b) : • Mare, cow and bitch secrete pheromones (c) Ovary (d) Kidney during estrus period. UPPCS Pre 2009 • Pheromones are released by an organism to attract an Ans. (a) : • Tunica albuginea is the covering around the individual of the same species, encourage them to mate with them, or perform some other functions closely testis. • Tunica albuginea is bilayered including an outer related with sexual reproduction. longitudinal layer an inner circular layer. It is a dense • Estrus period are cyclical changes during reproduction blue-grey membrane, composed of bundles of white in non-primate mammals. fibrous connective tissue. 78. Nitrogenous excretory product of frog tadpole73.

Tunica albuginea is the covering of : (a) Spleen (b) Heart (c) Testes (d) Lungs Navoday Vidyalay PGT Biology 2014 Ans: (c) See the explanation of the above question.

74.

Which of the following is not a phase of menstrual cycle? (a) Estrus (b) Luteal (c) Menstrual (d) Ovulatory UPPCS Pre 2010

TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

(a) Urea (c) Uric acid

(b) Ammonia (d) Protein TGT Biology 2013

Ans. (b) • Nitrogenous excretory product of frog tadpole is ammonia. • Excretion of ammonia requires a large quantity of water. Tadpole lives in water unlike an adult frog, hence tadpoles are ammonotelic. • Nitrogenous excretory product in adult frog is urea, hence it is ureotelic.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 79.

Maturation of spermatozoa occurs in : (a) Epididymis (b) Vas deferens (c) Prostate (d) None of these TGT Biology 2013

Ans. (a) : • Maturation of spermatozoa occurs in epididymis. • The epididymis is a long, coiled tube that rests on the backside of each testis. It carries and stores sperm cells that are created in the testes. The primary functions of the epididymis are sperm transport and sperm maturation. As sperm travel through the epididymis they are exposed to a number of signals from the cells of the epididymis that drive their maturation. 80.

The hollow ball stage in embryonic development is called : (a) Morula (b) Blastula (c) Gastrula (d) None of the above TGT Biology 1999

Ans. (b) : • The hollow ball stage in embryonic development is called blastula. • Embryo development begins with a sperm fertilizing an egg to become a zygote, which undergoes many cleavages to develop into morula. Morula is a solid ball of cells while the blastula is a hollow ball of cells. Blastula will further develop into a blastocyst. 81.

The region where sperm enters the ovum is called: (a) reception cone (b) animal pole (c) vegetal pole (d) grey crescent PGT Biology 2013

Ans. (a) : • The region where sperm enters the ovum is called reception cone. • At the point of contact with the sperm, the ovum forms a projection known as reception cone or fertilization cone which receives the sperm. It is formed at the place where the acrosomal process of sperm fuses with the egg surface and developed into an inverted conical mass. 82.

Primary egg membrane is : (a) Graafian follicle (b) Corona radiata (c) Zona Pellucida (d) All of these PGT Biology 2011

Ans. (c) : • Primary egg membrane is zona pellucida. • Zona pellucida is a glycoprotein layer surrounding the plasma membrane of mammalian oocytes. It is secreted by both the oocyte and the ovarian follicles. During fertilization, a sperm comes in contact with the zona pellucida layer of the ovum and induces changes in the membrane that block the entry of additional sperms. 83.

Epididymis cells are found in: (a) Brain (b) Kidney (c) Liver (d) Epididymis PGT Biology 2003

TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (d) : • Epididymis cells are found in epididymis. • Epididymis is a long coiled tube behind the testis, along which sperm passes to the vas deferens. Epididymal cells form a "blood-epididymis" barrier, which protects the antigenic sperm from the host immune system. 84. In a transverse section of Mammalian seminiferous tubule which of the following is not present? (a) Spermatocyte (b) Spermatid (c) Immobile spermatozoa (d) Mobile spermatozoa Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2013 Ans. (d) : • In a transverse section of mammalian seminiferous tubule, mobile spermatozoa is not present. • Seminiferous tubules are coiled tubules found within the testes. They are the site where spermatozoa are produced by spermatogenesis. The spermatozoa are not motile as they leave the testis but gain motility and fertilizing ability as they move through the head and body of the epididymis. 85. "Mitochondrial clouds" are found in(a) Sperm (b) Ovum (c) Amoeba (d) all Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (b) : "Mitochondrial clouds" are found in ovum. • The mitochondrial cloud is a prominent mass in the cytoplasm of previtellogenic oocytes. In humans, the ovum contains the highest number of mitochondria ranging from 100,000 to 600,000 mitochondria per cell. • Sperm contains approximately 50-75 pieces of mitochondria in its midpiece. Mitochondrial formation in the sperm is known as Nebenkern. 86. The site of fertilization in woman is(a) Ovary (b) Cervix (c) Fallopian tube (d) Uterus Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (c) : • The site of fertilization in woman is fallopian tube. • The fallopian tubes are bilateral conduits between the ovaries and the uterus in the female pelvis. Fertilization happens when a sperm cell successfully meets an egg cell in the fallopian tube. If the fertilized egg successfully travels down the fallopian tube and implants in the uterus, an embryo starts growing. 87. Human fertilization takes place in : (a) Uterus (b) Vagina (c) Ovary (d) Fallopian tube Bihar PGT 2019 Ans. (d) : Human fertilization takes place in fallopian tube. 88. Sertoli cells are found in (a) Ovary (b) Testis (c) Kidney (d) Liver Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2011

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (b) : • Sertoli cells are found in testis. • Sertoli cells are the somatic cells of the testis that are essential for testis formation and spermatogenesis. They provide nutrition and shape to the developing germ cells and spermatozoa. It is also called 'nurse cells' or 'mother cells' of the testicle. It also secretes various proteins, including androgen-binding protein, as well as hormones such as inhibin. 89. The nutritive cells found in the seminiferous tubules are : (a) Leydig cells (b) Sertoli cells (c) Spermatogonial cells (d) Chromaffin cells Navoday Vidyalay PGT Biology 2014 Ans: (b) See the explanation of the above question. 90. Sertoli cells are found in : (a) Amphibian testes (b) Amphibian ovary (c) Mammalian testes (d) Mammalian ovary UPPCS Pre 1999 Ans. (c) : See the explanation of the above question. 91. In human beings sex of the offspring is determined by (a) Size of ovum (b) Size of sperm (c) Sex chromosome of mother (d) Sex chromosome of father Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (d) : • In human beings, sex of the offspring is determined by sex chromosome of father. • Men determine the sex of a baby depending on whether their sperm is carrying an X or Y chromosome. An X chromosome combines with the mother's X chromosome to make a baby girl (XX) and a Y chromosome will combine with the mother's to make a boy (XY). 92. The polar body formed during oogenesis is(a) Haploid (b) Diploid (c) Polyploid (d) Without chromosomes Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (a) : • The polar body formed during oogenesis is haploid • During maturation phase of oogenesis, primary oocyte undergoes first meiotic division and form two haploid daughter cells, a large secondary oocyte and small first polar body. The first polar divides again to produce two more polar bodies. 93. First artificial inseminated buffalo was produced at : (a) Kamal (b) Allahabad (c) Panipat (d) Delhi Delhi SSB PGT Biology 2015 Ans. (b) : • First artificial inseminated buffalo was produced at the Allahabad agricultural Institute, Allahabad in 1943. • Artificial insemination is the scientific process of making a woman or a female animal pregnant by putting male sperm inside her so that babies or young ones can be produced without sexual activity. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

94.

At what stage, the proembryo is formed? (a) 4 celled (b) 12 celled (c) 18 celled (d) 16 celled Delhi SSB PGT Biology 2015

Ans. (d) : • Proembryo is formed at 16-celled stage. • Proembryo or pre-embryo is the conceptus before implantation in the uterus. The first 2 weeks of prenatal development are referred to as the pre-embryonic stage. • A developing human is referred to as an embryo during weeks 3-8, and a fetus from the ninth week of gestation until birth. 95. In Drosophila the pattern is established: (a) During production of the oocyte (b) As a result of environmental Interactions with the oocyte (c) During gastrulation (d) After embryogenesis has completed Jharkhand Daite PGT Biology 2014 Ans. (a) : • In Drosophila, the pattern is established during production of the oocyte. • Pattern formation is the development of a body according to a specific and planned spatial arrangement. It is controlled by gene expression, which begins before an egg is fertilized. The building - blocks of anterior-posterior axis patterning in Drosophila are laid out during egg formation (oogenesis). 96. Which one is released from the ovary ? (a) Primary oocyte (b) Secondary oocyte (c) Ovum (d) Oogonium Navoday Vidyalay PGT Biology 2014 Ans: (c) Ovum is released from ovary. Oogonium (Gamete mother cells) formed within each fetal ovary; No more oogonia are formed and added after birth. Primary oocytes formed during fetal life. Secondary oocytes - Graafian follicle ruptures to release the secondary oocytes (ovum) from ovary by the process of ovulation. 97. Capacitation of sperms involve a change in: (a) Sperm size (b) Acrosome membrane (c) Mitochondrial alignment (d) Nuclear chromatin Navoday Vidyalay PGT Biology 2014 Ans: (b) • Capacitation of sperms involve a change in acrosome membrane. • Capacitation is the change undergone by sperm in the female reproductive tract that enables them to penetrate and fertilize an egg. In this acrosome of sperm undergoes acrosomal reaction and releases certain sperm lysins which dissolve the egg envelopes locally and make the path for the penetration of sperm.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 98.

How many sex chromosomes are present in human sperm? (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 44 (d) 46 LT Biology 2018 Ans. (b) : • 2 Sex chromosome is present in human sperm. • Humans and most other mammals have two sex chromosomes, the X and the Y. Egg cells contain an X chromosome, while sperm cells contain an X or Y chromosome. All the chromosomes other than the sex chromosomes are autosomes. Sex chromosome is known as allosome.

2.

Types of Eggs and Cleavage

99.

The centrolecithal egg is found in the following (a) Aves (b) Amphibians (c) Insects (d) Echinoderms UPPSC Ashram Paddhati 29/09/2021 Ans. (c) : The centrolecithal egg is found in insects. In this type of egg, the yolk is concentrated near the centre. • Eggs with abundant yolk concentrated in one hemisphere are termed telolecithal e.g., birds, reptiles, fish and monotremes. • Eggs with even distribution of yolk are termed isolecithal. e.g., invertebrates and mammals. 100. Centrolecithal eggs are found in the following : (a) Frog (b) Lancet (c) Insects (d) Sea Urchin UPPCS Pre 2002 UPPCS Pre 2008 Ans. (c) : See the explanation of the above question. 101. Cleavage in frog is : (a) Holoblastic and equal (b) Holoblastic and unequal (c) Meroblastic and superficial (d) Meroblastic and discoidal TGT (2016) 31/07/2021 Ans. (b) : The frog egg contains a large amount of yolk and is telolecithal in nature. The egg is divided into two hemispheres. One is the animal pole and second is the vegetal pole. The nucleus and the yolk is concentrated in the animal pole. In the frog, the cleavage is of holoblastic unequal type because of large amount of yolk present. It acts as a barrier in the division of the cells. So, the correct option is "Holoblastic and unequal". 102. Considering the amount of yolk and its distribution, the eggs of frog are : (a) Microlecithal and centrolecithal (b) Mesolecithal and telolecithal (c) Polylecithal and isolecithal (d) Mesolecithal and isolecithal UP PGT 17/08/2021 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (b) : Considering the amount of yolk and its distribution, the eggs of frog are mesolecithal and telolecithal. See the explanation of above question. 103. Which of the following is not correctly matched? (a) Frog-Telolecithal eggs (b) Insect- Centrolecithal eggs (c) Mammal-Microlecithal eggs (d) Bird-Polylecithal eggs UP PGT 17/08/2021 Ans. (c) : Incorrect match is, Mammal - Microlecithal eggs. Telolecithal eggs → Eggs with abundant yolk concentrated in one hemisphere of the egg. example fish, amphibians, reptiles, birds, and monotremes. Centrolecithal eggs → Eggs in which the yolk is concentrated near the centre of the egg cell. example insects. Microlecithal eggs → Eggs which contain very little yolk. Example – amphioxus. Polylecithal eggs → Eggs which contain large amount of yolk. example – birds. Alecithal eggs → Eggs with no yolk. example – mammals. 104. Yolk sac is not found in : (a) Amphioxus (b) Chicken (c) Birds (d) Mammals GIC 19/09/2021 Ans. (d) : Yolk-sac is not found in mammals. It is a small membranous structure situated outside of the embryo. It attaches ventrally to the developing embryo via the yolk stalk. It plays a critical role in embryo development by providing nutrients, and function as an absorptive epithelium. In contrast to birds and reptiles the yolk-sac of mammals is devoid of yolk. 105. The stage when prospective areas of the surface in the developing embryo takes final position is called : (a) Cleavage (b) Blastula (c) Gastrula (d) Neurula RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) Ans. (c) : The stage when prospective areas of the surface in the developing embryo takes final position is called Gastrula. During gastrulation, cell movement result in a massive reorganization of the embryo from a simple spherical ball of cells (blastula), into a multilayered organism. The primary germ layers (endoderm, mesoderm, and ectoderm) are formed and organized in their proper locations during gastrulation. 106. Polyinvagination islands is the characteristic feature of gastrulation in case of – (a) Sea urchin (b) Amphibians (c) Mannals (d) Birds UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (d) : Poly invagination island is the characteristic feature of gastrulation in case of birds. It is disconnected clusters of cells of the primary hypoblast that are the first to migrate beneath the epiblast of the avian blastoderm. Secondary hypoblast is formed when a sheet of cells from the posterior marginal zone of the blastoderm migrate anteriorly and push the primary hypoblasts. 107. Superficial blastula or peri blastula is found in– (a) Insects (b) Echinoderns (c) Birds (d) Coelenterates UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (a) : Superficial blastula or periblastula is found in insects. The periblastula is a vesicle whose wall consists of one layer of cells and whose cavity is filled with unbroken yolk. It forms as a result of the superficial segmentation of the egg. In insects, egg is centrolecithal which consists of a single layer of epithelial cells surrounding the centrally placed yolk, and there is no blastocoel. 108. Meroblastic cleavage is found in : (a) lancelet (b) frogs (c) birds (d) mammals UPPCS Pre 2008 Ans. (c) : Meroblastic cleavage refers to incomplete type of division of eggs. This type of cleavage is a characteristic of birds, reptiles and some fishes. In meroblastic cleavage. What ultimately happens is that a clump of dividing cells sits a top the undivided yolk. Cleavage occurs only in the blastodisc a small disc of cytoplasm 2-3 mm in diameter at the animal pole of the egg cell. 109. Meroblastic cleavage is found in the following : (a) Lancet (b) Frog (c) Birds (d) Mammals UPPCS Pre 2002 Ans. (c) : Characterized by incomplete cleavage as a result of the presence of an impeding mass of yolk material is called meroblastic cleavage e.g. birds. 110. Which egg bears micropyle ? (a) Centrolecithal - Insect (b) Mesolecithal - Frog (c) Microlecithal - Echinodermata (d) Alecithal - Man RPSC School Lecturer 2011 Ans. (a) : In some animals, such as fish, insects, and cephalopods, the thick egg coat has a narrow canal known as a micropyle-through which spermatozoa enters the egg. 111. 32-cells embryo will be formed by : (a) 6 cleavage and 31 mitosis (b) 5 cleavage and 32 mitosis (c) 4 cleavage and 31 mitosis (d) 5 cleavage and 31 mitosis RPSC School Lecturer 2011 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (d): When the zygote contains 16 to 32 blastomeres it is referred to as a morula. These are the preliminary stages in the embryo. Once this begins, microtubules within the morula's cytosolic material in the blastomere cells can develop into important membrane friction such as sodium pumps.

Cleavage in fertilised egg or zygote 112. "Rate of cleavage α 1/amount of yolk" is a rule(a) Balfour's rule (b) Hertwig's rule (c) Pfluger's law (d) Sac's rule RPSC School Lecturer 2011 Ans. (a) : Balfour's rule–The speed or rate of deavage in any region of egg is inversely proportional to the amount of yolk it contains. Rate of cleavage ∝

1 amount of yolk

113. The division in cleavage is – (a) Meiosis (b) Mitosis without growth phase (c) Mitosis with growth phase (d) Amitosis RPSC School Lecturer 2011 Ans. (b) : After fertilization, the zygote undergoes cleavage, a series of rapid mitotic divisions with no period of growth during each cell cycle. For this reason, although the cell number increases the embryo does not increase in size. 114. Which of the following structure is not found in the ovary of frog? (a) Yolk (b) Corpus callosum (c) Corpus luteum (d) Oocyte LT Biology 2015 Ans. (b) : • Corpus callosum is not found in the ovary of frog. • Corpus callosum is a bundle of nerve fibres in the longitudinal fissure of the brain that enables corresponding regions of the left and right cerebral hemispheres to communicate. • Corpus luteum is a mass of cells that forms in an ovary and is responsible for the production of the hormone progesterone during early pregnancy.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 115. Prostaglandins were first found in (a) blood (b) saliva (c) seminal fluid (d) urine UPPCS Pre 2010 Ans. (c) : Prostaglandins were first found in seminal fluid. It was discovered in human semen in 1935 by the Swedish Physiologist --- Von Euler, who named them, thinking that they were secreted by the prostate gland. Prostaglandins are a group of lipids made at sites of tissue damage or infection that are involved in dealing with injury and illness. They control processes such as inflammation, blood flow, the formation of blood clots and the induction of labour. 116. Graafian follicles are found in the : (a) ovary of mammals (b) ovary of frog (c) ovary of lizard (d) ovary of fish LT Biology 2015 Ans. (a) : Graafian follicles are found in the ovary of mammals. • Graafian follicle is the fluid filled structure that surrounds and protects the developing egg cell in the ovary. It ruptures during ovulation to release an egg. It provides for the maturation and release of a fertilizable oocyte, and also forms the corpus luteum. 117. Discoidal cleavage is characteristic of : (a) Mammals, reptiles and fishes (b) Birds, mammals and reptiles (c) Fishes, birds and mammals (d) Birds, fishes and reptiles UPPCS Pre 2000 Ans. (d) : In discoidal cleavage furrows do not penetrate the yolk. The embryo forms a disc of cells called blastodisc on top of the yolk. It is commonly found in monotremes, birds, reptiles and fish. This type of cleavage is characteristic of eggs containing a large amount of yolk that does not participate in cleavage. 118. Eggs of prototherians are : (a) alecithal (b) microlecithal (c) oligolecithal (d) macrolecithal UPPCS Pre 2010 Ans. (d) : Monotremes or Prototherian are the egg laying mammals and do not give birth to the young one. The type of egg they lay is megalecithal or macrolecithal meaning the egg has large amounts of yolk. They have the megalecithal type of egg because they develop their young one inside the body. 119. Which one of the following foetal membranes does not take part in the formation of placenta in mammals : (a) Chorion (b) Amnion (c) Allantois (d) Yolk sac UPPCS Pre 2000, 2002, 2008 Ans. (b) : Amnion does not take part in the formation of placenta in mammals. In viviparous mammals, placenta is formed from the intimate interaction of the uterus and a series of embryonic membranes induding the chorioallantoic (chorion and allantois) and yolk sac membranes. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

120. Complete holoblastic cleavage occurs in : (a) Alecithal egg (b) Megalecithal egg (c) Telolecithal egg (d) Microlecithal egg Bihar PGT 2019 Ans. (d) : Complete holoblastic cleavage occurs in microlecithal egg. Microlecithal eggs are the eggs which contain very little yolk in it but the amount of cytoplasm is high. These eggs are generally small in size as compared to other types of eggs. The eggs of marsupials, amphioxus and eutherian mammals are of this category of eggs. 121. Vitelline membrane is found in (a) Birds (b) Tunicates (c) Fishes (d) Mammals TGT Biology 2009 Ans. (a) : Vitelline membrane is the transparent casing that encloses the yolk of the egg of the hen and separates it from the albumen, which is the white part of the egg. Vitelline means having a colour yellow that resemble yolk of the egg. Vitelline egg membrane is the extracellular, protein membrane that covers the yolk. Vitelline membrane is made up of glycoproteins. This membrane contains receptors that are required for sperm binding. There is the same type of membrane in mammals also known as zona pellucida. Primary egg membrane develops in the ovary and this membrane covers the egg membrane. This primary membrane is known as vitelline membrane in insects, birds, molluscs, amphibians.

122. Mass of cells formed after cleavage is known is: (a) Blastula (b) Morula (c) Gastrula (d) None of the above PGT Biology 2013 Ans. (b) : • Mass of cells formed after cleavage is known as morula. • Cleavage produces a solid ball of small blastomeres and the embryo now looks like a mulberry, known as morula. → Morula is a 16-celled solid spherical ball-like structure. It is formed after 3-4 days of fertilization. Morula further divides to form blastula. 123. Egg of eutherian mammals is : (a) Centrolecithal (b) Telolecithal (c) Macrolecithal (d) Microlecithal GIC Biology 14.06.2015

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (b) : Cleavage is a unique form of mitotic cell Ans. (d) : • Egg of eutherian mammals is microlecithal. division in which only cells divide but there is no growth • Centrolecithal eggs are found in insects. of cells. It is a series of rapid mitotic divisions of the • Telolecithal eggs are found in fish, reptiles, etc. zygote which convert the single celled zygote into multicellular structure in which no growth occurs in cells. • Macrolecithal eggs are found in birds. 128. Cleavage is a unique form of mitotic cell division 124. Given : in which. 1. Isolecithal 2. Holoblastic (a) the nucleus does not participate 3. Discoidal meroblastic 4. Telolecithal (b) There is no growth of cells in the beginning 5. Superficial meroblastic (c) no spindle develops to guide the chromosomes Which two of the above features characterize (d) the plasma membrane of the daughter cells did avian eggs : not separate. (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 UPPCS Pre 1999 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 4 and 5 Ans. (b) : See the explanation of the above question. UPPCS Pre 2003 129. Nitrogenous and metabolic wastes in the embryo Ans. (c) : Meroblastic cleavage is a cleavage in which a are stored in which of the following : disc of cell is produced at the animal pole of the zygote. (a) Amniotic bag (b) Yolk sac (c) Allantois (d) Exocoel UPPCS Pre 2002 Ans. (c) : Nitrogenous and metabolic wastes in the embryo are stored in allantois. It is a sac-like structure mainly involved in nutrition and excretion and is Telolecithal is the uneven distribution of yolk in the surrounded by blood vessels. The allantois function is cytoplasm of ovum. to collect liquid waste from the embryo and exchange Avian cleavage is discoidal meroblastic and eggs are the gas used by the embryo. telolecithal, both the characters found in aves. 130. All the axis of a frog egg are defined prior to 125. Which of the following lays cleidoic eggs : cleavage. The first cleavage always bisects the gray crescent which forms opposite the site of : (a) insects (a) point of sperm entry (b) birds (b) blastopore (c) oviparous mammals and birds (c) yolk plug (d) all of the above (d) opening into the neural tube UPPCS Pre 2001 UPPCS Pre 1999 Ans. (b) : • Birds lay cleidoic eggs. Ans. (c) : First cleavage of frog is meridional passing • Cleidoic eggs contain a solid and hard outermost through median longitudinal axis, holoblastic and equal. shell. The shell is porous to air, and may be flexible or It always bisect the gray crescent which forms opposite hard. It enables reproduction out of, and often away side of yolk plug. The second plane of cleavage is also from water. meridional and is at right angle to the first. • Non-cleidoic eggs are not protected by a hard shell. It 131. The eggs of ovoviviparous species are : is seen in all oviparous animals which lay eggs in water. (a) microlecithal (b) macrolecithal 126. Which one of the following lays cleidoic eggs? (c) telolecithal (d) alecithal (a) Hen (b) Fish UPPCS Pre 2005 (c) Toad (d) Frog UPPCS Pre 1994, 2002, 2004, 2006 Ans. (a) : The eggs of ovoviviparous species are microlecithal. Ans. (a) : Cleidoic egg found in birds only like Hen. • Microlecithal eggs contain very little yolk in it and It contains a protective membrane. This membrane the eggs are generally small in size. does not allow water comes out but O2 and CO2 are • Alecithal egg has a negligible amount of yolk or no diffused through it. Fish mesolecithal egg contain yolk and it is found in mammals. medium amount yolk. Toad, frog contain • Telolecithal eggs are found in fish, reptiles, etc. microlecithal egg. 127. Cleavage is a unique form of mitotic cell division • Macrolecithal eggs are found in birds. in which : 132. Hensen's node is formed during the gastrulation of: (a) No spindle develops to guide the cells (a) Amphibious (b) Birds (b) there is no growth of cells (c) Amphibious and Reptiles (c) the nucleus does not participate (d) Reptiles, Birds and Mammals (d) the plasma membrane of daughter cells do not separate UPPCS Pre 1994 UPPCS Pre 2002 TGT Biology 2013 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (b) : • Hensen's node is formed during the gastrulation of birds. • A node, or primitive knot, is an enlarged group of cells located in the anterior portion of the primitive streak in a developing gastrula. In birds, it is known as "Hensen's node", and is named after its discoverer Victor Hensen.

133. Superficial cleavage is the characteristic of : (a) Isolecithal eggs (b) Mesolecithal eggs (c) Macrolecithal eggs (d) Centrolecithal eggs PGT Biology 2004 TGT Biology 2013 Ans. (d) : • Superficial cleavage is the characteristic of centrolecithal eggs. • Superficial cleavage is characterised by Karyokinesis which leads to the formation of multiple nuclei but lacks cytokinesis. It is a meroblastic cleavage in which a layer of cells is produced about a central mass of yolk. • Centrolecithal eggs contain nucleus at the centre of the yolk and have a great amount of yolk.

134. Hormone secreting structure produced after ovulation is : (a) Corpus albicans (b) Corpus spongiosum (c) Corpus callosum (d) Corpus luteum TGT Biology 2013 Ans. (d) : Rapid secretion of LH hormone leading to its maximum level during the mid-cycle called LH surge induces rupture follicle (Graffian) and there by the release of ovum (ovulation). The ovulation (ovulation phase) is followed by the luteal phase during which the remaing part of graafian follicle transforms as the corpus luteum. The corpus luteum secretes large amount of progesterone which is essential for maintenance of endometrium. 135. Which pair is correct ? (a) Microlecithal eggs – Dipnoi (b) Homolecithal eggs – Amphibia (c) Mesolecithal eggs – Bird (d) Centrolecithal eggs – Insect TGT Biology 2009 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (d) : • Centrolecithal eggs - Insect; pair is correct. • Microlecithal eggs are found in marsupials, amphioxus and eutherian mammals. • Homolecithal eggs are also known as isolecithal eggs, and are found in molluscs, echinoderms etc. • Mesolecithal eggs are found in amphibians. 136. The innermost layer of egg albumen in birds is called: (a) inner thin albumen (b) vitelline membrane (c) dense albumen (d) chalaziferous layer TGT Biology 2009 Ans. (d) : • The innermost layer of egg albumen in birds is called chalaziferous layer. • Egg albumen is the white part of the egg and is divided into four major layers, chalaziferous layer, inner thin layer middle thick layer and outer thin layer. The chalaziferous layer is directly attached to the yolk and consists of about 2.7% of the total egg albumen. 137. Which of the following foetal membranes functions embryonic urinary bladder : (a) Allantois (b) Yolk sac (c) Amnion (d) Chorion UPPCS Pre 1994 Ans. (a) : The allantois (plural allantoides or allantoises) is a hollow sac-like structure. The function of the allantois is to collect liquid waste from the embryo. The allantois becomes the urachus which connects the foetal bladder to the yolk sac. Yolk sac – Nutrition Amnion– protection 138. In bony fish, reptiles and birds the cleavage is (a) Meroblastic superficial (b) Holoblastic unequal (c) Meroblastic discoidal (d) Holoblastic radial UP PGT 2016 Ans. (c) The telolecithal eggs of reptiles, bonyfish and birds have very large amounts of yolk at the vegetal pole and only a small amount of cytoplasm concentrated at the animal pole. The yolk of such eggs never cleaves. Cell division is restricted to the blastodisc, the small (Parietal) disc of cytoplasm at the animal pole. This type of cleavage is termed meroblastic cleavage. In birds and some reptiles, the blastomeres form two layers separated by the blastocoel cavity an upper epiblast and a lower, thin layer of flat cells of the hypoblast. There are two types of meroblastic cleavage-discoidal and superficial. Discoidal usually occurs in birds, reptiles, fishes etc, Which have telolecithal eggs and superficial cleavage occurs in insects which have centrolecithal eggs. 139. Which one of the following extra-embryonic membranes in reptiles and birds acts both as embryonic "lung" and urinary bladder: (a) Chorion (b) Amnion (c) Allantois (d) Yolk sac UPPCS Pre 2000

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (c) : In reptiles and birds, allantois acts both, as embryonic lung and urinary bladder. It arise as a pouch or sac, from the hindgut. In reptiles and birds it expands greatly between two other membranes, the amnion and chorion, to serve as a temporary respiratory organ while its cavity stores fetal excretions. 140. The central nervous system develops as a result of : (a) Metamorphosis (b) Gastrulation (c) Neurulation (d) Invagination TGT Biology 2005 Ans. (c) : • The central nervous system develops as a result of neurulation. • Neurulation is the process of developing the neural tube leading to the development of the brain and spinal cord. • Gastrulation is the process of developing the germ layers including ectoderm, endoderm, and mesoderm. • Metamorphosis is the process of an insect or amphibian maturing into adult form. • Invagination is the morphogenetic process by which an embryo takes form. 141. Eggs of birds are designated as : (a) alecithal (b) telolecithal (c) centrolecithal (d) mesolecithal TGT Biology 2004

Ans. (*) : Answer not in option. • A cell without mitochondria is red blood cell (RBC). • Mitochondria found in middle piece of sperm to provide motile activity. • Mitochondrial cloud found in ovum cell. • Hepatic cell found in liver and mitochandria also present. 145. The embryo with blastopore is called(a) Morula (b) Blastula (c) Gastrula (d) Tadpole Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (c) : • The embryo with blastopore is called gastrula. It is the opening by which the cavity of the gastrula communicates with the exterior. Gastrula is developed by the invagination of endodermal cells into ectodermal cells. The gastruala contains archenteron cavity, which opens through blastopore. • Blastula is the stage before gastruala.

Ans. (b) : → Eggs of birds are designated as telolecithal. → In telolecithal eggs there is uneven distribution of yolk in the cytoplasm. The yolk is concentrated at one pole of the egg. It is also known as macrolecithal. It is found in birds, reptiles, fishes, etc. 142. Microlecithal eggs with small amount of food reserve are found in : (a) Frog (b) Insects (c) Man (d) Fish TGT Biology 2003

146. Which egg bears micropyle? (a) Centrolecithal- Insect (b) Mesolecithal- Frog (c) Microlecithal- Echinodermata (d) Alecithal- Man Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (a) • Centrolecithal- Insect egg bears micropyle. • Micropyles are small openings that allow male gametes to enter and fertilize the ovum in insects. • Micropyle is used for the various functions and processes of the egg. It is located at top of egg. Ans. (c) : • Microlecithal eggs with small amount of • Insects eggs are microlecithal and centrolecithal. food reserve are found in man. 147. The division in cleavage isIn microlecithal eggs, the amount of yolk is much less than the amount of cytoplasm. The eggs are very small (a) Meiosis in size. (b) Mitosis without growth phase • Eggs of frog and fish are telolecithal. (c) Mitosis with growth phase • Eggs of insects are centrolecithal. (d) Amitosis Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2011 143. Egg of eutherian mammals is : (a) centrolecithal (b) telolecithal Ans. (b) : • The division in cleavage is mitosis without growth phase. (c) macrolecithal (d) microlecithal PGT Biology 2013 • Cleavage is the division of cells in the early embryo. The zygotes of many species undergoes rapid cell Ans. (d) : See the explanation of the above question. cycles with no significant overall growth, producing a 144. A cell without mitochondria is : cluster of cells of same size as the original zygote. (a) Choanocyte (b) Sperm • Cleavage differs from other forms of cell division in that it increases the number of cells and nuclear mass (c) Egg (d) Hepatic cell PGT Biology 2010 without increasing the cytoplasmic mass. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 148. Eggs having yolk in their center and cytoplasm in the peripheral layer are called : (a) Isolecithal (b) Microlecithal (c) Centrolecithal (d) Telolecithal Navoday Vidyalay PGT Biology 2014 Ans: (c) • Eggs having yolk in their center and cytoplasm in the peripheral layer are called centrolecithal. • Eggs having very small amount of yolk (Microlecithal) and it is scattered almost uniformly throughout the cytoplasm are called Isolecithal or Homolecithal. • Egg having uneven distribution of yolk are called Telolecithal. 149. Which one of the following extra embryonic membranes prevents the embryo from drying? (a) Yolk Sac (b) Allantois (c) Amnion (d) Chorion GIC Biology 15.09.2015 Ans. (c) : • Amnion is the extraembryonic membrane that prevents the embryo from drying. • Amnion surrounds the embryo creating the amniotic cavity that is filled with amniotic fluid. The amniotic fluid regulates foetal body temperature, serves as a shock absorber for the foetus, and prevents desiccation (drying). The amniotic sac and the fluid contains sometimes referred to as the bag of waters. 150. As compared with the sperm, the egg contains more: (a) Chromosome (b) Cytoplasm (c) Mitochondria (d) Centrioles Delhi SSB PGT Biology 2015 Ans. (b) : • As compared with the sperm, the egg contains more cytoplasm. • The sperm is small and motile, whereas egg is large and immotile. The female gamete contributes both the genetic material as well as cytoplasm during zygote formation as compared to this the male gamete does not contribute cytoplasm but provides only half the genetic complement.

3.

Embryonic Development of Amphioxus, Frog and Chick

151. Process of gastrulation in frog is more complicated than in Amphioxus due to presence of : (a) Passive micromere (b) Passive macromere (c) Passive mesomere (d) Passive epimere TGT (2016) 31/07/2021 Ans. (b) : The process of gastrulation in frog is more complicated than in Amphioxus because of the presence of passive macromere in frog. The frog embryo is divided into four small animal blastomeres (micromeres) and four large blastomeres (macromeres) in the vegetal region. Region of micromere is rapidly dividing and macromere is slowly dividing. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

152. In which of the following amphibians the fertilized eggs develop in the stomach of the female and little frogs come out of its mouth? (a) Salamandra (b) Rheobatrachus (c) Ichthyophis♀ (d) Alytes UP PGT 17/08/2021 Ans. (b) : In Rheobatrachus, the fertilized egg develop in the stomach of the female and little frogs come out of its mouth. Rheobatrachus is a genus of extinct ground dwelling frogs, also known as gastric-brooding frogs or platypus frogs. Each female gastric brooding frog contributes yolk to her eggs, and then after they are fertilized, she swallows them and carries them in her stomach for 6 to 7 weeks. During this time, her digestive system shuts down and she cannot eat. Once the young are fully developed and expelled from her mouth, she has no further contact with them. 153. Nitrogenous and metabolic wastes are stored in the : (a) Amniotic bag (b) Allantois (c) Yolk sac (d) Exocoel UP PGT 17/08/2021 Ans. (b) : Nitrogenous and metabolic wastes are stored in the allantois. The allantois is a hollow sac-like structure filled with clear fluid that forms part of a developing amniote's conceptus. It stores nitrogenous wastes produced by the embryo and also facilitates respiration. In vertebrates like reptiles and aves, allantois act as an extracellular kidney. 154. Cleavage in Amphioxus is : (a) Holoblastic and equal (b) Holoblastic and unequal (c) Meroblastic and superficial (d) Meroblastic and discoidal UP PGT 17/08/2021 Ans. (a) : Cleavage in Amphioxus is holoblastic and equal. Equal holoblastic cleavage → In microlecithal and isolecithal eggs, cleavage leads to the formation of blastomeres of equal size. Unequal holoblastic cleavage → In mesolecithal and telolecithal eggs, cleavage leads to the formation of blastomeres of unequal size. Meroblastic superficial cleavage → In centrolecithal eggs, the cleavage is restricted to the peripheral cytoplasm of the egg. → Meroblastic discoidal cleavage → In macrolecithal eggs, the cleavage is restricted to the disc-like animal pole region. 155. On the basis of the amount of yolk and its distribution, the eggs of frog are (a) Microlecithal and centrolecithal (b) Polylecithal and isolecithal (c) Mesolecithal and telolecithal (d) Mesolecithal and isolecithal TGT 07/08/2021

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (c) : Eggs are classified on the basis of quantity of yolk into, micro, meso and macrolecithal eggs. On the other hand, on the basis of distribution of yolk in cytoplasm, eggs may be homo, meso or centrolecithal. Mesolecithal eggs have moderate amount of yolk and telolecithal eggs have yolk concentrated in one half e.g., frog eggs. 156. Frog's egg is – (a) Centrolecithal and macrolecithal (b) Isolecithal and mesolecithal (c) Alecithal and mesolecithal (d) Telolecithal and mesolecithal UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (d) : Frog's egg is telolecithal and mesolecithal. ⇒ Telolecithal - Eggs with yolk towards the vegetal pole. ⇒ Mesolecithal - Egg with moderate amount of yolk. ⇒ Centrolecithal - Eggs with yolk towards the centre. ⇒ Macrolecithal - Eggs with large amount of yolk. ⇒ Isolecithal - Eggs with uniformly distributed yolk. ⇒ Alecithal - Eggs that contain no yolk. 157. The egg of frog is : (a) Alecithal (b) Polylecithal (c) Microlecithal (d) Telolecithal PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (d) : See the explanation of the above question. 158. The incubation period in chick lasts for about how many days? (a) 11 (b) 21 (c) 24 (d) 31 TGT 07/08/2021 Ans. (b) : The incubation period in chick lasts for about 20 to 21 days. Various things will influence hatch times- the age of the eggs, the health of the mother hen, fluctuations in the incubator temperature. Sometime chicks hatch a little before 21 days, sometimes it can be several days after. 159. The body of the Tadpole larva shows distinct : (a) Head (b) Trunk (c) Tail (d) All of the above TGT 07/08/2021 Ans. (d) : Tadpole, also called polliwog is the aquatic larval stage of frogs and toads. Tadpoles have broad tails, small mouth, and no external gills. The internal gills are concealed by a covering known as an operculum. Most tadpoles are vegetarians, although those of a few species are carnivorous or even cannibalistic. Tadpole metamorphosis follows a pattern of gradual development of forelimbs and hind limbs, resorption of the tail, shortening of the intestine, disappearance of the gills, and development of lungs. Upon completion of metamorphosis, the tadpole emerges onto land as a young froglet or toad let.

TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

160. During development of appears in(a) Early Blastula stage (b) Late Blastula stage (c) Gastrula stage (d) Early organogenesis

frog,

blastopore

GIC 19/09/2021 Ans. (c) : During development of frog, blastopore appears in Gastrula stage. Gastrulation in the frog begins at a point on the embryo surface roughly 180 degrees opposite the point of sperm entry with the formation of blastopore. Cells migrate through the blastopore and toward the animal pole. These cell become the dorsal mesoderm. The blastopore is responsible for organizing and defining the germ layers. In frog development, the moth is derived from the secondary opening, and the blastopore usually forms the anus. 161. The functional kidney of frog tadpole is : (a) Archinephros (b) Pronephros (c) Mesonephros (d) Metanephros RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) Ans. (b) : The functional kidney of frog tadpole is pronephros. The pronephric kidney is the most primitive type of kidney. It opens into the body cavity and its functional unit is ciliated funnel or nephrostomes. ⇒The Archinephros is a primitive kidney that has been retained by the larvae of hagfish and some caecilians. It is ancestral vertebrate kidney.

⇒The mesonephros is one of the three excretory organs that develop in vertebrates and serves as the main excretory organ of aquatic vertebrates.

⇒Metanephros corresponds to the mature and functional kidney is higher vertebrates. 162. The extraembryonic membrane which develops between serosa and amnion on third day of incubation in chick embryo is called : (a) Chorion (b) Yolk sac (c) Allantois (d) Umbilical chord RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) Ans. (c) : The extraembryonic membrane which develops between serosa and amnion on third day of incubation in chick embryo is called allantois. The embryo of chick possesses four extraembryonic or foetal membranes. These are the yolk sac, the allantiois, the amnion, and the serosa or chorion. Allantois develops from the ventral part of caudal end of the hindgut. Allantois is richly vascularise, works as respiratory organ, and stores nitrogenous waste material of the embryo. 163. During the development of hen's egg, which extra embryonic membrane provides nutrition to the developing embryo? (a) Amnion (b) Chorion (c) Yolk sac (d) Allantois UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (c) : During the development of hen's egg, yolksac provides nutrition to the developing embryo. Extraembryonic membranes are present outside the embryo's body and enables the embryo to use all parts of the egg for growth and development. These membranes are, yolk-sac, amnion, chorion, and allantois. The yolk-sac consists of the yolk, which supplies nutrients, and the yolk-sac tissue, which surrounds the yolk and provides essential metabolic functions for the developing embryo. 164. In chick the embryonic respiratory organ is: (a) Amnion (b) Allantois (c) Chorion (d) Yolk sac Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2015 RPSC School Lecturer (23/07/2016) Ans. (b) : In chick the embryonic respiratory organ in Allantois. The allantois serves as a respiratory organ and as a reservoir for the excreta. These temporary organs function within the egg until the time of hatching and from no part of the fully developed chick. 165. In the zygote of frog first cleavage is: (a) Meroblastic (b) Horizontal (c) Holoblastic equal (d) Holoblastic unequal RPSC School Lecturer (23/07/2016) Ans. (c) : In the zygote of frog first cleavage is holoblastic equal. In holoblastic eggs, the first cleavage always occurs along the vegetal-animal axis of the egg, the second cleavage is perpendicular to the first. 166. Which type of blastula is found in chick : (a) Stereoblastula (b) Discoblastula (c) Amphiblastula (d) Bliblastula UPPCS Pre 1998 Ans. (b) : A blastula is made up of the cells called blastomeres. Disc–shaped blastula is formed by meroblastic discoidal cleavage called discoblastula, found in fishes, reptiles, birds and egg laying mammals. It is called discoblastula because it appears at the animal pole as a small multilayered flat disc separated from the yolk by a narrow segmentation or subgerminal cavity. 167. Which of the following functions as a channel for the utilization of the egg albumen in chick embryo? (a) Allantoic cavity (b) Amniotic cavity (c) Seroamniotic cavity (d) None of the above GIC Biology 15.09.2015 Ans. (a) : • Allantoic cavity functions as a channel for the utilization of the egg albumen in chick embryo. • This cavity is crucial for chick development in that it is responsible for transport of calcium from the eggshell into the embryo. It is also involved in gas exchange, acid-base balance, water and electrolyte reabsorption. 168. In the embryology of chick, the mesoderm develops from (a) the upper layer of blastoderm (b) the lower layer of blastoderm (c) both the upper and lower layer of blastoderm (d) after the formation of the primitive streak UPPCS Pre 1994 PGT Biology 2009 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (d) : • In the embryology of chick, the mesoderm develops after the formation of primitive streak. • The primitive streak is a structure that form in the blastula during the early stages of avian, reptilian and mammalian embryonic development. Its presence will establish bilateral symmetry, determine the site of gastrulation and initiate germ layer formation. 169. Which of the foetal membranes of chick develops as a somatopleure? (a) Allantois (b) Amnion (c) Yolk sac (d) None of the above UPPCS Pre 2010 Ans. (b) : • Foetal membrane of chick which develops as a somatopleure is amnion. • The somatopleure is the amniotic primordium in amniote development. It is a layer of tissue in a vertebrate embryo comprising the ectoderm and the outer layer of mesoderm, and giving rise to the amnion, chorion, and part of the body wall. 170. Which one of the following is not totipotent in case of frog : (a) Zygote (b) Each cell of 2-cell stage (c) Each cell of blastula (d) Fertilized egg UPPCS Pre 2003 Ans. (c) : Totipotent cell formed during sexual and asexual reporoduction include spores, fertilized egg and zygote. One cell zygotes and blastomeres of two cells embryoes are totipotent. The cells of the blastula are pluripotent. The ICM cells in blastocyst are pluripotent. In case of frog blastula cells are pluripotent not totipotent. 171. During the development of frog's embryo, blastopore appears at the stage of : (a) Early blastula (b) Late blastula (c) Early gastrula (d) Late gastrula UPPCS Pre 1996 Ans. (b) : During the development of frog's embryo the zygote undergoes mitotic division, a process that does not result in any significant growth but creates a multicellular cluster called blastula. This process is referred to as cleavage. The blastula then develops a pore or a hole at one end called a blastopore. 172. Blastopore gives rise to : (a) Mouth (b) Kidney (c) Excretory pore (d) Reproductive pore TGT Biology 1999 Ans. (a) : Blastopore gives rise to mouth. Archenteron is the tube formed during gastrulation by means of invagination of the blastula wall inside the blastocoel. It is the origin of the gastrointestinal tract. Blastopore is the opening of the archenteron to the exterior. Blastopore give birth to one of the extremities of the digestive tube, the mouth of the protostome and anus in deuterostome.

377

YCT

Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 173. Gastrula in frog is formed by : (a) invagination (b) emboly (c) epiboly (d) all the above three UPPCS Pre 1995 Ans. (d) : Gastrula in frog is formed by invagination, emboly and epiboly. * Invagination is the infolding of a layer of cells to form a cavity encircled by infolded cells. In the frog, the wall of the blastoderm is pushed inside the blastocoel. This creates a new cavity called the archenteron which communicates with the exterior by a blastopore. * Epiboly involves the extension along the anteroposterior axis and peripheral divergence. * Emboly is the inward movement of cells. 174. During the Embryonic development of chick, the foetal membrane that appears first is : (a) Yolk sac (b) Allantois (c) Amnion(d) None of the above UPPCS Pre 1996 PGT Biology 2002 Ans. (a) • During the embryonic development of chick, the foetal membrane that appears first is yolk sac. • Yolk sac is the most primitive structure containing network of blood vessels and encloses the yolk of the egg. It is one of several temporary embryonic organs which cease their functions once the chick has hatched. It grows rapidly from the body folds during the second and third day of incubation to envelop most of the yolk by sixth day. 175. Which one of the following foetal membrane appears first during the development of chick : (a) Amnion (b) Yolk sac (c) Chorion (d) Allantois UPPCS Pre 1995 Ans. (b) : See the explanation of the above question. 176. Primitive Streak in chick is completed in : (a) 10 hrs (b) 16-18s hrs (c) 24 hrs (d) 72 hrs PGT Biology 2002 UPPCS Pre 2005 UPPCS Pre 2006 Ans. (b) : • Primitive streak in chick is completed in 16-18 hrs. • 16 hrs after incubation the primitive streak becomes so distinct that embryos are characterized as being in primitive streak stage. • The primitive streak is a structure that forms in the blastula during the early stage of embryonic development. 177. Primitive streak in development of chick embryo is formed after incubation of (a) 18 hours (b) 16 hours (c) 20 hours (d) 22 hours UP PGT 2016 Ans. (b) See the explanation of the above question. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

178. The primitive streak becomes prominent in hen's egg incubated for: (a) 12 hours (b) 14 hours (c) 16 hours (d) 18 hours PGT Biology 2004 Ans. (c) : The primitive streak becomes prominent in hen's egg incubated for 16 hours. * 16 hours after incubation the primitive streak becomes so distinct that embryos are characterized as being in primitive streak stage.

Chick embryo, 16 hours of incubation 179.

In the zygote of frog first cleavage is : (a) Meroblastic (b) Horizontal (c) Holoblastic equal (d) Holoblastic unequal Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2015

Ans. (d) : • In the zygote of frog first cleavage is holoblastic unequal. • In the frog, the cleavage is of holoblastic unequal type because of a large amount of yolk is present. • Holoblastic unequal cleavage produces blastomeres of unequal size. Blastomeres are smaller in animal pole while larger in vegetal pole. 180. In frog fertilization membrane is formed : (a) before fertilization (b) after fertilization (c) before oviposition (d) after oviposition PGT Biology 2009 Ans. (b) : • In frog fertilization membrane is formed after fertilization. • Fertilization membrane is a resistant membranous layer in eggs of many animals. In frogs, a very thin vitelline membrane forms around the eggs in the ovary. Subsequently a layer of jelly is deposited around the eggs while they pass through the oviducts. 181. How many pairs of somites are ultimately formed during development of chick? (a) 22 (b) 32 (c) 42 (d) 52 PGT Biology 2005

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (b) : In frog, the rolling of chorda mesoderm Ans. (d) : • 52 pairs of somites are ultimately formed cells from the surface of blastula into the interior is during development of chick. called involution. It is a type of cell movement during • In the chick embryo, a pair of somite forms every 90 gastrulation which involves the inturning or inward minutes at 370C and a total of 52 somites pairs are movement of an expanding outer layer so that it formed during the somitogenesis process which lasts spreads over the internal surface of the remaining from day 1 to day 5 of development. external cells. 182. How many somites are there in a 33-hour old chick embryo? (a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 12 (d) 13 PGT Biology 2004, TGT Biology 2013 Ans. (a) : In 33 hours chick embryo is• Primitive streak restricted to the posterior end. • Head bent ventrally. • Neural folds fused in the brain region except for the neuropore. • Somites are 10 pairs. • Foregut elongated. • Heart rudiment tubular and bent to the right. 183. An embryo of chick with 4 pairs of somites is : 186. The rolling of chorda mesoderm cells from the upper surface of blastula into the interior is (a) 20 hours old (b) 22 hours old called : (c) 24 hours old (d) 18 hours old (a) Invagination (b) Involution TGT Biology 2009 (c) Delamination (d) Epiboly Ans. (c) : • An embryo of chick with 4 pairs of somites UPPCS Pre 1999 is 24 hours old. Ans. (b) : See the explanation of the above question. • In the chick embryo, a pair of somite forms every 90 minutes at 370C and a total of 52 somites pairs are 187. In which phase of oogenesis of frog mitochondrial cloud is found : formed during the somitogenesis process which lasts (a) Multiplication phase from day 1 to day 5 of development. (b) Growth phase • Somites are epithelial blocks of paraxial mesoderm that define the vertebrate embryonic segments. (c) First maturation division phase (d) Second Maturation division phase 184. In chick embryo four pairs of somites are formed after: UPPCS Pre 1994 (a) 12 hrs of incubation Ans. (d) : Mitochondrial cloud is found in the second (b) 15 hrs of incubation maturation division phase of oogenesis of frog. It is a prominent mass in the cytoplasm of previtellogenic (c) 18 hrs of incubation oocytes. The cloud contains both mitochondria are (d) 24 hrs of incubation electron-dense granulofibrillar material (GFM) and is PGT Biology 2013 the source of germinal granule material. Ans. (d) : • In chick embryo four pairs of somites are formed after 24 hours of incubation. • First pair of somites is formed at about 20 hours of incubation a little in front of primitive knot, that is, in neck region. • 3 or 4 pairs of somites have been formed by the end of first day (24hrs) and about 52 pairs are ultimately formed of which the last 10 pairs later degenerate.

188. In the embryonic development of frog, the blastopore forms the future. (a) Mouth (b) Anus (c) Nares (d) Tympanum UP LT 2018

185. In frog, the rolling of chorda mesoderm cells from the surface of the blastula into the interior is called. (a) Immigration (b) Involution (c) Delamination (d) Epiboly UPPCS Pre 2007 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

379

Ans. (b) : • In the embryonic development of frog, the blastopore forms the future anus. • Blastopore is the opening by which the cavity of the gastrula, communicates with the exterior. During maturation of some animals it evolves into the anus or the mouth. • In protostome, the blastopore forms the mouth. • In deuterostome, the blastopore form the anus, as in frog. YCT

Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 189. All flightless birds belong to super order (a) Odontognathae (b) Impennae (c) Ratitae (d) None of these UP PGT 2016 Ans. (c) All flightless birds belong to super order Ratitae. Ratitae or Palaeognathae is a diverse group of large, flightless birds. These are birds which cannot fly and rely on their ability to run or swim, and have evolved from their flying ancestors. The best known species are ostrich, emu, rhea, cassowary, kiwi and penguin. 190. Nucleated RBCs occur in : (a) Rabbit (b) Rat (c) Man (d) Frog Bihar PGT 2019 Ans. (d) : • Nucleated RBCs occur in frog. • In frog, RBCs are typically flattened and more or less elliptical in shape. Nucleus is round and present in centre. • Only mammals have anucleated RBCs, and some mammals like camels have nucleated RBCs. 191. Blastema formation is a part of : (a) degeneration (b) regeneration (c) osmoregulation (d) none of these Bihar PGT 2019 Ans. (b) Blastema formation is a part of Regeneration. Blastema is a bunch of cells that have the ability to grow and regenerate. It is also known as the regeneration bud. They are typically found in early stages of an organism's development such as in embryos, and in the regeneration of tissues, organs and bone. 192. The oocytes of Branchiostoma are said to be : (a) Oligolecithal (b) Cleidoic (c) Megalecithal (d) Hypolecithal UPPCS Pre 1994 Ans. (a) : The oocytes of branchiostoma are said to be oligolecithal or microlecithal. Primordial germ cells and oocytes of Branchiostoma (Amphioxus) are flagellated epithelial cells. Oligolecithal eggs are those eggs in which very small amount of evenly distributed yolk is present. 193. Holoblastic cleavage is not found in : (a) Amphioxus (b) Frog (c) Chick (d) Chick and Amphioxus UPPCS Pre 1994 Ans. (c) : Holoblastic cleavage is not found in chick. The egg of the chick shows a meroblastic part and not in the part where the yolk is present. * The egg of Amphioxus and Frog shows the Holoblastic type of cleavage where the cleavage furrow runs through the entire length of the egg. 194. At the beginning of the cleavage in frog the ratio of nucleus to the cytoplasm of the blastomeres is: (a) very high (b) very low (c) as much as in the somatic cells (d) slightly higher than in the somatic cells UPPCS Pre 1998 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (d) : Cleavage is a term used for the early cell divisions of the zygote upto the completion of blastula stage. Ratio of nucleus to cytoplasm is slightly higher than in somatic cells because micromere divided rapidly and megamere divides slowly. 195. In the beginning of cleavage, the ratio of nucleus to the cytoplasm of blastomeres is : (a) very high (b) very low (c) as much in a somatic cells (d) slightly higher than in somatic cells UPPCS Pre 1999 Ans. (d) : See the explanation in above question. 196. In chick, of the foetal membranes which develops as a somatopleure? (a) Allantois and yolk sac (b) Allantois (c) Yolk sac (d) Amnion UPPCS Pre 2009 Ans. (d) : In chick, the foetal membrane which develops as a somatopleure is amnion. The amnion and chorion are developed simultaneously and both are derived from the extra-embryonic somatopleure. The somatopleure is composed of the ectoderm and somatic mesoderm along with the formation of the coelomic cavity after gastrulation. 197. The technique of Amniocentesis used for the analysis of : (a) body fluids of amniotes (b) amnion (c) amino acids (d) amniotic fluid UPPCS Pre 2005 Ans. (d) : • The technique of amniocentesis is used for the analysis of amniotic fluid. • Amniocentesis is a procedure in which amniotic fluid is removed from the uterus for testing or treatment. Amniotic fluid surrounds and protects the baby during pregnancy and contains fetal cells and various proteins. • Amniocentesis is used primarily in prenatal diagnosis of chromosomal abnormalities and fetal infections as well as for sex determination. 198. Through amniocentesis foetal cells can be cultured and tested for detecting various diseases of foetus by : (a) Karyotype (b) Enzyme production (c) DNA analysis (d) All of these TGT Biology 2003 Ans. (d) : • Through amniocentesis, foetal cells can be cultured and tested for detecting various diseases of foetus by karyotype, enzyme production and DNA analysis. 199. In chick embryo the central nervous system appears after the following period of incubation: (a) 48hrs (b) 36 hrs (c) 24 hrs (d) 16 hrs UPPCS Pre 1996

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (b) : In chick embryo, the central nervous system appears after 36 hrs. Development of the central nervous system (CNS) is the chick embryo begins on the second day of incubation and matures before hatching on day 21. 200. The formation of central nervous system becomes visible in chick embryo after incubation for : (a) 16 hours (b) 36 hours (c) 24 hours (d) 48 hours UPPCS Pre 1995 Ans. (b) : See the explanation of the above question. 201. Morphogenesis starts with : (a) Morulation (b) Blastulation (c) Gastrulation (d) Neurulation TGT Biology 2005 Ans. (c) : • Morphogenesis starts with gastrulation. • Gastrulation is a morphogenetic process that results in the formation of mesoderm and the generation of a three germlayered embryo composed of ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm. • Morphogenesis is the biological process that causes a cell, tissue or organism to develop its shape. 202. Emboly occurs is Amphioxus development during: (a) Cleavage (b) Blastulation (c) Gastrulation (d) Organogenesis PGT Biology 2009 Ans. (c) : • Emboly occurs in amphioxus development during gastrulation. • In Amphioxus, gastrulation is started when there are about 800 cells in the embryo. The embolic morphogenetic prospective endodermal and mesodermal blastomeres from the external surface of blastula. 203. Formation of primitive streak in the chick embryo is the first sign of : (a) blastulation (b) gastrulation (c) notogenesis (d) neurulation UPPCS Pre 1999 UPPCS Pre 2003 UPPCS Pre 2005, 2008 Ans. (b) : • Formation of primitive streak in chick embryo is the first sign of gastrulation. • Gastrulation starts when cells that will form the future mesendoderm move into the midline of the embryo to form the primitive streak. It is visible as a darker area formed by local stacking of epiblast cells on top of each other. 204. The number of spermatozoa produced from a single primary spermatocyte in frog is : (a) one (b) four (c) two (d) eight UPPCS Pre 1998 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (b) : Meiosis cell division occur only in reproductive cell. Single primary spermatocyte divided into two secondary spermatocyte and two secondary spermatocyte divided into four spermatids and each spermatid produce single spermatozoa i.e. four spermatozoa. 205. "Protein yolk" eggs are found in : (a) frog (b) man (c) amphioxus (d) chick UPPCS Pre 2009, 2010 Ans. (d) : "Protein Yolk" eggs are found in chick. Eggs are considered as one of the highest quality forms of protein. Yolk is the nutrient-bearing portion of the egg. Both egg yolks and egg whites contain protein. The major proteins found in egg yolk indude low-density lipoprotein (LDL), high density lipoprotein (HDL), phosvitin and livetin. Main protein in egg white is ovalbumin. 206. Which of the following shows an increase during cleavage of frog? (a) size of zygote (b) Mass of zygote (c) Mass of cytoplasm in zygote (d) Ratio of nuclear area to cytoplasmic area UPPCS Pre 2010 Ans. (d) : • During cleavage of frog, there is an increase in the ratio of nuclear area to cytoplasmic area. • Cleavage gives rise to an increased cell number without increasing the mass. With each subdivision that occurs, there is an increase in the ratio of nuclear to cytoplasmic area. • In the frog, the cleavage is of holoblastic unequal type because of a large amount of yolk present. 207. If pituitary is removed from the tadpole of frog, it will : (a) stop metamorphosis (b) have no effect on metamorphosis (c) hasten the metamorphosis (d) delay the metamorphosis UPPCS Pre 2010 Ans. (a) : • If pituitary is removed from the tadpole of frog, it will stop metamorphosis. • Pituitary gland secretes thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) that regulates the production of hormones by the thyroid gland. Thyroid hormones plays a major role in the frog metamorphosis. So removal of pituitary gland will stop metamorphosis. 208. Number of cranial nerves found in frog is : (a) 5 (b) 10 (c) 20 (d) 30 TGT Biology 2013 Ans. (b) • Number of cranial nerves found in frog is 20. • Ten pairs of cranial nerves are present in amniotes, reptiles, birds and mammals. • 10 pairs of spinal nerves are present in frogs. • 10 vertibrae are present in the forg.

381

YCT

Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 209. Epiboly in frog involves : (a) inward movement of macromeres. (b) over growth of micromeres over macromeres. (c) rapid proliferation of cells at the rim of the blastopore. (d) invagination of cells at the blastopore. GIC Biology 14.06.2015 Ans. (b) : • Epiboly in frog involves overgrowth of micromeres over macromeres. • Epiboly is a morphogenetic process that is employed in the surface ectoderm of anamniotes during gastrulation to cover the entire embryo. In this, the micromeres at the animal pole multiply and overgrow the vegetal macromeres. 210. Under normal conditions metamorphosis in Rana tigrina is completed in about : (a) one month (b) 15 days (c) 7 days (d) 4 days GIC Biology 14.06.2015 Ans. (a) : • Under normal conditions, metamorphosis in rana tigrina is completed in about one month. • Metamorphosis is change into something new, or the process of an insect or amphibian maturing into adult form. There are four main stages : egg, larva, pupa, and adult in the metamorphosis of rana tigrina.

4.

Placenta in Mammals

211. Placenta in humans is : (a) chorionic, monodiscoidal, haemochorial (b) yolk-sac, diffuse, epitheliochorial (c) allantoic, cotyledonary, haemoendothelial (d) allantoic, zonary, syndesmo-chorial UP PGT 17/08/2021 Ans. (a): Placenta in humans is chorionic, monodiscoidal and haemochorial. • The fetal part of the placenta is chorion which is a double - layered membrane. • Discoidal refers to the structure of the placenta and mono means there is only one disc. • Haemochorial means placenta is in direct contact with the fetus or chorion. 212. Match the following from Group I to II correctly: Group – I (Placenta)

Group – II (Animals)

(a)

Discoidal Deciduate

(i)

Carnivore s

(b)

Zonary Deciduate

(ii)

Chiropter a

(c)

Catyledonry Indeciduate

(iii)

Pig

(d)

Diffuse Indeciduate

(iv)

Deer

Correct answer is : TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

(b) (c) (d) (i) (iv) (iii) (iii) (i) (iv) (iii) (iv) (ii) (ii) (i) (iv) RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) Ans. (a) : Correct Match :Group - I Group - II (Placenta) (Animals) (a) Discoidal Deciduate Chiroptera (b) Zonary Deciduate Carnivores (c) Cotyledonary Indeciduate Deer (d) Diffuse Indeciduate Pig 213. Which type of placenta found in human ? (a) Haemo-endothelial (b) Endothelio-chorial (c) Haemo-chorial (d) Syndesmo-chorial UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (c) : Human placenta is haemo-chorial type. In haemo-chorial placenta, maternal blood comes in direct contact with the fetal chorion. ⇒ In haemo-endothelial placenta, maternal blood is separated from fetal blood only by the endothelium of the chorionic capillaries. Example- Rat and Rabbit. ⇒ In endothelio-chorial placenta, chorionic villi are in contact with the endothelium of maternal blood vessels. Example-most carnivores like cats and dogs. ⇒ In syndesmo-chorial placenta, an endometrial wall is attached to the chorion with a limited amount of destruction of the endometrial epithelium. Example- Camels and ruminants. 214. Which type of placenta is found in apes ? (a) Allantoic (b) Allantochorionic (c) Yolk sac (d) Chorionic RPSC School Lecturer (23/07/2016) Ans. (d) : Chorionic placenta- It occurs in primates (man and apes) and is formed only by chorion. Allantois remains small, burrows into body stalk (umbilical cord) and does not reach chorion. However its mesoderm and blood vessels grow up to chorion whose villi enter the uterine crypts forming chorionic placenta. 215. Placenta in mammal is formed by : (a) Allantois (b) Amnion (c) Chorion (d) Both (a) and (c) UP PGT 2016 Ans. (d) • Placenta in mammals is formed by allantois and chorion. • Allantois is the sac-like extraembryonic membrane that removes the waste from the embryo. As the embryo grows, the allantois also grows and presses against the chorion. • Chorion is a layer of the extraembryonic membrane which forms the embryonic portion of the placenta.

382

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(a) (ii) (ii) (i) (iii)

YCT

Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Code : A (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 2 (d) 3

216. Match and select the correctPlacenta a.

Barriers

Examples

Epitheliochorial

6

Rabbit, Rat

b.

Haemoendothelial

3

Dog,Cat

c.

Haemochorial

1

Man Monkey

d.

Syndesmochoriol

5

Cow, Goat

B 2 3 4 4

C 3 4 1 1

D 4 1 3 2 UPPCS Pre 2005

RPSC School Lecturer 2011 Ans. (c) : Correct Match : A. Chorion — Protection Ans. (d) : Syndesmochorial placenta are found in cow, B. Allantois — Excretion goat, cattle, sheep etc. Only five barriers are present in this type of placenta. This placenta, an endometrial wall C. Yolk sac — Nourishment is attached to the chorion with a limited amount of D. Amnion — Fluid environment destruction of the endometraial epithelium. • Epitheliochorial placenta found in dog, cat, horse 220. Zonary placenta occurs in: (a) Herbivorous mammals etc. and six tissue barrier are present. (b) Carnivorous mammals • Haemoendothelial placenta found in rat, rabbit etc. (c) Both (a) and (b) and only a single barrier separates the two blood stremas. (d) Birds TGT Biology 2013 • Haemochorial placenta found in man, monkey, bat etc. and three tissue barrier are present. Ans. (c) : • Zonary placenta occurs in both herbivores and carnivores mammals. 217. Egg-laying mammals are the natives of : • Zonary placenta is seen in dogs, cats, seals, bears, (a) Indian subcontinent and elephants. In this type the placenta takes the form (b) Australian region of a complete or incomplete band of tissue surrounding (c) African continent the fetus. The villi is developed in form of a belt or a band around the middle of their blastocyst or chorionic (d) South America region Bihar PGT 2019 sac, which is more or less elliptical in shape. Ans. (b) : • Egg-laying mammals are the natives of 221. Zonary placenta is found in : (a) Artiodactyla (b) Cetacea Australian region. (c) Carnivora (d) Rodentia • Egg laying mammals are primitive mammals which UPPCS Pre 2004, 2005 lay eggs like reptiles and belongs to the Monotreme. Only two kinds of egg-laying mammals are left on the Ans. (c) : In Zonary placenta, the villi is developed in planet today, the duck-billed platypus and the echidna the form of a belt or girdle like band around the middle of their blastocyst or chorionic sac. Such or spiny anteater. placenta occur in carnivores. ex. Dog, Cat. The villi 218. Mammalian placenta is formed from : present here are in the form of transverse zones. In (a) Yolk sac dogs a single girdle of villi is present. (b) Chorion allantois 222. Role of placenta is : (c) Chorion (a) To convey nerve impulses (d) Amnion (b) To act as storage organ Bihar PGT 2019 (c) To protect embryo from shocks (d) To provide nutrition for developing embryo Ans. (b) : Mammalian placenta is formed from the chorion and allantois. Its main function is to allow the TGT Biology 2005 exchange of substances between the fetus and the Ans. (d) : • Role of placenta is to provide nutrition for mother's body. The placenta is a spongy structure and developing embryo. consists of membranes and blood vessels. It passes O2, nutrients and other useful substances from the mother to • The placenta is an organ that develops in the uterus the fetus and also passes O2 and other wastes from the during pregnancy. This structure provides oxygen and nutrients to the growing baby and removes waste fetus to the mother. products from the baby's blood. It attaches to the wall 219. Match List I with List II and select the correct of uterus, and baby's umbilical cord arises from it. answer from the code give below the lists : 223. How many barriers are present in the placenta List-I List-II of ruminants between uterine wall and foetal blood? A. Chorion 1. Nourishment (a) 6 (b) 3 B. Allantois 2. Protection (c) 4 (d) 5 C. Yolk sac 3. Fluid environment UPPCS Pre 2009 D. Amnion 4. Excretion TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (d) : • In the placenta of ruminants 5 barriers are 228. In primates the foetal membranes taking part in the formation of placenta are : present between uterine wall and foetal blood. (a) allantois and chorion(b) chorion and yolk sac • These barriers in order of their sequence from mother (c) amnion and chorion (d) amnion and yolk sac to foetus are : UPPCS Pre 1999 (i) Endothelium of maternal blood vessel. PGT Biology 2009 (ii) Endometrial connective tissue (iii) Chorionic epithelium Ans. (a) : In primates, the foetal membranes taking part in the formation of placenta are allantois and (iv) Chorionic connective tissue chorion. (v) Endothelium of foetal blood vessel. 229. The foetal membrane which forms placenta in 224. Haemochorial placenta is found in : eutherian mammals: (a) man and monkeys (b) cat and camel (a) Allantois (b) Allanto-chorion (c) lion and tiger (d) giraffe and horse (c) Amnion (d) Yolk sac PGT Biology 2013 UPPCS Pre 2003 Ans. (a) : • Haemochorial placenta is found in man and PGT Biology 2009 monkeys. Ans. (b) : See the explanation of the above question. • In haemochorial placenta, maternal blood is in direct 230. Which type of placenta is found in apes ? contact with the chorion. (a) Allantoic (b) Allantochorionic • Endotheliochorial placenta is found in dogs, cats and (c) Yolk sac (d) Chorionic elephants. Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2015 • Epitheliochorial placenta is found in pigs and sheeps. Ans. (b) : Placenta found in apes is allantochorionic. It • Syndesmochorial placenta is found in ruminants. involves allantois and chorion. Apes have a 225. The Yolk sac in mammals is : allantochorionic placenta that forms from the chorion (a) Vestigial structure and allantois. The allantochorionic placenta mediates (b) Digestive structure the bidirectional exchange of nutrients, wastes and gases between mother and baby. (c) Secretory structure (d) Excretory structure 231. Which of the following is not a function of a placenta? TGT Biology 1999 (a) Sex steroid secretion Ans. (b) : • The yolk sac in mammals is digestive (b) FSH and LH secretion structure. (c) Human chorionic gonadotropin secretion • The yolk sac is a small, membranous structure situated outside of the embryo. It provide temporary (d) Relaxin secretion nourishment early in embryonic life. The primary yolk Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2013 sac forms from proliferating hypoblast cells after Ans. (b) : Placenta secretes following hormones : implantation. (a) Sex-steroid (Estrogen and Progesterone) 226. Human placenta involves : (b) Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) (a) Chorion and yolk sac (c) Relaxin (b) Yolk sac and allantois (d) Human placental lactogen (hPL) (c) Chorion and Amnion FSH and LH are secreted by anterior pituitary. (d) Chorion and allantois PGT Biology 2011 232. The placenta found in cow and goat is (a) Cotyledonary placenta Ans. (d) : • Human placenta involves chorion and allantois. (b) Zonary placenta • Humans have a chorioallantoic placenta that forms (c) Yolk sac placenta from the chorion and allantois. The chorioallantoic (d) None placenta mediates the bidirectional exchange of Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2011 nutrients, wastes and gases between mother and baby. Ans. (a) : • Placenta found in cow and goat is 227. Foetal membranes which take part in the cotyledonary placenta. formation of placenta in primates are : • In cotyledonary placenta the chorionic villi form a (a) allantois and chorion (b) chrion and yolk sac number of separate circular structures (cotyledons) (c) ammion and chorion (d) yolk sac and amnion which are distributed over the surface of the chorionic UPPCS Pre 1998 sac. Sheep, goats and cattle have between 72-125 cotyledons whereas deer have 4-6 larger cotyledons. Ans. (a) : See the explanation of the above question TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 233. From the point of view of Ontogeny the liver is: (a) Ectodernal (b) Endodermal (c) Mesodermal (d) Both ectodermal and endodermal UPPCS Pre 2005 Ans. (b) : From the point of view of ontogeny, the origin of liver is Endodermal. Apart of this, Intestine, stomach, thymus, pancreas, lung, thyroid and prostate etc. are produced by the endoderm. 234. True placenta is found in(a) All mammals (b) Mammals except prototheria (c) Mammals except metatheria (d) Only Eutheria Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (d) : • True placenta is found in only eutheria. • The true placenta allows for a longer developmental period within the protection of the womb. • Prototheria includes the most primitive mammals, which are egg-laying mammals, especially monotremes. Metatheria includes marsupials while eutheria includes true placental mammals. 235. In pig, a molecule of oxygen goes from mother to foetus through how many layers of the foetal placenta? (a) 6 (b) 5 (c) 4 (d) 3 GIC Biology 2015 Ans. (a) : • In pig, a molecule of oxygen goes from mother to foetus through 6 layers of foetal placenta. • Epitheliochorial placentas have a total of six layers separating the maternal and fetal circulations. It is found in horses, pigs and ruminants. This type of placenta is most superficial and lacks significant invasion of the uterine lining. 236. Fallopian tube of rabbit are lined by : (a) Ciliated epithelium (b) Cuboidal epithelium (c) Squamous epithelium (d) Flagellated epithelium GIC Biology 15.09.2015 Ans. (a) : • Fallopian tube of rabbit are lined by ciliated epithelium. • The fallopian tubes are two very fine tubes lined with ciliated epithelium, leading from the ovaries into the uterus. It is also known as oviducts and uterine tubes. Cells in the fallopian tube have small hair-like projections called cilia on the lining of the cells. These cilia help in the movement of the egg from the ovary through the tube into the uterus. 237. Placenta in Rabbit is : (a) discoidal (b) non-deciduate (c) deciduate (d) none of the above UPPCS Pre 2005 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (a) : • Placenta in Rabbit is discoidal • In discoidal placenta part of the chorion remains smooth, while other parts interacts with the endometrium to form the placenta. It is seen in bats, rodents, rabbit and bear. • Non-deciduate placenta is seen in pigs, cattle, goat, horses. • Deciduate placenta is seen in cats, dogs and apes. 238. Haemoendothelial placenta is found in : (a) Woman (b) Cow (c) Pig (d) Rabbit UPPCS Pre 2002 Ans. (d) : Haemoendothelial placenta is found in Rabbit and Rat with minimum barrier. Type of Placenta Found in mammals 1. Woman Haemochorial 2. Cow Syndesmo-chorial 3. Pig Epithelio chorial 4. Rabbit Haemo-endothelial 239. The placenta in rabbit is : (a) Endothelio-chorial type (b) Haemo-chorial type (c) Haemo-Endothelial type (d) Syndesmo-chorial type UPPCS Pre 2000 Ans. (c) : See the explanation of the above question. 240. In which case of the following placental types does the maternal blood bath the foetal chorionic epithelium: (a) Epitheliochorial placenta (b) Syndesmochorial placenta (c) Endotheliochorial placenta (d) Haemochorial placenta UPPCS Pre 2003 Ans. (d) : In haemochorial placenta, the maternal blood bath the foetal chorionic epithelium. In humans, foetal chorionic epithelium is bathed in maternal blood because chorionic villi have eroded through maternal endothelium. In contrast, the chorionic epithelium of horse and pig fetuses remains separated from maternal blood by 3 layers of tissue. 241. Which type of placenta is found in cow : (a) Epitheliochorial (b) Endotheliochorial (c) Syndesmochorial (d) Haemochorial UPPCS Pre 1994 Ans. (c) : Syndesmochorial placenta is found in cow. In the ruminant ungulates (cattle, sheep, deer, giraffe etc) varying amounts of the uterine epithelium may be absent. As a result the chorion is brought into direct contact with the connective tissue of the uterus. Only five barriers therefore, lie between the two blood streams. This type of placenta is termed as syndesmochorial.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 16. Biological Molecules 1

Ans. (b) : The monosaccharides that comprise the major portion of honey are glucose and fructose. Carbohydrates comprise the major portion of honey (about 82%). Monosaccharides present are fructose 1. Which of the following pairs is not correctly (38.2%) and glucose (31%). Disaccharides (9%) are matched? sucrose, maltose, isomaltose, maltulose, turanose, and Kojibiose. There are also some oligosaccharides present (a) Monosaccharide – Fructose (4.2%). Honey is between one and one-and-a-half times sweeter than sucrose (table sugar). (b) Polysaccharide – Cellulose 3. Which one of the following is not a polymeric (c) Disaccharide – Galactose carbohydrate? – Mixture of (d) Starch (a) Fructose (b) Inulin amylase and (c) Chitin (d) Cellulose amylopectin RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) TGT (2016) 31/07/2021 Ans. (a) : Fructose is not a polymeric carbohydrate. It is a member of a group of carbohydrates known as simple Ans. (c) : This pairs is not correctly matching → sugars, or monosaccharides. disaccharide – Galactose. ⇒ Polymeric carbohydrates are formed by connecting Sucrose is a disaccharide. Glucose and fructose are the monosaccharide units through glycosidic bonds. monosaccharide and starch is a polysaccharide. Disaccharides are sugar or carbohydrates made by ⇒ Inulin is a polymer of fructose, present in many plant. ⇒ Chitin is a long-chain polymer of Nlinking two monosaccharides. acetylglucosamine, an amide derivative of glucose. Sucrose = glucose + fructose

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Maltose = glucose + glucose Lactose = galactose + glucose

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⇒ Cellulose is a linear polysaccharide polymer with

many glucose monosaccharide units. 4. Glucose is : (a) monosaccharide (b) disaccharide (c) oligosaccharide (d) protein Bihar PGT 2019 Ans. (a) : Glucose is a monosaccharide. It is the most abundant monosaccharide and a simple sugar with the molecular formula C6H12O6. It is colourless, soluble and crystalline. It is known as "fuel substance" and "blood sugar". It is the main type of sugar in blood, and the main source of energy for body cells. It contains six carbon atoms and an aldehyde group, and is therefore an aldohexose. 5. After a meal rich in carbohydrates is ingested, insulin secretion is probably stimulated by : (a) GLP–1 (7–36) amide (b) CCK The monosaccharides that comprise the major (c) serotonin (d) Interleukin–5 (IL–5) portion of honey are : UP LT 2018 (a) Glucose and sucrose Ans. (b) • After a meal rich in carbohydrates is ingested, insulin secretion is probably stimulated by CCK. (b) Fructose and glucose • Cholecystokinin (K) is a peptide hormone that is released (c) Galactose and fructose from the gut in response to carbohydrate and lipid intake (d) Maltose and galactose and stimulates insulin secretion. It is secreted by the I-cells RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) (inclusion cells) of upper small intestine.

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The type of linkages, found in Carbohydrates is: (a) Peptide (b) ester (c) phosphodiester (d) glycosidic

Ans: (b) : Major source of energy in the body is carbohydrates. Carbohydrates are sugar molecules. Along with proteins and fats, it is one of the three main nutrients TGT Biology 2011 found in foods and drinks. Body breaks down Ans. (d) • The type of linkages found in carbohydrates carbohydrates into glucose, which is the main source of energy for body's cells, tissues, and organs. Glucose is glycosidic. can be used immediately or stored in the liver and • Glycosidic linkage occurs between the molecules of muscles for later use. two monosaccharides through an oxygen atom and is accompanied by the loss of water molecule. It is a type 10. A carbohydrate that cannot be digested by humans is : of covalent bond. (a) Glucose (b) Cellulose • Carbohydrates can be represented by the formula (c) Starch (d) Sucrose (CH2O)n, where 'n' is the number of carbons in the Delhi SSB PGT Biology 2015 molecule. It is classified into three subtypes – monosaccharides, disaccharides, and Polysaccharides. Ans. (b) : • Carbohydrate that cannot be digested by humans is cellulose. • Cellulose is a fibre which is not digestible by the human digestive system. It, however, helps in the smooth functioning of the intestinal tract. It is the most abundant organic polymer on earth. • Cellulose can be digested by ruminants, because they have a large sac-like structure called-rumen between the oesophagus and the small intestine. ** 11. C12H22O11 is applicable to : (a) Maltose (b) Lactose (c) Sucrose (d) all of these Bihar PGT 2019 Ans. (d) : C12H22O11 is applicable to maltose, lactose 7. Which of the following is the most abundant and sucrose. molecule of nature? • C12H22O11 is the general chemical formula of disaccharides. A disaccharide is the sugar formed when (a) glucose (b) cellulose two monosaccharides are joined by glycosidic linkage. (c) starch (d) ribose UPPCS Pre 2004 • Maltose consists of two molecules of glucose. • Lactose is composed of glucose and galactose. Ans. (b) : Cellulose is the most abundant molecule of • Sucrose is made up of glucose and fructose. nature because total wood in nature and all the herbs contain cellulose. It is the main constituent of plant fiber. Plants contain on average 33% cellulose and 2. Proteins cotton is the purest form at 90%. It is a polymer made from glucose monomers. 12. Protein-Keratin is not found in the epidermis of: 8. In which form are carbohydrates located in (a) Fish (b) Reptile plants ? (c) Bird (d) Mammal (b) Sucrose (a) Glucose UP PGT 17/08/2021 (c) Fructose (d) Maltose Ans. (a) : Protein keratin is not found in the epidermis Delhi SSB PGT Biology 2015 of fish. Keratin is a highly durable protein that provides Ans: (a) : Carbohydrates are located in the form of structure to several types of living tissues. It is found in the epidermis of reptiles, birds and mammals. Fish glucose in plants. scales do not contain keratin and are mineralised dermal • Glucose is the most important monosaccharide for elements. Fishes have a more or less smooth, flexible living things. It is the main source of chemical energy skin dotted with various kinds of glands, both used for cell functions in all organisms. Plants can unicellular and multicellular. manufacture glucose through photosynthesis. 13. The term 'Single Cell Protein' (SCP) refers to : • Plants mainly store carbohydrates in long (a) Protein obtained from a single cell polysaccharides chains called starch. (b) Protein obtained from the progeny of a single cell 9. Major source of energy in the body is : (c) Protein obtained from the large scale growth (a) lipids (b) carbohydrates of algae, fungi or bacteria (c) proteins (d) vitamins (d) Viral coat proteins UP PGT 17/08/2021 PGT Biology 2013 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (c) : The term 'single cell Protein' (SCP) refers to protein obtained from the large scale growth of algae, fungi or bacteria. SCP can be used as a protein supplement for both humans or animals. Microorganisms like algae, fungi, yeast, and bacteria have very high protein content in their biomass. 14. Proteins of animal origin lack : (a) D-amino acid (b) Nitrogen (c) Phosphorus (d) Sulphur TGT 07/08/2021 Ans. (a) Proteins of animals origin lack D - amino acid. Amino acids are the basic unit of protein and made up of carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen and sometimes sulphur. Amino acid are present with a carboxyl group and amino group. D-amino acids were previously called 'non-native' because in the vast majority of cases they are not used as the building blocks of structural proteins of cellular and non-cellular forms of life. So, D- amino acids are not found in proteins. 15. Globular proteins do not acts as : (a) Enzyme (b) Structural molecule (c) Hormone (d) Antibody TGT 07/08/2021 Ans. (b) : Globular proteins are spherical in shape (globelike) whereas fibrous proteins are thin - fiber-like disordered membrane proteins. Globular Proteins are water-soluble, unlike fibrous proteins, globular proteins do not acts as structural molecule. Globular Proteins can act as enzymes, by catalyzing organic reactions taking place in the organism in mild conditions and with great specificity. 16. Changing one acid within a protein would change its ______ . (a) Primary structure (b) Overall three dimensional structure of protein (c) Change in the function of protein (d) all of the above UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (d) : Changing one amino acid within a protein would change it primary structure, function, and overall three-dimensional structure of protein. The primary structure of a protein is its sequence of amino acids. The unique amino acid sequence of a protein is reflected in its unique folded structure. This structure, in turn, determines the protein's function. This is why mutations that alter amino acid sequence can affect the function of a protein.

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Ans. (b) : Alpha helix (α-helix) structure represents secondary structure of proteins. In an alpha helix, the main chain arranges in a right-handed helix with the side chains pointing away from the helical axis. Secondary structure is local interactions between stretches of a polypeptide chain and includes α-helix and β-pleated sheet structures. α-helices are formed and maintained by backbone interactions parallel to the primary axis of the helix.

The α-Helix structure of proteins 'Ramachandran Plot' is related to structure organization of following molecule : (a) Carbohydrate (b) Lipid (c) Protein (d) Nucleic acid UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (c) : Ramachandran Plot is related to structure organization of protein. The Ramachandran plot is a plot of the torsional angles -phi (φ) and psi (ψ)- of the residues (amino acids) contained in a peptide. The plot was developed in 1963 by G.N. Ramachandran by plotting the φ values on the x-axis and the ψ values on the y-axis. By making this plot, protein structural scientists can determine which torsional angles are permitted and can obtain insight into the structure of peptides. 19. Western Blotting technique is used for (a) DNA profiling (b) DNA sequencing (c) RNA transfer (d) To separate and identify proteins UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (d) : Western Blotting technique is used for the separation and identification of proteins. It is also Alpha helix structure represents – known as immunoblotting or protein blotting. This method is widely used to detect specific protein (a) Primary structure of proteins molecules in complex samples such as tissue (b) Secondary structure of proteins homogenates and cell lysates. Western blotting typically (c) Tertiary structure of proteins involves protein separation by gel electrophoresis (d) Quaternary structure of proteins followed by transfer to a Poly Vinylidene Difluoride UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 (PVDF) or nitrocellulose membrane.

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Protein is made-up of : (a) Carbon, Hydrogen, Chlorine and Sulphur (b) Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen and Nitrogen (c) Carbon, Manganese, Phosphorus and Nitrogen (d) Carbon, Iodine, Oxygen and Inorganic Phosphate UK SSSC L.T. (21/01/2018) Ans. (b) : Protein is made up of carbon, hydrogen, Oxygen and nitrogen. Proteins are macromolecules composed of amino acids, which are commonly called protein's building block. Proteins contain the elements carbon, hydrogen, and Oxygen just as carbohydrates and lipids do, but proteins are the only macronutrient that contains nitrogen. Each amino acid consists of a central carbon atom connected to a side chain, a hydrogen, a nitrogen-containing amino group, and a carboxylic acid group. 21. Histone proteins are rich in – (a) Arginine and Lysine (b) Glycine and Aspartic acid (c) Glutamic acid and Aspartic acid (d) Methionine and Glutamic acid RPSC School Lecturer 2011 Ans. (a) : Histone proteins are rich in Arginine and lysin. A histone protein provides structural support to a chromosome. In order for very long DNA molecules to fit into the cell nucleus, they wrap around the complexes of histone proteins, giving the chromosome a more compact shape. 22. The protein are synthesized at : (a) ribosomes (b) mitochondria (c) Centrosomes (d) Golgi bodies Bihar PGT 2019 Ans. (a) : Protein are synthesized at ribosomes. → Ribosome is a factory for the synthesis of proteins. The ribosome has a small and a large subunit and is a complex molecule composed of several ribosomal RNA (rRNA) molecules and a number of protein. It is responsible for translating encoded messages from messenger RNA molecules to synthesize proteins from amino acids. 23. Which of the following immunoglobulin molecules is largest? (a) IgA (b) IgM (c) IgD (d) IgE UP PGT 2016 Ans. (b) IgM is the largest immunoglobulin. It is the largest antibody as it is a pentamer which has 10 antigen binding sites, therefore it has high molecular weight (900,000–1000,000), it is often called macroglobulin and the 'millionaire molecule'. They are found in blood and lymph fluid and are the first type of antibody made in response to an infection. 24. The unique protein found in the brown fat cells is: (a) Keratin (b) Elastin (c) Collagen (d) Thermogenin LT Biology 2015 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (d) : The unique protein found in the brown fat cells is thermogenin. • Thermogenin, also known as uncoupling protein 1 (UCP1), is an inner-membrane mitochondrial protein exclusive to brown adipocytes. It functions as a proton transporter, allowing the dissipation as heat of the proton gradient generated by the respiratory chain and thereby uncoupling oxidative phosphorylation. 25. Those amino acids which can be synthesized in the body are known as : (a) essential aminoacids (b) non essential aminoacids (c) polar aminoacids (d) b and c both UPPCS Pre 2004 Ans. (d) : Those amino acids which can be synthesized in the body are known as non-essential or polar amino acid. Essential amino acids taken from outer sources. Of the 20 amino acids in your body proteins, nine are essential amino acids, histidine, tryptophan, valine, leucine, lysine, isoleucine, methionine, phenylalanine, threonine. Nonessential amino acids include : alanine, arginine, asparagine, aspartic acid, cysteine, glutamic acid, glutamine, glycine, proline, serine and tyrosine. 26. A symport system moves (a) One type of molecules unidirectionally (b) Two solutes unidirectionally (c) Two types of molecules in opposite directions (d) One type of molecules bidirectionally UP PGT 2016 Ans. (b) In a symport system, two solutes move in a single direction (Unidirectionally). A Prime example of this is the transport of amino acid in the lining of the human intestine. It is a type of cotransport. In symport method of cotransport, both molecules cross the membrane in the same direction at the same time. A symporter is an integral membrane protein that is involved in the transport of molecules. 27. Keratin is a protein having larger amount of : (a) Phosphorus (b) Calcium (c) Magnesium (d) Sulphur UPPCS Pre 1996, 1997 Ans. (d) : Exoskeleton like hoof, hair, nail, horn, feathers, etc. made from keratin protein. Keratin is a protein having larger amount of sulphur. Keratin is one of a family of structural fibrous proteins also known as scleroproteins. Keratin is extremely insoluble in water and organic solvents. Keratins have large amounts of the sulfur containing amino acid cysteine, which is characterized by the thiol functional group, - SH, comprising a sulfur atom and a hydrogen atom. 28. Eleidin is found in : (a) Stratum corneum (b) Stratum granulosum (c) Stratum lucidum (d) Stratum spinosum UPPCS Pre 2002

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Histones have 20-30%. (a) lysine and proline (b) arginine and proline (c) arginine and lysine (d) arginine and leucine UPPCS Pre 1999 Ans. (c) : Histone protein is five types–H1, H2A, H2B, H 3, H 4. H1 have much amount of Lysine and H3, H4 have arginine. Histone have 20–30% arginine and lysine, 40% – 59% of DNA, 3–10% RNA and some amount of non histone protein. 32. Which of the following foreign molecules induces the formation of antibodies? (a) Protein (b) DNA (c) Polysaccharide (d) All of the above UPPCS Pre 2010 Ans. (d) : Protein, DNA and polysaccharide are foreign molecules that induces the formation of antibodies. → Antibodies are proteins produced by the immune system from the body's stores of immunoglobulin protein. The immune system cells produce antibodies when they react with foreign protein antigens. Most antigens have a large molecular weight and are chemically composed of proteins or polysaccharides. 33. Humulin is : (a) carbohydrate (b) fats 29. The amino-acid which is used in the synthesis of (c) hybridoma (d) protein thyroxine is : PGT Biology 2013 (a) tyrosine (b) threonine Ans. (d) : Humulin is protein – (c) valine (d) leucine UPPCS Pre 1999 → Humulin is a man-made insulin that is used to control high blood sugar in adults and children with Ans. (a) : Thyroxine is the hormone that control basal diabetes mellitus. metabolic rate. → The first genetically engineered synthetic human It is secreted by thyroid gland. The tyrosine amino insulin was produced in 1978. Eli Lilly, in 1982, sell acid and Iodine is used for the synthesis of thyroxine. the first commercially available biosynthetic human The body needs the amino acid tyrosine for many insulin under the brand name Humulin. functions. It is important in thyroid performance, and lack of tyrosine in the diet can create hypothyroid 34. Which of the following is not correctly matched? conditions. Tyrosine is found in many foods sources. (a) Dipeptide–Two peptide bonds Foods high in tyrosine include dairy products, meat, (b) Triacylglycerol–Ester linkage green vegetables etc. (c) Linoleic acid– Unsaturated fatty acid 30. Which histone protein is not part of a nucleosome: (d) Monosaccharide–Galactose (a) H2 (b) H2a UP LT 2018 (c) H2b (d) H4 Ans. (a) : A peptide is a compound consisting of two UPPCS Pre 1999 or more amino acids. When two amino acid molecules Ans. (a) : The arrangement of DNA and Histone are linked, through peptide bonds then the product is protein is known as nucleosome. Histone protein is called a dipeptide. five type H1, H2a, H2b, H3, H4. Nucleosome including * Triacylglycerols are formed by linking fatty acids H2a, H2b, H3, and H4 histone protein. H1 or H2 is not with an ester linkage to three alcohol groups in found in nucleosome. glycerol. * Linoleic acid is a polyunsaturated omega-6 fatty acid. * Galactose is a monosaccharide and has the same chemical formula as glucose i.e. C6H12O6. 35. The functional group, which is found in amino acid is : (a) –COOH group (b) –NH2 group (c) –CH3 group (d) Both (a) & (b) Bihar PGT 2019 Ans. (c) : Eleidin is clear intracellular protein which is present in the stratum lucidum of the skin. Eleidin is a transformation product of the amino acid complex keratohyalin, the lifeless matter deposited in the form of minute granules within the protoplasm of living cells. Eleidin is then converted to keratin in the stratum corneum.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (d) : The functional group, which is found in amino acid is – NH2 group and – COOH group. → Amino acids are natural compounds composed of amine (–NH2) and carboxylic acid (–COOH) functional groups, linked to the same carbon atom. In biochemistry, this term refers to alpha-amino acids with the general formula H2NCHRCOOH, where R is an organic substituent known as a side chain.

Ans. (d) : The total number of amino acid residues in alpha and beta chains of haemoglobin molecule is 574. → A haemoglobin molecule is made up of four polypeptide chains, two alpha chains of 141 amino acid residues each, and two beta chains of 146 amino acid residues each. 2α = 141 × 2 = 282 amino acids 2β = 146 × 2 = 292 amino acids Total number = 574 amino acids 40. Most abundant protein in the human body is : (a) haemoglobin (b) keratin (c) collagen (d) immunoglobulin PGT Biology 2013 36. The protein-lipid ratio in RBC membrane is approximately– Ans: (c) : → Most abundant protein in the human body is collagen. (a) 30% - 70% (b) 40% - 60% (c) 60% - 40% (d) 70% - 30% → Collagen is the main component of connective PGT Biology 2011 tissue. It is one of the major building blocks of bones, Ans. (c) : In Human being, the membrane of the RBCs skin, muscles, tendons, and ligaments. It is also found in has approximately 52% protein and 40% lipids. blood vessels. Erythrocytes are also known as RBC. It takes oxygen → Haemoglobin is a protein present in red blood cells from the lungs and transport to the whole body. The (RBCs). membrane of RBC is composed of proteins and lipids. It → Keratin is the type of protein that makes up hair, skin contains approximately 40% of lipid and 52% of and nails. protein. The remaining 8% is composed of → Immunoglobulin (Ig) also known as antibody is an oligosaccharides. protein that is part of the immune system of body. 37. Which of the following represents the antigen → Collagen is the commonest and abundant protein binding region of immunoglobulins? found in the muscle of mammals. (a) VH and VL (b) CH3 and VH (c) CH1 and CH2 (d) CL and VL GIC Biology 15.09.2015 Ans. (a) :VH and VL represents the antigen binding region of immunoglobulins. → The antigen-binding fragment (Fab) is a region on an antibody that binds to antigens. It is composed of one constant and one variable domain of each of the heavy and light chain. The variable domain is also referred to as the Fv region and is the most important region for binding to antigens. More specifically, variable loops (VH and VL) are responsible for antigen binding. 38. Cytochromes are : (a) Riboflavin containing nucleotides (b) Pyrimidine nucleotides (c) Iron porphyrin proteins (d) Metal containing flavoproteins 41. The most common and abundant protein in UPPCS Pre 1994 mammals is : Ans. (c) : Haemoglobin and myoglobin have similar (a) Haemoglobin (b) Collagen structures having iron as a central metal atom. (c) Myoglobin (d) Myosin Haemoglobin and myoglobin are two oxygen binding UPPCS Pre 1998 proteins that contain iron porphyrins. Various cytochromes are also haemoproteins. Some of the Ans. (b) : See the above of explanation. iron-containing porphyrins are called haem. 42. Which of these amino acids must be present in 39. The total number of amino acid residues in alpha the diet? and beta chains of haemoglobin molecule is (a) Valine (b) Glycine (a) 146 (b) 141 (c) Alanine (d) Serine (c) 287 (d) 574 PGT Biology 2005 UPPCS Pre 2009 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (a) : Valine amino acid must be present in the diet. 3. Lipids • There are 20 kinds of amino acids that support the body, each having their own functions. The amino acids which have to be taken in through diet, as they cannot 45. Which of the following is an essential fatty acid? be produced in the body are essential amino acids. Non(a) Acetic acid (b) Propionic acid essential amino acids need not be taken in through diet (c) Palmitic acid (d) Linoleic acid as they can be produced by the body. TGT 07/08/2021 Nonessential amino acids Essential amino acids Ans. (d) : Essential fatty acids are those compounds which cannot be synthesized by human and must be (i) Alanine (i) Arginine ingested. Gamma linolenic acid is the omega 6 fatty acid (ii) Asparagine (ii) Histidine found in vegetable oils and alpha- linolenic acid (omega(iii) Aspartic acid (iii) Isoleucine 3 fatty acid). Linolenic acid is converted to arachidonic acid. Arachidonic acid is an omega-6 unsaturated fatty (iv) Cysteine (iv) Leucine acid required for proper functioning of body. Stearic acid, (v) Glutamic acid (v) Lysine oleic acid, Palmitic acid are nonessential fatty acids. (vi) Glycine (vi) Methionine They are synthesized by a human. (vii) Glutamine (vii) Phenylalanine 46. Which among the following statement is true about saturated fat ? (viii) Proline (viii) Threonine (a) Saturated fats contain one or more double (ix) Serine (ix) Tryptophan bonds along hydrocarbon tail (x) Tyrosine (x) Valine (b) Saturated fats contain the maximum of hydrogen along hydrocarbon tail 43. Fibrinogen is synthesized in : (c) Saturated fats found in majority of plant lipids (a) Liver (b) Fibrocytes (d) Saturated fats are healthier that unsaturated fats (c) Kidney (d) Blood UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 UPPCS Pre 2005 Ans. (b) : Saturated fats contain the maximum number of hydrogen along hydrocarbon tail. Saturation refers to Ans. (a) : Fibrinogen is synthesized in liver. the number of double bonds present in the hydrocarbon → Fibrinogen is a soluble protein that is produced in tail. In saturated fats, the carbons have single bonds the liver and released into the bloodstream. This between them and the maximum number of hydrogen protein helps stop bleeding by helping blood clots to atoms. Unsaturated fats have fewer hydrogens than form. It is broken down to fibrin by the enzyme saturated fatty acids due to their double bonds. thrombin to form clots. 47. Sterols are not fats but solid alcohols. These are put as lipid because they form: (a) Fats and fatty acids (b) Triglycerides (c) Cholesterol (d) Esters and fatty acids UK SSSC L.T. (21/01/2018) Ans. (d) : Sterols are not fats but solid alcohols. These are put as lipid because they form esters and fatty acids. Sterols are isoprenoid-derived lipids with essential roles in cell structure, function, and physiology. As important components of biological membranes, sterols interact with phospholipids and proteins within the membrane, there by regulating membrane fluidity, permeability, and membrane protein functions. Sterols are a subgroup of the steroids, that occur naturally in most eukaryotes, and can also be produced by some bacteria. 48. Lipid the serves as an insulator of electrical changes found : (a) around nervous tissue (b) in subcutaneous tissue (c) in the humps of camel 44. Chemically an antibody is : (d) in liver and bone (a) Lipid (b) Protein Bihar PGT 2019 (c) Lipoprotein (d) Nucleoprotein Ans. (a) : Lipid that serves as an insulator of electrical PGT Biology 2004 changes are found around nervous tissue. Ans. (b) : Antibody is a protein which is chemically • The insulation of neurons in the nervous tissue is in formed against the antigen. It is made up of four the form of special cells called schwann cells that polypeptide which is called 2H (Heavy) + 2L (Light) produce a lipid mixture called myelin. Myelin consists which is connected by disulfide bond. Chemically an of several lipids, but mainly galactosylceramide and cholesterol. antibody is protein. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 49.

Fats in our body are formed when : (a) There is little glycogen in the body (b) Blood-sugar level becomes constant (c) Glycogen storage in liver and muscle is completed (d) intake of protein is high UPPCS Pre 1994 Ans. (c) : Fats in our body are formed when Glycogen storage in liver and muscle is completed. Excess carbohydrates are stored as glycogen in muscles and liver. Glycogen storage is for short duration only. Long time storage of carbohydrates occurs as fats. Firstly glycogen storage occurs then extra carbohydrates convert into fats for long-term storage. ***

4.

Hence the rate of reaction is more in case of enzyme catalyzed reaction due to the formation of transition state and lower activation energy requirement. This change is brought about by an apparent increase in energy level of substrate molecules.

Enzymes

50.

Which of the following proenzyme is first converted to active enzyme by enterokinase and then by autocatalysis? (a) Pepsinogen (b) Chymotrypsinogen 53. Enzyme enhances the rate of a chemical reaction by : (c) Procarboxypeptidase (d) Trypsinogen (a) providing optimum pH UP PGT 17/08/2021 (b) raising the temperature Ans. (d) : Proenzyme trypsinogen is first converted to active enzyme by enterokinase and then by (c) lowering activation energy autocatalysis. It is a precursor of trypsin that is secreted (d) producing ATP by the pancreas and is activated to trypsin in the small TGT Biology 2010 intestine. Once activated, the trypsin converts more UPPCS Pre 1994, 2004, 2006, 2008 trypsinogen into trypsin by autoactivation. Ans. (c) : Enzyme enhances the rate of a chemical 51. Which of the following substance is reaction by lowering the activation energy. fibrinolytic? Activation energy is the energy required for substances (a) Hemin (b) Thrombin to react and get converted into product. Enzymes (c) Plasmin (d) Prothrombin TGT 07/08/2021 provide activation energy for the reactions they Ans. (c) : Plasmin is a fibrinolytic. The fibrinolytic catalyze. The lower activation energy for a reaction, system comprises an inactive proenzyme, Plasminogen, the faster the rate of reaction. which can be converted to the active enzyme, Plasmin which in turn degrades fibrin into soluble fibrin degradation products thereby effecting the removal of unnecessary fibrin clot. The most well-studied fibrinolytic enzyme is plasmin, which circulates in an inactive form as the protein plasminogen. 52. Which of the following statements is true regarding enzymes? (a) All require a coenzyme for their activity (b) All are active at neutral pH (c) All require a molecule of water for their activity (d) All lower the energy of activation TGT 07/08/2021 Ans. (d) : Enzymes are biological catalysts which speed up biochemical reactions. According to the most widely accepted theory, enzymes bind to the substrate molecule 54. Enzymes speed up a chemical reaction by : and form a transition state. During the progress of a (a) Increasing the energy of activation of reactions reaction the substrates are separated from products by (b) Lowering the energy of activation of reaction an energy barrier which the substrates need to cross. (c) Allowing easy collision of molecules This energy barrier is called as the activation energy. (d) None of the above The activation energy barrier in case of transition state TGT Biology 1999 is far less as compared to the activation energy barrier Ans. (b) : See the explanation of the above question. in absence of enzymes. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 55.

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given belowList-I List-II (A) Lipase 1. Carbohydrate digestion (B) Trypsin 2. Polypeptides into amino-acids (C) Amylase 3. Protein digestion (D) Erepsin 4. Fat break down enzyme Code : A B C D (a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 4 3 2 1 (c) 4 3 1 2 (d) 3 2 1 4 GIC 19/09/2021 Ans. (c) : Correct match :– List-I List-II (A) Lipase Fat breakdown enzyme (B) Trypsin Protein digestion (C) Amylase Carbohydrate digestion (D) Erepsin Polypeptides into amino acids 56. Disaggregation of normal tissues for cell culture is usually done by which of the following? (a) Polyethylene glycol (b) Collagenase (c) Dextrose solution (d) Normal saline RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) Ans. (b) : Disaggregation of normal tissues for cell culture is usually done by collagenase. These are enzymes that break the peptides in collagen. Collagenase is effectively used for the disaggregation of several tissues that may be sensitive to trypsin. Collagenase disaggregation has been successfully used for human brain, lung and several other epithelial tissues, besides various human tumors, and other animal tissues. 57. The enzyme fatty acid synthase complex is made up of : (a) 5 units (b) 6 units (c) 7 units (d) 8 units UP PGT 2016 Ans. (d) • The enzyme fatty acid synthase complex is made up of 8 units. • Fatty acid synthase (FAs) is an enzyme that in humans is encoded by the FASN gene. It is a multi-enzyme protein that catalyzes fatty acid synthesis. It is not a single enzyme but a whole enzymatic system. 58. The 'Taq DNA polymerase an enzyme' is isolated from which of the following organism? (a) Thermus aquaticus (b) E. Coli (c) Fungus (d) None of the above UK SSSC L.T. (21/01/2018) Ans. (a) : The Taq DNA polymerase enzyme is isolated from Thermus aquaticus. It is a thermophilic bacteria, that can tolerate high temperatures. Taq polymerase is a thermostable DNA polymerase frequently used in the polymerase chain reaction (PCR), which allows for the duplication and amplification of DNA from a very small sample. Taq DNA polymerase is highly efficient, so it becomes fully functional as it reaches its optimum temperature. It also has a half-life of more than two hours and a high amplification capacity. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

59.

What is zymogen ? (a) An active enzyme (b) Inactive precursor of proteolytic enzyme (c) Precursor of oxidative enzyme (d) An inactive enzyme RPSC School Lecturer 2011 Ans. (b) : A zymogen, also known as proenzyme is an inactive precursor of an enzyme that aid in enzyme folding, stability and targeting. They are inactive in a way that they are not functional until a biochemical change occurs. Examples of biochemical change are hydrolysis and limited proteolysis of an inhibiting fragment.

60.

Naturally occuring enzyme lysozyme is found in : (a) Saliva (b) Tears (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above UP PGT 2016 Ans. (c) Naturally occuring enzyme lysozyme is found in both saliva and tears. Lysozyme is found in bodily secretions such as tears, saliva, milk and mucus. It functions as an antimicrobial agent by cleaving the peptidoglycan component of bacterial cell walls, which leads to cell death. It is produced by neutrophils and macrophages. 61. Lysozymes are found in: (a) Saliva (b) Tears (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Mitochondria PGT Biology 2003 Ans. (c) : See the explanation of the above question. 62. Lysozyme is found in : (a) tear (b) sweat (c) saliva (d) All of the above UP LT 2018 Ans. (d) : Lysozyme is a naturally occuring enzyme which is found in body secretions such as tears, saliva, sweat, milk and mucus. It functions as an antimicrobial agent by cleaving the peptidoglycan component of bacterial cell walls, which leads to cell death. It is also known as muramidase. 63. The fumarase enzyme converts : (a) succinic acid into fumaric acid (b) fumaric acid into malic acid (c) fumaric acid into maleic acid (d) fumaric acid into citric acid UPPCS Pre 2008 Ans. (b) : Fumarase enzyme converts fumaric acid to malic acid. This reaction is found in the krebs cycle. Krebs cycle is a stepwise catabolic process that converts organic acids to CO2 and H2O and yield energy. Fumaric acid is a four carbon organic compound which acted upon by fumarase enzyme, forms malic acid by releasing H2O. Malic acid is also a four carbon compound.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Which of the following is responsible for 69. Which of the following enzymes is used in respiration? (a) Ligase (b) Nuclease inhibition in enzymatic reactions? (c) Dehydrogenase (d) Polymerase (a) Substrate (b) Enzyme UPPCS Pre 2006 (c) End product (d) Temperature Bihar PGT 2019 Ans. (c) : Dehydrogenase take part in cellular respiration in Kreb's cycle. In this, enzymes release the H+ by Ans. (a) : • Substrate is responsible for inhibition in different stage of reaction like NADH 2 → NADH enzymatic reaction. convert • In substrate inhibition there is a progressive decrease convert + + H and FADH2 → FADH + H+. Ligase is in activity at high substrate concentrations. The Joining enzyme. Nuclease DNA and RNA does not take substrate is a molecule upon which an enzyme acts. part in the respiration. • Enzyme inhibitors are molecules that interact in some way with the enzyme to prevent it from working in the 70. Beadle and tatum established the relationship between: normal manner. (a) Gene and chromosome(b) Gene and enzyme 65. Enzymes are : (c) Gene and heredity (d) Gene and AIDS (a) Biocatalyst (b) Substrate-specific UPPCS Pre 1996 (c) Protein molecules (d) All of these Ans. (b) : Beadle and Tatum proposed concept called Bihar PGT 2019 'one gene-one enzyme' hypothesis in 1941. In this Ans. (d) : • Enzymes are protein molecules, theory they proposed that each gene directly produce a biocatalyst, and substrate specific. single enzyme which consequently affect an • Biocatalyst are substances that activates or speeds up individual Step in metabolic pathway. a biochemical reaction. Enzymes are biocatalysts 71. Enzyme Luciferase : present in all the living things in nature. (a) acts on lucin to break it into water and ammonia • Enzymes are proteins that help speed up metabolism, (b) is formed in Lucifer or the chemical reactions in the body. (c) acts on a substrate to cause bioluminescence • Enzymes are highly specific to the nature of the (d) is produced by symbiotic protozoan's in colon substrate they bind to. UPPCS Pre 1994 66. Enzymes are : Ans. (c) : Bioluminescence is an imaging technique that utilize luciferase, a family of oxidative enzymes that emit (a) Carbohydrates (b) fats light upon oxidation of a substrate. For cells to be visible, (c) proteins (d) sugars PGT Biology 2013 they must be transfected with a luciferase reporter gene such as firefly luciferase (Luc). Ans. (c) : Enzymes are proteins. • Enzymes are proteins that help speed up metabolism, 72. Abzymes are : (a) hydrolases (b) antigens or the chemical reactions in the body. They build some (c) antibodies (d) proteases substances and break other down. All living things have UPPCS Pre 2007 enzymes. Our bodies naturally produce enzymes. Ans. (c) : • Abzymes are antibodies. • All enzymes are protein, but all proteins are not enzyme. • An abzyme is a monoclonal antibody with catalytic 67. "One gene one enzyme" hypothesis was proposed by: activity. It is also called catmab (catalyst monoclonal (a) Jacob & Monod (b) Watson and Crick antibody). (c) Garrod and Jensen (d) Beadle and Tatum It can enhance a couple of chemical and metabolic Bihar PGT 2019 reactions in the body by binding a chemical group, Ans. (d) : "One gene one enzyme" hypothesis was resembling the transition state of a given reaction. proposed by Beadle and Tatum. 73. Which enzyme catalyses the breaking up of • George Beadle and Edward Tatum, in 1941, proposed linkage C-C, C-N etc. : the "one gene one enzyme" hypothesis, through (a) Hydrolases (b) Oxidases experiments on the red bread mold Neurospora crassa. (c) Desmolases (d) All the above UPPCS Pre 2003 • Jacob and Monod, introduced a logic of gene regulation and expression. Ans. (d) : Various enzymes are involved in the breaking down and synthesis of linkages. All the • Watson and Crick, discovered the double-helix above enzymes like Hydrolases, Oxidases and structure of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA). desmolases act on linkage C–C, C–N. Hydrolases 68. Which Vitamin is not found in milk ? catalyze the deavage of a covalent bond using water. (a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin B Oxidases catalyze the oxidation of C-N and C-O (c) Vitamin C (d) Vitamin D bonds at the expense of molecular oxygen. Bihar PGT 2019 Desmolases catalyze the formation or destruction of Ans. (c) : Vitamin C is not found in milk. C-C bonds within a molecule. • Vitamin C is present in citrus fruits, such as oranges and 74. Enzymes occurring in more than one form are green vegetables. It is also known as ascorbic acid. It acts known as : as an antioxidant. Deficiency of vitamin C leads to scurvy. (a) Isozymes (b) Autolytic enzymes • Milk is a good source of protein and calcium, as well (c) Zymogens (d) proteolytic enzymes as nutrients including vitamin A, B, D. UPPCS Pre 2004 64.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (a) : Isozyme is also known as Isoenzymes. Ans. (b) A peptide bond is a chemical bond formed Enzymes occurring in more than one form are known between two molecules when the carboxyl group of as Isozymes. Isozymes were first described by R.L. one molecule reacts with the amino group of the other Hunter and Clement Markert. Enzyme variants that molecule. are the product of different genes and thus represent Proteolysis is the breakdown of proteins into smaller different Loci describes as isozymes. All enzymes are polypeptides or amino acids. The hydrolysis of peptide proteins except Ribozyme. bonds is extremely slow, taking hundred of years. 75. Given : Digestive enzymes in our body help to break down 1. Depolarization-repolarization theory macromolecules of food into smaller molecules by the 2. Lock and key theory process of hydrolysis. So, digestive enzymes belong 3. Saltatory conduction theory to the class Hydrolases. 4. Induced fit theory So, Both are true but R is not correct explanation of A. Which of the above explains the mechanism of 79. Enzyme that facilitates the transport through enzyme action in best way : cell membrane is: (a) 1 and 4 only (b) 2 only (a) Parathormone (b) Lipase (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 4 only (c) Endonuclease (d) Ligase UPPCS Pre 2003 UPPCS Pre 1996 Ans. (d) : Induced fit theory maintains that enzymes Ans. (c) : Endonuclease enzyme facilitates the substrate are not shaped perfectly to the active site of transport through cell membrane because this enzyme their respective place. Induced fit theory explain. Mechanism of enzymes action in best way. is restriction or breaking enzyme by own action break the cell and transport to the Place. Ligase is the joining enzyme join the DNA molecule. parathormone is the hormones Secreted by parathyroid gland maintain Ca+ level in the blood. Ligase is an enzyme that uses ATP to form bonds is used in recombinant DNA cloning to join restriction endonuclease fragments that have annealed. 76. Inactive enzyme precursors, such as pepsinogen 80. Which of the following is not an enzyme : for pepsin are called : (a) Ribonuclease (a) Cholenzymes (b) Zymogens (b) RNA polymerase (c) Polyglycoids (d) Activase (c) Ribozyme UPPCS Pre 2001 (d) Riboflavin Ans. (b) : Zymogen also called proenzyme is an inactive UPPCS Pre 1998 precursor of enzyme. A zymogen requires a biochemical Ans. (d) : Riboflavin is the vitamin B2 not an enzyme changes (such as a hydrolysis reaction revealing the which are water soluble. Riboflavin is naturally present active site or changing the configuration to reveal the active site) for it to become an active enzyme. in some foods. It is essential to the formation of two major co-enzymes, flavin mononucleotide and flavin 77. Enzymes which exist in more than one form : adenine dinucleotide. It help the body to convert food (a) Coenzymes (b) Apoenzymes into fuel, which is used to produce energy. (c) Isozymes (d) Transferases Delhi SSB PGT Biology 2015 81. The optimum temperature range for animals in which enzymes are active in between : Ans. (c) : • Enzymes which exist in more than one form (b) 100 ‒ 200 C (a) 50 ‒ 100C are known as isozymes. 0 0 (c) 30 ‒ 45 C (d) 500 ‒ 600 C • Isozymes are a group of enzymes that catalyze the same reaction but have different enzyme forms. UPPCS Pre 2002 • Glucokinase, CPK1, CPK2, CPK3 are examples of Ans. (c) : The optimum temperature for animal in isozymes. which enzyme are active is in between 300C ‒ 450C. 78. Consider the following statements : Enzymes are specific in nature. Enzymes are Assertion (A) : Polypeptidase acts on peptide biological catalysts which accelerate chemical linkage of proteins and breaks them into smaller reactions in organisms. Enzymes are maximum molecules are necessary for this reaction. activity in optimum Temperature. In humans, this Reason (R) : All digestive enzymes belong to temperature is 37.5°C that is same as the normal body hydrolase class. temperature. A rise in temperature above 40°C results New select your answer from the answer code in denaturation of the proteins of enzyme. given below : (a) both A and R are true and R is the correct 82. Enzymes enhance the rate of a chemical reaction by: explanation of A. (a) providing optimum pH (b) both A and R are true but R is not the correct (b) raising the temperature explanation of A. (c) combining with substrate (c) A is true but R is false (d) providing ATP (d) R is true but A is false UPPCS Pre 2005 UPPCS Pre 1997 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (c) : • Enzymes enhance the rate of a chemical reaction by combining with substrate. When an enzyme binds its substrate, it forms an enzymesubstrate complex. This complex lowers the activation energy of the reaction and promotes its rapid progression by providing certain ions or chemical groups that actually form covalent bonds with molecules as a necessary step of the reaction process. 83. DNA polymerase III catalyses ; (a) replication of DNA (b) repair of DNA (c) joining of ends of DNA (d) translation of m RNA UPPCS Pre 2005 Ans. (a) : • DNA polymerase III catalyses replication of DNA. • The DNA polymerase III holoenzyme is the primary enzyme complex involved in prokaryotic DNA replication. It was discovered by Thomas Kornberg and Malcolm Gefter in 1970. • DNA polymerase I and DNA polymerase II are primarily required for repair. 84. What determines the specificity of an enzyme? (a) Holoenzyme (b) Protein Part (c) Co-enzyme (d) None of the above UPPCS Pre 2009 Ans. (a) : • Holoenzyme determines the specificity of an enzyme. • A holoenzyme is an enzyme with its required cofactor. It functions the same as an enzyme. It is the protein component of the enzyme and bound cofactor which creates the active form of the enzymes.

87.

Which of the following enzymes does not obey Km kinetics? (a) Zymogens (b) Co-enzymes (c) Isoenzymes (d) Allosteric enzymes UPPCS Pre 2009, 2010 Ans. (d) : • Allosteric enzymes does not obey km kinetics. • Allosteric enzymes are enzymes that have an additional binding site for effector molecules other than the active site. Unlike many enzymes, allosteric enzymes do not obey Michaelis-Menten Kinetics, because they have multiple active sites and multiple subunits. They show the sigmoidal curve and have sigmoidal kinetics. • Michaelis - Menten Kinetics, is a general explanation of the velocity and gross mechanism of enzymecatalyzed reactions. 88. First restriction endo nuclease enzyme was(a) Hind-II (b) EcoR I (c) Hind-III (d) Bam-I TGT Biology 2011

Ans. (a) : • First restriction endonuclease enzyme was Hind-II. • Hind-II has been isolated from Haemophilus influenzae Rd strain- II by Hamilton O. Smith. It cuts DNA molecules at a particular point by recognising a specific sequence of six base pairs. • A restriction endonuclease is an enzyme isolated from bacteria that cuts DNA molecules at specific sequences. These enzymes are critical to the development of recombinant DNA (rDNA) technology and genetic engineering.

89. The bonds between the enzyme and substrate Ribonuclease is an example of : must be : (a) hydrolase (b) ligase (a) weak and long-lived(b) weak and short-lived (c) transferase (d) lyase (c) strong and long-lived(d) strong and short-lived UPPCS Pre 1994 TGT Biology 2003 Ans. (a) : Ribonuclease is an example of hydrolase. Ans. (b) : • The bonds between the enzyme and Nucleases, which belong to the class of enzymes called substrate must be weak and short-lived. hydrolases, are usually specific in action, ribonucleases acting only upon ribonucleic acids (RNA) and • The substrate binds to the enzyme by interacting with deoxyribonucleases acting only upon deoxyribonucleic amino acids in the binding site. When an enzyme binds acids (DNA). Ribonuclease (RNase) can be divided into its substrate, it forms enzyme-substrate complex. The endoribonucleases and exoribonucleases. enzyme substrate complex is only temporary. This 86. Which of the following enzymes requires a means that once the substrate has changed,it can no longer bind to the enzyme. The products are release coenzyme for its action? and the enzyme is ready for another substrate molecule. (a) Transaminase (b) Hydrolase (c) Dehydrogenase (d) Oxidase 90. The enzyme rennin acts on : UPPCS Pre 2009 (a) Cellulose (b) Amylose UPPCS Pre 2010 (c) Caseinogen (d) Lipids TGT Biology 1999 Ans. (c) : • Dehydrogenase enzyme requires coenzyme for its action. Ans. (c) : • The enzyme rennin acts on caseinogen. • A coenzyme is an organic molecule that binds to the • Rennin, also called chymosin, is a protein-digesting active sites of certain enzymes to assist in the catalysis enzyme that curdles milk by transforming caseinogen of a reaction. It enhances the action of an enzyme. into insoluble casein. It is produced in large amount, • Dehydrogenases are enzymes that catalyze reduction immediately after birth but its production gradually reactions through the transfer of hydrogen ions from the decreases, and it is replaced by a digestive enzyme called pepsin. substrate to an acceptor or co-enzyme. 85.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 91.

Cdk enzymes are used to : (a) Control cell cycle (b) Control chromosome movement (c) Accelerate mitosis (d) None of these PGT Biology 2011

Ans. (a) : • Cdk enzymes are used to control cell cycle. • Cdk (cyclin dependent kinase) are a family of multifunctional enzymes that can modify various protein substrates involved in cell cycle progression. It require the presence of cyclins to become active. The main regulatory components of cell cycle control are cyclins and Cdks. 92. Trypsin enzyme is secreted from : (a) Stomach (b) Pancreas (c) Crypts of Lieberkuhn(d) Liver PGT Biology 2005 Ans. (b) : Trypsin enzyme is secreted from pancreas. • Trypsin is a serine protease of the digestive system produced in the pancreas as an inactive precursor, trypsinogen. Trypsinogen enters the small intestine and is converted to active trypsin. It breaks down proteins in the small intestine. 93. Enzyme carbonic-anhydrase is found in : (a) Lymphocytes (b) Erythrocytes (c) Blood plasma (d) Leucocytes PGT Biology 2002 UPPCS Pre 2004 Ans. (b) : Enzyme carbonic anhydrase is found in erythrocytes. • Carbonic anhydrase enzyme works to catalyze the conversion of carbon dioxide and water to the dissociated ions of carbonic acid. It plays an important role in respiration by influencing CO2 transport in the blood.

Ans. (a) : • Alkaptonuria is a very rare inherited disorder that prevents the body fully breaking down two amino acids called tyrosine and phenylalanine. It results in a build-up of a chemical called homogentisic acid in the body. It is caused by deficiency of homogentisate 1, 2-dioxygenase enzyme, that converts homogentisic acid to maleylacetoacetatic acid. 96. The fastest known enzyme in animal body is : (a) Cytochrome oxidase (b) Succinate dehydrogenase (c) RNA polymerase (d) Carbonic anhydrase PGT Biology 2011

Ans. (d) • The fastest known enzyme in animal body is carbonic anhydrase. • Carbonic anhydrase catalyze the interconversion between carbon dioxide and water and the dissociated ions of carbonic acid. Its rate is typically limited by the diffusion rate of its substrates. CO 2 + H 2 O → H 2 CO3 → H + + HCO3−

H + + HCO3− → H 2 CO3 → CO 2 + H 2 O • Carbonic anhydrase catalyzes the above reaction. 97. Ligase enzyme is used for : (a) Splitting DNA threads (b) Joining bits of DNA (c) Denaturation of DNA (d) None of the above GIC Biology 15.09.2015 Ans. (b) : • Ligase enzyme is used for joining bits of DNA. • DNA ligase is a specific type of enzyme that promotes the joining of DNA strands together by catalyzing the formation of a phosphodiester bond between phosphate and deoxyribose. • Helicase enzyme splits DNA threads. Carbonic anhydrase • Denaturation of DNA is done by DNA polymerase CO2 + H 2 O  → H 2 CO3 (Carbonic acid) enzyme. (Carbon (Water) 98. The enzyme Pepsin digests : dioxide) (a) Protein (b) Starch 94. What is zymogen? (c) Sugar (d) Fat (a) An active enzyme LT Biology 2015 (b) Inactive precursor of proteolytic enzyme Ans. (a) : The enzyme pepsin digests protein. (c) Precursor of oxidative enzyme • Pepsin is made in the stomach that breaks down (d) An inactive enzyme proteins in food during digestion. It is secreted as Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2011 pepsinogen, which is activated by hydrochloric acid. Ans. (b) : • Zymogen is an inactive precursor of It is an endopeptidase and is one of the main digestive proteolytic enzyme. enzymes. • Zymogen is an inactive protein precursor of an 99. Tocopherol is mainly stored in : enzyme secreted by living cells and converted into an (a) adipose tissue (b) liver active form. (c) skin (d) lymphocytes It is also called proenzyme. UPPCS Pre 2010 • Trypsinogen is an example of a zymogen which is Ans. (b) : The liver stores vitamin A, D, E produced in the pancreas, and its activation occurs in (Tocopherol), vit K and B12. the small intestine to produce trypsin, its active form. After intestinal absorption and transport with chylomicrons, alpha-tocopherol is mostly transferred to 95. 'Alkaptonuria' is because of lack of enzyme : parenchymal cells of the liver were most of the fat (a) oxidase (b) alanine soluble vitamin is stored. Little vitamin E is stored in (c) urease (d) tyrosinase Delhi SSB PGT Biology 2015 the non-parenchymal cells. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 17. Harmful and Beneficial Insects 1.

Lac insect feeds on which of the host plant? (a) Butea monosperma (b) Ziziphus jujuba (c) Cajanus cajan (d) All of the above UP PGT 17/08/2021 Ans. (d) : Lac insect feeds on host plants, Butea monosperma, Ziziphus jujuba, and Cajanus cajan. Lac is the resinous secretion of a number of species of Lac insects, of which the most commonly cultivated is Kerria lacca. Lac insects feed on tender shoots of host plants. As soon as the lac larvae settle and start feeding, they start secreting lac. Lac is used in wood finish, polishes, inks, electrical insulations, cosmetics, Lubricants and more. 2. During its entire life the queen bee copulates : (a) One only (b) Twice only (c) Thrice only (d) Continuously UP PGT 17/08/2021 Ans. (a) : During its entire life the queen bee copulates only once. Honey bee shows both sexual and asexual reproduction. Diploid (2n=32) fertilized egg give rise to queen and workers and unfertilized haploid (n=16) produce males or drone. Queen is the only fertile female in beehive, having immensely developed ovaries. She lives for several successive years laying about 1,500000 eggs during her life time. The queen mates only once in her lifetime and the sperm stored in her spermatheca fertilize her eggs as long as she lives. 3. Which of the following insects is not a pest of stored grains? (a) Tribolium (b) Calandra (c) Pyrilla (d) Tenebrio RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) Ans. (c) : Pyrilla is not a pest of stored grains. It is commonly known as the sugarcane plant hopper and is a major pest of sugarcane.

⇒Tribolium is a genus of flour beetles and secondary pests of all stored grains. ⇒ Calandra (Wheat weevil) can cause significant damage to harvested stored grains. ⇒ Tenebrio is a genus of darkling beetle. It is a pest of stored food grain products, such as flour. 4. Cantharidin, an oil, is prepared from which of the following? (a) Flowers of Catharansus rosea (b) Seeds of Catharansus rosea (c) Dried elytra of bettles (d) Fish liver RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (c) : Cantharidin, an oil, is prepared form dried elytra of beetles. It is an odorless, colorless fatty substance of the terpenoid class, which is secreted by many species of blister beetles. The male blister beetle secretes and presents the Cantharid in to a femal beetle as a copulatory gift during mating. It is a vesicant with a long history in traditional medicine, used to treat warts and molluscum. Cantharidin concentrations in blister beetles can range from 1– 5% of their dry weight. 5. Cantharidin is obtained from : (a) Cochineal bug (b) Red ants (c) Blister beetle (d) Tacchardia RPSC School Lecturer 2011 Ans. (c) : Cantharidin is a poisonous (highly toxic in nature) substance secreted by blister beetles, including the 'Spanish fly'. It is found frequently in Spain. 6. Cantharidin is obtained from : (a) red ants (b) ball weevils (c) beetles (d) honey bees UPPCS Pre 2004, 2005 Ans. (c) : Lyfta is a genus of blister beetle. The drug cantharidin is prepared from its blood. Cantharidin is widely used for healthy growth of hair. In its natural form, cantharidin is secreted by the male blister beetle and given to the female as a copulatory gift during mating. Cantharidin is the active principle of defense secretions and the hemolymph of a number of beetles. 7. Malathion is a : (a) Organochlorine (b) Organophosphate (c) Carbamates (d) None of the above UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (b) : Malathion is an organophasphate insecticide which acts as an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor, It is suited for the control of house hold and garden insects and is important in the control of masquitoes, boll weevils, fruit flies and lice. It is generally prepared by combining O, O-dimethyl Phosphorothioate with diethyl maleate, Malathion in is a colourless to yellowbrown liquid with a characteristic unpleasant odour. 8. Silk gland of silkworm larva is the modification of– (a) Mandibular gland (b) Wall of pharynx (c) Labial gland (d) All of the above UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (c) : Silk gland of silkworm larva is the modification of labial gland. The mulberry silkworm, Bombyx mori has a pair of salivary glands arising from the mandibular segment in addition to the labial silk glands which are generally considered as modified salivary glands. The silk glands lie ventral to the alimentary canal. The silk glands are tubular in shape with different diameters is different regions.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 9.

Organism used in sericulture : Ans. (a) : (a) Bombyx mori Type of silk Obtain from silkworm (b) Drosophila melanogaster Tasar silk Antheraea mylitta (c) Apis mellifera Munga silk Antheraea assamensis (d) Musca domestica Mulberry silk Bombyx mori UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Eri-Eri Philosamia ricini Oak silk Antheraea pernyi Ans. (a) : Organism used in sericulture is Bombyx mori. Sericulture or silk forming is the cultivation of 14. Which of the following is Tasar Silk Worm? silkworms of produce silk. The caterpillars of the (a) Bombyx mori (b) Antheraea assamensis domestic silkmoth (Bombyx mori) are the most (c) Antheraea mylitta (d) Philosamia ricini commonly used silkworm species in sericulture. UPPCS Pre 2006 Bombyx mori is a domesticated silkworm, feeds an mulberry leaves belonging to the moraceae family. The Ans. (c) : (a) Bombyx mori produce mulberry silk. worms produce long, continuous silk filament which is (b) Antheraea assamensis produce muga silk. white or light yellow in colour. The silk has good (c) Antheraea mylitta produce Tasar silk. commercial value. (d) Philosamia ricini produce eri silk. 10. Tasar silk is generated by the silkworm : 15. From Antheraea assama is obtained : (a) Attacus atlas (b) Attacus ricini (a) Eri silk (b) Tasar silk (c) Antheraea assmensis (d) Antheraea mylitta (c) Mulberry silk (d) Munga silk UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 UPPCS Pre 1994 Ans. (d) : 'Tasar silk' is generated by the silkworm Ans. (d) : Antheraea assamensis is obtained from Antheraea mylitta. Tasar silk is also known by its Munga silk. It is found is northeast India (namely Sanskrit name 'Kosa silk'. It is produced mainly in the Assam) where 99% of its production occurs. Jharkhand state of India and is valued for its rich texture and natural deep gold color Antheraea Antheraea 16. Tasar silkworm is : mylitta is an economically important wild silkmoth (a) Antheraea mylitta (b) Antheraea assamensis species distributed across India. The insect of these (c) Bombyx mori (d) Philosamia ricini species are found mostly in the wild forests, eating off PGT Biology 2009 the trees they live on. Ans. (a) : Antheraea paphia, known as the South India 11. The silk thread is obtained from silkworm : small tussore, the tasar silkworm and vanya silkworm is (a) egg (b) moth a species of moth of the family Saturiidae found in India (c) larva (d) cocoons and Sri Lanka. The bulk of the literature on this species UPPCS Pre 1995 uses a junior synonyms, Antheraea mylitta, rather than the correct name, A. paphia. Ans. (d) : Cocoon is the white colour thread secreted by pupa. Silk yarn (thread) is obtained from the 17. Lac is secreted by : cocoon of the silk moth. The most common silk moth (a) Tachardia (b) Bombyx is the mulberry silk moth. Silk moths are reared and (c) Antherea (d) All of the above their cocoons are collected to get silk threads. The UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 process by which silk thread is separated from the cocoon is called reeling the silk. Ans. (a) : Lac is secreted by Tachardia lacca (Laccifer Lacca). Tachardia is commercially cultured lac insect. It 12. Tasar silk is obtained from : is mainly cultured in India and Bangladesh. Lac insects (a) Bombyx mori (b) Antheraea paphia belongs to the kerridae family of order-Hemiptera (c) Attacus ricini (d) All of these which secretes Lac over their bodies for protection Lac PGT Biology 2011 is the scarlet resinous secretion from insects. The Ans. (b) : Tasar silk is obtained from Antheraea secretion of Lac begins immediately after the larval paphia. It is a species of silk worm which is found in settlement in the new and tender shorts This secretion countries like china, India and Srilanka. Its caterpillar gets hardened after coming in contact with air. larvae feeds on fig, oak and plum's leaves. Its cocoons 18. The medical use of bee venom is in the are pale, brown or red coloured from which brown silks treatment of : are obtained. (a) Diarrhea 13. Tasar silk worm is : (b) Some form of Arthritis (a) Antheraea mylitta (b) Antheraea assamensis (c) All form of cancer (c) Bombyx mori (d) Philosamia ricini (d) Wounds of bones UPPCS Pre 2004 UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (b) : The medicinal use of bee venom is in the treatment is some form of arthritis. Bee venom is a colorless, acidic liquid excreted by bees through their stingers into a target. Bee venom includes several valuable medicinal substance like amino acids enzymes sugar inflammatory and anti-inflammatory compounds. For arthritis bee venom has proved to be highly effective in soothing the pain. Hence it is very popular as venom therapy or sting therapy. 19. During culture of silkworm, how many times moulting takes place ? (a) Two times (b) Three times (c) Four times (d) Five times UK SSSC L.T. (21/01/2018) Ans. (c) : During culture of silkworm, moulting takes place four times. Moulting is the process when silkworms seized feeding, becomes immobile and prepare themselves for shedding their old skin to accommodate the fast growth. The silkworm is the larvae or caterpillar stage in the life cycle of the silkworm moth. It will go through four moults before going into pupa. Each time it maults, it sheds the old skin and grows a larger one. The periods between moults are called silkworm instars. 20. The causative agent of American Foulbrood disease of honey bees is : (a) Paenibacillus (b) Bacillus cereus (c) Streptococcus photon (d) Nosema apis UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (a) : The causative agent of American foulbrood (AFB) disease of honey bee is Paenibacillus, larvae. It die at the pre-pupal or pupal stage. It is not a stress related disease and can infect the strongest to the weakest colony in an apiary. The disease begins in honey bee larvae after they swallow AFB spores with their food paenibacillus larvae is a rod-shaped bacterium, which is visible only under a high power microscope. 21. Bee-Venom is used in the treatment of : (a) Myopia (b) Malaria (c) Arthritis (d) Cholera RPSC School Lecturer (23/07/2016) Ans. (c) : Bee- venom is used in the treatment of Arthritis. Bee venom seemed to prevent arthritis with the help of hormones called glucocorticoids. These hormones help regulate inflammation. The use of bee venom, with the help of glucocorticoids might slow the progression of inflammatory arthritis. 22. Which of the following in not correctly matched? (a) Housefly – Anthrax (b) Mosquito – Encephalitis (c) Rat flea – Bubonic plague (d) Bedbug – Gonorrhea UP LT 2018 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (d) : The correct matching Housefly – Anthrax (transmitted agent) Mosquito – Encephalitis Rat flea – Bubonic Plague Gonorrhoea a sexually transmitted bacterial infection that if untreated may cause infertility. Bed bugs are insects from the genus Cimex feed on blood, usually at night. Their bites can cause skin rashes, psychological effects and allergic. 23. Zoo flagellates found in the gut of termites are : (a) parasites (b) symbionts (c) commensals (d) predators UP LT 2018 Ans. (b) : Zoo flagellates found in the gut of termites are symbionts. Symbiont is the terms used to refer to an organism living or animals. Symbiotic flagellates play a major role in the digestion of lignocellulose in the hindgut of lower termites. 24. Making of a web by the spider is an example of: (a) Fixed action pattern (b) Imprinting (c) Learned behaviour (d) Releaser UP PGT 2016 Ans. (a) Making of a web by the spider is an example of fixed action pattern. Behaviours that are controlled by genes and which are displayed without being observed or learned by other homogeneous animals is called a fixed action pattern. 25. Which of the following is involved in the metamorphosis of insects? (a) Only Juvenile hormone (b) Only ecdysone (c) Both Juvenile hormone and ecdysone (d) Pheromones UP PGT 2016 Ans. (c) Both, juvenile hormone and ecdysone are involved in the metamorphosis of insects. Metamorphosis is a biological process which involves sudden changes in the body structure of the animal by cell growth and differentiation. In complete metamorphosis there are 4 stages - egg, larva, pupa and adult. 26. Which one of the following viral strains cause bird flu? (a) H2N2 (b) H5N1 (c) H3N2 (d) H1N1 UP LT 2018 Ans. (b) : H5N1 viral strains cause bird flu. H5N1 is a subtypes of the influenza, a virus which can cause illness in humans and many other animal species. This type of flu is most often contracted by contact with sick birds. Symptoms begin within two to eight days and can seem like the common flu.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 27.

The transmission of infection caused by Loa loa is through : (a) Chrysops sp. (b) Anopheles sp. (c) Culex sp. (d) Musca domestica UP LT 2018 Ans. (a) : The transmission of infection caused by Loa loa is through Chrysops sp. The infection is called Loiasis and the organism Loa loa is known as African eye worm. It is passed on to humans through the repeated bites of deerflies (also known as mango flies or mangrove flies) of the genus chrysops. Loiasis is a filarial desease. 28. Life span of May-fly is : (a) one day (b) one month (c) one hour (d) one year Bihar PGT 2019 Ans. (a) : Life span of May-fly is one day. After the larva stage, female mayflies usually live less than 5 minutes, while males can live a whopping two days. Mayflies are aquatic insects belonging to the order Ephemeroptera because of its short lifespan, the mayfly is also called one day fly. 29. Bombyx mori feed on the leaves of : (a) Neem (b) Mulberry (c) Betel (d) Cotton UPPCS Pre 1996 Ans. (b) : Bombyx mori feed on the leaves of mulberry Plant. Commercial production of silk from silkworm is known as sericulture. Bombyx mori are herbivores. They feed specifically on white mulberry leaves, but also eat osage oranges and lettuce. 30. Lac is : (a) Carbohydrate (b) Protein (c) Resin (d) Fat UPPCS Pre 2006 Ans. (c) : Resin is the example of lac. It is the mixture of water, Resin, Dye, wax. Resinous secretion becomes hard after coming in contact with air forming cell. Carbohydrate-Glucose, fructose, galactose are example of carbohydrate. It is a mixture of CHO. Protein is a mixture of Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen & Nitrogen. Silk is the example of protein. 31. Parthenogenesis is found in : (a) moth (b) honey bee (c) butter fly (d) spider UP PGT 2000, 2004 UPPCS Pre 2006 UP PGT 2009 Ans. (b) : Parthenogenesis is found in Honeybee. Parthenogenesis has also been defined as the development of an egg which has been active by some agent other than sperm called parthenogenesis. It is found in Honey bee. It is a method in which a new individual develops without fertilization. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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In honey bee colony, the drones are produced by: (a) fertilized eggs (b) unfertilized eggs (c) larvae fed upon leaves (d) fasting larvae UPPCS Pre 1994 Ans. (b) : In honey bee colony, the drones are produced by unfertilized eggs. Drones are male honey bees which are the product of an unfertilized egg. Drones do not have stingers and do not participate in nectar and pollen gathering. A drone's primary role is to mate with a fertile queen. 33. Which one of the following is a pest of paddy : (a) Dacus (b) Calandra (c) Dysdercus (d) Leptocorisa UPPCS Pre 1994 Ans. (d) : Leptocorisa is pest of paddy. It is known as rice ear bug. It is an insect from the family alydidae. Leptocorisa is also known as 'gundhibug'. It has a slender body, around 2 cm in length, with long legs and a long proboscis. It is yellow-brown in colour. Rice bugs damage rice by sucking out the contents of developing grains from preflowering spikelets to soft dough stage, therefore causing unfilled or empty grains and discoloration. 34. Wax gland are present in worker bees in : (a) hind leg (b) abdominal sternite (c) abdominal tergite (d) mandible UPPCS Pre 1994 Ans. (b) : Wax glands are present in worker bees in abdominal sternite. Wax gland is located on sternites 4, 5, 6 and 7. Each sternites have two wax mirrors, from where the secretion of wax takes place. Worker bees, which live only around 35 days in summer, make wax from about 10th to 16th day. 35. Post-cocoon processing of the silkworm includes: (a) Thinning (b) Stifling (c) Rearing (d) Pruning UPPCS Pre 1994 PGT Biology 2002 Ans. (b) : Post-cocoon processing of the silk worm includes stifling. Process of stifling and drying retain the qualities of cocoon and raw silk. Stifling treatments are applied to silk cocoons in order to kill the pupae, preventing the emergence of moths and allowing to preserve the silk during long periods of time. 36. Of the following, which set of insects is useful to man? (a) Honey bee, locust, lac insect (b) Silk moth, honey bee, dragon fly, locust (c) lac insect, silk moth, honey bee, colchicine moth (d) Rice weevil, slik moth, honey bee, colchicine moth UPPCS Pre 2007

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (c) : Lac, a natural resin produced by the lac insect, is what shellac is made from. Besides the use as a wood finish, lac is also used in polishes, inks, electrical insulations, cosmetics, lubricants and more. Silkworm moth (Bombyx mori) has been used in silk production (sericulture) for thousand of years. The greatest value of the honey bee to man is in the pollination of flower. Another financial return is from the production of bee wax and honey. 37. Why does butterfly visit fragrant red roses? (a) Due to red colour of flower (b) Due to shape of the flower (c) Due to smell and colour of the flower (d) Due to smell of flower only UPPCS Pre 2007 Ans. (c) : Butterfly visit fragrant red roses due to smell and colour of the flower. In general, bright and fragrant roses will be most enticing to butterflies. A butterfly has a long proboscis that probes for nectar. As a butterfly climbs through a flower, it collects pollen on its legs and wings, transferring it when it flits to the next flower. 38. Lanolin wax is obtained from : (a) abdominal glands of bees (b) petroleum (c) cutaneous glands of animals (d) palmitic acid UPPCS Pre 2007 Ans. (c) : Lanolin wax is obtained from cutaneous glands of animals. Lanolin is a waxy substance derived mainly from the wool of sheep. The sheep's sebaceous glands produce this 'wool wax' to help shed water and keep the sheep dry. It is extracted by putting the wool through a centrifuge machine that separates the oil from other chemicals and debris. 39. Which of the following species of honey bee cannot be cultured domestically? (a) Apis mellifera (b) Apis dorsata (c) Apis indica (d) Apis florea UPPCS Pre 2007 Ans. (b) : All species of honey bee i.e. Apis mellifera, Apis indica and Apis florea can be cultured domestically. Apis dorsata species of honey bee cannot be cultured domestically. Apis dorsata is the wild bee. When it stings, it hurts badly. 40. Laccifer lacca belongs to the class : (a) Crustacea (b) Hexapoda (c) Arachnida (d) Diplopoda UPPCS Pre 2000 Ans. (b) : Laccifer lacca belongs to class Hexapoda. Kingdom – Animalia Phylum – Arthropoda Class – Hexapoda Order – Hemiptera Family – Lacciferidae Genus – Laccifer Species – Lacca TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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The faster the 'waggle dance' by a worker honey bee, the : (a) Farther away is the food (b) closer is the food (c) greater is the amount of food available (d) higher the food off the ground UPPCS Pre 2000 Ans. (b) : Waggle dance is a term used in beekeeping and ethology for a particular figure-eight dance of the honey bee. Austrian ethologist and nobel laureate Karl von Frisch, first translated the meaning of waggle dance. Faster the waggle dance by a worker honey bee, the closer is the food. 42. Byssinosis, a disease is caused by : (a) Lead particles (b) Cotton fibres (c) Fly-ash (d) Cement dust UPPCS Pre 2000 Ans. (b) : Byssinosis, is most common in textile industry workers. It's caused by the inhalation of raw flax, hemp, cotton, dust and similar materials. Smoking may increase the risk of developing byssinosis. It can cause symptoms like asthma or COPD. 43. Which one of the following insects takes a maximum toll of human life : (a) Rat flea (b) House fly (c) Mosquito (d) Sand fly UPPCS Pre 2000 Ans. (c) : Mosquito takes a maximum toll of human life. Malaria mosquitoes cause more than 1 million deaths per year. Mosquitoes infect humans with the Zika virus, yellow fever, dengue, malaria and other diseases. Mosquito-borne diseases are those that spread by the bite of an infected mosquito. 44. Other than spreading malaria, Anopheles mosquitoes are also a vector of : (a) Dengue (b) Filariasis (c) Encephalitis (d) Yellow fever UPPCS Pre 2000 Ans. (b) : Other than spreading malaria, anopheles mosquito is also a vector of filariasis. It is a parasitic disease caused by an infection with roundworms of the filariodidea type. Filariasis is also transmitted by Culex, aedes and mansonia. This disease belongs to the group of diseases called helminthiasis. 45. Which one of the following is a crop pest ? (a) Tachardia (b) Apis (c) Antheraea (d) Pyrilla UPPCS Pre 2008 Ans. (d) : Pyrilla is a crop pest commonly called sugarcane plant hopper, in the family Lophopidae. The pest (Pyrilla) is found gregariously on the under surface of the leaves where they suck up plant sap that causes yellowing and eventually drying of leaves. 46. Pyrilla is a pest of : (a) Paddy (b) Pulses (c) Cotton (d) Sugarcane UPPCS Pre 2009, 2010 Ans. (d) : See the explanation of the above question.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 47.

Which one of the following species of honey bees is commonly employed in bee keeping industry in India? (a) Apis dorsata (b) Apis florea (c) Apis indica (d) Apis mellifera UPPCS Pre 2008 Ans. (c) : Apis indica species of honey bee is commonly employed in bee keeping industry in India. Honey bee is a group of insects in the family Apidae and the order Hymenoptera. It is a social and polymorphic insect and live together in nest or hives in thousand numbers. There are 3 types of members found in the colony of honey bee – (I) A larged size queen bee (female) (II) About 100 male bees or drones (III) Thousands (60000) of worker bees (Sterile females). 48. Workers of honey-bee society are : (a) females without gonads (b) males without gonads (c) sterile females (d) sterile males UPPCS Pre 2003 PGT Biology 2010 Ans. (c) : Honey bee workers are generally obligatory sterile female in a bee colony headed by a queen. Workers of Honey bee society are sterile female or Atrophied female. They perform all function for the hives, like feeding the larvae and drones, grooming the queen, cleaning, producing wax, etc. 49. Fagara silk is produced from the cocoon of : (a) Antheraea mylitta (b) Samia cynthia ricini (c) Attacus atlas (d) Bombyx mori UPPCS Pre 2003 Ans. (c) : Antheraea mylitta is a species of moth in the family saturniidae known commonly as the tasar silkworm and vanya silkworm. Fagara silk is produced from the cocoon of large silk moth called Attacus atlas. They make light brown or tan cocoons of about 6 cm long. The moths are found in IndoAustralian regions like Sudan and China. 50. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer from the code given below the list : List-I List-II (a) Apis dorsata 1. Dipteran insect (b) Agrotis ipsilon 2. Hemipteran insect (c) Aleurolobus 3. Hymenopteran barodensis insect (d) Anopheles stephensi 4. lepidopteran insect Code : A B C D (a) 3 4 2 1 (b) 1 2 3 4 (c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 4 3 2 1 UPPCS Pre 2003 Ans. (a) : The correct match of List–I and List–II List–I List–II A. Apis dorsata Hymenopteran insect B. Agrotis ipsilon Lepidopteran insect C. Aleurolobus Hemipteran insect barodensis D. Anopheles stephensi Dipteran insect TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer from the code given below the list : List-I List-II (a) Levulose 1. silk (b) Resin 2. glow of firefly (c) Luciferin 3. lac (d) Fibroin 4. honey Code : A B C D (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 3 2 1 4 (c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 4 3 2 1 UPPCS Pre 2003 Ans. (d) : The correct match of List–I and List–II is a follows : List–I List–II A. Levulose Honey B. Resin Lac C. Luciferin Glow of firely D. Fibroin silk 52. In worker honeybee, wax glands are located on: (a) abdominal tergites (b) abdominal sternites (c) thorax (d) hind legs UPPCS Pre 2003 Ans. (b) : The wax gland complex of the honey bee worker consist of three cell, epithelia, oenocytes. The glandular area secreting wax lies on the ventral surface of last four visible segment of the Abdomen sternite. 53. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer from the code given below the list : List-I List-II (a) Dysdercus koenigii 1. Scale insect (b) Leptocorisa varicornis 2. Red cotton stainer (c) Bagrada 3. Gundhi bug (d) Tachardia lacca 4. Painted bug Code : A B C D (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 3 1 4 (c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 2 3 4 1 UPPCS Pre 2004 Ans. (d) The correct match List I and List II given below. List -I Dysdercus koenigii Leptocorisa varicornis Bagrada Tachardia lacca

List -II Red Cotton stainer Gundhi bug Painted bug Scale insect.

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Silk glands are modified : (a) salivary glands (b) digestive glands (c) excretory organs (d) endocrine glands UPPCS Pre 1997 Ans. (a) : Silk gland are modified of salivary gland. Silk is secretion of salivary gland silkmoth of pupa. Silkworms possess a pair of specially modified salivary glands called silk glands or secrieteries, which are used in the production of cocoons. YCT

Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 55.

Trophallaxis shown by termites is : (a) chemical communication among individuals (b) pheromone mediated mating between sexes (c) mutual exchange of food secretion among individuals (d) none of the above UPPCS Pre 2004 Ans. (c) : Trophallaxis is mutual exchange of food secretion among individuals eg. social insect Ant, Bee, and wasp. It is a nutritive fluid-exchange behavior and means of communication. Higher termites such as the termitidae consume sources of cellulose other than wood, lack flagellate endosymbionts and use anal trophallaxis for transferring chemical cues. 56. Look at the following list of diseases - Malaria, Amoebic dysentery, Dengue fever, Yellow fever, Filariasis, Cholera and Tuberculosis. The number of diseases spread by mosquito and house fly are : (a) 4-mosquito -3 house fly (b) 3-mosquito -4 house fly (c) 5-mosquito -2 house fly (d) 2-mosquito -5 house fly UPPCS Pre 2004 PGT Biology 2009 Ans. (a) : Disease spread by mosquito - (1) Malaria (2) Dengue (3) Yellow fever (4) Filariasis Disease spread by house fly (i) Amoebic dysentery (ii) Cholera (iii) Tuberculosis 57. Blind ending tubules bathed in a fluid-filled cavity, having the other end opening in to gut, are the excretory organs of : (a) crustaceans (b) platyhelminthes (c) annelids (d) insects UPPCS Pre 2004 Ans. (d) : The Blind ending tubules bathed in a fluidfilled cavity having the other end opening in to gut, are the excretory organs called malpighian tubules found in insect, eg- cockroach. The malpighian tubules are tubular structures that are free floating in the haemolymph and function as excretory and osmoregulatory organs of insects. 58. In honeybees, the drones are produced from : (a) Unfertilised eggs (b) Fertilised eggs (c) Larvae fed with royal jelly (d) Fasting larvae UPPCS Pre 1996 Ans. (a) : In colony the queen produced two type of egg. (1) Fertilized egg (2) Unfertilized egg. From two types of egg, three type member produced. 1. Queen (Fertile Female) - Fertilized egg 2. Worker (Sterile Female) - Fertilized egg 3. Drones (male) - Unfertilized egg 59. Chemical nature of silk is : (a) Protein (b) Lipid (c) Carbohydrate (d) Chitin PGT Biology 2002, UPPCS Pre 1996 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (a) : Chemical nature of silk is protein. The two protein in silk are fibroin and sericin. Silk is a production of salivary gland of pupa. Fibroin is the structural center of the silk and sericin being the sticky material surrounding it. The chemical composition of silk fibre by weight are in general 7583% of silk fibroin, 17-25% of sericin, 1.5% of wax and about 1-2% of others, such as hydrocarbon. 60. Which of the following insects has a cosmopolitan distribution : (a) Musca (b) Vespa (c) Glossina (d) Bombyx UPPCS Pre 1996 Ans. (a) : Musca domestica called housefly has a Cosmopolitan distribution. This species is always found in association with humans or the activities of humans. It is the most common species found on hog and poultry farms, horse stables and ranches. It is believed to have evolved in the cenozoic Era, possibly in the Middle East and has spread all over the world as a commensal of humans. 61. Which of the following is a social insect. (a) Kalotermes (b) Cimex (c) Bombyx (d) Mantis PGT Biology 2002 Ans. (a) Termites (Kalotermes) are social and polymorphic insects. They live in tunnels by making colonies of thousands of members. The king, queen, soldier are the pests of the working class. Silk moth (Bombyx mori) comes under the category of beneficial insect. 62. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below the list : List-I List-II A. Silkworm 1. cantharidine B. Lac insect 2. lac C. Ant 3. silk D. Blisterbeetle 4. formic acid Code : A B C D (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 3 2 4 1 (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 3 2 1 4 UPPCS Pre 1995 Ans. (b) : List-I List-II Silk worm - Silk Product Lac insect - lac Obtained Ant - Formic Acid Blister Beetle - Cantharidine 63. Termites digest cellulose with the help of : (a) Trichonympha (b) Trypsin (c) Trichocyst (d) Trichinella UPPCS Pre 1995 Ans. (a) : Trichonympha is the flagellate protozoa that live in termites gut. Digestion of Cellulose is with the help of trichonympha in termites. Both live in symbiosis relationship and obligatory for both the partner. Trichonympha secretes cellulose digesting enzymes bglucosidases which convert cellulose into glucose.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 64.

Nobel prize for deciphering the language of bees was awarded to : (a) G. Darwin (b) H.G. Khurana (c) W. Harvey (d) K.V. Frisch UPPCS Pre 1995 Ans. (d) : The worker communicate information for the location of food source through "Waggle Dance" a phenomenon called as "language of bees" by biologist karl von Frisch. The Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine 1973 was awarded jointly to Karl Von Frisch, Konrad lorenz and Nikolaas Tinbergen 'for their discoveries concerning organization and elicitation of individual and social behaviour patterns'. 65. Which one of the following silk worms is reared on Arjuna (Teminalia) arjuna tree : (a) Antheraea mylitta (b) Antheraea assama (c) Antheraea pernyi (d) Philosamia ricini UPPCS Pre 1995 Ans. (a) : Antheraea mylitta reared on Arjun tree. Antheraea assama reared on Machilus Plant. Antheraea pernyi reared on fig plant. Tasar silk is generated by the silkworm, Antheraea mylitta which mainly thrive on the food plants Asan and Arjun. 66. Pebrine is : (a) a kind of infectious disease of silkworms caused by fungi (b) an ectoparasite found on the gills of fresh water fishes. (c) an insect hormone responsible for tanning of cuticle (d) a chemical substance found in the silk gland of silk worms. UPPCS Pre 1995 Ans. (a) : This is the disease of silk worm. This disease is caused by Nosema bombycis. Pebrine is a contagious disease of the silkworm and other caterpillars produced by a microsporidian protozoan. Symptoms caused by N. bombycis infection, such as dark spots on the larval integument, were first noted by Jean Louis Armand de Quatrefages. 67. One of the following hormones disappears at the time of insect metamorphosis : (a) brain hormone (b) α - ecdysone (c) juvenile hormone (d) β-ecdysone UPPCS Pre 1995 Ans. (c) : Juvenile hormones is Secreted by Corpora allata. It control metamorphosis in insect. Juvenile hormone secretion by the corpus allatum is regulated by two neurohormones, the allatotropins that stimulate secretion and the allatostatins that inhibit synthesis. This hormone disappears at the time of insect metamorphosis. In homometabolous insects, molts between larval instars have a high level of juvenile hormone, the moult to the pupal stage has a low level of juvenile hormone and the final or imaginal molt has no juvenile hormone present at all. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

68.

Which one of the following insect does not belong to the order Lepidoptera : (a) Lac insect (b) Silk moth (c) Sugarcane borer (d) Gram pod borer UPPCS Pre 2002 Ans. (a) : Lac insect belong to the order Hemiptera. Lepidoptera is an order of insects that comprises moths and butterflies, Silk moth, sugarcane borer and gram pod borer, all belongs to the order lepidoptera. Hemiptera is an order of insects, commonly called true bugs. Lac is the scarlet resinous secretion of a number of species of lac insects. 69. Time taken in becoming adult by queen, worker and drone of Apis indica respectively is: (a) 16, 21, 24 days (b) 25, 30, 33 days (c) 10, 15, 18 days (d) 35, 40, 43 days UPPCS Pre 2002 PGT Biology 2009 Ans. (a) : 16, 21, 24, days taken by queen, worker and drone of Apis indica respectively in becoming adult. The life cycle of the honey bee begins firstly with the mating of the queen honey bee with drones (males). The development of a drone from egg to adult takes about 24 days, whereas queen and worker development is quicker. The honey bee life cycle has 4 basic stages between egg and adult bee. 70. The stage in the life-cycle of the silk moth which is useful in the procurement of silk is : (a) adult (b) larva (c) pupa (d) egg UPPCS Pre 1999 Ans. (c) : The stage in the life-cycle of the silk moth which is useful in the procurment of silk is pupa. Silk is the secretion of salivary gland of pupa. In the pupa stage, a weave is netted around by the silkworm to hold itself. After that it swings its head, spinning a fibre made of a protein and becomes a silk fibre. 71. In a honey-bee colony, drones are produced from the : (a) fertilised eggs (b) fasting larva (c) unfertilised eggs (d) larvae fed on leave Bihar PGT 2019 Ans. (c) : Honey bees are colonial and social insect with a division of labour. In a colony of honeybee, three types of member are found, queen, drone and worker. queen – Fertile female drone – Male developed from unfertilized eggs. worker – Sterile Female. 72. Which of the following products is obtained from honey bees? (a) Sealing wax (b) Candle wax (c) Shellac (d) None of the above UPPCS Pre 2010 Ans. (b) : Candle wax products is obtained from honey bees. Other products obtained from honey bees are royal jelly, honey, bee venom, propolis, pollen, candles, polish, balms and salves etc.

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Which of the following produces pearls in India? (a) Mytilus viridis (b) Ostrea indica (c) Pinctada vulgaris (d) Ostrea vulgaris UPPCS Pre 2010 Ans. (c) : Pinctada vulgaris produces pearls in India and it is the best qualities of pearls. It is a genus of saltwater oysters, marine bivalve mollusks in the family Pteriidae. It is called "Mother of pearl". Pearl is a natural defence against an irritant such as a parasite entering their shell or damage to their fragile body. 74. Pearls are produced in an oyster around the– (a) Tears of sea mermaids falling into the oyster (b) First drops of rain falling into the oyster in a particular month (c) Eggs of oyster which fail to leave the body (d) Some external particles becoming embedded in the skin of oysters TGT Biology 2002 Ans. (d) : See the explanation of the above question. 75. Pearl-producing Indian sepecies is : (a) Pinctada indica (b) Ostea indica (c) Pinctada vulgaris (d) Ostrea vulgaris PGT Biology 2005 Ans. (c) : See the explanation of the above question. 76. Pearls are obtained from : (a) Murex trunculus (b) Pinctada vulgaris (c) Brachystomia (d) Mediolaria Rajasthan PSC, PGT Biology 2015 Ans. (b) : See the explanation of the above question. 77. The fish used for control of malaria is : (a) Rohu (b) Gambusia (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these TGT Biology 2013 Ans. (b) : Gambusia fish is used for control of malaria. It is a large genus of viviparous fish in the family Poeciliidae. Gambusia are specific to consuming mosquito (Anopheles or others) larva. It's over 40 species are found in freshwater habitats, in Mexico, U.S. etc. 78. In honeybee colony, the drones are produced by (a) fertilized egges (b) unfertilized egges (c) larvae fed upon leaves (d) fasting larvae TGT Biology 2009 Ans. (b) : In honey bee colony, the drones are produced by unfertilized eggs. The worker bees are produced by fertilized eggs and queen bee is also formed from fertilized eggs. This process called as parthenogenesis. 79. Toxicity of pesticides is calculated as : (a) LP-50 (b) LD-50 (c) LA-50 (d) LR-50 PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (b) : Toxicity of pesticides is calculated as LD-50. The full name LD-50 is lethal dose - 50%. It is the amount of a material, given all at once, which causes the death of 50 % (one half) of a group of test animals. The smaller the LD-50, the more toxic the pesticide. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

80.

Sitophilus oryzae is commonly called : (a) Khapra Beetle (b) Dung beetle (c) Pulse beetle (d) Rice beetle PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (d) : Sitophilus oryzae is commonly called rice beetle. It is commonly called rice weevil in the order coleoptera and the class insecta. They are pests of stored grain, nut or seed. These insects are cosmopalitan in distribution and have originated in far east region. 81. What is apiculture? (a) Culture of aqueous animals (b) Culture of lac insect (c) Culture of honey-bee (d) Culture of Prawn TGT Biology 2005 Ans. (c) : Apiculture (or bee keeping) is the culture of honey-bee and the maintenance of bee colonies. Sericulture– Culture of the lac insect for lac. Aquaculture– Culture of aquatic organisms such as fish, crustaceans, mollusks, algae and other organisms of value such as aquatic plant. Prawnculture– Culture of prawns for food. 82. The raw lac obtained from the twig of host plant is called : (a) Shellac (b) Sheet lac (c) Button lac (d) Brood lac PGT Biology 2010 Ans. (a) : The raw lac obtained from the twig of host plant is called shellac. The lac culture is known as sericulture. Shellac is scraped from the bark of the trees where the female lac bug also known as Laccifer lacca, secretes it to form a tunnel-like tube as it traverses the branches of tree. 83. Lac is produced : (a) by the male insect only (b) by the female insect only (c) more by the female insect than by the male insect (d) more by the male insect than by the female insect PGT Biology 2010 Ans. (c) : Lac is produced more by the female insect than by the male insect. Lac is produced by lac insects i.e. resinous in nature. Harvesting of the lac is done by cutting tree branches that hold stick lac kerriidae is the family of scale insects commonly called lac scales or lac insects. The species Kerria lacca is commonly cultivated for lac. 84. Silk gland of silkmoth are modification of : (a) Collateral glands (b) Mushroom glands (c) Salivary glands (d) Anal glands PGT Biology 2005 Ans. (c) : Silk gland of silk moth or silk worm are modification of salivary glands. Silk glands is present in the larval stage of the silkworm, produce threads of silky material to form the cocoon and are mainly composed of 3 parts, each playing different roles in silk secretion. Bombyx mori is the domestic silk moth, is an insect from the moth family Bombycidae. It is the primary producer of silk which is economically important.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 85.

Silks gland are modified : (a) Salivary gland (b) Digestive gland (c) Excretory organs (d) Endocrine glands PGT Biology 2003 Ans. (a) : See the explanation of the above question. 86. The spinnerets of spiders which secrete silken threads for making the web are situated. (a) Anterior of the anus (b) In the mouth (c) In the chelicerae (d) In the pedipalps PGT Biology 2003 Ans. (a) : The spinnerets of spiders which secrete silken thread for making the web are situated at the anterior of the anus. Spinnerets are tubular or conical structures and silk is produced in liquid form at the tip. When exposed to the air the silk forms a filament and the spider draws out the silk into a thread. The silk is then used to create a web or covering for a cocoon. 87. From Antheraea assama is obtained : (a) Eri silk (b) Tasar silk (c) Mulberry silk (d) Munga silk PGT Biology 2002 Ans. (d) : Munga silk is obtained from Antheraea assama (the silk moth). It is found in the Brahmaputra valley of Assam and the foothills of East Garo hills of Meghalaya of India. The production of silk and culture is known as Sericulture. 88. Silk is obtained from : (a) Laccifer lacca (b) Nosema bombycis (c) Bombyx mori (d) None of these Bihar PGT 2019 Ans. (c) : Silk is obtained from Bombyx mori. → Silk is a natural protein fiber, some forms of which can be woven into textiles. The best-known silk is obtained from the cocoons of the larvae of the mulberry silkworm Bombyx mori. → Tasar silk is obtained from Antheraea paphia or tasar silkworm. → Eri silk is obtained from silkworm Philosamia ricini. → Muga silk is obtained from silkworm Antheraea assamensis. 89. Muga silk is obtained from cocoons of : (a) Bombyx mori (b) Antharaea paphia (c) Attacus ricinii (d) Antharaea assama Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2013 Ans. (d) : See the explanation of the above question. 90. Which pair is not correct ? (a) Apiculture- Honey bee (b) Sericulture- Silk moth (c) Pisciculture- Pearl oyster (d) Vermiculture- Earthworm Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (c) : Apiculture – Honey bee (Apis Indica) Sericulture – silk moth (Bombyx mori) Pearl Culture – Pearl oyster Vermi culture – Earth worm (Pheretima posthuma). TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

91.

Pheromones in Silk moth serve as stimulator of: (a) Sexual behaviour (b) Aggressive behaviour (c) Paternal behaviour (d) Territorial behaviour Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2013 Ans. (a) : Pheromones in silk moth serve as stimulator of sexual behaviour. In the female silkworm moths (Bombyx mori) attract male mates with the pheromone bombykol (a volatile 16 carbon alcohol). It is also called sex pheromone. In the male moth's antennae, a pheromone binding protein conveys bombykol to a membrane- bound receptor on a nerve cell. Pheromones are chemicals produced naturally by organisms that mediate communications between members of the same species. 92. The worker Honey bee performs the following type of dance before the fellow bees (in a hive) when the nectar is about 100 meters away from the hive : (a) Waggle dance (b) Circular dance (c) Straight line dance (d) Cross dance Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2013 Ans. (a) : The worker honey bee performs the 'waggle dance' before the fellow bees (in a hive) when the nectar is about 100 meter away from the hive. The waggle dance of honey bee was first observed by the Austrian scientist Karl von frisch in 1967, and for this discovery he was awarded by Nobel Prize in 1973. 93. Match List–I with List–II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the list : List–I List–II A. Dengue fever : 1. Phlebotomus B. Elephantiasis : 2. Aedes aegypti C. Kala azar : 3. Glossina D. Sleeping sickness : 4. Culex fatigans Code : A B C D A B C D (a) 2 4 3 1 (b) 2 4 1 3 (c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 1 4 3 2 LT Biology 2018 Ans. (b) : Dengue fever – Aedes aegypti Elephantiasis – Culex fatigans Kala azar – Phlebotomus Sleeping sickness– Glossina 94. Which of the following in not correctly matched ? (a) Housefly – Anthrax (b) Mosquito – Encephalitis (c) Rat flea – Bubonic plague (d) Bedbug – Gonorrhea LT Biology 2018 Ans. (d) : House fly – Anthrax (transmitted agent) Mosquito – Encephalitis Rat flea – Bubonic plague Bedbug – Skin infection Sexually transmitted – Gonorrhea bacterial disease. (Neisseria gonorrhoeae bacterium)

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 18. Ecosystem 4.

Species that maintains composition of communities is called : (a) Dominant species (b) Recessive species (c) Sympatric species (d) Keystone species UPPSC Ashram Paddhati 29/09/2021 1. Which of the following biogeochemical cycles is Ans. (d) : Species that maintains composition of a sedimentary cycle? communities is called keystone species. A keystone (a) Carbon cycle (b) Sulphur cycle species is an organism that helps define an entire (c) Nitrogen cycle (d) Hydrogen cycle ecosystem. Without its keystone species, the ecosystem GIC 19/09/2021 would be dramatically different or cease to exist all together. Such species help to maintain local Ans. (b) : Sulphur cycle is a sedimentary cycle. biodiversity within a community either by controlling ⇒ A biogeochemical cycle is the pathway by which a populations of others species or by providing critical chemical substance cycles is turned over or moves resources for a wide range of species. through the biotic and the abiotic components of earth. Biogeochemical cycle important to living organisms include the water, carbon, nitrogen, phosphorus and sulphur cycles. ⇒The sulphur cycle is a biogeochemical cycle in which the sulphur moves between rocks, water ways and living systems. Sedimentary cycle includes phosphorus, sulphur, calcium and magnesium cycle. 2. A sedimentary type of biogeochemical cycle is : (a) Carbon cycle (b) Hydrogen cycle (c) Nitrogen cycle (d) Sulphur cycle UPPCS Pre 2003 TGT Biology 2010 5. How many types of food webs are found in Ans. (d) : See the explanation of the above question. nature ? 3. "The system resulting from the integration of (a) 1 (b) 2 the all living and non-living factors of the (c) 3 (d) 4 environment" is called as : UPPSC Ashram Paddhati 29/09/2021 (a) Ecosystem (b) Succession Ans. (c) : Three types of food webs are found in (c) Ecotone (d) community nature:– TGT (2016) 31/07/2021 (i) Connectedness food web or Topological food Ans. (a) : An ecosystem is a complex of living and Web– Such food web emphasises feeding relationships nonliving organisms and their interactions. The among organisms. ecosystem is the structural and functional unit of (ii) Energy flow food Web – Here connections between ecology where the living organisms interact with each populations are quantified by the flux of energy other and the surrounding environment. In other words, between a resource and its consumer. an ecosystem is a chain of interactions between (iii) Functional food Web or Interaction food Web– organisms and their environment. It depicts how different populations influence the (A) An ecosystem is a community of both living and growth rate of other populations within the non-living entities of a particular region, that is in environment. constant interaction with each other, maintaining the 6. Which of the following has upright pyramid ? ecological balance. (a) Biomass (b) Number (B) The biotic or living entities are constituted by (c) Energy (d) All of the above humans, plants and animals while the abiotic or nonRPSC School Lecturer 2011 living entities are the rock, soil, water, air and other such related components of that region. TGT (2016) 31/07/2021

1.

Components of Ecosystem and Major Ecosystems

TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (c) : Pyramid of energy is always upright because 11. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below : when energy flows from particular trophic level to next trophic level, some energy is always lost as heat at each List-I List-II step. So, the energy in subsequent trophic level is (Animal association) (Definition) always less than the energy in the previous level. Hence pyramid of energy is always upright and can never be a. Cooperation 1. Close association in inverted. which one species benefits

7.

PGT Biology 2011

TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

2. Loose association in which both species benefit

c. Amensalism

3.Close association in which both species benefit

d. Commensalism

4. One species inhibits the growth of another species but does not feed on it

Codes : a (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 1 (d) 3

Which ecological pyramid is never inverted? (a) Biomass (b) Number (c) Energy (d) None of these

Ans. (c) : See the explanation of the above question. 8. In a food web hyenas and vultures are (a) Primary consumers (b) Predators (c) Scavengers (d) Decomposers TGT (2016) 31/07/2021 Ans. (c) : Food Web is constituted by various interlinked food chains in a community. It is also called as consumer - resource system. In food web, hyenas and vultures are scavengers. Scavengers keep an ecosystem free of the dead animals. They break down the organic matter and recycle the essential nutrients into the ecosystem. They only eat the bodies of dead animals. Hence, they play very important role in maintaining a stable ecosystem. 9. In a food web vultures act as : (a) primary consumer (b) primary producer (c) scavenger (d) decomposer UPPCS Pre 2009 Ans. (c) : In a food web vultures act as scavenger. A scavenger is an organism that mostly consumes decaying biomass, such as meat or rotting plant material. 10. Diversity of the habitats over the total landscape or geographical area is called ? (a) Alpha diversity (b) Beta diversity (c) Gamma diversity (d) None of the above UP PGT 17/08/2021 Ans. (c) : Diversity of the habitats over the total landscape or geographical area is called gamma diversity. • Alpha diversity is the species diversity present within each forest or grassland patch of the slope. • Beta diversity is represented by the species diversity between any two patches and their communities. • These terms were introduced by R.H. Whittaker.

b. Mutualism

b 3 2 3 2

c 4 3 2 4

d 1 1 4 1

UP PGT 17/08/2021 Ans. (a) : Correct match is : (a) Cooperation – Loose association in which both species benefit. Ex- Bees in a colony. (b) Mutualism – Close association in which both species benefit. Ex-Aphids and ants. (c) Amensalism – One species inhibits the growth of another species but does not feed on it. Ex- Penicillium and Bacteria. (d) Commensalism – Close association in which one species benefits. Ex-Dees and Burdock 12. The partially isolated populations are known as: (a) Clone (b) Deme (c) Hybrid (d) Niche TGT 07/08/2021 Ans. (b) : A deme is a smaller group within the population that can freely interbreed. A population is usually made of several demes that are partially isolated from each other. Mostly, a geographical barrier limits gene flow between the demes but not sufficiently to result in speciation. Enough gene flow occurs between demes ensuring that all of its members, remain the same species Example: Adivasis are a smaller group within a population of human beings. 13. Relationship between producers and consumers of different orders are called : (a) Food chain (b) Food web (c) Food cycle (d) Both (b) and (c) TGT 07/08/2021 Ans. (a) : Producers and consumers represent different trophic levels of a food chain. A food chain shows that flow of energy through organisms in an ecosystem producers and consumers are part of the chain. Producers use energy and inorganic molecules to make food. Consumers take a food by eating producers or other living things.

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The pyramid of ecosystem will be : (a) Linear (c) Irregular

numbers

in

grassland 17.

(b) Upright (d) Inverted UPPCS Pre 2004 TGT Biology 2009, UPPCS Pre 2009 GIC 19/09/2021 Ans. (b) : The pyramid of numbers in grassland ecosystem will be erect and upright. The pyramid of numbers is based on the number of producers, herbivores, carnivores, scavengers, etc, that are present at the successive trophic levels. In a grassland the number of producers (grasses) is always maximum, followed by decreasing number of organisms at second trophic level (herbivores), third trophic level (carnivores) and least number of predators at the apex.

15.

One of the global hottest hotspots of biodiversity in India is : (a) Indo-Gangetic plains (b) Thar desert (c) Western Himalaya (d) Western Ghats GIC 19/09/2021 Ans. (d) : One of the global hottest hotspots of biodiversity in India is Western Ghats. ⇒ A biodiversity hotspot is a biogeographic region with significant levels of biodiversity that is threatened by human habitation. The term, "Biodiversity hotspots" was coined by Norman Myers. ⇒ The hill ranges of the Western Ghats, extend along the west coast of India from the river Tapti in the North to the southern tip of India. 18. A species inhabiting different geographical areas is known as : (a) Biospecies (b) Allopatric species (c) Sympatric species (d) Sibling species Bihar PGT 2019 GIC 19/09/2021 Ans. (b) : A species inhabiting different geographical areas is known as Allopatric species. This speciation occurs when two groups of organisms are separated by a physical or geographic barrier. Common examples of these barriers include mountain ranges, oceans and even large rivers. Sympatric species are two related species that exist in the same geographic area, but they evolve differently until they can no longer interbreed and are considered different species. 19. The pyramid of biomass of ocean ecosystem is generally : (a) uncertain (b) upright (c) inverted (d) None of these RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) Ans. (c) : The pyramid of biomass of ocean ecosystem is generally inverted. A biomass pyramid is the representation of total living biomass or organic matter present at different trophic levels in an ecosystem. In ocean ecosystem, the producers are small organisms with least biomass, and the biomass gradually increase towards the apex of the pyramid. The biomass of fishes exceeds that of phytoplankton.

The efficiency of an ecosystem is best depicted by pyramid of : (a) Biomass (b) Energy (c) Number (d) Volume Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2013 Ans. (b) : An energy pyramid is a model which shows the flow of energy from one trophic or feeding, level to the next in an ecosystem. An energy pyramid illustrates how much energy is needed as it flows upwards to support the next trophic level. Energy pyramids are always slopping because less energy is transferred from each level than was paid into it. Thus, the efficiency of any ecosystem is best depicted by a pyramid of energy. 16. The taxa believed likely to join the endangered category in near future is : (a) Rare (b) Extinct (c) Vulnerable (d) Living fossil GIC 19/09/2021 Ans. (c) : The taxa believed likely to join the endangered category in near future is vulnerable. A taxon is vulnerable when it is not critically endangered but is facing a high risk of extinction. IUCN red list of threatened species, also called IUCN red list, classified the status of plants, animals and other organisms threatened with extinction. The categories include, Extinct (EX), Extinct in the Wild (EW), 20. Critically Endangered (CR), Endangered (EN) Vulnerable (VU), Near Threatened (NT), Least Concern (LC), Data Deficient (DD), and Not Evaluated (NE). TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Saprophytes are : (a) producers (b) primary consumers (c) secondary consumers (d) decomposers RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) YCT

Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (d) : Saprophytes are decomposers. They are organisms that live and feed on dead and decaying organisms. Saprophytes are the most important component for the soil ecology as they feed upon the dead mass, which in the process gets broken down into essential molecular elements like carbon, calcium, nitrogen etc. and becomes available in the soil for plants. They are heterotroph and grow well in aerobic condition. 21. The products of ecosystem processes are called as: (a) Gross National Product(b) Ecosystem services (c) Productivity (d) None of these RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) Ans. (b) : The products of ecosystem processes are called as ecosystem services. These are the benefits provided by the natural environment and healthy ecosystems to humans. ⇒ Major ecosystem services : (a) Air and water purification (b) Rainfall (c) Crop pollination (d) Assimilation of surplus carbon 22. Under stressful conditions many zooplankton species in lakes and ponds are known to enter in a stage of suspended development, it is called (a) Diapause (b) Homeostasis (c) Hibernation (d) Aestivation RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) Ans. (a) : Under stressful conditions, many zooplankton species in lakes and ponds are known to enter diapause, a stage of suspended development. They do so by reducing their metabolic activity and going into a state of dormancy. ⇒Hibernation is a state of minimal activity among animals during winters. ex. - Bears. ⇒Aestivation is a state of minimal activity among animals during summers. ex.– Desert lizards. ⇒ Homeostasis is the state of steady internal, physical, and chemical conditions maintained by living systems. 23. Which of the following is not an attribute of a population? (a) Members of a population usually do not interact with other population (b) At any given time it has individuals of different ages. (c) It has a sex-ratio (d) It has birth rates and death rates RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) Ans. (a) : Attributes of a population:

⇒ Members of a population usually interact with other population. It is known as population interaction. ⇒A population at any given time is composed of individuals of different ages. ⇒ Population has a sex–ratio, i.e., the ratio of males to females. ⇒ Population has birth rates and death rates. Birth rate is the number of births every year per 1000 people in a population. Death rate is the number of deaths every year per 1000 people in a population. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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The species confined to a particular area and not found anywhere else, is called : (a) Endangered species (b) Threatened species (c) Endemic species (d) Extinct species RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) Ans. (c) : The species confined to a particular area and not found anywhere else, is called endemic species. These species are more vulnerable to extinction; as a result special efforts may be required to conserve them. Kangaroos are endemic to Australia. ⇒An endangered species is very likely to become extinct in the near future. ⇒Threatened species are any species which are vulnerable to endangered in the near future. 25. Which of the following statements are true? A. Rocks are natural reservoirs of phosphorus. B. Pioneer species are those that invade bare area. C. Species diversity does not change in ecological succession. D. Trophic level of an organism can change. The correct answer is (a) A, B and D (b) A and B (c) B, C and D (d) B, and D RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) Ans. (a) : Statements (A), (B), and (D) are true. (A) Rocks are natural reservoirs of phosphorus, which is present in the form of phosphates. (B) Pioneer species invade a bare area to initiate an ecological succession. (C) Species diversity changes in ecological succession, and commonly increases with succession. (D) Trophic level of an organism can change. 26. The amount of biomass produced per unit area over a time period by plants is called : (a) primary production (b) poductivity (c) net primary productivity (d) secondary productivity RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) Ans. (a) : The amount of biomass produced per unit area over a time period by plants is called primary production. It is expressed in term of weight (g–2) or energy (K cal m–2). ⇒Net Primary Productivity (NPP) is equal to the carbon taken up through photosynthesis minus the carbon that is lost to respiration. NPP = Gross Primary Productivity (GPP) – Respiration ⇒Secondary productivity is the rate of formation of new organic matter with the help of the consumers. 27. Indian Bison or Gaur is also found in natural habitat in which of the following places? (a) Poland (b) Myanmar (c) Florida (d) Brazil RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020)

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Which one of the following ecosystem type has the highest annual net primary productivity ? (a) Tropical deciduous forest (b) Tropical rain forest (c) Temperate deciduous forest (d) Temperate evergreen forest UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (b) : Tropical rain forest has the highest annual net primary productivity. The energy which is said to be stored at the producer level in an ecosystem is called primary productivity. In terms of per unit area per year, the highest value of the net primary productivity of a forest ecosystem is highest in the tropical rain forest. Net primary productivity is the rate of storage of organic matter except which is utilized for the respiration by plants. 31. Which of the food chain is directly dependent upon solar radiations? (a) Grazing (b) Parasitic (c) Detritus (d) Both (a) and (c) UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (a) : Grazing food chain is directly dependent upon solar radiations. It is a type of food chain in which energy at the lowest trophic level is acquired via photosynthesis. The grazing food chain with producers like green plants who create their own food and later move from herbivores to carnivores. • The detritus food chain begins with dead organic materials and progresses from there. [Note :- Commission has given the answer of this question (d).] 32. What is called for the rotation of elements in the ecosystem? (a) Chemical cycle (b) Bio-Geo-chemical cycle (c) Geological cycle (d) Biological cycle UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (b) : The rotation of elements in the ecosystem is called Biogeochemical cycles. It mainly refers to the movement of nutrients and other elements between biotic and abiotic factors. Biogeochemical cycle help in 29. A zooplankton feeding on a phytoplanakton is the regulation of natural elements that are necessary for living beings. It include the water, carbon, nitrogen, called : phosphorus and sulfur cycles. (a) Primary consumer (b) Secondary producer (c) Primary producer (d) Both (a) and (b) are correct UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (d) : A zooplankton feeding on a phytoplankton is both, primary consumer and secondary producer Zooplankton is present on the second trophic level in a food chain the aquatic ecosystem. They are primary consumers as they eat Phytoplankton (Producers) Secondary production in zooplankton is growth, the rate of biomass increase per time. It reflects the net balance between metabolic gains in biomass and the integral of all metabolic losses. Ans. (b) : Indian Bison or Gaur is also found in Myanmar. It is native to South and Southeast Asia. In India, they are found in Nagarhole, Bandipur, Masinagudi National Parks and BR Hills. It is the tallest species of wild cattle found in India and largest extant bovine. It has been listed as vulnerable on the IUCN Red list since 1986. In Myanmar it is called Pyaung. 28. In a food chain, the 10% energy transfer rule was propounded by : (a) Odum (b) Elton (c) Lindeman (d) None of these UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (c) : In a food chain, the 10% energy transfer rule was propounded by Raymond Lindeman (1942). It is also called as Lindeman's trophic efficiency rule. According to this rule, the 10% of transfer of energy is transferred from one trophic level to the next successive trophic level. The amount of energy decreases as it reaches a larger trophic level. The higher trophic level receives 10% of energy that is present in lowest trophic level.

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Driving force of ecosystem is – (a) Producer (b) Carbohydrates found in plants (c) Biomass (d) Solar energy UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (d) : Driving force of ecosystem is solar energy. The energy obtained by the sun is called solar energy which is directly utilised by plants to prepare their food. The earth, its biosphere and ecosystems require continuous access to an external source of energy. The external source of energy is solar energy. The biological fixation of solar energy provides the energetic basis for almost all organisms and ecosystems.

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A species selected to represent an environmental cause and symbol for a defined habitat is called : (a) Flagship species (b) Umbrella species (c) Keystone species (d) Indicator species UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (a) : A species selected to represent an environmental cause and symbol for a defined habitat is called flagship species. They are also known as charismatic species. Panda, polar bears, turtles, tiger rhinoceros etc, are a few flagship species. • An umbrella species is certain species that has been selected for making conservation-related decisions. • Keystone species are those which have an extremely high impact on a particular ecosystem relative to its population. • An indicator species is an organism whose presence absence and abundance reflects a specific environment condition.

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The food chain which begins with the death of an organism is known as: (a) Primary food chain (b) Edaphic food chain (c) Detritus food chain (d) Grazing food chain RPSC School Lecturer (23/07/2016) Ans. (c) : Detritus food chain is the type of food chain that starts with dead organic matter. Two type of food chain are found in nature(1) Grazing food chain- The consumers starts with the food chain, utilising the plant as their food, constitute the grazing food chain (2) Detritus food chain- It starts from dead organic matter of decaying animals and plant bodies consumed by the microorganisms and then to detritus feeding organism called detritivores or decomposers and to other predators. ♦ This dead organic matter gets decomposed by microorganisms. ♦ The organisms which feed on dead organic matter are known as detritivores as well as decomposers which in turn are eaten by the predators.

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Who coined the term 'Ecosystem'? (a) Clements (b) Tansley (c) Haeckel (d) Odum UPPCS Pre 2002, 2008 TGT Biology 2009 PGT Biology 2013 RPSC School Lecturer (23/07/2016) Ans. (b) : Arthur George Tansley coined the term ecosystem in 1935 to describe the interactions between organisms and with their environment. ♦ Odum was an American biologist who worked on ecosystem ecology and wrote the book fundamentals of ecology. Frederic Edward Clements was an American plant ecologist and pioneer in the study of plant ecology and vegetation succession. Ernst Haeckel discovered and described hundreds of species, coined key terms, such as ecology and ontogeny/phylogeny and was well known for his popularized version of the 'recapitulation theory' during embryonic development of animals. 37. Globally threatened bird species is: (a) Peacock (b) Great Indian Bustard (c) Jungle Crow (d) Partridge RPSC School Lecturer (23/07/2016) Ans. (b) : Globally threatened bird species is Great Indian Bustard (Godavan). It is a large bird of the bustard family (Otididae) and one of the heaviest flying birds in the world. It inhabits dry grasslands and scrublands on the Indian subcontinent and its largest population are found in the Indian state of Rajasthan. It is protected under wildlife protection Act 1972 of India. Some species of animals in the world which have not completely disappeared but are on the verge of extinction. e.g. African elephant, vulture, black buck, Indian cheetah, crop-koko, suva, foxtail, barley etc. 38. In a food chain, the largest population is that of: (a) Producers (b) Decomposers (c) Tertiary consumers (d) Primary consumers UK SSSC L.T. (21/01/2018) Ans. (b) : In a food chain, the largest population is that of decomposers. The food chain is a linear sequence of organisms where nutrients and energy is transferred from one organism to the other. This occurs when one organism consumes another organism. Decomposers are organisms that feed on dead and decaying matter and break down complex compounds into simpler ones. It includes bacteria, fungi, and a variety of other microorganisms. ⇒ Producers (Autotrophs) take nutrients from the soil or ocean and use photosynthesis to create their food. ⇒ Consumers (Heterotrophs) are organisms that are unable to produce their food and must eat other organisms.

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The term 'ecology' was introduced by: (a) Haeckel (b) Odum (c) Tansley (d) Ramdeo Mishra UK SSSC L.T. (21/01/2018) Ans. (a) : The term 'ecology' was introduced by Ernst Haeckel. He was a German zoologist, naturalist, eugenicist, philosopher, physician, professor, marine biologist and artist. He was the follower of Charles Darwin. He used the term oekologie to mean "the relationship of the animal to both its organic and its inorganic environments. The word comes from the Greek oikos, meaning "a place to live". ⇒Ecology is the branch of biology that deals with the interrelationships amongst organisms and interaction between organisms and their environment. 40. One of the following is a correct food chain : (a) Frog → Snake → Eagle → Grasshopper → Grass (b) Eagle → Snake → Grasshopper → Frog → Eagle (c) Grasshopper → grass → Snake → Frog → Eagle (d) Grass → Grasshopper → Frog → Snake → Eagle RPSC School Lecturer 2011 Ans. (d) : Correct food chain is Grass - Grasshopper - Frog - Snake - Eagle. Grass is producer, grasshoppers are primary consumers, frogs are secondary consumers which feed on primary consumers. Snakes are the tertiary consumers which feed on secondary consumers. Eagles are the final consumers which feed on the tertiary consumers. 41. The area where two ecosystems overlap each other (a) Niche (b) Ecotype (c) Ecotone (d) Edge line RPSC School Lecturer 2011 Ans. (c) : An ecotone is a transition area between two biomes. It is where two ecosystems overlap each other, it may be narrow or wide and it may be local (the zone between a field and forest) or regional (the transition between forest and grassland ecosystems). Ecotone is of two types (i) Local - field and middle of the jungle forest. (ii) Regional ecotone - middle of the grass and forest.

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Match List -I with List -II and select the correct answer using the codes given below: List -I List - II (Threatened categories) (Representation in Red data book) a. Endangered (E) 1. White sheets b. Vulnerable (V) 2. Amber sheets c. Rare (R) 3. Green sheets d. Out of danger (O) 4. Red sheets Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d)

a 4 4 3 1

b 2 2 2 3

c 1 3 1 4

d 3 1 4 2

UP PGT 2016 Ans. (a) List -I List - II a. Endangered → Red sheets b. Vulnerable → Amber sheets c. Rare → White sheets d. Out of danger → Green sheets 43. The largest ecosystem : (a) Forest ecosystem (b) Marine ecosystem (c) Pond ecosystem (d) Grassland ecosystem Bihar PGT 2019 Ans. (b) : Largest and permanent ecosystem is marine ecosystem. An ecosystem is a geographic area where plants, animals and other organisms, as well as weather and landscape, work together to form a bubble of life. Ecosystems contain biotic or living parts as well as abiotic factors or non living parts. 44. In a biotic community, the primary consumers are: (a) Carnivores (b) Omnivores (c) Detritivores (d) Herbivores Bihar PGT 2019 Ans. (d) : In a biotic community, the primary consumers are herbivores. A primary consumer is an organism that feeds on primary producers. They are usually herbivores (Ex- Cow, goat, grasshopper, rabbit, deer etc) they feed on autotrophic plants which produce their own food through photosynthesis. 45. Assertion (A) : Inspite of all efforts, our wild life resources are getting depleted very fast. Reason (R) : Commercial interests are solely responsible for it. Select the correct answer using the Codes given below: Code : (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (d) (A) is false, but (R) is true. UPPCS Pre 2006

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (a) : In real sense, wildlife resources depleting very fast because commercial interest are responsible for it. Wild life resources are more valuable in international market therefore these reasons play role in the depletion of wild life. 46. The ultimate trophic level of any food chain is occupied by : (a) decomposers (b) consumers (c) producers (d) carnivores UPPCS Pre 2006 Ans. (d) : The ultimate trophic level in a food chain is occupied by carnivores. Carnivores occupies last trophic level in a food chain. Decomposer not occupies any trophic level in food chain. Consumers occupies 2nd trophic level in food chain. Producer : It is a green plant synthesize food in the presence of sunlight. It occupies first trophic level in the food chain. 47. Biotic potential means : (a) carrying capacity of the medium (b) capacity of individuals to migrate in and out of the population (c) growth curves of population (d) reproductive potential of individuals UPPCS Pre 2006 Ans. (d) : Biotic potential means reproductive potential of individual. Biotic potential, the maximum reproductive capacity of an organism under optimum environmental conditions. Biotic potential depends on the frequency of reproduction as well as the number of offspring produced. 48. Biological equilibrium is exhibited by the : (a) Producers (b) Consumers and producers (c) Producers and decomposer (d) Producers, consumers and decomposer UPPCS Pre 1994, 2004 Ans. (d) : Biological equilibrium is an equilibrium among producers, consumers & decomposers. All these makes a stable ecosystem by a dynamic balance. Producer are first trophic level. They produce their own food. Consumers depends on producers and other consumers for their food. They are either herbivores or carnivores. Decomposers are at the top level of ecological pyramid. They decompose the waste organic matter and release the nutrients back in the environment. 49. Edaphic factor relates to : (a) soil (b) humidity of air (c) effect of light on metabolism (d) effect of cold, and heat UPPCS Pre 1994 Ans. (a) : Edaphic factor an abiotic factor relating to the physical or chemical composition of the soil found in a particular area. For example, very alkaline soil may be an edaphic factor limiting the variety of plants growing in a region. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Energy flow through food-chain is always: (a) Cyclic (b) Non-cyclic (c) Semi-cyclic (d) None of the above UPPCS Pre 1994 Ans. (b) : The flow of energy in the ecosystem is unidirectional. The energy enters the plants (from the sun) through photosynthesis during the making of food. This energy is then passed on from one organism to another in a food chain. This makes the flow of energy in ecosystem 'unidirectional'. It means it is non cyclic.

51.

Temperature changes in the environment, affect most of the animals which are : (a) Aquatic (b) Desert living (c) Poikilothermic (d) Homoiothermic Bihar PGT 2019

Ans. (c) : • Temperature changes in the environment affect most of the animals which are poikilothermic. • An animal that varies its internal body temperature within a wide range of temperatures, usually as a result of variation in the environmental temperature, is known as poikilothermic animal. • An animal that maintains a constant internal body temperature, usually within a narrow range of temperatures is known as homeothermic animal. 52. Eutrophication refers to : (a) High production in an aquatic ecosystem (b) Low production in a terrestrial ecosystem (c) Stable production in a terrestrial ecosystem (d) Low production in an aquatic ecosystem TGT Biology 2005 Ans. (a) : Eutrophication refers to high production in an aquatic ecosystem. It is the gradual increase in the concentration of phosphorus, nitrogen and other plant nutrients in an aging aquatic ecosystem such as a lake. 53. The natural cycle that circulates elements between the earth and environment is called : (a) Nitrogen cycle (b) Biological cycle (c) Biogeochemical cycle(d) Chemical cycle UPPCS Pre 1997

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (c) : Biogeochemical cycle is circular path which bring about chemical element from environment to earth and back to environment. The recycling of nutrients helps in maintaining the nutrients in the available form for the uptake by the organisms. 54. Which plants constitute a major part of Antarctic ecosystem? (a) Shrubs (b) Mosses (c) Grasses (d) Lichens UPPCS Pre 2007 Ans. (d) : In tundra regions like Antarctica, tree growth is hindered by low temperatures and short growing seasons. • Mosses, sedges and lichens are common types of vegetation of Antarctica, in which major participant is Lichens. • Lichens are well known as sensitive indicators of air pollution, particularly for sulfur dioxide. • Mosses are non-vascular plants (not transporting water and minerals within) and produce spores for reproduction. 55. In a water body, large active swimmers are called. (a) neuston (b) plankton (c) pleuston (d) nekton UPPCS Pre 2007 Ans. (d) : Nektonic animals are swimmers and are found in all aquatic system except for fastest moving rivers. In order to overcome currents, these animals are relatively large and powerful, they range in size from the swimming insects of quiet water. The water surface of lake or pond contains certains free-floating hydrophytes, such as wolffia, Lemna, Azolla, Pistia etc. 56. Science which links heredity with environment is: (a) Genetics (b) Gene ecology (c) Ecology (d) Ecophysiology UPPCS Pre 2002 Ans. (b) : Science which links heredity with environment is called gene ecology. Gene ecology is the branch of science which deals with the interaction of the genes or the genetic material with the environment. The genetic material is responsible for the inheritance of the character in a population. The gene expression pattern and the proteins which are produced in different ecosystems are studied under this branch. 57. The energy sources for omnivores are : (a) Primary producers and primary consumers (b) Primary consumers and secondary consumers (c) Primary producers and consumers, carnivorous (d) Primary producers, carnivorous and decomposers UPPCS Pre 2000 Ans. (c) : The energy sources of omnivores are primary producer and consumers, carnivorous. The variety of different animals that classified as omnivores can be placed into categories depending on their feeding behaviors. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Consider the following statements : Assertion (A) : biotic balance of Nature supports life by means of cyclic use of the same materials. Reason (R) : The heterotrophs and autotrophs available on the surface of the earth make it possible. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: Codes : (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (b) (A) and (R) both are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A). (c) (A) is true but (R) is flase. (d) (A) is flase but (R) is true. PGT Biology 2002 UPPCS Pre 2004 UPPCS Pre 2007 Ans. (a) : The balanced ecosystem will help in maintaining the flow of materials as well as energy. Moreover, the balance in an ecosystem is because every existing element depends on each other. For instance, any waste is consumed by animals who are then consumed by humans and so forth. It consists of animals, plants, micro-organisms and more which depend on each other and their surroundings. So, Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). 59. Arrange the following ecosystem in terms of their increasing primary productivity : 1. Grassland 2. Ocean 3. Desert 4. Tropical rain forest Select the correct answer using the code given below : Code : A B C D (a) 3 2 1 4 (b) 1 2 3 4 (c) 3 1 2 4 (d) 4 1 2 3 UPPCS Pre 2000 Ans. (c) : Increasing primary productivity. Desert < Grassland < Ocean < Tropical rain forest 60. In a community the interconnection of several chains carrying food energy of all living beings is known as : (a) Food chain (b) Food web (c) Food energy (d) Eutrophication UPPCS Pre 2008 Ans. (b) : In a community the interconnection of several chains carrying food energy of all living beings is known as food web. A food web is the natural interconnection of food chains and a graphical representation of what-eats-what in an ecological community. Food web of an entire community establishes relationships among all living beings. The flow of energy in the food web is unidirection, despite it flows through many paths.

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In which of the following ecosystem, the 64. Complete eutrophication of a lake renders : pyramid of biomass becomes inverted? (a) nutrient rich and productive (a) Grassland (b) Forest (b) nutrient poor and unproductive (c) Desert (d) Pond (c) nutrient rich but unproductive UPPCS Pre 2008 (d) nutrient poor but productive Ans. (d) : In the pond ecosystem, the pyramid of UPPCS Pre 1997 biomass become inverted. TGT Biology 2005 A pyramid of biomass is a graphical representation of Ans. (a) : Due to addition of domestic waste, total biomass present in a unit area of various trophic phosphate, nitrate etc. and decomposition of waste levels. It shows the flow of energy from producers to consumers. In the desert ecosystem the conditions are product in water body makes water body highly unfavorable for photosynthesis so only a few xerophytic productive and nutrient rich that is known as plants can grow which farms the produces there after eutrophication. Eutrophication cause high number of individuals in each trophic level keeps on biochemical oxygen demand (BOD). increasing. 65. Where an organism lives and what it does determines its : (a) niche (b) locality (c) sere (d) biotic potential UPPCS Pre 1997 Ans. (a) : The role or function of an organism in ecosystem. The interrelationship of a species with all the biotic and abiotic factors affecting it. Niche term was first used by Grinnell.

66. The environment of an organism includes : Consider the following statements : (a) atmosphere and hydrosphere Assertion (A) : A depleted prey base may well (b) hydrosphere and lithosphere spell doom for the tigers in protected areas and reserves. (c) atmosphere, hydrosphere, lithosphere and Reason (R) : Mismanagement of grasslands and biosphere excessive hunting of herbivores may result in (d) atmosphere and biosphere decline of tiger population. UPPCS Pre 2001 Select the correct answer using the codes given Ans. (c) : The environment of an organism includes below : atmosphere, hydrosphere, lithosphere and biosphere. A Code : (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct hydrosphere is the total amount of water on a planet. The hydrosphere includes water storage areas such as explanation of A. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct oceans, seas, lakes, ponds, rivers and streams. The lithosphere includes the brittle upper portion of explanation of A. the mantle and the crust, the outermost layers of Earth (c) A is true but R is false structure. (d) A is false but R is true UPPCS Pre 2003 Ans. (d) (A) A depleted prey base may well spell doom for the tiger in protected area and reserves is false. (R) Mismanagement of grassland and excessive hunting of herbivores may result in decline of tiger population is true. 63. Littoral form of animals are found : (a) in fresh water (b) in sea water near the shore (c) in deep sea (d) at the bottom of the sea UPPCS Pre 1997 Ans. (b) : Littoral form are animal found in sea water near the shore called epilimnion. Animals living in depth of the oceanic water are Abyssal. A sedentary life on the Sea-bottom are benthic.Animals living in flowing water in river are called lotic. 62.

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Primary consumers are : (a) Omnivorous (b) Carnivorous (c) Herbivorous (d) All the above UPPCS Pre 2001, 2004 Ans. (c) : Primary consumer are herbivorous that include the foliage. Primary consumers make up the second trophic level. They are also called herbivores. They eat primary producers plants or algae and nothing else. For example, a grasshopper, goat, rabbit etc. 68. Pelagic forms of animals are found : (a) On the surface of the sea floating the wave (b) In deep sea (c) In the soil (d) As parasites of mammals UPPCS Pre 1996 Ans. (a) : Pelagic form of animal are found on the surface of the sea floating. Pelagic birds, also called oceanic birds or seabirds, live on open seas and oceans rather than inland or around more restricted water such as rivers and lakes. These include cetaceans, sea turtles and large fishes. The most abundant animals in a pelagic zone are zooplankton and also found planktonic crustaceans, squid and forage fish. 69. Commensalism is a term which characterises : (a) Living together of two or more different kinds of animals. (b) Organismal relationship between two or more different animals. (c) A group of two or more different animals which can not exist without the help of one another. (d) The association between two or more different animals where one may sometimes be harmful to the other. UPPCS Pre 1996 Ans. (b) : Commensalism is a type of relationship between two living organisms in which one organism benefits from the other without harming it. A commensal species benefits from another species by obtaining location, shelter, food or support from the host species, which neither benefits nor is harmed. e.g.- cattle egrets. 70. The transfer of food-energy from plants through herbivores to carnivores is called : (a) Ecosystem (b) Ecological niche (c) Biotic succession (d) Food chain UPPCS Pre 1996 Ans. (d) : Transfer of food energy from plant to herbivorous to carnivorous called food chain. The term ecosystem was proposed by a British ecologist A.G. Tansley 1935. 71. Abyssal form of animals are found in : (a) Deep sea (b) Dark area of the sea (c) The area of the sea where the water is quiet and almost still. (d) The sea where all the above ecological conditions exist. UPPCS Pre 1996 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (a) : Abyssal form of animals are found in depth of Sea. There are no plants that live on an abyssal zone. This is because plants require sunlight and photosynthesis to survive. Abyssal zones range in depth between 3000 and 6000 meters below the surface of the ocean, but the light only penetrates the upper 200 meters of the ocean. The life that is found in the Abyssal zone includes chemosynthetic bacteria, tubeworms and small fish that are dark in color or transparent. 72. Animals which live at the bottom of the sea are called : (a) lentic (b) benthic (c) lotic (d) pelagic TGT Biology 2004 UPPCS Pre 2010 Ans. (b) : Animals which live at the bottom of the sea are called benthic. Ex- Clams, oysters Pelagic zone is an ecological realm that includes the entire ocean water column. Ex- Yellowfin tuna Lentic (slow or motion less) refers to standing waters such as ponds and lakes, swamps and marshes. Ex- Worms, snails Lotic (washing, running) refers to running water habitats. Ex-Snake, turtle, alligators 73. Which one of the following shows intimate heterogenetic association : (a) Commensalism (b) Parasitism (c) Predation (d) Amensalism UPPCS Pre 1996 Ans. (d) : Amensalism indicate by one species get loss and other species neither take loss nor gain. Amensalism is a best example of heterogenetic association. 74. One species inhibits the growth of another species but does not feed on it. This is called ? (a) Commensalism (b) Mutualism (c) Cooperation (d) Amensalism UP PGT 17/08/2021 Ans. (d) : One species inhibits the growth of another species but does not feed on it. This is called Amensalism. It is an association between organisms of two different species in which one is inhibited or destroyed and the other is unaffected. Its example is antibiosis, in which one organism is unaffected but the other is killed by a chemical secretion. Commensalism is an association between two organisms in which one benefits and the other derives neither benefit nor harm. 75. The phenomenon in which one species inhibits the growth of another species is called : (a) Commensalism (b) Amensalism (c) Predation (d) Parasitism UPPCS Pre 2000

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (b) : Amensalism is the phenomenon in which one species inhibits the growth of another species. Amensalism is an interaction between two living individuals or populations of different species in which one organism or population does not allow, other organism or population to grow or live near it. Inhibition is achieved through the secretion of chemicals called allochemicals. E.g. the roots and hulls of black walnut (Juglans nigra), produce a chemical called juglone. It is toxic to apple, tomato and alfa-alfa. 76. An association between two different organisms in which one is benefited while the other is neither benefited nor harmed is called : (a) Mutualism (b) Commensalism (c) Proto-cooperation (d) Amensalism UPPCS Pre 1994 Ans. (b) : A relationship in which one species benefits while the other is neither helped nor harmed to any significant called Commensalism. For example epiphytes, Lianas etc. 77. Approximately what amount of energy is available to one trophic level from its predecessor : (a) 1% (b) 10% (c) 20% (d) 30% UPPCS Pre 2002 Ans. (b) : The amount of energy is 10% available to one trophic level from its predecessor. This idea was given by Lindemann. 10 percent Law introduced by Lindemann states that only 10% of energy is transferred from one trophic level to another and 90% of the energy is lost during transfer, respiration and digestion process. 78. Study of communities in relation to their environment is known as : (a) Synecology (b) Ethology (c) Autoecology (d) Pedoecology UPPCS Pre 2002 Ans. (a) : Study of communities in relation to their environment is known as synecology. The study of individual species in relation to its environment is known as Autoecology. Pedoecology is branch of science which deals with the study of soil. 79. Which one of the following interactions will not promote coevolution : (a) parasitism (b) mutualism (c) interspecific competition (d) commensalism UPPCS Pre 1999 Ans. (d) : Parasitism is the association that will promote coevolution because one species is killed and other is benefited. Parasitism indicated by (+ –) In mutualism both species are benefited indicated by (++). Commensalism is the relationship between two species that is beneficial to one, but neutral or of no benefit to the other. Example- Orchid growing on branches of tree branches. Commensalism will not promote co-evolution. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

80.

The two communities belonging to two different species share the same food and space and members of one may fight and kill the members of the other but not eat them. The association between them is called : (a) predation (b) parasitism (c) commensalism (d) competition UPPCS Pre 1999 Ans. (d) : The two communities belonging to two different species share the same food and space and members of one may fight and kill the members of the other but not eat. This type of association is called competition. Competition are two types–(1) Inter specific competition, (2) Intraspecific competition. 81. The atmosphere of earth at the time of origin of life was : (a) neutral (b) oxidising (c) reducing (d) reducing and oxidising UPPCS Pre 1999 Ans. (c) : The atmosphere of earth at the time of origin of life was without free oxygen atoms. So the primitive atmosphere chiefly consisting of CH4, NH3, H2. The primitive atmosphere was reducing. The present atmosphere is an oxidizing atmosphere. 82. Primary producers are : (a) autotroph (b) herbivorous (c) phytophagous (d) both (b) and (c) UPPCS Pre 2009 Ans. (a) : Primary producers are autotroph. Green plants are productive because they synthesize food in the presence of sunlight. Herbivores take producers as their food. 83. The biodiversity is lowest in the : (a) desert (b) tundra (c) rain forest (d) grass land UPPCS Pre 2010 Ans. (b) : The biodiversity is lowest in the tundra. The biodiversity of tundra is very low-1700 species of vascular plants and only 48 species of land mammals. Biodiversity is the variety of life found in a place on Earth or often the total variety of life on Earth. 84. They are aquatic micro-organisms having little or no power of locomotion and move in the water at the mercy of water movements : (a) Nekton (b) Pleuston (c) Plankton (d) Seston UPPCS Pre 2010 Ans. (c) : Plankton are aquatic micro-organisms having little or no power of locomotion and move in the water at the mercy of water movements. There are two main types of plankton, phytoplankton and zooplankton. 85. The primary source of energy in an ecosystem is: (a) Sunlight (b) Glucose (c) Protein (d) A.T.P.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (a) : The primary source of energy in an ecosystem is sunlight. Photoautotrophs use this solar energy to prepare food. All other organisms depend on autotrophs for their food directly and indirectly. 86. Trophic levels in a food chain show(a) Functional level (b) Energy level (c) niche (d) Role of a species TGT Biology 2011 Ans. (b) : Trophic levels in a food chain show energy level. In ecology, food chain is the sequence of transfer of matter and energy in the form of food from organism to organism. The trophic level of an organism is the number of steps it is from the start of the chain. 87. Tip of an ecological pyramid shows : (a) producers (b) herbivores (c) carnivores (d) none of the above PGT Biology 2013

Ans. (c) : Tip of an ecological pyramid shows carnivores because they eats primary, secondary and tertiary level organisms Producers → Primary consumer → Secondary Consumer → Tertiary Consumer → Carnivores (Top consumers) or

88.

Relationship in an ecosystem can be depicted through : (a) Pyramid of energy (b) Pyramid of biomass (c) Pyramid of number (d) all of the above PGT Biology 2013 Ans. (d) : Relationship in an ecosystem can be depicted through pyramid of energy, pyramid of biomass and pyramid of number. The graphical representation of the relationship between various living beings at various trophic levels within a food chain is called an ecological pyramid. The hypothesis of pyramid was given by Charles Elton (1927). 89. The sphere of living matter found on the surface of earth comprises : (a) lithosphere (b) hydrosphere (c) atmosphere (d) Biosphere PGT Biology 2013

Ans. (d) : Biosphere is a biotic component of the Earth in which the lithosphere, hydrosphere and the atmosphere is found. The sphere in which living matter found on the surface of earth comprises Biosphere. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

90.

A high density of protected animals in a national park can result in : (a) Emigration (b) Predation (c) Mutualism (d) Intraspecific competition PGT Biology 2009 Ans. (d) : A high density of protected animals in a National Park can result in intraspecific competition. Competition may be intraspecific or interspecific. Intraspecific competition occurs when two or more individuals of the same species simultaneously demand use of a limited resources i.e. food, shelter or mate (Wilson, 1975). 91. Green plants form : (a) first trophic level (b) second trophic level (c) Third trophic level (d) complete food chain PGT Biology 2009 Ans. (a) : Green plants form first trophic level. In an ecosystem different trophic levels are found in between the animal and plants. 1. First trophic level – It includes primary producers e.g. – green plants, grasses etc. 2. Second trophic level – It includes herbivores. e.g. – Cow, goat, deer etc. 3. Tertiary trophic level – It includes carnivores. These are carnivorous predators. 4. Quaternary trophic level – It also includes carnivores. 5. Fifth trophic level – It includes higher or apex predators carnivorous animals. 92. Trophic levels are formed by : (a) only plants (b) only animals (c) only carnivores (d) organisms linked in food chain PGT Biology 2009 Ans. (d) : Trophic levels are formed by organisms linked in food chain. Trophic levels involve all the plants and animals including the producers, consumers and the decomposers present in an ecosystem. Trophic levels are the position of an organism in a food web. It consists of all the organisms that are found in a food chain. 93. Which one is the sequence of ecosystem ? (a) Decomposers → Consumers → Producers (b) Producers → Consumers → Decomposers (c) Producers → Decomposers → Consumers (d) Consumers → Producers → Decomposers PGT Biology 2005 Ans. (b) : The correct sequence of an ecosystem. Producers → Consumers → Decomposers. Producer is a living thing that makes its own food from sunlight, air and soil. Consumer gets their energy by eating food. Decomposer–The micro-organisms that decompose/ deconvert the dead remains of plant and animals to humus are called decomposers.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 94.

Lithosphere includes the : Ans. (a) : Molybdenum plays an important role in biological nitrogen fixation. It is required as a trace or (a) Solid earth crust (b) Solar energy little amount in plants. (c) Cave animals (d) Water body PGT Biology 2005 special functions of Molybdenum :– Ans. (a) : The lithosphere is the outer solid shell of the (I) Activate a catalyst called nitrate reductase in the Earth. It includes solid earth crust and mountaineous process of nitrogen metabolism. (II) It controls amino acid concentration. substances. Earth mainly consists of four layers namely crust, (III) It helps in the synthesis of ascorbic acid (vitamin C). mantle, outer core and inner core. Lithosphere is the 98. Study of animal in relation to its environment rigid outer layer of the earth which includes crust and is known as : uppermost mantle. (a) Autecology (b) Synecology (c) Population ecology (d) Resource ecology TGT Biology 2005 Ans. (a) : Autecology is the study of the interactions of an individual organism or a single species with the living and non-living factors of its environment. It deals with easily measured variables such as light, humidity and available nutrients, to understand the needs, life history and behaviour of the organism or species. 99.

95.

The most limiting factor for the growth of algae on the surface of water in a fresh-water ecosystem is : (a) Carbon dioxide (b) Water (c) Nitrogen (d) Sunlight PGT Biology 2005 Ans. (c) : The most limiting factor for the growth of algae on the surface of water in a fresh water ecosystem is nitrogen. In aquatic ecosystem, sunlight does not reach to the surface, due to which algae can not make their food. Generally, phosphorus is the limiting nutrient in freshwater systems and nitrogen in marine systems. 96. The total energy fixed by a green plant of an Ecosystem on the whole is called : (a) Primary production (b) Secondary production (c) Net primary production (d) Gross primary production PGT Biology 2003 Ans. (d) : The total energy fixed by a green plant of an Ecosystem on the whole is called Gross primary production (GPP). Net primary production (NPP) is strictly defined as the difference between the energy fixed by autotrophs and their respiration. NPP = GPP-R, GPP = NPP + R, R = GPP- NPP 97. Which one of following elements plays an important role in biological nitrogen fixation ? (a) Molybdenum (b) Manganese (c) Copper (d) Zinc TGT Biology 2005 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Allopatric speciation is due to : (a) Interplay of geographical isolation and reproductive isolation (b) Geographical isolation (c) Isolation (d) Reproductive TGT Biology 2005 Ans. (b) : Allopatric speciation is due to geographical isolation. Allopatric speciation is a type of speciation that takes place when two populations of the same species become isolated from each other due to geographic changes. Speciation is a gradual process by which populations evolves to different species. 100. Abiotic component in an ecosystem is : (a) water (b) daphnia (c) bacteria (d) chlorella TGT Biology 2004 Ans. (a) : Abiotic components (i) Inorganic substances (a) Water (b) Salts- Ca, K, Mg, P, N, S (c) Gases O2, N2, CO2, H2, NH3 (ii) Organic Substances (a) Proteins (b) Carbohydrates (c) Lipids (d) Urea and Humus (iii) Physical (a) Light (b) Temperature (c) Wind

422

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 101. Synecology is the study of : (a) Community in relation to environment (b) Individuals (c) Environment (d) Water TGT Biology 2005 Ans. (a) : Synecology is the study of community in relation to environment. Synecology is a branch of ecology that deals with the structure, development and distribution of ecological communities. 102. The importance of Ecosystem is in : (a) Cycling of some elements and gases (b) Flow of energy (c) Both (d) None TGT Biology 2002 Ans. (c) : The importance of Ecosystem is in cycling of some elements and gases and flow of energy. Abiotic components (I) Inorganic substances (a) Water (b) Salts – Ca, K, P, Mg, N, S (c) Gases – O2, N2, CO2, H2, NH3 (II) Organic substances (a) Protein (b) Carbohydrates (c) Lipids (d) Urea and Humus (III) Physical (a) Light (b) Air (c) Temperature (d) Electricity 103. A habitat that is in perfect balance with the species occupying, it is called : (a) Biosphere (b) Biome (c) Niche (d) Zone TGT Biology 1999 Ans. (c) : A habitat that is in perfect balance with species occupying, is called niche. In ecology, niche, all of the interactions of a species with the other members of its community including parasitism, competition, predation and mutualism. According to Odum - niche is a micro habitat in which only one species or subspecies inhabits. 104. An ecological study undertaken in rain forest of North-Eastern India is : (a) Biological (b) Autecological (c) Synecological (d) Statistical TGT Biology 1999 Ans. (c) : An ecological study undertaken in rain forest of North-Eastern India is synecological. Synecology is the interactions of groups of organisms or species within a community. Synecology is the study of biotic community, Which describes the biotic community as a whole, especially the links between organisms. 105. Trophic levels in food chain are formed by : (a) producers (b) consumers (c) decomposers (d) all of the above

Ans. (d) : Trophic level is any step in nutritive series or food chain of an ecosystem. Organism are classified into levels on the basis of their feeding behaviour in the trophic level. They are formed by producers, consumers and decomposers. 106. Who coined the term ‘Ecosystem’ ? (b) Tansley (a) Clements (c) Haeckel (d) Odum Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2015 Ans. (b) : The term Ecosystem was given by A.G. Tansley in 1935. The ecosystem is the structural and functional unit of ecology where the living organisms interact with each other and the surrounding environment. 107. The phytoplanktons in the ponds act as : (a) Producers (b) Primary consumers (c) Secondary consumers (d) Decomposers Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2013 Ans. (a) : The phytoplanktons in the ponds act as producers. Small fishes are primary consumers and large fishes act as secondary consumers. Phytoplankton are the autotrophic components of the plankton community and a key part of ocean and freshwater ecosystems. e.g.- Diatoms, green algae, cyanobacteria etc. 108. Which of the following is a correct sequence of food Chain ? (a) Insect→Fish→Zooplankton→ Phytoplankton (b) Fish→Zooplankton→Phytoplankton→Insect (c) Zooplankton→Phytoplankton→Fish→Insect (d) Phytoplankton→Zooplankton→Insect→ Fish Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2013 GIC Biology 15/09/2015 Ans. (d) : Phytoplankton→ Zooplankton → Insect → Fish This is the correct sequence of the food chain of a pond in which phytoplankton (Producer) → Zooplankton (Primary consumer) → Insect (Secondary consumer) → Fish (Tertiary consumer).

109. In a grassland ecosystem, rabbit acts as : (a) Decomposer (b) Primary consumer (c) Secondary consumer (d) Producer Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2013 PGT Biology 2013

TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (b) : In a grassland ecosystem green plants and 114. Which of the following is true for an ecosystem ? grass are producers and rabbit is primary consumer and (a) Both flow of energy and cycling of minerals fox is secondary consumer and lion is tertiary consumer (b) Only flow of energy or top carnivores. (c) Only cycling of mineral 110. Which of the following biogeochemical cycle is (d) None of the above of sedimentary type ? GIC Biology 15.09.2015 (a) Carbon (b) Nitrogen Ans. (a) : Both flow of energy and cycling of minerals (c) Oxygen (d) Phosphorus is true for an ecosystem. The flow of energy in the Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2013 ecosystem is unidirectional. Energy flows from one Ans. (d) : Phosphorus cycle is biogeochemical cycle is trophic level to the next trophic level in a food chain, a sedimentary type. Plants take phosphorus in the form similarly minerals moves from one place to another of orthophosphate. It gets mixed in the soil by erosion place through living and non-living part of ecosystem. or weathering. After the death of all the living beings, their body is decomposed by the micro-organisms in 115. Which of the following is the most stable ecosystem? which the cycling continues. (a) Mountain (b) Desert 111. One of the following is a correct food chain : (c) Forest (d) Ocean (a) Frog→Snake→Eagle→Grasshopper→ Grass GIC Biology 15.09.2015 (b) Eagle→ Snake→ Grasshopper→ Grass→ Frog (c) Grasshopper→ Grass→ Snake→ Frog→ Eagle Ans. (d) : Ocean is the most stable ecosystem. It always (d) Grass→ Grasshopper→ Frog→ Snake→ Eagle exists. The two types of components in an ecosystem or ingredients are found. Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2011 (a) Abiotic component (b) Biotic component Ans. (d) : Grass → Grasshopper → Frog → Snake → 116. One of the region above earth surface in which Eagle living organisms are found in addition to air, Predatory food chain moves from the food chain to water and soil is called : larger animals. (a) Lithosphere (b) Hydrosphere Grass is the primary producer eaten by grasshoppers, (c) Biosphere (d) Atmosphere grasshoppers is eaten by Frog; frog is eaten by snake and the snake is eaten by eagle which is a top GIC Biology 15.09.2015 carnivores. Ans. (c) : One of the region above earth surface in In this, grass (producers) → Grasshopper (Primary which living organisms are found in addition to air, Consumer) → Frog (Secondary consumer) → Snake water and soil is called biosphere. (Tertiary consumer) → Eagle (Top carnivores) The biosphere extends from the deepest root systems of 112. The relationship between shark and pilot fish trees, to the dark environments of ocean trenches, to lush (Naucrates) is : rain forests, high mountain and transition zones like this one, where ocean and terrestrial ecosystems meet. (a) Commensalism (b) Symbiosis (c) Mutualism (d) Parasitism 117. Energy pyramid in a terrestrial ecosystem is : Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2011 (a) Inverted (b) Upright (c) Parallel (d) None of the above Ans. (a) : The relationship between shark and pilot fish (Naucrates) is commensalism. GIC Biology 14.06.2015 In biology, commensalism is a relationship between Ans. (b) : The total dry weight of living organisms per individuals of two species in which one species obtains unit area in an ecosystem is called its biomass. In food or other benefits from the other without either terrestrial ecosystem biomass of producers is greater than harming or benefiting latter. the consumer of each level of the food chain. Therefore, 113. The branch of ecology that deals with the in terrestrial ecosystem upright pyramid is formed. biological relationship between an individual organism or an individual species and its 118. All energy of earth is provided by : (a) Sulphur bacteria (b) Sun environment: (c) Primary producers (d) Photosynthesis (a) Autoecology (b) Synecology UPPCS Pre 2005 (c) Phytogeography (d) None of the above Jharkhand Daite PGT Biology 2014 Ans. (b) : All energy of earth is provided by Sun. Plants get the light energy from the sun. Plants make Ans. (a) : The branch of ecology that deals with the their own food by performing photosynthesis in the biological relationship between an individual presence of sunlight with the help of carbon dioxide organism or an individual species and its environment and water. is autoecology. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 119. What is carrying capacity ? 122. What average percentage of radiate energy does an active producer store by means of (a) Minimum number of individuals that can photosynthesis : sustain in a particular environment (a) 0.1 (b) 1.0 (b) Maximum number of individuals that can sustain in a particular environment (c) 10 (d) 20 (c) Both (a) and (b) UPPCS Pre 2002 (d) None of the above Ans. (a) : About 34% of the sunlight is reflected back LT Biology 2018 into the atmosphere and rest 56% reaches earth atmosphere. Only 0.1% of sunlight is used in Ans. (b) : Carrying capacity a particular environment photosynthesis. can only support a maximum population size. It is the Out of the total incident solar radiation, only 50% of it average population density or population size of a is photosynthetically active radiation (PAR). species below which its numbers tend to decrease because of shortages of resources i.e. food, shelter and • Plants capture only 2-10% of the PAR and this small social requirements. amount of energy sustains the entire living world. dN • The solar radiation wavelength of light is 400-700  N = rN 1 −  nm is also called PAR. dt  K 123. The main source of energy in deep sea water dN = rate of population change can bedt (a) Sunlight (b) Hydropower r = maximum population growth rate (c) Hydrothermal vent (d) Fossils N = Population size TGT Biology 2011 K = Population carrying capacity Ans. (c) : The main source of energy in deep sea water 120. When a population first increases slowly, then can be hydrothermal vent. rapidly and finally becomes constant; the Hydrothermal vents are hot water springs in the deep population growth curve will be : ocean having a high concentration of H2S. (a) J–shaped • Ocean water oxidizes H2S producing energy which is (b) S–shaped used by bacteria, clams. (c) Both J–shaped and S–shaped • The three main sources of energy and nutrients for (d) None of the above deep sea communities are marine snow, whale falls and LT Biology 2018 chemosynthesis at hydrothermal vents and cold seeps. Ans. (b) : When a population first increases slowly, 124. Which of these is called ‘Terror of Bengal’? then rapidly and finally becomes constant, the (a) Eichhornia (b) Lantana population growth curve will be S-shaped. (c) Calotropis (d) None of these PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (a) : Eichhornia is called "Terror of Bengal" because this leads to a decline in a number of fishes and people face scarcity of fish. Eichhornia is commonly called water hyacinths, was a polyphyletic genus of the aquatic flowering plants family Pontederiaceae. 125. ‘Biogenetic law’ was proposed by : (a) Ernst Haeckel (b) Purkinje (c) H. Spencer (d) R. Virchow 121. Which of the following rule explains that the PGT Biology 2011 extremities such as tails, legs and horn of Ans. (a) : Biogenetic law was proposed by Ernst animals are shorter in colder regions Haeckel. Biogenetic law is also called Recapitulation (a) Bergmann's rule (b) Gloger's rule theory postulated in 1866 by Ernst Haeckel. This states (c) Jordan's rule (d) Allen's rule that 'ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny', i.e., the PGT Biology 2009 development of the animal embryo and young traces the UP PGT 2016 evolutionary development of the species. Ans. (d) Allen's rule explains that the extremities such 126. Maximum solar energy can be trapped by : as tails, legs and horn of animals are shorter in colder (a) growing grasses (b) harvesting trees regions than those in warmer ones. It was stated by Joel (c) planting trees (d) cultivation of crops Asaph Allen in 1877. The sizes help them to keep PGT Biology 2009 warm and adapt to environmental condition. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (d) : In an ecosystem, producers take in sunlight after which the process of photosynthesis takes place and plants make their own food. 1.15% solar energy is absorbed by grasslands, 0.9% by savanna, 0.81% by composite forests, 5% by crops and 10-12% by sugarcane. Thus, Maximum solar energy can be trapped by cultivation of crops in the given options. 127.Animals leading aquatic life show… adaptations. (a) Natatorial (b) Vouaka (c) Cursorial (d) Fossorial Navoday Vidyalay PGT Biology 2014 Ans: (a) Animals leading aquatic life show natatorial adaptations. This adaptation is usually shown only by swimming creatures. As - Shark, jelly fish, crocodile, dolphin etc. 128. Which one of the following is a micronutrient? (a) Iron (b) Calcium (c) Magnesium (d) Nitrogen TGT Biology 2005 Ans. (a) : Micronutrients are minerals and vitamins needed to body in very small amounts in the animals. However, their impact on a body's health are critical and deficiency can cause severe and even life threatening conditions. Mn, Fe, Zn, Cl, B, Cu, Ni, Mo Macronutrients – C, O, H, P, N, K, Ca, S, Mg 129. The association between the wood eating termites and the cellulose-digesting protozoans lodged in their gut represents : (a) protocooperation (b) commensalim (c) mutualism (d) parasitism UPPCS Pre 2003 Ans. (c) : Mutualism is a relation in which both the organism benefited. Protozoa get food and cellulose of termites digested. Trichonympha (protozoa) have the enzymes needed to convert cellulose in wood into starches and sugars that the termite can use as nutrients. These organisms benefit from a continuous supply of energy-rich cellulose and a suitable environment in which to live. 130. An example of mutualism is provided by : (a) sacculina and crab (b) liver fluke and snail (c) entamoeba histolytica and man (d) sea-anemone and crab UPPCS Pre 1995 Ans. (d) : Sea-anemone live in the shell of Hermit Crab. Mutualism denote by + + in which both species benefited. They have a symbiotic relationship where both creatures benefit from living together. 131. Echeneis attached to the body of shark with the help of its dorsal sucker. This is an example of : (a) Mutualism (b) Parasitism (c) Commensalism with continuous contact (d) Commensalism without continuous contact PGT Biology 2005 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (d) : The sucker fish (Echeneis) is a temporary attachment of shark or ray fish. Echeneis attaches to the body of shark with the help of its dorsal sucker, is an example of commensalism without continuous contact. In biology, commensalism is a relationship between individuals of two species in which one species obtains food or other benefits from the other without harming or benefiting the latter.

2.

Environment Conservation/ Climate Change

132. Stratification can be seen best in : (a) Tropical rain forest (b) Grassland (c) Stream (d) Pond GIC 19/09/2021 Ans. (a) : Stratification can be seen best in tropical rain forest. It is the vertical distribution of various species in different layers structurally. The tropical rain forest is considered to have five strata ; three tree layers, a layer of shrubs and a ground layer of herbaceous plants. The tropical rainforest is earth's most complex biome in terms of both structure and species diversity. Presence of these different layers and vegetation helps in growing a balanced ecosystem. 133. The maximum carbon reservoirs are found in : (a) Soil humus (b) Ocean (c) Marine (d) Fossil fuels UPPSC Ashram Paddhati 29/09/2021 Ans. (c) : The maximum carbon reservoirs are found in marine sediments. These are deposits of insoluble particles that have accumulated on the seafloor. The four main types of marine sediment are lithogenous, biogenous, hydrogenous and cosmogenous. Sediments provide long term sinks for carbon. Through the sedimentation of dissolved and particulate organic carbon, sediments provide a global carbon sink of about 10 million tonnes each year. 134. World Environment Day is celebrated every year on which day? (a) June 5 (b) September 21 (c) October 1 (d) December 10 UPPCS Pre 1995 TGT (2016) 31/07/2021 Ans. (a) : World Environment Day is celebrated every year on 5th june. The day is celebrated as the United Nations day for encouraging worldwide awareness and action to protect our environment. This day is celebrated to encourage awareness and environmental protection. The first World Environment day was observed in 1974 giving a global platform for inspiring positive change in the environment. The first celebration, under the slogan "Only one Earth" took place in 1974. 135. Of the following which gas produces green house effect? (a) CO2 (b) SO2 (c) NO2 (d) O3 TGT (2016) 31/07/2021

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (a) : Carbon Dioxide cause the harmful green house effect. It constitutes about 81% of the harmful gas emissions. Greenhouse gases cause the greenhouse effect on Planets. The Primary greenhouse gases in Earth's atmosphere are water vapor (H2O), carbon dioxide (CO2), methane (CH4), nitrous oxide (N2O) ozone (O3) and CFC's. The green house effect is a process that occurs when a planet's atmosphere allows unhindered radiant energy from its sun to heat the planet's surface, but then hinders the radiant heat from the surface from passing to space until the surface warms more than it would have done without the atmosphere. 136. In the absence of carbon dioxide the earth will be: (a) As hot as Thar desert (b) As cold as moon (c) As green as rain forest (d) None of the above TGT 07/08/2021 Ans. (b) : Although much less abundant than nitrogen and oxygen in earth atmosphere, carbon dioxide is an important constituent of our planet's air. Carbon dioxide is an important green house gas that helps to trap heat in our atmosphere, without it, our planet would be inhospitably cold. In the absence of CO2, the earth will be as cold as moon. 137. The two gases making the highest relative contribution to the greenhouse gases, are(a) CO2 and CH4 (b) CH4 and N2O (c) CFC and N2O (d) CO2 and N2O GIC 19/09/2021 Ans. (a) : The two gases making the highest relative contribution to the greenhouse gases, are CO2 and CH4. ⇒ Greenhouse gases are those gases in the atmosphere that have an influence on the earth's energy balance. These gases absorbs and emits radiant energy within the thermal infrared range, causing the greenhouse effect. The main gases responsible for the greenhouse effect include carbon dioxide (CO2), methane (CH4), nitrous oxide (N2O), water vapour and ozone (O3). 138. In atmosphere acid rain is caused due to pollution by(a) Oxides of carbon and nitrogen (b) Oxides of nitrogen and sulphur (c) Oxides of nitrogen and phosphorus (d) None of these GIC 19/09/2021 Ans. (b) : In atmosphere acid rain is caused due to pollution by oxides of nitrogen and sulphur. ⇒ Acid rain is a form of precipitation that is unusually acidic (low pH). It is produced when Sulphur and Nitrogen particles get mixed with the wet compounds of rain. Acid rain is made up of highly acidic water droplets due to air emissions, most specifically the disproportionate levels of sulphur and nitrogen emitted by vehicles and manufacturing processes. Acid rain is very harmful to agriculture plants and animals. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

139. Which of the following regulates amount of CO2 in the atmosphere? (a) Plants (b) Animals (c) Fossil fuel burning (d) Oceans RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) Ans. (d) : Oceans regulate amount of CO2 in the atmosphere. Ocean is an enormous storehouse for carbon, containing 50 times more than the atmosphere. They play an important role in regulating the amount of CO2 in the atmosphere because CO2 can move quickly into and out of the oceans. Around 25% of all CO2 emissions are absorbed by the ocean, making it one of the world's largest 'carbon sinks'. As we burn fossil fuels and atmospheric CO2 levels go up, the ocean absorbs more CO2 to stay in balance. 140. Which of the following is high green house gas emission food ? (a) Plant based food (b) Insect-rich food (c) Meat and dairy products (d) Cellular agricultural products UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (c) : Meat and dairy products are high greenhouse gas emission food. Food production contributed around 37% of global Green House Gas (GHG) emissions, showing the huge impact that our diets have on climate change. Animal based foods produce roughly twice the emissions of plant based ones. Global food productions accounts for more than a third of all greenhouse gas emissions, with meat and dairy products responsible for twice as much planet-heating carbon pollution as plantbased foods. 141. Which one of the following is not a 'green house' gas ? (a) CO2 (b) Methane (c) H2 (d) CFS UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (c) : Gas that has the property of absorbing infrared radiation emitted from Earth's surface and reradiating it back to earth's surface is known as greenhouse gas. Carbon dioxide (CO2), methane (CH4), chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) and water vapour are the most important greenhouse gases. The greenhouse effect is the way in which heat is trapped close earth's surface by greenhouse gases. H2 is not a greenhouse gas.

142. "Green House Effect" is related to which of the following cycle? (a) Phosphorus (b) Carbon dioxide (c) Nitrogen (d) Sulphur RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020)

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (b) : "Green House Effect" is related to carbon 146. First United Nations Conference on Human Environment was held in Stockholm in the year : dioxide (CO2) cycle. The warming of earth's surface and troposphere, caused by the presence of water vapour, (a) 1972 (b) 1986 CO2, methane, and certain other gases in the air, is (c) 1992 (d) 2000 known as greenhouse effect. The carbon dioxide cycle UP PGT 2016 plays a key role in regulating Earth's global temperature and climate by controlling the amount of CO2 in the Ans. (a) First United Nations conference on Human atmosphere. Environment was held in Stockholm in the year 1972, to make the environment a major issue. 143. The Taj Mahal is threatened by pollutant: Every year on 5 June is celebrated as World (a) Chlorine (b) Sulphur dioxide Environment day that was declared in this conference. (c) Hydrogen (d) Oxygen UK SSSC L.T. (21/01/2018) 147. CFC stands for : (a) Chlorofluorocarbon Ans. (b) : The Taj Mahal is threatened by pollutant (b) Chemical Fluorocarbon sulphur dioxide (SO2). Threat to Taj Mahal from Mathura refinery is due to pollutant gases like SO2, H2S (c) Compressed Fluorine Carbon and NO2. These gases convert calcium carbonate of (d) Carbon Fluorine Carbon white marble into calcium sulphate and calcium nitrate. Bihar PGT 2019 Increased sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides in atmosphere are source of acid rain. Damage to Taj Ans. (a) : CFC full form name is Chlorofluorocarbon. Mahal white marble is caused by acid rain. CFC is an organic compounds composed of carbon, 144. From the following, Ozone in stratosphere is fluorine and chlorine. CFCs are also called freon. They are used as aerosol- spray propellants, solvents and depleted by: foam - blowing agents. (a) CF2Cl2 (b) C7H16 Cl + O3 → ClO + O2 (c) C7F16 (d) C6F6 UK SSSC L.T. (21/01/2018) ClO + O3 → Cl + 2O2 Ans. (a) : Ozone in stratosphere is depleted by dichloro- It harms ozone layer which surounds the Earth to difluoro-methane (CF2Cl2). The earth's stratospheric protect harmful ultraviolet rays. ozone layer plays a critical role in absorbing ultraviolet 148. Global warming is caused by : radiation emitted by the sun. CF2Cl2 is a colorless gas (a) Air pollution (b) Water pollution usually sold under the brand name Freon- 12, and are (c) Sound pollution (d) None of these used as coolants in refrigerators, coolers, etc. It allows Bihar PGT 2019 the ozone molecule that forms the oxygen radical and O2 to split apart. This global decrease in stratospheric Ans. (a) : Global warming occurs when carbon dioxide ozone is well correlated with rising levels of CFCs and (CO2) and other air pollutants collect in the atmosphere other halocarbons. and absorb sunlight and solar radiation. It raises the heat which melt the glaciers of the mountains. 145. The gases associated with green house effect (a) CO2, N2O and CF Cl3 (b) CO, NO and Freon (c) Argon, Krypton and Neon (d) C3, O2 and CO RPSC School Lecturer 2011 Ans. (a) : The main gases responsible for the green house effect including carbon di-oxide, methane, nitrous oxide, and water vapour (which all occur naturally) and fluorinated gases (which are synthetic). These are 10 main green house gases - Water vapour (H2O) - Carbon di-oxide (CO2) - Methane (CH4) - Nitrous oxide (N2O) - Ozone (O3) 149. The gas responsible for causing acid rain is : - Chloroflorocarbons (CFCs and HCFCs) (a) SO2 (b) O3 - Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) (c) CO2 (d) NH3 - Perfluorocarbons (CF4, C2F6, etc), SF6, and NF. GIC Biology 15.09.2015 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (a) : The gas responsible for causing acid rain are the mixtures of SO2 and NO2. Acid rain is any form of precipitation with acidic components such as sulfuric or nitric acid that may be in wet or dry forms. This can rain, snow, fog, hail or even dust that is acidic. • It is often written as SOx and NOx. • The pH value of acid rain water is usually less than 5.6 • Stone leprosy is caused by acid rain. • 2 SO2 (g) + O2 (g) + 2H2O (l)→ 2H2 SO4 (aq) 4 NO2 (g) + O2 (g) + 2H2O (l)→ 4H NO3 (aq) 150. These are the main component of 'acid rain' : (a) Sulphuric acid and nitric acid (b) Sulphuric acid and Hydrochloric acid (c) Nitric acid and hydrochloric acid (d) Nitric acid and acetic acid UPPCS Pre 2004 UPPCS Pre 2005 TGT Biology 2009 TGT Biology 2013 Ans. (a) : Sulphuric acid (H2SO4), nitric acid (HNO3) and carbonic acid (H2CO3) are the major components of acid rain. Acid rain results when sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides are emitted into the atmosphere and transported by wind and air currents. The SO2 and NOx react with water, oxygen and other chemicals to form sulfuric acid nitric acids. These then mix with water and other materials before falling to the ground. 151. Acid rain is due to : (a) sulphur dioxide pollution (b) carbon monoxide pollution (c) pesticide pollution (d) dust particles PGT Biology 2004 Ans. (a) : See the explanation of above question. 152. Reduced oxygen carrying capacity of blood is manifested by the presence of which pollutant in the air? (a) Nitrogen oxide (b) Sulphur dioxide (c) Carbon monoxide (d) All the above UPPCS Pre 2007 Ans. (c) : Carbon monoxide (CO) combines with haemoglobin to form carboxyhaemoglobin. This prevents oxygen binding to haemoglobin, thereby reducing the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood, leading to hypoxia. CO (Carbon monoxide) has higher affinity to haemoglobin as compared to oxygen. 153. Ozone layer in upper atmosphere is destroyed by: (a) photochemical smog (b) chlorofluorocarbons (c) sulphur-di-oxide (d) carbon monoxide UPPCS Pre 2005 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (b) : • Ozone layer in upper atmosphere is destroyed by chlorofluorocarbons. • Chlorofluorocarbons or CFCs are released by solvents, spray aerosols, refrigerators, airconditioners, etc. CFCs drift slowly upward to the stratosphere, where they are broken up by ultraviolet radiation, releasing chlorine atoms, which are able to destroy ozone molecules. • Photochemical smog is a type of smog produced when ultraviolet light from the sun reacts with nitrogen oxides in the atmosphere. 154. The major cause of depletion of ozone layer is : (a) Automobiles (b) Burning of fossil fuels (c) Air conditions and refrigerators (d) Industrial effluents GIC Biology 15.09.2015 LT Biology 2018 Ans. (c) : The main reason for the depletion of ozone layer is chlorofluorocarbons gas (CFCs) released from air conditioners and refrigerators. Due to its excessive use, the ozone hole develops. Organisms on earth are protected by a thick layer of this ozone which prevents harmful UV rays of the sun from reaching the earth. The only gas in the atmosphere that can absorb the Sun's dangerous radiation (ultraviolet) is Ozone. 155. The damaged ozone layer is situated in : (a) ionosphere (b) mesosphere (c) stratosphere (d) troposphere UPPCS Pre 2003 TGT Biology 2010 Ans. (c) : The damage ozone layer are situated in stratosphere. It absorb harmful UV rays and protect us. The increase of UV radiation in the atmosphere causing ozone depletion. The main reason for the depletion of ozone layer is chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) gas. 156. CNG chiefly contains : (a) Methane (b) Ethane (c) Propane (d) Oxygen UPPCS Pre 2004 Ans. (a) : C.N.G. term stand for compressed Natural Gas. It is a hydrocarbon. Its chief component is methane. Apart from methane the other components present in CNG are ethane, propane, nitrogen, carbon dioxide, hydrogen sulphide and traces of water. CNG is natural gas under pressure which remains clear, odourless and non-corrosive. 157. Which is not a green house gas ? (a) chlorofluorocarbon (b) methane (c) carbon dioxide (d) hydrogen PGT Biology 2013 Ans. (d) : Hydrogen is not a green house gas. Green house gases are - CO2, CFC, CH4 etc.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 158. Which one of the following is not a green house gas? (a) Water vapour (b) halogen compounds (c) NO2 (d) SO2 UPPCS Pre 2004 Ans. (d) : The various greenhouse gases are CO2, CH4, CFCs, Ozone, nitrous oxide and water vapour (H2O). Hence the gas which is not a greenhouse gas is SO2 (Sulphur dioxide.) * Greenhouse gases trap long wavelength energy from the earth's surface, heating the atmosphere, which in turn heats the earth. * Water vapour is the strongest greenhouse gas and the concentration of this gas is largely controlled by the temperature of the atmosphere. * SO2 is responsible for acid rain.

159. Consider the following statements : Assertion (A) : Carbon dixide is a "green house gas". Reason (R) : The carbon dioxide is transparent to both sunlight and ultraviolet radiation. Now select your answer from the answer code given below : (a) both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A (c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true UPPCS Pre 1998 Ans. (a) : Carbon dioxide is green house gas. The CO2 is transparent to both sunlight and ultraviolet radiation. Both are correct and R is the correct explanation of A. 160. Which year declared as "International Year of Biodiversity"? (a) 2008 (b) 2009 (c) 2010 (d) 2011 UP PGT 2016 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (c) Year 2010 was declared as "International year of Biodiversity" by UN (United Nations). Objectives– • Raising awareness about the importance of biodiversity conservation for human welfare and to encourage and promoting the economic importance of biodiversity. • Increasing public knowledge of threats to biodiversity and protecting it. • Communicating the biodiversity target after 2010. Every year on 22 May is celebrated as 'Biodiversity day'. 161. Consider the following statements : Assertion (A) : Acid rain at pH-4 becomes alarming. Reason (R) : Acid rain at pH-4 contains hydrochloric acid only. Now select your answer from the answer codes given below : (a) both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. (c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true UPPCS Pre 1998 Ans. (c) : Acid rain is a mixture of wet and dry deposition from the atmosphere containing higher than normal amount of nitric and sulfuric acid. When the pH of the rain water drops below 5.6, it is called acid rain. The main constituents of acid rain are sulphuric acid and nitric acid. Hydrochloric acid is also present in acid rain in small amount, so that A is true but R is false. 162. Green house effect is related to : (a) Global green algae (b) Global warming (c) Cultivation of green plants (d) Cultivation of vegetables in houses TGT Biology 2005 Ans. (b) : Green house effect is related to global warming. Increase in global temperature is called global warming. Global warming term was first provided by the British environmentalist Wallace Broecker in the 1970s. Greenhouse gases and environmental pollutants are responsible for pollution. Green house gases – CO2, CFCs, O3, CH4. 163.The gases associated with green house effect(a) CO2, N2O and CFCL3 (b) CO, NO and freon (c) Argon, Krypton and Neon (d) O3, O2 and CO Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (a) : The gases associated with green house effect are – CO2, N2O, CFCl3, CH4 and CFCL. for further explanation see the Q. 220 & 210.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 164. The CO2 concentration in atmospheric air is about: (a) 6.5% (b) 3.34% (c) 0.034% (d) 0.34% PGT Biology 2009 Ans. (c) : In the atmospheric air there is 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, 0.94% argon, 0.034% CO2 and rest all gases are found.

165. The chemical, that contributes to the destruction of ozone layer above the earth's surface, is : (a) Carbon monoxide (b) Mercury (c) Chlorofluorocarbon (d) Sulphurdioxide PGT Biology 2004 Ans. (c) : The chemical that contributes to the destruction of ozone layer above the earth's surface is chlorofluorocarbon (CFCs). Ozone shield is found at the height of 16-45 km in stratosphere of Earth that absorb ultraviolet radiation of sun and protect animals and human. 166. The gas that contributes most to the greenhouse effect is : (a) CFC (b) Freon (c) CO2 (d) CH4 Navoday Vidyalay PGT Biology 2014 Ans: (c) The gas that contributes most to the greenhouse effect is CO2. Other gases are – CFCs, NO2, CH4 etc. Greenhouse effect can be defined as the trapping of the radiations of the sun by the atmospheric gases and the subsequent reflection on the earth's causing global warming. 167. In stratosphere, the concentration of which of the following ozone destroying free radicals, has greatly increased as a result of human activity? (a) Only HO(b) Only NO(c) Both Cl and Br (d) Both NO- and OHGIC Biology 15.09.2015 Ans. (c) : In stratosphere, the concentration of both Cl– and Br–, ozone destroying free radicals has greatly increased as a result of human activity. In the atmosphere HO–, NO, Cl–, Br–, NO– etc. are found as ozone free radicals. 168. The molecule of chlorofluorocarbon (CFC) breaks down in the stratosphere into chlorine, fluorine and carbon atoms by : (a) chemical activity (b) ultraviolet activity (c) fission (d) fusion UP LT 2018 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (b) : The molecules of chlorofluorocarbon (CFC) breaks down in the stratosphere into chlorine, fluorine and carbon atoms by ultraviolet activity. Once in the atmosphere, CFCs drift slowly upward to the stratosphere, where they are broken up by ultravioelet radiation, releasing chlorine atoms, which are able to destroy ozone molecules. • • UV radiations Cl − CH 3  → Cl + CH 3 • Cl + O3  → ClO + O 2 • ClO + O3  → Cl + 2O 2 169. Red Data Book are compiled by: (a) WWF (b) IUCN (c) BNGS (d) WPSI PGT Biology 2004 Ans. (b) : Red Data Books are compiled by IUCN (International Union of Conservation of Nature and Natural resources). Red Data Book is the document established by IUCN for documenting the rare and endangered species of plants, fungi and animals. 170. Which of the following are hot spots of Rajasthan? (a) Bharatpur Lake, Sariska Forest and Thar Desert (b) Bharatpur Lake, Sariska Forest and Tal Chhapar (c) Sambhar Lake, Sirohi Forest and Tadgarh (d) Sambhar Lake, Sirohi Forest and Tijara Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2013 Ans. (a/b) : Ecological hotspots are areas with outstanding biodiversity or a high concentration of biological values. Hotspots of Rajasthan is Bharatpur lake, Sariska forest, Thar Desert and Tal Chhapar. Tal Chappar sanctuary is a hotspot for avifauna biodiversity. There are over 100 resident bird species in the Tal Chappar sanctuary. The Thar desert is located in northwest India. It is one of the major hot deserts of the world with the highest population density.

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Wildlife conservation/Wildlife Sanctuaries

171. In the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, important wild animals have been placed in (a) Two Schedules (b) Three Schedules (c) Five Schedules (d) Six Schedules UP PGT 17/08/2021 Ans. (c) : In the wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, important wild animals have been placed in schedule five. The Act was enacted for the protection of plants and animal species. It has divided the protection status of various plants and animals under six schedules. Schedule five contains small wild animals that carry disease and destroy plants and food. These animals can be hunted. It includes four species of wild animals; common crows, fruit bats, rats and mice.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 172. In India, which I.U.C.N. protected category is largest in number ? (a) National Park (b) Wild Life Sanctuaries (c) Conservation reserves (d) Community reserves UPPSC Ashram Paddhati 29/09/2021 Ans. (b) : In India, Wildlife Sanctuaries is the I.U.C.N. protected category, largest in number. A WildLife Sanctuary is an area where animal habitats and their surroundings are protected. The capturing, killing and poaching of animals is strictly prohibited in these regions. India has a network of 981 protected areas including 566 Wildlife sanctuaries, 106 National Parks, 97 Conservation Reserves and 214 Community Reserves. Wildlife sanctuaries of India are classified as IUCN category IV protected areas. 173. Which of the following is permitted in a wild life sanctuary ? (a) Hunting of animals (b) Cutting of trees (c) Grazing of cattles (d) Collection of fruits, firewood and medicinal plants UP PGT 17/08/2021 Ans. (d) : Collection of fruits, firewood and medicinal plants is permitted in a wildlife sanctuary. A wildlife sanctuary is a protected area of importance for flora, fauna, or features of geological or other interest, which is reserved and managed for conservation and to provide opportunities for study or research. Hunting of animals, grazing of cattles and cutting of trees are not permitted in a wildlife sanctuary. 174. 'Nokrek' Biosphere Reserve is located in(a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Assam (c) Meghalaya (d) Tripura GIC 19/09/2021 Ans. (c) : 'Nokrek' Biosphere Reserve is located in Meghalaya. It is located on the Tura range which forms part of the Meghalaya plateau. The biosphere reserve derives its name from the Nokrek Hill, the highest peak of the Garo Hill. It was added to the list of biosphere reserves by UNESCO in May 2009. It has a huge population of rare plants and animals including Citrus indica (Local Name-Memang Narang), Pangolin, hoolock gibbon, python, hornbill and red pandas. The total area is around 47.48 square kilometers looked after by the northern Nokrek and the southern Nokrek range of the Meghalaya state forest Department. 175. Which of the following National Park is created to protect "Mountain Gorilla" ? (a) Mount Simien National Park, Ethiopia (b) Bontebok National Park, South Africa (c) Kaziranga National Park, India (d) Virunga National Park, Congo RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (d) : National Park created to protect Mountain Gorilla is Virunga National Park, Congo. It is located in the Albertine Rift Valley in the eastern part of the Democratic Republic of the Congo. It was created in 1925 and is among the first protected areas in Africa. Mountain gorilla is one of the two subspecies of the eastern gorilla that lives in forests high in the mountains, at elevations of 8,000 to 13,000 feet. It is listed as endangered by the IUCN as of 2018. 176. Desert National Park in India is located at which of the following place? (a) Jaisalmer and Barmer (b) Churu (c) Rann of Kutch (d) Bharatpur RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) Ans. (a) : Desert National Park in India is located in Jaisalmer and Barmer district of Rajasthan State. This is one of the largest national parks, covering an area of 3162 km2, of which 1900 km2 is in Jaisalmer, and remaining 1262 km2 is in Barmer. This park is an excellent example of the ecosystem of the Thar Desert. The area falls in the extreme hot and arid region of very low rainfall zone. It is the most important site for the long- term survival of the globally threatened great Indian Bustard. 177. Which of the following is not a part of a biosphere reserve? (a) Core zone (b) Manipulation zone (c) Buffer zone (d) Entertainment zone RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) Ans. (d) : Entertainment zone is not a part of biosphere reserve. ⇒ Biosphere reserves are the protected areas meant for the conservation of plants and animals. That Biosphere Reserves are identified by the Man and Biosphere Reserve Program, initiated by UNESCO in 1971. ⇒ Core zone is the most protected area of a biosphere reserve where human intervention is strictly prohibited. ⇒Buffer zone surrounds the core zone where research and education activities are permitted to humans. ⇒ Manipulation zone is the peripheral area of a biosphere reserve, where human activities like cropping, recreation, forestry, and settlements are permitted with the cooperation of reserve management and local people. 178. The region of Biosphere reserve which is legally protected and where no human activity is allowed in known as – (a) Core zone (b) Buffer zone (c) Transition zone (d) Restoration zone UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (a) : The region of biosphere reserve which is legally protected and where no human activity is allowed, is known as core zone. Biosphere reserves are the protected areas meant for the conservation of plants and animals. Zones in biosphere reserve are core zone, buffer zone, and manipulation zone. • Buffer zone surrounds the core zone and research and education activities are permitted in this zone. • Manipulation zone is the peripheral area where human activities like cropping, recreation, forestry and settlements are permitted.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 179. Which of the following is an example of ex-situ biodiversity conservation ? (a) Biosphere reserve (b) Gene bank (c) Hot spots (d) Sanctuary UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (b) : Gene bank is an example of ex-situ biodiversity conservation. Gene banks are a type of biorepository that preserves genetic material. Ex-situ conservation is the technique of conservation of all levels of biodiversity outside their natural habitats through techniques like zoo captive breeding, aquarium, botanical garden and gene bank. 180. Ramsar convention specifically deals with : (a) Endangered species (b) Wetland conservation (c) Climate change (d) Biodiversity conservation UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (b) : Ramsar convention specifically deals with wetland conservation. This convention was signed in 1970 in the Iranian city of Ramsar. The negotiations for the convention started in the 1960s by the different countries and NGOs for the protection of wetlands and their resources. Finally, it came into force in 1975. The parties have created the list of Wetlands of International importance with more than 2040 wetlands. There are 49 Ramsar sites in India listed under Ramsar Convention. 181. Zoological gardens are sites of : (a) Ex situ conservation (b) In situ conservation (c) Both of above (d) None of above RPSC PGT Biology 2015 RPSC School Lecturer (23/07/2016) Ans. (a) : Ex-Situ conservation literally means, offsite conservation. It is the process of protecting an endangered species, variety or breed, of plant or animal outside of its natural habitat, for example, by removing part of the population from a threatened habitat and placing it in a new location, which may be a wild area or with in the care of humans. Example- Zoological park and Botanical Garden. In-situ conservation is the on-site conservation or the conservation of genetic resources in natural population of plant or animal species in the process of protecting an endangered plant or animal species in its natural habitat, either by protecting or restoring the habitat itself or by defending the species from predators. Examples- Sanctuaries and national parks. 182. Choose the incorrect pair : (a) Rhinoceros – Kaziranga NP (Assam) (b) Elephant – Periyar NP (Kerala) (c) Lion – Sariska NP (Rajasthan) (d) Musk Deer – Kedarnath NP (Uttarakhand) RPSC School Lecturer 2011 Ans. (c) : Gir National park (Gujarat) home to Asiatic lions. There are only around 600 Asiatic lions left in the world. Sariska National Park is famous for tigers and other wild cats such as jaguars, leopards, jungle cats as well as hyenas, jackals and civets. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

183. Where and when the Seshachalam biosphere was established ? (a) Andhra Pradesh ; 2010 (b) Himachal Pradesh ; 2009 (c) Rajasthan ; 2011 (d) Nilgiri ; 1986 RPSC School Lecturer 2011 Ans. (a) : The seshachalam hills are hilly ranges part of the eastern Ghats in Andhra Pradesh. In 2010 it was designated as Biosphere Reserve. 184. When the "project tiger" was started in India? (a) August 15, 1950 (b) September 20, 1986 (c) April 1, 1973 (d) January 26, 1986 RPSC School Lecturer 2011 Ans. (c) : The Government of India had launched 'project tiger' on 1st April 1973 to promote conservation of the tiger. 185. Nandan Kanan Zoo is known for the : (a) Nilgiri Tiger (b) Hippopotamus (c) White Tiger (d) Whale Bihar PGT 2019 Ans. (c) : Nandankanan Zoological Park is a 437 hectare zoo and botanical garden in Bhubaneswar, Odisha, India. It is the first zoo in India with a white tiger safari, and Melanistic tiger. It is the only conservation breeding centre of India Pangolins in the world. A unique white tiger safari was established on 1st October, 1991, in Nandankanan 200. 186. In which State of India is Chandraprabha sanctuary situated? (a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Uttar Pradesh (c) Karnataka (d) Arunachal Pradesh UPPCS Pre 2005 UP PGT Biology 2009 Ans. (b) : Chandraprabha Sanctuary is present in the Chandauli district of U.P. in India. Wild animals which are found at Chandraprabha are chital, Sambar, black Ducks, porcupine, nilgai, wild boar and chinkara. The reptilian species include python and 150 species of birds. This sanctuary was established in 1957 for the protection of Asiatic lions. 187. The first National Park established for conserving wildlife as an integral part of nature, in India is : (a) Corbett National Park(b) Kaziranga Park (c) Periyar National Park(d) Gir Natinoal Park UPPCS Pre 1994 UPPCS Pre 2001 PGT Biology 2002 Ans. (a) : The first National Park in India was established as Hailey National Park in 1936. Now, it is known as Jim Corbett National Park. • Jim Corbett National Park is the oldest national park in India. • Jim Corbett National Park is located in the Nainital district and Pauri Garhwal district of Uttarakhand. • Periyar National Park is in the mountainous western Ghats of Kerala, Southern India. Gir National Park is situated in Gujarat.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 188. Great Manas biosphere reserve is located in : (a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Assam (c) Meghalaya (d) Arunachal Pradesh UPPCS Pre 2007 Ans. (b) : Great Manas biosphere reserve is located in the state of Assam in North-East India, a biodiversity hotspot. Manasbioreserve was created in 1973. Prior to the declaration of the sanctuary, It was a reserved forest called Manas Reserve Forest. It was declared a World Heritage site in December 1985 by UNESCO. On 25 February 2008, the area was increased to 500 km2. The fauna of the sanctuary include Indian elephants, Indian rhinoceros, Gaurs, wild water buffaloes, barasingha etc. 189. Main reason for depletion of wild life in India is: (a) Falling of trees (b) Nonavailability of drinking water (c) Destruction of natural habitats (d) Cannibalism UPPCS Pre 2007 Ans. (c) : Main reason for depletion of wild life in India is destruction of natural habitats. Apart from this habitat degradation, poaching of wild animals, Fragmentation, Limitation of expansion of vegetation and entry of foreign species, shifting agriculture and nature is also the reason. 190. Asiatic lion is confined to : (a) Jim Corbett National Park (b) Gir National Park (c) Dudhwa National Park (d) Bandhavgarh National Park UPPCS Pre 1995 UPPCS Pre 1997 UPPCS Pre 2000 Ans. (b) : The Asiatic lion is a population in Gujarat. It is listed in Endangered Red list, because of the small population. Since 2010 the lion population in around Gir National Park only is Asiatic lion. The lion population increased from 411 individuals in 2010 to 523 in 2015 and all of them live in or around Gir National Park. In 2020 the lion population is also increased from 523 to 674. 191. Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary is located in : (a) Kerala (b) Karnataka (c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Tamil Nadu UPPCS Pre 2000 Ans. (a) : Periyar wild life sanctuary located in western Ghats of Kerala, southern India. This sanctuary have tigers and elephant population as well as rare lion, deer, leopards etc. 192. Sariska Tiger Reserve is located in : (a) West Bengal (b) Orissa (c) Assam (d) Rajasthan PGT Biology 2002 UPPCS Pre 2008 PGT Biology 2010 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (d) : Sariska Tiger Reserve is located in Alwar district, Rajasthan, India. Sunderban Tiger Reserve is situated in West Bengal. Kaziranga National Park is located in Assam. The Bhitarkanika National Park is located in Odisha. 193. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the list: List - I List- II A. Rhino 1. Thar desert B. Wild ass 2. Kashmir C. Sloth bear 3. Mount Abu forests D. Hangul 4. Foothills of Himalayas Codes: A B C D (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 1 3 2 (c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 2 3 1 4 UPPCS Pre 2008 Ans. (b) : List- I List-II 1. Rhino - Foothills of Himalayas 2. Wild ass - Thar desert 3. Sloth bear - Mount Abu forests 4. Hangul - Kashmir 194. "Wildlife Protection Act" was enacted by the India Government in : (a) 1952 (b) 1972 (c) 1958 (d) 1973 UPPCS Pre 2001 Ans. (b) : "Wildlife Protection Act" was enacted by the India Government in 1972 for the protection of plants and animal species. The Act prohibited the hunting of endangered species. • The Act provides for licenses for the sale, transfer and possession of some wildlife species. • It provides for the establishment of wildlife sanctuaries, national parks etc. 195. Wildlife (Protection) Act was passed in : (a) 1984 (b) 1972 (c) 2010 (d) 1998 PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (b) : Wildlife (Protection) Act was passed in 1972. Wildlife Board of India was established in 1952. Central Board of Wildlife -1951. Madras Wild Elephant Preservation Act– 1873. 196. A high density of protected animals in a National Park can result in : (a) Emigration (b) Predation (c) Mutualism (d) Intraspecific competition UPPCS Pre 2002 Ans. (d) : A high density of protected animals in a National Park can result in intraspecific Competition, mean competition within same species of animal. If the number of organisms gets increased, then the competition for food, shelter and other resources will also get increased.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 197. Which one of the following is not a factor for wildlife conservation? (a) Loss of wildlife (b) Deforestation (c) Construction of dam (d) All of the above PGT Biology 2004 Ans. (d) : Development of wildlife, forest development and creation of biosphere reserve, national botanical parks etc. animals and plants are protected. While loss of wildlife, deforestation and construction of dam are not necessary for wildlife conservation. *198. Choose the incorrect pair(a) Rhinoceros – Kaziranga NP (Assam) (b) Elephant – Periyar NP (Kerala) (c) Lion – Sariska NP (Rajasthan) (d) Musk Deer – Kedarnath NP (Uttarakhand) Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (c) : Sariska National Reserve is located in Alwar district in Rajasthan, India is famous for tiger reserve. Rhinoceros Kaziranga NP (Assam) Elephant Periyar NP (Kerala) Musk deer Kedarnath NP (Uttarakhand) Lion Gir NP (Gujrat) 199. Where and when the Seshachalam biosphere was established? (a) Andhra Pradesh : 2010 (b) Himachal Pradesh : 2009 (c) Rajasthan : 2011 (d) Nilgiri : 1986 Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2011 Ans (a) : Seshachalam biosphere was established in 2010 in Chittoor and Kadapa district of Andhra Pradesh. Its total geographical area is 4755.997 square km. The Seshachalam Hill-ranges of the Eastern Ghats in Southern Andhra-Pradesh. * Seshachalam hills, the first Biosphere Reserves of India is 2010. * It has large reserves of Red sandal wood. 200. In India wildlife conservation board was established in : (a) 1887 (b) 1952 (c) 1973 (d) 1985 UPPCS Pre 2002 Ans. (b) : Wildlife conservation board was established in 1952. Due to the rapid decline in wildlife population, the government of India had constituted an advisory body designated as the Indian Board for wildlife (IBWL). The IBWL was chaired by the Prime Minister. 201. Which State of India has the highest population of Panthera Tigris tigris : (a) Karnataka (b) West Bengal (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Uttar Pradesh UPPCS Pre 1998 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (c) : In the year 2006, the total of tigers in the country was 1411 which increased to 2967 in 2018. In the year 2018, the highest number of tigers found in Madhya Pradesh (526) while in karnataka it is 524 and Uttarakhand is on the third place with a total of 442 tigers. Panthera tigris tigris is an Indian subspecies. It lives in varied habitats : grasslands, subtropical and tropical rainforest, scrub forest, wet and dry deciduous forest and mangroves. 202. A species is said to be extinct if it has not been seen in the wild for the last : (a) 25 years (b) 50 years (c) 75 years (d) 100 years UPPCS Pre 1998 Ans. (b) : A species is said to be extinct if it has not been seen in the wild for the last 50 years. Human activities is the main cause of extinction of species. Dodo is an extinct bird found in the Mauritius. 203. Muskdeer does not occur in (a) Nepal (b) Orissa (c) Uttarakhand (d) Ladakh UPPCS Pre 2009 Ans. (b) : Muskdeer does not occur in Orissa while they are commonly found in Nepal, UK (Uttarakhand) and Ladakh. Musk deer largely can be seen in Himalayan states. * It inhabits high alpine environments above altitudes of 2500m. * It can be seen in states such as Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh. IUCN status → Endangered. 204. First National Park in the world is : (a) Yellowstone National Park (b) Corbett National Park (c) Gir National Park (d) Dachigam National Park PGT Biology 2013 Ans. (a) : First National Park in the world is Yellowstone National Park (USA) was made on 1 March 1872 in USA (America). The park is popular for its wildlife and its many geothermal features. The vast forests and grasslands comprise of unique species of plants. The area of the park is approximately 2,219,791 acres (8983.18 km2). The park consists of lakes, rivers and mountain ranges. 205. "Crocodile Project" is in which of the following state (a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Bengal (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Assam

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 209. A number of natural reserves have been created to conserve specific wildlife species, identify the correct combination from the following (a) Kaziranga – Elephant (b) Rann of Kutch - Wild Ass (c) Gir forest – Tiger (d) Manas Wildlife - Musk deer Sanctuary PGT Biology 2009 Ans. (b) : Kaziranga One horned rhinoceros Rann of Kutch Wild Ass Gir Forest Lion Manas Wildlife – Golden Langur & wild water buffalo. 210. Which one of the following statements is not true about wildlife sanctuary. (a) Fauna is protected (b) Grazing is prohibited (c) Hunting is prohibited (d) Flora and other forest product can be utilized UPPCS Pre 1998 PGT Biology 2003 Ans. (d) : A wildlife sanctuary is an area where animal habitats and their surroundings are protected, grazing and hunting (killing) are prohibited. Flora, Fauna and other forest product can be utilized, is not true about wildlife sanctuary. 211. Kaziranga wildlife sanctuary is famous for : (a) Tiger (b) Muskdeer (c) Elephant(d) Rhinoceros PGT Biology 2002 UPPCS Pre 2003 Ans. (d) : Kaziranga wildlife sanctuary is famous for one horned rhinoceros. Kaziranga National Park is the name to exemplify the most popular conservation efforts to save the endangered species like one-horned rhinoceros in India. Located in Golaghat and Nagaon district of Assam, this most notable wildlife sanctuary is being declared as a World Heritage site by UNESCO in the year 1985. 212. Project musk deer was launched in 1974 in (a) Dachigam National Park (b) Kedarnath National Park 208. In a national park, protection is provided to : (c) Corbett National Park (a) Flora only (d) Pine Valley National Park (b) Fauna only PGT Biology 2003 (c) Both flora and fauna Ans. (b) : Project musk deer was launched in 1974 in (d) Complete ecosystem Kedarnath National Park. This project aims to conserve UPPCS Pre 2006 the Himalayan musk deer (Moschus chrysogaster). The musk deer is highly valuable for the manufacturing of Ans. (c) : In a national park protection is provided to perfumes and medicines. both flora and fauna. A park in use for conservation purposes is known as a national park. It is basically a 213.The largest and oldest botanical garden of India is situated at : reserve of natural, semi-natural or developed land that a sovereign state declares or owns. Flora and Fauna (a) Lucknow (b) Sibpur are provided immense protection in such areas. (c) Saharanpur (d) Darjeeling Currently in India, we have 106 national parks. Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2015 Ans. (b) : "Crocodile Project" or Indian crocodile Conservation Project is in West Bengal, started in 1975. The Gharial and Saltwater crocodile conservation programs was first implemented in Odisha and subsequently the Mugger conservation programme was initiated. It is found in Odisha's Bhitarkanika National Park, the Sundarbans in West Bengal and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. So, option (b) is correct due to absence of option Odisha. 206. No. of biosphere reserves in India is : (a) 12 (b) 13 (c) 14 (d) 17 PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (d) : No of biosphere reserves in India is 17 increased with 18 presently. Biosphere Reserves are as follows – (1) Nilgiri (10) Dihang Dibang (2) Nanda Devi (11) Pachmarhi (3) Nokrek (12) Khangchendzonga (4) Great Nicobar (13) Agasthyamalai (5) Gulf of mannar (14) Achanakmar (Amarkantak) (6) Manas (15) Great Rann of Kutch (7) Sundarbans (16) Cold Desert (8) Simlipal (17) Seshachalam Hills (9) Dibru-Saikhowa (18) Panna 207. According to National Forest Policy. How much forest cover should be there in hilly areas? (a) 45% (b) 80% (c) 67% (d) 33% PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (c) : According to National Forest Policy, forest cover or forest area in hilly areas should be 67% while in the plain area forest cover should be 33%. The present forest cover of 24.4% is quite small as compared to optimum of 33% according to the 'National Forest Policy' 1988. It recommends 67% forest cover in the hills. In 2021, the total forest and tree cover in India is 80.9 million hectares, which is 24.62% of the geographical area of the country.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (b) : The Acharya Jagadish Chandra Bose Indian Botanic Garden is the largest and oldest botanical garden of India situated in shibpur, Howrah Kolkata. It was established in 1787 by Robert kyd. It exhibits a wide variety of rare plants and a total over 12000 specimens spread over 109 hectares. 214. Which among the following sites is listed in UNESCO World Heritage sites ? (a) Keoladeo National Park (b) Ranthambore National Park (c) Madhav National Park (d) Desert National Park Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2015 Ans. (a) : UNESCO World Heritage Site includes 5 gardens of India. India signed World Heritage Treaty on October 18, 1976. According to this treaty, five natural sites of India were identified as sites of global importance. (I) Keoladeo National Park (II) Kaziranga (III) Manas National Park (IV) Nanda Devi National Park. (V) Sundarban National Park. 215. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer from the code given below the list : List-I List-II (Wildlife Reserves) (Location) (a) Bhagwan Mahavir 1. Bharatpur National Park (Rajasthan) (b) Keoladeo Bird 2. Chandigarh Sanctuary (c) Nagarjun Sagar 3. Goa National Park (d) Sukhna Sanctuary 4. Hyderabad (Andhra Pradesh) Code : A B C D (a) 2 4 3 1 (b) 3 1 4 2 (c) 4 2 1 3 (d) 1 3 2 4 UPPCS Pre 2002 Ans. (b) : The correct match are given below: List I List II (Wildlife Reserve) (Location) (a) Bhagwan mahavir Goa National Park (b) Keoladeo Bird Bharatpur Sanctuary (c) Nagarjun Hyderabad Sagar National Park (d) Sukhna Sanctuary Chandigarh 216. “The project tiger” was initiated in : (a) 1973 (b) 1972 (c) 1975 (d) 1974 Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2015 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (a) : "The project tiger" was initiated in 1973 by the Government of India for the protection of the tigers. Nagarjun Sagar - Srisailam Tiger Reserve is the India's largest tiger reserve. It is situated in Andhra Pradesh. 217. A core zone was established in a reserve area in 1973 where human interference was prohibited to save a wild animal from extinction. And this was done for : (a) Tiger (b) Elephant (c) Crocodile (d) Rhinoceros UPPCS Pre 2005 Ans. (a) : A core zone was established in a reserve area in 1973 where human interference was prohibited to save wild animal from extinction. This was done for tiger. 218. Silent valley is a place in : (a) Himalayas (b) Karnataka (c) Kerala (d) Tamilnadu Delhi SSB PGT Biology 2015 Ans. (c) : Silent valley is a National Park in Kerala, India. It is situated in the core of the Nilgiri biosphere reserve and wildlife and bird species. It is home of a endangered primate of the largest population of Lion tailed macaques. 219. Which one of the following animals has become extinct in India : (a) Snow leopard (b) Hippopotamus (c) Wolf (d) Cheetah UPPCS Pre 1998 th Ans. (d) : Until the 20 century, the Asiatic cheetah was quite common and roamed all the way from Arabia to Iran, Afghanistan and India. By the beginning of the twentieth century the species was already heading for extinction in many areas. India cheetah is also known as Asiatic Cheetah have been known to exist in India for a very long time. Due to access hunting, deforestation and habitat loss, the fastest land animal cheetah in earth become extinct in India. 220. The snow leopard is found at an altitude of about : (a) 2000 metres (b) 1000 metres (c) 500 metres (d) 100 metres UPPCS Pre 2005 Ans. (a) : The snow leopard is found at an altitude of about 2000 meters (3000–5000 meters) in mountain areas. The total wild population of the snow leopard was estimated at 4080–6590. It is white to light yellow on which there are black spots. It lives in snow tubers. 221. WWF-N has logo for conservation of : (a) Tiger (b) Giant Panda (c) Red Panda (d) Polar Bear PGT Biology 2009

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (b) : WWF-N (World Wide Fund for Nature) has 4. Environmental Pollution logo for conservation of giant panda. The World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF) is an international non-governmental organization founded in 224. Which of the following toxicant is found in the 1961, which works for wilderness preservation and the hydrosphere? reduction of destructive human impact on the (a) Nitrous oxide (b) Detergents environment. Also named as World Wildlife Fund, (c) Sulphur dioxide (d) Ozone which is its official name in Canada and the United UP PGT 17/08/2021 States till date. Ans. (b) : Toxicant found in the hydrosphere is detergents. 222. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct Among the different contaminants, detergent as an answer by using the codes given below the list: important pollutant has serious risks to natural ecosystems. Detergents can pass into the wastewater treatment plants List - I List- II and have bad effect on their performance. Detergents don't (Wildlife) (Habitat) completely biodegrade and they contaminate our water A. Bengal Tiger 1. Arunachal Pradesh supplies, rivers and oceans with toxic heavy metals like cadmium and arsenic. B. Asiatic Lion 2. Gujarat C. Red Panda 3. Sunderban 225. Which of the following is a primary air pollutant? (a) Ozone in troposphere D. Snow Leopard 4. Sikkim (b) Dioxides of carbon, sulphur and nitrogen Codes: (c) Ozone in stratosphere A B C D (d) SO3 (a) 3 2 4 1 TGT (2016) 31/07/2021 (b) 4 3 1 2 Ans. (b) : A primary pollutant is an air pollutant (c) 1 4 2 3 emitted directly from a source e.g. carbon monoxide (d) 2 1 3 4 (CO), oxides of nitrogen (NOx, NO) sulfur oxides UPPCS Pre 2008 (SOx), SO2, volatile organic compounds (VOCs) and Particulate matter (dust, ash, salt Particles). They further Ans. (a) : react in the Presence of sunlight to form secondary 1. Bengal Tiger - Sunderban pollutants such as ozone. 226. Which of the following is a degradable 2. Asiatic Lion - Gujarat pollutant? 3. Red Panda - Sikkim (a) Mercury (b) Trace metals 4. Snow Leopard- Arunachal Pradesh (c) Steel (d) Domestic sewage TGT (2016) 31/07/2021 223. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer from the code given below the list : Ans. (d) : Pollutants can be classified as degradable or non-degradable based on their ability to be degradable List-I List-II upon disposed of. A degradable pollutant degrades after (Wildlife) (Habitat) some times, either automatically (e.g. heat), or through (a) Asian wild ass 1. Arunachal Pradesh the agency of microorganisms (e.g.) domestic sewage, livestock wastes, market garbage. (b) Asiatic lion 2. Gujarat Among the following domestic sewage are mostly (c) Red Panda 3. Rann of Kutch degradable Pollutant. (d) Snow leopard 4. Sikkim 227. Which of the following is a secondary air Code : A B C D pollutant? (a) 3 2 4 1 (a) Methane (b) Benzene (b) 4 3 1 2 (c) Ozone (d) Carbon dioxide (c) 1 4 2 3 TGT 07/08/2021 (d) 2 1 3 4 Ans. (c) : A primary pollutant is an air pollutant emitted UPPCS Pre 2002 directly from a source. Secondary pollutant is not directly emitted as such, but Ans. (a) : List I List II forms when other pollutants (Primary pollutant) react in (Wildlife) (Habitat) the atmosphere. (a) Asian wild ass Rann of Kutch Examples of a secondary pollutant include ozone, which is formed when hydrocarbons (HC) and nitrogen oxides (b) Asiatic Lion Gujarat combine in the presence of sunlight. Nitrogen oxide (c) Red Panda Sikkim which is formed as NO combines with oxygen in the air (d) Snow leopard Arunachal and acid rain, which is formed when sulfur dioxide or Pradesh nitrogen oxide react with water. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 228. Match the pollutants in List-I with the disease caused by them in List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists List-I List-II (A) Mercury 1. Blue baby syndrome (B) Cadmium 2. Itai-itai disease (C) Arsenic 3. Cancer (D) Nitrate 4. Minamata diease Code : A B C D (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 3 2 1 (c) 3 2 1 4 (d) 4 2 3 1 GIC 19/09/2021 Ans. (d) : Correct match:– List-I List-II (A) Mercury Minamata disease (B) Cadmium Itai - Itai disease (C) Arsenic Cancer (D) Nitrate Blue-baby syndrome 229. Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Act was implemented in : (a) 1972 (b) 1984 (c) 2000 (d) 2018 RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) Ans. (c) : Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Act was implemented in the year 2000. Its objective is to regulate and control noise producing and generation sources and to maintain the ambient air quality standards in respect of noise. Earlier, noise pollution and its sources were addressed under the Air (Prevention and control of Pollution) Act, 1981. Area Noise permissible limit (a) Industrial areas 75dB(Daytime) and 70dB (Night) (b)Commercial areas 65dB (Daytime) and 55dB(Night) (c)Residential areas 55dB (Daytime) and 45dB(Night) 230. A gas was released in an Indian city BHOPAL in the environment, causing great health hazards on a large scale. Name of this gas is : (a) Methane (b) Laughing gas (c) Methyl isocyanate (d) Mustard gas RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) Ans. (c) : Bhopal disaster was a chemical leak in the city of Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh state, India, On December 3, 1984, about 45 tons of the dangerous gas methyl isocyanate escaped from an insecticide plant that was owned by the Indian subsidiary of the American firm union carbide corporation. It is considered among the world's worst industrial disasters. 231. Which of the following pollutant is likely to be present in the effluent of the tanneries? (a) Lead (b) Chromium (c) Fluoride (d) Cadmium RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (b) : Chromium is likely to be present in the effluent of tanneries. Tannery industries are listed as the most polluting activity due to the wide type of chemicals applied during the conversion of animal skins into leather. Chromium salts, phenolics, tannins, organic matter, among other products, are constantly released to the environment in tannery wastewater. These pollutants offer environmental risks to the aquatic life and human health. [Note - Commission has deleted this Question]. 232. Disease named 'Minamata' was caused by : (a) Cadmium Pollution (b) Zinc Pollution (c) Mercury Pollution (d) Cobalt Pollution UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (c) : Disease named 'Minamata' was caused by mercury pollution Minamata disease was first identified in 1956, in Minamata Japan. It is a methylmercury poisoning with neurological symptoms and caused by the daily consumption of large quantities of fish and shellfish that were heavily contaminated with the toxic chemical generated in chemical factories and then discharged into the sea. 233. Industries are the sources of – (a) Air pollutant (b) Noise pollutant (c) Water pollutant (d) All of the above UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (d) : Industries are the sources of air pollutant, noise pollutant and water pollutant. The major industrial pollutants affecting air quality are sulfur dioxide, volatile organic solvents, particulate materials such as metal dust oil refineries, Paper factories textile and sugar mills, chemical factories are responsible for water pollution. Engineering companies, printing presses, textile mills and metal works immensely generate noise pollution. 234. PAN is: (a) Peroxyamyl nitrate (b) Polyoxyamyl nitrate (c) Peroxyacetyl nitrate (d) Polyoxyacetyl nitrate RPSC School Lecturer (23/07/2016) Ans. (c) : PAN is peroxyacetyl nitrate. Peroxyacetyl nitrate is a peroxyacyl nitrate. It is a secondary pollutant. Present in photochemical smog. It is thermally unstable and decomposes into peroxyethanoyl radicals and nitrogen dioxide gas. It is a lachrymatory substance meaning that it irritates the lungs and eyes. 235. The most toxic metal pollutant of automobile exhaust is: (a) Hg (b) Cd (c) Cu (d) Pb UK SSSC L.T. (21/01/2018) Ans. (d) : The most toxic metal pollutant of automobile exhaust is lead (Pb). Automobile exhausts have a variety of organic and inorganic pollutants that also include metallic pollutants, lead, cadmium (Cd), copper (Cu) and mercury (Hg) are common heavy metal pollutants. Lead is the most immobile heavy metal pollutant and is used as an antiknock agent in petrol as tetraethyl and tetramethyl lead. Its widespread use has caused extensive environmental contamination and health problems.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 236. The cause of minamata disease is : (a) Deficiency of Hg (b) Excess of Hg (c) deficiency of Cd (d) Excess of Cd RPSC School Lecturer 2011 Ans. (b): Minamata disease is a methyl mercury poisoning with neurological symptoms and caused by the daily consumption of large quantities of fish and shellfish that were heavily contaminated with the toxic chemical generated in chemical factories and then discharged into sea. 237. Exogenous poisons are those that : (a) enter the organism from outer environment (b) work outside the body of the organism (c) are produced by one organism (d) are produced inside the body fluid UP PGT 2016 Ans. (a) Exogenous poisons are those that enter the organism from outer environment. A poison can be any substance that is harmful to the body. It can be swallowed, inhaled, injected or absorbed through the skin. 238. Which one of the following vehicular fuels is currently accepted as ecofriendly : (a) Diesel (b) Petrol (c) Liquified petroleum gas (LPG) (d) Compressed natural gas (CNG) UPPCS Pre 2000 Ans. (d) : Compressed natural gas (CNG) vehicular fuels is currently accepted as ecofriendly because methane store at high pressure in a fuel. Its has natural gas and disperse quickly. It compress in methane to less than one percent of the volume. 239. Which one of the following is normally not an air pollutant : (a) CO2 (b) CO (c) Hydrocarbons (d) SO2 UPPCS Pre 2000, 2003, 2009 Ans. (a) : CO2 is not an air pollutant. In simple terms, CO2 is plant food. It is required by green plants to carry on photosynthesis. Green plants, use carbon dioxide to synthesize carbohydrates. A pollutant is a chemical substance, which is harmful to living systems, like sulphur dioxide, carbon monoxide and hydrocarbons. 240. Which one of the following is ordinarily not an air pollutant : (a) CO2 (b) CO (d) Hydrocarbons (c) SO2 UPPCS Pre 2003 Ans. (a) : CO2 is an important trace gas in earth's atmosphere. It is an integral part of carbon cycle. CO2 is not a pollutant at a normal level in the atmosphere but if its level is increased in the environment, they are pollutant in the atmosphere. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

241. The principal culprit in producing the photo chemical smog is : (a) SO2 (b) NO2 (c) O3 (d) CO UPPCS Pre 2000 Ans. (b) : The principal culprit in producing the photo chemical smog is NO2. The Principal culprits were unburned hydrocarbons and oxides of nitrogen from cars, which are acted upon by sunlight to produce more toxic acid gases hence the name photochemical smog. 242.What is the full form of BOD. (a) Biological Ozone Demand (b) Biological Oxygen Demand (c) Biotic Oxygen Demand (d) Biological Oxgen Deficiency Navoday Vidyalay PGT Biology 2014 Ans: (b) Biochemical/Biological oxygen Demand (BOD), represents the amount of oxygen consumed by bacteria and other microorganisms while they decompose organic matter under aerobic (oxygen is present) conditions at a specified temperature. Drinking water should have after 5 days a BOD of well below 1 mg/l. Acceptable waste water from a sewage treatment plant should have BOD of around 20 mg/l. 243. Which of the following sets is not correctly matched ? (a) Minamata - Mercury (b) itai-itai disease - Zinc (c) blue-baby disease - Nitrate (d) Black-foot disease - Arsenic UPPCS Pre 2008 Ans. (b) : Correct Match (a) Minamata Mercury (b) Itai-itai disease Cadmium (c) blue-baby disease Nitrate (d) Black-foot disease Arsenic 244. Smog is formed by combination of : (a) dust particles and humidity (b) smoke and fog (c) ozone and grit (d) SPM and acid rain UPPCS Pre 2003 Ans. (b) : Smog is a type of air pollutant. The word "smog" was coined in the early 20th century as a portmanteau of the words smoke and fog to refer to smoky fog, Its opacity and odour. The smog formation occurs only during night or cloudy days. 245. Given : 1. Disease outbreak 2. Hunting 3. Inbreeding 4. Genetic variability Which two of the above are responsible for naturally effected extinction of a species of wildlife in the wild : (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4 UPPCS Pre 2003

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (a) : Disease outbreak and hunting both are responsible for extinction of a species of wildlife in the wild. An outbreak is a sudden rise in the number of cases of a disease. An outbreak may occur in a community or geographical area or may affect several countries. 246. Which of the following air-polluting gases is emitted exclusively from refineries or pulp mills: (a) CO2 (b) SO2 (d) NO2 (c) H2S UPPCS Pre 1998 Ans. (b) : SO2 is an air-polluting gas emitted exclusively from refineries or pulp mills during producing, preparing, transporting and refining oil and gas as well as during their combustion. Air polluting gases are SO2, H2S, NOx, CO, CO2 and hydrocarbon emission. 247. Consider the following statements : Assertion (A) : Smog is hazardous to human health. Reason (R) : Peroxyacetyl nitrate develops in it. Now select your answer from the answer codes given below : (a) both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. (c) A is true but R is false. (d) A is false but R is true. UPPCS Pre 1998 Ans. (a) : Smog is a mixture of smoke and fog. Smog = smoke + fog Smog is hazardous to human health because Peroxyacetyl nitrate (PAN) found in it. PAN is a secondary pollutant. PAN is primarily responsible for the eye irritation, characteristic of photochemical smog. 248. Which of the following pollutants is nondegradable? (a) Mercury (b) Plastic (c) Cadmium (d) All the above UPPCS Pre 2005 RPSC PGT Biology 2013 Ans. (d) : Nondegradable pollutants are not broken down by natural process. ex. heavy metals, plastic, cadmium. Those pollutants, which cannot be broken down in simpler, harmless substances in nature, are called non-biodegradable pollutants. DDT, plastics, polythene bags, insecticides, pesticides, mercury, lead, arsenic synthetic fibres, glass objects are nonbiodegradable pollutants. 249. Which one of the following is a bio-degradable pollutant? (a) Mercury (b) Cadmium (c) Plastic (d) Domestic sewage UPPCS Pre 2005 PGT Biology 2013 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (d) : Domestic sewage is a bio-degradable pollutant while mercury, cadmium, plastics are nonbiodegradable. Those pollutants which can be broken down into simpler, harmless substances in nature in due course of time (by action of micro-organisms like certain bacteria) are called biodegradable pollutants. Domestic wastes (garbage), urine, faecal matter, sewage, agriculture residues, paper, wood, cloth, cattle dung, animal bones etc are biodegradable. 250. The most dangerous metal pollutant from the automobile exhaust is: (a) copper (b) cadmium (c) mercury (d) lead UPPCS Pre 2005 Ans. (d) : The most dangerous metal pollutant from the automobile exhaust is lead, because exposure to high levels of lead may cause anemia, weakness and kidney and brain damage. Lead can damage a developing baby's nervous system. 251. Which of the following release methane? (a) Cattles (b) Termites (c) Rice Fields (d) All the above UPPCS Pre 2005 Ans. (d) : Cattles, termites and rice fields all release methane. Cattles release methane during belching. Termites release methane gas during digestion of cellulose. Methane gas is generated in the paddy fields by green algae. 252. Which of the following is a secondary air pollutant? (a) CO2 (b) Smog (c) Lead (d) Formaldehyde UPPCS Pre 2009 Ans. (b and d) : Secondary pollutants are the pollutants which are formed in the lower environment in the atmosphere by the chemical reactions & they do not come directly from source (like vehicles or power plants). e.g. Ozone (O3), smog, formaldehyde, SO2, H2O2, H2SO4 etc. 253. Which of the following air pollutants is most harmful? (a) O3 (b) H2S (c) CO2 (d) CO PGT Biology 2005 UPPCS Pre 2010 Ans. (d) : Carbon monoxide (CO) is most harmful air pollutant. CO is a colorless, odorless gas that can be harmful when inhaled in large amounts reduces the amount of oxygen that can be transported in the blood stream to critical organs like the brain and the heart. It can cause confusion, dizziness, unconsciousness and death. Main source of CO are kerosene, gas space heaters, chimney, vehicles & power plants.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 254. Carbon monoxide is harmful to human beings Ans. (a) : Entamoeba is a genus of Amoebozoa that as it is : lives inside animals as parasites or commensals. (a) Carcinogenic Entamoeba cysts in water indicate that water is (b) Antagonistic to CO2 contaminated by sewage. (c) With higher affinity for haemoglobin as Thus, Sewage infection of water will be demonstrated compared to oxygen by cysts of Entamoeba. (d) Destructive to O3 (Ozone) Pseudomonas is a bacterial genus that can be found in a TGT Biology 2013 variety of environments. Pseudomonas does not form Ans. (c) : Carbon monoxide (CO) is harmful to human cysts and thus is not a sign of sewage contamination in beings as it is with higher affinity for haemoglobin as the water. Leishmania causes Leishmaniasis and is compared to oxygen. It is more soluble about 250 times spread by sandfly bites. It does not form cysts and thus greater than oxygen in the blood where CO forms is not a sign of sewage contamination in water. carboxyhemoglobin which prevents oxygen dissolution 259. Major Pollutant emitted by automobiles is : in the blood. (a) SO2 (b) CO2 255. Cadmium pollution is associated with disease : (c) NO2 (d) CO (a) Blood Anaemia TGT Biology 1999 (b) Itai -Itai Ans. (d) : Major pollutant emitted by automobiles is (c) Minamata CO (Carbon monoxide). It is also known as (d) Pneumoconiosis suffocating gas. It reaches in the body through PGT Biology 2010 breathing and reduces oxygen carrying capacity of the TGT Biology 2013 haemoglobin in the blood, as a result of which man dies. Ans. (b) : Cadmium pollution is associated with Itai260. Which one is the most toxic itai. (a) C (b) CO Itai-itai disease was the name given to the mass cadmium poisoning of Toyama Prefecture, Japan, (c) CO2 (d) SO2 starting around 1912. PGT Biology 2013 Cadmium poisoning can also cause softeing of the bones and kidney failure. The cadmium was released Ans. (b) : Carbon mono-oxide (CO) is most toxic gas. It is a poisonous gas that has no smell or taste. into rivers by mining companies. Breathing it in can make you on well and it can kill if 256. Which one of the following is highly dangerous you are exposed to high levels. Evergy year there are radioactive pollutant ? around 60 deaths from accidental carbon mono-oxide (a) Phosphorus - 32 (b) Sulphur -35 poisoning in england and wales. (c) Strontium -90 (d) Calcium -40 261. The poisonous symptom of DDT is : UPPCS Pre 2008, TGT Biology 2009 (a) Necrosis of liver Ans. (c) : Highly dangerous radioactive pollutant is (b) Haemolysis strontium - 90. It is a radioactive isotope of strontium (c) Albinism produced by nuclear fission, with a half life of 28.8 (d) All of these years. Strontium - 90 behaves like calcium in the human body and tends to deposit in bone and blood forming PGT Biology 2009 tissue (bone marrow). Risk factor includes, bone cancer, Ans. (d) : The poisonous symptom of DDT is necrosis leukemia, and cancer of soft tissue of the bone. of liver, haemolysis and albinism. 257. The indicator of SO2 pollution in air is : The direct DDT exposure toxic effects in humans (a) Lichen (b) Fern include developmental abnormalities, reproductive (c) Black mould (d) Moss disease, neurological disease and cancer. UPPCS Pre 2008, TGT Biology 2009 DDT is banned for agricultural use in India. DDT has Ans. (a) : Lichen is the indicator of SO2 pollution in high degree of persistence in the environment. air. Lichens are the indicator of air pollution & they do 262. Minamata disease results from : not grow in the polluted area. Lichens are widely used (a) Accumulation of arsenic in the atmosphere as environmental indicators or bio-indicators. Lichens (b) Release of human waste into drinking water are sensitive to SO2 and are not found in those areas where SO2 concentration is high. (c) Release of industrial waste mercury into water 258. Sewage infection of water will be demonstrated (d) Release of copper into water by cysts of : (a) Entamoeba (b) Escherichia coli PGT Biology 2004 (c) Pseudomonas (d) Leishmania Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2011 TGT Biology 2004 Bihar PGT 2019 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (c) : DDT has been banned in many countries because of its high degree of persistence in the environment. Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane (DDT) is an insecticide used in agriculture. It is a nonbiodegradable pollutant. Biomagnification and bioaccumulation in the food web make this molecule become more negative impact to the organisms. 268. DDT is a/an (a) antibiotic (b) biodegradable pollutant (c) non-biodegradable pollutant (d) None of these GIC Biology 2015 PGT Biology 2009 Ans. (c) : DDT (Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane) is a non-biodegradable pollutant. See the explanation of the above question. 269. PAN is : (a) Peroxyamyl nitrate (b) Polyoxyamyl nitrate (c) Peroxyacetyl nitrate (d) Polyoxyacetyl nitrate Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2015 Ans. (c) : The full form of the PAN is Peroxyacetyl Nitrates. It is also called Acetyl peroxy nitrates (PAN). It is a toxic chemical that is important component of smog. It is a gas at normal temperatures and pressure. Its chemical formula is C2H3O5N. 270. The organic gaseous pollutants of air are : (a) Carbon-mono-oxide and Sulphur-di-oxide (b) Fluorine and Ammonia (c) Hydrogen cyanide and Peroxyacetyl nitrate (d) Nitrogen oxide and ozone Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2013 Ans. (c) : Air pollutants are divided into two parts– 1. Primary pollutant/Inorganic pollutant – These pollutant sources are directly found into the air. As.– NO2, CO 2 , CH 4 ,SO 2 etc. 2. Secondary pollutant/Organic pollutant – These are organic molecules which are formed in the atmosphere e.g. – O3, HCN, PAN etc. 272. Ambient noise standards for residential areas during day and night are respectively : (a) 50 and 40 decibels (b) 55 and 45 decibels (c) 65 and 55 decibels (d) 75 and 65 decibels Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2013 Ans. (b) : The loudness of sound is measured in decibels. 80 decibels or more noise are able to permanent loss of hearing. Usually 25-60 decibel sound are not harmful. That is ambient noise standards for residential areas during day and night are 55 and 45 decibels respectively. 267. DDT has been banned in many countries Problems related to noise pollution is stress related because of its : illness, high blood pressure, speech interference, (a) high solubility in water hearing loss, sleep disruption and lost productivity. (b) high toxicity to grazing mammals 272. Which of the following is not a primary pollutant? (c) high degree of persistence in the environment (a) SO2 (b) O3 (d) low lethal effects on pests (c) NO (d) HF PGT Biology 2004 GIC Biology 14.06.2015 Ans. (c) : Minamata disease results from release of industrial waste mercury into water. Minamata disease is a neurological disease caused by severe mercury poisoning. Symptom may include ataxia (difficulty co-ordinating movement of hands and feet), sensory disorders in the distal portion (loss of sensation in the hands and feet), muscle weakness, loss of peripheral vision, damage to hearing and speech. In extreme cases insanity, paralysis, coma and death. 263. Minamata epidemics in which many people died occurred due to : (a) Leakage of SO2 in atmosphere (b) HgCl2 in water (c) Noise pollution (d) Soil pollution TGT Biology 1999 Ans. (b) : See the explanation of the above question. 264. Minamata disease associated with : (a) Lead (b) Mercury (c) Hydrogen sulphide (d) Sulphur dioxide PGT Biology 2013 Ans. (b) : See the explanation of the above question. 265. Man gets killed by cyanide because it affect the function of : (a) Cytochrome oxidase (b) Haemoglobin (c) Immunoglobin (d) Thrombine PGT Biology 2002 Ans. (a) : Cyanide poisons the mitochondrial electron transport chain (ETS) with in cells and renders the body unable to derive energy (ATP) from oxygen. Specifically, it binds to the a3 portion (complex IV) of cytochrome oxidase and prevents cells from using oxygen, causing rapid death. The heart, respiratory system and central nervous system are most susceptible to cyanide poisoning. 266. Biological magnification refers to : (a) Enlargement of image under microscope (b) Growth of tissue in culture (c) Accumulation of pollutants in higher trophic level organisms (d) Epidemic form of disease PGT Biology 2002 Ans. (c) : Biomagnification is the accumulation of a chemical by an organism from water and food exposure that results in a concentration that is greater than would have resulted from water exposure only and this greater than expected from equilibrium. Biological magnification refers to accumulation of pollutants in higher trophic level organism. e.g. – DDT

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (b) : Ozone is not a primary pollutant since it is formed by the photo chemical reaction of oxygen with 5. Miscellaneous th UV rays and not directly discharged into the atmosphere by a source. 277. Which of the following represents the probability, P of an event which is certain? (a) P = 1 (b) P = 10 (c) P = 50 (d) P = 100 UP PGT 2016 Ans. (a) In P = 1, P represents the probability. Probability means possibility. It is a branch of Mathematics that deals with the occurence of a random event. The probability of an event is a number between 0 and 1 where 0 indicates impossibility of the event and 1 indicates certainty. 278. Manure is : (a) an organic substance (b) a chemical substance (c) obtained from decomposition of plants and animals 273. Noise pollution level is measured in : (d) both (a) & (c) (a) Hertz (b) Nanometers Bihar PGT 2019 (c) Decibel (d) None of the above GIC Biology 15.09.2015 Ans. (d) : Manure is an organic substance or animal dung used for fertilizing land. Garbage in the houses Ans. (c) : Noise pollution level is measured in decibel. and in the field is constantly coming out in large See the above explanation. quantities, animal dung, urine etc, are also obtained in agricultural fields. By scavenging them properly, their 274. Which is not a carcinogen ? nutrients are used to increase production. (a) X-ray (b) HNO2 279. A method of birth control is : (c) Virus (d) Starch (a) GIFT (b) HIF Delhi SSB PGT Biology 2015 (c) IVF-ET (d) IUDS Ans. (d) : X-Ray, HNO2, Viruses are a carcinogens. Bihar PGT 2019 Carcinogen is an agent which has the capacity to cause cancer in humans. Starch is not a carcinogen but it is a Ans. (d) : A method of birth control is IUDS, (Intra Polysaccharide. Uterine device system). It is a small often T-shaped 275. Cause of Bhopal tragedy on 3rd December, birth control device that is inserted into the uterus to prevent pregnancy. IUDs are one form of long acting 1984 was– reversible birth control. There are many different (a) Methyl Isocyanate (b) SO2 methods of birth control. These include condoms, IUDs, (c) CO (d) NH3 birth control pills, male sterilization and tubal ligation. TGT Biology 2002 280. In submerged hydrophytes, which of the following is present ? Ans. (a) : Cause of Bhopal tragedy on 3rd December (a) well developed sclerenchyma 1984 was methyl isocyanate. (b) well developed vascular tissue Bhopal gas tragedy was a gas leak incident on the night of 2-3 December 1984 at the Union Carbide India (c) Air spaces Limited Pesticide plant in Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh (d) cuticle India. It harms the surrounding climate atmosphere and TGT Biology 2004 affects on thousands of animals and plants. Ans. (c) In submerged hydrophytes, air spaces are found. 276. Consider the following pairs : Aerenchyma are the spaces or air channels in the Industry Pollutant released leaves, stems and roots of Hydrophytes. It is an 1. Petroleum refinery Hydrogen Sulphide adaptation of hydrophytes, these air spaces provides buoyancy to the plants. 2. Paints and pigments Nitrobenzene and Anilines 3. Tanneries Chlorine and lead • Cuticle : It is a thick layer present on the cells of Which of the following pairs is/are correctly Xerophytes to prevent the loss of water. matched? 281. Which of the following plant is capable of absorbing CO2 and NO2 : (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (a) Robinia pseudoacacia (b) Phaseolus vulgaris (c) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Daucus carota (d) Coleus indica PGT Biology 2003 UPPCS Pre 2002 Ans. (d) : Ans. (b) Phaseolus vulgaris is a plant capable of 1. Petroleum refinery → Hydrogen sulphide absorbing CO2 and NO2. Phaseolus vulgaris is a bean 2. Paints and Pigments→ Nitrobenzene and Anilines. plant. Common beans acquire the nitrogen through an 3. Tanneries → Chlorine and lead. association with rhizobia, which are nitrogen-fixing bacteria. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 282. Which of the following statement is not true about population in Hardy-Weinberg's equilibrium? (a) The population is not evolving (b) Gene flow between the population and surrounding population doesn't occur (c) The population is quite small (d) Natural selection is not occurring UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (c) : The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is a principle stating that the genetic variation in a population will remain constant from one generation to the next in the absence of disturbing factors. It was proposed by Wilhelm Weinberg, a German physician and Godfrey Harold Hardy, a British mathematician. There must be random mating, no mutation, no migration no natural selection and a large sample size. 283. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer from the code given below the list : List-I List-II (a) Chital 1. Cervus duvaucelii (b) Barasingha 2. Cervus unicolor (c) Sambhar 3. Axis-axis (d) Hangul 4. Antilope cervicapra 5. Cervus elaphus Code : A B C D (a) 5 1 3 4 (b) 3 1 2 5 (c) 4 2 1 3 (d) 2 3 4 5 UPPCS Pre 1998 Ans. (b) List–I (Animal) A. Chital B. Barasingha C. Sambhar D. Hangul

List–II (Scientific Name) Axis-axis Cervus duvaucelii Cervus unicolor Cervus elaphus

284. For a given ecosystem, the total amount of solar energy converted to organic compounds during photosynthesis is called : (a) net primary production(b) primary productivity (c) gross primary production (d) primary production UPPCS Pre 1998 Ans. (d) : Only one percent of Solar Energy utilized by green plants. Total amount of Solar Energy stored in the food material synthesized by green plant called gross primary production. 285. Which bird is the ‘State Symbol’ for Uttar Pradesh? (a) Peacock (b) Grey Pelican (c) Sarus crane (d) Fairy blue bird PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (c) : Sarus crane is the 'state symbol' for Uttar Pradesh. Sarus crane is the highest flying bird in the world. Its scientific name is Grus antigone. The sarus crane is a large nonmigratory crane found in parts of the Indian subcontinent, southeast Asia and Australia. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

286. Field capacity is the extent to which a soil can hold : (a) Gravitational water (b) Capillary water (c) Hygroscopic water (d) Capillary and hygroscopic water PGT Biology 2010

Ans. (d) : The water-holding capacity of soil is described in terms of field capacity. It represents the maximum amount of water that soil can hold after allowing free drainage. Clay soil or soil with a high humus content have a large field capacity. • Hygroscopic water→Water present as a thin film around soil particles, It is not utilized by plants. • Capillary water→Water present in thin and narrow capillaries formed by soil particles and widely utilized by plants. The water present in soil, utilized by plants is called chresard. • Gravitational water→Water percolate deep into the soil due to gravitational forces and constitutes ground water. It is not utilized by plants. 287. The term aquaculture means : (a) Inland fisheries (b) Aspergillosis (c) Marine fisheries (d) Both a and c Delhi SSB PGT Biology 2015 Ans. (d) : Aquaculture involves production of useful aquatic plants and animals such as fishes, prawns, shrimps, lobsters, crabs, molluscs by proper utilization of small and larges bodies of water. The production of fishes is called pisciculture. Inland fishery deals with the fishery aspects of waters other than marine water. Marine fishery deals with the fishery aspects of the sea water or ocean. Aspergillosis is the disease of the human lungs. 288. Which one of the following is an example of a plant adapted to highly saline coastal condition ? (a) Sonneratia acida (b) Anacardium occidentale (c) Taxus baccata (d) Gnetum gnemon TGT Biology 2003 Ans. (a) : Sonneratia acida is an example of a plant adapted to highly saline coastal condition. This is a halophytic plant. Sonneratia is a genus of plants in the family Lythraceae. Sonneratia species are mangrove trees. It has got intertidal habitats due to its ability to cope with salty environment. 289. Find the odd man out. (a) LD50 (b) LC50 (c) EC50 (d) LE50 UP PGT 2016 Ans. (d) LD50, LC50 both represents amount and concentration respectively, at the same time EC50 is strongly related to concentration. EC50 means half maximum effective concentration, In a pharmacological context. LE50 is a laser measure and not related with toxicology.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 290. Temperature influences the rate at which some physiological processes function but does not participate in the function. What kind of effect of the abiotic environmental factors it is called? (a) Masking (b) Directiveness (c) Control (d) Deficiency UPPCS Pre 2008 Ans. (b) : Temperature influences the rate at which some physiological processes function but does not participate in the function. It is called directiveness effect of the abiotic environmental factors. 291. Given : 1. Sperm bank 2. Egg bank 3. Blood bank 4. DNA finger printing 5. Mitochondrial DNA A pure Asiatic lion is identified from a hybrid between Asiatic lion and African lion using : (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 4 and 5 only UPPCS Pre 2003 Ans. (d) : DNA finger printing and mitochondrial DNA are used for identification of Asiatic lion and African lion because DNA is necessary for identification of any organism. 292. 2, 4-D is a synthetic : (a) Auxin (b) Gibberellin (c) Cytokinin (d) Florigen TGT Biology 2005 Ans. (a) : 2-4-D is a synthetic auxin. Full name of 2.4 D is the 2, 4- dichlorophenoxyacetic acid and is used as one of the most common herbicides to control broadleaf weeds. It has also good potential to enhance storage life and quality of fruits. 293. Which function performed by a forest helps most in controlling drought ? (a) Forests bring rainfall (b) Forests have lot of aquatic plants (c) Forests act as water reservoir (d) Forests prevent soil erosion PGT Biology 2005 Ans. (d) : The forest helps most in controlling drought by performing function to prevent soil erosion. Forest can soak up excess rainwater preventing run-offs and damage from flooding. By releasing water in the dry season, forests can also help provide clean water and mitigate the effects of droughts. 294. Soil salinity is measured by: (a) Potometer (b) Porometer (c) Colorimeter (d) Conductivity meter PGT Biology 2004 Ans. (d) : Soil salinity is measured by conductivity meter. Potometer or transpirometer is used to measure water uptake in a leafy shoot or rate of transpiration. Porometer measure the stomatal conductance or obstruction. Colorimeter is a device used to measures the absorbance of particular wavelengths of light. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

295. What is a xenobiotic ? (a) Insecticide (c) Herbicide

(b) Fungicide (d) All of the above PGT Biology 2004 Ans. (d) : Xenobiotic means 'Foreign to life'. It is a chemical substances found within an organism that is not naturally produced or expected to be present within the organism. Examples of xenobiotics are - Insecticide, pesticide, herbicide, fungicide etc. 296. Poor Man's cow is : (a) Deer (b) Sheep (c) Bitch (d) Goat Delhi SSB PGT Biology 2015 Ans. (d) : Goat is known as Poor Man's cow, because they fulfill or provide nutritious meat and highly palatable milk satisfying the requirements of especially children and old people of rural India. Saanen species of the goat is called the 'Queen of milk'. 297. Sustainable development means : (a) Continuous development. (b) Continuous development for improving the quality of human life. (c) Development without environmental conservation (d) Development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the needs of future generations. GIC Biology 14.06.2015 Ans. (d) : Sustainable development means development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the needs of future generations. The concept of sustainable development was described by the Brundtland Commission Report (1987). It is the overarching paradigm of the United Nations. Using recycled materials or renewable resources when building is an example of sustainable development. Its goal is to ensure all people enjoy peace and prosperity by 2030. 298. Monoclimax theory of climax community was proposed by : (a) Champion (b) Clement (c) Tansley (d) Whittaker Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2013 Ans. (b) : Monoclimax theory of climax community was given by Clements (1916). According to this theory every region has one climax community towards which all communities are developing. Climate was the determining factor for vegetation and the climax of any area was solely a function of its climate. 299. The disease caused by the use of chemical fertilizers(a) Minamata (b) Itai - itai (c) Sickle cell Anaemia (d) Methemoglobinemia RPSC School Lecturer 2011 Ans. (d) : The disease caused by the use of chemical fertilizers is Methemoglobinemia also known as Blue baby syndrome. The condition results from feeding the infants with baby formula using well water contaminated with nitrates. It is a blood disorder in which an abnormal amount of methemoglobin is produced Methemoglobin is a form of hemoglobin.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 19. Miscellaneous 1.

India's first centre for Wetland Conservation and Management has been set up in : (a) Mumbai (b) Chennai (c) Kolkata (d) Chandigarh UPPSC Ashram Paddhati 29/09/2021 Ans. (b) : India's first centre for Wetland Conservation and Management has been set up in Chennai. On the occasion of the World Wetland Day (2nd February), the Minister of state for Environment, Forest and Climate change announced the establishment of this centre, as a part of the National Centre for Sustainable Coastal Management (NCSCM). It aims to promote integrated and sustainable management of the coastal and marine areas. 2. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists. List–I List–II (Structure) (Organs) A. Nail 1. Lymph nodules B. Tonsil 2. Spleen C. Trabeculae 3. Tongue D. Vallate pharynx 4. Unguis Codes : A B C D (a) 3 2 1 4 (b) 2 4 3 1 (c) 4 1 2 3 (d) 1 2 3 4 UPPSC Ashram Paddhati 29/09/2021 Ans. (c) : Correct match – List-I List-II (Structure) (Organs) (A) Nail – Unguis (B) Tonsil – Lymph nodules (C) Trabeculae – Spleen (D) Vallate pharynx – Tongue 3. Which one of the following is NOT a source of "nuclear energy"? (a) Uranium (b) Cadmium (c) Plutonium (d) Thorium UPPSC Ashram Paddhati 29/09/2021 Ans. (b) : Cadmium is not a source of "nuclear energy'. It is also known as atomic energy, and it is released from the nucleus, the core of atoms, made up of protons and neutrons. Source of nuclear energy are metals like Uranium, Plutonium and Thorium. Uranium - 235 is the most widely used source of nuclear energy. There are two fundamental nuclear processes considered for energy production : fission and fusion. Fission is the energetic splitting of large atoms, and fusion is the combining of two small atoms. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

4.

Which of the following cells would likely be found in the tissue lining the organ that produces and released mucous? (a) Goblet cells (b) Mast cells (c) Macrophages (d) Osteoblasts UPPSC Ashram Paddhati 29/09/2021 Ans. (a) : Goblet cells are found in the tissue lining of the organ that produces and released mucous. These cells arise from pluripotent stem cells and derive their name from their goblet, cup-like appearance. The primary function of goblet cells is to secrete mucin and create a protective mucous layer. These cells are simple columnar epithelial cells. These cells are typically found in the respiratory, reproductive and gastrointestinal tracts. Clinically, goblet cells are associated with respiratory diseases and inflammatory bowel diseases. 5. Which of the following have Schizocoelom ? (a) Platyhelminthes, Annelida and Mollusca (b) Aschelminthes, Annelida and Arthropoda (c) Annelida, Arthropoda and Mollusca (d) Arthropoda, Mollusca and Echinodermata UPPSC Ashram Paddhati 29/09/2021 Ans. (c) : Annelida, Arthropoda and Mollusca have Schizocoelom. It is a true coelom formed through the splitting of the mesodermal mass during embryonic development. It is a body cavity lying between the digestive tract and the musculature of the body wall. It is filled with coelomic fluid secreted by the peritoneum. One part attaches to ectoderm and the other surrounds the endoderm. The blastopore forms mouth. 6. Which one of the following is correctly matched? Zoological Name Common Name (a) Scoliodon - Dogfish (b) Torpedo - Cartilaginous fish (c) Labeo - Flying fish (d) Protopterus - Sea horse UPPSC Ashram Paddhati 29/09/2021 Ans. (a) : Correct match is , Scoliodon - Dogfish. • Scoliodon is a genus of sharks. It is called dogfish because of its great smell power like dogs. • Torpedo fish is known by the name of electric ray. • Labeo fish is found in freshwater habitats in the tropics and subtropics of Africa and Asia, and known as rohu. • Protopterus is known as lungfish. • Flying fish belongs to the family Exocoetidae. • A Sea horse is any of 46 species of small marine fish in the genus Hippocampus.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 7.

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below. List–I List–II A. Toluidine blue 1. Fats B. Safranin 2. Lignin C. Cotton blue 3. RNA D. Osmium tetroxide 4. Fungal hyphae Codes : A B C D (a) 1 2 4 3 (b) 3 2 4 1 (c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 1 4 2 3

Indian subcontinent is included in : (a) Palearctic region (b) Oriental region (c) Neotropical region (d) Nearctic region TGT (2016) 31/07/2021 Ans. (b) : Oriental region includes Indian Subcontinent, southern China, south of 30° latitude, Malaya, Philippines and Indonesian Islands up to Wallace's line. There are rainforests in the east, high mountains in the north and the western part is arid. Along the SouthWestern Coast there is a forested low mountainous belt. 11. Neopilina is a connecting link between : (a) Annelida and mollusca (b) Annelida and arthropoda (c) Echinodermata and chordata UPPSC Ashram Paddhati 29/09/2021 (d) Protochordata and euchordata Ans. (b) : Correct match – TGT (2016) 31/07/2021 List-I List-II Ans. (a) : Neopilina is a connection link between A- Toluidine blue – RNA phylum Annelida and Mollusca. It is highly derived B- Safranin – Lignin genus of modern Placophoran (Class of species C- Cotton blue – Fungal hyphae Annelids and Molluscs). Its annelids characters are metameric segmentation, presence of nephridia as D- Osmium tetroxide – Fats excretory organs, trochophore larva in life cycle, 8. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct presence of radula, shell and mantle and molluscan type answer using the codes given below lists. of circulatory system are its molluscan characters. List–I List–II 12. Some organisms can tolerate and thrive in a (Class) (Example) wide range of temperature, they are called A. Gastropoda 1. Lepisma (a) Stenothermal (b) Homeothermal B. Polychaeta 2. Cucumaria (c) Poikilothermal (d) Eurythermal C. Insecta 3. Nereis TGT (2016) 31/07/2021 D. Holothuroidea 4. Pila Ans. (d) : A eurythermal organism can tolerate and Codes : A B C D thrive in a wide temperature range, e.g. desert pupfish (a) 3 4 2 1 can survive in water from temperature 40 to 450C. (b) 4 3 1 2 Eurythermal organisms are the organisms that can (c) 2 3 4 1 tolerate large - scale variations in temperature. Hence, these organisms are able to survive in a wide range of (d) 3 4 1 2 UPPSC Ashram Paddhati 29/09/2021 temperatures. For examples, goats, man, cow. 13. In loam soil, the proportion of soil particles is Ans. (b) : Correct match:– (a) 80% sand + 20 % clay or silt or both List-I List-II (b) 70 % sand + 30% clay or silt or both (Class) (Example) (c) 60 % sand + 40% clay or silt or both A- Gastropoda – Pila (d) 50% sand + 50% clay or silt or both B- Polychaeta – Nereis TGT (2016) 31/07/2021 C- Insecta – Lepisma Ans. (d) : In loam soil the proportion of soil particles is D- Holothuroidea– Cucumaria 50% sand + 50% clay or silt or both. A loamy soil is 9. Largest and flightless two toes bird is : that combines sand and clay particles in relatively equal (a) Kiwi (b) Ostrich amounts. Loamy soil is ideal for most garden plants because it holds plenty of moisture but also drains well (c) Duck (d) Koel UPPSC Ashram Paddhati 29/09/2021 so that sufficient air can reach the roots. Loam is soil composed mostly of sand and silt, and a smaller amount Ans. (b) : Largest and flightless two toes bird is of clay. The soil can be called as silt if its silt content is Ostrich. An ostrich stands up to 9 feet (2.7 meters) tall. In one stride, an ostrich can cover up to 16 feet. It can greater than 90 percent. run at a pace of about 70 km/hr. It is the only bird that 14. Chaparral occurs in one of the areas : has two toes on each foot. (a) Africa (b) Siberia → Struthioniformes is a family of flightless birds, that (c) Canada (d) Mediterranean area includes- ostrich, emu, kiwi, cassowaries, etc. UP PGT 17/08/2021 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (d) : Chaparral occurs in Mediterranean area. It is a shrubland plant community. It consist of evergreen, sclerophyllous shrubs adapted to a mediterranean type climate. These areas have mild wet winters and hot dry summers. Chaparral is largely found in regions of California and Northern Mexico with a climate similar to that of the Mediterranean area. 15. If an actin inhibiting drug is injected into an amoeba, its movement will : (a) stop instantly (b) become faster (c) become slower (d) remain unaffected UP PGT 17/08/2021 Ans. (a) : If an actin inhibiting drug is injected into an amoeba, its movement will stop instantly. Amoeboid movement is brought about by reversible changes in the actin filaments of the cell's cytoskeleton. The interaction of myosin with the actin network generates membrane retraction, retrograde flow and contractile forces for forward motion. 16. A sample of ten people have the following body temperature in °C: 36, 34, 41, 39, 37, 43, 36, 37, 41 and 39. Which of the following represents the standard deviation ? (a) 2.65°C (b) 2.90°C (c) 3.10°C (d) 3.50°C UP PGT 17/08/2021 Ans. (a) : A sample of ten people have the following body temperature in 0C : 36, 34, 41, 39, 37, 43, 36, 37, 41 and 39. The standard deviation will be 2.650C. • Standard deviation measures the spread of a data distribution. • First calculate the mean of the data. • Then subtract the mean from each data point. • Square each deviation to make it positive. • Add the squared deviations together. • Divide the sum by the number of data points in the population. • Finally take the square root to get the standard deviation. 17. In arithmetic average the meaning of Σ is : (a) Sample mean (b) Number of individuals (c) Summation (d) Individual measures UP PGT 17/08/2021 Ans. (c) : In arithmetic average, the meaning of Σ is summation. It is the addition of a sequence of any kind of numbers. It is usually required when the large numbers of data are given and it instructs to total up all values in a given sequence. Summation notation enables us to write short forms for the addition of very large number for a given data in a sequence. 18. Alluvial soils are mostly found in which region? (a) Northern India (b) Eastern India (c) Southern India (d) Gangetic Jamuna plains UP PGT 17/08/2021 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (d) : Alluvial soils are mostly found in Gangetic Jamuna plains. Alluvial soils are soils deposited by surface water. It is one of the best soils, requiring the least water due to its high porosity. Alluvial soils are formed mainly due to silt deposited by Indo-GangeticBrahmaputra rivers. They support more than 40% of the India's population by providing the most productive agricultural lands. 19.

0.61λ is the formula for : n 'sin θ (a) Resolving power (b) Kinetic energy (c) Light energy (d) Thermodynamics UP PGT 17/08/2021

h' =

0.61λ is the formula for resolving n ' sin θ power. For microscopes, the resolving power is the inverse of the distance between two objects that can be just resolved. Here h' is the refractive index of the medium separating object and aperture. To achieve high resolution, n'sinθ must be large. This is known as the numerical aperture. 20. Weeds of the fish pond having fry is removed by? (a) Weedicides (b) Herbicides (c) Pesticides (d) Mechanical uprooting UP PGT 17/08/2021 Ans. (d) : Weeds of the fish pond having fry is removed by mechanical uprooting. Many ponds, lakes, and drainage ditches are shallow and nutrient-enriched and provide ideal conditions for abundant aquatic weed growth. Aquatic weeds restrict free movement of fry. Mechanical uprooting involves physical removal of aquatic weeds manually or by power operated devices. The weeds are either hand picked or dragged by wire or strong coir rope nets. Fry-refers to a recently hatched fish that has reached the stage where its yolk-sac has almost disappeared and its swim bladder is operational. 21. Of the following which is not the zoogeographic realm ? (a) Megagea (b) Neogea (c) Notogea (d) Palaearctic TGT 07/08/2021 Ans. (d) : Palaearctic is not the zoogeographic realm. Palaearctic mean of relating to or being a biogeographic region or sub-region that includers Europe, Asia, North of the Himalayas, Northern Arabia, and Africa North of the Sahara. On the basis of presence and absence of several organisms, the earth can be divided into some regions. These regions are called realms. 22. Which of the following is not a filter feeder? (a) Unio (b) Amphioxus (c) Herdmania (d) Asterias TGT 07/08/2021 Ans. (a) : h ' ·

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (d) : Filter feeding is the characteristic of certain animals called filter feeders. They feed by straining suspended matter and food particles from water, typically by passing the water over a specialized filtering structure, some animals that use this feature are clams, krill, sponges, baleen, whales, unio and many fisher but Asterias is not a filter feeder. 23. Alluvial soil is a type of : (a) Zonal soil (b) Azonal soil (c) Intrazonal soil (d) None TGT 07/08/2021 Ans. (b) : The soils of the Extra-Peninsula are formed due to the depositional work of rivers and wind. They are very deep. They are often reffered to as transported or azonal soils. Alluvial soils are formed mainly due to silt deposited by Indo-Gangetic -Brahmaputra rivers. In coastal regions some alluvial deposits are formed due to wave action. They are the largest soil group covering about 15 lakh Sq km or about 46 percent. They support more than 40% of the India's population by providing the most productive agricultural lands. 24. __________is the interaction in which one species is benefited and the other is neither harmed nor benefited. (a) Commensalism (b) Mutualism (c) Parasitism (d) Predation TGT 07/08/2021 Ans. (a) : Commensalism is a type of interaction among two organisms where one organism is benefited whereas other remains unaffected (neither harmed nor benefited). The common example of commensalism is Barnacles which are sessile and does not move by its own, they get attached to the side of whales and in turns transport to different places which helps them in feeding. Barnacles are benefited because of this association whereas whales remains unaffected. 25. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given belowList-I List-II (A) Acetic Acid 1. Ant sting (B) Citric Acid 2. Sour milk (C) Lactic Acid 3. Vinegar (D) Formic Acid 4. Orange Code : A B C D (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 3 2 1 (c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 3 4 1 2 GIC 19/09/2021 Ans. (c) : Correct match:– List-I List-II (A) Acetic Acid Vinegar (B) Citric Acid Orange (C) Lactic Acid Sour milk (D) Formic Acid Ant Sting TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

26.

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists : List-I List-II (A) Monogenea 1. Bothria (B) Cestoda 2. Proboscis (C) Digenea 3. Opisthaptor (D) Nemertea 4. Rostellum Code : A B C D (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 3 1 4 2 (c) 4 1 3 2 (d) 1 4 1 3 GIC 19/09/2021

Ans. (b) : Correct match :– List-I Lsit-II (A) Monogenea Opisthaptor (B) Cestoda Bothria (C) Digenea Rostellum (D) Nemertea Proboscis 27. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the listsList-I List-II (A) Protein synthesis 1. Polymerase (B) Mitosis 2. Ribosomes (C) DNA replication 3. DNA, RNA, Protein (D) Chromosomes 4. Mitogens Code : A B C D (a) 1 2 4 3 (b) 2 4 1 3 (c) 3 2 1 4 (d) 4 3 2 1 GIC 19/09/2021 Ans. (b) : Correct match :– List–I List–II (A) Protein synthesis Ribosome (B) Mitosis Mitogens (C) DNA replication Polymerase (D) Chromosomes DNA, RNA, Protein 28. Consider the following events and arrange these in correct chronological order from the code given below(I) First test tube baby born (II) Double helix structure of DNA discovered (III) Human Genome Project began (IV) Genetic code cracked Code : (a) I, II, III, IV (b) II, III, I, IV (c) II, IV, I, III (d) IV, II, I, III GIC 19/09/2021

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (c) : (II)- Double helix structure of DNA was discovered in 1953 by James Watson and Francis Crick. (IV)- Genetic code was cracked in 1966 by Marshall Warren Nirenberg and his team. (I)-First test tube baby, Louise Joy Brown was born in 1978. (III)- Human Genome Project began in 1990. So, the correct chronological order of events is II, IV, I, III. 29. When antibodies prepared against a disease causing organism/toxin are injected in the body, it is called : (a) Artificial passive immunization (b) Artificial active immunization (c) Natural passive immunization (d) Natural active immunization RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) Ans. (a) : When antibodies prepared against a disease causing organism/toxin are injected in the body, it is called Artificial Passive Immunization. These antibodies neutralise the infectious agents in the usual way, but the protection lasts only a few weeks. Antiserum is the general term used for preparations that contains antibodies. ⇒ Artificial active immunization (Vaccine-induced immunization) is acquired through the introduction of a killed or weakened form of the disease organism through vaccination. It is long-lasting. 30. Which of the following statements is incorrect? (a) Peripatus has jointed legs. (b) Body cavity of acoelomates is filled with botryoidal tissue. (c) Corals exhibit polymorphism. (d) Coelom is reduced in Mollusca. RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) Ans. (*) : Statements (a), (c) and (d) are correct. (a) Peripatus is a primitive arthropod having jointed paired legs. (b) Body cavity of Hirudinea (Coelomates) is filled with botryoidal tissue. It is grape-like mass of cells that have a brown pigment and performs excretory functions. (c) Corals exhibit polymorphism. It results in the occurrence of several different forms among the members of a single species. (d) Coelom is reduced in Mollusca to a small space around the heart, sometimes called a hemocoel. [Note - Commission has deleted this Question] 31. ATP releases energy when it is – (a) Oxidized (b) Phosphorylated (c) Dehydogenated (d) Hydrolysed UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (d) : ATP releases energy when it is hydrolysed. When one phosphate group is removed by breaking a phosphoanhydride bond in a process called hydrolysis, energy is released, and ATP is converted to ADP. The energy released from the hydrolysis of ATP into ADP is used to perform cellular work. ATP + H2O → ADP + Pi + free energy TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

32.

Oncogenic virus causes which of the following diseases ? (a) Cancer (b) Tuberculosis (c) Diabetes (d) Hypertension RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) Ans. (a) : Oncogenic virus causes Cancer. During the viral replication process, certain virus's DNA or RNA affects the host cells genes in ways that may cause it to become cancerous. Oncogenic viruses are involved in about 15% of human cancers. The seven known human oncogenic viruses are Epstein–Barr virus (EBV), hepatitis B virus (HBV), human T-lymphotropic virus 1 (HTLV–1), human papillomaviruses (HPVs), hepatitis C virus (HCV), Kaposi - sarcoma - associated herpes virus (KSHV) and Merkel cell polyomavirus (MCPyV). 33. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ? (a) Angina – Insufficient oxygen supply (b) Emphysema – Alveolar damage (c) Asthma – Inflammation (d) Cretinism – Hyper - Thyroidism RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) Ans. (d) : Incorrect pair is cretinism-Hyperthyroidism.

⇒ Angina is chest pain caused by insufficient blood flow and oxygen to part of the heart muscle.

⇒ In emphysema, the inner walls of the lung air sacs (alveoli) are damaged, causing them to eventually rupture.

⇒ Asthma is marked by inflammation of the bronchial tubes, with extra sticky secretions inside the tubes.

⇒ Cretinism refers to severe hypothyroidism in an infant or child which results in growth retardation, developmental delay, and other abnormal features. 34. Laminar Air Flow is used for : (a) Glassware sterilization (b) Media and other chemicals sterilization (c) Instruments use sterilization (d) The work-space environment sterilization RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) Ans. (d) : Laminar Air Flow is used for the work-space environment sterilization. It is a liquid flow in which the fluid moves in separate paths, as opposed to turbulent flow, where the fluid undergoes intermixing. It is used for aseptic transfer of microbial culture. It provides an excellent aseptic work bench for processes like subculturing, sterile drug preparation, inoculations, assays etc. 35. The technique used for examining living cells in their natural state, without previously being killed, fixed and stained is : (a) Light microscopy (Bright field microscopy) (b) Transmission electron microscopy (c) Scanning electron microscopy (d) Phase contrast microscopy RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020)

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (d) : The technique used for examining living cells in their natural state, without previously being killed, fixed and stained is Phase contrast microscopy. It is an optical microscopy technique that converts phase shifts in light passing through a transparent specimen to brightness changes in the image. The phase contrast microscope made it possible for biologists to study living cells and how they proliferate through cell division. It was invented in the early 1930s by Frits Zernike, who was awarded the Nobel Prize in physics in 1953. 36. Which of the following is not true for courtship behaviour of animals? (a) It is not species specific (b) Male and female of the same species must synchronize their courtship sequence. (c) It is instinctive (d) It is genetically controlled RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) Ans. (a) : Courtship in animals is the behaviour by which different species select their partners for reproduction. Usually, the male starts the courtship, and the female chooses to either mate or reject the male based on his performance. Male and female of the same species must synchronize their courtship sequence. It is genetically controlled and innate or instinctive. Courtship behaviour do not require learning or prior experience to be performed. • Thus the statement that it is not species specific is not true. 37. Which of the following pairs are not correctly matched? A. Homothallic – Bisexual plan B. Hermaphrodite – Earthworm – Unisexual plant C. Heterothallic D. Pistillate – Male flower E. Menarche – End or cessation of menstrual cycle in Humans The correct answer is : (a) A, B, C (b) B, D, E (c) C, D, E (d) A, D, E RPSC School Lecturer (7/01/2020) Ans. (*) : Pairs (D) and (E) are not correctly matched.

⇒ Correct match :A. Homothallic Bisexual plant B. Hermaphrodite Earthworm C. Heterothallic Unisexual plant D. Pistillate Female flower E. Menarche Start of menstrual cycle in Humans [Note – Commission has deleted this Question]. 38. Myxedema is a disease caused by – (a) hypersecretion of thyroxine hormone in children (b) hypersecretion of thyroxine hormone in adults (c) hyposecretion of thyroxine hormone in children (d) hyposecretion of thyroxine hormone in adults UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (d) : Myxedema is a disease caused by hyposecretion of thyroxine hormone in adults. Myxedema is another term for severely advanced hypothyroidism. When thyroxine hormone levels become extremely low, a person may experience symptoms such as drowsiness, confusion, hypothermia, and changes to the skin. A person with myxedema may notice swelling in their face, legs, or tongue, and their skin may also become dry and pale. It can also lead to low oxygen and high carbon dioxide levels in the blood. 39. Rhodopsin-a pigment found in – (a) Skin of mammals (b) Bile juice (c) Retinal cells (d) Red blood cells UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (c) : Rhodopsin pigment is found in retinal cells. It is also known as visual purple. It is the primary pigment found in rod photoreceptors and they are extremely sensitive to light, enabling vision in low-light conditions. This pigment contain sensory protein that converts light into an electrical signal. It is found in a wide range of organisms, from vertebrates to bacteria. Rhodopsin was discovered in 1876 by German Physiologist Franz Christian Boll. 40. The useful limit of resolving power of light microscope is : (a) 0.2 nanometre (b) 0.2 micrometre (µm) (c) 10–4 meter (m) (d) 2.0 nanometre UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (b) : The useful limit of resolving power of light microscope is 0.2 micrometers (µm). Light microscope commonly uses visible light and a set of lenses for the magnified images of small objects. It is also known as an optical microscope. Resolving power or limit of resolution is the ability of a microscope or lens to show two close points as distinct ones. Resolving power depends upon the wavelength of illumination and numerical aperture. 41. Mean is represent by the following symbol : (a) N (b) X1 (c) 1X (d) X UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (d) : Mean is represented by the symbol X (X bar). The mean or arithmetic mean is the most commonly used form of average. The mean of a random variable of variable is the sum of its values divided by the number of values. n

∑X X=

i

1

n Correlation coefficient is a number between – (a) + 1 and + 2 (b) 0 and + 1 (c) – 1 and 0 (d) –1 and + 1 UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (d) : Correlation coefficient is a number between – 1 and +1. In statistics, the correlation coefficient or Pearson correlation coefficient (PCC) is a measure of linear correlation between two sets of data. It was developed by Karl Pearson. +1 indicates a strong positive relationship and–1 indicates a strong negative relationship. A result of zero indicates no relationship at all.

42.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 43.

Sandwich ELISA is used for the detection of : (a) Antigen (b) Antibody (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (a) : Sandwich ELISA is used for the detection of antigen. The sandwich ELISA quantify antigens between two layers of antibodies (capture and detection antibody). The sandwich assay used two different antibodies that are reactive with different epitopes on the antigen with a concentration that needs to be determined. The two antibodies used must be paired and tested before use. 44. Which one of the following is not part of 't' test? (a) Significant (b) Non-significant (c) Probability (d) Mode UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (d) : A t-test is a statistical test that is used to compare the means of two groups. It is often used in hypothesis testing to determine whether a process or treatment actually has an effect on the population of interest, or whether two groups are different from one another. Calculating a t-test requires mean difference, standard deviation and the number of data values of each groups. Significant, non-significant and probability are parts of t-test. 45. Presence of 'annular diaphragm' is the characteristics feature of : (a) Compound microscope (b) Phase contrast microscope (c) Fluorescent microscope (d) Electron microscope UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (b) : Presence of "annular diaphragm" is the characteristic feature of phase contrast microscope. Phase contrast microscopy, first described in 1934 by Dutch physicist Frits Zernike, is a contrast-enhancing optical technique that can be utilized to produce highcontrast images of transparent specimens. The annular diaphragm is situated below the condenser. It is made up of a circular disc having a circular annular groove. 46. Following microscope is used to study living cells: (a) Scanning electron microscope (b) Transmission electron microscope (c) Phase contrast microscope (d) Confocal microscope UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (c) : See the explanation of the above question. 47. The Largest and oldest botanical garden of India is situated at : (a) Lucknow (b) Sibpur (c) Saharanpur (d) Darjeeling RPSC School Lecturer (23/07/2016) Ans. (b) : The largest and oldest botanical garden of India is Indian Botanical Garden situated in Sibpur Kolkata. The garden exhibits a wide variety of rare plants and a total collection of over 12000 specimens spread over 109 hectares. It is under the Botanical Survey of India (BSI) of the Ministry of Environment and Forests, Government of India. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

48.

Match the Phylum in List-A with characters in List-B : List-A List-B A. Porifera i. Nephridia B. Annelida ii. Jointed appendages C. Arthopoda iii. Water vascular system D. Echinodermata iv. Canal system A B C D (a) iv i iii ii (b) iv iii ii i (c) iv ii i iii (d) iv i ii iii UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (d) : Correct Match :List -A (Phylum) List-B(Characteristics) A. Porifera - Canal System B. Annelida - Nephridia C. Arthropoda - Jointed appendages D. Echinodermata - Water Vascular system 49. Musk is found in – (a) Female musk deer (b) Male musk deer (c) In both male and female musk deer (d) Young female deer UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 Ans. (b) : Musk is found in male musk deer. Male musk deer secrete musk from the musk gland located between their naval and genitals. Musk is having a penetrating persistent odour and is used in the highest grades of perfume. Fresh musk is semiliquid but dries to a grainy powder. Males secrete musk to attract females during the breeding season. Musk contains chemicals that act like the male sex hormones (androgens). 50. Which among the following is not an example of compound epithelial tissue? (a) Stratified cuboidal tissue (b) Transitional tissue (c) Pseudo stratified tissue (d) Stratified squamous tissue RPSC School Lecturer (23/07/2016) Ans. (c) : Pseudo stratified tissue is not an example of compound epithelial tissue. There are many kinds of epithelium, most classification schemes combine a description of the cell shape in the upper layer of the epithelium with a word denoting the numbers of layers either simple or stratified. Some common kinds of epithelium are simple squamous epithelium, stratified squamous epithelium, simple cuboidal epithelium, preudostratified columnar epithelium, columnar epithelium, glandular epithelium, and ciliated columnar epithelium. 51. Inflammation of joints due to accumulation of uric acid crystals is known as : (a) Arthritis (b) Gout (c) Muscular dystrophy (d) Tetany RPSC School Lecturer (23/07/2016)

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (b) : Inflammation of joints due to the 56. Chilka lake located in Orissa is famous for : accumulation of uric acid crystals cause a disorder (a) Crocodiles (b) Tortoise called gout. (c) Birds (d) Dolphins ♦ It occurs due to the increased level of uric acid in the RPSC School Lecturer (23/07/2016) blood, a condition called hyperuricemia. Ans. (c) : Chilka lake is the largest wintering ground for ♦ The kidneys fail to excrete the excess uric acid in the migratory birds, on the Indian sub-continent. It is one of blood and it starts to deposit in the joints in the form of the hotspots of biodiversity in the country. Some needle like urate crystals. species listed in the IUCN Red list of threatened ♦ Symptoms- Red and swollen joints, extreme pain in animals inhabit the lake for at least part of their life the joints. cycle. ♦ Gout is diagnosed by taking the fluid of the inflamed 57. "The project tiger" was initiated in : joint and examining it under the microscope for urate (a) 1973 (b) 1972 crystals. (c) 1975 (d) 1974 52. Dental formula of adult human is : RPSC School Lecturer (23/07/2016) 2123 212 2 (a) (b) Ans. (a) : Project Tiger is a tiger conservation program 212 2 2123 lunched in April 1973 by the government of India under 212 2 212 3 the wildlife protection act 1972. The first director of the (c) (d) project was Kailash Sankhala. 212 2 2132 th RPSC School Lecturer (23/07/2016) 58. The 20 session of Conference of Parties (CoP20) in December 2014 was held at: Ans. (a) : The dental formula is used to represent the (a) Warsaw, Poland arrangement of the teeth in upper and the lower row. (b) Hyderabad, India The dental formula for the adult human being is 2123/2123. There are 2 incisor, 1 canine, 2 premolars (c) Cape Town, South Africa and 3 molars in one row. There are total 32 teeth in the (d) Lima, Peru adult human being. RPSC School Lecturer (23/07/2016) 53. Membranous structure separating the scala th Ans. (d) : The 20 session of the conference of the Vestibuli and scala media of mammalian ear is th parties and the 10 session of the conference of the called. parties serving as the Meeting of the parties to the (a) Tectorial membrane (b) Otolith membrane Kyoto Protocol took place from 1 to 14 December in (c) Reissner's membrane (d) Basilar membrane Lima, Peru. PGT Biology 2002 59. Electron microscope was invented by : Ans. (c) : Vestibular membrane or reissner's membrane (a) H. Rohrer is found in the cochlea which separates the cochlea (b) G. Binnig vasculature and the vestibular vasculature. The cochlea part of the inner ear of mammals consist of three (c) Antonie van Leeuwenhoek chamber called scala vestibuli, scala media and scala (d) Max Knoll and Ernst Ruska tympani. The part between scala media and scala RPSC School Lecturer (23/07/2016) tympani is called basilar membrane. Ans. (d) : The invention of the electron microscope by 54. In human eye the space between lens and retina Max Knoll and Ernst Ruska at the Berlin Technische is called : Hochschule in 1931 finally overcame the barrier to (a) Aqueous chamber (b) Vitreous chamber higher resolution that had been imposed by the (c) Blind spot (d) Macula lutea limitations of visible light. Since then resolution has RPSC School Lecturer (23/07/2016) defined the progress of the technology. Ans. (b) : In human eye the space between lens and retina 60. Sephadex gel is commonly used in : in called vitreous chamber. It is primarily responsible for (a) Adsorption chromatography the maintenance of the shape of human eye. (b) Ion exchange chromatography 55. ELISA- a diagnostic test is used for diagnosis of (c) Gel filtration chromatography (a) Cancer (b) Typhoid (d) Affinity chromatography (c) AIDS (d) Filariasis RPSC School Lecturer (23/07/2016) RPSC School Lecturer (23/07/2016) Ans. (c) : Sephadex is a cross-linked dextran gel used Ans. (c) : Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay for gel filtration. It was launched by Pharmacia in 1959, (ELISA). This test is usually the first one used to detect after development work by Jerker Porath and Per infection with HIV and AIDS. If antibodies to HIV are present (Positive) the test is usually repeated to confirm Flodin. The name is derived from separation pharmacia the diagnosis. If ELISA is negative other tests usually dextran. It is normally manufactured in a bead form and most commonly used for gel filtration columns. aren't needed. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Who among the following is not an ethologist? (a) K. Lorenz (b) Karl Ernst von Baer (c) Karl von Frisch (d) Niko Tinbergen RPSC School Lecturer (23/07/2016) Ans. (b) : Karl Ernst von Baer is not an ethologist. Karl Ernst von Baer was an Estonian biologist who discovered the mammalian ovum- The reproductive egg in female mammals. He made significant contributions to the study of the embryonic development of animals. 62. Which among the following sites is listed in UNESCO world Heritage sites? (a) Keoladeo National Park (b) Ranthambhore National Park (c) Madhav National Park (d) Desert National Park RPSC School Lecturer (23/07/2016) Ans. (a) : The Keoladeo National Park, a World Heritage Site which was previously the private duck shooting preserve of the Maharaja of Bharatpur, designated as bird sanctuary on 13 March 1976 and a National Park on 10th March 1982, was included in the World Heritage list in 1985. 63. Upper layer of lake during summer months is called: (a) Epilimnion (b) Metalimnion (c) Hypolimnion (d) Thermocline UK SSSC L.T. (21/01/2018) Ans. (a) : Upper layer of lake during summer months is called Epilimnion. It is the warmest layer of lake. The separation of lakes into three layers is called lake stratification. Oxygen producing plants and algae typically lives is Epilimion layer. ⇒Metalimnion (Thermocline) is the middle layer of lake characterized by a steady drop in water temperature. ⇒ Hypolimnion is the bottom layer of lake with dense cold water. Low light levels in this layer prevent growth of aquatic plants and algae. 64. Altruism is a characteristic form of behaviour among : (a) Social animals (b) Solitary animals (c) Both (A) & (B) (d) None of the above UK SSSC L.T. (21/01/2018) Ans. (a) : Altruism is a characteristic form of behaviour among social animals. It is characterized by selflessness and concern for the well-being of others. It describes a range of behaviours performed by animals that may be to their own disadvantage but which benefit others. The costs and benefits are measured in terms of reproductive fitness, or expected number of offspring. An example of altruism comes from ground squirrels, who may warn other member of their group about a predatory hawk overhead, but this brings the hawk's attention to the individual giving the warning call. This risky behavior benefits other individuals in the squirrel's group. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Haversian system is a salient feature of : (a) bones of chordates (b) bones of aves and mammals (c) bones of only mammals (d) cartilages of mammals RPSC School Lecturer 2011 Ans. (c) : Haversian system is a salient feature of bones of only mammals. Haversian canals are a series of tubes around narrow channels formed by lamellae. The canals and the surrounding lamellae are called Haversian system (or an osteon). It communicate with Osteocytes which forms bones. 66. DOTS programme concerns with : (a) Green house effect (b) Protection of ozone (c) Eradication of TB (d) Treatment of AIDS RPSC School Lecturer 2011 Ans. (c) : DOTS programme concerns with eradication of TB. DOT (Directly Observed Therapy) for the treatment of tuberculosis. The World Health Organization (WHO) global tuberculosis programme in 1993 declared tuberculosis as a global emergency and began promoting DOTS. 67. HIV virus is a - A - Retrovirus, B - RNA virus, C - DNA virus, D - HTLV - 3 (a) A, B, and C (b) A, C and D (c) A, B and D (d) B, C and D RPSC School Lecturer 2011 Ans. (c) : HIV virus is a Retrovirus, RNA virus and HTLV-3 (human T-lymphotropic virus type-3). Virus inserts a copy of its RNA genome into the DNA of a host cell that it invades, thus changing the genome of that cell. This virus causes AIDS. 68. The cancer of mammary gland is called as (a) Carcinomas (b) Sarcomas (c) Leukemia (d) Melanoma RPSC School Lecturer 2011 Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (a) : The cancer of mammary glands is called as carcinomas. Sarcoma is a type of cancer that begins in bone or in the soft tissues of the body. The cancer of blood-forming tissues or bone marrow is called leukemia. The cancer of skin is called melanoma. It occurs when the pigment-producing cells that give colour to the skin become cancerous. 69. Gregarious and crepuscular animal which exhibits coprophagy : (a) Pig (b) Rabbit (c) Rat (d) All the above RPSC School Lecturer 2011 Ans. (d) : Coprophagy (from the greek "to eat dung") is a behavior where an animal ingests its own excreted dung and it has been observed in the rabbit, rat, mouse, hamster, guinea pig, and chinchilla. It is more correctly called caecotrophy.

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Which pair is not correct? (a) Apiculture - Honey bee (b) Sericulture - Silk moth (c) Pisciculture - Pearl oyster (d) Vermiculture - Earthworm RPSC School Lecturer 2011 Ans. (c) : Pisciculture or fish farming involves commercial breeding of fish, usually for food, in fish tanks as artificial enclosures such as fish ponds. 71. What is common among earthworm, scolopendra and cockroach? (a) Metameric segmentation and Bilateral symmetry. (b) Metameric segmentation and chitinous exoskeleton (c) Bilateral symmetry and chitinous exoskeleton (d) Haemocoelom and chitinous exoskeleton RPSC School Lecturer 2011 Ans. (d) : The only thing that is common in cockroaches, scolopendra and earthworms is that they all have haemocoel and chitinous exoskeleton. It is a cavity that pumps blood between the organs in arthropods and annelids. 72. Match and choose the correct – (A) Aves

(a) Cartilaginous endoskeleton

(B) Mammals

(b) Three heart

(C) Amphibians

(c) One Ovary

chambered

(D) Elasmobranchii (d) Corpus callosum (a) (b) (c) (d)

A - d, B - c, C - b, D - a A - a, B - c, C - b, D - d A - d, B - a, C - c, D - b A - c, B - d, C - b, D - a RPSC School Lecturer 2011 Ans. (d) : Birds (class aves) have a single left ovary. This reduces the weight which is essential for flight. Amphibians have a three chambered heart. Two atria and one ventricle. All placental mammals have a corpus callosum, skeleton is made of cartilage rather than bone in elasmobranchii. 73. The relationship between shark and pilot fish (Naucrates) is – (a) Commensalism (b) Symbiosis (c) Mutualism (d) Parasitism RPSC School Lecturer 2011 Ans. (c) : While pilot fish can be seen with all manner of sharks, they prefer accompanying the oceanic whitetip, Carcharhinus longimanus. The pilot fish's relationship with sharks is a mutualist one; the pilot fish gains protection from predators, while the shark gain freedom from parasites. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

74.

Match the following and choose the wrong (A)

Rabbit

(a)

Syrinx

(B)

Pigeon

(b)

Anal cerci

(C)

Frog

(c)

Larynx

(D)

Cockroach

(d)

Vocal sacs

A - a, B - b, C - c, D - d A - d, B - c, C - b, D - a A - c, B - a, C - d, D - b A - a, B - c, C - b, D - d RPSC School Lecturer 2011 Ans. (c) : Rabbit - Larynx is present. A rabbit's scream is, therefore, a result of air being forced out of its lungs all of a sudden. Pigeon - Syrinx is vocal organ of birds, located at the base of a bird's trachea. Frog - they display three basic types of vocal sacs (1) a single median throat sac, (2) paired throat sacs, (3) paired lateral sacs. Cockroach - Anal cerci are a pair of appendages at the end of the abdomen arising from the 10th segment of the body of the cockroaches in both sexes males and females. 75. Which of the following has been named as national aquatic animal of India? (a) Whale (b) Dugong (c) Ganges river Dolphin (d) Crocodile RPSC School Lecturer 2011 Ans. (c) : The Ganga river Dolphin is also called 'Susu', is the national aquatic animal of India. They are found in the river systems of Ganga, Brahmaputra Meghna and Karnaphuli-Sangu in Nepal, India and Bangladesh. 76. Electrons used in electron microscope are of wavelength – (a) 0.05 A° (b) 0.15 A° (c) 0.25 A° (d) 0.35 A° RPSC School Lecturer 2011 Ans. (d) : Electron microscope uses a beam of electrons as source of illumination instead of light. The beam of electrons have a wavelength of 0.54A°. Due to this reason option (d) is more accurate answer. 77. The technique of separating different colloidal materials from their mixture – (a) Electrophoresis (b) TEM (c) SEM (d) Spectrophotometry RPSC School Lecturer 2011 Ans. (a) : Electrophoresis is a laboratory technique used to separate DNA, RNA and protein molecules based on their size and electrical charge.

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Correct statement for TEM (A) Electrons are used in place of light (B) Electromagnetic lenses are used in place of glass lenses (C) Object can be viewed directly by eyes (a) A and C (b) B and C (c) A and B (d) A, B and C RPSC School Lecturer 2011 Ans.(c): The TEM operates on the same basic principles as the light microscope but TEM uses electrons instead of light. Lenses are used to control the path of the electrons, because electrons cannot pass through glass. The lenses that are used are electromagnetic lenses. 79. When a population first increases slowly, then rapidly and finally becomes constant; the population growth curve will be (a) J–shaped (b) S–shaped (c) Both J–shaped and S–shaped (d) None of the above UP LT 2018 Ans. (b) : When a population first increases slowly, then rapidly and finally becomes constant, the population growth curve will be S-shaped. Population growth is the increase in number of animals and plants in a population. As competition increases and resources become increasingly scarce, populations reach the carrying capacity (K) of their environment, causing their growth rate to slow nearly to zero. S-shaped curve of population growth known as the logistic curve (right). 80. Which one of the following is hyperparasite? (a) Xenopsylla (b) Sacculina (c) Yersinia pestis (d) Pediculus UP LT 2018 Ans. (c) : Yersinia pestis is an example of hyperparasite. It is a gram negative, non-motile, coccobacillus bacterium without spore. It is responsible for deadly plague. 81. "Blue baby syndrome" caused by impure water of (a) Arsenic (b) Cadmium (c) Nitrate (d) Mercury UP PGT 2016 Ans. (c) 'Blue baby syndrome' is caused by impure water of nitrate. It is a condition where a baby' skin turns blue. This happens when there is not enough oxygen in the blood. Blue baby syndrome is also known as methemoglobinemia. 82. The ratio between experimental and observed result is represented by : (a) Chi-square (b) Theta value (c) Variance ratio (d) None of these UP PGT 2016 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (a) The ratio between experimental and observed result is represented by chi-square. Chi-square test is a statistical test used to examine the difference between categorical variables from a random sample in order to judge goodness of fit between expected and observed results.

 ( Oi − E i )2  X = ∑  Ei   X2 = Chi- square Ei = Expected Value Oi = Observed value 83. Chi-square test is applied for : (a) Student t-test (b) Standard deviation (c) goodness of fit (d) none of these Bihar PGT 2019 Ans. (c) : See the explanation of the above question. 84. Consider the following statements: 1. All fishes lay eggs. 2. All birds do not fly. 3. All lizards are poisonous. 4. None of the mammal is poisonous. 5. Poison of viper is neurotoxic. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only 1 and 2 are correct (b) Only 2 is correct (c) Only 2, 3 and 4 are correct (d) Only 2 and 5 are correct UP LT 2018 Ans. (b) : All fish lay eggs, this statement is false because someyoung fish also give birth to young ones. All birds do not fly, this statement is true, because some birds like ostrich run fast but do not fly. The statement that all lizards are poisonous is false, because most lizards are nonpoisonous. The statement that none of the mammal is poisonous is false as some mammals such as the platypus are poisonous. Viper poison is neurotoxic this statement is false. Because Viper poison is hemotoxic. 85. Flat and broad beak with lateral straining devices is found in : (a) Vulture (b) Penguin (c) Duck (d) Parrot Bihar PGT 2019 Ans. (c) : Flat and broad beak with lateral straining devices is found in duck. Duck is a waterfowl in the family Anatidae. This is famous for eggs and meat. It's 'Khaki Campbell' and 'Indian runner' species lay about 300 eggs in a year. It is a good source of protein, vitamin, calcium and iron etc. 86. Which one is a learnt behavior? (a) Reflex (b) Reasoning (c) Tropism (d) Taxis Bihar PGT 2019 Ans. (b) : Reasoning comes under learnt behaviour. A learned behaviour is that an organism develops as a result of experience. Learning is categorized in 5 parts. (I) Practise (II) Adaptation (III) Trial and Error. (IV) Reasoning (V) Learnt.

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Courtship in stickleback was reported by : Ans. (b) : Polio immunizing vaccine was developed by Dr. Jonas Salk in 1953 which was formalin inactivated (a) Lorenz (b) Tinbergen vaccine (IPV) and like attenuated vaccines (OPV) by (c) Frisch (d) Desmond Morris Albert Sabin. Bihar PGT 2019 Edward Jenner developed small pox-vaccines. Ans. (b) : Courtship in stickleback fish was reported by J. Lederberg worked on microbial genetics, artificial Niko Tinbergen. intelligence and won Nobel Prize in Physiology or Among the behaviours better characterized in this Medicine in 1958 for discovering that bacteria can species are ritualized courtship, aggressiveness and mate and exchange genes. parental behaviour. Sexually mature males develop a Karl Landsteiner discovered blood groups. bright red throat and fore-belly called nuptial coloration. Once the female is in side the nest the male 92. Biotic potential means : (a) carrying capacity of the medium stimulates spawning by quivering the females tail. (b) capacity of individuals to migrate in and out of 88. Cancer's are a part of every culture and have the population been around as long as people. The study of cancers is known as : (c) growth curves of population (a) Physiology (b) Pathology (d) reproductive potential of individual (c) Oncology (d) Neurology UPPCS Pre 2005 Jharkhand Daite PGT Biology 2014 Ans. (d) : • Biotic potential means reproductive Ans. (c) : Cancers are a part of every culture and have potential of individual. been around as long as people. The study of cancers is • It is the maximum reproductive capacity of an known as oncology. The oncology is a branch of organism under optimum environmental conditions. It science that deals with tumours and cancer. is often expressed as a proportional or percentage Identification of cancer, treatment and precaution or increase per year. cure comes under oncology. The word "onco" means 93. In aqueous solution, the acridine molecules bulk, mass or tumor while "logy" means study. bind to DNA by inserting themselves between 89. The correct statement for fertilizin is adjacent base pairs. The process is called : (a) a fat which is found on the surface of sperm. (a) depurination (b) substitution (b) a glycoprotein which is found on sperm. (c) mutation (d) intercalation (c) a glycoprotein which is found on the surface of ovum. TGT Biology 2003 (d) a fat which is found in the ovum. Ans. (d) In an aqueous solution, the acridine molecules Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2011 bind to DNA by inserting themselves between adjacent Ans. (c) : Fertilizin is a glycoprotein which is found on base pairs. The process is called intercalation. the surface of ovum. Mutation is a change in a DNA sequence & it was first Fertilizin is a sperm-agglutinating agent that is discovered by de Vries. produced by an egg and plays a part in the preliminaries Depurination involves the loss of purine bases of fertilization. It ensure fusion gametes of same (adenine and guanine) from DNA. species and it is glycoprotein by nature. An Substitution is a type of mutation where one base pair antifertilizin is an acidic protein secreted by the plasma is replaced by a different base pair. membrane of the sperm. . 94. Match List-I (Discovery), with List-II 90. Name of the structural analog of vitamin 'K' (Scientist) and select the correct answer using which is used as anticoagulant. the codes given below the lists : (a) Dicumarol (b) Tocopherol List-I List-II (c) Ergocalciferol (d) β-carotene A. Breaking of the (i) Pardue and Gall UK PSC Lecturer Mains 2020 genetic code B. Synthesis of an (ii) Zinder Ans. (a) : The structural analog of vitamin 'K', which is used as anticoagulant is Dicumarol. It is used as an oral artificial gene and Lederberg anticoagulant and acts by inhibiting the hepatic synthesis C. DNA/DNA and (iii) Nirenberg and of vitamin K dependent coagulation factors (prothrombin, DNA/RNA Matthaei and factors VII, IX, and X). It is used along with heparin, hybridization in situ for the treatment of deep venous thrombosis. While high doses of dicumarol can result in uncontrolled bleeding, it D. Phenomenon of (iv) Khorana has been utilized in therapeutic doses as an anticoagulant transduction treatment for blood clotting disorders. Code : 91. Polio immunizing vaccine was developed by : A B C D A B C D (a) E. Jenner (b) Dr. Salk (a) i ii iii iv (b) ii iv iii i (c) J. Lederberg (d) Landsteiner (c) iii iv i ii (d) i iii ii iv TGT Biology 2004 TGT Biology 2003 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (c) : Research Scientists Breaking of the genetic code – Nirenberg and Matthaei Synthesis of an artificial gene – Hargobind Khorana DNA/DNA and DNA/RNA – Pardue and Gall hybridization in situ Phenomenon of transduction – Zinder and Lederberg. 95. The branch of study dealing with the study of old age and ageing is known as : (a) Pathology (b) Embryology (c) Gerontology (d) Ecology TGT Biology 2003 Ans. (c) : The branch of science dealing with the study of old age and ageing is known as gerontology. Ecology is the study of interaction of animals to the environment. Pathology is the study of the causes and effects of disease or injury. Embryology is a branch of science that is related to the formation, growth and development of embryo. 96. Apoptosis is : (a) necrotic death of a cell (b) programmed death of a cell (c) shrinking of apoplast and aging process (d) a process of shedding leaves TGT Biology 2003 Ans. (b) : Apoptosis is a process of programmed cell death that occurs in multicellular organisms. Apoptosis is a type of cell death in which a series of molecular steps in a cell lead to its death. It is a method that body uses to get rid of unneeded or abnormal cells. The process of apoptosis may be blocked in cancer cells. 97. Long neck of camel is due to– (a) Development of extrabony plates between successive neck vertebrae (b) Increase in number of neck vertebrae (c) Increase in length of neck vertebrae (d) Development of muscular pads between successive neck vertebrae TGT Biology 2002 Ans. (c) : Long neck of camel is due to increase in length of neck vertebrae. Camel is known as 'Ship of the desert'. 98. Who can be called as father of conditioned reflex : (a) Pavlov (b) Oparin (c) Smith and Neil (d) Kalvin TGT Biology 2002 Ans. (a) : Pavlov is called as 'father of conditioned reflex.' A conditioned reflex is an automatic response to a stimulus that differs from that initially causing the response, but become associated with it by repetition in a process known as classical conditioning. e.g. – Cycling of human, typing, swimming, feeding of the dog etc. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

99.

Membranous labyrinth is called stato-acoustic organ, because it is concerned with – (a) Hearing (b) Balancing (c) Both (d) Sound production TGT Biology 2002 Ans. (c) : Membranous labyrinth is called stato acoustic organ, because it is concerned with both hearing and balancing. The membranous labyrinth is a collection of fluid filled tubes and chambers which contain the receptors for the sense of equilibrium and hearing. 100. Which of these birds build its nest outside India– (a) Ostrich (b) Wagtail (c) Cuckoo (d) Pigeon TGT Biology 2002 Ans. (b) : Wagtail birds build its nest outside India. The white wagtail (Motacilla alba) is a small passerine birds in the family motacillidae which also includes pipits and long claws. Total there are a 9 to 11 subspecies are found. 101. Smallest bone in mammals is– (a) Patella (b) Stapes (c) Atlas (d) Floating ribs TGT Biology 2002 Ans. (b) : The smallest bone in mammals is stapes, and the largest and strongest bone is femur. Total of 206 bones are found in the endoskeletal system of human while 300 bones are found in child. 102. Which is filter feeder bird ? (a) Kiwi (b) Ostrich (c) Pigeon (d) Duck TGT Biology 1999 Ans. (d) : Duck is a filter feeder. It feeds on only microorganisms as food. Duck is the common name for numerous species of waterfowl in the family Anatidae (eg.-swans and geese). They have 2 unique features-webbed feet and waterproof feathers that make them such good swimmers. Ducks are capable of changing their gender from female to male. 103. Name the drug produced through biotechnology for cancer treatment : (a) Insulin (b) Interferon (c) HGH (d) TSH PGT Biology 2013 Ans. (b) : Interferon is a drug produced through biotechnology for treatment of cancer. It is a glycoprotein. Interferon is a natural substance that helps the body's immune systems fight infection and other diseases i.e. cancer. They are made in the body by white blood cells and other cells.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 104. Which of the following shows luminescence : (a) Herdmania (b) Ascidia (c) Ciona (d) Pyrosoma PGT Biology 2013 Ans. (d) : Pyrosoma shows luminescence. Luminescence is spontaneous emission of light by a substance or organism not resulting from heat or cold light. Pyrosoma are free-floating colonial tunicates usually live in the upper layers of open ocean in warm seas. They are made up of hundreds to thousands of individuals known as zooids. 105. ‘World Population Day’ is observed on : (a) 1st June (b) 7th August th (c) 11 July (d) 27th March PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (c) : "World Population Day" is observed on 11th July. World Population Day seeks to focus attention on the urgency and importance of population issues, including their relations to the natural resources. It was started in 1989 by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) Governing council. 106. Which of the following is an autoimmune disorder? (a) Pernicious anaemia (b) Myasthenia gravis (c) SCID (d) Albinism PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (c) : Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) is a group of rare autoimmune disorder caused by mutations in different genes involved in the development and function of infection fighting immune cells. This disease is also called 'bubble baby' disease. Symptoms may include- meningitis, pneumonia, blood infection, diarrhea, hepatitis etc. 107. Epimorphosis is : (a) degeneration of old organ (b) regeneration of lost part (c) regeneration of entire body (d) development of zygote PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (b) : The regeneration of the absent or disappeared or disoriented tissues and organs through the process of dedifferentiation of existing tissues or organs are called epimorphosis (Epimorphic Regeneration). 108. Which of the following has maximum capacity to carry a foreign gene as a vector (in terms of Kbp) (a) BAC (b) Plasmid (c) Cosmid (d) YAC PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (d) : Yeast artificial chromosomes (YAC) has maximum capacity to carry a foreign gene as a vector (in terms of kbp). YAC is a vector (carrier) created and fused in the lab to clone piece of DNA. 109. Study of animal behaviour is called : (a) Entomology (b) Ethnobiology (c) Ethology (d) Ecology PGT Biology 2011 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (c) : Study of animal behaviour is known as Ethology. The word behaviour is used in a very broad sense in ethology. It refers to all externally recognizable changes that bring about communication and can release behaviour patterns in other animals such as movements of whole body or portions, facial expressions, vocalization, body posture, change in colouration, release of odour all are included in behaviour. 110. Humans cranium is formed by : (a) 6 bones- all unpaired (b) 8 bones- 2 unpaired, 6 paired (c) 8 bones- 2 paired, 6 unpaired (d) 12 bones- all unpaired PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (c) : Human cranium is formed by 8 bones - 2 paired, 6 unpaired. Occipital bone-1, parietal bone - 2, temporal - 2 bone, sphenoid - 1, ethmoid bone -1, frontal bone-1. 111. Which type of genetic disease ‘cystic fibrosis’ is? (a) Sex linked-recessive (b) Autosomal dominant (c) Sex linked-dominant (d) Autosomal recessive PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (d) : Cystic fibrosis disease is an autosomal recessive genetic disease. It affects the cells that produce mucus, sweat and digestive juices. It damages the lungs and digestive system and causes these fluids to become thick and sticky. 112. The height in human being is which type of character : (a) Mendelian character (b) Qualitataive character (c) Quantitative character (d) All of these PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (c) : A quantitative trait or character is a measurable phenotype that depends on the cumulative actions of many genes and the environment. Ex- height, weight and blood pressure, intelligence and skin colour etc. 113. TPN stands for : (a) Triphosphonucleotide (b) Tetraphosphopyridine Nucleotide (c) Triphosphopyridine Nucleotide (d) Triphosphate Nucleotide PGT Biology 2010 Ans. (c) : TPN stands for triphosphopyridine nucleotides. It is a cofactor used in anabolic reactions such as the calvin cycle and lipid and nucleic acid synthesis which require NADPH as a reducing agent. 114. Nobel prize for passive immunity was awarded to: (a) Edward Jenner (b) Emil Von Behring (c) Waksman (d) A. Fleming PGT Biology 2009

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (b) : Passive immunity is provided when a person is given antibodies to a disease rather than producing them through his or her own immune system. A newborn baby acquires passive immunity from its mother through the placenta. Nobel Prize for passive immunity was awarded to Emil Von Behring in the year 1901. 115. Courtship behaviour is a form of : (a) taxis (b) Kinesis (c) fixed action pattern (d) imprinting PGT Biology 2009 Ans. (c) : Courtship behaviour is a form of fixed action pattern. In animals courtship behaviour that results in mating and eventual reproduction. Courtship may be rather simple involving a small number of chemical, auditory or visual stimuli or it may be a highly complex series of acts by two or more in dividuals, using several modes of communication. 116. Which one of the following is a genetic vector : (a) Cosmids (b) Phage (c) Plasmids (d) all of these PGT Biology 2009 Ans. (d) Cosmids, phage, plasmids are genetic vectors. A genetic vector is a DNA molecule which is used as a vehicle for artificially transferring foreign genetic material into another cell where it is expressed. 117. If all the plants of the world die,all animals will also die due to shortage of which? (a) Oxygen (b) Food (c) Carbon dioxide (d) Water PGT Biology 2005 Ans. (a) : Plants takes in CO2 during photosynthesis and O2 liberates in the atmosphere. 6 CO2 + 12 H2O

Sunlight  → 6O2 ↑ + C6 H12 O6 Chlorophyll

If all the plants of the world will die, all animals will also die due to shortage of oxygen (O2). 118. Which one of the following is the larva form of echinodermata ? (a) Doliolaria (b) Tornaria (c) Protozoea (d) Trocophore PGT Biology 2005 Ans. (a) : Doliolaria is the larva form of Antedon of the class Crinoidea in the phylum Echinodermata. It is a barrel shaped larva, is developmental stage after the auricularia larva. It usually contains large quantities of yolk material and moves with the aid of several ciliated bands arranged in hoops around the body. 119. Which one of the following has connection with genetic engineering ? (a) Golgi apparatus (b) Mitochondria (c) Plasmids (d) Lysosome PGT Biology 2005 Ans. (c) : A plasmid is a small, circular, double stranded DNA molecules that is distinct from a bacterial cell's chromosomal DNA. Plasmid has connection with genetic engineering and act as delivery vehicles or vectors to introduce foreign DNA into bacteria. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

120. Ichthyostega, having characters of both fish and amphibians, is found in : (a) Iceland (b) Greenland (c) New Zealand (d) Australia PGT Biology 2005 Ans. (b) : Ichthyostega, having characters of both fish and amphibians is found in Greenland. Ichthyostega was an ancient fossil of the Labyrinthodontia is an early genus of Tetrapodomorphs that lived at the end of the late Devonian Period. 121. Which of these is hunted for the soft fur on its belly? (a) Wild rabbit (b) Chiru (c) Cheetal (d) Hangul PGT Biology 2005 Ans. (b) : Chiru or the Tibetan antelope (Pantholops hodgsonii) is a medium-sized bovid that's hunted for the soft fur on its belly. 122. Inflammation of joints due to accumulation of uric acid crystals is known as : (a) Arthritis (b) Gout (c) Muscular dystrophy (d) Tetany Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2015 Ans. (b) : Inflammation of joints due to accumulation of uric acid crystals is known as gout. Arthritis is the inflammation of joints. Muscular dystrophy is a group of genetic diseases that cause progressive weakness and loss of muscle mass. Tetany is a condition that causes involuntary muscle contractions and change in the brain cells. 123. A genetically identical population of plants raised from single plant is termed as : (a) Clone (b) Hybrid (c) Cybrid (d) All of above Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2015 Ans. (a) : A genetically identical population of plants raised from single plant is termed as clone. Cybrids or cytoplasmic hybrids are eukaryotic cell lines produced by the fusion of a cell that serves as a nuclear donor and a cytoplasm from a different source, serving as a mitochondrial donor. Hybrid is the combining the qualities of two organisms of different breeds, species or genera, varieties through sexual reproduction. 124. Pyrenoids are made of : (a) Core of starch surrounded by sheath of protein (b) Proteinaceous centre surrounded by starchy sheath (c) core of protein surrounded by fatty sheath (d) Core of nucleic acid surrounded by protein Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2015 Ans. (b) : Pyrenoids are made up of proteinaceous centre surrounded by starchy sheath. The pyrenoid is a dense structure inside or beside chloroplasts of certain algae, consists largely of ribulose biphosphate carboxylase, one of the enzymes necessary in photosynthesis for carbon fixation and thus sugar formation.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 125. The burrow of rabbit is called : (a) Barrel (b) Warren (c) Barren (d) Form Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2015 Ans. (b) : The burrow of rabbit is called warren. Warren is a series of underground tunnels. These are enclosed establishment of animal husbandry dedicated to the raising of rabbits for fur and meat. 126. Bee-venom is used in the treatment of : (a) Myopia (b) Malaria (c) Arthritis (d) Cholera Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2015 Ans. (c) : Bee venom is used in the treatment of arthritis/rheumatism arthritis. Bee venom is obtained from honey bee. It is also given in nerve pain (neuralgia), MS (multiple sclerosis), swollen tendons (tendonitis) and muscle conditions such as fibromyositis and enthesitis. 127. Consider the following statements : (i) Sex determination in human beings is of XY type. (ii) There are 223 pairs of autosomes in human beings. (iii) There is male heterogamety in human beings Which of the above statements is/are correct ? (a) (i) only (b) (ii) only (c) (i) and (ii) both (d) (i) and (iii) both

129. Match correctly the animal with their larval forms : (I) Palinurus (a) Alima (II) Squilla (b) Phyllosoma (III) Asterias (c) Ephyra (IV) Aurelia (d) Hexacanth (V) Taenia (e) Bipinnaria Code : (a) (I) (b), (II) (a), (III) (e) (IV) (c), (V) (d) (b) (I) (a), (II) (c), (III) (b) (IV) (d), (V) (e) (c) (I) (e), (II) (a), (III) (c) (IV) (b), (V) (d) (d) (I) (d), (II) (e), (III) (a) (IV) (c), (V) (b) Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2013 Larva Ans. (a) : Animal Lobster/Palinurus Phyllosoma Squilla Alima Asterias Bipinnaria Aurelia Ephyra Taenia Hexacanth 130. Which is called as triple vaccine? (a) BCG (b) DPT (c) TAB (d) All of these above Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (b) : DPT is called as triple vaccine. DPT (Diphtheria, pertussis and tetanus toxoids) is a vaccine used for active immunization of children up to age of 7 years against diphtheria, pertussis (whooping cough) and tetanus. DPT is available in generic form.

Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2013 131.

Colchicine influences : (a) DNA replication (b) Chromosome condensation (c) Organisation of spindle (d) Chromosome division Delhi SSB PGT Biology 2015 Ans. (c) : Colchicine is used to prevent or treat attacks of gout (gouty arthritis). It is caused by too much uric acid in the blood. It decreases swelling and lessening the build up of uric acid crystals that cause pain in the affected joints. It prevent spindle formation and organisation.

Ans. (d) : Sex determination in human beings is of XY type. There is male heterogamy in human beings. There are 23 pairs of chromosomes in humans where 22 pairs are autosomes or allosomes and one pair sex chromosome. 128. Identify the correctly matched pair : (a) Parkinson's disease Defect of brain (b) Blindness degeneration of corpus callosum (c) Schizophrenia Non functional 132. In humans albinism is determined by : Broca's area (a) Dominant gene (d) Increased activity Activation of (b) Recessive gene of gut, iris and sympathetic (c) None of these urinary bladder nervous system Rajasthan PSC PGT Biology 2013 (d) Co-dominant gene Ans. (a) : Parkinson's disease is a disorder of the central Delhi SSB PGT Biology 2015 nervous system that affects movements often including Ans. (b) : Albinism is a rare group of genetic disorders tremors. that cause the skin, hair or eyes to have little or no color. Nerve cell damage in the brain causes dopamine levels to drop, leading to the symptoms of Parkinson's disease- In humans albinism is determined by recessive gene. It is associated with vision problems. stiff muscle, fatigue, amnesia etc. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 133. Albinism is due to : (a) genetic disorders only (b) pituitary gland disorders only (c) lack of melanin only (d) both genetic disorders and lack of melanin UPPCS Pre 2007 Ans. (d) : Albinism is a genetic disorder in which melanin is not found. See the explanation of the above question. 134. Which of the following sleeps most of its lifetime upto 17 years, stays awake for about 5 weeks and then dies? (a) Aphid (b) Dragon fly (c) Cicada (d) Grasshopper Delhi SSB PGT Biology 2015 Ans. (c) : The cicadas are a superfamily, Cicadoidea, of insects in the order Hemiptera, along with smaller jumping bugs such as leaf-hoppers and froghoppers. More than 3000 species described from around the world. It sleeps most of its lifetime upto 17 years, stays awake for about 5 weeks and then dies. 135. Hexacanth is : (a) Head (b) A six hooked embryo (c) Naked embryo (d) Adult tape worm Delhi SSB PGT Biology 2015 Ans. (b) : Hexacanth is a six hooked embryo of Taenia solium. Hook are used for attachment to the intestine of the host. Taenia solium usually complete its life cycle in human and pig. 136. Fibroblast can move over : (a) Liquid surface (b) Solid surface (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of above Delhi SSB PGT Biology 2015 Ans. (b) : Fibroblast is a type of tissue which forms extracellular matrix and collagen. Fibroblast can move over solid surface. A fibroblast is the most common type of cell found in connective tissue. They play an important role in healing wounds. 137. Which one of the following vertebrate tissues would be an excellent source of collagen? (a) Liver (b) Muscle (c) Tendon (d) Nerve GIC Biology 15.09.2015 Ans. (c) : Tendon would be an excellent source of collagen. A tendon is a cord of strong, flexible tissue which connect the muscles to the bones. It is mostly found in cornea, cartilage, bone and blood vessels. 138. Which one of the following has low regeneration capacity ? (a) Endoparasitic flatworms(b) Planarians (c) Tunicates (d) Polychaetes GIC Biology 15.09.2015 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (d) : Endoparasitic flatworm, planarians and tunicates has high regeneration capacity while polychaetes has low regeneration capacity. Regenerative capacity is a complex trait dependant on the ability to access high-fidelity morphogenetic programmes after injury. 139. A sea water fish compared to freshwater fish faces less drag during swimming because : (a) Salinity of sea water is higher than that of fresh water (b) Sea water is more dense than fresh water (c) Viscosity of sea water higher than that of fresh water (d) Osmotic concentration of fresh water is less than that of sea water GIC Biology 15.09.2015 Ans. (b) : A sea water fish compared to freshwater fish faces less drag during swimming because sea water is more dense than fresh water. 140. Shuttle vectors refer to : (a) natural bacterial plasmids (b) artificial bacterial plasmids (c) bacteriophage λ vectors (d) recombinant plasmids in two (or more) different species GIC Biology 15.09.2015 Ans. (d) : Shuttle vectors refers to recombinant plasmids in two (or more) different species. A shuttle vector is a vector constructed so that it can propagate in two different host species. Therefore DNA inserted into a shuttle vector can be tested or manipulated in two different cell types. 141. Monoclonal antibodies are specific antibodies for a : (a) single antigen (b) single epitope (c) single molecule (d) single cell GIC Biology 14.06.2015 Ans. (a) : Monoclonal antibodies are specific antibodies for a single antigen. A monoclonal antibody is an antibody made by cloning a unique white blood cell. It will have monovalent affinity, binding only to the same epitope. 142. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answers using the code given below : List-I List-II A. Euglena 1.Photoluminescent B. Noctiluca 2. Potent cellulose C. Intracellular 3. Flagellum absent Trypanosomatids D. Trichonympha 4. Autotrophic Codes : A B C D (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 1 3 2 (c) 4 2 1 3 (d) 4 3 2 1 GIC Biology 14.06.2015

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (b) : List-I Euglena Noctiluca Intracellular Trypanosomatids Trichonympha

List-II

- Autotrophic - Photolumniscent - Flagellum absent – Potent cellulose.

143. The number of carbon atoms in 17 β–estradiol is: (a) 17 (b) 18 (c) 19 (d) 21 GIC Biology 14.06.2015 Ans. (b) : The number of carbon atoms in 17 βestradiol is 18. Its formula is C18H24O2 and molecular weight 272.388 g/mol. 17-beta Estradiol is a steroid hormone produced primarly by the ovaries during the reproductive lifespan and is responsible for the development of female secondary sexual characteristics and maintenance of female reproductive tract. 144. Which of the following is type of immunity? (a) Inherited immunity (b) Acquired immunity (c) Both of the above (d) None of the above GIC Biology 14.06.2015 Ans. (c) : Immunity is the ability to an organism to resist a particular infection or toxin by the action of specific antibodies or sensitized white blood cells. Acquired immunity is immunity you develop over your lifetime. It can come from a vaccine, exposure to an infection or disease. In-herited or inherent immunity that occurs naturally as a result of a persons' genetic constitution or physiology and does not arise from a previous infection or vaccination. 145. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists: List - I List- II A. Pilidium 1. Sponge B. Planula 2. Nemertine C. Parenchymula 3. Coelenterate D. Protozoea 4. Crustacean Codes: A B C D (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 3 2 1 (c) 2 3 1 4 (d) 3 4 1 2 UPPCS Pre 2010 Ans. (c) : List-I List-II Pilidium Nemertine Planula Coelenterata Paren chymula Sponge Protozoea Crustacean TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

146. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched? (a) Planaria - Turbellaria (b) Proterospongia - Protozoa (c) Schistosoma - Trematoda (d) Kowalevskia - Echinodermata UPPCS Pre 2009 Ans. (d) : I. Planaria - Turbellaria II. Proterospongia - Protozoa III. Schistosoma - Trematoda IV. Kowalevskia - Arthropoda 147. More or less circular of horseshoe shaped coral reef partially or wholly enclosing a central lagoon is called : (a) Barrier reef (b) Coral reef (c) Fringing reef (d) Atoll UPPCS Pre 1994 Ans. (d) : An atoll is a ring-like circular or horseshoe shaped reef which, instead of an island, partly or completely encloses a central lagoon. 148. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists: List - I List- II A. Chalina 1. Stinging coral B. Chaetopterus 2. Mermaid's gloves C. Millepora 3. Paddle worm D. Aplysia 4. Sea hare Codes: A B C D (a) 2 3 1 4 (b) 3 2 1 4 (c) 4 2 3 1 (d) 1 3 4 2 UPPCS Pre 2009 Ans. (a) : List-I List-II I. Chalina (2) Mermaid's gloves II. Chaetopterus (3) Paddle worm III. Millepora (1) Stinging coral IV. Aplysia (4) Seahare 149. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists: List - I List- II A. Telogonic gonads 1. Hirudinaria B. Monostichodont jaws 2. Palamnaeus C. Promenade a deux 3. Ascaris D. Proterospongia 4. Protozoa 5. Porifera Codes: A B C D A B C D (a) 3 1 2 4 (b) 3 1 2 5 (c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 1 2 3 5 UPPCS Pre 2009

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (a) : Ans. (a) : List-I List-II List-I List-II (A) Ophiuroidea Bivium I. Telogonic gonads (3) Ascaris (B) Crinoidea Actinostome II. Monostichodont jaws (1) Hirudinaria (C) Madreporite Brittle star III. Promenade a - deux (2) Palamnaeus (D) Ambulacral Feather star IV. Proterospongia (4) Protozoa 153. Which one of the following bone of frog skull is 150. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct not paired? answer by using the codes given below the lists: (a) Parasphenoid List - I List- I (b) Premaxilla A. Shellac 1. Apis (c) Pro-otic B. Propolis 2. Acipenser (d) Frontoparietal C. Isinglass 3. Laccifer lacca UPPCS Pre 2005 D. Pearl 4. Pinctada Ans. (a) : Parasphenoid bone of frog skull is not Codes: paired. Parasphenoid bone is a flattened and inverted A B C D A B C D T-shaped bone of frog. The bone forms the floor of (a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 3 4 2 1 cranium and has 2 occipital condyles for attachment (c) 2 1 3 4 (d) 3 1 2 4 with Ist Vertebra. UPPCS Pre 2009 154. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct Ans. (d) : answer from the codes given below the lists : List-I List-II List-I List-II I. Shellac (3) Laccifer lacca A. Eutely 1. Echinodermata II. Propolis (1) Apis B. Mutable connective 2. Complete muscle III. Isinglass (2) Acipenser tissue starvation IV. Pearl (4) Pinctada C. Ischaemia 3. Fixed number of 151. Match List I with List II and select the correct cells answer from the code given below the Lists : D. Infarction 4. Partial muscle List-I List-II starvation A. Balantidium 1. Turbellaria Code : B. Sea pen 2. Ciliata A B C D A B C D C. Planaria 3. Demospongia (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 3 1 4 2 D. Cliona 4. Anthozoa (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 2 4 1 3 Code : UPPCS Pre 2005 A B C D A B C D Ans. (b) : (a) 2 4 1 3 (b) 3 1 2 4 List-I List-II (c) 4 2 3 1 (d) 1 3 4 2 A. Eutely Fixed number of cell UPPCS Pre 2005 B. Mutable connective tissue Echinodermata Ans. (a) : List-I List-II C. Ischaemia Partial muscles starvation (A) Balantidium Ciliata D. Infarction Complete muscle (B) Sea pen Anthozoa starvation (C) Planaria Turbellaria (D) Cliona Demospongia 155. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists : 152. Match List I with List II and select the correct List-I List-II answer from the code given below the lists : List-I List-II A. Leptocorisa 1. Chewing plant pests A. Ophiuroidea 1. Bivium B. Dysdercus 2. Piercing and sucking plant pests B. Crinoidea 2. Actinostome C. Schistocerca C. Madreporite 3. Brittle stars D. Agrotis D. Ambulacral 4. Feather stars Code : Code : A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 3 4 1 (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 2 1 1 (c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 4 1 2 3 (c) 2 1 2 1 (d) 1 1 2 2 UPPCS Pre 2005 UPPCS Pre 2005 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 158. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer from the code given below the list : – Piercing and sucking List-I List-II plant pests (a) Acoelomata 1. Venus's flower basket B. Dysdercus – Piercing and sucking (b) Enterocoelous 2. Echinoderm plant pests coelomate C. Schistocerca – Chewing plant pests (c) Protostome 3. Flatworm D. Agrotis – Chewing plant pests (d) Porifera 4. Mollusca 156. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct Code : answer from the code given below the list : A B C D A B C D List-I List-II (a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 3 2 4 1 (Body symmetry) (Animals) (c) 2 1 3 4 (d) 1 2 3 4 1. Sea anemones, A. Primarily asymmetrical UPPCS Pre 1998 B. Secondarily irregular 2. Sponges Ans. (b) : The correct matched given belowC. Secondarily bilateral 3. Star fishes List–I List–II D. Secondarily radial 4. Amoebae Code : (a) Acoelomata 3. Flatworm A B C D A B C D (b) Enterocoelous coelomate 2. Echinoderm (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 3 4 1 (c) Protostome 4. Mollusca (c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 4 2 1 3 (d) Porifera 1. Venus's flower UPPCS Pre 1998 basket Ans. (b) : A. Leptocorisa

Ans. (c) : The correct match given below

159. The pH of a watery medium is 8. It indicates that the concentration of : (a) OH+ is at 1 × 10-8 g/l (a) Primarily asymmetrical 3. Star fishes (b) H+ is at 1 × 108 g/l (b) Secondarily irregular 4. Amoeba (c) OH- is at 1 × 10-8 g/l (c) Secondarily bilateral 1. Sea anemones (d) H+ is at 1 × 108 g/l UPPCS Pre 1998 (d) Secondarily radial 2. Sponges Ans. (a) : pH value of 7 is neutral and less than 7 pH 157. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct is acidic medium. answer from the code given below the list : pH value of 8 of water medium indicate basic List-I List-II condition OH+ ion increase in the medium, so answer (a) Copper 1. Limulus is OH+ is at 1×10–8 g/l. (b) Cascade system 2. Pila 160. Which one of the following features is common (c) Book gill 3. Blood of arthropods between the protostomes and the deuterostomes: (d) Nonsense mutation 4. Cell surface reaction (a) Cleavage pattern to hormone arrival (b) Mode of coelom formation 5. Change in DNA (c) Presence of mesentery Code : (d) Time of fixation of embryonic fate of A B C D blastomeres (a) 5 2 4 1 UPPCS Pre 1998 (b) 4 3 2 5 Ans. (c) : Protostomes include all invertebrate except echinodermata and hemichordata, deuterostomes (c) 3 5 2 4 include chordata and echinodermata. The presence of (d) 3 4 1 5 mesentery in both is the common feature. UPPCS Pre 1998 161. Protein biosynthesis requires : Ans. (d) : The correct match of list given below (1) mRNA (2) Peptidyl transferase List–I List–II (3) Ribosomes (4) ATP Select your answer from the code given below : (a) Copper 3. Blood of Arthropods (a) 1 alone is correct (b) Cascade system 4. Cell surface reaction to (b) 1 and 3 are correct hormone arrival (c) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (c) Book gill 1. Limulus (d) All four are correct (d) Nonsense mutation 5. Change in DNA UPPCS Pre 1999 List–I

TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

List–II

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (d) : mRNA called messenger RNA worked in transforming the news. Its life span is very short. Peptidyl tranferase is the enzyme used in the elongation stage. Ribosome is the naked cell organelles involve in protein synthesis. A.T.P. is a highly energy rich molecule. 162. Which one of the following rules explains that the extremities such as tail, legs and horns of animals are shorter in colder climates. (a) Bergmann's rule (b) Gloger's rule (c) Jordan's rule (d) Allen's rule UPPCS Pre 1999 Ans. (d) : Allen's rule explains that the extremities such as tail, legs and horns of animals are shorter in colder clmates. • Bergmann's rule states that the organisms at higher attitude should be larger and thicker than those present near the equator. • Gloger's rule states that birds and mammals should be darker in humid and warm environments compared to colder and drier areas. • Jordan's rule states that the number of vertebrae n fishes increases with the latitude. 163. Which one of the following pair is correctly matched : (a) Leucosolenia - Demospongiae (b) Euplectella - Hyalospongiae (c) Hyalonema - Calcispongiae (d) Spongilla - Hyalospongiae UPPCS Pre 1999 Ans. (b) : The correct class of following animal given below Animal Class Euplectella Hyalospongiae Leucosolenia Calcispongiae Hyalonema Hylospongiae Spongilla Demospongiae 164. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer from the code given below the list : List-I List-II (a) Unio 1. Coelenterata (b) Aurelia 2. Mollusca (c) Asterias 3. Echinodermata (d) Ascaris 4. Nematoda Code : A B C D A B C D (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 1 3 4 (c) 3 1 2 4 (d) 4 3 2 1 UPPCS Pre 1999 Ans. (b) : The correct match of List given below List–I List II A. Unio Mollusca B. Aurelia Coelenterata C. Asterias Echinodermata D. Ascaris Nematoda TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

165. Which one of the following is not correctly matched : (a) Protostome - Arthropoda (b) Schizocoel - Echinodermata (c) Deuterostome - Hemichordata (d) Enterocoel - Hemichordata UPPCS Pre 1999 Ans. (b) : The correct match are given below– (a) Protostome Arthropoda (b) Schizocoel Annelida (c) Deuterostome Hemichordata (d) Enterocoel Hemichordata 166. In Unio the suprabranchial chamber communicates with exterior through : (a) mantle cavity (b) inhalent siphon (c) exhalent siphon (d) anus UPPCS Pre 1999 Ans. (c) : Unio is mostly filter feeding organism. Suprabranchial chamber communicate with exterior through exhalent siphon and infrabranchial chamber communicate with exterior through inhalent siphon. 167. Find out the correct matching from the following pairs. (a) Teredo - Shipworm (b) Balanus - Bonellia (c) Echiuroidea - Silverfish (d) Lepisma - Pterygota UPPCS Pre 1999 Ans. (a) : Teredo is commonly called shipworm due to very destructive nature of wood in sea water. Balanus – Barnacle Echiuroidea – It is an order of annelids in the class Polychaeta Lepisma – Silverfish. 168. Which one of the following is not correctly matched : (a) Sperm whale forelimbs as paddles (b) Sea-cow forelimbs as paddles (c) Sea-lion digits clawed and separate (d) Camel digits clawed and separate UPPCS Pre 1999 Ans. (c) : The correct match are given below (a) Sperm whale – Forelimbs as paddles (b) Sea-cow – Forelimbs as Paddles (c) Sea-lion – digits clawed are absent (d) Camel – digits clawed and separate Zalophus is commonly called Sea-lion. 169. The spinnerets of spider which secrete silken threads for making the web are situated : (a) anterior to the anus (b) in the mouth (c) on the chelicerae (d) on the pedipalp UPPCS Pre 1999

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (a) : Most spider spin a web to trap and capture Ans. (b) : The correct match of list-I and II given prey. The web is made of silk produced by spinneret below present just anterior to the terminal anus. List–I List–II 170. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct A. Testudo (ii) Chelonia answer from the code given below the list : B. Gavialis (i) Crocodilia List-I List-II C. Sphenodon (iv) Rhynchocephalia (a) Parthenogenesis 1. Axolotl larva D. Draco (iii) Squamata (b) Neoteny 2. Herdmania 173. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct (c) Blastokinesis 3. Butterfly answer from the code given below the list : (d) Retrogressive 4. Aphid List-I List-II metamorphosis (Animal Group) (Basic Special Feature) Code : A B C D A B C D (A) Annelida 1. Burrowing (a) 4 1 3 2 (b) 1 2 3 4 (B) Chordata 2. Terminal fission (c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 3 4 1 2 (C) Cestoda 3. Reproduction UPPCS Pre 1999 4. Swimming Ans. (a) : The correct match of list–I and II given below Code : List–I List–II A B C A B C A. Parthenogenesis Aphid (a) 1 2 3 (b) 4 2 1 B. Neoteny Axolotl larva (c) 1 4 3 (d) 3 1 4 C. Blastokinesis Butter fly UPPCS Pre 2002 D. Retrogressive Herdmania Ans. (c) : List-I List-II metamorphosis (Animal Group) (Basic Feature) 171. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct Annelida Burrowing answer from the code given below the list : Chordata Swimming List-I List-II Cestoda Reproduction (a) Parrot 1. Anseriformes 174. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct (b) Duck 2. Ciconiiformes answer from the code given below the list : (c) Heron 3. Psittaciformes List-I List-II (d) Eagle 4. Falconiformes (Structures) (Organs) Code : (a) Canal of Schlemm 1. Eye A B C D A B C D (b) Kupffer's cells 2. Liver (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 3 2 1 (c) Sertoli cells 3. Neuron (c) 2 4 1 3 (d) 3 1 2 4 (d) Nissl's granules 4. Testis UPPCS Pre 1999 Code : Ans. (d) : Correct match are given below A B C D A B C D List–I List–II (a) 1 2 4 3 (b) 2 3 1 4 (Bird) (Order) (c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 4 1 3 2 A. Parrot (iii) Psittaciformes UPPCS Pre 2002 B. Duck (i) Anseriformes UPPCS Pre 2008 C. Heron (ii) Ciconiiformes D. Eagle (iv) Falconiformes Ans. (a) : List–I List–II Canal of Schlemn Eye 172. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below the list : Kupffer's cells Liver List-I List-II Sertoli cells Testis (reptile) (order) Nissl's granules Neuron (a) Testudo 1. Crocodilia 175. Which one of the following is not an example of (b) Gavialis 2. Chelonia feed forward : (c) Sphenodon 3. squamata (a) Sucking reflex (d) Draco 4. Rhynchocephalia (b) Secretion of saliva in anticipation of food Code : A B C D A B C D (c) Release of insulin while the food is still in the (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 1 4 3 mouth or stomach (c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 4 3 1 2 (d) Migration of birds to warmer climates in winter UPPCS Pre 1999 UPPCS Pre 2002 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (a) : Sucking reflex is not the example of feed forward. Feed forward is a term which reacts to changes in its environment, usually to maintain some desired state of the system. 176. An important polymer of cell wall of bacteria is: (a) Chitin (b) Peptidoglycan (c) Cellulose (d) Xylon UPPCS Pre 2002 Ans. (b) : An important polymer of cell wall of bacteria is peptidoglycan. NAG (N-acetyl glucosamine) and NAM (N-acetyl muramic acid) also present in bacterial cell wall. Peptidoglycan hydrolases are produced by many bacteria, bacteriophages and eukaryotes. 177. The study or genetic improvement of human race is called : (a) Epigenesis (b) Eugenics (c) Craniology (d) Ethnology UPPCS Pre 1995 Ans. (b) : Branch of science which deals the study of genetic improvement of race called eugenics. Epigenesis is defined as the science of improving the internal well being of the human by improving the external factor of their environment. Craniology- Study of Skull Ethnology-Study of human behavior. 178. Combrows are the features present in : (a) Coelenterata (b) Platyhelminthes (c) Ctenophora (d) Nematoda UPPCS Pre 1995 Ans. (c) : Comb rows is the chracterstics feature of Ctenophora. Eight "Comb rows" of fused cillia arranged along the side of the animal. It is the locomotory organ in Ctenophores. 179. Match List-I with List-II and select your answer from the code given below : List-I List-II A. Giardia 1. Trematoda B. Heloderma 2. Flagellata C. Ostrea 3. Pelecypoda D. Schistosoma 4. Reptilia Code : A B C D A B C D (a) 1 3 2 4 (b) 2 4 3 1 (c) 4 2 1 3 (d) 4 3 2 1 UPPCS Pre 1995 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

Ans. (b) List-I List-II Animal Class Giardia – Flagellata Heloderma – Reptilia Ostrea – Pelecypoda Schistosoma – Trematoda 180. The larva of Balanoglossus is called : (a) Bipinnaria (b) Zoea (c) Pilidium (d) Tornaria UPPCS Pre 1995 Ans. (d) : Larva of Balanoglossus is tornaria, zoea is the larva of crustaceans. Bipinnaria is the first stage larva of starfish (Asterias) and is usually followed by a brachiolaria stage. 181. Branch of zoology dealing with the study of behaviour of animals is : (a) Ethology (b) Sociology (c) Ecology (d) Anthropology UPPCS Pre 1995 Ans. (a) : Ethology is the branch of science which deals with the study of behaviour of animals. Ecology is the study of organisms and how they interact with the environment around them. Sociology is the study of human social relationships and institutions. Anthropology is 'the science of humanity', concerned with human behavior, human biology, cultures, societies and linguistics. 182. Study of paleontology is associated with : (a) Primates (b) Birds (c) Fossils (d) Bones UPPCS Pre 1996 Ans. (c) : The branch of science which deals with the study of fossils know as palaeontology. Cuvier is father of paleontology. Study of birds is ornithology and bones is Osteology. Birbal Sahni is the father of Indian paleontology. 183. The material used in determining the age of fossil is : (a) Carbon (b) Radioactive carbon (c) Iodine (d) Sulphur UPPCS Pre 1996 Ans. (b) :Radioactive carbon (14C) method is accurate for relatively recent fossil. It was discovered by W.F. Libby. It's half life is 5730 years.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 184. Match List-I with List-II and select your correct 187. Tubercular and capitular facets parts of : answer from the code given below the lsit : (a) Vertebrae (b) Ribs List-I List-II (c) Radioulna (d) Tibiofibula A. Stentor 1. Ciliata UPPCS Pre 1996 B. Balantidium 2. Suctoria Ans. (b) : The vertebral part of ribs are bicephalous and articulate to thoracic vertebrae by two head. The C. Autotrophy 3. Heliozoa upper head called tuberculum articulate and lower D. Axopodia 4. Euglena head are capitulum articulate. Code : 188. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct A B C D A B C D answer from the code given below the list : (a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 1 2 3 4 List-I List-II (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 3 4 1 2 (a) Doris 1. Lug worm UPPCS Pre 1996 (b) Arenicola 2. Sea lemon Ans. (a) : (c) Dentalium 3. Root headed Stentor - Suctoria barnacle Balantidium - Ciliata (d) Sacculina 4. Tusk shell Autotrophy - Euglena 5. Ship barnacle Axopodia - Heliozoa Code : A B C D A B C D 185. Match List-I with List-II and select your correct answer from the code given below the list : (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 3 2 1 List-I List-II (c) 2 4 1 5 (d) 2 1 4 3 A. Ostia 1. Hydrozoa UPPCS Pre 2001 B. Nematocyst 2. Leucosolenia Ans. (d) : (a) Doris → Sea lemon C. Flame cells 3. Housefly (b) Arenicola → Lug worm D. Maggot 4. Fasciola (c) Dentalium → Tusk shell Code : (d) Sacculina → Root headed barnacle A B C D 189. In which of the following animal male is found (a) 1 2 3 4 in the female : (b) 3 4 1 2 (a) Bonellia (c) 2 1 4 3 (b) Schistosoma (d) 4 3 2 1 (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above UPPCS Pre 1996 UPPCS Pre 2001 Ans. (c) : Ans. (a) : In Bonellia male is found in the female. In Ostia - Leucosolenia Schistosoma female is found in male. Nematocyst - Hydrozoa 190. Which of the following is not a connecting link Flame cells - Fasciola between two phyla : Maggot - House fly (a) Archaeopteryx (b) Chameleon 186. Which of the following sets is mismatched : (c) Peripatus (d) Echidna (a) Spider, centipede, cockroach UPPCS Pre 2001 (b) Starfish, Sea cucumber, Sea urchin Ans. (b) : Archaeopteryx is a connecting link (c) Bat, Goat, Horse between reptiles and birds. Peripatus is a connecting (d) Cray fish, Cuttle fish, Hag fish link between phylum annelida and arthropoda. UPPCS Pre 1996 Echidna is a connecting link between reptiles and mammals. Ans. (d) : Chameleon is a reptile in the class Squamata and Animal Phylum family Chamaeleonidae. Spider, centipedes, cockroach Arthropoda 191. Which of the following animal is fossorial : Star fish, sea cucumber, sea urchin Echinodermata (a) Archaeopteryx Bat, Goat, Horse Chordata (b) Dodo Cray fish Arthropoda (c) Both (a) and (b) Cuttle fish Mollusca (d) None of the above Hag fish Chordata UPPCS Pre 2001 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (d) : A fossorial animal is one adapted to digging which lives primarily but not solely in underground. Examples – Mole, salamanders, naked mole-rats, beetles, wasps, bees, snakes etc. Archaeopteryx and Dodo are extinct birds which were not lived in burrows. 192. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer from the code given below the list : List-I List-II (A) Arius 1. Four eyed fish (B) Hippocampus 2. Mouth breeder (C) Gambusia 3. Sucker fish (D) Echeneis 4. Larvivorous fish (E) Anableps 5. Male broods the eggs Code : A B C D E (a) 2 5 4 3 1 (b) 1 2 3 4 5 (c) 2 5 3 4 1 (d) 5 4 3 2 1 UPPCS Pre 2001 Ans. (a) : (A) Arius (B) Hippocampus (C) Gambusia (D) Echeneis (E) Anableps

— Mouth breeder — Male broods the egg Larvivorous fish

— — Sucker fish — Four eyed fish

193. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer from the code given below the list : List-I List-II (a) Turner's syndrome 1. Autosomal syndrome (b) Down's syndrome 2. Sex syndrome (c) Proton defect 3. Vitamin deficiency (d) Scurvy 4. Sex linked character Code : A B C D (a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 2 3 4 1 (c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 4 3 2 1 UPPCS Pre 2004 Ans. (a) : The correct match of List-I and List-II is as follow. (List I) (List II) A. Turner syndrome Sex syndrome B. Down syndrome Autosomal syndrome C. Proton defect Sex linked character D. Scurvy Vitamin deficiency TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

194. Match list-I with list II and select the correct answer from the code given below the list : List-I List-II A. Reticulocytes 1. Clotting B. Vitamin K 2. RBC C. Ca++ ion 3. Bone marrow D. Erythropoiesis 4. Muscle contraction Code : A B C D (a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 1 4 2 4 (c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 4 2 3 1 UPPCS Pre 1997 Ans. (a) : (a) Reticulocytes → R.B.C. (b) Vitamin K → Clotting. (c) Ca++ ions → Muscle contraction. (d) Erythropoiesis → Bone marrow. 195. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer from the code given below the list : List-I List-II (a) Muller's organ 1. Sponges (b) Muller's larva 2. Vertebrates (c) Mullerian duct 3. Platyhelminthes 4. Branchiostoma Code:A B C A B C (a) 1 2 3 (b) 2 3 4 (c) 4 3 2 (d) 3 4 1 UPPCS Pre 2003 Ans. (c) List-I List-I A. Muller's organs 4. Branchiostoma B. Muller's larva 3. Platyhelminthes C. Mullerian duct 2. Vertebrate 196. The articulation of odontoid process of axis and atlas is an example of : (a) pivot joint (b) synovial joint (c) ball and socket joint (d) none of the above UPPCS Pre 2003 Ans. (a) : The odontoid process is a protuberance projection of the axis of cervical bone. The second vertebra of the spine is named the axis. The articulation of odontoid process of axis and atlas is an example of pivot joint. 197. Given:- 1. Tailless body 2. Lepospondylous vertebrae 3. Aspondylous vertebrae 4. Vertebral centrum preformed in cartilage Which combination of characters given above distinguishes living salientia from living urodela: (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4 UPPCS Pre 2003

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (c) : Salientia called Anura–Tail-less body, has aspondylous vertebrai, vertebral centrum preformed in cartilage. 198. The excitatory postsynaptic potential is produced due to an increased permeability of cell membrane to : (a) Na+ (b) K+ ‒ (c) Cl (d) Ca++ UPPCS Pre 2003 Ans. (a) : Postsynaptic potential are changes in the membrane potential of the postsynaptic terminal of a chemical synapse. The excitatory postsynaptic potential is produced due to an increased permeability of cell membrane to Na+. 199. Teratogenesis is a phenomenon in which : (a) differentiation does not take place (b) differentiation becomes disorderly (c) morphogenesis stops altogether (d) histogenesis ceases UPPCS Pre 2003 Ans. (b) : Teratogenesis is the disturbed growth process involved in the production of a malformed neonate. Teratogenesis is a phenomenon in which differentiation become disorderly. It is caused by malnutrition. 200. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists: List - I List- II A. Organisms multiply 1. Regeneration in geometric ratio B. Replacement of lost 2. Reconstitution part following autotomy C. Organisms multiply 3. Asexual reproduction by budding D. Formation of a new 4. Over production sponge body from disaggregated sponge Codes: A B C D A B C D (a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 3 1 4 3 (c) 4 1 3 2 (d) 5 2 3 1 UPPCS Pre 2008 Ans. (c) : List-I List-II 1. Organism multiply - Over Production in geometric ratio 2. Replacement of the - Regeneration lost part following autotomy 3. Organisms multiply - Asexual reproduction by budding 4. Formation of a new - Reconstitution sponge body from disaggregated sponge TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

201. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists : List - I List- II A. Tyrosine 1. Vitamin D B. Cyclic AMP 2. Thyroxin C. Ionic calcium 3. Calcitonin D. Hypocalcemia 4. Hormone action Codes : A B C D A B C D (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 3 1 4 2 (c) 2 4 1 3 (d) 4 1 3 2 UPPCS Pre 2008 Ans. (c) : List- I List-II 1. Tyrosine - Thyroxine 2. Cyclic AMP - Hormone action 3. Ionic calcium - Vitamin D 4. Hypocalcemia

- Calcitonin

202. The vertebrae in fishes are : (a) Procoelous type (b) Heterocoelous type (c) Amphicoelous type (d) Opisthocoelous type UPPCS Pre 2000 Ans. (c) : The vertebrae is fishes in Amphicoelous type. Amphicoelous vertebrae is a condition in which the central part of each vertebra (the centrum) is concave on both anterior and posterior side. 203. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer from the code given below the list : List-I List-II (a) Fishes (i) Single-Circulation (b) Amphibians (ii) Double Circulation (c) Reptiles (iii) Double Circulation (d) Birds (iv) Mixed Circulation Code : A B C D (a) 2 2 3 1 (b) 3 2 3 2 (c) 1 1 2 2 (d) 1 4 4 2 UPPCS Pre 2000 Ans. (d) : The correct match of list - I and List-II are given below: List–I List –II Animal Type of circulation Fishes Single-Circulation Amphibians Mixed Circulation Reptiles Mixed Circulation Birds Double Circulation

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 204. Melanin, which imparts dark colour to Ans. (c) : mammalian skin, is a derivative of : List-I List-II (a) Haemoglobin (b) Tyrosine A. Cysticercus – Platyhelminthes (c) Bile (d) Keratin B. Trochophore – Annelida UPPCS Pre 2000 C. Amphiblastula – Porifera Ans. (b) : Melanin which imparts dark colour to D. Planula – Coelenterata mammalian skin is a derivative of tyrosine amino acid which is also necessary for synthesis of thyroxine. 208. Which one of the following bones in the frog skull, is single (not paired)? 205. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer from the code given below the list : (a) Frontoparietal List-I List-II (b) Pro-otic (a) Hemostasis (i) Discharge of nematocysts (c) Parasphenoid (b) Homeostasis (ii) Cessation of bleeding (d) Premaxilla (c) Eutely (iii) Fibrinolysis UPPCS Pre 2007 (d) Plasmin (iv) Fibrinolysis Ans. (c) : Parasphenoid bones in the frog skull, is (v) Stability of milieu interieur single (not paired). Code : The parasphenoid bone in frogs is situated beneath the A B C D A B C D sphenoid at the base of the skull. This is flattened, inverted T-shaped bone. (a) 2 5 1 4 (b) 1 4 3 5 (c) 2 5 3 4 (d) 3 4 2 5 209. Which of the following sets of bones are membrane bones? UPPCS Pre 2000 (a) Clavicle, scapula and femur Ans. (a) : The correct match are given below : (b) Parietal, dentary, clavicle and scapula List-I List-II (c) Parietal, dentary and vertebrae Hemostasis - Cessation of bleeding (d) Humerus, vertebrae and pelvic girdle Homeostasis - Stability of milieu interieur UPPCS Pre 2007 Eutely - Discharge of nematocysts Plasmin - Fibrinolysis Ans. (c) : Parietal, dentary and vertebrae sets of 206. In which of the following, female lives in the bones are membranous bones. male ? Membranous bone (dermal bone) formed directly in connective tissue, i.e. by intramembranous (a) Schistosoma only ossification, rather than by replacing cartilage. (b) Bonellia only 210. The most remarkable feature of parasites, (c) Both in Schistosoma and Bonellia responsible for their propagation, is : (d) None of the above (a) well developed suckers UPPCS Pre 2007 (b) complex excretory organs Ans. (a) : In Schistosoma adult female worm resides (c) advanced digestive system (live) within the adult male worm's gynaecophoric canal, which is a modification of ventral surface of the (d) complicated reproductive system with male, forming a groove. immense capacity for egg production. In the case of Bonellia male lives in the body of UPPCS Pre 2007 female. Ans. (d) : The most remarkable feature of parasites, 207. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct responsible for their propagation is complicated answer by using the appropriate code given reproductive system with immense capacity for egg below : production. List-I List-II 211. Nails, horns, hoofs are derived from : A. Cysticercus 1. Annelida (a) Cartilage B. Trochophore 2. Porifera (b) Bone C. Amphiblastula 3. Coelenterata (c) Keratin D. Planula 4. Platyhelminthes (d) Connective tissue Code : UPPCS Pre 1994 A B C D A B C D Ans. (c) : Nails are made up of keratin. Keratin is a (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 3 2 1 protein produced naturally in your body. Animals like (c) 4 1 2 3 (d) 2 3 4 1 horses, cattle and pigs have hard hooves made of UPPCS Pre 2007 keratin. Animal horns are made of keratin too. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 212. Which fish or fish like animal bears suctorial 216. Tornaria larva is related to : mouth-parts with goofy teeth and no jaws : (a) Neanthes (a) shark (b) Prawn (b) dolphin (c) Balanoglossus (c) cyclostomes (d) Asterias (d) whale UPPCS Pre 2006 UPPCS Pre 1994 Ans. (c) : Ans. (c) : Cyclostomes bears suctorial mouth part Name of Animal Larval stage is found with horny teeth but jaws are absent. (a) Neanthes (Nereis) Trochophore larva Cyclostomata is a group of vertebrates that comprises (b) Prawn No larval stage is found the living jawless fishes. e.g. - lampreys and hagfishes. (c) Balanoglossus Tornaria larva 213. Following ion is a cofactor for carbonic anhydrase: (d) Asterias (star fish) Bipinnaria larva (b) Zn++ (a) Mg++ 217. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct (c) Cu++ (d) Fe++ answer by using the appropriate codes given below : UPPCS Pre 1994 ++ List-I List-II Ans. (b) : Zn is a cofactor for carbonic anhydrase. A. Heliopora 1. Black coral For some chemical reaction a substance other than enzyme and substrate are necessary. These substance B. Antipathes 2. eye worm are called cofactor or coenzyme. C. Enterobius 3. blue coral 214. Example of cloning in nature is : D. Loa 4. hair worm (a) blastogenesis E. Teredo 5. pin worm (b) parthenogenesis F. Eunice 6. palolo worm (c) binary fission 7. sun-animalcule (d) sexual reproduction 8. ship worm UPPCS Pre 2006 Code : Ans. (c) : A haploid cell make haploid individual A B C D E F called cloning. Blastogenesis asexually produce (a) 1 3 5 7 6 8 sexual individual. Egg activated by some agent other (b) 2 4 6 8 1 3 than sperm is known as parthenogenesis. Haploid (c) 3 7 4 1 8 6 cell make haploid individual by binary fission male (d) 3 1 5 2 8 6 and female gamete produce haploid individual. UPPCS Pre 2006 215. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below : Ans. (d) : The correct match of List I and List II : List-I List-II A. Heliopora – Blue coral A. Taenia saginata 1. Limulus B. Antipathes – Black coral B. Pristis 2. Glass rope sponge C. Enterobius – Pin worm C. King Crab 3. beef tapeworm D. Loa – Eye worm D. Hyalonema 4. Saw fish E. Teredo – Ship worm Code : F. Eunice – Palolo worm A B C D 218. The larva of polychaetes is : (a) 4 1 3 2 (a) Glochidium (b) 2 4 1 3 (b) Trochophore (c) 2 1 4 3 (c) Tornaria (d) 3 4 1 2 (d) Bipinnaria UPPCS Pre 2006 UPPCS Pre 2006 Ans. (d) : The correct match of List I and List II. Ans. (b) : List I List II Type of larva Class Example A. Taenia saginata – Beef tapeworm Glochidium larva Bivalvia Unio B. Pristis – Saw fish Trochophore larva Polychaetes Nereis C. King Crab – Limulus Tornaria Hemichordata Balanoglossus D. Hyalonema – Glass rope sponge Bipinnaria Asteroidea Starfish TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 219. Match list-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the appropriate code given below: List-I List-II A. Didelphis 1. Duck-billed platypus B. Ornithorhynchus 2. Koala bear C. Phascolarctus 3. Opossum D. Tachyglossus 4. Spiny ant-eater Code : A B C D (a) 1 3 4 2 (b) 2 4 1 3 (c) 3 1 2 4 (d) 4 2 3 1 UPPCS Pre 2006 Ans. (c) : The correct match of List I and List II. List I List II A. Didelphis – Opossum B. Ornithorhynchus – Duck-billed platypus C. Phascolarctus – Koala bear D. Tachyglossus – Spiny ant eater 220. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the appropriate code given below: List-I List-II A. Proteomics 1. rhythmic activity B. Chronobiology 2. complete muscle starvation C. Ischaemia 3. expressed proteins D. Infarction 4. partial muscle starvation Code : A B C D A B C D (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 3 1 4 2 (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 2 4 1 3 UPPCS Pre 2006 Ans. (b) : The correct match of List I and List II : List I List II A. Proteomics – expressed proteins B. Chronobiology – rhythmic activity C. Ischaemia – partial muscle starvation D. Infarction – complete muscle starvation 221. Which food fish of Uttar Pradesh is without fish bones? (a) Labeo rohita (b) Catla catla (c) Wallago attu (d) Cirrhinus mrigala UPPCS Pre 2007 Ans. (c) : Wallago attu fish is a food fish of Uttar Pradesh. In this fish scales and bones are not found. Wallago attu is a freshwater catfish of the family siluridae, native to south and Southeast Asia. It is commonly called helicopter catfish or wallago catfish. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

222. The pecten occurs in all the birds except in : (a) Columba (b) Milvus (c) Apteryx (d) Penguin UPPCS Pre 2010 Ans. (c) : The pecten occurs in all the birds except in Apteryx. It is nocturnal flightless bird of New Zealand having a long neck and stout legs. It is only surviving representative of the order Apterygiformes. Apteryx is commonly know as kiwi. 223. Pecten is absent in which bird? (a) Pigeon (b) Kiwi (c) Peacock (d) Crow LT Biology 2015 Ans. (b) : Pecten is absent in Kiwi. The structure of pecten is like a comb. For further explanation see the above question. 224. Which one of the following food fishes is cultivated in Uttar Pradesh although it is native of India? (a) Hypophthalmichthys molitrix (b) Clarias batrachus (c) Labeo rohita (d) Channa punctatus PGT Biology 2010 Ans. (a) : Hypophthalmichthys molitrix is a food fish which is cultivated in Uttar Pradesh although it is native of India. Hypophthalmichthys molitrix is also known as silver carp fish. It is a species of freshwater cyprinid fish, a variety of Asian carp native to China and eastern Siberia from the Amur River. 225. Pinctada vulgaris is : (a) Cat fish (b) a snail (c) Pearl oyster (d) Precious coral PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (c) : Pinctada vulgaris is pearl oyster. It is a genus of saltwater oyster, marine bivalve mollusks in the family Pteriidae. It is also known as "Mother of pearl". 226. Which one is a true fish? (a) Whale (b) Cuttle fish (c) Silver fish (d) Flying fish PGT Biology 2010, 2013 Ans. (d) : Flying fish (Exocoetidae) is a true fish while the others are false fish. Whale is a mammal, cuttle fish is a mollusc and silver fish is an arthropod.

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 227. Which is true fish? (a) Cat fish (c) Cuttle fish

232. Indian Lac Research Institute is situated in (b) Jelly fish (a) Ranchi (d) Silver fish (b) Mysore PGT Biology 2005 (c) Dehradun (d) Nagpur Ans. (a) : Cat fish (Siluriformes) is a true fish while jelly fish is a coelenterate. PGT Biology 2010 See the explanation of the above question. Ans. (a) : Indian Lac Research Institute is situated in

228. Which of the following viral diseases found in Ranchi (Namkun), Jharkhand. domestic animals– 233. Among the following, parthenogenesis is found in: (a) Tuberculosis (a) Moth (b) Spider (b) Jaundice (c) Butterfly (d) Honeybee (c) Pneumonia PGT Biology 2009 (d) None of these Ans. (d) : Parthenogenesis is found in honey bee. TGT Biology 2002 Parthenogenesis is a reproductive strategy that involves Ans. (d) : Tuberculosis (TB) is a serious infectious development of a female (rarely a male) gamete (sex bacterial disease caused by Mycobacterium cell without fertilization). tuberculosis that mainly affects the lungs. It is spread Example – Invertebrate animals (particularly-rotifers, by persons coughs or sneezes. aphids, ants, wasps and bees) and lower plants. It was discovered by a German Scientist Robert Koch in 1882. Pneumonia is an infection of air sac in one or 234. Pebrine disease occurs in: (a) Lac insects both lungs caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae. (b) Silk-worm Jaundice is the yellowing of the skin caused by the build-up of bilirubin in the blood. (c) Chicken (d) Honey-bees 229. Termites digest wood with the help of an enzyme secreted by the PGT Biology 2004 (a) salivary glands Ans. (b) : Pebrine disease occurs in silk-worm. It is (b) cells in the mid-gut caused by protozoan microsporidian parasites mainly Nosema bombycis. It is also known as a pepper disease. (c) symbiotic protozoa The parasite's infect eggs and are therefore transmitted (d) bacteria and fungi outside the body to the next generation. UPPCS Pre 1994 235. ‘Ranikhet’ disease is associated with : Ans. (c) : Termites digest wood with the help of an (a) Poultry enzyme secreted by the symbiotic protozoa called (b) Honey bees Trichonympha. (c) Silk moth 230. 'Gundhi bug' is a pest of : (d) Cattles (a) Cotton (b) Paddy PGT Biology 2011 (c) Tobacco (d) Brinjal UPPCS Pre 1997 Ans. (a) : Ranikhet disease is associated with poultry. It is also known as Newcastle disease and is a contagious Ans. (b) : Gundhi bug (Leptocorisa varicornis) is pest and highly fatal diseases of fowls. It is caused by a of paddy. Paramyxovirus of the genus Rubella virus. It affects the Spotted boll worm is pest of cotton. respiratory and nervous systems etc. Tobacco flea beetle is a pest of tobacco. 236. The only mammal, other than man, which Leucinodes orbonalis (brinjal fruit & shoot borer) is a suffers from leprosy is : serious pest of brinjal. (a) Rhinolophus (b) Desmodus 231. Largest silk-producing state of India is : (c) Dasypus (d) Mus (a) Karnataka (b) Bihar UPPCS Pre 2000 (c) Assam (d) Bengal Ans. (c) Leprosy is also known as Hansen's disease. TGT Biology 2005 Dasypus novemcinctus primitive mammal can also be infected with Mycobacterium leprae. The bacterium Ans. (a) : Largest silk producing state of India is mainly infects on the cooler tissues, the foot pads. Karnataka. It produces about 70% of silk in India. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 237. Who is famous as ‘Birdman’ of India? (a) P. Maheshwari (b) M. S. Swaminathan (c) Salim Ali (d) Birbal Sahni PGT Biology 2011 Ans. (c) : Salim Ali is famous as "Birdman" of India. He was an Indian ornithologist, naturalist. He was the first Indian to conduct systematic birds surveys across India and wrote several books related to birds.

Ans. (a) : DNA fingerprint cannot be prepared from RBC , while DNA finger print can be prepared from W.B.C., sperm and inner lining of cheek. DNA fingerprint is a technique that simultaneously detects lots of minisatellites in the genome to produce a pattern unique to an individual. 242. Merkel's discs are tactile receptors of : (a) dog fish (b) frog (c) lizard (d) man UPPCS Pre 2004

238. The Cilia of the two wheel organs of rotifers beat: (a) clockwise (b) anticlockwise (c) first clockwise and then anticlockwise (d) opposite to each other UPPCS Pre 2002 Ans. (d) : The epithelial lining of oral hood forms 6 to 8 pairs of finger-like folds, each formed by a ciliated groove bounded by a ciliated ridge. Collectively these are called as wheel organs or Muller's organs. Organs beat opposite to each other. In rotifers the cilia of wheel organ set up a vertex or whirling water current to sweep food organism into mouth. 239. A disulphide bond is not found in (a) calcitonin (b) vasopressin (c) glucagon (d) oxytocin UPPCS Pre 2010

Ans. (d) : Merkel's discs are tactile receptor of manpresent in the epidermis of non hairy skin and it is shallow cup shaped disc. Merkel's cells are very close to the nerve ending that receive the sensation of touch and may be involved in touch. The Merkel disc has high tactile acuity for an objects physical features, such as shape, texture and edges. 243. Hair in mammals are derivatives of– (a) Dermis (b) Mesodermis (c) Epidermis (d) Endodermis TGT Biology 2002 Ans. (c) : Hair in mammals are derivatives of epidermis. Many mammals possess epidermal scales, except in the scaly ant-eater and armadillos in which the scales remain confined in tail and paws.

Ans. (c) : A disulphide bond is not found in glucagon while it is found in calcitonin, vasopressin and oxytocin. A disulfide refers to a functional group with the 244. Sympatric species are those : structure R-S-S-R. Disulfide bond formation generally (a) Which occupy same geographic area occurs in the endoplasmic reticulum by oxidation. (b) Which occupy different geographic areas 240. Syphilis, a sexually transmitted disease is caused (c) Which contain two or more subspecies by: (d) Which has a single subspecies (a) Leptospira PGT Biology 2004 (b) Pasteurella Ans. (a) : Sympatric species are two related species or (c) Treponema populations exist in the same geographic area and (d) Vibrio frequently encounter one another. The process is called Navoday Vidyalay PGT Biology 2014 sympatric speciation and it is seen in bacteria, Cichlid Ans: (c) Syphilis is a sexually transmitted disease is fish and the apple maggot fly. caused by Treponema pallidum. Symptoms may include rashes or ulcers of the skin, vaginal discharge, fatigue, 245. Which among the following is a post zygotic isolating mechanism : itching, swollen lymph nodes or weight loss, rectal (a) Ethological isolation lining inflammation, sore throat. (b) Gametic isolation 241. DNA finger print cannot be prepared from : (c) Hybrid sterility (a) R.B.C (d) Geographical isolation (b) W.B.C UPPCS Pre 1995 (c) Sperm (d) Inner lining of cheek UPPCS Pre 2008 TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Ans. (c) Postzygotic isolation mechanism include hybrid inviability, hybrid sterility and hybrid 'break down'. YCT

Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 246. In which Zoogeographical realm India and 250. Consider the following statements: Pakistan are included ? 1. All fishes lay eggs. (a) Oriental 2. All birds do not fly. (b) Neotropical 3. All lizards are poisonous. (c) Nearctic 4. None of the mammal is poisonous. (d) Ethiopian 5. Poison of viper is neurotoxic. TGT Biology 1999 Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only 1 and 2 are correct Ans. (a) : India and Pakistan are included in the Oriental Zoogeographical realm. (b) Only 2 is correct Zoogeographical realm can be defined as the region which (c) Only 2, 3 and 4 are correct is demarcated based on fauna's existence or absence. (d) Only 2 and 5 are correct 5-main Zoogeographical Realms of animalsLT Biology 2018 1. The Holarctic Realm 2. The Ethiopian Realm Ans. (b) : The correct statement is - all birds do not 3. The Oriental Realm 4. The Neo-Tropical Realm fly e.g. - Ostrich and kiwi etc. 5. The Australian Realm All fishes does not lay egg as-Guppies, Endler's live bearer and mosquito fish. 247. The geological age of a rock is determined by : All lizard are non-poisonous-except Heloderma (Gila (a) The fossil flora and fauna monster). (b) Chemical composition of the rocks Poison of viper is not neurotoxic but hemotoxic. (c) Radiometric dating (d) spectroscopic data PGT Biology 2004 Ans. (c) : The geological age of a rock is determined by radiometric dating. It is a technique which is used to date materials such as rocks or carbon, in which trace radioactive impurities were selectively incorporated when they were formed. 248. Keratin in not found in the epidermis of (a) fish (b) reptile (c) bird (d) mammal LT Biology 2018 Ans. (a) : Keratin is not found in the epidermis of fish while it is found in the epidermis of reptiles, birds and mammals. It is a type of protein. Keratin is one of a fibrous proteins also called scleroproteins. It is the key structural material of hairs, nails, scales, horns, claws, feathers etc.

251. Which of the following is not correctly matched? (a) Unsegmented pseudocoelomate animal– Nematoda (b) Unsegmented acoelomate animal– Platyhelminthes (c) Metameric coelomate animal–Annelida (d) Metameric haemocoelomate animal–Mollusca LT Biology 2018 Ans. (d) : Correct match are– Unsegmented pseudocoelomate animal – Nematoda Unsegmenteda coelomate animal – Platyhelminthes Metameric coelomate animal

– Annelida

Metameric Segmentation is absent in Mollusca 252. Which one of the following is hyperparasite? (a) Xenopsylla (b) Sacculina (c) Yersinia pestis (d) Pediculus LT Biology 2018 Ans. (c) : Yersinia pestis is an example of the hyperparasite. Yersinia pestis is a gram-negative, non-motile coccobacillus bacterium without spores that is related to both Yersinia pseudo-tuberculosis and Yersinia enterocolitica.

249. Pseudocoelom is the condition when : (a) there is no coelomic cavity (b) coelomic cavity is lined by mesoderm (c) coelomic cavity is not lined by mesoderm (d) coelomic cavity is filled with muscles 253. Who discovered the fossil of Archaeopteryx? LT Biology 2018 (a) Andreas Wagner Ans. (c) : Pseudocoelom is the condition when the (b) Cuvier coelomic cavity is not lined by mesoderm. The (c) Galton pseudocoelom is a fluid filled body cavity lying inside (d) Linnaeus Carl the external body wall including the alimentary canal LT Biology 2018 and the reproductive system. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf Ans. (a) : Andreas Wagner discovered the fossil of Archaeopteryx in 1861 in Solnhofen (Bawaria Germany). Archaeopteryx is the connecting link between birds and reptiles.

259. After vaccination the body builds up : (a) Toxins (b) Antibodies (c) Lymph (d) Plasma LT Biology 2015

254. Radial symmetry is generally exhibited by animals: Ans. (b) : After vaccination the body builds up (a) Which are aquatic antibodies. It is also known as Immunoglobulin. It is (b) Which are attached with substratum a protective protein produced by the immune system in response to the presence of a foreign substance i.e. (c) Which have ciliary feeding bacteria and viruses. (d) Which have only one opening in the alimentary canal 260. Rickets is related to the vitamin (a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin D LT Biology 2015 (c) Ascorbic acid (d) Thiamine Ans. (d) : Radial symmetry is generally exhibited by animals which have only one opening in the LT Biology 2015 alimentary canal. Ans. (b) : Rickets is related to the vitamin D. Vitamin Radial symmetry is the arrangement of body parts D is soluble in fat. It has 2 forms - ergocalciferol and around a central axis as in starfish. cholecalciferol. It's deficiency causes osteomalacia. 255. The post orbital and squamosal bones meet 261. The vampire bats feed on : above the temporal fossa in : (a) Fruits (b) Vegetables (a) Anapsida (b) Synapsida (c) Blood (d) Insects (c) Parapsida (d) Diapsida LT Biology 2015 LT Biology 2015 Ans. (c) : The vampire bats feeds on blood, called Ans. (b) : The post orbital and squamosal bones meet hematophagy. It is a species of the subfamily above the temporal fossa in Synapsida. Desmodontinae are leaf-nosed bats found in Central 256. Anadromous fishes are those which migrate and South America. from the : 262. Amniotes include : (a) sea to river (b) river to sea (a) Reptile and birds only (c) river to river (d) sea to sea (b) Birds and mammals only LT Biology 2015 (c) Reptiles and mammals only Ans. (a) : Anadromous fishes are those which migrate from the sea to river. They lives their lives in saltwater and migrate to freshwater (lake, river) to spawn. Ex- Salmon fish & Sturgeon.

(d) Reptiles, birds and mammals LT Biology 2015 Ans. (d) : Amniotes are distinguished by a membrane protecting the embryo and lack of a larval stage. It is a group of tetrapods comprised of sauropsids and synapsids. Amniotes includes reptiles, birds & mammals.

257. The teeth are replaced by a horny beak in : (a) Rhynchocephalia (b) Squamata (c) Chelonia 263. Cloacal sac is found in : (d) Crocodilia (a) Amphibians LT Biology 2015 (b) Reptiles (c) Lungs fishes Ans. (c) : The teeth are replaced by a horny beak in Chelonia. (d) Teleosts 258. Which of the following immuno-globulin LT Biology 2015 molecules is largest? Ans. (a, b) : Cloacal sac is found in amphibians, (a) Ig A (b) Ig M reptiles, birds, elasmobranch fishes and monotremes. (c) Ig D (d) Ig E The cloaca or cloacal sac is a common space that LT Biology 2015 collects the waste and opens into the outside of the body. Ans. (b) : IgM is the largest immuno-globin It serves as the only opening for the digestive, molecules. IgM serves as the firstline of host defense reproductive and urinary tract of many vertebrate against infections and immune regulation and animals. immunological tolerance. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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Telegram :- @Rexstar_Pdf 264. The Koala bear is a : (a) Marsupial (b) Bear of high mountains (c) Bear of polar region (d) Brown bear

Ans. (c) : When a person has appendicitis, his blood shows an increase in white blood corpuscles (WBCs). Appendicitis is a condition in which the appendix becomes inflamed and filled with pus, causing pain Symptoms may include-mild or severe pain in the abdomen, fever, loss of appetite, nausea, diarrhoea, LT Biology 2015 vomiting etc. Ans. (a) : The Koala bear is a marsupial animal which 269. We are living today in the geological era called is a herbivorous, lives on the trees and found in (a) Azoic Australia. (b) Paleozoic 265. Prairie dog is a : (c) Cenozoic (a) Bird (d) Mesozoic (b) Squirrel LT Biology 2015 (c) Reptile Ans. (c) : We are living today in the geological era (d) Insect called Cenozoic era. It is from 66 million years ago LT Biology 2015 (mya) until today. Cenozoic era is divided into 3 periods the Paleogene (66 million to 23 mya), the Neogene (23 Ans. (b) : Prairie dog is a squirrel. They are mya to 2.6 mya), and the Quaternary period (2.6 mya to herbivorous burrowing rodents native to the present). grasslands of North America. It barks like a dog when it is afraid of danger. 270. In birds gizzard is used for : 266. Which of the following animal is Euryhaline ? (a) Chewing food (a) Fresh water Tadpole (b) Storing food (b) Fairy shrimp, Artemia (c) Grinding food (c) Anguilla (d) Digesting food (d) Shore crab, Carcinus LT Biology 2015 LT Biology 2015 Ans. (c) : In birds gizzard is used for grinding food. Gizzard is found in the gastro intestinal tract in the Ans. (d) : Euryhaline organisms are able to adapt to a birds. wide range of salinities. E.g. - shore crab, carcinus, salmon, common molly, 271. Silk is made from : green sea urchin etc. (a) Larva's salivary glands 267. Oysters, clams and mussels all belong to : (a) Gastropoda (b) Bivalvia (c) Cephalopoda (d) Polyplacophora LT Biology 2018 Ans. (b) : Oysters, clams and mussels all belong to Bivalvia. Bivalvia was also called as the Pelecypoda and Lamellibranchia in previous centuries. It is a class of marine and freshwater molluscs that have laterally compressed bodies enclosed by a shell consisting of two hinged parts.

(b) Adult's salivary glands (c) Larva's epidermis (d) Adult's epidermis LT Biology 2015 Ans. (a) : Silk is made from Larva's salivary gland. It is made up of natural proteins. This protein may be usually fibrin. The best known silk is obtained from the cocoons of the larvae of the mulberry silkworm Bombyx mori.

272. Allopatric species are : (a) always reproductively isolated (b) only sometimes reproductively isolated (c) always geographically isolated 268. When a person has appendicitis, his blood (d) not always geographically isolated shows an increase in : UPPCS Pre 2003 (a) enzymes Ans. (c) : Allopatric species are always geographically (b) platelets isolated species. It refers to the speciation that (c) White blood corpuscles occurred between two populations of the same species (d) red blood corpuscles that had become isolated from each other due to LT Biology 2015 geographical barriers. TGT PGT Zoology Plannar

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